My husband and I both have direct deposit of our paychecks to our checking account. We are very strict on our spending and record keeping. So when we use our debit cards or write a check, we know how much is in our account from not only the check registry, but our online banking. Except in the last 6 months we have ended up with over {$2000.00} in overdraft fees. When I inquire about it at the bank, I am told the reason is that when we use our cards, it puts a hold on that amount of the money in our account. Then when it clears, if there is not enough to cover it, because of the pending amount they are holding, we ars charged an overdraft fee. How is this possible if the money has already been set aside for this item that was pending? Example : my husband 's paycheck was {$500.00}, and we spent {$350.00} out of that using our cards. We should still have {$150.00} left in the account. Except our bank says we are over drawn because they put a hold on that {$350.00}, so therefore when those pending items clear there is no longer {$350.00} in the account to cover those pending items. How is this possible if they have already put that money on hold? This happens frequently anymore and it has cost us quite a bit of extra money in late fees, because we end up having to hold off on bills because our paychecks are gone as soon as they hit the bank account, just pay off the overdraft fees. Please help us, as we are drowning now in financial debt because of this bank. And are unable to switch to another one, because they show up on any chex check that is done, in order to open another account. 
