text: charles de gaulle was a political problem for churchill and roosevelt  during wwii.  please explain.?   since this question asked for the political problem during wwii, and the rest of the group mainly spoke of after wwii let me take a crack at it.    charles de gaulle as the leader of the "free french" sought influence in the decisions and plans regarding the future of france.  while the scared and nazi sympathetic vichy government practiced appeasement (boy doesn't that sound familiar)the free french led by the self-appointed de gaulle meddled in military plans while living in exile in england.  the political problem arises from the idea that england is trying to stave off attack and total domination of europe by hitler and the nazis, and roosevelt is trying to conquer an evil force trying to take over the world. both do not consider france and other conquered countries to be more than nazi strongholds now.  counter to the production of the anti-nazi forces, de gaulle insists that france will reign again, outside forces will have to go through him to do any planning regarding french soil, and the allies must deliver a regained france to him as leader of the free french who never were defeated (except that the approx 10k troups had to be lifted by boat to their new home in england.  the allies should have ignored and thrown de gaulle out on his ear.  he was nothing then, he was nothing as a prime minister, and he died being considered a loser by most.  this is what happens when you allow an unimportant leader to have say.  too many parallels to today's france.