have 12 word phrase need to find wallet

Question: I have my 12 word passphrase and would like to see the contents of my wallet how do I see this wallet on a new app or site?
Comment: Unfortunately, there is no mnemonic phrase standard that is completely unanimously adopted. (Although BIP39 seems to be the most widely accepted in my view) That's saying, different wallets may produce different types of mnemonic phrases that won't be compatible with each other. Please recall which walllet did you use, and, what did the receiving addresses look like (starting with "1" or "3" or "bc1"?). Of course, these words are your own top secret, never share it to anybody, anyone who knows them will be able to stole your funds.
Answer: If you don't care about your privacy, you can always find the associated extended public key (xpub*) and enter it in a blockchain explorer site such as https://www.blockchain.com/explorer.
Here is how a Bitcoin account's (M/44'/0'/0'/) extended public key for a given set of 12 seed words can be computed on a trusted air gapped offline computer that could be operating in a Faraday cage:
<code>% echo "radar blur cabbage chef fix engine embark joy scheme fiction master release" | bx mnemonic-to-seed | bx hd-new | bx hd-private -d -i 44 | bx hd-private -d -i 0 | bx hd-public -d -i 0</code>
xpub6DHi64TFkDPx2AH4q2ku3vX9LJYNpTis5tLrET8Sb9irp174eCkgtAnvBpyzQXgrtmF31Lrq4gTMGFUGcjJicMu9LdueVdqt6FZ2Wzcg8Fj
Ledger and Trezor devices can be queried to gain access to your xpub key.
Otherwise, just apply the KISS principle and use your wallet application that will naturally provide you with an account balance.

have 12 word phrase need to find wallet


Visa rules for South African nationals transiting through the US?

Question: I am a South African travelling to Toronto, I have a visa for Canada  but my flight back is from Toronto to Washington DC Dulles international airport onward to OR Tambo in Johannesburg. Do I need another visa ?
Comment: I you have highly specific questions about South African nationals, you can always check here  https://community.justlanded.com/en/South-Africa/forum/Immigration-and-visa-advice
Answer: Yes, you will need a transit or C visa for the United States.
According to the Department of State (emphasis mine):

Generally, a citizen of a foreign country who wishes to enter the United States must first obtain a visa, either a nonimmigrant visa for temporary stay, or an immigrant visa for permanent residence. Transit (C) visas are nonimmigrant visas for persons traveling in immediate and continuous transit through the United States enroute to another country, with few exceptions.
If you already have a valid visitor (B) visa, you may be able to use it to transit the United States. If you are a citizen of a participating country, you may be able to transit the United States on the Visa Waiver Program.

South Africa isn't on the VWP list, so unless you happen to have a B type visa (tourism) you need to apply for a transit visa.


Why didn't John use "ego eimi ho on" in John 8:58 like he did in Revelation for the divine name?

Question: I always thought it was the best explicit proof of Jesus claiming the divine I AM WHO I AM from Exodus, but this made me doubt a little. Why didn't he include "ho on" like he did on the book of Revelation in passages like 1:17,18 ?
Comment: The authors of the Revelation and G.John are almost certainly not the same person.
Comment: @MarkEdward What are some reasons you think so, out of curiosity?
Comment: Can you please cite the passages you are referring to, including the Greek? IE: the passage from Exodus and the passage from Revelation? What passages are you referring to? Also, please mention the translation you are citing. Thanks.
Comment: Note the accepted answer has a straight-up factual blunder in it. See my comment there.
Comment: Does this answer your question? [Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν" in John 8:58?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/9307/why-did-jesus-did-not-utter-the-whole-phrase-%e1%bc%90%ce%b3%e1%bd%bd-%ce%b5%e1%bc%b0%ce%bc%ce%b9-%e1%bd%81-%e1%bd%a4%ce%bd-in-john-858)
Comment: Misguided opinion based question. Expecting the *I am* phrase as God's name same as the duplicated que, and coming up with a preconceived notion for the question. Jesus is the same God, however he didn't claim that name during his lifetime, rather he lived as a man, in the form of a true man, the son, not as God. Stop expecting more explicit ref for the deity claim than already seen in the gospels. Messiah claim was deity claim already.
Answer: There are three different appellations in Exodus 3:14-15:

"Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh", variously translated as "I am that I am", "I am who I am", "I will be what I will be":  And God said to Moses, "Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh" (Exodus 3:14a, JPS Tanakh), or I AM THAT I AM (KJV) ...
"Ehyeh", translated as "I am" or "I will be": He continued, "Thus shall you say to the Israelites, 'Ehyeh sent me to you'" (Exodus 3:14b, JPS Tanakh), or I AM hath sent me unto you (KJV)
"YHVH": And God said further to Moses, "Thus shall you speak to the Israelites: The LORD, the God of your fathers ... has sent me to you (Exodus 3:15, JPS Tanakh)

The Greek Septuagint, which is the version of the Old Testament which the New Testament generally follows, renders these three names as:

Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh: Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν
Ehyeh: Ἐγώ εἰμι
YHVH: Κύριος

Thus either ego eimi ho on or ego eimi would have been recognized as the Divine Name in Greek.  We see this in John 18:4-6, as well as the passage you cite:

"Whom seek ye?"  They answered Him, "Jesus the Nazaraean."  Jesus saith to them, "I am" [Ἐγώ εἰμι] ... Then when He said to them, "I am," they went backward and fell to the ground

