Manuscript transcription -

Question: I was given a 250-year-old anonymous Italian manuscript to work on by its owner some time ago. I did research on it and transcribed it. I provided the owner with the transcription and the result of the historical research, copy of a public lecture based on the ms., and breakdown of the content.
My intention was to eventually publish the text of the transcription with an introduction, explanatory notes, etc. The author of the ms. remains anonymous.
I have just discovered that the owner of the ms. has sent copies of the transcription - my work - to at least two other researchers.
When I objected to my work being distributed without my permission, I was in effect "forbidden" to continue working on the project.
The question is: to whom does the transcription belong? To the owner of the manuscript or to its author (me)?
Is the owner in fact breaking copywright law by distributing my work without my permission?
Answer: The first question is whether the transcription actually enjoys any copyright protection.
 The transcription itself is a copy of a work in the public domain.  In general, the only elements of the transcription that would be subject to protection are those that arise from your creative activity.  For example, if you translated the transcription, the translation would be subject to copyright protection.  Consider what the product of someone else's transcription would look like: would it be possible to distinguish it from yours?
I don't know whether such a test would actually be useful in court, however; it's more of a thought experiment.  In fact, I should note that I do not have any specific knowledge of Canadian copyright law, and in particular I am unfamiliar with how Canada treats copyright protection in new works derived from public domain materials.
Based on a fairly cursory reading of Authorship and ownership in copyright law in Canada on Wikipedia, and assuming that you were not working as an employee, you own any copyright in the work you produced.  This would certainly be true of the other items you gave to the manuscript owner: "the result of the historical research, copy of a public lecture based on the ms., and breakdown of the content."  As noted above, the extent to which it is true of the transcription itself is not clear, but it is probably a small extent.
If you did the work as an employee, then the copyright in the work is owned by your employer, unless there is an agreement to the contrary.  However, "employee" does not include freelancers, so the owner of the manuscript does not own the copyright in your work simply because he or she paid you.
I would also note that I don't see any way for the manuscript owner to prevent you from "publish[ing] the text of the transcription with an introduction, explanatory notes, etc."
I hope someone who is more familiar with Canadian copyright law will answer, but to get a reliable answer you should ask a lawyer with a practice in Canadian intellectual property law.
Comment: Downvoter, please explain.
Answer: A transcription constitutes an original creative work. The sequence of words underlying the manuscript is not protected by copyright because of the age of the work, what is protected is that which results from creatively deciding which modern letters are present in the manuscript. It is not just brow-sweat that gives protection to the transcription (as would be the case of someone writing out an article from today's New York Times). However, the circumstances under which you created the transcription would matter, whether you have a contract assigning ownership of the transcript to the manuscript owner. The section on ownership of copyright says

Where the author of a work was in the employment of some other person
  under a contract of service or apprenticeship and the work was made in
  the course of his employment by that person, the person by whom the
  author was employed shall, in the absence of any agreement to the
  contrary, be the first owner of the copyright, but where the work is
  an article or other contribution to a newspaper, magazine or similar
  periodical, there shall, in the absence of any agreement to the
  contrary, be deemed to be reserved to the author a right to restrain
  the publication of the work, otherwise than as part of a newspaper,
  magazine or similar periodical.

(Moral rights adhere to the creator, period, but that doesn't seem to be your concern).
Comment: The decision about which modern letters are present in a manuscript from approximately 1770 involves little more creativity than reading the Declaration of Independence. If you want to see how legible 18th-century Italian handwriting was, try a web search for `lettere manoscritti 1770`. The majority are far more legible than my mother's handwriting. I don't think it's possible to say that a transcription is a creative work without reference to a Canadian judgment establishing as much. Also, if Wikipedia is to be believed, it's necessary to distinguish freelance work from "employment" in 13(3).

Manuscript transcription -


Will encoding affect computability?

Question: I think this question arises from not having a clear idea on encoding. So, If I have a problem intuitively there may be many ways of encoding it using TM's alphabet set. Slight variation in the encoding may(intuitively) not affect the computability of the problem, Is it true? Can I have a computable problem which on changing the encoding turns uncomputable?For eg given a graph and two vertices, the problem is whether there is path between them. We know this is compuatable. But if we consider encoding as just a mapping, then If I have encoding such that set of all instance of the problem with the answer as yes mapped to some undecidable language(bijectively)?Is it possible?
Comment: If the process encoding(E) is itself an algorithm then the problem itself should be formal (encoded in someway as an in input to E). Isn't it?
Comment: Encoding is in itself an algorithm and as such by Church Turing thesis implementable by a TM.Hence computability status may not be affected...complexity class may change though.
Comment: There is a difference between effectively calculable and computable...while the equivalence is established by church Turing thesis.The encoding process itself may not ingest an input string...but is still equivalent to computation by a Turing machine.
Comment: Where I Can read about it? In Micheal Sipser's book there is nothing about it till the topic "Decidability". Does that book containing anything about it?
Comment: Try Wikipedia..Church -Turing' thesis. I give an answer below.
Answer: As long as there's a computable mapping between the two encodings, changing from one to the other won't affect computability, since computable functions compose. If there isn't a computable mapping between the encodings, you can't effectively use at least one of them, since there's no way to figure out what the encoding of your input should be in that scheme. (For example, suppose you come up with a coding of graphs that isn't computably translatable from the adjacency matrix. How would you use that encoding? If I give you a graph, you can't figure out what string encodes it.)
Comment: Just to add as long as the two encodings are done through an 'effective method' they will always have a computable mapping.
Comment: So, can I say "a problem(formally a function)" let's say graph-connectedness problem is just an informal association to a language or may be a set of languages(translation can be done between them using computable mapping)? Suppose translation is not compuatable then one of the language is a meaningless association to the problem in some sense?
Comment: @saravanan Yes. Formally speaking, a problem is just a set of strings, so strictly speaking, you should specify how you're encoding graphs as strings if you want to talk about graph connectivity as a problem. In practical terms, though, as long as you stick to "reasonable" encodings, it doesn't matter which one you use, so people often don't specify. And, yes, if you use an uncomputable encoding, it becomes impossible to associate graphs with the strings your Turing machine is processing.
Answer: A TM is not the sole means of implementing an 'Effective procedure' while the ones it does carry out are constrained to accept input only as strings of symbols over some finite alphabet.
But it is widely believed that every effectively calculable function...i.e one calculated through an effective procedure can also be carried out through a TM.(Church -Turing thesis)
In view of above the entire process of assigning a unique string to an object of input space...and its further manipulation to reach a decision...is one single 'effective procedure'...if at all one exists:part of which is carried out by a TM.
And if the problem is not decidable then no such procedure exists.
Hence the decidability status of the problem is inherent to the problem itself...
And if an effective procedure does produce a string having one to one correspondence with the problem...then a TM can decide it (if the problem is decidable through an effective procedure)...irrespective of the encoding.

Will encoding affect computability?


Free chess engine with a tablebase

Question: So I've downloaded Stockfish and the Arena GUI, but I'm having trouble getting any tablebase I download to either load into Arena, or be compatible with Stockfish.  Any suggestions?  I'm willing to download a different GUI if it is easy to get a tablebase loaded.
Answer: If your GUI allows custom UCI options (I think you can do it in Arena, but check its documentation), you should be able to add a syzygy path yourself. Otherwise, you may try the popular Deep Fritz GUI. Check this link:
http://talkchess.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=50554&highlight=syzygy+deep+fritz
Answer: So Arena uses Gaviota Tablebases, so if you want to use GUI tablebase option then you can download them and configure Arena to use them,
Stockfish only uses Syzygy tablebases, So you will need those bases and then when you are configuring the engine you'll find and option for Syzygy Path. You'll need to set it to the directory where your syzygy tablebases are.

Free chess engine with a tablebase


Origin of XRD Peak Asymmetry

Question: I have been doing an introductory XRD experiment in which we measure the crystal spacing of a simple lattice (LiF) and as usual obtained data for intensity against two theta. Ideally the peaks should be symmetric so my question is what is the main origin of asymmetry in the peaks? My best guess is it is some small misalignment which means one side of the peak will receive a higher intensity and vice versa, which is consistent with all of my peaks, however I'm not sure if this is definitely it.
On a side note, is it valid to convert the intensity-angle spectrum to an intensity-wavelength spectrum via Braggs formula with n = 1 or should I also be considering the contribution of higher n also?

