Is it plagiarism if my PhD Supervisor uses my graphs and animations (without asking me) in funding proposals and presentations to companies?

Question: I keep seeing my graphs all over presentations and proposals that is presented to companies for funding. There is no part that cites my name, and it looks like it is my professor who is doing this work. They will also send my ideas and work progress to another student in the group who will then make the idea their own and then get credit for it. I feel completely used and I've gotten to a point where I'm not going to share any of my progress to my supervisor and if I do (from necessity) then I'm going to put watermarks on it.
Comment: Are these graphs part of joint publications? If they are, then I think it is legitimate for all authors to use them.
Comment: Who got the funding for your projects and stipend? Based on what?
Comment: If the figures and graphs are presented in the published manuscripts coauthored by you and your advisor, then your advisor can use them for seeking funding.
Comment: It's not an answer to your question, so I make it a comment instead. The relationship between you and your prof is clearly suffering quite a lot. It should be based on mutual trust and respect, which is manifestly less than it could be. You should be thinking carefully about your next actions, hopefully to find a path to a happier situation.
Comment: This is not plagiarism, but i wouldn't want to work with that person. What you do next is up to your consideration.
Answer:
Is it plagiarism if my PhD Supervisor uses my graphs and animations (without asking me) in funding proposals and presentations to companies?

Probably not. It sounds like this was joint work. Even if you feel that you did all the work and your advisor contributed nothing, it is still probably joint work if you did the work while (formally) under your advisor's supervision.
Moreover, it doesn't sound like these are super-formal documents like peer-reviewed publications or important conference talks where you need to be careful about listing all authors and citing all prior work, including your own. Rather, these are designed to showcase the lab's expertise and capabilities. It may "go without saying" that the lab has other staff and collaborators and some of the results were produced by others. Perhaps it would be nice if the professor used your name, but this is a judgment call, and I think it's unlikely you could call this plagiarism.

They will also send my ideas and work progress to another student in the group who will then make the idea their own and then get credit for it.

It's hard to judge this case just from a sentence, but I find this to be much more worrying than the above. But we should be clear on what we mean by "make the idea their own." If they are building on your results and going in a different direction, then that sounds fine; different members of the group working together on a common area seems very appropriate. Maybe you'd prefer to work alone and not involve this other student, but this may be your advisor's call. On the other hand, if they are publishing your work as their own, then that is clearly plagiarism. But this case is all about the details.

I've gotten to a point where I'm not going to share any of my progress to my supervisor

This is likely not an option; you cannot unilaterally rewrite the terms of your collaboration. I would recommend humility: ask your advisor for a sit-down meeting, cordially raise your concerns, and let them explain their reasoning. Be open to the possibility that they acted within their rights (e.g., in showing your work to sponsors), and/or they made some small mistakes that can be corrected (e.g., passing your work to other students). If you cannot agree, you might reach out to another trusted professor, or to the ombudsman -- but this is a semi-nuclear option that may result in you having to find a new advisor. If you really trust your advisor so little, then finding a new advisor may be for the best, but unfortunately, this is likely to disrupt your life much more than your advisor's.
Comment: The student cannot unilaterally rewrite the terms of the collaboration. Important addition: neither can the supervisor.
Answer: There is something totally wrong in the communication between your professor and you. Normally this should go like:

Professor: Hey, you did some interesting work on XYZ. Next week I will
give a presentation / sent a proposal / etc where your work would be a
good fit. Is it okay if I put it in?
Student: Yes, sure! (super happy that the work gets used)
Professor: Great, thanks! I will make sure that you also get the credit that you deserve for it!

I would assume that the professor anyway has at least some right to use your results as he has most likely had the original idea and got the funding but he should have definitely asked your permission!
Comment: I realise that the answer by @cag51 *directly* answers the OP's question, but ***this*** answer seems to really cut to the heart of the matter. I can't imagine it really making any difference to the OP's life whether they know that their supervisor's behavior is, or isn't plagiarism, or is, or isn't a breach of copyright. If things are so bad between a student and supervisor that the student has ideas about watermarking their work (!) then *actually* watermarking the graphs isn't going to solve a d*** thing!  ... Student should line-up a serious (and I don't mean blaming) conversation
Answer: There are probably two different aspects to the misconduct here. One is not asking you for permission to use your creative work as you have copyright to it unless you have already given it up.
But the second aspect is certainly plagiarism if there are any "ideas" and creativity in the work. If the graphics and such are standard things like plots and such. But animations probably have creative elements - ideas.
Note that plagiarism covers ideas and their misappropriation. Copyright covers expression. Both seem to have been violated, given your description.
The professor may also be leading other students into a plagiarism trap if they appropriate your ideas.
If you have an escape available, I suggest you consider it. You at least need an explanation of why the supervisor thinks any of what you describe is appropriate in any way.
Answer: I disagree with some of the advice given here. I like to use Teddi Fishman's definition of plagiarism :

"Plagiarism occurs when someone

uses words, ideas, or work products
attributable to another identifiable person or source
without attributing the work to the source from which it was obtained
in a situation in which there is a legitimate expectation of original authorship
in order to obtain some benefit, credit, or gain which need not be
monetary"

It is obvious from the description given that the professor is mis-using his or her position of power over the PhD student. I find it entirely irrelevant that the professor obtained funding or had the idea. Indeed, the ICMJE  makes it clear what is considered authorship. Professors should not assume that they have the rights to everything produced in their labs without having to ask for permission and acknowledge the source. We are no longer in the Middle Ages where everything the serf does is considered to belong to the master.
The problem is: what to do. I agree that contacting the RIO (Research Integrity Officer) of the school is a good step to take. Just watermarking the images does not help much, but as others have said: there is a communication breakdown here that must be addressed. It needs to be addressed professionally (i.e. without drama), sort of like the lines of "I've noticed that you are using my #whatevers# in your presentations. Is there any particular reason why you are not mentioning my name?"
As for giving the material to others for them to build on: This is another problem that is unfortunately far too common. There needs to be a culture of communicating, of group meetings where the professor says: "I've seen the work of A on X, it looks so promising. Maybe A and B can get together and talk about it?" And if the professor sees B using the material without attribution, B gets pulled aside and told why we give credit to others.
These are slippery slopes to serious misconduct, and it the responsibility of the professor to get things in order. That's why a RIO may be able to help.
Good luck!


