Over the past couple months my Bank of America checking account has started to receive a {$12.00} fee. I was told this {$12.00} fee is because I do not have a direct deposit of $ XXXX set up on my account. The {$12.00} is waived if you have a $ XXXX monthly direct deposit set up to the account. The problem is I have been conducting {$250.00} transfers from my account at another institution for over XXXX years and have never had a fee for this. So why now? I was told by an online representative that I am now receiving the fee because my transactions are transfers, not deposits. However, my girlfriend has relationships at the same places and conducts the exact same activity that I always have. She is not being charged the {$12.00} fee. How is it that BofA can be allowed to charge me but not her for the exact same activity? I believe this is a form of discrimination. Unless they can identify every person who transfers money instead of having it directly deposited and applies fees to all of those customers I should not be receiving this fee. Why I am I being targeted all of a sudden? My activity has never changed so why am I being charged for that now? 
