BAC sent out my bill pay on XX/XX/XXXX vs XX/XX/XXXX due to the holidays, charged me an overdraft fee on XXXX/XXXX/XXXX despite the check not being cashed yet ( on XX/XX/XXXX ). I was told that is allowed in the disclosure. It should be illegal - if they have n't paid the check, how is it an overdraft? If I had mailed the check, it certainly would n't be an overdraft. Other banks do n't debit the account until the check is cashed. HORRIBLE! 