High-level Architecture (HLA) versus Distributed Interactive Simulation (DIS)

Question: Is there a high-level overview of HLA versus DIS simulation frameworks?  Can one host the other and vice-versa?
Comment: Context: [Distributed Interactive Simulation](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Distributed_Interactive_Simulation), [High level architecture (simulation)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High_Level_Architecture)
Answer: I currently (though only for another week or so) work in the simulation industry - I apologize in advance for any errors, I will correct them if I am remembering incorrect information.
DIS

The standard specifies the layout of data on the wire, i.e. your packets/data PDUs are laid out exactly as defined in the DIS specifications
Relies on best-effort networking (i.e. UDP protocol, broadcasting)
Entities have to heartbeat at certain intervals (default: 5 seconds) to notify everyone else that it is still part of the exercise
No central server managing the various applications joined to the exercise
Simulation applications can join the simulation at any time, leave at any time

HLA

Uses a central manager, called the RTI (Run Time Infrastructure), that receives data from various applications and sends them to other applications in the simulation (in the context of HLA, these are called Federates and a set of Federates is a Federation)
All federates must join and leave the simulation by going through the RTI
Unlike DIS, HLA specification does not specify the layout of data packets, but instead defines a set of API functionality that applications use. The RTI is what implements the API.
HLA federates publish data according to a FOM (Federation Object Model) which defines what the data in a simulation represents. This allows people to create new FOMs that define new object and interaction types, unlike in DIS, where adding new types of data PDUs goes through a committee (SISO). For example, most simulations running under HLA utilize the RPR FOM, which pretty much mirrors the DIS standard entities and interactions.
HLA adds additional features DIS does not support, such as Data Distribution Management (DDM), wherein federates notify the RTI that they are only interested in certain types of data.
Supports subscription services, wherein federates notify the RTI that they are only interested in receiving certain object or interaction data (i.e. an application only wants data about ships)
Supports the feature of ownership transfer, where objects under the control of one federate are given to another federate to manage.

Can DIS host HLA and Vice Versa?
Due to these fundamental differences, it should be clear that DIS and HLA can not host each other.
However, what this really means is that for simulations in DIS to interact with simulations in HLA is that you need some type of network broker that acts as an adapter between the two protocols. Examples of such brokers are MAK VR-Exchange or GMU Gateway.
For even further reading:

http://www.mak.com/products/standards.php
http://www.siaa.asn.au/get/2395379411.pdf
http://dss.ll.mit.edu/dss.web/96.14.103.RTI.Introduction.html
Answer: Here is some lessor-known history regarding HLA.
The design of HLA is actually based on something called the Aggregate Level Simulation Protocol (ALSP) which was led in the early 90's by the same Mitre folks that developed HLA. ALSP was designed to link together large-scale constructive simulations used for Corps/Division Command Post Training. The requirements for ALSP interoperability involved larger numbers of objects, conservative time snchronization and exchange of simulation events. We could not afford to periodically broadcast entity updates as that would cause scalability problems.
In my later years of involvement we reached as many as 1 million battlefield objects per one of the Ulchi Focus Lens exercise. The fundamental difference between HLA and DIS is that HLA is designed to handle constructive large-scale, variable fidelity, conservative time managed simulations whereas DIS was born from a networked simulator environment and is focused on near-real-time, platform-level simulators.
HLA can help make these two classes of simulations interoperate to a degree but will always be limited by inherent differences in the types of simulations being linked.
For example, if a conservative time-managed simulation federate gets bogged down with calculations the HLA time management will cause the federation to stop moving time forward until the slowest simulation moves forward. DIS does not support this. To a DIS-driven platform, all the time-managed entities will appear to move in slow motion or stop altogether and periodically would appear to be moving faster than real-time as the federation tries to catch up to real-time.
Answer: There is nothing in the HLA specification that says the RTI has to be centralized, although almost all RTIs are.
Comment: RTIs are PROPRIETARY, and you have to use the same one in all your simulators.  They are NOT inherently centralized.  (Speaking as one who used to work for the premier vendor of HLA RTIs - MaK Technology.)
Answer: The HLA 1516 Standard only defines the API between the simulator and the RTI. Not between RTIs. The protocol used to exchange data between RTIs is proprietary. Therefore only RTIs from the same vendor or government agency are able to interoperate. A major flaw. If you are using a different RTI you will need a "bridge" to translate between the proprietary protocols.  This can be expensive.
Answer: One thing to keep in mind if you plan to bridge DIS and HLA is that you will possibly lose simulation fidelity on both sides depending on how your FOM is organized.  DIS to RPR FOM is straightforward but there are other FOMs out there that may not map well at all to DIS. In some situations you may be unable to translate a PDU field to an HLA object attribute or interaction parameter (or vice versa).  You will have to use your best judgment as to what kinds of default values to use in these situations.  Other times the HLA FOM object hierarchy may be structured very differently from DIS.  In this case the translation may require combining data from multiple DIS PDUs to form one HLA message.  This means you will have to write code in the bridge to preserve some form of message state.
Also, at runtime you will get your HLA attributes piecemeal. After object discovery you will have to wait to translate an object instance until you have received enough attributes to populate the DIS PDU properly.
Another issue is that HLA can provides time management services.  You would have a lot of synchronization problems to deal with if you tried to integrate a DIS application into a HLA federation using time management.
If you have a purchasing budget my advice would be to go with MAK VR-Exchange.


dual video cards, need recommends for motherboard and psu

Question: I'm finally taking the plunge and getting a new system. For Blender and other modern 3d applications, my old Nvidia 2060 card just isn't cutting it no matter what settings I change. So I'm thinking about cannibalizing my current system to make a more powerful new system. I want to be able to support an Nvidia 3060 ti, an Nvidia 2060 super (I wouldn't mention brand but that apparently matters on GPUs) and my old drivers -480gb solid state, 1tb sata III, 16gb ddr 2226mhz memory.
It runs on an 8 core CPU but I suspect that will be changed by default with a new board.
I'm mostly concerned about the PSU and mother board. I'm told I need an SLI but I don't know my minimums there and I'm not sure what I need on power. If you're curious about the specific computer model, this was a pre-package deal purchased from Best Buy called a BB970.
Any advice?
Comment: For SLI, you need the same model GPU, a 2060S and 3060ti won't work very well together in SLI, no matter of your mobo support
Comment: I now know not to always take the word of a Best Buy employee then. So what do you do to get two GPUs working together? I know it's possible.
Comment: Whether I used the wrong words or not, there IS a way to get to different cards to work together, especially from the same company, I know that. Can you tell me the word I'm looking for then?
Comment: You need the same GPU model for it to work using an SLI bridge, brand then does not matter AFAIK.
Comment: I don't think OP actually needs SLI. SLI makes two cards act like one so that a single program can divide work to both cards simultaneously and that's why they have to be the same model. But you can still use **any** 2 separate GPUs in any system you want and use them for separate programs or programs that are multi-GPU aware. Outside of gaming there are all kinds of software (including Blender) that can use multiple GPUs.
Answer:
If you're curious about the specific computer model, this was a pre-package deal purchased from Best Buy called a BB970. Any advice?

watch office space, do to it what they did to the printer in the field.
https://www.nvidia.com/en-us/geforce/graphics-cards/30-series/rtx-3060-3060ti/
An RTX3060 requires 1 x pcie 8-pin power connector from the PSU.  Along with 2 slots of space about the PCIE 3.0 x16 connector on the motherboard.  If you want to do 2 nvidia cards, both which require dual slots, and preferably pci 3.0 x16, you'll need a new motherboard and tower and PSU to accommodate all that.  That BB970, I don't think so.
you should compare the RTX3060, why you chose that one vs a newer one like RTX3090ti... SLI to do 2 or more cards is often problematic, my opinion I don't think it ever really caught on was more for bragging rights and fancy visual builds. For reliability stick with one card but the best you can afford that makes sense for what you are looking to do.
Answer: So- it was all just the power supply turns out. The guy at the repair store tells me all the money I was planning on spending may very well have been wasted as 2060 Super should have been well enough to handle the renders I was doing. The problem was the 600W power supply. He recommended I get a 1000W and let him install that instead of helping me build a whole new system. I find that much more trustworthy than Best Buy- especially since he wasn't trying to upsell me.
Just a general tip, always be wary of someone trying to upsell you on computer parts.


