I took a Balance Transfer in the amount of {$15000.00} on XXXX/XXXX/2015 on my Barclay UPROMISE by Sallie Mae Mastercard. The starting balance before the transfer was {$0.00}. 
The minimum payment each month was between $ XXXX {$150.00}. In the following month ( XXXX/XXXX/2015 ), I made a merchandise payment of XXXX It is my understanding that under the " CARD ACT '' any payments that I make should first get applied to my highest APR component of balance. Unfortunately, it does n't seem like Barclay is complying with this rule and is continuing to charge me interest on that XXXX I made the following XXXX payments after the merchandise purchase XX/XX/XXXX:XX/XX/2015 $ XXXXXX/XX/2015 $ XXXXXX/XX/2015 $ XXXXAnyone of these payments should have covered the XXXX merchandise with a non-zero APR. But Barclay continues to charge me interest on that XXXX purchase. 
I have spoken to XXXX different agents including a supervisor, and I got XXXX different answers. The supervisor stated that they have the right to allocate the minimum payment any which way they want. Only payments above the minimum payment will be allocated to the highest interest rate first. Under this theory, if I had made a payment of $ XXXX $ XXXX {$230.00} then there would have been no finance charges. But their statement has a paragraph that says I had to pay over {$380.00} to avoid interest!!! That 's deceitful! 
Their statement is confusing and makes no sense. It should have told me the right dollar amount to pay in order to avoid interest. I could have paid the $ XXXXI just want to know what is the correct $ $ to pay to avoid interest and no one seems to know at Barcalys!!! 
