How can I get a log of all programs that ran since boot in Windows 7?

Question: In Windows 7 is there a list with all the processes that were executed? Or a program that can create such a list by tracking all executed processes? Or a way to make Windows log the execution of all processes?
My computer has been running for a couple of days now but this only started happening today: I keep seeing a flicker in my taskbar. Every few dozen seconds or few minutes something starts and then it immediately stops. I can't see what it is. I looked in the Task Scheduler and it's empty, so it's not that. Is there something that I can do to find out what process is being executed?
Comment: I forgot to mention, I restarted the computer an it still happens.
Answer: This answer does not "log" startup programs, the following application allows you to view and diagnose any and all startup applications.
Download and Run Autoruns tool from Sysinternals:

This utility, which has the most comprehensive knowledge of
  auto-starting locations of any startup monitor, shows you what
  programs are configured to run during system bootup or login, and
  shows you the entries in the order Windows processes them. These
  programs include ones in your startup folder, Run, RunOnce, and other
  Registry keys. You can configure Autoruns to show other locations,
  including Explorer shell extensions, toolbars, browser helper objects,
  Winlogon notifications, auto-start services, and much more. Autoruns
  goes way beyond the MSConfig utility bundled with Windows Me and XP.

AutoRuns allows you to disable/delete ANY application that will run at startup/logon. But you must be very careful, deleting or disabling an application can cause major problems. Search the web for items shown in Autoruns, research them and make sure the item is nefarious or not. And please disable first, before you delete.
Answer: You can create a batch script that will run tasklist over-and-over while you use the computer. Just double click the batch script at startup to run it, and close the command prompt when you want it to stop. It will write to txt file that you can examine later. The txt file will become quite large if you run it for long periods of time.
Open Notepad, paste the below in, save as all files with the name logger.bat.

:start
tasklist >> "C:\users\yourusername\desktop\output.txt"
goto start

Obviously you will need to replace yourusername with your user name.
The Text file will look like this, except much longer, and repeated over-and-over for each time the script ran.:

Image Name                     PID Session Name        Session#    Mem Usage
========================= ======== ================ =========== ============
wininit.exe                    792 Services                   0      3,344 K
csrss.exe                      808 Console                    1      5,464 K
Comment: If you want the script to run at system startup, just create a shortcut to the bat, and put the shortcut into your "startup" folder.


Original proof of Pappus' Hexagon Theorem

Question: Does anyone know where I can find an English translation, preferably online or in a book the library of a small liberal arts college would be likely to have, of the original proof of Pappus' hexagon theorem from projective geometry?
Comment: Well, I managed to find a proof using only Euclidean Geometry at Cut-the-Knot: http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/Pappus.shtml . I have no idea whether this is the original proof, though.
Answer: It is in book 7 of Pappus's Collection. There is an English translation published by Springer. It's an expensive book, so I'll reproduce the proof & figure here:

It relies on earlier lemmas; there's an explanation that includes them on Wikipedia.
Answer: This is available in the Loeb Classics Library, Greek Mathematical Works, Vol II (edited by Ivor Thomas), page 600.The Loeb CL can probably be found in its entirety in many liberal arts college libraries. For your convenience, you can find the book here.
Comment: Igor, although the book does seem to have a lot, neither page 600 nor the rest of the book has the particular theorem and proof I'm looking for. Thanks, though.
Comment: Hmm, may have been a slight delusion on my part. I will investigate further...
Answer: Stumbled by coincidence today over the book "Sir Thomas Heath: A History of Greek Mathematics, II". Chapter XIX (pp. 355-439) is devoted to Pappus and contains a lot of (mathematical) stuff. Perhaps you can find there what you are looking for.
You can find the book at the Internet Archive (PDF link on the left, download may take a while).
Comment: I love the link, and I'm definitely going to show it to my professor. However, the author spends exactly one sentence on the hexagon theorem, mentioning that it's based on some lemma's from Euclid's Porisms. Oh, well.


Why can Protoss use magic in StarCraft?

Question: Like in the title said why can they use magic in StarCraft? Shouldn't it be the science fiction genre, and if they can why can't  the Terran use it ?
Comment: What magic? I don't remember any magic in StarCraft. You should provide some examples, since as it stands it's either speculation or rant.
Answer: Clarke's Third Law reads:

Any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic.

What the protoss do may seem as magic to us, but to them it is simply highly advanced technology combined with their innate psionic abilities. From the protoss fact file on Battle.net:

For thousands of years, the ancient and mysterious protoss have used their alien technology and psionic power to maintain order and peace in their part of the galaxy.

and

With their highly advanced technology and potent psionic abilities, the protoss once considered themselves the most powerful species in the galaxy.

and

Individual protoss warriors are unsurpassed in their skills, greatly enhanced by the combination of technology and formidable psionic strength.

What might seem as magic is their psionic abilities, but when you look at other franchises, it is not so different from, say, Invisible Woman's shields, or Jean Grey's telekinesis and telepathy.
From the same fact file:

The protoss are potent psionics able to bend the forces of the universe to their will. Among their most powerful psychics are the templars, who can unleash devastating psionic storms, disrupt enemy systems, and even fuse together to form the nigh-unstoppable archons.

Note that the protoss we see aren't even in the zenith of their civilisation - they've been decaying since the zerg attacked Aiur, but still manage to kick ass.
TL;DR: it may seem like magic, but it is in fact a combination of very advanced technology and their innate psionic (telepathic/telekinetic/projection) abilities.
You might also want to watch this official video overview, which, again, attributes protoss' feats to advanced technology and "the power of the mind", the psionic abilities:

Regarding your last point, terran do use the same "magic" as protoss, just not to same extent. What you're looking for is called a "Ghost":

Born with incredible psionic potential, these individuals are recruited, quarantined, and put into training by the government from childhood. Ghosts learn to channel their psionic energies to augment their natural physical strength and endurance.

So psionic powers are not limited to protoss: terran and zerg can also use them, it's just that the protoss rely on them more than anyone else.

Nova (above), Tosh (before he went nuts), and Kerrigan were all Ghosts - their psionic abilities were to some extent innate (but not as powerful as the protoss, I think), but were later greatly enhanced by training.
Comment: Ah, yes, their innate ["psionic abilities."](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_rose_by_any_other_name_would_smell_as_sweet)
Comment: @DisturbedNeo but he was a Ghost before that, wasn't he?
Comment: @Adamant "Use the Force, Luke."
Comment: I don't mean to nitpick, but technically Tosh became a Spectre, which is like a Ghost, but he's more powerful due to inhaling Terrazine.
Comment: Is "Psionics" really anything but a scifi-synonym for "Magic"?
Comment: @Philipp yes, same as "The Force", telepathy, telekinesis, etc, etc.
Comment: @Gallifreyan, you're right, he trained alongside Nova as a Ghost before becoming a Spectre.
Answer: It's not magic, it's "psionic"... which is essentially a scifi-flavored synonym for Magic. But note that the Protoss are not the only species with psionic abilities in the StarCraft universe. The Zerg hive mind communicates psionically and the Terran Ghosts also have psionic abilities. The Queen of Blades (Human/Zerg hybrid) possesses psionic abilities which are similar to those of the Protoss (in StarCraft 1 she has the Psi Storm ability which is otherwise only used by Protoss Templars). The Protoss just seem best at it.
Supernatural abilities aren't actually that rare in science fiction, especially in the more "soft science" universes. You have them in Star Wars ("the force"), Star Trek (various telepathic species), Babylon 5 (Telepaths which on a very high level can have telekinetic abilities, scientifically provable existence of "souls"), Warhammer 40k ("psykers") and countless others. Some people insist that only universes which use only plausible technology based on science should be called "Science Fiction" and any which also have supernatural elements should be called "Science Fantasy" instead. But the term never really caught on, because it would cover too many universes generally considered typical Science Fiction.
Answer: The Protoss do not use magic they use highly advanced technology and their psionic abilities.  I suppose psionic abilities could seem like magic but they are not technically speaking.

Why can Protoss use magic in StarCraft?


Do SpriteBuilder's Smart Sprite Sheet need to be loaded to memory?

Question: When I create an Smart Sprite Sheet Folder using SpriteBuilder and publish it, must I load that SpriteSheet into memory "FrameCache" with code or does SpriteBuilder do this automatically (so I just have to access any image inside of SpriteSheet?)
Answer: As far as I know, whenever you make a sprite using any spritesheet, that spritesheet will be loaded automatically. So you don't have to load anything.
Comment: Any source / link to confirm this assumption?


Do ideal non-cyclotomic lattices provide better compression in lattice-based cryptography?

Question: Let $f \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ be an irreducible polynomial of degree $N$ and $q \in \mathbb{N}$. Consider the rings $R := \mathbb{Z}[x]/f$ and $R_q := R/q$. Obviously, an element of $R_q$ can be represented by means of $\ell(N, q) := N\lceil\log_2(q)\rceil$ bits. In lattice-based cryptography the polynomial $f$ is often cyclotomic $\Phi_n$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$ (mainly $n$ is a prime or a power of two). In this case, $N = \varphi(n)$, where $\varphi$ is Euler's totient function. Do you know an example of a cryptographic scheme such that for the same security level the number $\ell(N, q)$ can be smaller if $f$ is not a cyclotomic polynomial ? In other words, is not the choice $f = \Phi_n$ optimal if we want to minimize $\ell(N, q)$ in a cryptosystem ? Thank you in advance for your response !
Answer: As the size of objects is only a function of the degree $N$, it seems that an equivalent way to phrase your question is

For fixed modulus $q$ and degree $N$, is there some particular family of polynomials $\{f_i\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ where $\deg f_i = i$, and RLWE instantiated over $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(q, f)$ is maximally hard?

The answer to that is "mostly no".
First, working with $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(q, f)$ for general $f$ is something you should be careful about.
While this is typical in lattice-based cryptography for cyclotomic $f$, in general it seems closer to a problem known as the "Polynomial Learning With Errors" problem (PLWE). Roughly, here one works over $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(q,f)$ directly, i.e. "in the coefficient embedding".
This leads to all sorts of weirdness, and instances can be atypically weak unexpectedly.
For cyclotomics it doesn't matter that much (the two embeddings are isometric up to a scaling factor), but for general $f$ this can fail completely.
This is to say that there are some explicit families of $f$ that are known to be weak, and you can find them from searching on "PLWE" or "Polynomial Learning with Errors".
This is the opposite of your question though --- are there explicit families of $f$ that are strong.
The answer to this seems less clear.
Roughly speaking, how (theoretical) hardness results work tends to be

If RLWE over this number field is easy, then some worst-case lattice problem over ideal lattices in this number field is easy.

