On XXXX XXXX, 2015, I had just one face-to-face conversation ( wherein I did provide taxes & some other financial documentation ) with XXXX, a loan officer from Wells Fargo in XXXX, Washington to obtain his professional opinion of my debt-to-income ratio for a desired refinance of my primary residence. I clearly stated I did not want to move forward in any other way until he had looked through the docs & could be reasonably sure my scenario could meet their DTI requirements. He was told I did not want my credit pulled as it had just been pulled by an incompetent loan officer in XX/XX/XXXX & I did not want damage to my credit scores by multiple credit inquiries. On XXXX XXXX, I received my " notice to the home loan applicant '', and it was the only knowledge I had of this LO pulling my credit -- he DID NOT ask permission on XXXX XXXX, the date he pulled it. He was never given written OR verbal authorization to do so. They have no documentation of any sort signed by me in connection with this proposed loan -- no XXXX ( I never filled one out ) or any other disclosures, and certainly no authorization to pull credit. 
TO NOTE : From the time of the aforementioned credit pull in XX/XX/XXXX, my XXXX score dropped from XXXX to XXXX. I contacted their escalation department & spoke with XXXX who " investigated '' & called me on XXXX XXXX to tell me it " seems like a he-said-she-said situation '' and that he could do nothing. I said I had an emails wherein I questioned LO about why he had pulled my credit ( as well as why I was getting no contact or proper communication from him on any level ), and he asked me to send those to him. To my dismay, on XXXX XXXX he replied in part : " I 'm compelled to say that I think we do n't have enough information that it was understood that your credit would be pulled. Your email did n't state anything in regards to not telling the HMC to pull your credit. Unfortunately we will not be able to have the credit pull removed from your credit report ''. 
Being a former loan officer myself ( from XX/XX/XXXX-XX/XX/XXXX ), I am shocked that a financial institution has the right to intimate that I have to tell them NOT to pull ( which I did! ) or that ( perhaps any ) consumer would/should simply " understand '' their credit would be pulled! I ALWAYS GOT SIGNED AUTHORIZATION from my consumers! I 'm further shocked that this loan officer can just ( apparently ) say I gave him verbal authorization?! And XXXX stated in our phone conversation on XXXX XXXX that me providing some documentation ( again, never filling out an application NOR signing the authorization to pull credit! ) was considered by them as me " understanding that my credit would be pulled '' .... 
Can you please help me? It 's a real matter of principal for me. 
