I was told that I would get a loan at 3.875 % and that they could do it. I explained at first that i had a " XXXX '' agreement on my home and was told at first that it should n't be an issue. I did n't get any calls back from XXXX and had to call several times to talk to XXXX XXXX, but had to call his superior.. I had to call his boss XXXX XXXX, who I expressed my frustration with XXXX not returning my call, he said that XXXX would call me back to explain why they could n't do the loan. I never received a call. I then called his boss XXXX XXXX and he stated that they could n't do the loan. I asked for the guidelines and why, and received answers that did n't make sense to me. I asked to speak to his boss and he said that he was the director and there was no -one else above him that could make the decision to do the loan. This phone tag was over a period of 4 weeks. When XXXX told me he could do the loan at first, I gave him my credit card information and he sent me all the docs and application and asked me to immediately sigh them electronically, which I did. At that point i waited for a call or any information they needed, but received nothing? Thats when i called His boss XXXX, and he proceeded to tell me they cant do the loan because of the XXXX agreement on it. He said they had to follow guidelines and could n't do it. As far as I was concerned i signed a contract with XXXX to get he loan done, after i disclosed that i had a XXXX '' agreement and was told it would n't or shouldnt be an issue. I was told from XXXX that XXXX would call me back to better explain why they did n't want to do it. I never received that call. I was sent several loan rates from XXXX at first, which i agreed to the XXXX rate which we discussed as my best option and waited after the docs were singed for them to move forward with the loan. I have a good LTV and was looking for a XXXX refinance on my home that appraised at XXXX. Dosent the lender have to send you the reason or guidelines of why the refused to do the loan? 