Almost every English translation of this passage inserts the word "he" after "I am", but it is actually not in the Greek text (the above translation is from The Orthodox New Testament).  The Greek is accurately translating what would have been an utterance of the Divine Name, Ehyeh, by Jesus.
Comment: In the LXX it is ho on that is repeated a second time at Exodus 3:14 as a (shortened?) form of the Divine Name, not ego eimi.  Thus, ho on is capable of standing alone in such capacity, not ego eimi.  Bagster's translation renders these designations as "I am THE BEING" and "THE BEING" respectively.
Comment: So why didn't the Pharisees get their undies in a bunch when the man born blind claimed to be Almighty God?:   Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants]
ἄλλοι ἔλεγον ὅτι Οὗτός ἐστιν· ἄλλοι ἔλεγον Οὐχί, ἀλλὰ ὅμοιος αὐτῷ ἐστίν. ἐκεῖνος ἔλεγεν ὅτι **Ἐγώ εἰμι**.  John 9:9  Or Paul?  But by the grace of God **I am what I am**, and his grace to me was not without effect. No, I worked harder than all of them--yet not I, but the grace of God that was with me.  1 Cor 15:10
Comment: @Ruminator You seem to be ignoring the complete response "Before Abraham was..." which is not found in the man who was once blind. The pericope in John 9 is given to refute the very claim you are making. The man who is no longer blind is self identifying with the man who had been blind. IOW the man who is (now) different must establish he is the same man. In reality they are not the same: one **was** blind, one **can** see. This issue is one of denying the miracle by denying the identity of the man who is in fact different from his original state (born blind). He is not the same.
Comment: John 18:4-6 claim about "I am" phrase is blatantly wrong and fiction. If I am phrase represented divine name then nobody else could utter such a common linguistic phrase, which they did. It has no special connotation. Most answers on this topic on this site are full of baseless claims, fictional conjectures.
Comment: @Ruminator Of the use in John 9:9 Catrin H. Williams says: "Since this declaration clearly forms a response to a question posed by the man's neighbors, and consequently possess an antecedent, it cannot be defined as a self-contained declaration." *"I Am He"* Mohr Seibeck  p 255. That is why the Pharisees did not get upset. In 1 Corinthians 15:10 Paul writes εἰμι ὅ εἰμι  not "ἐγὼ εἰμί" (as Jesus did in John 8:58). Clearly they are not the same. In fact since Paul deliberately avoids making the claim Jesus made, the case for John 8:58 is stronger, not lessened as you suggest.
Comment: @RevelationLad  Jesus was clearly answering a direct question. And Ἐγώ is unnecessary in Koine. The man born blind used it identically to how Jesus used it in John 18 so your "Greek principles" are ad hoc and used with convenience.
Comment: @Ruminator πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί "Before Abraham was I am" is not using the phrase identically as the blind man. The response of the people make it clear they understood the claim Jesus made; just as the Pharisees understood the claim the beggar was making. Also I note you continue to float your theory that Paul makes the same claim in 1 Corinthians 15 despite the clear difference: you appear to be applying the Greek on an ad hoc basis suited to your theological beliefs, not what the actual text reads.
Comment: @RevelationLad  There is no difference in the way the man born blind uses the words and Jesus uses the words. "You are not yet 50 years old and have you seen Abraham?"
Comment: Is there a reason "I am" is being treated differently in Greek and English: they are both only contextually significant (and only contextually the name of God). When Jesus says, "BEFORE Abraham I *AM*" it's obvious that "[He made] himself out to be equal to God," as John comments/interprets for us about Jesus' claim to divinity.
Comment: Jesus always plainly confessed that his God was greater than he was:  ESV John 14:28 You heard me say to you, 'I am going away, and I will come to you.' If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I am going to the Father, for **the Father is greater than I**.   This is because the Father was his God:
ESV 2 Cor 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort,
Comment: See also:  ESV 2 Thess 1:1Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy, To the church of the Thessalonians in **God our Father** and the Lord Jesus Christ: 2Grace and peace to you from **God our Father** and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Comment: @Ruminator yeah, key word here: God **the father**. Jesus is still God, the Father is God, the Holy spirit is God yet the father is still **greater**. You misunderstand trinitarianism completely. Jesus is still absolutely God, but there is a clear subordination / hierarchy of roles in the trinity. That's not a contradictory position - the gospels and epistles affirm both holistically.
Comment: Where specifically in the scriptures does the assertion that "The son proceeds from the father and the spirit from the son, all make up ONE God." appear?
Comment: @Ruminator "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,"
Matthew 28:19
Comment: "Ehyeh: Ἐγώ εἰμι" This is **straight up wrong**. The Septuagint does not translate 3:14b in this way. Rather, it is translated 'ho on'.
Comment: @Ruminator  The son proceeds from the father and the spirit from the son, all make up ONE God. There is no need to lessen Jesus' divinity just because you don't understand the trinity. Jesus is no mere angel or divine being, his status as God is clear.
Comment: @Ruminator Who sent Jesus? The father. Who sent the spirit? It was sent through the name of Jesus. The spirit is still a part of God, Jesus is still a part of God.
Answer: Why didn't John use "ego eimi ho on" in John 8:58 like he did in Revelation for the divine name?
Because Jesus is not the God of the Old testament as Acts 3:13 shows.
Acts 3:13 ASV The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Servant Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied before the face of Pilate, when he had determined to release him.
Acts 3:13 shows that Jesus is not the God of the OT patriarchs. If ego eimi is understood by Jews or Christians as declaring one's Godhood, would they apply it to themselves, like the blind man in John 9:9?
John 9:9 ASV Others said, It is he: others said, No, but he is like him. He said, I am he
When Jesus said "ego eimi" in John 6:20 why is it that none of his disciples considered that to mean that Jesus was claiming to be God?
John 6:20 ASV But he saith unto them, It is I; be not afraid.
The  assumption that John's Jesus' "ego eimi" is referring to the words in Exodus 3:14 is not true.
Consider, if ego eimi was a Greek way of saying God's name "Yahweh." Did Jesus say "Before Abraham was, YHWH." in John 8:58?
OP asked why didn't he(John) include "ho on" like he did on the book of Revelation in passages like 1:17,18?
Because the ego eimi used by Jesus in the book of John is not the same as the "ho on" ("The Being, The One Who Is"),  the Greek of the LXX reads "ego eimi ho on", which is translated into English as 'I am he (the one) who is' or 'I am the being.'  In the LXX, the ego eimi is not what carries the idea of eternal self-existence, it is the ho on.. Jesus did not say "ego eimi ho on" in John 8:58. as what is shown on the LXX.
The appearance of "ho on" Revelation 1:4;8, 4:8, 11:17and 16:5 are all applied to God and not to Jesus.
Exodus 3:14 should be read from the context of the whole passage. The answer to the question of what is God's name is not in Exodus 3:14. The answer is in Exodus 3:15:
God said to Moses, "Say to the Israelites, 'YHWH (not ehyeh), the God of your fathers… has sent me to you.' This is my name forever, the name by which I am to be remembered from generation to generation. `
The capitalization of I am in John 8:58 by some bible translations is a deliberate violation of the grammatical rules of capitalization in order to prove a theology. One can simply look at other translations and compare.
Comment: +1 Note that the 'ego eimi' at 8:58 is the **third** 'ego eimi' Jesus uses in John 8. The first 2 are usually unproblematically translated as 'I am he', which refers to being the Christ (or perhaps the Light, the title He claims to kick off the back and forth). Could it possibly be He's just claiming 'I am he' again here? Gosh, no, that would be way too straightforward.
Answer: Always keep in mind that Jesus was speaking Aramaic to the Pharisees and the Torah was originally in Hebrew.
In John 8:58, Jesus is quoted as saying "Before Abraham was, I am". Some Christians use this verse as evidence to claim Jesus said he is God. This is because in Exodus 3:13-14, When Moses ask God "Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' Then what shall I tell them?" God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you." But is Jesus' "I am" the same "I AM" God is said to have told Moses? The answer is "No." Jesus is not saying he is God in John 8:58 and we can prove that by analyzing the words used in John 8:58 with the words used in Exodus 3:14, via the Aramaic and Hebrew transliterations of both verses.
In the Syriac-Aramaic Bible called the Peshitta, in John 8:58, Jesus' "I am" is transliterated as "ANI" which literally means the first person singular "I am." For example, in Aramaic, "ANI ISHO" means "I am Jesus."
In Exodus 3:14 of the Torah, also known also known as the Pentateuch, when God is said to have told Moses "I AM" God does not say "ANI". The word God use is the verb "HAYAH" which means "TO BE."
In John 8:58, "I am" in the original language spoken by Jesus is "ANI (Strong's H589) - First Person Singular.
In Exodus 3:14, "I AM" in the original language spoken by God is "HAYAH (Strong's H1961) - Verb
Jesus is not saying he's God. The true meaning was lost in translation.
Answer: In this context the action expressed by the Greek verb ei·miʹ started "before Abraham came into existence" and was still in progress. It is therefore properly translated "I have been" rather than "I am," and a number of ancient and modern translations use wording similar to "I have been." In fact, at Joh 14:9, the same form of the Greek verb ei·miʹ is used to render Jesus' words: "Even after I have been with you men for such a long time, Philip, have you not come to know me?" Most translations use a similar wording, showing that depending on context there is no valid grammatical objection to rendering ei·miʹ as "have been."
(Other examples of rendering a present tense Greek verb using a present perfect tense verb are found at Lu 2:48; 13:7; 15:29; Joh 1:9; 5:6; 15:27; Ac 15:21; 2Co 12:19; 1Jo 3:8.)
Also, Jesus' reasoning recorded at Joh 8:54, 55 shows that he was not trying to portray himself as being the same person as his Father.
Comment: W/hat does "Joh" stand for? Is it John?
Comment: εἰμι means "I am." Arguably the challenge is how to express in English what is clear in Greek. For example, the reference you give in John 14:9 depends on translation. Literal translations express the present, "*Jesus saith to him, `So long time **am I** with you, and thou hast not known me, Philip? he who hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how dost thou say, Shew to us the Father?*" YLT and similar is the DLNT.
Answer: Yes, amen. If you simply look one bible hub for John 8:58 and compare it to John 9:9, you can see the bias of the translators.
They apply THE ONE after ego eimi when it comes to the blind man, making it I am THE ONE...but they don't do the same when it comes to Jesus
John 8:58 can also be translated as Before Abraham was, I am THE ONE
Jesus is the one who was foretold long before Abraham was born and the one they were expecting and looking for
I am he. I am the One. I am that person...etc....
To try and make Jesus in to YAHWEH from this verse is just embarassing.
Furthermore, in Exodus 3:14 in the KJV, the translators made SURE to retain the capitalization of the hebrew (There were no lower case letters in the hebrew or greek manuscripts), yet when Jesus says I am in the KJV, it is in lowercase. Did they forget to make God's name uppercase in John 8:58? Who would have made this collosial error? So, the same translators who made sure to retain the capitalization in Exodus 3:14, went out of their way to make Gods name lowercase in John 8:58? NO.
The simple fact of the matter is that the translators had no idea of even suggesting that Jesus was trying to claim he was the God of Abraham from this verse. The trinity is increasingly perverse and now you will see John 8:58 in the NKJV uppercase I AM. The Trinity shows its lies and deception very easily if you pay attention and study and it tricks those poor individuals who simply go by translation and who haven't done their own research
Blessings
Comment: Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please [edit] to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers [in the help center](/help/how-to-answer).
Comment: +1 Also worth noting the 'ego eimi' at 8:59 is the 3rd use of 'ego eimi' by Jesus in John 8. The first 2 most translators don't have a problem translating as 'I am he' or 'I am the one'. Gosh, wouldn't it make sense that the 3rd is also doing the same thing?
Answer: I'm of the opinion that John 8:58 is not an allusion to Exodus 3:14 but rather to Psalm 91 in the Greek:
Is John 8:58 an allusion to Psalm 90:2 LXX?
Comment: +1 At least this is better than the Ex. claims. But why go this far afield? It's the 3rd 'ego eimi' in John 8. How about Jesus is just saying "I am the Christ"?
Comment: With all due respect, it seems to me that that is much farther afield! Also, in my experience, everything in the NT is, by design, best understood through intertextuality with the OT. I am tempted to take your concern as an expression of "JW Not Invented Here Syndrome." Are you, by chance, a JW proffering the official JW take on the passage?
Comment: Wouldn't "I am the Christ" also be intertextual, and in particular linking that to the vision of Abraham from the OT? Nope, not a JW, but they are basically the contemporary equivalent of early church logo theorists IMO.
Comment: Where in Ex 4 do you see "I am the Christ"? Are you saying that is what the Messenger/Angel of the LORD meant with I AM (Hebrew)? 'ego eimi o wn? (Greek)?
Comment: Ex. 4? Do you mean Ex. 3? No, I'm saying it doesn't have to do with Ex. 3. It has to do with the vision given to Abraham, which is what Jesus is talking about just before John 8:58.
Comment: We don't need to really speculate that much here. It's right in the text, right before the statement.
Comment: Yes, Ex 3; sorry.  What specifically in the vision?
Comment: It seems to me to be a reference to Gen 22:18. "in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed" = the Christ.
Comment: Well, I will bow out as I need to go straighten up my USB cables.
Answer: Already in Septuagint the Hebraic "you are God" is translated as simply "you are", when the verb "to be" is detached from its functioning as a copula between "you" and "God", but simply bears an existential import, which is a laying of a stress on God's special and unique sort of being, to wit, the unbegan and unending being. For instance: Psalm 93:2: ἕτοιμος ὁ θρόνος σου ἀπὸ τότε, ἀπὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος σὺ εἶ. "From eternity you are", i.e. you exist.
However, more important for the John 8:58 passage is the Psalm 89:2: "πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη γενηθῆναι καὶ πλασθῆναι τὴν γῆν καὶ τὴν οἰκουμένην, καὶ ἀπὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος καὶ ἕως τοῦ αἰῶνος σὺ εἶ." "Before the mountain were brought about and the earth and wold was formed, from eternity to eternity - you are", which is directly referred to by the Lord Jesus Christ in John 8:58, who uses the same highlighted verb: πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί, thus either identifying Himself with the subject of the Psalm's sentence, or stating that His existence is just as unbegan and eternal as that of the Psalm's subject - God. In both cases He claims His divinity.
This is well understood by Jews who immediately take stones to kill Him for this, what they assumed to be, blasphemy. They are quite frank and outspoken about the reason, making no mistake in how they interpret the self-claim of the Lord: "We are not stoning you for any good work, but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God" (John 10:33).
Those who deny the Lord Jesus Christ's divinity are spiritual heirs of those Jews - the crucifiers of the Lord as of a 'blasphemer', for there is a clear binary opposition: since Christ is clearly and unequivocally claiming His own divinity, which is perfectly well understood by Jews, then either He lies and is a blasphemer, or His claim is true and worship is due to Him as to God. Tertium non datur.


Should unit tests be written for getter and setters?

