I bought my house in XX/XX/XXXX for {$82000.00}, refinanced to lock in a fixed interest rate in XX/XX/XXXX. Was defrauded. Falsified documents filed. XXXX payment allegedly missed, but I was not notified until almost FOUR YEARS later, by then I had a lot of late fees. I did a " quick and easy loan modification, that put my home into foreclosure, even though XXXX indicated that they were ONLY moving the payment to the end of the loan. They said they were required to revert my loan back to 30 years AGAIN, even though they assured me this would not happen. Then, XXXX went under, Loan went to Countrywide and XXXX delinquent payment showed up again. Another loan modification, another 30 year term. The ONLY payments I have EVER missed are the ones I was REQUIRED to miss to qualify for the loan mod. As it stands now, I have lived in my home 17 years and owe {$4500.00} more than I did at the beginning, I have lost almost {$160000.00} in payments, AND my loan term is now 44 YEARS. 

How can this be correct? Bank of America who now owns my mortgage was just fined almost {$17.00} XXXX dollars for fraud. I am wondering WHY what they did to me does n't qualify as fraud? 

Please advise. 



XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX, Tx. XXXXXXXXBank of American Loan : XXXXXXXXXXXX 