At least this is my understanding of things. Provided it is correct (I am too lazy to check right now), this would only help us determine hard families if $f_i$ if we knew number fields where lattice problems are hard.
But this seems difficult to provably establish, and there are some disagreements in the community as to which number fields should heuristically be harder.
Still, there are some results that are vaguely along the lines of what you want.
Rather than defining polynomial multiplication $(a(x), b(x))\mapsto a(x)b(x)\bmod (f, q)$, one could impose other multiplication operations onto things.
One interesting one for your situation is known as Middle Product Learning With Errors.
This is a little technical to define, so I will just give some intuition.
If we multiply $a(x)b(x)\bmod q$ (not $\bmod f$), we get a polynomial of degree $\deg a + \deg b$.
This will often be larger than $N$ --- reducing $\bmod f$ can be seen as post-processing to ensure the degree is $\leq N$.
There are other strategies one could use though --- for example, define a polynomial $c'(x)$ of degree $N$ that are the "middle $N$ coefficients" in the polynomial product $a(x)b(x)$.
Anyway, if one uses this non-standard product, one can prove something of the form

If Middle-Product LWE over a number field is easy, then worst-case lattice problem over ideal lattices in any number field is easy.

This is to say that one can connect a LWE-type assumption with the hardness of ideal lattice problems in any number field of fixed degree.
In this way, theoretically MPLWE is "maximally hard" among RLWE-type things, at least with respect to how strong the worst-case to average-case reductions are.
So if you are trying to pick out polynomials that are maximally hard for a certain size of ciphertexts, I would say just use MP-LWE instead.
It's worth mentioning as a caveat there are questions about the practical hardness of RLWE instances as well.
But really if you care about practice (vs theory) just use power-of-two cyclotomics.
They have attracted the most cryptanalytic interest by quite a bit, and are the biggest target for attacks.


Is it normal to have a protestant Papacy?

Question: I have been doing a few attempts at unifying the Holy Roman Empire. And recently I have had success at crushing the centers of reformation on most of my test runs as Austria, except for the fact that I found that one of the Reformed centers was located in the province of Roma. Is this a normal event within the game, or has something gone horribly wrong within the code?
Answer: I wonder who owns Roma in your current game?
Roma is a religious center, so it can't be a very first starting province for protestant reformation or reformed faith. But other 2 centers of reformation appear absolutely randomly in the countries that are 2nd and 3rd to adopt the new faith.
So my guess is that at some point someone else was controlling Roma, not the Papal States, and that someone was 2nd or 3rd to adopt the Reformed faith, and in the unlikely event Roma was chosen as a center.


In Leviticus 25:29-30 what is the difference between the dwellings in verses 29,30 compared to the dwellings in verse 31?

Question: My questions are why is the dwelling that is in the walled city able only to be redeemed during a one year period and that if its not it becomes established for ever and is not returned at the jubilee?
Also, in verse 31 the dwellings in villages without walls may be redeemed seemingly without a time period but redeemed at jubilee.
Comment: The matter of 'containment' is an important concept in the spiritual allusions of the Hebrew scripture, particularly regarding '_kopher_' - a walled (contained) settlement, which has spiritual connections to _kaphar_ (wrongly 'atone' ; more correctly 'contained') and to _kippurim_ (the 'atonement' or more properly the concept of 'branchings').
Answer: It should be useful to you consider - in this instance - the following comments of ancient Bible scholars, that are Calvin and Adam Clarke. It seems to me they had well understood the difference of treatment between the 'house within a walled town' and a house built outside a walled town (a village in the open country).

John Calvin (bold is mine): "He here distinguishes houses from lands, providing that the power of redemption should not extend beyond a year; and also, that the purchase should hold good even in the jubilee. A second distinction, however, is also added between different kinds of houses, viz., that houses in towns might be altogether alienated, whilst the condition of those in the country should be the same as that of the lands themselves, as being annexed so as to form part of them. As regarded houses fix towns, because they were sometimes burdensome to their owners, it was an advantage that they might pass into the hands of the rich who were competent to bear the expenses of building. Besides, a house does not supply daily food like a field, and it is more tolerable to be without a house than a field, in which you may work, and from the cultivation of which you may support yourself and family. But it was necessary to except houses in the country, because they were appendages to the land; for what use would there be in harvesting the fruits, if you had no place to store them in? Nay, what would it profit to possess a farm which you could not cultivate? for how could oxen plough without any stalls in its vicinity? Since, then, lands without farm-buildings or cottages are almost useless, and they cannot be conveniently separated, justly did God appoint that, in the year of Jubilee, every rural possession should revert to its former owner." (Calvin's Bible Complete Commentary)

Adam Clarke (bold is mine): "A very proper difference is put between houses in a city and houses in the country. If a man sold his house in the city, he might redeem it any time in the course of a year; but if it were not redeemed within that time, it could no more be redeemed, nor did it go out even in the jubilee. It was not so with a house in the country; such a house might be redeemed during any part of the interim; and if not redeemed, must go out at the jubilee. The reason in both cases is sufficiently evident; the house in the city might be built for purposes of trade or traffic merely, the house in the country was built on or attached to the inheritance which God had divided to the respective families, and it was therefore absolutely necessary that the same law should apply to the house as to the inheritance. But the same necessity did not hold good with respect to the house in the city: and as we may presume the house in the city was merely for the purpose of trade, when a man bought such a house, and got his business established there, it would have been very inconvenient for him to have removed; but as it was possible that the former owner might have sold the house rashly, or through the pressure of some very urgent necessity, a year was allowed him, that during that time he might have leisure to reconsider his rash act, or so to get through his pressing necessity as to be able to get back his dwelling. This time was sufficiently long in either of the above cases; and as such occurrences might have been the cause of his selling his house, it was necessary that he might have the opportunity of redeeming his pledge. Again, as the purchaser, having bought the house merely for the purpose of trade, manufacture, etc., must have been at great pains and expense to fit the place for his work, and establish his business, in which himself, his children, and his children's children, were to labor and get their bread; hence it was necessary that he should have some certainty of permanent possession, without which, we may naturally conjecture, no such purchases ever would be made. This seems to be the simple reason of the law in both cases." (Commentary on the Bible)
Since these laws was originally given by God, we should feel astonished before the wisdom and the love of our Creator regarding the care concerning the well-being of his servants (in this instance, the people of Israel).
Also today, God cares for his servants. We are discerning how?
Comment: +1 for being able to offer information on this somewhat complicated issue.
Answer: The literal definition is not helpful, whereas the Christian can apply the metaphorical meaning to his/her spiritual life.
On the allegorical level, the words "house" and "city" symbolically represent the soul and its many aspects, therefore, it means not to trade or exchange the soul for worldly and carnal understanding, wisdom, ideals, opinions, knowledge, and counsel.
1 Corinthians 3:16

Don't you know that you yourselves are God's temple (dwelling, house, abode) and that God's Spirit dwells in your midst?

Do not wait for your soul to be redeemed. The soul needs the "field" of God's Word to feed on, meaning environments and atmospheres where it is being properly fed with Divine doctrines and teachings, and purified with the Logos (written word) and Rhema (prophetic word or revelations).
Jeremiah 1:18

Today I have made you a fortified city, an iron pillar and a bronze wall to stand against the whole land--against the kings of Judah, its officials, its priests and the people of the land.

A "walled city" metaphorically means a soul separated from or one that remains outside of God's theological fields and allotted inheritances. Otherwise, the soul will remain malnourished, un-sanctified or unable to be purified with God's truth, and forever be immersed in pools of false narratives, beliefs, and twisted philosophies.


Electricity theft from radar transmissions

Question: I recollect reading in a newspaper in england, maybe 20 years ago, that someone had been prosecuted for stealing electricity from a radar. This was detected because the air defense radar had a black spot in its propagation field and apparently he hooked up a load of wires in his roof. I an certain I read this, but it seems physically impossible. Is this false memory syndrome or could it have happened? Could it happen with a microwave link if they pass over head? Thanks – dave
Comment: This would be like prosecuting someone for stealing energy by basking under a street lamp.
Comment: This could almost be at home on skeptics.SE or physics.SE.
Comment: This is amusing. Years ago, during the installation and testing of traffic control radar at the Denver International Airport then under construction, seemingly anomalous slow-moving aircraft were detected to the west just grazing the Rockies. As these blips disappeared without any small planes landing, engineers wondered if it might indicate some illicit activity. No such thing. The blips weren't Cessnas, but automobiles crossing the Continental Divide at Loveland Pass (3,655 m)on Interstate 70! The beam was duly adjusted.
Answer: Most radars transmit high power pulses but have low duty cycles so the average power is not very high.  They also generally transmit over a narrow beam that is rotated either mechanically or electronically to cover a full circle. Also the power in the beam falls dramatically with range.  Based on those three features, the average amount of power that intercepts a single roof of a house would not be very much. In any event, one would then have to efficiently receive this power and convert it to low frequency AC in order to use it for powering one's household.  I can't give more quantitative answers without knowing the radar parameters and the distance between the radar and the house, but I seriously doubt the story.  Additionally, air defense radars by definition are designed to survey the sky and not the ground.  Thus the radar beam would not be directed low enough to intercept a house other than by sidelobes which are much lower in amplitude than the main beam.
Answer: As Barry said, a house is so low that it shouldn't be in the way of the radar beam in the first place.  However, even if it was this would still be nonsense.  First, enough radar power is normally transmitted thru the house that harvesting it would be meaningful, it would cause a health threat to those living there.  Second, what if the house happened to have a aluminum roof?  That would reflect the radar instead of absorbing it, but either way it wouldn't serve its supposed intended purpose.  If this myth were true, then aluminum roofs would have to be outlawed too.
Comment: @sharp: Actually grounded or not has nothing to do with what it would do to a radar beam, which would be to reflect it in both cases. Think of a mirror for visible light. It reflects just as well whether floating, grounded, or electrically connected to something else. The reflection is a result of the physical properties of the material at its surface up to a wavelength or so in, and has nothing to do with its potential.  There is no closed conduction path even if it were "grounded".
Comment: +1, also it's typical to ground metal roofs as part of lightning protection - a grounded roof would absorb energy.
Comment: How is that different from a http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crystal_radio that has a long antenna wire connected to a grounded receiver?
Answer: I asked a friend of mine who served at a USAF radar installation where they used over the horizon ICBM detection radar.  We're talking MW output here.  He was saying that close to the dish site there were lines on poles etc. that said "do not go higher than this when dish active" and in the offices/barracks, if someone left the lid on a pot/kettle that the pot would buzz every-time the sweep would go by.
So that might give you a lead to go look at to verify independently.
I'd say it's possible, but the circumstances would need to be particular.  You'd need to be able to get close to a very high output Radar system, which are typically remote or limited access.
Here is a link to WHO site giving some context for energy levels.
http://www.who.int/peh-emf/publications/facts/fs226/en/
Aircraft traffic control is ~ 100 KW.
and here is a snip from that site.