Find what app is causing popups, NOT in notification bar

Question: I am getting these popups regularly. They do not appear in the notification center so I can't find out what app is causing them. The only app I can think of that I have installed recently, I have already deleted and they still appear. I am using the Nexus 4 Android 4.2.2. None of the ad detector apps have found anything.
How can I determine what is causing this?
Here is a screenshot of an ad, and a screenshot of my task manager immediately after. I am not sure if the app would have to be running to show the ad:

Comment: Have you run a few *different* anti-virus scans? Might find something. Also are you rooted?
Comment: I am rooted. I've tried about a half dozen scanners.
Comment: I would look to see if something unrecognized has set itself up as a Device Administrator, disable, and then remove.
Comment: related- https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/126326/some-program-is-showing-ads-on-my-desktop-how-can-i-catch-it . for me 'airpush detector' worked great
Answer: If these popups are appearing in front of other apps, look through your installed apps to find any with the "draw over other apps" permission.  Most apps don't have that permission, so this should help to narrow down which one might be the culprit.
Comment: In Settings, under Apps.  Tap on an app to open its details, and there's a section that shows what permissions it has.  There are also third-party apps that'll scan all your installed apps and group them by permissions so you don't have to check each one individually.  And Android 6 (Marshmallow)  has an advanced section specifically for controlling which apps can draw over others — tap the gear icon at the top of the screen in the apps list.
Comment: And how exactly should people do that? Look through installed apps? Where?
Comment: Thank you. Looking for "draw over other apps" really narrowed things down! Nothing else I tried was nearly as helpful!
Answer: If such an advert shows up in my device my approaches would be the following ones. Also, at least a day of yours would be killed in doing so but it would reap good results.
Use Firewall

Install a firewall and restrict everything from connecting to Internet. See Closing internet access for some apps and choose a firewall app.
Allow one user app in the firewall to connect to Internet. Use that app and see if the ads popup. If negative, then do it for another app.
A firewall should be keeping a log of which app is trying to connect to Internet, so that should help as well.

Monitor network connections
When that popup shows up, see which apps are connected to Internet. Use an app like OS Monitor. Its Connection tab shows all the connected or apps waiting for connection (listening) on a port.
You can use this approach with a firewall. Restrict all those apps which you saw being connected to Internet at the time the ads popup, allow one of the app and use it, and observe if any ads shows up. Similarly, do it for other apps.
This should help in pin-pointing the source. Otherwise, ad blockers are always a choice to use and forget what's causing those popups.
Kill-all approach
Either manually or using an app or task manager, kill all the user apps running. Launch one of them, use it and see if the ads popup. Do the same for other user apps. Not a very good approach but nevertheless, it may lead you to source.
Comment: `adb shell dumpsys activity` or `adb shell dumpsys window` may also help.
Answer: Try using an ad-block app like AdAway or AdBlock Plus . Most of these apps will show which ads were blocked and from where they originated. You can also check this link to know in detail about how to block ads in android
Comment: a) what is the google play store link?  b) it says "It's available for all major desktop browsers" .  What if an ad comes up but not while i'm browsing?
Answer: I had the same problem with my sony aqua and i found a very simple way to find the app that causing the ad all you have to do is when the ad pops up on your screen just hit the recent apps button and you will see what app is causing the ad.. For me it was Bluetooth app sender and i uninstalled it and the ad is gone
Comment: Great! This worked as expected. Thanks for a nice tip. The DYI Emoji application on my fiancee's phone was causing ads pops any time she had use phone with internet and they were like 3 ads in 5 sec all the time and we were driving crazy she from ads pop ups and me from Internet Data bill. Hope there is a way to sue app creator for using my data on spam ads. I try to find out thanks. ;(
Answer: I had the same issue. Found a few suggestions on the Internet, like Trustgo ad detector and air push detector. Installed the trustgo app and it found the problem app in in a second. May be this info might be useful for others facing the same issue
Comment: It might be useful if you [edit] your question and link to the apps you're recommending.
Answer: I recently bought a Galaxy S7 Edge. Was getting ADs for Mobile Strike over and over, with sound even when the volume was off. Very frustration. Tried Ad blocker and Malware Bytes. All excellent apps. Nothing worked. Couldn't find the responsible app. Finally had to do a hard reset. That worked.
Answer: Had the same problem. Pop up ads even in the middle of playing a game, or just sitting there. I went into setting, and looked at each app. There was an section that says how many megs was used in the last 3 hours. I uninstalled the ones that showed activity in the last 3 hours, no more pop ups! Hope this helps!
Comment: Most times, this is caused by malware and uninstalling is not an option.
Answer: I had exacly the same ads you are showing in your screenshot, also apps called Insane Stars and Alarm Clock constantly installing, i looked into services and found and app called 'Tasks' being the culpit. If you dont have a service called Tasks, try to open multitasking while the popup is showing, it will show you the name of the app.
Answer: Found my apps to be related to skype. Uninstalled and no more pop ups. One of their permissions was to run over other apps thus the pop ups.
Answer: Download a terminal application for Android and run the following command:

ps

The "ps" command will list all the running processes / apps.
Inside there you can see and analyze if a "weird" app is running behind and shows those ads.


