Why would there be a need for a mortgage servicer to obtain another Abstract Title? As I understand it, the original Title should prevail throughout the life of the loan. According to my settlement sheet, I paid well over {$3500.00} for Title from XXXX XXXX, located in XXXX, NY in XXXX. Now, I 've found, according the County Clerk 's records, that yet another Title has surfaced from XXXX XXXX, located in XXXX, PA, obtained by LoanCare Servicing, who in turn supposedly sold the loan to XXXX, even though LoanCare was not the owner of the Note. How could they sell something they do n't own and paid absolutely nothing for? Did I mention the original Lender was the infamous " XXXX '' I thought when XXXX went defunct, all loans were to be delivered to XXXX. Mine was n't delivered until XXXX, three years later. During that time, there was NO ASSIGNMENT until XXXX to none other than who else, the servicer, LoanCare. Also, this was an FHA loan. If in default, should n't FHA have obtained it and sold it themselves? Where are they? Why was there a need to change Title Trustee from XXXX XXXX to XXXX XXXX? Does n't this place a cloud on the tile? I may be a novice concerning Real Estate but something just ai n't right. The way LoanCare and XXXX conduct their business, I 'm sure we 're headed for a repeat meltdown of the housing industry, as was the case in XXXX. I 'm hoping the Courts have gained more knowledge of these dirty dealings and will not let them seize consumers homes fraudulently. 