I've attached a picture as an example. Thanks in advance.
Comment: a plot needs labels, with units.
Answer: It could be the source not being monochromatic. Might this be K$\alpha_1$ and K$\alpha_2$? Without further details, it is impossible to say. At higher orders of diffraction, it might be possible to resolve these two peaks.

Origin of XRD Peak Asymmetry


Unix command line utilities for Windows x64?

Question: There are many packages of UNIX command line utilities for 32-bit Windows. Now that the mingw-w64 Windows compiler is stable, I was expecting similar utilities to appear for 64-bit Windows (e.g. "GnuWin64"). However, I'm not finding them. Where are they?
Comment: For the most part, the 32-bit utilities work great. But I do work with multi-gigabyte files, for which there are limitations (e.g. [Value too large for defined data type](http://www.gnu.org/software/coreutils/faq/coreutils-faq.html#Value-too-large-for-defined-data-type))
Comment: @nik, I use both Win/POSIX systems, but because I use *both* of these, I'd like to use a similar GNU toolset. For example, to compare `md5sum` checks of files on both systems.
Comment: What benefit do you believe they'll provide you?
Comment: [for multi-gigabyte files] should you not work with better alternatives to emulation? Like, a dual-boot with Linux or a VM.
Answer: As I've mentioned on SuperUser one … two … three times:
The tools in the SFUA utility toolkit, which run in the Subsystem for UNIX-based Applications that comes right there in the box with Windows 7 Ultimate edition and Windows Server 2008 R2 (For Windows XP, one can download and install Services for UNIX version 3.5.), come in both AMD64 and IA64 flavours as well as x86-32.  This toolkit has a large number of command-line TUI tools, from mv and du, through the Korn and C shells, to perl and awk.  The programs run in Windows NT's native proper POSIX environment, rather than with emulator DLLs (such as cygwin1.dll) layering things over Win32 as other toolsets do.
Answer: Cygwin started providing 64-bit versions a few month ago(July 2013)
Comment: On my Windows device, this folder contains exe and DLL dependencies: `C:\cygwin64\bin`
Answer: SFUA utilities are not the same as the GNU ones.  They are largely incompatible, and only implement a very small subset of the Posix functions.
There are few utilities that would see any gain from Win64 memory addressing are the newer ones related to compression.  Most of those have Win64 builds available on their project site.  Simply use that version instead.
As for the libraries, if you are using them in a project, I recommend building the dll yourself if one is not available on other pages.  I recommend against updating the dll libraries that came with other projects.  There is a reason they shipped the version they did.  Simply get an updated version of the whole package if you need to address an issue in the dll.
Answer: Found this link for ssed that works on 32- and 64-bit Windows
http://sed.sourceforge.net/grabbag/ssed/
Comment: Welcome to Super User! Please read [How to recommend software](https://meta.superuser.com/questions/5329/how-do-i-recommend-software-in-my-answers/5330#5330) for **minimum required information** and suggestions on how to recommend software on Super User.  To keep your answer useful even if the provided link(s) breaks these details should be edited into your answer.


Salesforce Flow (lightning Flow) getting to a flow value programatically

Question: I'm building out an autolaunched flow.  I want to add logic to 'track' the execution - not too difficult except that I would like to log in my tracking information such as the Flow Label or API name.  Things that would help me know later what it was that actually ran.  I can get to the Flow GUID and the interview date/time but not much else appears.  Any thoughts on how to accomplish this short of just typing in a text string with the flow name - not that great if the flow name changes and I forget to update the text string.
Comment: Where do you want to see this information 'tracked'? Developer console logs? Emails? Salesforce records?
Comment: Salesforce records.  I've got the basic object structure all built and the code in the Flow to create the records; however, I have wanted to capture the name of the Flow that is being executed (and version if possible) so that I could see in my tracking object what code was executing.
Answer: You can probably grab what you need with the Get Flow Metadata community extension.
Comment: At first blush this looks like the solution.  I installed the package but it doesn't make sense to me.  Is this intended to be used within a Lightning Flow?  What I'm looking for is a way to find out about myself while I am executing (the flow).  The only thing I know about myself is the GUID.  I can setup a call to GetFlowMetadata as an Action but it is not clear if the GUID can be passed as an identifier and secondly there are no outputs indicated on the action so how to data the results?


Disable or hide an entry field in the CMS

Question: Is there a way to hide or disable an entry field in the CMS so that the field still exists in the database but can not be edited by a user. The field will only ever be altered dynamically from a plugin?
Answer: You could inject some CSS to hide it specifically.
Comment: yeah I know we can use css just wondered if there was a better way to do it with the backend?
Comment: No, not at the moment
Answer: I wrote a plugin called Incognito Field, which is basically a plain ol' PlainText field that can be set to disabled, readonly or hidden. Perfect when you need to update a field via a plugin and never via the Control Panel.
Comment: Nice! Bookmarked for future use. This would have been perfect on a project we did awhile back.


Wave function of hydrogen atom including spin of nucleus

Question: How do I write the wave function of hydrogen atom taking into consideration of nucleus spin? For example consider $2S_{\frac{1}{2}}$ state with nucleus spin $I$, then wave function $\psi=\langle2S_{\frac{1}{2}},F,F_{3}|$ where $F$ is the total angular momentum of hydrogen atom $F=J+I$ and $F_{3}$ is the projection of it along z axis. Now what will be the explicit form of the wave function? Thanks in advance.
Comment: The eigen numbers of orbital and internal momenta are not additive (unlike the operators), i.e. $F \neq J + I$; $\hat{\mathbf{F}} = \hat{\mathbf{J}} + \hat{\mathbf{I}}$; $F_3 = J_3 + I_3$
Comment: Does "the wave function" mean "the wave functions of energy eigenstates"? Or does it mean "any wave function"?
Comment: wave functions of energy eigenstates.More precisely it's the parity violating hamiltonian of hydrogen atom,I need to calculate the matrix element between the states of $2S_{\frac{1}{2}}$ and $2P_{\frac{1}{2}}$ states The eigenstates are $<2S_{\frac{1}{2}},F,F_{3}|$  and  $<2P_{\frac{1}{2}},F',F'_{3}|$
Comment: What is $\hat{\mathbf{J}}$ here? Is it the orbital momentum of the electron, nucleus or whole atom? Does the nucleus have zero **orbital** momentum?
Comment: No $\hat{J}$ is the total angular momentum of the electron and nucleus have zero angular momentum.
Answer: The easy way
If we do not take into account the dependence of the electron state on the spin state of the nucleus, the wavefunction is just a product of electron and nucleus wavefunctions:
$$
\psi = \psi_e(\mathbf{r} - \mathbf{R}) \psi_n(\mathbf{R})
$$
Both are spinors of rank 1 (columns of functions). The spinor $\psi_e$ consists of two components. The number of the components of $\psi_n$ depends on the total spin of the nucleus $I$ and is equal to $2I+1$.
The hard way
If the spin of the nucleus affects the electron state, then the total wavefunction is a spinor of rank 2 i.e. a table of functions with dimensions $2 \times (2I+1)$.
Comment: Does the non additivity of $\hat{F}$ is the consequence of not using Born Oppenheimer approximation?
Comment: @user7429, the operators are additive. The numbers $J$ and $I$ are not. The eigen number of $\hat{\mathbf{F}}^2$ is $F(F+1)$. Here is one of the definitions of $F$. The same for $J$ and $I$. So the sum $J+I$ is not $F$ even though the sum of operators $\hat{\mathbf{J}}$ and $\hat{\mathbf{I}}$ is the operator $\hat{\mathbf{F}}$.


How to display base64 string as a pdf in lightning component

Question: i have a requirement where i need to display Base64 string as PDF in lightning component without saving that string as file or attachment in salesforce.
Answer: You could use a 3rd party Javascript library that can generate PDF on the client side.
Example with jsPDF
Define a Blob and insert in in a  :


Laugh more, cheer up more

Question: When someone is always brooding and in a bad mood, is it correct if I tell him " hey, laugh more, cheer up more."
I've never heard of anyone say cheer up more, but if you can say laugh more, then can you also say cheer up more?
Comment: Cheer up means don't be sad, but that's when someone wants encouragement.  You could say look on the bright side, take it lighter, could be worse.
Comment: Some people are not happy unless they are miserable!
Comment: You might get better results by saying, "Be happy."  Better yet, tell a good joke.
Answer: Laughing is a discrete action; saying you should do it more is essentially saying you should do it more often. This may include laughing now, but you're probably not giving the person an instruction to laugh at this very moment.
Cheering up is a change of state of mind that should be done once. Usually it's because the person is in a bad mood now.
It's not wrong to say someone should "cheer up more often"; maybe they're in a bad mood frequently. But it means something a little bit different than "cheer up".
Answer: Normally, we simply say "Cheer up". Until someone has cheered up, he cannot cheer up more. As to "Laugh more," that should be "Laugh more often." We say "Cheer up" as encouragement for the moment, not as a suggestion for restructuring one's personality.

