My ex and I submitted all of the documentation required under HAMP and Wells Fargo guidelines to Wells to be considered for a loan modification. My ex no longer occupies the property as his primary residence, though I do. When I initially reached out to Wells Fargo for help, the dedicated loan specialist assigned my case ( XXXX XXXX ), advised me that we did not need to include XXXX whole income since he does not occupy the property. 

Today, I recorded the conversation between XXXX XXXX, XXXX and myself, and recorded him recanting his original advice and then affirming that the only reason that they used his income was to reach the 31 % required for the DTI. 

Mind you, my income is 20 % of the total gross monthly income used by Wells to calculate the DTI. To assume that XXXX should be liable for more than 50 % of the mortgage payment is unfair and unreasonable. And to top it off, the SPOC advised in prior conversations that not all of the income needed to be used. 

Additionally, the interest rate was lowered to 7.125 % when the HAMP floor is 2 %. I am not sure I understand why Wells insists on gouging its customers through higher interest rates when the guidelines specifically allow for the interest rate to be much lower. They also did not extend the term to XXXX years, which guidelines also allow. They kept us at our current amortization cycle. 

It would seem that Wells would rather just take my home than attempt to work with me in a reasonable fashion to resolve the delinquency. 