Question: Are we supposed to write tests for our getters and setters or is it overkill?
Comment: @Claus: He didn't say properties, he said getters and setters. In java you write those manually, in other languages you get better support.
Comment: One might ask [why have getters and setters at all](http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1568091/why-use-getters-and-setters).
Comment: I assume you mean Java?  This is a particularly acute question for Java, much less so for more modern languages.
Comment: I don't think so. You should not write test case for getter/setter.
Comment: @skaffman What modern languages don't have properties? Sure, languages like Java require them to be full method bodies, but that doesn't make it logical different from say C#.
Answer: I would say no.
@Will said you should aim for 100% code coverage, but in my opinion that's a dangerous distraction.  You can write unit tests that have 100% coverage, and yet test absolutely nothing.
Unit tests are there to test the behaviour of your code, in an expressive and meaningful way, and getters/setters are only a means to an end.  If you tests use the getters/setters to achieve their goal of testing the "real" functionality, then that's good enough.
If, on the other hand, your getters and setters do more than just get and set (i.e. they're properly complex methods), then yes, they should be tested.  But don't write a unit test case just to test a getter or setters, that's a waste of time.
Comment: Aiming for 100% code coverage is silly. You'll end up doing coverage of code that's not public exposed, and/or code with no complexity. Such things are best left for autogeneration, but even autogenerated tests are fairly pointless. It's better to shift the focus to important testing, like integration tests.
Comment: @Claus: I agree except for the bit about focussing on integration testing. Unit tests are critical to good design, and complement integration tests.
Comment: I think that 100% code coverage when the entire test suite is run is a good aim. Property getters setters and other code is run as part of larger tests. The last pieces to be covered are probably error handling. And if the error handling isn't covered by unit tests it will never be covered. Do you really want to ship a product that contains code that has never ever been run?
Comment: You should always delete unused code. Remember, folks, functionally testing your public interface is only one benefit of a unit test. The other benefit is regression testing--that is, testing the integrity of your public interface. You may not already own the code you just wrote, and those getters and setters are vulnerable to some future developer mucking with their implementations. That's basically the gist of why a developer might think it's useless while her boss thinks it's important.
Comment: I would tend to disagree with this advice. Yes, getters and setters are simple, but they are also surprisingly easy to mess up. A few lines of simple tests and you know they are working and continue to work.
Comment: You might be testing unnecessary setters that you (or a tool) created just to have a 'rounded' POJO. You might be per instance using Gson.fromJson to "inflate" POJOS (no setters needed). In this case my choice is to delete the unused setters.
Comment: I personally also would write unit tests for properties, because we had several times the problem, that someone changed the property to a more complex one (e.g. moving an auto property to a property with a backing field or something else) and made a copy / pase mistake. If you have a unit test, it will immediatly fail - in our case, it failed when we delivered it to the user. Since that time I will always write tests even if it is boring ;-).
Comment: This answer begins with an "I would say no" while the context of it is "I would say it depends", poor lazy readers :)
Comment: Also on top of that, adding extra logic within getters and setters are bad practices. These logic should be extracted out to a service layer. So in short, don't add unit tests for getters and setters.
Comment: I think you should test them if you wrote custom code inside these methods or you can decide to test them if you set default values in the global values returned by getters.
Answer: Roy Osherove in his famous book 'The Art Of Unit Testing' says:

Properties (getters/setters in Java) are good examples of code that usually doesn't contain any logic, and doesn't require testing. But watch out: once you add any check inside the property, you'll want to make sure that logic is being tested.
Comment: Considering how little time it to takes test those and the likelihood of behaviour getting added I don't see why not. I suspect if pressed he might reply "well, I suppose why not".
Comment: Important early books often have bad advice. I've seen so many cases where people toss in getters and setters quickly and make mistakes because they are cutting and pasting or forget this. or this-> or something like that. They are easy to test and should certainly be tested.
Answer: A resounding YES with TDD

Note: This answer keeps getting upvotes, albeit potentially a bad advice. To understand why, have a look at its little sister below.

Controversial alright, but I'd argue that anyone who answers 'no' to this question is missing a fundamental concept of TDD.
For me, the answer is a resounding yes if you follow TDD. If you aren't then no is a plausible answer.
The DDD in TDD
TDD is often quoted as having thee main benefits.

Defence

Ensuring the code may change but not its behaviour.
This allows the ever so important practice of refactoring.
You gain this TDD or not.

Design

You specify what something should do, how it should behaves before implementing it.
This often means more informed implementation decisions.

Documentation

The test suite should serve as the specification (requirements) documentation.
Using tests for such purpose mean that the documentation and implementation are always in consistent state - a change to one means a change to other. Compare with keeping requirements and design on separate word document.

Separate responsibility from implementation
As programmers, it is terribly tempting to think of attributes as something of significance and getters and setter as some sort of overhead.
But attributes are an implementation detail, while setters and getters are the contractual interface that actually make programs work.
It is far more important to spell that an object should:

Allow its clients to change its state

and

Allow its clients to query its state

then how this state is actually stored (for which an attribute is the most common, but not the only way).
A test such as
(The Painter class) should store the provided colour

is important for the documentation part of TDD.
The fact that the eventual implementation is trivial (attribute) and carries no defence benefit should be unknown to you when you write the test.
The lack of round-trip engineering...
One of the key problems in the system development world is the lack of  round-trip engineering1 - the development process of a system is fragmented into disjointed sub-processes the artifacts of which (documentation, code) are often inconsistent.
1Brodie, Michael L. "John Mylopoulos: sewing seeds of conceptual modelling." Conceptual Modeling: Foundations and Applications. Springer Berlin Heidelberg, 2009. 1-9.
...and how TDD solves it
It is the documentation part of TDD that ensures that the specifications of the system and its code are always consistent.
Design first, implement later
Within TDD we write failing acceptance test first, only then write the code that let them pass.
Within the higher-level BDD, we write scenarios first, then make them pass.
Why should you exclude setters and getter?
In theory, it is perfectly possible within TDD for one person to write the test, and another one to implement the code that makes it pass.
So ask yourself:

Should the person writing the tests for a class mention getters and setter.

Since getters and setters are a public interface to a class, the answer is obviously yes, or there will be no way to set or query the state of an object. However, the way to do this is not necessarily by testing each method in isolation, see my other answer for more.
Obviously, if you write the code first, the answer may not be so clearcut.
Comment: That's just one side of the coin. Think of the stuff you could have done instead of testing just for the sake of testing. As Kent Beck said, you get paid for working code, not for working tests.
Comment: @GeorgiiOleinikov Have your read my other answer below? It pretty much in line with your view.
Answer: tl;dr: Yes you should, and with OpenPojo it's trivial.

You should be doing some validation in your getters and setters so you should be testing that. For example, setMom(Person p) should not allow setting anyone younger than themselves as their mother.

Even if you aren't doing any of that now, odds are you will in the future, then this will be a good for regression analysis. If you want to allow setting mothers to null you should have a test for that should someone change that later on, this will reinforce your assumptions.

A common bug is void setFoo( Object foo ){ foo = foo; } where it should be void setFoo( Object foo ){ this.foo = foo; }. (In the first case the foo that is being written to is the parameter not the foo field on the object).

If you are returning an array or collection you should be testing whether or not the getter is going to be performing defensive copies of the data passed into the setter before returning.

Otherwise, if you have the most basic setters/getters then unit-testing them will add maybe about 10 minutes at most per-object, so what is the loss? If you add behaviour you already have a skeleton test and you get this regression testing for free. If you are using Java, you have no excuse since there is OpenPojo. There are an existing set of rules you can enable and then scan your entire project with them to make sure they are applied consistently within your code.

From their examples:
final Validator pojoValidator = ValidatorBuilder.create()
        .with(
            new NoPublicFieldsRule  (),
            new NoPrimitivesRule    (),
            new GetterMustExistRule (),
            new SetterMustExistRule ()
        )
        .with(
            new DefaultValuesNullTester (),
            new SetterTester            (),
            new GetterTester            ()
        )
        .build();

pojoValidator.validate(  PojoClassFactory.getPojoClasses( "net.initech.app", new FilterPackageInfo() )  );

Comment: Yes, you should always be validating your inputs. If you aren't, then why not just use a public variable? It becomes the same thing. The whole benefit of using setters versus variables is that it allows you to ensure your object is never invalid, such as age being a negative number. If you don't do this in the object you'll be doing it elsewhere (like a "service" [god object](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/God_object)) and that's not really OOP  at that point.
Comment: I know this is old-ish now, but: SHOULD you be doing validation in your getters and setters? I was under the impression that setMom should do what it says. If it's validating, then shouldn't it be validateAndSetMom? Or better, shouldn't the validation code exist ELSEWHERE than a simple object? What am I missing, here?
Answer: Yes, but not always in isolation
Allow me elaborate:
What is a unit test?
From Working effectively with legacy code1:

The term unit test has a long history in software development. Common to
  most conceptions of unit tests is the idea that they are tests in isolation of individual
  components of software. What are components? The definition varies,
  but in unit testing, we are usually concerned with the most atomic behavioral units of a system. In procedural code, the units are often functions. In object oriented code, the units are classes.

Note that with OOP, where you find getters and setters, the unit is the class, not necessarily individual methods.
What is a good test?
All requirements and tests follow the form of Hoare logic:

{P} C {Q}

Where:

{P} is the precondition (given)
C is the trigger condition (when)
{Q} is the postcondition (then)

Then comes the maxim:

Test behaviour, not implementation

This means that you shouldn't test how C achieves the post-condition, you should check that {Q} is the result of C.
When it comes to OOP, C is a class. So you shouldn't test internal effects, only external effects.
Why not test bean getters and setters in isolation
Getters and setters may involve some logic, but so long this logic does not have external effect - making them bean accessors2) a test will have to look inside the object and by that not only violate encapsulation but also test for implementation.
So you shouldn't test bean getters and setters in isolation. This is bad:
Describe 'LineItem class'

    Describe 'setVAT()'

        it 'should store the VAT rate'

            lineItem = new LineItem()
            lineItem.setVAT( 0.5 )
            expect( lineItem.vat ).toBe( 0.5 )

Although if setVAT would throw an exception, a corresponding test would be appropriate since now there is an external effect.
How should you test getters and setters?
There is virtually no point changing the internal state of an object if such change has no effect on the outside, even if such effect comes later on.
So a test for setters and getters should be concerned with the external effect of these methods, not the internal ones.
For example:
Describe 'LineItem class'

    Describe 'getGross()'

        it 'should return the net time the VAT'

            lineItem = new LineItem()
            lineItem.setNet( 100 )
            lineItem.setVAT( 0.5 )
            expect( lineItem.getGross() ).toBe( 150 )

You may think to yourself:

Wait a sec, we are testing getGross() here not setVAT().