However, because its power is radiated over a large surface area, the power densities associated with these systems vary between 10 and 100 W/m2 within the site boundary. Outside the site boundary RF field levels are usually unmeasurable without using sophisticated equipment. However, small military fire control radars on aircraft can be hazardous to ground personnel.
Answer: Perhaps you're looking for a slightly different story/rumor.  I heard it in the 1970s like so: a farmer in the UK discovered that his wire fences were electrically "hot," so he connected up an electric heater and was using it to heat his outbuilding.  It turned out that he was kilometers from a BBC antenna farm, and his long-fences heater was punching a hole in the antenna pattern for the "World Service" AM transmissions being beamed at Europe.   In the story this was not illegal, so the BBC cut a deal.  They paid to have power lines run out to his remote location.
Big BBC transmitter is Rampisham, out in Dorset farmlands.  Unless there are other megawatt World Service sites, that's probably the one.  (If the story happened at all, I mean.)
Comment: There are the Voice of America transmitters in Spain - I think these are the only AM transmitters that can do double atmospheric bounce and can reach Siberia.
Answer: It is definitely possible to take some of the energy transmitted to the house. Not very much and not very usable. All you need to be able to get some energy is an antenna.
Its much like the old crystal radios, it is certainly possible to get some energy from RADAR. It will, as others have stated, however only be when they transmit in your direction and it will probably only be very little power. I don't see why one would be prosecuted because of this for another reason than breaking some kind of building regulating law.
Comment: thats very usefull, forgot i asked this question ages ago.  Maybe it was stealing from pylons nearby that would work I guess and be at the right frequency?


Voltage levels for LCD

Question: I intend to use WF101FSYAPLNGO display model of winstar.
In its data sheet AVDD, VGH,VGL VDD, VDDT voltages are given. Can some one help to find the difference between AVDD and VDD? Is AVDD meant for back light control?
I am using conga ma-5 n4200 processor for my project, its design guide specifies that back light can be controlled by PWM or analog voltage via a i2c DAC. In the said display's datasheet they don't specify a back light control method.
Answer: Looks to me like the LCD panel needs each of those four supply rails, plus Vcom, plus Vddt (assuming you're using the touch function), plus another supply for the backlight.
The backlight will be a bit more than 12V (4 white/blue LEDs in series at a bit over 3V each) at about 480mA total at full brightness.
It's up to you how you get that supply and how you PWM it or whatever, but it should be current controlled since there are no series resistors or other circuitry. It's about a 6W power draw so a substantial LED driver is called for.
There are no end of semiconductor suppliers offering integrated circuit solutions for driving backlights.
Answer: Typically AVDD is the power supply for the analog part of the circuit. They are external so that you can add filters to reduce noise.

Voltage levels for LCD


DisplayName attribute in List Views for ASP.NET MVC

Question: in my current asp.net mvc project I'm using the built in functions for displaying resourcebased text as headers for my textboxes and stuff. In Create and Edit views this is accomplished by using the HtmlHelper LabelFor method like this:
Html.LabelFor(model => model.InternalTitle)

BUT, the default in the asp.net mvc 2 template is List views (that generates a table based on an IEnumerable<>) is the headers hardcoded like this:
InternalTitle

Is there a nice way to get the same result as in the Create and Edit views here aswell?
I have looked at the LabelFor<> method but cannot figure of how to make that work.
Of course i could just use the Resource property that is used on my domainmodelproperty. But i think it will look even better if there was some way to use the LabelFor method or something similar.
I do not want to invent the wheel once again by implementing my own reflectionbased helper method and i think that this should be in there by default, or at least i hope so....
Answer: To get the display name of a model property you should call ExpressionHelper.GetExpressionText.


How to report Cronbach's alpha for referent-shift scale (before or after aggregation?)

Question: I have a study variable that is measured at the individual level and then aggregated and to the group level. My hypothesis testing is conducted at the group level.
I used an 8-item referent-shift measure of team psychological capital.
When calculating and reporting the coefficient alpha, should I be looking at it across individual level scores, or averaging (aggregating) each item across each team, and then calculating the coefficient alphas across aggregated item scores.
That is, I can find the average value of item 1 within team 1, then the average value of item 2 within team 1 etc.  I will then have one value for each scale item per team.  I will then calculate the alpha based on n=94 teams. Alternatively, I could leave everything at the individual level, and calculate it that way across all individuals within my sample (n=456 individual team members).
I would think I should measure it at the group level, since I am conducting my analyses as the group level. That is, I should be most concerned about the level of measurement error in the aggregated team-level scale, right?   If I calculate it at the team level, I get alpha=0.92, and if I calculate it at the individual level, I get alpha=0.86.  At the end of the day, they're both good alphas, but I still want to report the correct number.
Also, in case this is important in answering the question,
I have calculated ICC(1), ICC(2) and rwg for the scale means (rather than on an item by item basis) and they are acceptable for aggregating the scale means to the group level.
Thank you in advance!
Note: Referent-shift measure means that the referent of the scale is the team rather than the individual.  So the individual-referent psychological capital item might be I am optimistic about my work. The team-referent psychological capital item would be Members of my team are optimistic about their work. See  Functional relations among constructs in the same content domain at different levels of analysis: A typology of composition models. Chan, David Journal of Applied Psychology, Vol 83(2), Apr 1998, 234-246.
Edit: While the scale is measured at the individual level, analyses are conducted at the group level (after aggregation).  Hence my confusion over whether I should report individual level alpha or group level alpha...  Group level alpha would be found by aggregating each individual item (find average within-group value for each item and then calculate alpha based on that).
Comment: I think you want it at the individual level. Alpha is a measure of test reliability, and the test is given to individuals.
Comment: What does referent mean?  Is it a real owrd?  Could you mean "reference"?
Answer: I've seen people reporting the two. I don't think there's one golden standard. The alpha at the team level is not too informative, as it is much important to see the ICC2.


Flexible carousel plugin for jQuery

Question: I have a list of suppliers (fetched from DB), which acting like pagination buttons.
Each supplier has many items, it has to offer.
List of items will be displayed only for one supplier on the page.
Selecting i'th supplier, will reveal list of items for it, with nice sliding effect in JavaScript.
I'm looking for a carousel (list of scrollable items) plugin, that will allow me to delegate page selection control to specific HTML element. In my case, i need to tell to the carousel plugin, that for pagination, i'd like to use list of suppliers.
Is there any jQuery plugin around ?
I found jQuery Carousel plugin, but it does't offers such a feature. It automatically creates HTML for pagination buttons.
Answer: My experience with jquery tools scrollable has been very good and I recommend all jquery tools anytime.
Edit: While I don't completely understand your exact use case, the scrollable plugin is very flexible and does not come in the way.

Flexible carousel plugin for jQuery


How can I find the points at which two circles intersect?

Question: Given the radius and $x,y$ coordinates of the center point of two circles how can I calculate their points of intersection if they have any?
Comment: for any two circles
Comment: Do you have two circles in mind?  This will likely be easier with an example.
Comment: I've just been working on this idea myself...
Answer: This can be done without any trigonometry at all. Let the equations of the circles be
$$(x-x_1)^2 + (y-y_1)^2 = r_1^2, \tag{1}$$
$$(x-x_2)^2 + (y-y_2)^2 = r_2^2. \tag{2}$$
By subtracting $(2)$ from $(1)$ and then expanding, we in fact obtain a linear equation for $x$ and $y$; after a little rearranging it becomes
$$-2x(x_1 - x_2) - 2y(y_1 - y_2) = (r_1^2 - r_2^2) - (x_1^2 - x_2^2) - (y_1^2 - y_2^2).$$
(If the circles intersect, this is the equation of the line that passes through the intersection points.) This equation can be solved for one of $x$ or $y$; let's suppose $y_1 - y_2 \ne 0$ so that we can solve for $y$:
$$y = -\frac{x_1 - x_2}{y_1 - y_2} x + \dotsc. \tag{3}$$
 Substituting this expression for $y$ into $(1)$ or $(2)$ gives a quadratic equation in only $x$. Then the $x$-coordinates of the intersection points are the solutions to this; the $y$-coordinates can be obtained by plugging the $x$-coordinates into $(3)$.
Comment: I'm sure this is a correct answer, but it's like a teaser for an actual solution.

"By subtracting (2) from (1)" - show me. "then expanding" - show me. "linear" in italics - why, what's the significance of that? "After a little rearranging" - show me. "+ ..." in (3) - show me, I've no idea what's meant to be there.

It's the perfect example of why maths can often be a struggle for some - all the assumed knowledge, understanding, and unexplained mental leaps.
Comment: When you say by subtracting the two equations? Do you mean from each other?
Answer: Easy solution is to consider another plane such that the centers are along an axis.
Given the points $(x_1,y_1)$ and $(x_2,y_2)$.
We focus on the center point of both circles given by
$$
\left( \frac{x_1+x_2}{2}, \frac{y_1+y_2}{2} \right).
$$
The distance between the centers of the circles is given by
$$
R = \sqrt{ (x_2-x_1)^2 + (y_2-y_1)^2}.
$$
We can consider the following orthogonal vectors
$$
\vec{a} = \left( \frac{x_2-x_1}{R}, \frac{y_2-y_1}{R} \right),
\vec{b} = \left( \frac{y_2-y_1}{R}, - \frac{x_2-x_1}{R} \right).
$$

In the $(\vec{a},\vec{b})$ plane we get the equations
$$
\big( a + R / 2 \big)^2 + b^2 = r_1^2,\\
\big( a - R / 2 \big)^2 + b^2 = r_2^2.
$$
Whence
$$
a = \frac{r_1^2 - r_2^2}{2R},\\
b = \pm \sqrt{ \frac{r_1^2+r_2^2}{2} - \frac{(r_1^2-r_2^2)^2}{4R^2}
- \frac{R^2}{4}}.
$$
The intersection points are given by
$$
(x,y) =
\frac{1}{2} \big( x_1+x_2, y_1+y_2 \big)
+ \frac{r_1^2 - r_2^2}{2R^2} \big( x_2-x_1, y_2-y_1 \big)\\
\pm \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{ 2 \frac{r_1^2+r_2^2}{R^2} - \frac{(r_1^2-r_2^2)^2}{R^4}
- 1} \big( y_2-y_1, x_1-x_2 \big),
$$
where $R$ is the distance between the centers of the circles.