Laugh more, cheer up more


Exercising my treaty rights

Question: My sister and I are both eligible for British passport due to our father having been British.  We live in South Africa with my mum.  We would like to move to Ireland within the next 18 months, I am 16 years old.  I would like to know if I can bring my mum under my treaty rights? and what do I have to do?
Comment: Was your father *born* in Britain?  If not, he will be have been "British by descent", and you will *not* be eligible for a British passport.
Comment: Your other problem is that in the event of a no-deal Brexit, British passport holders may not be able to move to Ireland after 29th March next year (less than six months away).
Comment: @MartinBonner Irish citizens' status in the UK is independent of the EU.  Is the same not true of British citizens' status in Ireland?
Comment: @phoog Irish citizens' status in the UK is about the UK never really having got round to accepting Irish independence.  I *believe* the Republic of Ireland is quite happy with the idea that the UK is a separate country (except for Northen Ireland - even if they gave up the claim to NI as part of the Good Friday Agreement).  It is possible that RoI will admit British citizens - but it is by no means guaranteed.
Comment: @MartinBonner thanks for the clarification. I would also note that in your earlier comment, "born in Britain" is somewhat oversimplified; Northern Ireland, the Channel Islands, and the Isle of Man are included, and there is also the "crown service" exception.
Comment: @phoog Yes.  When I said "Britain", that was sloppy wording for "United Kingdom". I didn't know about CI+IoM, and I forgot about "crown service" to.
Answer:
I would like to know if I can bring my mum under my treaty rights?

On its face, EU free movement law gives no right to the non-EU parent of an EU citizen unless the parent is dependent on the child, which is highly unlikely if you are sixteen.
There are, however, court cases suggesting that if the child is a minor then refusing to grant residence to the non-EU parent is an impermissible restriction on the child's right of free movement.  See, for example:

Think of the children: the ECJ clarifies the status of non-EU parents of EU citizen children living in their own Member State
Chavez Vilchez et al v. Sociale Verzekeringsbank et al

These cases, however, concern children living in their own country, not another, so they are not directly applicable to your plan.  Furthermore, the conditions identified by the court that lead to a right for the parent to stay are not clear to me, nor is it clear how one would invoke this right if it does exist.
You may therefore want to speak with an Irish immigration lawyer or an immigrants' rights organization.  A web search turned up a lot of support organizations for Irish immigrants in the US, but also several Irish solicitors and the Immigrant Council of Ireland.
Comment: Hi Martin, my father was born in the UK

Exercising my treaty rights


ls -b in android shell

Question: If im not mistaking, using ls -b should output escape characters with some sort of representation, but it seems like this option isn't available. Is there an alternative, or is it impossible to have a filename with escape characters on android?
Comment: May i ask what you're trying to do with the filenames?  It may be possible to accomplish what you're after without using `ls`.
Answer: Android has a very limited implementation of Linux shell functions.  BusyBox utility expands on the selection somewhat, although it's still not a full Linux set.  It can be installed on most rooted Android devices.
Specifically for ls, only the following options are available via BusyBox:
busybox: invalid option -- b
BusyBox v1.22.1 bionic (2014-05-29 17:30 +0200) multi-call binary.

Usage: ls [-1AaCxdLHRFplinsehrSXvctukKZ] [-w WIDTH] [FILE]...

List directory contents

        -1      One column output
        -a      Include entries which start with .
        -A      Like -a, but exclude . and ..
        -C      List by columns
        -x      List by lines
        -d      List directory entries instead of contents
        -L      Follow symlinks
        -H      Follow symlinks on command line
        -R      Recurse
        -p      Append / to dir entries
        -F      Append indicator (one of */=@|) to entries
        -l      Long listing format
        -i      List inode numbers
        -n      List numeric UIDs and GIDs instead of names
        -s      List allocated blocks
        -e      List full date and time
        -h      List sizes in human readable format (1K 243M 2G)
        -r      Sort in reverse order
        -S      Sort by size
        -X      Sort by extension
        -v      Sort by version
        -c      With -l: sort by ctime
        -t      With -l: sort by mtime
        -u      With -l: sort by atime
        -k      List security context
        -K      List security context in long format
        -Z      List security context and permission
        -w N    Assume the terminal is N columns wide
        --color[={always,never,auto}]   Control coloring

The characters allowed in file names on Android are no different from those allowed in other Linux-based systems. As always, it depends on the filesystem.
Comment: It's worth being extra-clear that this list **isn't** the list of options that work in the stock `ls`, which is **even more limited**.
Comment: thanks, so it seems that if my filename has some escape character or something of that sort, there is no way to pull it with ls without possibly losing information, or is there a way using adb to handle these cases?
Answer: You can use wild card characters for these cases. Use * for multiple characters and ? for single characters. ls lib* will find files that begin with lib.
Comment: That's good advice, but typing the escapes isn't the problem: it's what happens when `ls` tries to print them to the terminal.

ls -b in android shell


Upload a remote file without downloading first

Question: Our company has some Old Legacy Online Inventory Management systems (OLOIMs) where we have to individually upload thousands of PDFs to specific service tickets each day. The only way to get the files into the OLOIMs right now is to click the "Upload" button, then the "Open" box appears and you select the PDF on your computer to upload that corresponds to that service ticket. All of these PDFs are stored in an online storage location (Google Drive right now, but we could use any online storage). Right now, we download or sync all of these files locally before uploading them, which takes a long time. Is there a way to upload the file directly from the online storage, so it goes straight from the online storage to the OLOIM server without routing through my computer, using that upload button? We can't change anything on the OLOIM server, so we have to use that "Upload" button, but we can change all the other parts of the process before that point.
I tried copying the link to download the file from Google Drive and pasting this into the "Open" window as the filename. This kind of worked in that the file appeared on the OLOIM server successfully, but it downloaded to a temporary folder on my computer first. I would like to find a way to avoid having to download it to my computer first, and just go straight from the online storage to the OLOIM server. Again, we don't have to use Google Drive for the online storage, we can use anything.
We also considered copying the links to the files stored on Google Drive and just posting these on the server, instead of attaching them on the server, but then we have access and permissions problems. We don't want the links to be public, but everyone who can access the server needs to access these files, but not everyone who can access the server can also access the Google Drive folder, and it isn't feasible to give them all permission to access the Google Drive folder because there are hundreds or thousands of these users who have access.
Other things we have considered:

Set up a server that has all of the files on it, and have everyone who needs to attach files start a session on this server, open a browser window, and upload the files. The drawbacks are that we then have to  maintain a server, which is Hard.
Find some kind of browser extension or program that makes the remote files appear local, and cleverly re-routes the upload request to the remote file server. It seems like this would break SSH or TLS or something.
Build a better system to replace the OLOIMs. We're working on it, but we need an interim solution if it exists.
Figure out what sort of command the Upload button sends to the OLOIM, and figure out how to re-create this in Google Apps Script so they can just open Google Drive online and click some button that will post the file to the server. Unfortunately, I'm not clever enough to figure out how to do this.
Answer: It is possible your OLOIM is using a basic HTML file upload, which means the upload is entirely up to your browser implementation and your browser will only know how to upload from a logical drive. No matter what you do with Google, that will mean the files go to your workstation first.
To your point 4, it seems like a decent solution. You would emulate your browser's interface to the OLOIM in your Google Apps Script and go direct to your OLOIM that way. It is not too hard to figure out what your browser is sending to/from your OLOIM using a tool like WireShark or Fiddler. You will need some one skilled enough to interpret the HTTP messages exchanged and implement the same with Google Apps Script.


Cannot Tag List Items

Question: I'm having a bit of a problem with our SharePoint 2010 installation, users can tag pages using either the "I Like It" or "Tags and Notes" buttons in the ribbon but are unable to do the same for individual list items. Selecting a document or item in a list brings up the documents tab in the ribbon but the "I Like It" or "Tags and Notes" buttons are disabled. Any idea where I should be looking to fix this?
Answer: For me it looks like a permission problem. Could you please check and make sure that users have Use Social Feature permission.
check this blog
http://mysharepointwork.blogspot.com/2010/11/disablehide-social-tags-notes-for-group.html
good to know blog:
http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/anavijai/tags-and-notes-in-sharepoint-2010/
Comment: I currently have it set so that 'All Authenticated Users' have permission to 'Use Social Features' and users can currently tag pages without any problems, they're just unable to tag list items.

