in relation this does the commission agree that despite the irregulations in force to day member states are still not able to the gambling of their citizens in spite of for example
In relation to this, does the Commission agree that, despite the common EU regulations in force today, Member States are still not able to moderate the gambling of their citizens, in spite of the use of bans, for example?
In relation this, does the Commission agree that, despite the EU regulations in force today, Member States are still not able to the gambling of their citizens, in spite of of for example?