Comment: Wrote some JS code that implements this. Should be easy to port to other languages: https://gist.github.com/jupdike/bfe5eb23d1c395d8a0a1a4ddd94882ac
Comment: A new user has some questions about this, can't comment here. Can you help him please? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1899322/circle-cirle-intersection
Comment: There is only one plane in $\mathbb{R^2}$, and this is $\mathbb{R^2}$. What you do is the change of the coordinate plane or coordinate system. $(\vec{a},\vec{b})$ do not define a coordinate plane you additionally need an origin which should be $\left( \frac{x_1+x_2}{2}, \frac{y_1+y_2}{2} \right)$, I think. You do not explain what a and b is, and why they satisfy these equations. To deduce the final equation one dos not need a complicate concept like transformation of coordinate systems, that is simple analytic geometry, For me this answer needs a lot of improvements
Comment: It would be helpful to include a geogebra sketch of this solution. I have trouble visualizing it also.
Comment: in the scenario where two circles overlap , do you express this R=0 condition?
Comment: Typescript implementation using vectors: https://gist.github.com/SandyGifford/a9fddf107197e2f5e18691e918210acb
Answer: A nice way to look at this is to first consider the case when the center of one circle is at the origin and the center of other lies on the x-axis. Let the centers be at $(0,0)$, $(d,0)$ and the radii be $r_1$, $r_2$. The two equations simplify to
$$x^2+y^2=r_1^2$$
and
$$(x-d)^2+y^2=r_2^2$$
Use the first to find $y^2$ and substitute in the second.
$$(x-d)^2+r_1^2-x^2=r_2^2$$
expand and simplify
$$-2xd+d^2+r_1^2=r_2^2$$
so the points of intersections are $(x,y), (x,-y)$ with
$$x=\frac{r_1^2-r_2^2+d^2}{2d}$$
and from Pythagorus
$$y=\sqrt{r_1^2-x^2}.$$
This part came from mathworld.
For the general position case with centers $(x_1,y_1)$ $(x_2,y_2)$. Let
$$\begin{align}
d&=\sqrt{(x_1-x_2)^2+(y_1-y_2)^2}\\
l&=\frac{r_1^2-r_2^2+d^2}{2d}\\
h&=\sqrt{r_1^2-l^2}
\end{align}$$

Now $\left(\tfrac{x_2-x_1}{d},\tfrac{y_2-y_1}{d}\right)$ $\left(\tfrac{y_2-y_1}{d},-\tfrac{x_2-x_1}{d}\right)$ are two orthogonal unit vectors and we can rotate and translate to get the general solution
$$\begin{align}
x&=\frac{l}{d}(x_2-x_1) \pm \frac{h}{d}(y_2-y_1) + x_1,\\
y&=\frac{l}{d}(y_2-y_1) \mp \frac{h}{d}(x_2-x_1) + y_1.\\
\end{align}$$
Comment: I like this solution a lot, due to its geometric meaning. The interpretation is clear once a diagram is made. I suggest either a diagram or some text such as the following should be included:
Comment: I like this solution a lot, due to its geometric meaning. The interpretation is clear once a diagram is made. I suggest either a diagram or some text such as the following should be included:
1. Change "... one point is at the origin and the other lies on the _x_-axis." to "one circle is centered at the origin and the other on the _x_-axis."
2. The two points of intersection have the same _x_-value. [This for the first case.]
3. Here _l_ and _h_ are the rotated versions of _x_ and _y_ from the special case above.
Answer: Let $C_1 = (x_1,y_1), C_2 = (x_2,y_2)$ be the centers of the two circles and $r_1,r_2$ be their radii respectively.
Their equations are
$$(x-x_1)^2 + (y-y_1)^2 = r_1^2$$
$$(x-x_2)^2 + (y-y_2)^2 = r_2^2$$
They intersect only iff $|r_1-r_2|\leq|C_1-C_2|\leq|r_1+r_2|$, where $|C_1-C_2|$ is the distance between the two centers. If equality holds, the circles touch and there is one solution. For strict inequalities, they intersect and they have two solutions.
Just solve the system of equations. Suppose that $x_0$ is a point on the first circle. Then, its parametric representation is $x_0 = (x_1+r_1\cos\theta,y_1+r_1\sin\theta)$ for some $\theta$. If $x_0$ also lies on the second circle, which will make it a point of intersection, it must also satisfy the equation of the second circle i.e.
$$(x_0-x_2)^2 + (y_0-y_2)^2 = r_2^2$$
Substitute the parametric form, and find out the value(s) of $\theta$.
Comment: Thanks. I used this way. A useful formula to find out $\theta$ is $a\cos\theta+b\sin\theta = \sqrt{a^2+b^2}\,\cos\bigl(\theta - \text{atan2}(b,a)\bigr)$.
Answer: Example 1: Find the points of intersection of the circles given by their equations as follows:
$(x - 2)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 9$
$(x - 1)^2 + (y + 1)^2 = 16$
Solution to Example 1:
We first expand the two equations as follows:
$x^2 - 4x + 4 + y^2 - 6y + 9 = 9 $
$x^2 - 2x + 1 + y^2 + 2y + 1 = 16 $
Multiply all terms in the first equation by -1 to abtain an equivalent equation and keep the second equation unchanged
$-x^2 + 4x - 4 - y^2 + 6y - 9 = -9 $
$x^2 - 2x + 1 + y^2 + 2y + 1 = 16 $
We now add the same sides of the two equations to obtain a linear equation
$2x - 3 + 8y - 8 = 7 $
Which may written as
$x + 4y = 9 \textbf{ or } x = 9 - 4y $
We now substitute $x$ by $9 - 4y$ in the first equation to obatin
$(9 - 4y)^2 - 4(9 - 4y) + 4 + y^2 - 6y + 9 = 9 $
Which may be written as
$17y^2 -62y + 49 = 0 $
Solve the quadratic equation for y to obtain two solutions
$y = \frac{(31 + 8\sqrt{2})}{17} \approx 2.49 $
and $ y =\frac{31 - 8\sqrt{2}}{17} \approx 1.16 $
We now substitute the values of y already obtained into the equation $x = 9 - 4y $ to obtain the values for x as follows
$x = \frac{29 + 32\sqrt{2}}{ 17} \approx - 0.96 $
and $x = \frac{29 - 32\sqrt{2})}{17} \approx 4.37 $
The two points of intersection of the two circles are given by
$(- 0.96 , 2.49)$ and $(4.37 , 1.16)$
Comment: no citation..? http://www.analyzemath.com/CircleEq/circle_intersection.html
Answer: After going through most of the answers posted here, I still struggled implementing them.
After much searching around I found this page:
http://www.ambrsoft.com/TrigoCalc/Circles2/circle2intersection/CircleCircleIntersection.htm
It includes extensive notation on every part of the equation as well as drawings, a calculator and JavaScript implementation.
Hope it can help others.
Comment: Link appears to be dead.
Comment: Looks as though the link has moved here (and is indeed extensive): http://ambrnet.com/TrigoCalc/Circles2/circle2intersection/CircleCircleIntersection.htm
Answer: Make equations of circles both start with $ x^2 +y^2,$ subtract one from the other to get equation of its radical axis which is a straight line. Intersection of this radical axis and one of the circles can be found by plugging in for x or y of one circle into the other.
EDIT1
If the discriminant of this quadratic equation that is the real guide is $(>0,0,<0)$ then the intersections are respectively $ (2, 2$ coinciding points at tangent,2) in number which are the required ( real,real,complex) points.
Answer: By first applying coordinate transformations a reduced algebra solution is possible. Given Circle (x1,y1,R) and Circle (x2,y2,P) find the two intersection points of the circles. Define d=distance(C1,C2). There are multiple conditions for Zero and One intersection points. Here we assume two points thus d<P+R, d+P>R, and d-P>-R.

Translate to place (x1,y1) at the origin.
Rotate to place (x2,y2) at (0,d) where d=distance(C1,C2).
$Y=(R^2-P^2+d^2)/2d$  see figure and derivation below
$X=\sqrt{R^2-Y^2}$
$$xy=\begin{bmatrix}+X & Y \\-X & Y  \\\end{bmatrix} $$ Two solution points in transformed space
$theta=atan2(x2-x1,y2-y1)$ A Matlab quadrant atan where -pi<atan2()<=pi See below
xy=xy*rot(theta)+[x1 y1] where $$rot(t)=\begin{bmatrix}cos(t) &  -sin(t)\\ sin(t) & cos(t)\\\end{bmatrix}$$

In the transformed space, see figure, many simplifications occur. $R^2=X^2+Y^2$, $P^2=X^2+(d-Y)^2$ after subtraction gives $R^2-P^2=Y^2-(d-Y)^2$ = $Y^2-d^2+2dY-Y^2$=$2dY-d^2$ thus $Y=(R^2-P^2+d^2)/2d$. Substitution of Y into the first equation yields $X=\sqrt{R^2-Y^2}$ De-Rotate and de-translate to see the points in the original coordinate system.
Circles in Transformed Space
The atan2 function as used with (dx,dy) gives the rotation angle from the +Y-axis.
<code>function theta=atan2(dx,dy)
 if dx==0
  if dy>0
   theta=0;
  else
   theta=pi;
  end
 elseif dy==0
  if dx>0
   theta=pi/2;
  else
   theta=-pi/2;
  end
 elseif dx>0
  if dy>0
   theta=atan(dx/dy);
  else
   theta=pi+atan(dx/dy);
  end
 elseif dx<0
  if dy>0
   theta=atan(dx/dy);
  else
   theta=atan(dx/dy)-pi;
  end
 end % if
end % theta=atan2(dx,dy)
</code>
Comment: Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, *e.g.*, [basic help on mathjax notation](/help/notation), [mathjax tutorial and quick reference](//math.meta.stackexchange.com/q/5020), [main meta site math tutorial](//meta.stackexchange.com/a/70559) and [equation editing how-to](//math.meta.stackexchange.com/q/1773).
Answer: following the very nice hint of arkeet you can after defining a,b,c,g,h  using rc1,zc1,rc2,zc2, as the center point of the circles and R1 and R2 their radii
and assuming that rc2!=rc1 (the case where rc2=rc1 can be also done in the manner or arkeet, however the present assumption was useful to me)
g = (zc2 - zc1)/(rc2 - rc1);
h = (R1*R1-R2*R2 + zc2*zc2 - zc1*zc1 + rc2*rc2 - rc1*rc1 )/(2*(rc2 - rc1));
a = (g*g+ 1);
b = -2*g*h + 2*g*rc1 - 2*zc1;
c = h*h -2*h*rc1 + rc1*rc1 + zc1*zc1 - R1*R1;
zplus  = (-b +sqrt(b*b-4*a*c)) / (2*a);
zminus = (-b -sqrt(b*b-4*a*c)) / (2*a);
and
rplus  = -gzplus+h;
rminus = -gzminus+h;
you can test this by verifying that the intersection points do lie on the 2 circles.
Comment: As written this is very hard to read.  Please look over this guide to formatting mathematics (it is very Latex like if you are familiar with that): http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/mathjax-basic-tutorial-and-quick-reference The reference has essentially everything you could want.  The first few lines or a paragraph or two should be enough to get you running nicely on this site.