Cannot Tag List Items


Transit in DXB between terminal 2 to 1

Question: I have a flight from Praque to Dubai and from Dubai to India. 2 different flight companies and 4 hour for a transfer from terminal 2 to 1 in DXB airport. I have with my only my hand luggage.  Is it enough time? What experience do you have?
Answer: If I remember it correctly (early 2016 info), T2 is where the low cost airlines fly to/from - including FlyDubai. Then it is (was) not connected directly to T1/T3 via walkways.
However it does have the airside transit (a shuttle bus) before passport control. It it not regular and seems to be tied to arriving flights. There is a visible holding area for transit when you're walking toward arrivals with a service desk nearby. You would then need to approach the service desk and ask; I assume they would handle that. 4hrs is plenty of time for that.
And if you want to get out (not recommended with 4hr layover unless you take taxi - there's no metro in T2, at least not back in 2016), you go through passport control and jump on a (free) shuttle bus which goes to T1/T3.
Answer: It is more than enough time.
Once you land in Terminal 2 and enter the building (you'll have to take a bus, if I recall correctly), go to the left towards transit and pass through the metal detectors.
You'll see a large circular information desk, followed by the main transit hall.
If you do not have a copy of your next flight's boarding pass, approach the information desk. They will probably then transfer you to the dnata services desk (dnata is a company that runs the airport operations - it is a division of Emirates).
From there, you'll get a boarding pass and directions for transfer to your next terminal, which will be on a bus.
You do not need any visas.

Transit in DXB between terminal 2 to 1


Question about a hydraulic jack

Question: I am reading about applications of Pascal's Principle and hydraulic systems. I was able to derive a relationship between the forces in this hydraulic jack by applying Pascal's principle. The pressure due to $F_1$ acting on area $S_1$ is $p_1=\dfrac{F_1}{S_1}$. According to Pascal's principle, this pressure is transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid and to all walls of the container. Thus, a pressure $p_2=\dfrac{F_2}{S_2}$ is felt at the other piston that is equal to $p_1$. We see that $\dfrac{F_1}{S_1}=\dfrac{F_2}{S_2}$ and $F_2=\dfrac{S_2}{S_1}F_1$. Now I am asking myself if the work done by $F_1$ must be equal to the work done by $F_2$? In other words, is $A_1=F_1h_1$ equal to $A_2=F_2h_2$? If this is true, can you tell me why? I was searching on the Internet for more relationships, but I didn't find a useful website.
Answer: You got it all right. Just what you were forgetting is the fact that the fluids are (almost) incompressible. Here is how it goes:
You can write the fact that pressure is transferred undiminished as
$$\frac {F_1}{S_1}=\frac {F_2}{S_2} \tag{1}$$
But you also know that volume does not change. So
$$h_1S_1=h_2S_2 \tag{2}$$
Now multiply both of these equations ($(1)$ and $(2)$) and cancel out common terms (if any) and you get:
$$F_1h_1=F_2h_2$$
And hence the same work is done.
Answer: Definitely yes:
$$S_1h_1 = S_2h_2$$
because these are volumes of of water, and the full volume of water keeps unchanged. Consequently
$$F_1S_1h_1 = F_1S_2h_2$$
$$F_1h_1 = F_1{S_2 \over S_1}h_2$$
$$F_1h_1 = F_2h_2$$
Answer: Work is defined as force times displacement, where only the component of the force that is parallel to the displacement is involved.  Obviously $F_1$ is in the direction of displacement of piston 1 and $F_2$ is in the direction of the displacement of piston 2.  Also note, that the volume of the displaced fluid is constant, so the distance traveled by piston 1 is far greater than the distance traveled by piston 2, due to the much smaller area of piston 1 compared to piston 2.  This means that the work input to piston 1 is equal to the work output by piston 2, assuming that the small increase in gravitational potential energy of the hydraulic fluid at piston 2 can be ignored.

Question about a hydraulic jack


SharePoint List items dropdown value automatically changes when edited

Question: I've encountered a very weird behavior when editing any field on an Item(new or old) in a custom list where this specific dropdown field's text value changes from "Temporary" to "Permanent".
As a background we've added this field a year ago and just moved the position of this field by manually cutting and pasting on the first portion of the NewForm and EditForm.
I've already checked that there are no workflows that automatically start when an item is edited because they are configured to be manually started.
Could this be a content type issue? Not sure why it automatically changes value as soon as I press save in the Edit Form. I would like to experiment in deleting the portion below from the EditForm, but i'm concerned if I delete this in the EditForm will I lose any data?

Admittedly, I don't have much knowledge about SP :(
Answer: Try to check is any event receiver attached to the list.
<code>$spWeb = Get-SPWeb Identity http://Site
$spList = $spWeb.Lists["Custom List"]
$spList.EventReceivers | Select Name, Assembly, Type
</code>
Comment: unfortunately I am not able to test this as I do not have access on the SP server


Convert a binary neural network classifier to one verses all classifier

Question: I have a neural network model (implemented from scratch) which gives me some continuous outputs and I have used a sigmoid layer, in the end, to convert it into a binary classifier. But my original problem is a multiclass problem.
I tried to use the softmax layer but somehow that cannot be applied to my model architecture as the output is not in that format (I get some continuous value as output).

Thus I realized that an alternative way would be to use one versus all classifier but I am not able to figure out how to put that on top of my binary classifier.
Please forgive me if my concepts are a bit weak, but I would really be thankful if someone could help me with this.

Like, how can I convert the binary classifier to a multiclass classifier while keeping the original architecture and what kind of loss function should be used? Would that be different from the binary classifier loss function?

Thanks in advance.
Answer:
You may keep N neurons and Sigmoid and treat is like multi-label though your data will always be multi-class. So it should learn like multi-class

Create your own One-vs-One

Have 3 copy of the same model
Fit with A|B, B|C and C|A respectively
For new data, you need the average of two for each Class probability

Use scikit-learn Classifier

OneVsOneClassifier Link
OneVsRestClassifier Link
Comment: Thanks a lot for your ideas! Regarding the first one, I would be thankful if you could explain it a bit. Like, in this do you suggest I keep one sigmoid? If so, how do I identify the different classes? I read about hierarchical sigmoid, but couldn't understand it as to how to apply it.


Can rebuilt index take my site down

Question: Some of my pages are not appearing in search results. I tried publish the page but that doesn't work. I think I need to rebuild the index. I am being cautious here, will my site go down until rebuild index is completed? If not how it will use index which is being rebuilt?
Comment: Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking. For example: which version of Sitecore you are using?
Comment: Please provide more detail like-
1 Sitecore Version.
2 Which index you are re-building.
3 Logs . Being Time you can check following things.
1 Index configuration Included and exclude templates
2 Check publish queue table stat (https:// yoursitecorehost/sitecore/admin/PublishQueueStats.aspx) Thanks,
Vikas
Answer: in order to avoid this to happen, you've to get the "zero downtime (switch on rebuild)" feature properly configured so a secondary index is created during the rebuild.
The steps to check/configure depend on which search provider do you have and Sitecore version.
For Azure Search Sitecore 8.2+ (except 10.2), check: https://doc.sitecore.com/en/developers/101/platform-administration-and-architecture/zero-downtime-index-rebuild-in-azure-search.html
For Solr: https://doc.sitecore.com/en/developers/102/platform-administration-and-architecture/switch-solr-indexes.html
I hope it answers your question

Can rebuilt index take my site down


Classic Doctor Who - How was the TARDIS's external appearance controlled?

