so thet now is as legally possible the state of treatis and the case law the court to allow the member to exercise one of the community's exclusive competences and if so under what conditions
So the question now is this: is it legally possible, given the current state of the Treaties and the case-law of the Court, to allow the Member States to exercise one of the Community's exclusive competences and, if so, under what conditions?
So the now is is legally possible, the state of Treaties and the case-law the Court, to allow the Member to exercise one of the Community's exclusive competences and, if so, under what conditions?