Why do protons not break into quarks?

Question:
I know that free a neutron breaks into a proton because a proton has less mass and energy. Then, why do protons not break into quarks, since they have even less energy?
Or why do gluons join quarks?
Comment: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_confinement
Comment: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proton_decay
Comment: "
In the Standard Model, protons, a type of
baryon, are theoretically stable because
baryon number ( quark number) is
conserved (under normal circumstances;
however, see chiral anomaly ). Therefore,
protons will not decay into other particles
on their own, because they are the lightest
(and therefore least energetic) baryon."

It is unsatisfactory
Comment: unsatisfactory is that you had not read the link color confinement which was essentially the answer you accepted
Answer: When you say quarks "have even less energy," I assume you mean less mass-energy. While quarks individually have less mass-energy than a proton, three separated quarks have more energy than a proton. The quarks attract and bond to each other to reach a low energy state, and breaking that bond requires an energy input - which, ironically, supplies the necessary energy for a new set of quarks to form. So if you try to split a particle into a quark-antiquark pair by supplying energy, you just end up with two particles instead.

Why do protons not break into quarks?


I'm unable to find /usr/share/plymouth/themes/

Question: I'm thinking about customizing a theme for Ubuntu 12.10. The problem is that I've looked through the /usr/share directory and I haven't been able to find the Plymouth folder. What can I do to get the folder?
Comment: Have a look here askubuntu.com/questions/173329/what-alternatives-are-available-to-replace-the-purple-boot-splash-screen/173340#173340
Comment: Stephen, it's no longer a problem now. I could have sworn I put "solved" in the title.
Comment: We don't put solved in the title of posts; an answer is marked as the solution with a green tick (as below), so I've edited your question again.
Comment: Okay, sorry about that.
Comment: Thats ok- welcome to ask Ubuntu! it's just a bit different here
Answer: You can create the folder with the following command:
sudo mkdir -p /usr/share/plymouth/themes

On the second thought, /lib/plymouth/themes/ may be what you need.
Make a backup of it before customizing with
sudo cp -r /lib/plymouth/themes /lib/plymouth/themes-backup


What is the difference between Bearer token and API key authorisation in Postman API testing?

Question: I am a complete newbie in API testing. Now, while sending a GET or POST request , we need to authorize the calling project. How does it work internally and what's the difference between API key and a Token?
Comment: Voting for closing because this question is about software engineering, not testing. @test234, I suggest asking this question on Stack Overflow.
Answer: API testing requires careful consideration of authorization, which is an important aspect of the process. When it comes to authorizing a client to access an API, there are two common ways of doing so: Bearer Token and API Key.
A Bearer Token is a type of access token that is generated by the server and provided to the client. It allows the client to access the API by presenting it with the request headers. Typically used in OAuth 2.0 authentication flow, Bearer Tokens are preceded by the word 'Bearer' in the authorization header, such as Authorization: Bearer <token>.
On the other hand, an API Key is a unique identifier that is provided to the client by the server. It is a simple string of characters used to authenticate the client to the server. API Keys can be restricted to specific endpoints or actions and are usually generated by the developer or the API provider. The API Key is passed as a query parameter or in the request header, such as X-API-KEY: <key>.
The main difference between Bearer Token and API Key authorization lies in their use. Bearer Tokens are used for authentication purposes, while API Keys are used for authorization purposes. Bearer Tokens authenticate the client and provide access to the API resources, while API Keys grant access to specific endpoints or actions.
In Postman, both Bearer Token and API Key can be used for authorization. To use Bearer Token, you need to add Authorization header with the value Bearer <token> in request headers. To use API Key, you need to add the API key as a query parameter or in the request header.
Here are some useful resources to learn more about Bearer Token and API Key authorization in API testing:

https://swagger.io/docs/specification/authentication/bearer-authentication/
https://swagger.io/docs/specification/authentication/api-keys/
https://learning.postman.com/docs/sending-requests/authorization/#bearer-token

I hope this helps clarify the differences between Bearer Token and API Key authorization in API testing!
Answer: API key authorization is a simple way to authenticate an API request, where a secret key is passed in the request header to authenticate the client. This means that the server checks the key and allows access to the API resources if the key is valid. On the other hand, Bearer token authentication is a more secure and flexible way to authenticate a client. Here, the server provides the client with a token after successful authentication. This token is passed in the request header to access the API resources. The bearer token can also be used to authenticate multiple API requests and is valid for a certain duration. Additionally, bearer tokens can be revoked by the server to stop the client's access to the API resources.
I remember when I was working on an API project, we initially used API key authorization. But later, we switched to bearer token authentication for enhanced security and flexibility. Bearer tokens allowed us to authenticate multiple API requests without repeatedly sending the API key in each request header, which reduced the load on the server. Also, the bearer tokens had a validity period, which ensured that only authorized clients were able to access the API resources during that period. So, if you're planning to develop a scalable and secure API, I would suggest going for bearer token authentication in Postman.
I hope this explanation helps you understand the difference between bearer token and API key authorization in Postman API testing. Feel free to ask me if you have any more questions. Good luck with your API testing!
Comment: When linking to a site you are affiliated with, you need to be explicit about the relationship. Please review [How to not be a spammer.](/help/promotion)
Comment: I have edited your answer to remove the link. Without it, this is a decent answer. With the link, since you did not state your affiliation with the site, it is borderline spam. If you want to reinstate the link, then please edit your answer and be sure to state your affiliation with the site.


Betting ended after nth round.Find the sum of money NOT WON?

Question:
Rahul and Vijay are playing a game with 12-sided die,where both of them lay bets on outcomes  of roll of die.They start betting Rs 5 each on first round of the game and the amount bet in each subsequent round is thrice the amount bet in previous round.The game ends when Rahul wins a round .Rahul wins only when die shows a 10,11 or 12.Vijay  wins for all other outcomes.If the game ended after the nth round. Which of the following CANNOT BE SUM OF MONEY won by Rahul and Vijay respectively?
Comment: Do you seriously think we'll take the time to answer your question if you don't even take the time for the most rudimentary check whether you've copied it properly?
Comment: @joriki I thought the "owing" was just bad English, but you are right - it is the end of "following"! :)
Comment: @almagest: Tolerance for bad English is essential on a site like this. I have the experience of learning a non-Latin script, so I'm aware how much more difficult it can be to write in another than one's native script. But there are things that one can spot even in a foreign script if one puts in the minimal effort of comparing a copied text to the original. I think "of the following" being replaced by "owing" is one of them. (Also a considerable number of articles are missing that are present in the original.)
Comment: @Yes, that was stupid of me. I just thought I was expected to struggle to read the amounts. I did not pause to wonder why he had missed them out having transcribed most of the rest.
Comment: Well ,Sir I had no intention to paste question on stackflow for any kind of reputation.I was just taking mock test and there i found this question and that prompted me to ask it from stackflow intelligentia.I beg sorry for inconvenience.I will surely take care of it in future. :)
Answer: So if R wins after one throw, he wins 5 and V nothing. If R wins after two throws he wins 15 and V 5. After three throws R 45, V 5+15=20.
After $n+1$ rounds we have R $5\cdot3^n$ and V $5(1+3+\dots+3^{n-1})=\frac{5}{2}(3^n-1)$. So R always wins more than twice as much as V.
So it is easy to rule out the 3rd alternative. With a little more effort we can see that in the first alternative R's win corresponds to $n=7$, so V's should be 5465 which it is. In the second alternative R's win corresponds to $n=6$, so V's should be 1820 which it is. In the last alternative R's win corresponds to $n=5$, so V's should be 605 which it is.


Can "неужели" be used in a sentence that isn't a question?

Question: I'm translating an audio in Russian, where the speaker says, "поэтому я так счастлива что ... неужели ура!" i might be hearing the speaker incorrectly, but if not, I was wondering what неужели meant in this context.
Answer: It would have been nice to have at least the first part of the sentence as some context, but even considering the given part we can tell that the result was long hoped for and the speaker did some great job, so this can be interpreted as "it happened to be successful at last" with some surprise.
поэтому я так счастлива что ... неужели ура!(неужели наконец получилось)

Can "неужели" be used in a sentence that isn’t a question?


How do I set notifications for my questions?

Question: I want to receive an email whenever someone answers or comments on one of my questions. How can  I do that? I can't find anything like that in my user account.
Answer: Recently the email settings button was removed from the supercolider tm. Email settings are now located in the user preferences:

And of course you get bugged each time you ask a question and you're not subscribed (as already described by @Lucifer):
Comment: Hi m0sa, I set up all mail notifications in my profile, but I continue to not receive anything in my email.....
Comment: @Luca you only receive email notifications when you don't view them on a se site for that period. If you want push notifications for everything I stongly recommend using one of our mobile apps
Comment: I'm sorry but it does not seem that is what you're saying. In last days effectively, I'm on SO everydays, but in past weeks and months it will happen that I was away for days. In addiction, I set "boundary notification time" on three hours, so I expect that someone answer a my question during night, next morning I should have an email in my inbox, because of my last visit on SO was more than 3 hours before....
Comment: @Luca I checked your history, you only enabled the "Email me my unread inbox items" option 2 hours ago. It was disabled before (since Jul 12th 2013), so no wonder you haven't received any inbox notifications in the past.
Comment: Nope... is not correct. That option was already enabled for months (at least... it was "visually" checked); 2 hours ago I enabled only "Email chat event reminders... etc etc"
Comment: Here the confirmation of my feelings. Yesterday night I asked a question on SO and answered another one. This morning, after 10 hours, I can see 2 replies notified inside SO website, but in my email did not arrive anything, even if I set "3 hours" threshold and obviously... I did not check SO during past 10 hours.... :-(
Comment: @LucaDetomi you should be receiving inbox notification emails, the systems sends them out for sure. Have you checked all folders in your email inbox (including spam?)
Comment: Unfortunately..... nothing in spam too.....
Answer: For each the question you asked, there is a email link after the last answer.

Would you like to have responses to your questions sent to you via email?