Question: I have a vague memory of the Doctor inputting code in one form or another to the Tardis, to control its appearance.
I have recently re-watched Logopolis (online) and there doesn't appear to be any actual 'code' or language on-screen before the pyramid & Tardis graphics appear.
Are there any other classic episodes where the Doctor shows on a screen the use of maths / programming to alter the Tardis?
My recollection is possibly hex code on a pink or orange background.
Answer: Firstly, it's worth noting that, for 99.9% of the show's run, the TARDIS' appearance hasn't been controllable at all - its chameleon circuit is broken, locking it into its iconic "police box" form. Logopolis is one of only two episodes in which the Doctor attempts to fix the chameleon circuit - as of the reboot, he's decided he likes it as it is.
The only other episode in which the chameleon circuit is repaired is Attack of the Cybermen, where the Doctor explains that the TARDIS automatically disguises itself, and he has no control over what it chooses to disguise itself as. Indeed, the first time the TARDIS transforms, the Doctor is outside the TARDIS watching it happen:

Peri: I thought you said it was going to blend into its surroundings.
Doctor: Oh, she's probably thinking about it. Come on, let's find out where those signals are coming from.
[the TARDIS changes into a highly ornamented dresser]
Peri: Oh, neat, Doctor. Very neat.
Doctor: Neat?
Peri: Very neat. I mean, there's nothing at all incongruous about that.
Doctor: Well, she hasn't done it for a long time. She's out of practice.

(from the transcript here)
So I'm afraid your vague memory is incorrect: the Doctor cannot control the TARDIS' external appearance by any means.
Comment: At the end of Clara's run as Capaldi's companion they stole a second TARDIS and that one had a functioning chameleon circuit, which allowed it to disguise itself as a diner. One has to suspect that possibly had some input from its crew as it was important to their plan. TARDISs are, after all, sentient and telepathic.
Comment: Also, IIRC, the TARDIS has a psychic ability to cause anyone who sees it to think it looks "normal", so even if, say, an ancient Roman sees it in the form of a police box, they don't think there's anything odd about it. But that's not all that consistent.


How is the tension of a wire an electromagnetic force?

Question: I found that tension is an electromagnetic force. I suspect the cause is that it's due to the cohesion of elements of the wire which is due to dipolar attraction of wire which is due an electric field. But how does electromagnetic phenomena get in?
I need a realistic explanation.
Comment: Because moving charges repel due to electromagnetic fields, if you act to extend the string the charges move very slightly relative to each other which generates magnetic fields too. Not to mention the weak magnetic moments of the molecules/atoms. But my comment was more of a generality, one can really stress electrostatic or just call it all electromagnetic and it wouldn't matter
Comment: In addition to the answers below, it is very often that even if something is purely electrostatic, electromagnetic is often a catchall term used to describe such phenomena.
Comment: @Triatticus  is this because we can't have constant electric field and changing electric field creates magnetic field?
Comment: @Triatticus I will not say two like charges repel due to electromagnetism. I will say it's due to electrostatics. So please explain what you have said.
Answer: Let us consider the given cases first:
Case 1
Imagine a mass-less negative charge attached to a fixed string which is also mass less. Now consider a test charge attached on another string kept close to it, but not close enough that the charges will be able to touch even if the strings are at their maximum extension.
Now the negative charge feels an attractive force from the test charge, so it bends in the direction of test charge and also the test charge bends towards it. This is, as we know, due to the electrostatic force of attraction, so we also know that the charges will try to cling to each other, but they can't. Why?
Yes, due to the tension in the string to which they are attached which acts as an equal and opposite force for the charges, so now we know that there is tension due to the electric field.
Case 2
Imagine the exact above case by replacing the strings with current-carrying wires, in which both currents move in same direction. We know there will be a magnetic force of attraction pulling them together, and as a result they also exhibit the same property as that of strings, i.e, they put tension over strings in order to try to come close to each other. So now we know that the magnetic field is also responsible for tension.
Conclusion
Now in this final case let us combine the above two cases:
Consider a fixed mass-less current-carrying wire having a negative charge on its surface and also another with the same direction of current, but with positive charge on it. Now we observe an electromagnetic field, but again, the individual electric and magnetic force act in their own way and hence the net effect on the wires will be that the tension they experience will add up and hence finally producing the new tension as sum of individual tensions in each of the above cases.
So from the above case we can understand that the net tension is the sum of tensions due to both the electric and magnetic fields, and hence we can conclude that there exists tension even due to electromagnetic forces.
I hope the answer helps.


Why were the hypocrites not killed?

Question: There is a narration where a sahabi was given a list of the hypocrites of Madina, so the prophet (pbuh) knew of them but didn't do anything to them. Why did he do this if the punishment of apostasy is death?
Comment: Your title question is answered in [Is punishment for leaving Islam death?](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/221/is-punishment-for-leaving-islam-death) etc. The rest of your post is a bunch of arbitrary objections. If you want answers to them then ask one indivisible question per post. I have edited this question to focus it on one matter.
Comment: Who's this "we" you speak of? I definitely haven't been killing anybody. Have you been killing anybody?
Comment: no I'm talking about why in islam an apostate should be killed
Comment: Does this answer your question? [Is punishment for leaving Islam death?](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/221/is-punishment-for-leaving-islam-death)
Answer:
Legal punishments are enforced when proven by the required evidence i.e. witnesses or confessions. They are not enforced based solely on knowledge of the ruler. The hypocrites were not executed because the necessary requisites of enforcing the legal punishments were not fulfilled.

The hypocrites did not openly claim to be apostates, rather they outwardly pretended to be Muslims and concealed their disbelief. The Prophet ﷺ was only commanded to enforce outward compliance and to leave the hidden state to Allah.

أمرت أن أقاتل الناس حتى يشهدوا أن لا إله إلا الله وأن محمدا رسول الله، ويقيموا الصلاة، ويؤتوا الزكاة، فإذا فعلوا ذلك عصموا مني دماءهم وأموالهم إلا بحق الإسلام، وحسابهم على الله
I have been ordered (by Allah) to fight against the people until they testify that none has the right to be worshipped but Allah and that Muhammad is Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), and offer the prayers perfectly and give the obligatory charity, so if they perform that, then they save their lives and property from me except for Islamic laws and then their reckoning (accounts) will be done by Allah.
— Bukhari

 إني لم أومر أن أنقب قلوب الناس
I have not been ordered (by Allah) to search the hearts of the people
— Bukhari

And the same applies nowadays. Apostates are only killed when they say or do something which clearly demonstrates their kufr.

The hypocrites would feign repentance when confronted. An apostate who repents and returns to Islam is spared. And according to various madhabs a Zindeeq who feigns repentance is also spared, and he is only killed when he insists on being a disbeliever.

The law of dealing with the hypocrites and other disbelievers changed with time. Initially the Muslims were taught to be lenient as that suited their interests.  This is also apparent from the hadith, in which the Prophet ﷺ gave his reason for not executing a hypocrite:

فقام عمر فقال يا رسول الله دعني أضرب عنق هذا المنافق فقال النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم دعه لا يتحدث الناس أن محمدا يقتل أصحابه
Umar got up an, said, "O Allah's Messenger (ﷺ)! Let me chop off the head of this hypocrite (Abdullah bin Ubay)!"
The Prophet (ﷺ) said "Leave him, lest the people say that Muhammad kills his companions."
— Bukhari

Which indicates that he abstained from executing him to serve this interest. And that otherwise killing the hypocrite was lawful.
And the Quran also initially prescribed leniency and forgiveness:

ولا تطع الكافرين والمنافقين ودع أذاهم
And do not obey the disbelievers and the hypocrites and disregard their annoyance
— Quran 33:48

فاعفوا واصفحوا حتى يأتي الله بأمره
So pardon and overlook until Allah delivers His command.
— Quran 2:109

However later as the Muslims gained strength, jihad and hudood were prescribed - this means that the hypocrites were punished when their disbelief became evident.

لئن لم ينته المنافقون والذين في قلوبهم مرض والمرجفون في المدينة لنغرينك بهم ثم لا يجاورونك فيها إلا قليلا ملعونين أينما ثقفوا أخذوا وقتلوا تقتيلا
If the hypocrites and those in whose hearts is disease and those who spread rumors in al-Madinah do not cease, We will surely incite you against them; then they will not remain your neighbors therein except for a little. Accursed wherever they are found, [being] seized and massacred completely.
— Quran 33:60-61

يا أيها النبي جاهد الكفار والمنافقين واغلظ عليهم
O Prophet, fight against the disbelievers and the hypocrites and be harsh upon them.
— Quran 9:73

Hence, if the Prophet ﷺ spared an apostate or proven hypocrite in some isolated incident then that concession was limited to that specific case and to that specific time and has been abrogated. The Muslims now act on the command that has been given to them.

Ref: Tafsir al-Qurtubi

Why were the hypocrites not killed?