But if setVAT() malfunction that test should fail all the same.
1Feathers, M., 2004. Working effectively with legacy code. Prentice Hall Professional.
2Martin, R.C., 2009. Clean code: a handbook of agile software craftsmanship. Pearson Education.
Comment: Thanks!! In my opinion, that's the best answer to this question :) You helped me with my unit tests with getters and setters which I was struggling with for quite some time. Thanks once again :)
Answer: If the cyclomatic complexity of the getter and/or setter is 1 (which they usually are), then the answer is no, you shouldn't.
So unless you have a SLA that requires 100% code-coverage, don't bother, and focus on testing the important aspect of your software.
P.S. Remember to differentiate getters and setters, even in languages like C# where properties might seem like the same thing. The setter complexity can be higher than the getter, and thus validate a unit-test.
Comment: Although one should test for defensive copying on getters
Answer: While there are justified reasons for Properties, there's a common Object Oriented Design belief that exposing member state via Properties is bad design. Robert Martin's article on the Open Closed Principle expands upon this by stating that Properties encourage coupling and therefore limit the ability to close a class from modification -- if you modify the property, all consumers of the class will need to change as well. He qualifies that exposing member variables isn't necessarily bad design, it might just be poor style. However, if properties are read-only, there's less chance of abuse and side-effects.
The best approach I can provide for unit testing (and this may seem odd) is to make as many properties as possible protected or internal.  This will prevent coupling while discouraging writing silly tests for getters and setters.
There are obvious reasons where read/write Properties should be used, such as ViewModel properties that are bound to input fields, etc.
More practically, unit tests should drive functionality through public methods. If the code you're testing happens to use those properties, you get code-coverage for free.  If it turns out that these properties never get highlighted by code-coverage there's a very strong possibility that:

You are missing tests that indirectly use the properties
The properties are unused

If you write tests for getters and setters, you get a false sense of coverage and will not be able to determine if the properties are actually used by functional behavior.
Answer: A humorous, yet wise take: The Way of Testivus
"Write the test you can today"
Testing getters/setters may be overkill if you're an experienced tester and this is a small project. However, if you're just getting started learning how to unit test or these getters/setters may contain logic (like @ArtB's setMom() example) then it would be a good idea to write tests.
Answer: This has actually been a recent topic between my team and I. We shoot for 80% code coverage. My team argues that getters and setters are auto implemented, and the compiler is generating some basic code behind the scenes. In this case, given the code generated is non-intrusive, it doesn't really make sense to test code the compiler creates for you. We also had this discussion about async methods and in that case the compiler generates a whole bunch of code behind the scenes. This is a different case and something we DO test. Long answer short, bring it up with your team and decide for yourselves if its worth testing.
Also, if you are using the code coverage report like us, one thing you can do is add the [ExcludeFromCodeCoverage] attribute. Our solution has been to use this for models that just have properties using getters and setters, or on the property itself. That way it won't affect the total code coverage % when the code coverage report is run, assuming that is what you are using to calculate your code coverage percentages. Happy testing!
Answer: I did a little analysis of the coverage achieved in the JUnit code itself.
One category of uncovered code is "too simple to test". This includes simple getters and setters, which the  developers of JUnit do not test.
On the other hand, JUnit doesn't have any (non-deprecated) method longer than 3 lines that is not covered by any test.
Answer: In my opinion code coverage is a good way to see if you missed any functionality that you should cover.
When you inspect the coverage manually by it's pretty coloring then it can be argued that plain getters and setters do not need to be tested (although I always do).
When you only check the code coverage percentage on your project, then a test coverage percentage like 80% is meaningless. You can test all the none logical parts and forget some crucial parts. In this case only 100% means that you have tested all you vital code (and all the non-logical code as well). As soon as it is 99.9% you know that have forgotten something.
By the way: Code coverage is the final check to see if you have fully (unit) tested a class. But 100% code coverage not necessarily means that you have actually tested all the functionality of the class. So unit tests should always be implemented following the logic of the class. In the end you run coverage to see if you forgot anything. When you did it right, you hit 100% the first time.
One more thing: While recently working at a large bank in The Netherlands I noticed that Sonar indicated 100% code coverage. However, I knew something was missing. Inspecting the code coverage percentages per file it indicated a file at a lower percentage. The whole code base percentage was that large that the one file did not make the percentage be displayed as 99.9%. So you might want to look out for this...
Answer: I would say: YES
Errors in getter/setter methods can silently sneak in and cause some ugly bugs.
I have written a lib to make this and some other tests easier.
The only thing you have to write in your JUnit tests is this:
        assertTrue(executor.execute(*TheClassIWantToTest.class*, Arrays.asList( new DefensiveCopyingCheck(),
            new EmptyCollectionCheck(), new GetterIsSetterCheck(),
            new HashcodeAndEqualsCheck(), new PublicVariableCheck())));

-> https://github.com/Mixermachine/base-test
Answer: Yes, especially if the item to get is an object of a class subclassed from an abstract class. Your IDE may or may not alert you that a certain property has not been initialized.
And then some apparently unrelated test crashes with a NullPointerException and  it takes you a while to figure out that a gettable property is actually not there to get in the first place.
Though that still wouldn't be anywhere as bad as discovering the problem in production.
It might be a good idea to make sure all your abstract classes have constructors. If not, the test of a getter might alert you to a problem there.
As for getters and setters of primitives, the question might be: Am I testing my program or am I testing the JVM or CLR? Generally speaking, the JVM does not need to be tested.


Does use of NSAIDs prolong recovery time from febrile illness?

Question: My understanding's that fever's an immune system response to pathogens. Would suppression of this response delay time to recovery?
Comment: I love this question. I too had it pop into my head once, years ago, when I had a fever and then suppressed it with Tylenol. Wondering if suppressing the symptoms of the immune response would prolong recovery time. I never found a satisfactory answer.
Answer: There are studies that state reducing a fever may prolong illness. Fever can increase T-cell proliferation and cytotoxic activity. A study in 1990 showed that acetaminophen and aspirin increased symptoms and made viral shedding last longer. While that doesn't exactly address the role of NSAIDS I would think it would be the same as aspirin and acetaminophen. Source: Is Breaking the Fever Bad? Fever Suppression May Be Detrimental by Catherine Moss


hardware accelerated h.265 encoding

Question: will (or does) the pi 4 have hardware accelerated h265 encoding ? I know it has h264 options like MMAL or OpenMAX (for ffmpeg), just wondering if anything is in the works, or if its possible(or useful in theory).
Answer: Not encoding, just decoding (which is all they mention decoding on the specs)
As one of the RPi engineers / moderators mentioned in a post on the official RPi forums here when asked the same question:

Not on the Pi4, it would require changing the SOC (or the SoC being
redesigned to have an encoder).

He then clarifies:

In fact H265 encode in HW is VERY difficult.

So seems safe to say that it won't be something they can retrospectively add through firmware updates.
Comment: He also says 'It can do it, just not in real time as that needs HW support.'. Does this mean that it can do HEVC encoding but will just take a long time?
Comment: This question is about HW support - the part "as that needs HW support" strongly implies that it doesn't have HW support :-) If you're purely interested in whether it's possible _at all_ then presumably yes it is possible extremely slowly in software but that's outside the focus of this question

hardware accelerated h.265 encoding


When is the vector space of continuous functions on a compact Hausdorff space finite dimensional?

Question: I know that the vector space of all real valued continuous functions on a compact Hausdorff space can be infinite dimensional.  When will it be finite dimensional?  And how will I identify that vector space with $\mathbb{R}^n$ for some $n$?
Comment: You probably want to clarify what you mean.  Your first statement says the vector space is always infinite dimensional but then you ask when is it finite dimensional.  In any case, if your space is finite then the vector space is finite dimensional, with the dimension equal to the number of points in your space.
Answer: For a topological space $X$, let me write $C(X,\mathbb{R})$ for the set of continuous functions $f: X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.  Note that $C(X,\mathbb{R})$ forms a ring under pointwise addition and multiplication which contains $\mathbb{R}$ as the subring of constant functions.
Suppose $X$ is compact Hausdorff.

If $X = \{x_1,\ldots,x_n\}$ is finite, then since it is Hausdorff it has the discrete topology so $C(X,\mathbb{R})$ is the set of all functions from $\{x_1,\ldots,x_n\}$ to $\mathbb{R}$.  In this case a natural basis is given by "$\delta$ functions'': i.e., for $1 \leq i \leq n$, let $e_i: X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be such that $e_i(x_j) = \delta_{i,j}$ (i.e., $1$ if $i = j$, $0$ otherwise).  Note that in this case $e_1,\ldots,e_n$ is also a family of idempotent elements giving rise to a direct product decomposition of rings $C(X,\mathbb{R}) \cong \mathbb{R}^n$.

If $X$ is infinite, then for every positive integer $n$ there is a subspace
$X_n$ consisting of exactly $n$ points.  By Step 1, the dimension of the space
$C(X_n,\mathbb{R})$ is $n$.  Moreover, since $X$ is Hausdorff, $X_n$ is closed in $X$,
and, since $X$ is compact Hausdorff, the Tietze Extension Theorem applies to show that every continuous function on $X_n$ extends to a continuous function on $X$.  In other words, the natural restriction map $r_n: C(X,\mathbb{R}) \rightarrow C(X_n,\mathbb{R})$ is surjective.  Since $r_n$ is an $\mathbb{R}$-linear map (indeed a homomorphism of $\mathbb{R}$-algebras), it follows that

$\operatorname{dim} C(X,\mathbb{R}) \geq \operatorname{dim} C(X_n,\mathbb{R}) = n.$
Since $n$ was arbitrary, we conclude that $\operatorname{dim} C(X,\mathbb{R})$ is infinite.
Added: As Qiaochu points out, it is enough to require that $X$ be what I call "C-separated": i.e., for the continuous $\mathbb{R}$-valued functions to separate points of $X$.  And for this it is enough that $X$ be Tychonoff.  (Recall compact Hausdorff $\implies$ normal $\implies$ Tychonoff.)  In fact these considerations come up in $\S 5.2$ of my commutative algebra notes.  See especially the second exercise in that section, which asks for a justification of the claim I made in the first sentence of this paragraph.
Indeed, since "C-separated" implies Hausdorff, looking back at my answer it shows that one can replace "compact Hausdorff" with "C-separated" and the result still holds.  However, one cannot replace "C-separated" with "regular".  As I have mentioned elsewhere, there are infinite regular spaces $X$ in which the only continuous functions are the constant functions, so $C(X,\mathbb{R}) = \mathbb{R}$ is a one-dimensional space.
Comment: I don't think you need the full power of Tietze extension; Urysohn's lemma already shows that continuous functions separate points.
Comment: There's also the notion of a http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Completely_Hausdorff_space — a.k.a. functionally Hausdorrff. If $X$ is completely Hausdorff then $X$ will be "C-separated" by definition. Finding a completely Hausdorff space that's not Tychonoff is left as an exercise for the reader (or you can read the Wikipedia article, I guess…)
Comment: @kahen: thanks for your comment.  Upon checking the wikipedia article, it seems that "completely Hausdorff" = "functionally Hausdorff" = "C-separated".  Which of the former two terms is more common?  Perhaps I should adjust my terminology accordingly.
Comment: I don't know. Stephen Willard uses "completely Hausdorff" in his *General Topology* and only parenthetically mentions "functionally Hausdorff", so I'd presume that the former is more common in the litterature. At least at the time he wrote the book
Comment: Counterexamples in Topology uses "Urysohn", which makes sense to me because of the connection with the lemma, but that usually means something else.


