I usually take advantage of 0 % offers provided to me by multiple cards I own/have. Briefly, these offers provide 0 % interest for a fixed period ( 1 to 3 years ) for a small transaction fee ( 1 % to 3 % ), at which time the banks usually allow me to roll over the balances forward, if desired, for another small fee, by providing balance transfer offers/access checks etc. As a result, at certain times, I carry more than one 0 % promotional balance on the same card. I usually make payments in excess of the minimum, which are applied toward the balances expiring first, as banks understand that I paid a nominal fee to roll the balances forward. Payments are supposed to be applied to the balances with the highest APR ; and balances expiring first, even though at 0 % presently, would have the highest APR over the same period going forward, so payments are applied to balances expiring first, as per the credit card act. 
I have a 0 % promotional balance ( with a 3 % transaction fee ), as explained above, that was initiated a long time ago, that is expiring this year ( XXXX ) on the " XXXX '' issued by " Barclays Bank Plc ''. This card has a XXXX $ credit line, out of which XXXX $ ( about two-thirds ) is still outstanding, and the rest was paid over this period. This card recently sent me access checks and emails allowing me to transfer balances into my checking account by offering a 0 % promotion till XXXX for a 1 % transaction fee. I accepted the offer by transferring XXXX $ for a XXXX $ fee, and immediately made a big payment back to the bank ( approx {$2200.00} ) in order to pay off the promotional balance expiring this year, so as to avoid interest. My payment should have been applied to the balance expiring first, i.e. to the {$4600.00} outstanding expiring in XXXX. Instead, the bank is saying it has the authority to decide how payments will be applied, as all balances are at the 0 % rate, even though I paid a fee to the bank for essentially rolling the balance forward. 
I have made similar transactions with other big banks such as XXXX and XXXX XXXX, but Barclays is trying to cheat me by trying to charge me frivolous transaction fees to transfer balances, and still not applying the payment to the expiring balance after payment was made to them. Also, Barclays Bank is taking advantage of consumers like me, by giving me a 0 % promotional rate, albeit for a fee, and not applying payments correctly, in order to extort interest out of me at an exorbitant rate ( over 20 % ), even though I paid the transaction fees and made payments in excess of the minimum. 