Click on the "sent to you via email" and you will get notification via email.
Comment: But in the profile of this forum, dont exist some kind of notification?
Answer: Click the stackexchange dropdown at the top left of the page, and pick "email settings".
Answer: Install this awesome Chrome extension: https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/desktop-notifications-for/ijglncoabcgieiokjmgdogpefdblmnle


Color temperature or effective temperature?

Question: I am a high school student interested in astronomy and physics, and I am trying to understand the difference between color temperature and effective temperature of a star. As I have searched this forum, I noticed that this question has been asked before, but I have yet to find a clear and comprehensive answer. Can someone please explain the distinction between these two concepts, and how they relate to the study of stars? Additionally, I would like to know which of the two temperature measures is considered more precise in the field of astronomy.
Answer: Color temperature refers to the temperature of the star if we fitted a blackbody curve to only measurements of its visible light spectrum (i.e. the $400 - 700$ nm range).
However, if we gathered data about much shorter wavelengths of EM radiation (like UV) from that same star, we could in theory find that it deviates from our already fitted blackbody curve for visible light. For example, this challenges our assumptions of the photosphere's physics - there could be some degree of absorption in the photosphere that we didn't anticipate.
If we then try a better blackbody fit against both the UV and the visible wavelength measurements, we can estimate what the "effective" temperature of the star actually is (which provides a better estimate of the "actual" temperature of the star)


Is it possible to install from a mounted ubuntu-11.10-desktop-i386.iso already downloaded to the desktop?

Question: I have a machine that seems to have some issues, and I would like to install directly from the iso image already on the HDD. I cannot for some reason boot from a LiveCD nor from a USB stick. I attached the HDD to another machine and dumped the iso to the desktop and reinstalled to the machine with issues.
Answer: As no one else has answered you, I will say in my ignorance that it will not be possible but I think that you can come at it from another direction. Imagine an empty but formatted hard disk as another kind of removable media. How would you use such a hard disk to install Ubuntu. Let us examine the ways we install Ubuntu.
1) From a Live CD. We take a blank CD disk and burn the iso image to the CD. This unpacks the iso image and we then boot from the CD and we get working Linux that lets us install Ubuntu.
2) USB stick. We take an empty but formatted USB memory stick and we use Startup Disk Creator to unpack the iso image to give us the same kind of working Linux that we get on a Live CD.
You cannot use either of those methods. So, perhaps you can try this. It may work. It may not.
a) Hard disk. Take an empty but formatted hard disk and connect it to a machine that has a working operating system preferably Ubuntu.
b) Use Archive Manager to uncompress the iso image on to the empty hard disk. The iso image would be on the working machine not the problem machine. Startup Disk Creator may also do the job but as I have only ever used Startup Disk Creator once and that was with a USB stick I cannot say for sure.
c) Connect the hard disk with the uncompressed/unpacked Ubuntu iso image on it to the problem machine and boot the machine from this hard disk.
With a bit of luck you might get a working Linux of the type that runs from CD and USB stick which you can use to install Ubuntu onto the hard disk that will be the main drive of the problem computer. And as it is connected to the machine it is going work in Ubuntu will be set up for that machine.
Good luck. This may be a first.
If you cannot do because you do not have a spare hard disk, try attaching the disk from the problem machine to the working machine and using a Live CD or USB stick to install Ubuntu on to the second hard disk. Then put this disk back into the problem machine and hope you get a working Linux from which you can update more appropriate drivers.
Comment: I appreciate your response grahammechanical, however I may have been chasing what I assumed was a hardware failure issue rather than what now seems to be a distro version/hardware compatibility bug. I have asked another question in place of this one at 'What difference could there be between the 10.10 iso and that of 11.04 plus 11.10 that will not allow a Pentium 4HT to upgrade.' I have marked you up for the reason I want to still try your suggestions. Thank you for responding.
Comment: question extended to http://askubuntu.com/questions/77009


Should I put a moisture barrier between a single ply of pressure treated (PT) plywood and a second non-PT ply when constructing a shed?

Question: I am building a shed.  The floor consists of 4x4 PT runners, 2x8 PT girders, and 3/4" PT Plywood flooring.
Anytime in the past, when I have laid PT lumber next to non-PT lumber, there is mold/mildew on the non-PT lumber after a very short time.  Also, anything metal seems to rust quicker when on or next to PT lumber. I wanted a heavier duty shed, so I was thinking of adding a second, non-pressure treated layer of plywood on the first. This would strengthen the floor and also separate the PT wood from the contents in my shed.  Is this plan acceptable?  Should I put a moisture barrier between a single ply of pressure treated plywood and a second non-PT ply?
Comment: Hello, and welcome to Home Improvement. If an answer is helpful, please click the large check mark next to it to accept. And, please [take our tour](//diy.stackexchange.com/tour) so you'll know the details of contributing here.
Answer: Dont put moisture barrier between, it will just trap moisture and rot quicker. Moisture for shed should be under structure. But if it collects rain water on top you are just making humidity worse. Pt plywood is generally dried out when you buy it so there shouldn't be an issue.
Answer: put the moisture barrier between the runners and the girders.
PT wood doesn't cause mold, moisture does.


How to disable requiring a password for mount USB - Flash drive

Question: I cant find the answer, How can I disable requiring password to mount Flash drive, Just plug USB and open folder without password.
Comment: Have you tired to plug this drive in another computer? It require the password?
Comment: raspberry (raspbian)  require password NOT flash drive. I tried several pendrives and SD - card and the same thing every time.
Comment: you change something in user settings?you are logged with `pi` user or not?
Comment: i'm logged with pi user via HDMI to TV and via VNC-server. in both cases the same problem

Only from the root level  does not ask for a password.

I'v tried  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ByTx6U-HcbE
Answer: Sounds like pmount could be your new buddy.

pmount is a wrapper around the standard mount program which permits normal users to mount removable devices without a matching /etc/fstab entry.

Debian -- Details of package pmount in stretch
to install: sudo apt-get update; sudo apt-get install pmount
Answer: I have updated RPI to a newest version and now this error is no longer occurs with the connected device via HDMI (PI user does not require password authorization). But still requires password authorization when connecting via the VNC-server


7 speed rear derailleurs for road bike?

Question: I recently broke my Derallieur in my Road bike and I am planning to get a new one online but I dont know exactly which one to get is for the rear Derailleurs of 7 speeds.
thanks
Comment: Can you read the model and/or brand of the current one? Barring that, model/brand of bike and some pictures of the current derailleur?
Comment: The age of the bike would also be of use.  And is this an indexed shift or an old friction shift setup?
Answer: Pretty much it doesn't matter - as long as the derailleur is comparable in brand and general "shape".  The derailleur doesn't really care how many gears you have!  The two things that have to be the same as (or compatible with) your old one:

Cable pull ratio - each "click" of your shifter pulls the cable a certain amount, and the derailleur has to move by the correct amount per click.  So - if it's a shimano, get a shimano, and you'll probably be OK.
Capacity - if your largest tooth cog in back is a 32-tooth, no way is a "short cage" derailleur going to handle it.  On the other hand if your largest in back is 23 tooth, a "long cage" would work but would look VERY SILLY

So, with several caveats to boot - as long as it's the same brand (or compatible), and approximately the same physical dimensions, it should be fine; 7, 8, 9 speed really doesn't matter.  Post a close-up photo of the broken derailleur where we can read the model numbers/etc. and see the thing, and we'll give you a link where you can buy a replacement from :)
Comment: Depending on the age of the bike there can be major differences in derailers for a 7-speed.  Used to be that 7-speed was the max, and indexed at the same rate as 5/6 only with a wider axle.  Then the pitch of sprockets changed -- several times.

7 speed rear derailleurs for road bike?


Emacs matlab mode key binding for running tests

Question: I am using Emacs + matlab-mode as my Matlab development environment. I also have MTEST installed together with Matlab to run my unit tests - what I want to do now is to have a key binding that runs the tests from the current file in the matlab-shell I constantly have opened around (M-x matlab-shell).
What I have until now is:
; Runs the unit tests available in the current buffer
(defun run-matlab-test ()
(interactive)
(matlab-shell-run-command (concat "runtests "
                (car (split-string (buffer-name) "\\.")))))

; Bind "C-c l" to running unit tests in matlab-mode
(defun map-run-matlab-test-keys ()
  (local-set-key (kbd "C-c l") 'run-matlab-test))

(add-hook 'matlab-mode-hook 'map-run-matlab-test-keys)

What I need to do is in the run-matlab-test function to have a way of calling the runtests command with the parameter provided by the (buffer-name) command and all this should happen in the matlab shell I mentioned above. Any hints ?
Edit: I managed to get it working by calling matlab-shell-run-command. The caveat here is that it only works if the starting sequence is: open your unit-test.m file, from that file run M-x matlab-shell (this way matlab starts with the current working directory in the tests directory) and then you can use the above binding.
Answer: To avoid your caveat above, you could probably issue a cd to matlab, before calling runtest, by doing something like the following (untested):
(defun run-matlab-test ()
  (interactive)
  (matlab-shell-run-command (concat "cd " (file-name-directory (buffer-file-name))))
  (matlab-shell-run-command (concat "runtests "
                            (car (split-string (buffer-name) "\\.")))))


Missing android.net.sip

Question: I have the following versions of Andorid and Java SDKs in the following environment.
I am trying to develop a SIP application but while Android.net.http and Android.net.wifi are both present, the needed Android.net.sip doesn't appear.
I'm assuming that this has something to do with the android SDK (version or perhaps mismatch to Java SDK version) but I haven't been able to find any information on this type of issue or much in general on SIP application support in Mono.
I'd appreciate if it someone can steer me in a direction in terms of finding the problem of the missing .sip assembly.
MonoDevelop 22.214.171.124
Installation UUID: 6e3978d7-9762-4c5a-80ee-c19e6a271794
Runtime:
Microsoft .NET 4.0.30319.269

GTK 2.16.6

GTK# (22.214.171.124)

Mono for Android: 184.108.40.206199851
Android SDK: C:\Android\android_sdk\android-sdk
Supported Android versions:
Version: 1.6    ApiLevel: 4

Version: 2.1    ApiLevel: 7

Version: 2.2    ApiLevel: 8

Version: 2.3    ApiLevel: 10

Version: 3.1    ApiLevel: 12

Version: 4.0    ApiLevel: 14

Version: 4.0.3  ApiLevel: 15

Java SDK: C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jdk1.6.0_27\bin
No build info
Operating System:
Windows 6.1.7601.65536 (64-bit)

Comment: Updated with Android SDK Manager from version 4.0.3 API Level 15 to version 4.1 API Level 16 with no effect: Android.net.sip is still not found. Android documentation shows that android.net.sip has been in the API since Level 9.
Answer: Answered my question by looking at my comment. I had the compatibility level set to 2.2 which was obviously before API level 9. Set the compatibility level up to 2.2.5 (API Level 9) and everything showed up.

