In a previous complaint, XXXX against XXXX XXXX XXXX, I presented the fact that Wells Fargo does not own the loan for my house. It is XXXX XXXX who owns the loan, and thus -is the only one who has standing to participate in foreclosure proceedings. 

According to the XXXX XXXX website, my loan dates from XX/XX/XXXX. 

California has rules for loans made between XX/XX/XXXX and XX/XX/XXXX on Residential XXXX to XXXX Unit-Owner Occupied Properties. My house at XXXX XXXX XXXX fits all these requirements. Loan made in XX/XX/XXXX, XXXX unit and owner occupied. 

Under Cal.Civ. Code sec.2923.5 ( a ) the lender must contact the borrower by phone or in person to assess the borrower 's financial situation and explore options for avoiding foreclosure .During the conversation, the lender must inform the borrower of the right to meet with the lender within 14 days. The lender must also give the borrower the toll-free number for finding a HUD-certified housing counseling agency. 

The owner of my loan XXXX XXXX is the lender. XXXX XXXX has never even spoken to me. XXXX XXXX has not fulfilled any of the requirements of section 2923.5 ( a ). 

In the XX/XX/XXXX case, XXXX v. XXXX XXXX, the court held that the borrower is entitled to relief to postpone a foreclosure sale if the lender does not comply with this law. 

I received a letter from Wells Fargo dated XX/XX/XXXX. It states, " We 're writing to let you know that your mortgage is currently in foreclosure. '' The letter makes NO mention of the loan 's owner and lender, XXXX XXXX. 

How can :1. My loan be currently in foreclosure when Wells Fargo is not the owner of the loan, and not the lender? 
2. My loan be currently in foreclosure when XXXX XXXX, the owner of the loan and the lender, has not complied with sec. 2923.5 ( a )? 