How can I copy a directory or file to a docker image from localhost on ubuntu14.04?

Question: when i add a file or directory to docker image by a Dockerfile, I use ADD or COPY , but the file  path i want to add or copy must a relative path to the Dockerfile's directory. Is there a method for adding a file or directory from localhost to docker image by using absolute path? by the way, why the "docker cp" can only support copying file from docker image to localhost? on the contrary , it doesn't work ?
Comment: To quote the Docker documentation: The copy obeys the following rules:

The  path must be inside the context of the build;
Comment: Possible duplicate of [Docker: adding a file from a parent directory](http://stackoverflow.com/questions/24537340/docker-adding-a-file-from-a-parent-directory)
Answer: The short answer is that it is not supported.
From the Docker docs:

The <src> path must be inside the context of the build; you cannot ADD ../something /something, because the first step of a docker build is to send the context directory (and subdirectories) to the docker daemon.

Furthermore, symbolic links are not supported so it is not possible to trick the build by linking to a different location on the localhost.
However, URL:s are supported so one way to get around the problem is to to serve the files over HTTP if you enable a web server on your localhost (or in a docker container).
The command docker cp (unfortunately) is only supported from the container to the host, not vice versa. This is described in the docs. The way to go around this is to use docker volumes where the data can be shared.
Comment: [`docker cp`](https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/commandline/cp/) can now copy files in either direction.
Answer: The solution for those who use composer is to use a volume pointing to the folder:
#docker-composer.yml

foo:
  build: foo
  volumes:
    - /local/path/:/path/:ro

But I'm pretty sure the can be done playing with volumes in Dockerfile.
Answer: There is a workaround when you use docker-compose:
api1:
  build: .
  dockerfile: cluster/manifests/Dockerfile-NodeAPI
  ports:
    - 8080
  links:
    - mongo
    - redis
  command: "nodemon lib/app.js -e js,json,scss,css,html"

This still won't allow you to do relatives paths, however basepath in the Dockerfile will be ./ instead of cluster/manifests/
Answer: To copy a file, simply use docker cp:
docker cp file.txt CONTAINER:/path/to/dest

To copy a directory, use a tar pipe:
tar -c "dir/" | docker run -i -a stdin CONTAINER tar -xC /path/to/dest

Answer: Expounding on wassgren's answer, you can also you a docker SDK to do this. I'm not sure about every SDK, but at least docker-java sends the context as an inputstream to docker. So, you specify dockerClient.withBaseDirectory() and dockerClient.withDockerFile(). You could use a more scripting approach and use gradle or groovy to do this and avoid having to "compile" java for this everytime.


PHP: Copy file to php-created-directory in Ubuntu didn't work

Question: I have an ubuntu server. My objective is to create a directory within the root directory for the ftp user (suresh, say) copy some files from the latter to the newly created directory.
The problem is, I am able to create new directory, but when I try to copy files within this directory, it wont work.
I tested the script to copy file locally (in the root directory), it works. I changed the permission of the newly created directory to 0777, it works, but not for 0775. I tried two examples of copy. Both work.
The owner user/group of the newly created directory is www-data (its a ubuntu server with root access). The permission is 755 for the directory. Changing the owner to the ftp user suresh didn't make it either.
The following is the php I used:
<?php
//To create directory/subdirectory recursively

$mode = 0775;
mkdir("./directory/subdirectory", $mode, TRUE);

//Source and destination
$source = "index.php";
$dest = "directory/index.php"

//Copy function first version
function stream_copy($src, $dest)
    {
        $fsrc = fopen($src,'r');
        $fdest = fopen($dest,'w+');
        $len = stream_copy_to_stream($fsrc,$fdest);
        fclose($fsrc);
        fclose($fdest);
        return $len;
}

if (!stream_copy($source,$dest)){
    echo "File stream copy to directory not successful!
";
} else {
    echo "Check the directory for index file!
";
}

//And I always get the "...not successful" output!

//Copy function second version
function copyemz($file1,$file2){
    $contentx =@file_get_contents($file1);
    $openedfile = fopen($file2, "w");
    fwrite($openedfile, $contentx);
    fclose($openedfile);
    if ($contentx === FALSE) {
    $status=false;
} else $status=true;

    return $status;
}

if (!copyemz($source,$dest)){
    echo "File copy to directory not successful
";
} else {
    echo "Check the directory for index!
";
}

//The same result for this either!

?>

Finally I tried the shell_exec and same result for this as well! All these work with the conditions set a
Can anyone explain me what is happening or what I am missing!
The user for ftp (suresh) is a group-member of www-data, and vice-versa. (Just if it helps! Tried otherwise also.)
Answer: You create "./directory/subdirectory" but you copy to "directory/". So are you sure that "direcotry" is also owned by www-data?
Comment: Yes. The "directory" is owned by www-data user and group. Further, "./directory" and "directory" within the current directory mean the same. So, it does not matter. Any suggestions now?


How to find virtual memory size and cache size of a linux system?

Question: Is there any command to get virtual memory size, cache size and front side bus speed of a linux system? Is swap in linux same as virtual memory?
Comment: No, swap and virtual memory are completely different. For example, memory mapping a 1GB file uses an additional 1GB of virtual memory but has no change in the use of swap. Swap is a form of backing store. Many uses of virtual memory don't have anything to do with backing store. (And there have been systems with virtual memory and no swap as well as systems with swap but no virtual memory.)
Comment: swap == virtual memory
Comment: Virtual Memory = Physical Memory + Swap Space
Comment: Please give the specs of your CPU. Open the bios from startup of your system to determine your CPU's FSB. Or just google the model of your CPU. If you have a desktop PC, you could open the case and look at the cpu directly to find the model.
Answer: This question is completely contained in your previous question How to find virtual memory size and cache size of a linux system?. As pointed out in my answer to that question, the sudo dmidecode --type processor command gives you the "External Clock" speed, and FSB speed is a multiple (typically 2 or 4 times) of this speed.
If this did not work for you, you should edit your original question and tell us what output you got or what the error was. The more specific you are, the better others can help you.
As pointed out by The Journeyman geek, you can typically get the same "External Clock" measure from lshw, in the value reported for "clock" in the cpu related ouput.
 *-cpu
      description: CPU
      product: Genuine Intel(R) CPU           T2300  @ 1.66GHz
      vendor: Intel Corp.
      physical id: 400
      bus info: cpu@0
      version: 6.14.8
      serial: 0000-06E8-0000-0000-0000-0000
      slot: Microprocessor
      size: 1GHz
      capacity: 1800MHz
      width: 32 bits
      clock: 133MHz
      capabilities: fpu fpu_exception wp vme de pse tsc msr pae mce cx8 apic sep mtrr pge mca cmov pat clflush dts acpi mmx fxsr sse sse2 ss ht tm pbe nx constant_tsc arch_perfmon bts pni monitor est tm2 xtpr pdcm cpufreq
      configuration: id=0

Finally, you may find the external clock speed in the output of dmesg, though this is by no means a standard way of accessing this information. You may find the FSB speed via your BIOS settings, or by looking up your CPU spec, though these are not linux specific.
Comment: Why is this the accepted answer? it does not state how to determine the virtual memory size.
Comment: I am a little confused as to how this was accepted. Looks like it only answers part of the question
Comment: `dmidecode` only works on x86. ARM processors don't have the command, and often return useless values, like incorrect BogMIPS.
Answer: Yes, swap is virtual memory.
Virtual memory size
Use swapon -s or free
$ swapon -s
Filename                Type        Size    Used    Priority
/dev/sda6                               partition   1004020 39620   -1

$ free
             total       used       free     shared    buffers     cached
Mem:       3087892    2879036     208856          0     394288     835052
-/+ buffers/cache:    1649696    1438196
Swap:      1004020      39620     964400

Cache size
Get this from /proc/cpuinfo. The "cache size" field gives you the cache on the CPU. On multi-core machines, you'll see one entry per processor, with its own cache value.
$ cat /proc/cpuinfo
processor   : 0
vendor_id   : GenuineIntel
cpu family  : 6
model       : 14
model name  : Genuine Intel(R) CPU           T2300  @ 1.66GHz
stepping    : 8
cpu MHz     : 1000.000
cache size  : 2048 KB
physical id : 0
siblings    : 2
core id     : 0
cpu cores   : 2
apicid      : 0
initial apicid  : 0
fdiv_bug    : no
hlt_bug     : no
f00f_bug    : no
coma_bug    : no
fpu     : yes
fpu_exception   : yes
cpuid level : 10
wp      : yes
flags       : fpu vme de pse tsc msr pae mce cx8 apic sep mtrr pge mca cmov pat clflush dts acpi mmx fxsr sse sse2 ss ht tm pbe nx constant_tsc arch_perfmon bts pni monitor est tm2 xtpr pdcm
bogomips    : 3324.64
clflush size    : 64
power management:

Front side bus (FSB) speed
You can get this from the dmidecode utility, with the --type processor argument. You need sudo permission to run this command. The FSB is indicated by the speed reported for "External Clock". The actual speed is typically 4 times the reported speed, as those many instructions are executed per clock cycle.
$ sudo dmidecode --type processor
# dmidecode 2.9
SMBIOS 2.4 present.