In Laravel how to use snake case for database table columns and camel case for model attributes

Question: I am new to laravel 4 and I am trying to create a rest API following best practices defined by Apigee.
One of the best practice defined by apigee is to use camel case for json attribute keys, this way when using the API in Javascript the corresponding objects will follow attributes code convention (camel case).
I want to be able to define datatable columns following snake case but when retrieving eloquent objects though my api, the corresponding JSON has to follow camel case.
I read about a static variable $snakeAttributes that could be set in the model class and its documentation says "Indicates whether attributes are snake cased on arrays". I tried to override this variable and set it to false (MyResource class) but when executing the folowing code, the json still comes in snake case:
Code:
   $resource = MyResource::find($id);
   return Response::json($resource);

JSON:
{
first_name: 'Michael',
created_at: "2013-10-24 15:30:01",
updated_at: "2013-10-24 15:30:01"
}

Does someone have an idea on how to solve that?
Answer: Create BaseModel and a new method to help you with it:

class BaseModel extends \Eloquent {

    public function toArrayCamel()
    {
        $array = $this->toArray();

        foreach($array as $key => $value)
        {
            $return[camel_case($key)] = $value;
        }

        return $return;
    }

}

Your model:
class MyResource extends BaseModel {
}

And then use it:
$resource = MyResource::find($id);
return Response::json( $resource->toArrayCamel() );

Answer: The way I see, you'll have to make a array, work manually on the keys (camel case) and then convert the array (not the result) on a JSON.
$resource = MyResource::find($id);
$array = array();

foreach($resource as $key => $value) {
    $key = str_replace('_', '-', $key);
    $array[$key] = $value;
}
return Response::json($array);

I guess that will do the job. :D


Conditional PMF - drop an event on which we condition

Question: I have been struggling with understanding the solution to one of exercises in Blitzstein's book Introduction to Probability. My question is: in part b), why can we just drop $X=15$ in the term $P(Y=k|X=15,B)$? As I understand it, we could do this if $B$ happened which would imply that $X=15$ must have happened too in which case %X=15% gives us no new information and we could drop $X=15$ (or vice versa). This is, I think, equivalent to saying that $X=15 \subset B$ so that $P(X=15,B)=P(X=15)$ (or, again, vice versa). Please correct me if I'm wrong as I want to be crystal clear on that. However, I can't really see this situation occurring here, could someone please explain this to me?
Answer: It is not correct to say that "if B happened", the X=15 happened too." Instead, if B "happened", that is the new treatment is better/works 60% of the time, then what happened previously does not tell us more about the distribution of future outcomes X. Another way of saying that is: conditional on B being true, future events Y do not depend on X.
Comment: I agree, but for me, intuitively, it feels like if B and X=15 happened, then X=15 does give us a hint about the effectiveness of the new treatment, since it worked for 15/20 people in the pilot study, so it is more probable that it will work, let's say, Y=15 again. I am still not convinced that X=15 does not give us any new information abut the distribution of Y.


Does a ndis filter driver belong to NT driver or WDM driver?

Question: NT driver doesn't support plugin and play.
Does ndis filter belong to NT driver or WDM driver?
Answer: NDIS filter drivers are typically "legacy WDM" drivers.  They can be started/stopped through SCM (e.g., the StartService API).
However, NDIS will technically permit any driver to be an NDIS filter driver: as long as the driver calls NdisFRegisterFilterDriver with a valid UniqueName, it's a filter.
NDIS filter drivers do not participate in traditional WDM PNP operations (e.g., they do not handle IRPs).  However, NDIS has its own PNP model, which allows filters instances to be created, started, stopped, and detached dynamically.  (In fact, if the filter is marked as Optional in its INF file, it can be inserted and removed without breaking active TCP connections.  You can install a filter driver without even interrupting a background download!)
Don't walk away from this explanation with the wrong idea -- the NDIS filter model is really quite modern, powerful, and flexible.  It just doesn't use WDM for PNP.


RGB led each color on at a specific voltage

Question: My set up is a small solar panel(10W) charges battery's in my camper, the old led showing that it was charging no longer works, The old led had epoxy around it with 3 diodes in it as well,being a older camper replacement lights are not readily available, I wanted to put in a RGB led with the Blue coming on at approx 11.8 volts and the green at 12.6 and the red at 13.6, they can overlap in or just change from one to the other, I would like to keep it as simple as possible, I have some room so it doesn't have to be tiny, The led specs are Forward current 30mA(green/blue) 50mA(red) supply 3.5v-4.0 max(green/blue) 2.0v-2.6 max(red) any help would be appreciated,
Comment: Not sure I understand your question. Please consider rewording, breaking into paragraphs, and providing reference links to any products you are referring to.
Comment: It's fairly easy to understand what the OP is saying, but a picture of the inside of the charger would be helpful. If the charger already had an led, it could have what he needs inside.
Answer: You could use a quad comparator and a few resistor dividers (or a few transistors if it doesn't need to be too accurate).
You can get dedicated battery gauge ICs for this too, see for example the selection at Farnell.
Dave Jones at EEVBlog has a tutorial on using the LM3914 (for a Li-Ion, but you can see the design process and adapt as necessary)
With the quad comparator option (e.g. something like the LM339), a circuit somewhat like this should work (just thrown together, not checked thoroughly, so you will need to refine things if you choose this option - decoupling caps not shown, you will need some on the comparator rails and the zener reference):

The reference is provided by a 10V zener (D4) which is not too exact (you may want to use something more precise, notice the LED turn on values are not exact, but you can adjust the resistor values to compensate) but should do for a rough indicator. Ignore the LED part number and resistor values - they are just what LTSpice had handy (you will have to adjust the resistor values for each LEDs voltage drop to get your required current)
Simulation:

The X axis is the sweep of the supply voltage (V+) from 10V to 14V, you can see each colour LED turning on near it's respective voltage (you will need to tune for precision, as the zener reference also changes slightly with the supply voltage, or use a better reference as mentioned above)


If God is omniscient, why would he command the Israelites to destroy the Caananites? God would have known the Israelites wouldn't keep his command

Question: My understanding is that God knows every minute detail of the past, present and future. And yet several times throughout the Old Testament, God issues a command to his people or an individual and we find out the people/person failed to follow the command. For example, why would God instruct the Israelites to utterly destroy the Caananites knowing they wouldn't do it? God also gives instructions to the various Kings of Israel/Judah, again knowing full well that the Kings wouldn't follow the command. I'm hoping to get some clarity on this point, or an "aha" moment as this has been bothering me while reading the Old Testament. Thanks
Comment: Although this question does not show much research, I have given it an up-vote because it is an honest question and deserves an honest answer from Christians.  New contributors don't always understand how Christianity Stack Exchange works, so here is the link to the tour: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/tour
Comment: Related: https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/38573/does-omniscience-negate-free-will
Comment: There is a difference between knowing "*every minute detail of the past, present and future*" and being *capable* of knowing them.  With access to Wikipedia, I myself am capable of knowing an incredible amount of detail about an incredible number of things, but that doesn't mean that I have bothered to actually learn them all.
Comment: You can ask this about *anything* God commands.
Answer:
There is no necessity in God. He is the first cause. All He does is a voluntary initiative. Part of asking "why" questions is to find preceding cause/effect chains that led up to an event occurring. There is no "Why" here. God is. His speech is an expression of His unchanging nature.
21 "His eyes are on the ways of mortals;
he sees their every step.
22 There is no deep shadow, no utter darkness,
where evildoers can hide.
23 God has no need to examine people further,
that they should come before him for judgment.
24 Without inquiry he shatters the mighty
and sets up others in their place.
25 Because he takes note of their deeds,
he overthrows them in the night and they are crushed. (Job 34)

The people He commands are not His only audience.