How to make my iphone application compatible with iphone 4.0 OS

Question: Can any one help me out.
I want to make my iphone application developed in 3.1.3 SDK compatible with iphone OS 4.0
It is a simple application of getting data from a remote web services and showing the data in a UItableView
Comment: Compatible? In what way?
Answer: To get fast app switching, you simply need to compile against the new iOS 4 SDK.
APIs and other things provided by the OS (such as UITableViews, text labels, etc.) will automatically be higher resolution variants, even without being recompiled.
Other things such as bitmap artwork, icons, splash screens, etc. you need to update yourself. Apple gives some pointers here and here.
Unfortunately, you can't fetch data in the background periodically with the current multitasking APIs, if you were interested in doing so.


How to hypothesis test in Bayesian ordinal regression with BRMS in R

Question: I'm trying to figure out if I'm expressing this model correctly, and whether or not I'm testing my hypotheses correctly.
I ran a study where I had people classify stimuli with two  dimensions. Then I showed them some examples of those stimuli asked them to rate how typical each stimulus was on a Likert scale from 1 to 7. I asked each participant to rate 36 stimuli. Each stimuli had a relevant dimension and an incidental dimension. Each dimension was set to either an extreme value, a marginal value, or a modal value. (Each dimension was bimodal with a trough at the category boundary. These labels are actually just a classification of a continuous dimension from 1 to 100, though the bimodal distribution was symmetrical and the research question concerns the modes rather than any particular value. Extreme values are tails, marginal values are the tails of the bimodals nearest the trough, and modes are modes. During the training phase the dimensions are uncorrelated.)
I've come to realize that a cumulative ordered logistic regression is probably the best way to analyze this data. Using the brms package in R, I've specified my model using dummy coding for the relevant and incidental feature values, setting the reference categories for both to the modes. (I've tried a model with interactions wherein the system dummy codes as it sees fit from my categorical parameters, and the interaction didn't seem to matter.)
rating_dummy1 <- brm(rating ~ labRel_Marginal + labRel_Extreme + labInc_Marginal + labInc_Extreme + (labRel_Marginal + labRel_Extreme + labInc_Marginal + labInc_Extreme | uniqueid), data = testing.rfc, family = cumulative)

Note: I'm 99% sure this is the same as rating_fit1.1 <- brm(rating ~ label_relevant + label_incidental + (label_relevant + label_incidental | uniqueid), data = testing.rfc, family = cumulative), once the reference category for those factors is releveled to mode.
My main research questions are:

Do people rate stimuli with relevant modal values more highly than other stimuli?
Do people rate stimuli with incidental modal values more highly than other stimuli?

My main questions: Does this model specification make sense, and how do I test these research questions?
I've attempted to test them by asking "are stimuli with other labels any different than modal ones?
(hypothesis(rating_dummy1, c("labRel_Marginal = 0",
                         "labRel_Extreme = 0",
                         "labInc_Marginal = 0",
                         "labInc_Extreme = 0"), alpha = .05, class = "b"))

Is there a more nuanced formulation I could make here? I'm struggling a bit with the interpretation and formulation of the hypotheses.
Answer: I suggest you ask the question on brms-users (https://groups.google.com/forum/#!forum/brms-users).


Prove $\displaystyle n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - \log\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right) < \log\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right)$

Question: I'm trying to prove the above inequality, assuming $n\ge1$.
I've been working on this one using log properties and trying to reduce this inequalitiy to simpler ones. Though!, is it even correct? or am I trying to prove a falsity?
Thanks, I strongly suspect I'm wasting my time on this one??
Comment: Let $n\rightarrow\infty$, then the left goes to $1$ and the right goes to $0$, so the inequality is wrong for large enough $n$.
Comment: It is not true, as the left-hand side tends to 1, as $n\to\infty$, while the right-hand side tends to 0.
Answer: Notice that $n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - \log\left(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}\right) <  \log\left(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}\right)$ can be rewritten as $n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - 2\log\left(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}\right) < 0$.  Since $1+\frac{1}{n+1} < 1+\frac{1}{n}$ and $\log$ is an increasing function, we have that
$$n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - 2\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right) > (n-2)\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right).$$
But, for $n\ge2$, the right hand side is greater than zero, so
$$n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - 2\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right) > 0\\
n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right) - \log\left(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}\right) > \log\left(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}\right).$$


Can PyQt5 projects use the MIT license?

Question: I maintain a PyQt5 project on GitHub under the MIT license but now I am wondering if I am risking getting in trouble by not making it GPL... This answer makes me think that releasing my own code under MIT should be allowed because I have PyQt5 as a pip or conda dependency and my project does not directly include or modify and GPL code it just has it as a dependency, but the 2 other answers in that thread make me unsure. All I have is a single LICENSE.txt in my project root saying it's MIT. Can anyone help clarify whether I am breaking GPL rules here? Another big PyQt based project released under MIT is pyqtgraph.
Answer: It's ok. Your license must be only GPL-compatible (it can be GPL, but it's not mandatory).
MIT and MIT-0 (the license you use) are compatible (https://www.gnu.org/licenses/license-list.html#Expat).
Note that if you distribute binaries where PyQt5 is provided with the package, you must distribute that whole program under the GNU GPL, but you can specify that the original source is under the MIT (or MIT-0) license.
It is not legal advice.
Comment: It's probably worth mentioning somewhere PyQt5 exists in a multi-licensing scheme (that is, customers can choose a non-open source license if they want), and there is also another project called PySide which is available under an LGPL license and is mostly source compatible with PyQt (though as I recall, some small changes might be required to some programming interfaces, such as (Py)QString).

Can PyQt5 projects use the MIT license?


Why do my textures look different in texture paint mode and object mode?

Question: As you can see in the attached image below, my textures in object mode (top one) and texture paint mode (bottom one) look different. When in object mode it looks blury, which is not what i want. I will export it to a game engine later, so i dont want it to be blury. Why is it doing this and how can i change it ?
Comment: What does your texture look like in an external image editor? What does it look like in render view? What are your viewport settings for texture size and mipmap, etc?
Comment: I'm not sure about external image editor. For rendering I use Eevee and just render straight from the viewport. When I created the image for the texture the image size I set was 2048x2048. I'm not sure about the viewport setting you are talking about. Is there a way to increase or decrease viewport quality?
Answer: Possibly you can turn up the aliasing and filter settings in the Viewport in Preferences like I did here, maybe that will help some.


What is the double bond equivalence of the following compound?

Question:
What is the double bond equivalence of the given compound? The given answer is 14 (8 pi electrons and 6 rings = 14 DBE). But why isn't the lone pair on nitrogen considered? The lone pair on nitrogen is involved in resonance with the other 2 bonds making the ring aromatic, so shouldn't we also consider that lone pair?
Comment: If some double bonds are in resonance, that does not make more or fewer of them. It is still the same number of double bonds. Resonance is about as irrelevant as the weather in the street outside. So is the lone pair of N.
Answer: As Ivan Neretin pointed out in the comments, $\pi$ bonds will remain same whether or not in resonance.
However, if you have trouble counting the double bond equvalent, you can directly use the formula for it given as $$\ce{DU=\dfrac{2C+2-H+N-X}{2}}$$ so here number of carbons are C=23, H=21, N=1 which also gives 14 as the answer.
Answer: 6 rings, and 8 double bonds, adds together for 14 DBE. Resonance will not change how many double bonds there are - you can see that the nitrogen has made 3 bonds and so does not contribute to the DBE total
Comment: For an alternative method, [look here](https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/172453/degree-of-unsaturation-or-index-of-hydrogen-deficiency/172466#172466).


Geometry optimization: nuclear coordinates vs lattice parameters

Question: I would like to know whether, at least in principle, minimization of energy with respect to nuclear coordinates leads to the same result as minimization of cell energy with respect to lattice parameters. Is one way computationally more advantageous than the other? Thanks in advance, also I'm sorry if the question might not be accurately formulated.
Answer: Minimizing energy with respect to nuclear coordinates and with respect to lattice parameters are two very different things.
Minimizing energy with respect to nuclear coordinates can be used for periodic and isolated systems.
In the case of a periodic system, this will lead to knowing how the atoms and/or molecules are arranged inside a given crystallographic cell. In this instance, the crystal symmetry is a constraint on your system. If your system is an isolated molecule, there are no constraints, and you will have the conformer with the lowest energy.
Minimizing the lattice parameters (in general, together with the nuclear coordinates) is done when you are starting from a bad structure, or you need to know if the system can have another crystallographic phase.
If you have crystallographic evidence that there are no other phases, then you can use the experimental lattice parameters as constants, and there is no need to optimize them.
Is one way computationally more advantageous than the other? There is no such thing as an advantage. All of this will depend on what you are studying and your needs.
Comment: The difficult task is to predict the crystal structure (lattice parameters and atoms positions) of a material starting only with the type of atoms it is made on, not the optimization of nucleus/lattice parameters.
Comment: If you don't have any experimental structure, you need to predict the crystal structure first. This is a very difficult task. Take a look at this site: [https://uspex-team.org/en/uspex/overview](https://uspex-team.org/en/uspex/overview).
Comment: Thank you very much. Let's say I want to find the equilibrium structure of solid material for which there are no experimental structural data. What will I need to do to find its equilibrium structure at room temperature? Am i going to have to request both kind of optimization?
Comment: Thank you again, I'll take a look at it. Since you seem to know very much about this topic, I have one more questions. If this is a difficult task to accomplish then what kind of optimizations are routinely done?