Missing android.net.sip


Exist algorithms without input data?

Question: I would like to know cases that an algorithm runs without any data entry.
Comment: A cake recipe seems to be a good algorithm without any data entry.
Comment: prime numbers generation.
Comment: @styrofoamfly Cake recipe is not an algorithm.
Answer: Yes, of course they exist, and they're useful both practically and theoretically.
Any time you write a computer program to solve some specific task that's hard-coded into the program (for example, to compute some value or find solutions to a specific set of equations you're interested in), that's an algorithm with no input.
If you want to prove undecidability of, e.g., the problem of determining whether a Turing machine halts for every input, the first step is to translate a program that uses its input to a program that doesn't use its input and always computes as if it received some specific input. That's another example of an algorithm without an input.
Answer: In addition to David Richerby's answer which I find very complete I wanted to add a few specific cases (which actually follow his explanations):

The computation of some irrationals such as $\pi$ or $e$.
The list of prime numbers and other lists (i.e., lists of logarithms and such) which do not require a seed.
Equations in general (but clearly not all as many might require boundary conditions), either algebraic or non-linear. This would also include solving some set of mathematical expressions such as differential equations or integrals.

Hope this helps,

Exist algorithms without input data?


How is partial elasticity calculated?

Question: https://ophysics.com/e2.html
The link above is a collision simulation and I can control the elasticity. I tried to make an equation to solve collisions given % of energy loss using the kinetic and momentum equations thinking that % energy loss is the same as elasticity %, however my numbers to match up. How is % energy loss related to % elasticity?
Answer: The energy prior to and after collision is entirely kinetic energy of the system. If $T'$ is the kinetic energy after collision, and $T$ is the kinetic energy before, then the percent energy loss is just given by
$\frac{T-T'}{T} \times 100 \% $,
where $T'$ will be less than $T$.
If you have blocks $A$ and $B$, then the system kinetic energy prior to collision is given by
$T = \frac{1}{2}m_A {\bf v}_A \cdot {\bf v}_A + \frac{1}{2}m_B {\bf v}_B \cdot {\bf v}_B$,
and after collision as
$T' = \frac{1}{2}m_A {\bf v}'_A \cdot {\bf v}'_A + \frac{1}{2}m_B {\bf v}'_B \cdot {\bf v}'_B$.
The coefficient of restitution $e \in [0,1]$ represents the amount of elasticity in the collision. If $e = 1$, then the collision is elastic. If $e = 0$, the collision is plastic.
For these 1D motions, the coefficient of restitution is
$e = \frac{\text{separation speed}}{\text{approach speed}}$,
where the separation speed is the relative speed between the two particles post-collision and the approach speed is the relative speed between the two particles pre-collision. See how for a plastic collision $e=0$, the separation speed is zero? This means that the particles stick together.
You should be able to combine these equations and perhaps conservation of system linear momentum to relate the percent energy lost to $e$, your measure of the elasticity of the collision.

How is partial elasticity calculated?


Macros and calories for a cut

Question: I've been on an extended bulk for almost 2 years now. I used to be very skinny, just over 70kg at a height of 6'2, I'm now about 88kg. My body fat percentage isn't massive, about 12-13% but after my cut I want to be in the 8-10% range. My maintenance calories is 3500 and at least 3800 when bulking with a macro split of 500-180-120. I'm looking for advice on an ideal calorie deficit and macro split for a mild cut.
Comment: Unfortunately, you are most likely **grossly** underestimating your body fat percentage. 12% is already extremely lean, and getting below 10% is neither sustainable, nor healthy. Dropping 5kg to 83kg@8% would have you ready to walk on stage and compete for a pro card in body building. Are you *sure* you're actually that lean?
Comment: Yes I've used bf% testers at a few different gyms and they have consistently told me I'm between 12&13 percent. What would you say is the lowest sustainable bf%?
Comment: have you checked this Q&A? https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/40168/how-to-calculate-how-much-macros-fibre-and-calories-i-need-per-day?rq=1
Answer: First off, 12-13% body fat percentage is extremely lean... unless you're prepping for a competition you shouldn't want to stay under 10% body fat percentage.
That being said, if you still want to attain this, you have to first decide how long you want your cut to be. For a longer, less aggressive cut try being 100-200 cals below maintenance. For a short and aggressive cut try being around 400 cals below maintenance.
If you are sure your maintenance is 3500 cals, you would want to aim at around 3200-3300 for an average cut. Of course, maintenance calories differ with how much cardio/steps you do per day, so try to take those into consideration.
Hope this helped.

Macros and calories for a cut


Is there a canonical piano grading system?

Question: The Thompson's books are divided by grade (first grade, second grade, etc.). Aside from that, I have encountered a pianist who says that he is considered to be an X grade pianist. What is this grading system exactly?
Comment: Are you asking for a list of grading systems or are you asking what system grade X is a part of?  Your title and body ask different questions.
Comment: I've seen trinity grades brochures rank their grades against some "levels". Unsure of if those "levels" are what you're asking for.
Answer: There are various grading systems used throughout the world.  Grades are set by various music organizations and are designed to reflect the difficulty of playing a song, or the skill depth and breadth of a musician.
In Canada, I took lessons from teachers certified by the Royal Conservatory of Music and followed the RCM's grading system, complete with songbooks of graded songs and examinations.  (I got my grade 8 piano before stopping lessons).
Comment: This sounds vaguely similar to the British system (no surprise) which is dictated by several bodies. The larger of which I believe is the Associated Board of The Royal Schools of Music followed by Guildhall/Trinity (which have merged) which offer board set exams in theory and musicianship (performance) from level 1-8. 1-3 is beginner, 4-6 is intermediate and 7-8 is advanced (iirc there is nothing beyond 8).
Comment: @andy the diplomas are above grade 8
Answer: A frequently referenced grading resource is
McGrath, Jane. Pianist's Guide to Standard Teaching and Performance Literature. Alfred Music, 1995.
It is a fairly comprehensive list of piano (student) repertoire with each piece given a grade from 1 to 10, with 1 being the easiest and 10 being the entry point to concert literature.
Answer: The music foundations in various countries where developed to standarise music education. There are in most countries a couple of competing foundations. None you could consider canon.
In the US there has been a great reluctance to standarise education at a national level. If it is not expressily mentioned in the US constitution that an industry should be managed on a federal level then it is pretty assured it will not happen.
The idea of these foundations is not completely absent in the US. The AP music theory program exists to prepare candidates for college music. The later theory grades in other foundations form a similar role.


I am looking for a vegan substitute for cream cheese for use in a white chocolate/cream cheese icing

Question: I tried one recipe with silken tofu, but it didn't set enough and just ran off the carrot cake.
Comment: Perhaps rather than substituting for the cream cheese specifically, you might try producing a recipe with the same rich creaminess and a touch of tang.  I would suggest a white chocolate ganache, using almond milk instead of cream, and a touch of lemon juice for the tang.  It would be completely vegan assuming you obtain vegan white chocolate.  Not putting this as an answer because I have never tried this--its just what my twisted brain came up with.
Answer: I would suggest tofutti or follow your heart vegan cream cheeses which are excellent substitutes in terms of taste and texture. They work great in baked goods.
Answer: I do like lemontwist's answer for store bought options but would also suggest this recipe as an at-home alternative. I have made it several times and find the consistency to be closer to the original cream cheese (as I remember it). Additionally I have used this vegan cream cheese recipe with the at-home cream cheese and it turned out amazing. Most of my friends could not tell the difference.
Good luck!
Answer: For ease, I agree with lemontwist: tofutti
For best all natural, nicoleeats as above.
Just to throw in a couple more...
yogurt cheese from favorite soy or coconuut yogurt: Stir in a bit of salt (sugar can also work but cheese is high in yummy sodium) and drain by cheese cloth or fine sieve a good long while.
Cheat: white frosting in a can (many are vegan) with a cube of fermented tofu (stinky but strong umami) from asian market. no one has ever found the resulting mix stinky at all -just the cheesiness comes through all the sugar.
Comment: I frequently use a bit of vegan yogurt stirred into a thick cashew cream to replace cream cheese. You get both the richness and the tang.


Traditional Light Switch Triggered by RPi?

Question: Does anyone know of a light switch which can be controlled using the RPi and also manually. Assuming that the RPi sends a signal thru a relay which connects to the light switch. The switch will turn on the light. The switch should be similar to the traditional light swiches the only difference must be that it could be triggered using the RPi relay signal as well. Does a switch like this exist in the market or will I have to make one myself?
Answer: You're not real clear on how much you want to put into this. i.e. Do you want something just to play around with or a real "up to code" switch installed in your house? The way you describe using the relay, it sounds to me like you want the Pi to behave like a three-way switch where either the flip-switch on the wall or the RPi can turn the light on or off at any time. It sounds like you want more than just our little RPi relay hooked up in parallel to a regular switch.
I may have to try to make one of these, too, you've got me intrigued. I think my approach would be this z-wave interface also available on Amazon. They seem to have lots of modules available at [not the highest] prices, including 3-way wall switch. I also like that they specifically mention Linux and RPi in their interface description.
Good luck & have fun!
Comment: Yeah. U've got the right idea. Without using the RPi connected to the relay which connects to the light. I want to use the existing traditional light switch connected to the light. Which could also be operated using the RPi. Meaning the switch can be human hand triggered and also RPi triggerd.The only thing RPi would have to do is to send a small signal to the Switch.  I am asking whether a swich like this exists in the market. The 'Z wave' seems to be a bit out of my budget tho. Thanks
Answer: If you don't mind that flipping the switch or relay—regardless of direction—changes the current state (off→on or on→off) of the light, you can wire the switch and the relay together in the traditional two-switch arrangement used, e.g., at the top and bottom of a flight of stairs.
You'll need a double-throw switch and a double-throw relay, wired like this:

simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab
If you need to know the selected state of the light from the position of the switch or relay, this won't work. In that case the easiest solution is probably to have only the relay control the light and to use the switch as a sense input to the Pi. (A existing standard household switch can be wired up to ground or raise to VCC a digital input pin, though of course you'll want to disconnect it from all the AC power circuits first!)
Comment: This seems like a good idea. I'll do it and let you know how it goes :) Thanks.