All He does is viewed by the angels.
Later believers are instructed by God's commands.
The unbelieving world will be judged according to God's commands.

God is performing an experiment for our benefit, showing us what does not work when it comes to repairing the world. In this case, a theocratic state given perfect laws and granted the privilege and on occasion miraculous assistance by God to kill wicked people cannot cleanse the world. Previous experiments involved proving that a perfect environment (Eden) cannot prevent evil, killing all wicked people on earth (Noah's flood) could not eradicate evil, etc. He is working up to unmerited grace and the cross.

God did issue the command for a reason, so it must have achieved its intended effect, because:
As the rain and the snow
come down from heaven,
and do not return to it
without watering the earth
and making it bud and flourish,
so that it yields seed for the sower and bread for the eater,
11 so is my word that goes out from my mouth:
It will not return to me empty,
but will accomplish what I desire
and achieve the purpose for which I sent it. (Isaiah 55)

We know from Jonah that God is merciful. Sometimes He issues a warning and people repent, so repentance is the goal and not destruction. In the Canaanite's case this seems unlikely.

Ultimately, God wants to show people that only He can save them from evil.

The Lord looked and was displeased
that there was no justice. 16 He saw that there was no one,
he was appalled that there was no one to intervene; so his own arm achieved salvation for him,
and his own righteousness sustained him. 17 He put on righteousness as his breastplate,
and the helmet of salvation on his head;
he put on the garments of vengeance
and wrapped himself in zeal as in a cloak. 18 According to what they have done,
so will he repay wrath to his enemies
and retribution to his foes;
he will repay the islands their due. 19 From the west, people will fear the name of the Lord,
and from the rising of the sun, they will revere his glory. For he will come like a pent-up flood
that the breath of the Lord drives along. (Isaiah 59)
Answer: God has self-control (Isaiah 42:14), so that he can choose to what extent he will exercise his power and knowledge. Although God is all-powerful, that does not mean that he unleashes his limitless power any time he executes judgment on people. His power is tempered by his mercy and wisdom. In a similar way, although God is all-knowing, it does not mean that God uses his knowledge to predict everything that will happen. He chooses not to foreknow some things so that we can make our own decisions and express genuine love and obedience.
For example, when God commanded Abraham to sacrifice his son Isaac, and Abraham obeyed and was about to kill his son on the altar he had built, God stopped Abraham and said by means of his angelic messenger:

"Do not harm the boy, and do not do anything at all to him, for now I do know that you are God-fearing because you have not withheld your son, your only one, from me."
— Genesis 22:12 (NWT)

We can see that God had waited for Abraham to decide to obey him. God chose not to foreknow whether Abraham would obey.
The belief that God uses his omniscience to fully know the future is called Predestination. It is not taught by the Bible. The Bible clearly teaches that nothing can be hidden from God. His knowledge of the past and present are complete, so that his judgements and decisions are perfect. However, when it comes to knowledge of the future, God is selective in what he chooses to foreknow so that he does not overstep our free will.
Comment: Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been [moved to chat](https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/118266/discussion-on-answer-by-4castle-if-god-is-omniscient-why-would-he-command-the-i).


Why does mass limit acceleration?

Question: If a force of $10\,\mathrm{N}$ is applied to different objects of different mass in empty space, in the absence of gravity, why do lighter objects accelerate faster than heavier objects? Why does mass cause inertia?
Comment: If you have any sort of fundamental answer for this, stand by for a phone call from Sweden.
Comment: Related, from earlier this week: [Why did we expect gravitational mass and inertial mass to be different?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/629128/)
Comment: Of you take relaticistic effects, m at velocity v= m0/root(1-v^2/c^2) m0 is reat mass
If v=c, then m at v=infinity
It takes infinite a to get to v because the inertia keeos on increasing as velocity increasea
Answer: I do not think it is mass that "CAUSES" inertia. Rather mass is DEFINED to be the property of an object which gives it inertia
For example, imagine that you were a theoretical observer who did not know of the concept of mass. There were just 3 objects in front of you. You applied $10 \mathrm{N}$ to each object and observed that the different objects accelerated at a different rates. One accelerated at $1 \mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^2$. Others at $2\mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^2$ and $4\mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^2$ respectively. So, you can conclude that the different objects have some property that determines how much they accelerate under a given force.
You would also notice that there was a linear relationship between the force on a body and its acceleration.
Now, you can calculate what would be the value of this property. And you can see that the body that accelerated at $1 \mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^2$ would have a higher value of this property than the one that accelerated at $4 \mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^2$.
The theoretical observer can see that this property is directly related to what people call "heavier" and "lighter" objects. So, it is safe to conclude that lighter objects accelerate faster than heavier objects.
To summarise, the reason lighter objects accelerate faster than heavier objects is because that is how we have defined the terms "lighter" and "heavier".
Mass "causes" inertia, because that is how we have defined "mass".
If you want to further ask, why objects with different values of this "mass" property accelerate differently, then you are asking a more fundamental 'why' question. And like most fundamental why questions in physics, it boils down to , because those are the laws of physics in our universe. And if you want to ask why are the laws of physics like that, the answer is " because of the initial conditions at the Big Bang. And researchers are working to figure this out "

