text: why does scotland get preference for drugs which we in england cannot get even though revenue is subsidised by   there are different opinions on this question. perhaps the most obvious is that the scottish parliament has control over health expenditure and is prepared to devote more money that it's equivalent in england. as to why this is, is a matter of opinion. some people may argue that scotland health departmant is more efficient. other people may say the "barnett formula" introduced in 1978 provides more money for scotland than england and wales. it could, of course be argued that if scotland was allowed to keep all the money from oil revenue, than there would be even more money available for heath expenditure, but this is not an argument i am prepared to debate on these pages!