Handle 0x0400, DMI type 4, 32 bytes
Processor Information

Socket Designation: Microprocessor
Type: Central Processor
Family: Pentium M
Manufacturer: Intel
ID: E8 06 00 00 FF FB E9 BF
Signature: Type 0, Family 6, Model 14, Stepping 8
Flags:
    FPU (Floating-point unit on-chip)
    VME (Virtual mode extension)
    DE (Debugging extension)
    PSE (Page size extension)
    TSC (Time stamp counter)
    MSR (Model specific registers)
    PAE (Physical address extension)
    MCE (Machine check exception)
    CX8 (CMPXCHG8 instruction supported)
    APIC (On-chip APIC hardware supported)
    SEP (Fast system call)
    MTRR (Memory type range registers)
    PGE (Page global enable)
    MCA (Machine check architecture)
    CMOV (Conditional move instruction supported)
    PAT (Page attribute table)
    CLFSH (CLFLUSH instruction supported)
    DS (Debug store)
    ACPI (ACPI supported)
    MMX (MMX technology supported)
    FXSR (Fast floating-point save and restore)
    SSE (Streaming SIMD extensions)
    SSE2 (Streaming SIMD extensions 2)
    SS (Self-snoop)
    HTT (Hyper-threading technology)
    TM (Thermal monitor supported)
    PBE (Pending break enabled)
Version: Not Specified
Voltage: 3.3 V
External Clock: 133 MHz
Max Speed: 1800 MHz
Current Speed: 1000 MHz
Status: Populated, Enabled
Upgrade: None
L1 Cache Handle: 0x0700
L2 Cache Handle: 0x0701
L3 Cache Handle: Not Provided

Comment: I have linux, it does not have dmidecode/lshw command
Comment: Which distro are you running?
Comment: Also, do you have sudo access to run these commands on the machine?
Comment: swapon -s output format is now deprecated. Instead use swapon --show
Answer: I do believe lshw has that info. However not all distros have it (hint- next time PLEASE mention what distro and version you use. It helps a lot. Also helps to be specific about what you did so far. 'some command like' is not good enough)
Answer: Try this on the Linux machine: cat /proc/pal/cpu0/cache_info
This will show something like:
Cache levels  : 3
Unique caches : 5

Data Cache level 1:
        Size           : 16384 bytes
        Attributes     : WriteThrough
        Associativity  : 4
        Line size      : 64 bytes
        Stride         : 128 bytes
        Store latency  : 0 cycle(s)
        Load latency   : 1 cycle(s)
        Store hints    :
        Load hints     : [Temporal, level 1]
        Alias boundary : 4096 byte(s)
        Tag LSB        : 12
        Tag MSB        : 49
Instruction Cache level 1:
        Size           : 16384 bytes
        Attributes     :
        Associativity  : 4
        Line size      : 64 bytes
        Stride         : 128 bytes
        Store latency  : N/A
        Load latency   : 1 cycle(s)
        Store hints    :
        Load hints     : [Temporal, level 1]
        Alias boundary : 4096 byte(s)
        Tag LSB        : 12
        Tag MSB        : 49
Data Cache level 2:
        Size           : 262144 bytes
        Attributes     : WriteBack
        Associativity  : 8
        Line size      : 128 bytes
        Stride         : 128 bytes
        Store latency  : 7 cycle(s)
        Load latency   : 5 cycle(s)
        Store hints    : [Temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, all levels]
        Load hints     : [Temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, all levels]
        Alias boundary : 4096 byte(s)
        Tag LSB        : 15
        Tag MSB        : 49
Instruction Cache level 2:
        Size           : 524288 bytes
        Attributes     :
        Associativity  : 8
        Line size      : 128 bytes
        Stride         : 128 bytes
        Store latency  : N/A
        Load latency   : 7 cycle(s)
        Store hints    :
        Load hints     : [Temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, all levels]
        Alias boundary : 4096 byte(s)
        Tag LSB        : 16
        Tag MSB        : 49
Data/Instruction Cache level 3:
        Size           : 4194304 bytes
        Attributes     : Unified WriteBack
        Associativity  : 8
        Line size      : 128 bytes
        Stride         : 128 bytes
        Store latency  : 7 cycle(s)
        Load latency   : 14 cycle(s)
        Store hints    : [Temporal, level 1]
        Load hints     : [Temporal, level 1][Non-temporal, level 1]
        Alias boundary : 4096 byte(s)
        Tag LSB        : 19
        Tag MSB        : 49

Answer: Try ulimit -a, on my machine it will show something like:
core file size          (blocks, -c) 0
data seg size           (kbytes, -d) unlimited
scheduling priority             (-e) 0
file size               (blocks, -f) unlimited
pending signals                 (-i) 31321
max locked memory       (kbytes, -l) 64
max memory size         (kbytes, -m) unlimited
open files                      (-n) 1024
pipe size            (512 bytes, -p) 8
POSIX message queues     (bytes, -q) 819200
real-time priority              (-r) 0
stack size              (kbytes, -s) 8192
cpu time               (seconds, -t) unlimited
max user processes              (-u) 31321
virtual memory          (kbytes, -v) unlimited
file locks                      (-x) unlimited

Run free, on my machine the result is like this:
             total       used       free     shared    buffers     cached
Mem:       4024900     606472    3418428          0      85768     366980
-/+ buffers/cache:     153724    3871176
Swap:      3998716          0    3998716

I wrote this code to test how many threads a process can create:
#include<iostream>
#include<pthread.h>
#include<unistd.h>
#include<stdio.h>
using namespace std;

#define MAX_THREAD_NUM 1100
void * threadTest(void* arg){
        while(true){
                sleep(5);
        }
        pthread_exit(NULL);
}

int main(){
        for(int i = 0;i< MAX_THREAD_NUM;i++){
                pthread_t tid;
                cout<<"create thread "<< i <<"... "<<endl;
                int ret = pthread_create(&tid,NULL,&threadTest,NULL);
                if(ret !=0){
                        perror("pthread_create error");
                }
                pthread_detach(tid);
        }
        while(true){
                sleep(5);
        }
        return 0;

}

The result is like this:
create thread 378...
create thread 379...
create thread 380...
create thread 381...
create thread 382...
pthread_create error: Cannot allocate memory
create thread 383...
pthread_create error: Cannot allocate memory
create thread 384...
pthread_create error: Cannot allocate memory
create thread 385...
pthread_create error: Cannot allocate memory
create thread 386...
pthread_create error: Cannot allocate memory

Answer: vmstat

vmstat reports report virtual memory statistics, which has information about processes, swap, free, buffer and cache memory, paging space, disk IO activity, traps, interrupts, context switches and CPU activity. With vmstat command, administrators can has instantaneous reports on memory usage.

Syntax of vmstat
vmstat -[options] [delay count]

Example usage of vmstat
vmstat

Found here
Comment: 1 up, better than my solution :D, gives more info
Answer: The "free" command will show you memory utilization, including what's actually being used vs what's in buffers / cache.
    # free
             total       used       free     shared    buffers     cached
Mem:       3896252    3779044     117208          0      65788    1363972
-/+ buffers/cache:    2349284    1546968
Swap:      2097144     886836    1210308

The "dmidecode" command might give you some insight into the FSB speed.
Answer: swapon -s

The used field will indicate the amount currently in use
Filename      Type           Size       Used    Priority
/dev/sda5     partition      859436     0       -1

Answer: Page Size :
$ getconf PAGESIZE

(or)
$ getconf PAGE_SIZE

Try
swapinfo or swapinfo -a


Thermodynamical system

Question: Today I was studying a bit of thermodynamics and I came up with a doubt . Let us assume an adiabatic container with an adiabatic wall separating the container into two equal parts . First part contains a monoatomic gas at a fixed temperature and the other part contains a diatomic gas at a temperature lower than the first one. When the wall is removed suddenly then in my book it is written that the mixture will atain a particular fixed  temperature . But I think that when the wall will be removed then the molecules having different kinetic energies collide with each other and exchange energies among themselves and a particular temperature will be reached when the velocities of the two different gaseous molecules will become equal. But why will that temperature will remain fixed , i mean why not will the temperature changes further? As even if both the gases have same temperature they have different internal energies . I think they should go on exchanging energies
Answer: Actually you are right when you say that the two system will go on exchanging energies. Different degrees of freedom usually equilibrate over different times. However, after waiting some time, the system will get a new thermodynamic equilibrium where averages will stay constant again. And will remain constant both, the kinetic energy per particle of the two components, which must also be equal, since they represent the temperature of the two subsystems. But also the two potential energy, as well as the inter-species internal energy, must remain constant, although for the potential energy there is no reason to be the same for each component.
Of course, one has to remember that thermodynamic equilibrium means that average values are constant but accompanied by continuous fluctuations whose relative size goes to zero by increasing the size of the system. Thus, thermal equilibrium means that the average kinetic energy is fixed, but individual velocities of the particles do have a statistical distribution (for classical systems the famous Maxwell-Boltzmann velocity distribution).
Comment: Can you please explain me what do you meant here by 'average'

Thermodynamical system


what happens if I try to send my gdax btc to an eth address?

Question: My question is about transferring btc to and eth address by accident?
Answer: I'm not sure this kind of mistake is possible. Bitcoin addresses are represented by ~34-character base-58 strings, while Ethereum addresses are represented by 40-character base-16 strings.
Comment: interesting because I tried to send GDAX btc to eth address on cryptopia but gdax said it was an incorrect btc address and then when I tried to send it to the actual cryptopia btc it said i did not have enough funds
Comment: My guess is that the two are unrelated. I would investigate what's causing the message about insufficient funds.
Comment: it happened right after I clicked the transfer button and then right after that my funds showed zero and my history shows a transaction of the exact amount and the transaction being completed
Comment: Ah. Then I would contact GDAX support and ask them. Sounds like a possible bug in their side, but my guess is still that no funds were transferred.
Comment: Im hoping your guess is right, i might be refunded the funds once it figures out its not the right address or it could be that the btc funds are taking a long time to transfer. after all I have only waited like an hour maybe


How do I use AE2 to keep exactly 1 stack of an item in a chest?

Question: I've just started playing the direwolf20 1.7.10 pack, and have a basic AE system set up, with an ender chest and pouch to keep me supplied with food etc. However, it becomes full of bread (my food of choice) and nothing else. Is there a way for me to keep only 1 stack of bread in the chest and have it automatically replaced when I take it out?
Comment: I remember seeing direwolf doing this in his last series, but i dont remember the name of the device he used for this. I'll try and find out.
Answer: by using both item translocators and a ME Interface you can get what you want.
By placing one tranlocator on the chest and one on the interface then configuring(which is explained mostly on the item translocator wiki page) it how you want it. It should then keep a stack of the preferred item in the chest. For your case, put a stack of bread in any slot in the translocator. Note: you need the diamond nugget upgrade


Meaning of べた打ち

Question: Does anybody know what べた打ち means, and what the kanji for べた could be? The context I heard it in was the upright playing style of taiko.
Answer: Depends on if its a technical term or just a colloquial expression. I'm no expert on taiko, but this PDF written by a Japanese taiko maker says that ベタ打ち is the opposite of the ideal way of using a stick to hit a taiko.
According to them, you're supposed to hit the surface of a Japanese taiko with a snappy motion so that the tip of your stick touches only for a very short period of time. This is supposed to make deeper resonance.
ベタ打ち is the poor form of hitting that does exactly the opposite (or so the PDF says). You're not snappy enough so not only the tip of the stick gets landed but also the side also touches the surface, killing resonance and potentially damaging the surface of your taiko.
But I must admit that I didn't know ベタ打ち as a technical term before I googled it today. And actually I was about to post an answer explaining the more usual meaning of this word. Thank God I googled it just in case!
Anyway, if the speaker is not a taiko master, another potential case is that it's just one of the usual meanings of べた, which doesn't have a kanjified version as far as I know, plus 打ち. The ones I'm aware of that are often followed by 打ち are

no or little space in between,
all over the place or a very wide range,
raw or "as is."