EDIT : As some comments have pointed out, there is also the quantum mechanics aspect of this.
All particles get their inertia or the "tendency to resist motion under a force", through the way the fundamental particles interact with the Higgs field.
To understand why massive objects have inertia, we need to understand where the mass of objects comes from.
We know that all massive objects are made up of atoms. So, atoms give objects their mass. But where do the atoms get their mass from?
Atoms are made up of protons and neutrons (and electrons but they have negligible mass). So, protons and neutrons give atoms their mass. But where do protons and neutrons get there mass from ?
According to the standard model, protons and neutrons are made of quarks. So, quarks should be giving atoms their mass, right ? WRONG.
Quarks have substantially smaller and lighter mass than the protons and neutrons that they comprise. It is estimated that the masses of the quarks, derived through their interaction with the Higgs field, account for only about 1% of the mass of a proton, for example.
So, 99% of the mass of a proton is not to be found in its constituent quarks. Rather, it resides in the massless gluons that bind together the quarks inside the proton. These gluons are the carriers of the strong nuclear force, that pass between the quarks and bind them together inside the proton. These gluons are "massless" but their interaction with the Higgs field is what we experience as mass.
So, at a quantum level , the Higgs field 'drags' on the gluons , as though the particle were moving through molasses, (Another analogy used is moving through a crowded dance floor) . In other words, the energy of this interaction is manifested as a resistance to acceleration. These interactions slow the particles down, giving rise to inertia which we interpret as mass.
Comment: @my2cts I don't think you need to invoke the Higgs Mechanism to answer the OP's question. This answer is an entirely satisfactory classical explanation of mass and inertia.
Comment: the initial conditions at the Big Bang are unrelated, they are consequences of the physical laws not the cause if anything
Comment: And why is this concept that we are now measuring exactly the same (ratios) as the gravitational force between the objects? Strange indeed. Mass tells space  where to be and space tells mass where to go.
Comment: I would want to more carefully word this answer, because right this second you have both statements: "I do not think it is mass that CAUSES inertia... Mass causes inertia, because that is how we have defined 'mass'."
Comment: That an object which has more gravitational mass also has more inertial mass is not something that is *defined*; it's something observed in the world.
Comment: In special relativity mass is defined as rest energy divided by c$^2$ and energy is related to inertia. This overrules Newton's definition. And perhaps General Relativity should also be mentioned, or the Higgs mechanism. The question is not as simple as this answer suggests.
Comment: Mass is resistance to acceleration, but intuitively 'drag' is resistance to _movement_. Is there a simple, hand-wave-level explanation for why "Higgs field 'drag' on the gluons" causes resistance to acceleration instead of resistance to movement?
Answer: In classical non-relativistic physics, the inertial mass $m_{\mathrm{inertial}}$ is by DEFINITION the quantity of an object that acts as the proportionality factor relating force $\vec{F}$ and acceleration $\vec{a}$ in $$\vec{F}=m_{\mathrm{inertial}}\vec{a}.$$
We observe that different objects react differently to the same force, i.e. having a different acceleration, therefore we assign different masses to them.
There is also the gravitational mass $m_{\mathrm{grav}}$, that gives a notion on how much an object is affected by gravity, therefore kind of acting as a charge of gravitation. All experiments show that gravitational and inertial mass are the same, hinting $m_{\mathrm{grav}}=m_{\mathrm{inertial}}$. This is hinted by the observation that all objects have the same acceleration in a gravitational field, implying that the masses in the equation $\vec{g}m_{\mathrm{grav}}=\vec{a}m_{\mathrm{inertial}}$ cancel; where $
\vec{g}m_{\mathrm{grav}}$ is (approximately) the gravitational force asserted on a body with gravitational mass $m_{\mathrm{grav}}$ at sea level on earth. Why this should be the case, theoretically, was not explained in non-relativistic physics, but nowadays by the equivalence principle in general relativity.
Comment: It is crucial to explain as you do that the real question is why inertial mass and gravitational mass are the same.  The answer is "because of equivalence principle".  That might cause someone to ask "How does equivalence principle explain why inertial mass and gravitational mass are the same?"
Answer: We call mass, inertial mass because it is the efficient (main) cause of inertial motion. How could there be motion if there was no time or no space? Hence, inertial mass is not the only cause, space is required as well as time.
Aristotle called this natural motion, it's the motion natural to an object in virtue of simply being itself.
We find out by experiment that a force of $F$ (measured in Newtons) on an object of mass $m$ (measured in kg) causes an acceleration of $F/m$ (measured in $m/s^2$).
Hence, lighter objects accelerate more quickly than heavy ones. It's an outcome of experiment. This is because physics is an experimental science and an empirical inquiry into the nature of space, time and matter.
Comment: How can mass be the cause of motion? Also in special relativity mass is defined as rest energy divided by $c^2$. This overrules Newton's definition. And perhaps General Relativity should also be mentioned.
Comment: @mycts: Without mass, space & time there can be no motion. Look up Aristotles notion of efficient and material cause. The revisions you point out make no difference to the notion that mass is the cause of motion. Einstein himself said that he viewed the geodesic law of motion on a spacetime manifold not as so many commentators tell it, that is as an aspect of geometry, but as a unification of inertial motion and gravity.
Comment: Inertial motion is the same for all bodies (constant vector of velocity in special relativity, more generally motion along geodesics), hence mass plays no role. Inertial motion is purely an artefact of the choice of coordinate frame. It is only when forces are applied, i.e. when the motion is non-inertial, that inertial mass plays a role. So your logic seems to fall short.
Comment: @tobi_s: If there is no mass there can be no motion, there is nothing to move. You say "inertial motion is the same for all *bodies*" - are we to suppose that yhese bodies have no mass? Can you show me such 'bodies'?
Comment: @MoziburUllah You sure seem to be playing word games here. "Inertial motion is independent of mass" is a scientific fact. You said "mass is the main cause of inertial motion" which is a philosophical statement. So we find that inertial motion is independent of what you consider its main cause. That was my point. I also deliberately said "bodies" to avoid the sidetrack discussion that you are trying to start now.
Comment: @tobi_s: I'm **not** playing games with language. What you state is also **not** a scientific fact. Can you show me a body that moves that has no mass???
Comment: @MoziburUllah Can you say precisely what I said that is not a scientific fact? To shortcut, what I'm arguing against is the statement that mass is the cause of inertial motion. That seems to be devoid of content. The difference between massless and massive bodies is that you can assign an independent parameter (e.g. proper time) to every point of the world line of a massive body. How does that make mass the "cause" of inertial motion? And how is that causal relationship different for inertial motion vs non-inertial motion?