Low dose multivitamin?

Question: I am interested in taking a multivitamin as a supplement to my diet.  Every multivitamin I look at contains 600% of this and 400% of that - I don't really want to see numbers that high.  I don't even really want to see 100% - I would be most comfortable with seeing 20% across the board.  I am not looking to get all of my micronutrients from this pill, just use is as a supplement to the food I am eating.  Googling doesn't turn anything up.  Does anyone know of such a product?
Comment: I am using a product called fruits and vegetables…
Comment: What is your level of activity? Did you try to buy supplements at your local drug store or in (sport) supplements shop?
Comment: Haha, "a product called fruits and veg"? ... a product? That is a good one. Fruit is very good throughout the day too.
Comment: We generally expect a direct and obvious connection to some aspect of fitness; I don't see that here. Please see the FAQ.
Answer: As long as you are on a healthy diet you should not have to worry about your vitamins.
I am quoting from an answer from Skeptics.SE on the same topic:

There answer is not necessarily a simple "yes" or "no."
[…] Vitamin supplements are all about avoiding a vitamin deficiency. There really is no added benefit to getting more vitamins once you're at sufficient levels. The trick is that it's not that easy to keep track of whether or not you are.
[…] No, you do not need vitamin supplements if you get sufficient levels of vitamins anyway. There is no added benefit to getting more than enough vitamins.
[…] It is worth looking into whether or not you belong to any of the risk groups, to assess whether or not you would be in need of supplements, or perhaps, and preferably, a change of habits. For a healthy adult to take multi-vitamins sounds to me like hedging your bets, but a pill a day won't get you intoxicated either.

From another answer to a related question from skeptics.SE:

[…] So basically the recommendation is to eat plants, not to eat vitamins. Vitamins are not a good substitute for eating a lot of veggies in this sense.

If you are concerned that you might suffer from some kind of deficiency you should -in my opinion- adjust your diet before taking supplements. There is no good reason to avoid eating fruits and vegetables on a diet I would call healthy.
Comment: That's all great, but you didn't list sufficient levels for active person. E.g. RDA for vitamin C is 90mg, but very active persons due to high level of free radicals in body should take up to 2g (2 222% of RDA). Try to eat enough veggies and fruits to hit 2 g of C (e.g. to get to this number, you would need to eat 29 oranges). Not to mention it's very expensive.
Comment: @StupidOne could you provide a reputable source that supports your claim? The 2g you cite is the upper tolerable limit looking at wikipedia. Doses above 1g can even cause diarrhea, which will flush out even more nutrients.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_C#Daily_requirements
Comment: http://www.healthy-vitamin-choice.com/athletes-requirements.html Reputable sources are at the bottom. It's a little bit tricky to give you neutral source for such high intake because there are littery millions of "studies" sponsored by supplement industry. If you really want to know the optimal need for your body, you should consult with sport medicine doctor.
Comment: I can agree to the last sentence. Whatever, since the OP only asked for 20% RDA supplements I don't think he is training on an olympic niveau. Also you will not engage in competition daily, I too get me one or two high carbo gels and bars when on competition and drink water supplemented with minerals, but not on a daily basis. You should start with a healthy diet and only take supplements when you feel that it is not enough (thats pretty much what my nutritional medicine doctor said).
Comment: I work out, and I eat plenty of fruits and veggies, of a rather varied sort.  Even so, when I actually enter all of the food I eat in a given day into a nutrient calculator, I end up being deficient in several vitamins.  For example, zinc is one vitamin that I rarely get enough of.  I could just add a cup of pumpkin seeds to my diet every day, but when I do this kind of adjustment for every vitamin I need, I just end up with too large a volume of food for me to eat in one day.  Maybe I need to expand my stomach.
Comment: @StevenGubkin, well done for doing it that way, I just take the easy way out, and get multivitamins. This might be too localized, but I am currently taking a product called: Alpha Men (http://www.myprotein.com/uk/pages/search?SearchTerm=alpha%20men) - it has the nutritional info on the right, for example: that has 80mg Vitamin C (100% RDA*) and 15mg Zinc (150% RDA*), etc. I'm not saying that eating fruits and veg is wrong, but meat is also needed for protein. So fruit and veg needs to be balanced with other foods.
Answer: I think it is based on what your body can handle.
For example, if the bottle says it has 512% Vitamin B, your body will consume a percentage of that and the rest will be dumped out, when you attend the bathroom. That is because most vitamins are water soluble.
Read this article: Yahoo Answers - the answer is a bit straight to the line for how I talk.
My brother is a body builder, and he told me that he never takes vitamin pills, he injects them, as his body will take more that way, as it goes straight into his blood. He also said, if you take a pill, your body will absorb 60% of the pill.
So if you see something that says it contains 20% of this, then your body will probably only absorb about 60% of it.
Hope this helps!

Low dose multivitamin?


Is it ok to add a bit of humor and sarcasm to academic presentations

Question: Is it frowned upon to add slight humor and sarcasm to academic presentations? For example, I flip to a background slide and say "This is a typical slide used by researchers in (field) just to show off how difficult their work is." before going through the content of the slide. Is there a difference in doing that in different settings, like a department seminar vs an international conference?
Comment: If the previous speaker's talk is filled with slides like that, your innocent funny remark could strike home in an embarrassing way. :)
Comment: As an ordinary speaker at a conference you're unlikely to have got the time or the recognition to spend on something like this.  That's not to say you can't (try to) raise a smile or even a laugh -- many conference sessions could be improved by loosening up a bit.  But be careful not to deprecate anyone except yourself.
Comment: I had a technical writing professor who once told my peers and I that "Humor is the best way to make a good presentation great. It's also the best way to make a good presentation terrible."
Answer: There is nothing wrong with a little humor as long as you can pull it off well.  Lightening the mood is often welcome, especially in settings where the expected norm may be long, dry boring, content (such as a conference where people are attending session after session all day).
Besides making people laugh, a joke or two in an academic presentation can help make you and the audience more comfortable, make your presentation more memorable, and help you come across as a confident, competent presenter.
Of course, there are potential downfalls:

A joke could fall flat, which may be awkward and embarrassing.
Jokes that might come across as insulting can be dangerous (though gently poking fun at your own discipline can be fine--I have no problem with your proposed statement, especially if you make it self-deprecating, such as "I have made this slide extra complicated so I seem important".  I have taken this approach and it usually goes down very well.)
Too much humor can distract from your message.  Use a little humor, and it helps engage people, and they will be paying attention to your serious point.  Use too much, and no one will remember anything but the jokes.

