I first obtained this credit card in approximately XXXX, as a XXXX XXXX branded credit card. I do not recall the bank who serviced the card at that time. I obtained the card because it was marketed as a FIXED RATE 9.99 % card. The marketing promised that this rate would not change. And for the last thirteen years it has not. Other than occasional 0 % balance transfer promotions, I have been paying 9.99 % APR since the inception of the card. On my XXXX bill, I noticed that the rate has been raised to 10.24 %, for no apparent reason. When I inquired about this, I was told that the federal funds rate increased on XXXX XXXX, XXXX, and so, in turn, did my rate. But this makes no sense. At the time I obtained the card, the fed funds rate was XXXX higher than it is now. So, why then over the last eight years when the fed funds rate was XXXX have I not been paying less? The card was specifically marketed as having a fixed rate for the life of the card. When I pressed the issue the agent said she could not help me and directed me to call " retention services, '' which is, as I understand it, their sales unit. Why on earth would I buy a new product ( and allow a new hard inquiry on my report ) from a company that is behaving in such an underhanded way? 
