I received a statement showing that I was almost {$1100.00} short in my escrow account due to the fact that my mortgage lender switched ownership and did not include an RHS fee in my anticipated activity for the XX/XX/XXXX year. Also, I do not have paperwork showing in closing that I agreed to pay this fee. I have attempted to contact my lender and spoken with a customer service representative. They are only agreeing to allow me to pay the shortage back over a 24 month period instead of 12 months. As I told the representative, this was their fault and based on my paperwork, I never agreed to pay this RHS fee. I 've never received a letter or any other form of paperwork stating that a new fee was being added. 
Also, I have had problems with my payments since the beginning XX/XX/XXXX. In XXXX, I wrote a check on XX/XX/XXXX. I had to contact the company on XX/XX/XXXX because my check had yet to be processed. I wanted to make sue that the check had not been lost. The customer service rep stated that he had the check in his possession and would send it for processing immediately. I also had a late fee of {$35.00} due to this. He was able to correct it at the time. In XXXX, I paid another monthly payment online as a one-time payment. It took XXXX days to process and resulted in another late fee charge that I had to address. I am aware that the new law implemented in XX/XX/XXXX about the RHS fee applies to my loan. However, I am not sure that it is legal for the new owner to back-date my loan when they bought it out in XX/XX/XXXX and are trying to charge me the RHS fee for XXXX of when my old company did n't charge me at all. 