But overall, I say go for it.  Having a boring, forgettable presentation is a much bigger danger than a joke that falls flat.
Comment: Good answer, the "as long as you can pull it off" part is key.  Do you usually interject a little humor when you speak?  If you do, go for it.  If you've never done it before or are nervous when you speak, I might suggest not trying it first in an academic presentation.
Comment: Self-deprecating humour is the most safe, as long as you are sure nobody really thinks it may apply to you or it is not relevant to your professional work.
Comment: Regarding self-deprecating humor, you have to be really great to pull this one off. It's more something for senior scientists. Also, I think there is no "safe" (or even "mostly safe") way to make jokes today. Just look at what happened to Tim Hunt, or comedians avoiding campuses. But I also think that people who object to (almost) everything shouldn't set the tone — and most people (or those who matter) see through this outrage. So, yeah, go for it — and stand by it if there are negative reactions. After all, laughter is the best medicine (unless you work in pharmacology).
Answer: I'd say you should know what audience you're presenting to. If you're presenting groundbreaking (or at the very least, important) information at an international conference full of notable researchers in the field, you might be able to get away with a single joke or sarcastic comment. Most people are there to learn, not to laugh.
On the other hand, if it's among people who know you well (e.g. department seminar or something of the like), you can add a little more humor to lighten the mood a bit.
One thing to take away from my answer is that you should reread your question:  you're giving an academic presentation, not touring as a stand-up comic. A little humor can be well-received, but too much will make you seem foolish.
Comment: @dan1111 - one does have to be more careful at international conferences because the presenter's humor may not translate well. The better you know your audience the easier it is to have most understand the joke.
Comment: No humor at international conferences?  I don't agree with that.
Comment: @TheRumpler - indeed. I was only trying to be explicit with the other commenter.
Comment: @JonCuster That was exactly my reasoning
Answer: I think it depends if it related to the content of your presentation. Nothing wrong with a little bit of humor. But in this particular example, it looks it only serves to rediculise other people their presentations. I think that is inappropriate.
Answer: hmm..  I have mixed feeling about this...
Adding jokes makes it easier to get people attention and some time help to convey the message.  However, there are many better ways to achieve this without using jokes or sarcasm.  Having a clear,  focused presentation is much better than adding jokes..
Answer: One thing to consider is that humour is subjective. Not everyone finds the same thing funny, and it's possible that not everyone will realise that a statement is a joke. As a comment on another answer points out, this is particularly true if the first language of the audience isn't the same as that of the speaker.
In particular, unless you know your audience very well, don't make hyperbolic statements on the assumption that your audience will realise they are untrue. 95% of the audience might find "and this identity can be used to solve five other grand challenge problems before breakfast" mildly amusing, but the PhD student who wastes a month following up on idea won't.


Reuse 20 litre plastic drums for drinking water?

Question: Would you consider it safe to clean and reuse a 20 litre plastic drum that contained 36% Hydrochloric Acid for drinking water? If so how would you recommend cleaning it?
Answer: Regardless of what it takes to remove any traces of hydrochloric acid from the drum, the container is probably not certified as food-grade. So in addition to any risks from the acid itself (including things like heavy metals, which are common contaminants in mineral acids), the plastic is not certified to be free of toxic substances left over from manufacturing or that the plastic will not degrade to release such substances over its lifetime.
Answer: I imagine the container is made of polyethylene or polypropylene (it should be marked with a numeric code). If that is the case, I have a hard time accepting that there is any downside to using it for drinking water. Chemists don't want heavy metals contaminating their hydrochloric acid, so I think you are OK on that count as well.
Comment: Have a look at [this](http://www.sigmaaldrich.com/catalog/product/sial/320331)—1 ppm of Pb. Acids dissolve a lot of heavy metals and they aren't a problem for most uses and are expensive to remove so you'll find that most mineral acids have a fair bit of heavy metals unless they're the 99.999% assay or semiconductor grade. As far as reusing chemical containers go, it's probably fairly safe. Would I do it in a survival situation without a better option? Yes. Would I take the risk of contaminating drinking water for myself or others so I don't have to buy a new container? No.
Comment: Hydrochoric acid is stomach acid.  Any remaining acid can be flushed out with 3 rinses with water to pretty much undetectable levels.  If the acid was intended for food production then the container is totally safe.  If it was intended for cleaning your driveway the quality of the container may be less than ideal.  Remember that the acid will have cleaned the container pretty good and not much dangerous stuff will dissolve later into water.


Approval process in email

Question: I have requirement as to create approval process which can be approved or rejected via email. I found Automation Setting to enable email response in which only salesforce users has adminstrative permission is taken.
Is there any other way to meet this requirement.Can non registered users able to approve the process or not after the submission.
Answer: If you navigate to Setup > Workflow & Approvals > Process Automation Settings
there is a checkbox Enable Email Approval Response for
Enabling email approval response lets users reply to email approval requests by typing APPROVE or REJECT in the first line and adding comments in the second line.
You may want to go through this documentation for more detailed information.
Comment: It shows only salesforce users that too only one has System adminstrative permission. How can we enable email response for non registered salesforce users.

Approval process in email


What do we call a place, which is a plane land just beneath a mountain range?

Question: I want to describe about a village. It is not a mountain village. It is located just at the border from where hills started to rise.
Comment: Do you mean a "plain land"? If so the answer is "a plain" - i.e. flat ground at the foot of hills or mountains.
Answer: Dictionary.com defines piedmont as

An area of land, glacier, or other feature formed or lying at the foot of a mountain or mountain range.
adjective
  (prenominal) (of glaciers, plains, etc) formed or situated at the foot of a mountain or mountain range

And is from pied (foot)  monte (hill),  thus foothills  also works.
Comment: In my experience, the definition given by Wikipedia is more accurate here: "gradual increases in elevation at the base of a mountain range, higher hill range or an upland area". That is, foothills to me are not _plain_, but have some elevation. Not all mountains have foothills – some rise very sharply and go straight from plain to mountain. (It's not quite clear from the question whether the beginning elevation of the foothills or the flatness of the plain is what the asker is looking for or not.)
Comment: I don't disagree.  I think foothills and piedmont both have some element of elevation prior to the steep ascent of the mountain range itself. But some are quite rolling and smooth and compared to the mountains can be considered more flat than mountain.  Do a google image search for piedmont and see the kinds of things that show up.
Comment: @ JIm and  Janus Bahs Jacquet, thanks much for your clarification and patience. It helped me to think of texts describing the scenario. To be more specific, I shall say that the village has got a landscape, where it is plain. And, surrounded by forests on threes sides at the foothills of a mountain range.
Comment: Unless OP clarifies that they don't require a term for **flat** terrain, I'll have to downvote here later.
Comment: @EdwinAshworth- In this case, I think the important part to capture is "at the border from where the hills start to rise"  The only word I know of that gets at that transition area is piedmont. Other than that you're stuck with "base of the mountains" or "edge of the plains"  [Here's a picture of Italy's Piedmont area](https://images.app.goo.gl/tNsuGL3BBrSiMv8Q8): While there is some elevation and gentle rolling of the terrain it's pretty plain-like when compared to the mountains.


How would one go about solving a complicated polynomials? (Not necessarily complex one's, though)

Question: Say I have an equation such as:
$$
x^2 + 3x^4y^2 + 3y^4x^2 + y^6 = 5x^2y^2
$$
How would one go about solving such an equation? Where $y$ could be isolated in terms of $x$. I.e, $y = $ formula involving $x$.
Answer: If you want find the solutions for $y$ you have to ordinate the polynomial with the $y$ powers and in your case we have:
$$
y^6+3x^2y^4+y^2(3x^4-5x^2)+x^2=0
$$
In general this is a polynomial of degree $n$ (in you case $n=6$) and, for $n>4$ we have not general formulas that gives a solution by means of radicals ( Abel-Ruffini theorem). In this case we can put $y^2=t$ and the equation becomes
$$
t^3+3x^2t^2+(3x^4-5x^2)t+x^2=0
$$
That is a third degree equation with a ''parameter'' $x$. So, if we can solve such equation we can find a formula that gives $y^2=F(x)$.
Depending if you want for $y$ real or complex numbers you have to discuss such solution to find the good values of $x$ .
I don't see a simple way to solve it without using the Cardano formula.(and the discussion of solutions is not easy at all).
Comment: Ahhh, yes, I have worked with 3rd degrees, and 4th degrees by taking the square root of the 4th degrees and what not, but it's interesting in that established methods seem to break down beyond the 4th degree, as this is exactly what seems to be happening.

Thank you very much for the links to the Abel-Ruffini Theorem, and  cardano formula. I'll also be sure to work through the methodology you presented here.
Comment: You are welcome!.... and not forget to accept if you like :)
Answer: Maybe a slightly easier approach is to complete the cube first as
$$
x^2+(x^2+y^2)^3-x^6=5x^2y^2
$$
and introduce the variable $z=x^2+y^2$ to get
$$
0=x^2+z^3-x^6-5x^2(z-x^2)=z^3-5x^2z-x^6+5x^4+x^2
$$
which is a depressed cubic (without a quadratic term) in $z$.
One can further divide the depressed cubic by $x^3$ (assuming $x\ne 0$) and make the change $t=\frac{z}{x}$ to get
$$
f(x,t)=t^3-5t-x^3+5x+\frac{1}{x}=0
$$
P.S. It is easy to show that the only real solution to the original equation is $x=y=0$. For example, one can minimize the function $f(x,t)$ for $x>0$, $t\ge x$ and see that the minimum is positive.