The third one is sort of technical jargon and means that you copy&paste data from one place to another or move data without changing its content to another file etc. So this can't have anything to do with Japanese taikos. The first one might be it because it kind of sounds like a sequence of rapid strokes. The second one seems to be why the bad form of stick work is called ベタ打ち... So if it's not the technical term, the speaker might have meant fast beat drum work.
Comment: I see... beta or betta (not sure which one)is also used to describe the normal taiko playing style, with the drum normal to the ground. Would this be the same word? I was told it was betta, not beta.
Comment: My apologies-ベタ打ち is undoubtedly related to the bachi hitting the taiko flat. I got mixed up in asking the question though-apparently the style of taiko with the vertical drum is called betta or beta, and I'm not sure if that would be for the same reason. The sideways, or slanted version, is called naname, so I was hoping betta/beta would have a similarly obvious meaning. (Sorry about the Romaji, my computer doesn't have Japanese enabled right now.)
Answer: I don't think there's kanji for べた as it is 擬態語.
I actually didn't know that it is used in the context of playing taiko, but according to this, it means hitting the taiko surface with the long edge of the stick to maximize the contact surface.
The way I understand べた in べた打ち is that it represents stickiness. So for example in type-setting it refers to putting letters next to each other without line space (thus letters are sticking to each other), and in text typing it refers to  entering text without editing (and thus adding space), and in construction it apparently refers to driving lots of stakes into the ground right next to each other.

Meaning of べた打ち


Social media photo posting without permission

Question: My friend was at work and doing her job when a customer secretly took a picture of her and used it to make an embarrassing meme and posted it on Facebook.  This upset her obviously and she lashed back and used a racial slur in her comment.  This person and their friends subsequently sent screen shots of her comment to her employer and now she could lose her job.  They of course did not share the photo and post made about her which led to her comment.  Does she have any legal recourse such as harassment, since the photo was taken specifically to make fun of her while she was at work doing her job? Thanks in advance.  This is the Facebook post/photo.
Comment: Do you have permission to post that screenshot here? If not then you should remove it.
Comment: I did have my friends permission to post the photo here to help explain the question.  We are in the US, in Virginia.
Answer: If this is in the UK then probably not.
"Harassment" in law requires a series of acts rather than just the one. If the photographer kept doing this then it would be harassment, but as a one-off then it isn't.
Photographs cannot be taken if the subject has a reasonable expectation of privacy. This appears to have been taken at a supermarket checkout so its unlikely that a court would find that such an expectation existed.
Section 26 of the Equality Act 2010 says that a single act can be harassment if it relates to a "protected characteristic", which includes race. So using a racial epithet in social media could be considered harassment. This applies even if the epithet does not apply, because it creates an "intimidating, hostile, degrading, humiliating or offensive environment".
However para 4(b) also says that, in deciding whether something constitutes harassment "the other circumstances of the case" should be considered. Given that this whole unedifying incident happened because of the original insulting post, that might mean she gets a pass on this occasion.
As for possible disciplinary action at work, her employer will have both a disciplinary policy and one about harassing behaviour. Any disciplinary action must be in accordance with those policies, so she should get copies, read them carefully, and see if her Facebook post was inside or outside the scope of the policy. At the very least she should be prepared to show the original post and describe in writing how it made her feel, as that might be considered mitigating circumstances by her employer.


The word "patient" can be used for the people who are cared for by caregivers?

Question: Is it possible to use the word "patient" for the people who are cared for by caregivers or the people who are in need of nursing care? If not, what do you call those people?
Comment: The meaning you are looking for is clearly stated in the Merriam-Webster dictionary. Did you look up "patient" in a dictionary before asking here?
Answer: "Patient" is derived ultimately from "patior," a Latin verb meaning to "suffer." Through a convoluted process, it has come to mean a person who is being treated for illness or injury. As such, it is certainly used for people who are being cared for by a nurse.
It is not typically used for someone young and healthy. No one says that a child is a patient of its nanny.
It can be ambiguous when used with respect to the old who are merely frail. "Patient" usually implies disease or injury, and old age is not typically considered a disease. I at least would find it odd to hear a mentally competent, physically healthy old person called a "patient" in most contexts. But context can never be ignored. In the context of a nursing home that cares both for those who are merely frail and for those with serious physical or mental deficiencies, it may be idiomatic to refer to both classes as patients. Personally, I would tend to reserve "patient" for those who are being cared for due to illness or injury rather than for old age, but I will not say that that preference represents general usage.
Answer: Patient can be used to describe somebody who is not actually ill:

[Merriam-Webster]
1 b : the recipient of any of various personal services
2 : one that is acted upon
  // are agents as well as patients and observers in the world
  — C. H. Whiteley

Another common word is client:

[Merriam-Webster]
  2 a : a person who engages the professional advice or services of another
        // a lawyer's clients
        // a personal trainer … enjoyed the challenges of helping clients buff up their bodies.
        — S. K. Parks
2 b : CUSTOMER
        // hotel clients
        // a restaurant's clients
2 c : a person served by or utilizing the services of a social agency
        // a welfare client

Which word to use is a matter of context.
In terms of what's more common, you can refer to Google Ngram Viewer results for various situations, which indicates the word more often used in print.
Nursing home patient is much more common than nursing home client:

On the other hand, massage patient is used so infrequently that it doesn't even register at Google Ngram Viewer, which shows only massage client:

Finally, welfare client has an edge over welfare patient:
Answer: I think the normal term for such people would be their "charges."  "Patients" normally refers to someone ill and receiving treatment for the sickness.


Customizing Joomla 1.5 user registration process

Question: I am pretty new to joomla. I have been working on the maintenance of our company's website.
Coming to the issue, the website has a 2-step user registration process where users will fill up the registration form, once they submit, a verification mail will be sent to them with the activation link. Once they click on the activation link in their mail, they will be activated.
Now, since this is getting us a lot of junk users we want to change this process.
What we want to do is :
When a user wants to register, he will be asked for his email-id.
Once the email is provided and submitted, a mail will be sent to him along with the activation link.
After the activation link is clicked he is brought to the website for further registration.
Only after this, the user will be put in our database as a valid user.
So basically, first I want to check if the email is a valid one and only then proceed with registration because email-ids are very important for our business
Please help.
Thanks in advance,
Akshay
Answer: In the Database table where he will provide his email ID create a field namely "Status" that will only take Active and Inactive only. And you can use that to determine if user is active or not.


Use more available space for search box in top bar

Question: Today I noticed that top bar's search box width was increased. It's a good news! But I can't understand why it's not increased even more. In particular, the right offset could be minimized as done for the left part of search box:
Comment: @ShadowWizard 1. As a frontend developer I'd like to say that you are wrong about need in two versions of desing for that. 2. As a moderator on ruSO I'd like to say that you are wrong about this place and it's not used for diamond: https://i.stack.imgur.com/DyclO.png
Comment: Because having two sets of design (one for mods and one for non mods) means double development time, double money spent, etc. I prefer that money to go on developing single design, with a small unused space, that would be good and without bugs.
Comment: @ShadowWizard pf-f-f ... what about one, but adaptive design? Do they know about it?
Comment: @ShadowWizard why the rest of the world should suffer because of the handful of diamond owners?
Comment: In one word: diamond. (That's where the mod diamond menu is located, as far as I know)
Comment: Get hired as developer for SE and you'll know. :-)
Comment: @ShadowWizard Get hired as developer to punish downvoters! :) BTW acording your comment. Should I tag this question with [support] to get an answer?
Comment: @Qwertiy as for #2 try with small screen (full site, responsive design) and pretty sure diamond will take all the space.
Comment: @ShadowWizard, nope, updated my answer.
Answer: This style is made by
<code>.top-bar .-secondary {
    ...
    padding: 0;
    padding-left: 48px;
    ...
</code>
And it is not used for any purpose including moderator notifications as far as I can tell:

And on the smaller screen:
Answer: This is implemented (fixed) now:

Both right and left margins around search box in the top bar have same width now.
But it seems that is only for users that have all kind of badges (bronze, silver, gold). Because in case of only bronze badges search box right margin is still larger than left one:


Limit of the hypergeometric function

Question: I dont' have experience with hypergeoemtric functions, but need to compute the following limit:$$\lim_{z\rightarrow0+}F\left(1,\alpha;\frac{\beta}{z};\frac{\gamma}{z}\right),$$
where $\alpha$ is non-integer real and $\beta$ and $\gamma$ are purely imaginary parameters. It seems the limit exists and finite. I tried to use an integral representation and a few standard transformations (such as Pfaff), but could not get the result. Any help would be appreciated.
Comment: From computing an expected number of isolated nodes of a causet in (1+1) de Sitter space-time. Not sure this will help :)
Comment: Where did this problem come from?
Answer:
Before taking the limit, it is useful to apply the transformation
\begin{align}F(a,b;c;x)&=\frac{\Gamma(c)\Gamma(b-a)}{\Gamma(b)\Gamma(c-a)}(-x)^{-a}
F\left(a,1-c+a;1-b+a;x^{-1}\right)+\\
&\,+\frac{\Gamma(c)\Gamma(a-b)}{\Gamma(a)\Gamma(c-b)}(-x)^{-b}
F\left(b,1-c+b;1-a+b;x^{-1}\right). \tag{1}
\end{align}
In that way in your case one obtains hypergeometric functions with the argument tending to zero and one of the parameters tending to infinity so that their product remains finite.
Next use the limit
$$\lim_{\Lambda\rightarrow\infty}F\left(a,b\Lambda;c;\frac{x}{\Lambda}\right)=
{}_1F_1\left(a;c;bx\right).$$
(very easy to get from the series representation of $_2F_1$).
One also needs the asymptotics $\frac{\Gamma(\Lambda)}{\Gamma(\Lambda-a)}\sim \Lambda^a$ as $\Lambda\rightarrow\infty$.