Lucifer (TV series) devilface in Season 3 Episode 7

Question: In the TV series Lucifer, Season 3's big drama is that Lucifer looses his devil face, but his angel wings grow back even if he cuts them off. In Episode 7 the turning point of the plot comes when he actually shows his devil face to the man being interrogated, and he himself also clearly sees it in the mirror. Since then I've watched the later episodes up to 10 and the only mentions about his devil face are comments about him not having it, with no mention of it appearing on him. Does anybody know what the explanation for this is? It really bugs me.
Answer: In the Episode A Good day to Die, we get our first true glimpse of what Hell is like for the dammed. They relive the sin(s) that put them there for all eternity.
In the episode you're talking about, Off the Record, we learn that

Lucifer is not responsible for sending humans to Hell, they do it to themselves out of guilt

Major Spoiler Ahead. I will tag it appropriately, but if you have not seen the episode and don't want it ruined, don't look!

 Reese Getty became aware of the relationship between Lucifer and Dr. Linda sometime during the first season. He became obsessed and started following/stalking Lucifer. Ultimately this resulted in Reese being killed and sending himself to Hell.

Therefore

 The entire episode is from the point of view of Reese, in Hell, reliving what he did to get there and covers events from the first season onward. He saw the devil face BEFORE Lucifer lost it.
Comment: Ok, I'm planning to watch the remaining episodes today or tomorrow, I'll read it when I catch up :D
Comment: The spoilers are limited to Episodes you've already seen. Rewatch the one in particular you are asking about and the answer should be clear
Comment: Hmm, it is really hard to make a follow up comment without ruining your spoiler tags :) But basically you are saying that the first part of the Episode happens sometime in timeline Season 1 and the second half happens at its place in Season 3? Yes, that makes sense :)


Does every Pokemon have the same highest CP?

Question: Does every Pokemon have the same highest CP that it can achieve? Do they have eventually the same highest CP at the maximum level?
Answer: Each species has its own maximum CP, which is the maximum CP of an individual Pokemon of that species that has 100% perfect IVs. Thus, there is a maximum CP for each Pokemon that is the same for all Pokemon of that species, but not all Pokemon in a species will be able to reach that maximum. The maximum is only attainable with 100% perfect IVs. For a Dragonite, the highest possible maximum CP would be 3525. However, based on your Dragonite's IVs, its maximum CP could be as low as 3088.
An individual Pokemon's maximum CP is limited by its IVs. Thus, no, not all Pokemon of a species will end up with the same CP if they are fully powered up.
You are able to get a rough estimate of your Pokemon's IVs in-game by having your team leader appraise them. For a more precise reading, use tools like the Pokemon Go IV Calculator.
Answer: Yes. And it's based on your level. Up to level 40 (curently) the max CP is multiplied by a number (Check it out here under CP Multiplayer). You can check the MAX cps here.
Answer: Nope, I have two Arcanines both maxed out for my trainer level. and one is 2512 the other is 2464. The one with a higher CP is much smaller in weight, so idk if that has something to do with it. Most of my strongest pokemon are Extra Small in the weight catagory.
Comment: Height and weight are totally arbitrary and do not have bearing on a Pokemon's stats. Stats are totally dependent on its IVs.


Is there any map between Phenomenological Noise Model and Circuit Based Noise Model?

Question: In the phenomenological noise model, we have an approximately 2% error threshold in surface codes. In the circuit-based noise model, the threshold ranges from 0.5% to 0.7%. I'm curious if there's a mapping between these two models. Is it possible to calculate, or more accurately predict, the phenomenological noise model threshold from the circuit-based noise model threshold for a given p error rate? I'm trying to understand the mapping between these two error models. To the best of my knowledge, we can calculate these threshold values numerically, but I am sure there is a mapping between them, and I do not know what it is.
Answer: A back-of-the-envelope calculation can give some intuition: The syndrome extraction circuit of the surface code takes 5 timesteps (or more, depending on which gates are used), so there are 5 times as many error locations. If we simply divide the phenomenological threshold by 5, this would give a threshold of 2/5 = 0.4% for the surface code, which is reasonably close. Codes with high-weight stabilizers can perform very well under phenomenological noise, but will generally perform badly with circuit-level noise due to the many error locations.
As far as I'm aware there is not an exact mapping. A good approach to doing this would be to map the syndrome graph of the circuit level noise model to the syndrome graph of the phenomenological noise model. But this would be tricky to do as there are errors in the circuit level noise model that don't have the same syndrome as any error in the phenomenological noise model.


Why does the recitation of Tehillim 145 three times a day secure one a place in Olam Haba?

Question: It is stated in the Talmud (Brachos 4b) that one who recites "T'hila L'David" three times a day secures their place in Olam Haba. Why is this? What is so special about this psalm that it would guarantee such a reward? Furthermore, why specifically three times?
Comment: Once heard an answer from a Magid as follows. Often people come late to Shacharis or leave early. Then people come late for Mincha. If one says Tehila LDavid three times a day, that means he arrived to Shacharis on time, didn't leave early and then arrived on time for Mincha. Therefore he's a Ben Olam Habba.
Comment: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/20376/759
Answer: The Talmud says:

Rabbi Elazar said that Rabbi Avina said: Anyone who recites: "A Psalm of David" (Psalms 145) three times every day is assured of a place in the World-to-Come.  What is the reason?  Because it is arranged alphabetically [and] because it contains praise for God giving sustenance to all living creatures: "You open Your hand and satisfy every living thing with favor" (Psalms 145:16).
[Berakhot 4b]
Answer: Concerning that prayer, the Mishnah Berurah (1:13) writes:

It's not enough to just read them, but one should contemplate what he's saying and recognize the wonders of Hashem.

Why this MA? Machatzis ha'Shekel is brought down by Rabbi Mordecai Kornfeld from Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim in saying:

Through saying Tehilah l'David with intent, he will recognize some of Hash-m's Chesed and greatness. This will make him zealous to fulfill Hash-m's word and guard himself from sin. If he sinned, he will repent fully. Through this, he merits the world to come.

The ArtScroll gemara Brachos cites the MB and brings the Rabbeinu Bahya on Vayikra 7:37:

What the sages mean is that once one has familiarized himself with the deeper meaning of each type of offering, it enables the student of these laws to gain new insights which in turn will strengthen his resolve to meticulously observe all the precepts of the Torah. Seeing that offering the sacrifices is also meant to bring us closer to G'd, it is no more than reasonable that studying these laws will have a similar effect. Such study and new resolve to observe the Torah will result in the sins of such people being forgiven, similar to their having performed the actual procedure of offering the relevant sacrifices.

Bonus: See the Meshech Chochmah, beginning of parashas Bechukosai.
In a footnote, ArtScroll explains:

The Gemara does not mean that one merits a place in the World to Come merely due to the recital of this psalm. Rather, it means that it could be a decisive factor (Ohel Moed, cited by Beis Yosef to OC 51). In other words, the recital of this psalm is not a matter of minor importance. It ranks in importance among all other mitzvos, and is thus weighty enough to tip the scale in someone's favor and merit him with his place in the World to Come (Avudraham, in his discussion of the Ashrei recited after the Shemoneh Esrei)

According to all of the above, it has to do with the fact that due to this prayer(s), we can see how we are meant to behave ourselves during the day, following the morning-prayers. The Kollel Iyun Hadaf article explains, in the name of the Rabbeinu Yonah:

Two explanations are given by TALMIDEI RABEINU YONAH. Both explanations assume that it is not simply following the order of the prayers that earns one a share in Olam ha'Ba. One will achieve this lofty level only if he follows the mention of the redemption with the Shemoneh Esreh prayer for the proper reasons. If one continues and conducts himself throughout the day in accordance with the principles inherent in the reasons for the connection between the account of the Exodus and the Shemoneh Esreh, he will be worthy of the World to Come.


What is the difference in using terms like a model, a framework, an approach, a method, a scheme in scientific research?

Question: in scientific research, I get confused in using terms
like a model, a framework, an approach, a Method and a scheme so what is the difference between them?
when I should use each of them to express my work?
Comment: What area of science are you talking about? Physics, chemistry, computer science, mathematics, social science, etc.
Comment: computer science and networking
Answer: I can only answer this in the context of psychology, and within the context of my own understanding. A model and a framework I would interpret as more a system of how concepts are understood and explained; of the two, a framework is broader and more general, and a model usually refers to specific variables relating in a particular way to each other.
Approach and method I would use when describing a specific study or endeavour, which might be conducted within a particular framework, again going from the more general to the more specific.
For example, I might look at persuasion in the framwork of the Elaboration Likelihood Model; which although is called a model I would still consider a framework. In my study I would be interested specifically at the model of how credibility of the sender and the persuasiveness of the message are related to each other.
My approach would likely be a quantitative one (rather than a qualitative), and my particular method could describe what I am actually doing in the study - perhaps a 2x2 experiment which varies two variables (sender credibility, difficulty of message).
Answer: In electrical engineering, a model is a (usually simplified) mathematical description of a real phenomenon. Models are developed to be able to apply mathematical tools/algorithms to real-life problems.
The term framework usually refers to a software framework (this probably applies in your case if you are in computer science). That is, a set of software tools that provide some functionality and can be extended by other programmers.
An approach is a way to tackle a problem. Once you have a mathematical model, you decide on a way to solve the model equations: this is your approach.
The term method is usually used as a synonym for algorithm. Applying your approach to your model, you design an algorithm that solves your problem, and this is your method.
The term scheme refers to a strategy, and is somewhat broader than method. For example, "quicksort" is a method that solves the specific problem of sorting a vector, but the way Stack Exchange stores the information about its users and serves it efficiently when it is needed, using (probably) a minimal amount of sorting operations might be called a scheme.
However, some of these terms are sometimes used as synonyms, in order to avoid repetition of words in articles. The same method might be alternatingly called "method", "algorithm" and "approach" in a paper, and "framework" and "scheme" might also be used interchangeably.


Calibre is not using GTK+ theme

Question: I installed calibre from their site, not the packaged version, because it lags behind. It's working fine, but is using a different theme (plastic I guess) instead of my current theme (numix). Is there a way to fix that?
Comment: did you try to switch the themes to see if it take affect on the app? it might be that random themes cannot cover everything. For example as I recall I've never had issues with Mediterranean-theme, if it were qt or gtk etc.
Comment: I tried, but it wasn't working. I meanwhile switched back to the bundled version. It isn't as old as the one bundled in 14.04 and is working fine for now, including the theme. I think the calibre installer deploys it's dependencies in /opt/calibre/lib and that Qt library fails to find the theme settings.
Answer: I would like to write more, but it's already explained here:
How can I theme my Qt app to resemble one written in Gtk?
This little tool will allow you to switch to your selected gtk+ theme.
Comment: My guess is, that the "manual" install of calibre is either statically linked with Qt5 or looks for the theme in some other place, because this tool had no effect on it.

Calibre is not using GTK+ theme