I was working on a loan modification with my lender ASC Wells Fargo is the servicer. I was told the modification review was halted for XXXX different reasons. The first reason was missing paperwork. The required paperwork was submitted but in fact the home preservation specialist was reassigned and my paperwork was lost during the transition. Second reason I was given and a very different one was that the value of my home was in the XXXX range and therefore a modification or principle reduction was not possible. The comps the lender used were comps outside of my neighbor hood and the appraisers were located in cities XXXX miles away. The appraisers did not look at the recent solds on my street which are in the XXXX range. I sent the recent sales ( XXXX range ) in my neighborhood info to ASC. The information I provided with the accurate home value info was forwarded to a loan specialists with Wells Fargo. I received a letter that they were reviewing and would get back to me. The review was to be completed by XX/XX/XXXX. That date passed and I did not hear back from Wells Fargo. When I called to inquire the loan specialist assured me the denial for loan modification had nothing to do with the inflated appraised value of my home. Within a week a sale date was set for my home and no written communication came from Wells as promised. It was all verbel. I contacted XXXX XXXX the Wells loan specialist to inquire as to why I had not received in writing the reply to my request for further review. It was suppose to be received XX/XX/XXXX. See attached letter. When I spoke with XXXX I asked what the price would be for my home at sheriff sale and she indicated it would be in the XXXX range the true value of my home based on recent sales. Essentially Wells denied a modification this time because their appraisers valued my home in the XXXX range when in fact the value is in the XXXX range as confirmed by XXXX XXXX and that is the price it will be sold at sheriffs sale. How can a lender be so far off on determining market value of a home? Why would slender rather foreclose on a property than do a principle reduction and keep an owner of 27 years in their home and at the same time keep the neighborhood from decline. My complaint is two fold. I have been given multiple reason for denying a loan modification and the lender Is responsible for using inaccurate comps to value my property. Inexcusable for a lender. I have yet to get a sherries notice. I found out about the sale date in public records. I thought I was to be given 30 days 