Combining these formulas, we can compute the limiting value you are interested in. The only nontrivial thing is to correctly keep track of complex phases in the expressions like $(-z)^b$.
For example, if $\beta\in i\mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $\gamma\in i\mathbb{R}_{<0}$, after some simplifications the limiting value is given by
$$\lim_{z\rightarrow +0}F\left(1,\alpha;\frac{\beta}{z};\frac{\gamma}{z}\right)=e^{-\beta/\gamma}\left(-\frac{\beta}{\gamma}\right)^{\alpha}\Gamma\left(1-\alpha,-\frac{\beta}{\gamma}\right),$$
where $\Gamma(\nu,x)$ denotes the incomplete gamma function.
Comment: @hossayni I found the reason of controversy mentioned in my previous comments. So the formula to use is indeed 15.8.2. It is equivalent to my formula (1) because of the nonstandard normalization http://dlmf.nist.gov/15.1#E2 used in 15.8.2.
Comment: This is great! Thanks a lot for your help.
Comment: I went to the transformation page. There are lots of similar transformations; but which one exactly you mean?
Comment: @O.L. Thanks for the time you spent
Comment: @Startwearingpurple: Nice method and results!  We are looking for expressions similar to your Eq.(1) for $_1F_2(x)$,$_2F_3(x)$, and $_3F_4(x)$. I was not been able to final these expressions from dlmf.nist.gov.  Best

Limit of the hypergeometric function


Creasing of a material at the molecular level

Question: What exactly happens when a material (particularly paper or even cloth or a metal) is folded to form a crease? Why is it that a creased material tends to retain form, while a lightly folded one, 'might' just happen to revert to an original configuration? Are bonds being broken here, then to what extent? Are they along a single molecular line or break on a  bulk basis? Also, why does a rolled sheet retain shape through a variety of radii? Is there a critical radius to this sheet regaining its flatness? Thanks.
Comment: I'm not sure whether this question belongs to the physics SE or the chem one, please let me know if this needs to be posted there.
Answer: What happens during folding is that the material undergoes plastic deformation. When a sheet of material is bent slightly that deformation is usually elastic, meaning it will return to its original shape when the deforming stress is withdrawn.
But when the deformation is larger we enter the plastic zone: the material will no longer fully recover its original shape. A crease can be seen as a permanent deformation, for instance.
Plastic deformation causes some permanent (irreversible) changes at the atomic/molecular level but no significant bond breaking. The excessive deformation causes layers of the material at the atomic/molecular level to slide over each other in a non-reversible manner. Precisely what slides over what depends on the micro-crystalline structure of the material: mono-crystalline (silicon chip wafers, e.g.) or multi (micro) crystalline (steel, e.g.)
Re. rolled steel sheet, it's obvious that the degree of deformation depends on whether the sheet is closer to the edge or closer to the core of the roll. Undoubtedly there's a critical curvature (dependent on grade of steel) that would push the steel sheet into the plastic zone. I assume manufacturers of rolled steel sheet avoid that critical curvature by making the cores sufficiently large in radius.
Comment: Could you comment on the entropy of this system(The sheet and its immediate surroundings)?
Comment: @Abhinav: in the case of crystalline materials I believe the entropic effects are minimal. But for amorphous materials entropic effects prevail. Stretching a rubber band for instance reduces its entropy by introducing some order into the system (its molecules). That's the driving force for the restoring force (elastic response) of a rubber band.
Answer: In the case of inorganic matter, such as metal sheets, folding/creasing produces a substantial bulk stress in the material which can modify the molecular structure in a large number of complex (and not fully understood) ways. For example, it can break bonds, cause amorphisation, and propagate dislocations. These same mechanisms are at play when you cut a material with a knife, see: How does a knife cut things at the atomic level?
In the case of paper, however, which is an organic material, its structure consists of a complex network of microscopic fibres which are connected to each other via (weak) hydrogen bonds:

When you deform this structure, you cause the fibre-fibre bonds to break, and new ones to form, causing the paper to 'remember' its new shape.
Answer: I state this based on a simple duplicatable  experiment, understanding thin sheet metal or paper also as a plastic material deformation.
The still remaining ( or remnant) of strained edges or ridges are tell-tale permanent deformations or folds after deformation. Plate & Shell theories in continuum mechanics should perhaps suffice for an explanation.
Going with mechanics of materials understanding... thin paper has some thickness. When unfolded/unravelled after creasing occurs small strain recovery is quite elastic  but heavily creased edges must stay put with permanent set pinch marks.
To get a physical feel of this phenomenon take a new A4 paper sheet from printer and crumple it in the hand into as small a ball as possible and then attempt to flatten it out again.. to observe (tiny shallow origamis spread uniformly) the new folds better seen when light is incident laterally.
There are two types of folds discernable, schematically sketched here. Straight Ridge/crease and U-shaped semi arcs/ of local ring. When seen magnified their middle line has still retained the zero Gauss curvature $K$ geometrically.
EDIT1:
By virtue of Gauss Egregium theorem $K$ is conserved at its initial zero value.
Gauss curvature $K= k_1\cdot k_2 = 0$ product of two curvatures.
The first type is visible/recognized as generator lines of cylinders or cones with  $ k_1 = 0$
The second type is visible as the crown of a torus demarcating between $ K<0, K>0 $ regions with  $k_2 = 0.$

Such folds also appear on Aluminum foil wraps.
Imho we are not into the molecular level here. Please comment.


Unity 5.. How to Block interaction below panel?

Question: New to Unity...Is there an easy way to block all interaction underneath a panel that I would have stationary at top of my game. There will be a pause button in that panel and some game info. Just don't want the mouse input or clicks to go through the panel and interacting with game below.
Answer: You're looking for;
if(!EventSystem.current.IsPointerOverGameObject())

Place this line before your code that handles mouse click on any non-UI componenets to stop their functionality when clicking on the UI; the method will return true whilst over UI components.
Comment: this is not 100% percent working solution
Comment: what is EventSystem equal to though?
Answer: If you are trying to block interation on other UI elements (for example if this panel is a pop-up submenu or notification, which is overlayed on top of the actual menu, which is also made up of UI elements), then you can tick the "Raycast target" checkbox on the panel's Image component. This will prevent all clicks on the panel from going through the panel and interacting with UI components (such as buttons, checkboxes, input fields, sliders, etc.) underneath the panel.

If, however, you are trying to block interaction with game objects (and not ui elements), then there are also two cases I can think of:
If this panel is meant to stop interaction with the entire game (such as a "Game Options" panel, then you can do what Vadim Tatarnikov suggested and simply have a boolean which tracks whether or not the panel is open. Alternatively, since you mention pausing, you can also use the Time.timeScale static variable to determine whether the game is paused or not and use that to decide how to process clicks.
If this panel is however a screen overlay, where the player can interact with the panel, but also the game (for example a "Unit details" panel in a strategy game), then you can use what MrDiVolo suggested:
if(!EventSystem.current.IsPointerOverGameObject())

With this method, you however need to be very diligent in disabling transparent ui elements, setting the raycast target checkbox properly for all visible ui elements (meaning ticking for elements which should block clicks and unticking for overlays which should not block clicks)
Comment: In addition to checking the Raycast Target item,
You also need to add a button component (with nothing in the onClick()) or else it won't grab it for some reason.  My use case was clicking the background and not in the main panel to close the main panel.  Couldn't get it to work without the button.
Answer: You can make a Boolean variable that is true when the game is paused, and make other objects check if it this variable is true, in addition to the check for Input.
Answer: I had a similar issue and I found this video to be very helpful, all credit to kiwasi.com. It's showing 3 possible solution approaches, from the simplest to most complex (and least to most recommended):

Use EventSystem.current.isPointerOverGameObject() from UnityEngine.EventSystems just as MrDiVolo explains
Event Triggers (check also here)
Event System Interfaces (IPointerClickHandler etc.)
Comment: Keep in mind that the video might get taken down of change links at some point in the future, so including a little detail, even just a one-sentence summary for each option, would make this answer more robust against that.
Comment: That is correct indeed, once I get some spare time for such transcription - I could do it. But since the solution is not mine anyway - please feel free to do so yourself in case I forget.


Is dating haram? is halal dating a thing?

Question: I have looked it up before, wether dating is haram or not, and have got very mixed opinions. Is it haram to date as a muslim?, and if so is it halal dating?
Answer: Dating in Islam for the sake of having fun with the opposite sex, without having a proper and legal Islamic marriage is consider as forbidden (Haram).
Al-Israa' (17:32) :

"Nor come nigh to adultery: for it is a shameful (deed) and an evil,
opening the road (to other evils)."

The main reason Islam forbids dating is to protect both parties from any kind of sexual lust (Zina).
However, meeting up for further recognition for the sake of finding a suitable spouse is allowed (Halal) with the present of the girl's mahram.
Comment: said, "However, meeting up for further recognition for the sake of finding a suitable spouse is allowed (Halal) with the present of the girl's mahram." what if you have no male mahram's at all?


Failed to install JBOSS and GlassFish on Eclipse Indigo - For Java EE developers

Question: I install Eclipe Indigo for Java EE devlopers.
I tried to install apllication sever glassfish or Jboss and consecutive failed to install them.
1.Create new server - select Download addtional server adapters
2.select the JBoss AS Tools or racle Glass Fish Sever Tools
3.Both installation failed:
The Glass fish error log was:
After 5 minutes of installaion Ive got the following failure message:
<code>An error occurred while collecting items to be installed
session context was:(profile=epp.package.jee,
  phase=org.eclipse.equinox.internal.p2.engine.phases.Collect, operand=,
  action=).
  Unable to read repository at

http://download.oracle.com/otn_software/oepe/indigo/wtp/plugins/oracle.eclipse.tools.doc.javaee5_220.127.116.11111040904.jar.
Read timed out
</code>
.................
The JBOS failure was:
<code>`Unable to read repository at
 http://download.jboss.org/jbosstools/updates/webtools/indigo/plugins/org.jboss.ide.eclipse.archives.jdt.integration_3.2.1.v20111022-0843-H32-M4.jar.
Read timed out
</code>
.............
Answer: I normally download eclipse plugin package and install from local machine. You could try same approach.
Answer: I was facing the same error while trying to install Glassfish 3 in eclipse. So first I added the latest JDK in Installed JREs and again tried to install Glassfish server and it worked.
Answer: I'm working on some AS documentation, and I'm running Eclipse Indigo with JBoss Application Server 7.0.x, extended with the addition of JBoss Tools. If you haven't used them before, they are essentially a set of plugins that extend the application framework of Eclipse. Read more per the FAQ here.
The steps I followed were per the installation guide, which contains all the links for Eclipse and the tooling required. I used the update URL method, and if you need it, cou can grab Jboss Application Server 7 here. I would recommend trying out a 7.0.x version first, as these have been confirmed as working. You might also like to check out JBoss Developer Studio.