Comment: @tobi_s: As I've repeatedly pointed out above without a 'massive body' there is no body to 'assign' proper time to. Mass, space and time are in a sense the causes of intertial motion. Without any of these preconditions there could be no motion. Inertial motion is natural motion and non-inertial is un-natural motion. The latter has additional causes, namely a force impressed upon it.
Comment: Did I talk about massless bodies? No. You should read closer. That's why I asked you to say what precisely I stated that is not a fact. But ok, let's say we agree that "bodies" have mass. Anyway, you seem to have shifted to an even broader statement, namely that without mass there is no motion at all. So photons don't move? (BTW the funny thing about Aristotelian physics is that he was [unwittingly or not] talking about bodies in a buoyant medium, his terminology is thus not very useful.)
Comment: @tobi_s: I haven't changed my position. I've said that without mass, space and time there can be no motion. You're one one who has changed position. All bodies have mass, including putatively massless ones like photons - they have energy and by the famous relation $E=mc^2$, we see that this is equivalently mass and hence have inertial motion. The root of your problem appears to be my advocacy of Aristotle. I'll make no apologies for that. Aristotle is part of the history of physics. Physics didn't just begin with Kepler and Galileo. The great algebraic topologist, Rene Thom, called ....
Comment: @Tobi_s: ... Aristotle the only great thinker on continua in the past two millenia. Given that continua are of perennial interest, for example the notion of a field in both classical and quantum physics, what he has to say is of perennial interest.
Comment: So what is the proper that time you assign the points of the trajectory of a photon? Don't try to have it both ways please ... (and no, while I admire Aristotle his physics has no bearing on this question -- that's all I was saying. Again, you fail to read what I write; also I believe that Rene Thom was able to calculate that Aristotle didn't live within two millenia before his time)
Comment: @tobi_s: Aristotle lived in 350 BCE, this is around 2370 years ago and so *over* two millenia. If you can't do this simple calculation why should anyone take what you are suggesting seriously? Rene Thom took Aristotle's physics seriously enough to write a whole book on it, *Semiophysics*.
Comment: (just to be clear: "that's all I was saying" should be followed by "on Aristotle")
Comment: Lol, you made my point right there. You really have a hard time reading. Also, please don't distract from your previous self-contradiction. What is the proper time of the photon?
Comment: @tobi_s: I haven't contradicted myself. On the other hand you have. You've made a basic misunderstanding on when Aristotle lived and laughing out loud isn't distracting me from your pointless argument. The point I made is that without space, time and mass there can be no motion. You've eventually agreed, after some pushing and prodding, that bodies aren't bodies unless they have mass.
Comment: This involves only reading and arithmetic but no physics: you said Aristotle was, according to Thom, "the only great thinker on continua in the past two millennia". By your own calculations Aristotle didn't live during the past two millennia. Get it? Not important, but you like distractions and I always aim to please my interlocutors. Since you have a hard time seeing this blatant contradiction or admitting to it, I don't think you can see the others (what's the proper time of the photon?), and there is even less hope that you will finally understand what I wrote. Have a nice day.
Answer: Maybe it is because an object with more mass has to bend spacetime more in order to move through it.
Answer: The Short Answer
More mass means more stuff. More stuff is harder to push than less stuff, so you need to push harder to get the same acceleration.
The long answer - Momentum
The reason for this can be understood in terms of momentum. Imagine for a moment that mass does not limit acceleration, and that we instead have the physical law:
F = a
If I push a book across a frictionless desk with a force of 1 Newton, it will have a velocity of 1 m/s after one second. If I push a stack of 10 books across my desk with the same force, it would have the same speed of 1 m/2. If I push a freight train loaded with 100 trucks of books across a frictionless track, it too will have a velocity of 1 m/s with only 1 Newton of force applied for 1 second. In reality, we would expect the freight train to be much harder to push, no?
This is where momentum comes into play. In some sense, momentum is the amount of "oomph" an object has behind it. It is also a physically conserved vector quantity, which means the amount of momentum in the universe never changes. Momentum, p, is given by:
p = mv
Where v is velocity. We can express force in terms of momentum by:
F = dp/dt
That is, the derivative of momentum with respect to time. Note here that in the second equation there is no explicit relationship with mass.
Momentum is what we call an extensive quantity, which means the more we have of something, the more momentum we can expect. If two cars travelling in opposite directions collide head-on their opposing momenta cancel and they will end at rest, close to the impact site. On the other hand, if a car hits a freight train travelling at the same speed in the opposite direction head-on, the speed of the freight train will barely change (until the operator applies the brakes). Its momentum will be reduced by the change in momentum of the car colliding with it, which will be a small fraction of its initial momentum. In this sense, the mass is simply the amount of the thing carrying the momentum, so more "thing" means more momentum (for a given velocity).
The long answer Part II - Energy
This can also be explained if we think in terms of energy.
For a constant force on an object, the energy is the force times the distance the force was applied over:
E = F*d
No matter how massive the object is, the energy will be the same. If we split the large object into two equal parts after accelerating it, each will have the same speed, but half the energy.
Now, the energy from motion (kinetic energy) is given by:
KE = 1/2 mv^2
So, if we apply a force F over a distance d for two objects with different masses, we must ultimately get a different final velocity in order for them to have the same energy. In this case, the smaller object must be accelerated more quickly to achieve the higher final velocity.
For the final velocity to be independent of mass we would need to decouple force from energy.
Energy is another quantity that is conserved in physics. I won't go into it, but the many relationships that exist between velocity, momentum, energy and force can ultimately be derived from the conservation of energy and momentum. These conservation laws can further be derived from the assumption that the laws of the universe are constant over all time (energy conservation) and space (momentum conservation). This proof is called Noether's Theorem, although it may be a little difficult to grasp for a beginner.
Comment: This answer deserves more up votes. Elegantly simple, and also correct.
Comment: I added a discussion about momentum which may be more intuitive, as well as some commentary on "extensive properties" in physics. F = dp/dt was actually Newton's original expression for his physical law, but it is often introduced to physics learners as F = ma as it includes neither calculus nor momentum (which is a concept introduced later). The idea that F = ma is the definition of mass is simply wrong. It follows from momentum and energy being extensive properties, which is a logical necessity for the laws of physics to make any sense at all.
Comment: In this case, "mass" simply means "how much". How much "of what" isn't important, at least not for the classical description.
Comment: Kinetic energy relates more to F=ma definition. The kinetic energy equation is directly from $F=ma$ as $E= \int F dx = \int m\tfrac{d^2x}{dt^2}dx=\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2$
Answer: I am only going to talk about massive particles as in your example.
There are two ingredients:

Higgs mechanism

Today we do know that we live in a universe that is permeated by fields all through. This includes the Higgs field.
Now the Higgs mechanism is a true phenomenon in that it shows you that when certain particles (which themselves are excitation of their own fields) couple to the Higgs field, we can notice something special in experiments. This is that they (certain particles) acquire rest mass.
Now in your example, you apply 10N of force to let's say a small and a huge rock. The small has less number of particles (excitation of those fields) that couple to the Higgs field.
Now imagine both rocks being made up of quarks and electrons (simplified), and to be very intuitive, lets imagine these electrons and quarks as little ships with anchors.
The bigger rock (assuming same density) has more anchors, and feels a bigger resistance to your force of 10N. This resistance to acceleration is what we call rest mass and is a beautiful tethering effect.

Energy

Now please note that in the case of complex objects, the rest mass is also (mostly) due to binding energies. This is astonishing, but in the case of a nucleon (proton or neutron), the rest mass is 99% due to binding energies. Thus, the true answer to your question is stress-energy (just like in general relativity).
An object, like a rock in your example possesses stress-energy (mostly in the form of binding energies), and this is the true source of its rest mass, which we see in experiments as a resistance to acceleration. In this sense, the answer to your question is that rest mass, the resistance to acceleration is rooted in the energy that the object possesses. The larger rock in the example possesses more energy, more resistance to acceleration. The more fundamental question is why more energy causes more resistance to acceleration, and the true answer is nobody knows, but this is what we see in experiments.
Comment: I do not really understand, why the Brout/Englert/Higgs (BEH) mechanism is brought into this. The rest mass of the electron is 0.5 MeV/c^2, the one of the quarks inside a proton around 10 MeV/c^2. The proton weights around 1 GeV/c^2, therefore the BEH mechanism accounts for only around 1% of the rest mass we experience in everyday life. The rest, around 99% of the mass, is binding energy. Therefore I do not think any analogy to visualise the BEH mechanism answers the question.
Comment: "The more fundamental question is why more energy causes more resistance to acceleration, and the true answer is nobody knows, but this is what we see in experiments." This is what I've been searching for that no one else seems to have had the courage to admit. Not only does it cause more resistance to acceleration, but it apparently causes the same resistance as would be caused by an equivalent mass interacting with the HIggs field. Yet people insist the mechanisms are completely different. How can that be?
Answer: The answer is not higgs,It only accounts for only about 1% the mass of the proton.
The real answer is energy.To know how energy causes resistance to motion,see this video:https://youtu.be/gSKzgpt4HBU
Here,he explains how a system of photons (which has no mass) aquire mass by constraining its energy of motion.This is what we mean by $$E=\gamma mc^2$$
Answer: From Newton's second law of Motion we can say,$$\vec F = m \vec a$$
Upon rearranging the terms we get ,
$$ \vec a = \frac {\vec F}{m} ..... 1$$
We know that acceleration is the rate of change of velocity , but from above equation we get another definition of acceleration i.e
Acceleration is the Force acting per unit mass.
Now when you apply the same force on a heavier and a lighter body the value of force per unit mass is more for the lighter than for heavier body so lighter body has more acceleration that heavier body.To look at it more intuitively ,
The force applied by you is dstributed over less mass in case of lighter body so each unit mass is acted upon by more force and hence more acceleration. So acceleration of each particle is more.However the same force gets distributed over a large number of unit masses in the heavier body so each unit mass is acted upon by less force and hence less acceleration.
Answer: Mass is more than just resistance to motion. It is a measure of three factors that agree, with no immediate and obvious reason they should:

Inertial resistance to motion under force

A property of mutual attraction that makes two objects with mass attract - inversely proportional to square of the distance (just like with electric charge, magnetic dipole, and the strong nuclear force).

The quantum wave's debroglie rest mass, of matter-energy.

Several have said mass is nothing more than an extensive property we assign to objects based on. Truest form to Newton's second law is not actually $m:= \frac{F}{a}$

Definition 1 of mass: $\mathbf{m:= \frac{\int F dx}{\Delta v}}$

But this missed the other aspects of mass.

Gravitational mass always equals inertial mass. There is no immediate, obvious reason this would need to be true.  Until physicists made advances in relativity and particle physics, there was no known reason. In fact that is another definition of mass:

Definition 2 of mass: $\mathbf{m:= \tfrac{Fr^2}{Gm_0}}$, plus assignment of a definitional benchmark mass $\mathbf{m_0}$ to a neutron at rest.

This is similar to the definition of electric charge and strong nuclear force parameters. For example, compare to:

Definition of charge: $\mathbf{q:= \tfrac{Fr^2}{k_eq_0}}$ , plus assignment of a definitional benchmark charge $q_0$ to an electron.

It is this definition of mass is the most normal and consistent with other fundamental forces in classical physics. What's unique about mass is that, unlike with other forces such as electric charge, this same parameter controls other properties, which would be surprising if we weren't used to it. (And it would still be considered given, or a fluke, if not for general relativity and quantum mechanics ultimately reconciling them.)

Mass always implies energy-matter, and not simply in the way that all fundamental forces create energy. A particle with mass accelerates another particle giving it energy, and the energy is $\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2$. While a charged particle does accelerate another particle giving it energy, the energy is not expressed as $\tfrac{1}{2}qv^2$. This is discussed to distinguish kinetic energy from energy-matter to clarify that it's a third, separate aspect. Kinetic energy relates more to the above definitions. The kinetic energy equation is directly from $F=ma$ integrating $E= \int F dx$
More fundamental than K.E., the mass is a store of energy itself, not just a carrier of energy while in motion due to its inertia.

Definition 3 of mass: $\mathbf{m:= \tfrac{E}{c^2}}$

Summary
Any of these definitions fully defines mass, and there are no immediate reasons that
$$m_{inertial}=m_{gravitational}=m_{energetic}$$
should necessarily be true. A good understanding of general relativity and quantum mechanics is necessary to know why.
Comment: The special theory of relativity may be used to derive that $m_{inertial} = m_{energetic}$ (hence Einstein's famous $E=mc^2$). The general theory of relativity explains why inertial and gravitational mass are the same.
Comment: @EricSmith "There is no immediate reason this would need to he true. Until physicists made advances in particle physics, there was no reason." was my attempt to say it is ultimately reconcilable, just not immediately and obviously. And not before 1900. I will change ir to "advances in relativity"
Comment: But wasnt very clear. I made that change. I also added the final sentence, and a third pointer to that fact. As far as I saw, my answer is the only one that identified these three aspects of mass at all. Only one even referenced gravity. Another said kinetic energy was a completely independent aspect (but just comes from F=ma)
Comment: What about adding $$m := \frac{ \int F {\rm d}t}{\Delta v}$$ as a definition, describing the relationship between impulse and speed change.
Comment: @JohnAlexiou Finally remembered to change this. Btw interestingly Ive used that form twice recently (in an explicit sense, of course we always use it) 1. https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/659959/
Comment: 2. https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/660460/307354 people are having a lot of fun figuring out chains. https://youtu.be/bcsb1xAv7XA

Why does mass limit acceleration?


Did the Prophet (SAW) have a sex slave?

Question:
It was narrated from Anas, that the Messenger of Allah had a female slave with whom he had intercourse, but 'Aishah and Hafsah would not leave him alone until he said that she was forbidden for him. Then Allah, the Mighty and Sublime, revealed:
"O Prophet! Why do you forbid (for yourself) that which Allah has allowed to you.' until the end of the Verse.
أَخْبَرَنِي إِبْرَاهِيمُ بْنُ يُونُسَ بْنِ مُحَمَّدٍ، حَرَمِيٌّ - هُوَ لَقَبُهُ - قَالَ حَدَّثَنَا أَبِي قَالَ، حَدَّثَنَا حَمَّادُ بْنُ سَلَمَةَ، عَنْ ثَابِتٍ، عَنْ أَنَسٍ، أَنَّ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم كَانَتْ لَهُ أَمَةٌ يَطَؤُهَا فَلَمْ تَزَلْ بِهِ عَائِشَةُ وَحَفْصَةُ حَتَّى حَرَّمَهَا عَلَى نَفْسِهِ فَأَنْزَلَ اللَّهُ عَزَّ وَجَلَّ { يَا أَيُّهَا النَّبِيُّ لِمَ تُحَرِّمُ مَا أَحَلَّ اللَّهُ لَكَ } إِلَى آخِرِ الآيَةِ .
كتاب عشرة النس 36  The Book of Kind Treatment of Women (4) Chapter: Jealousy (4) باب الْغَيْرَةِ
Sunan an-Nasa'i 3959
Answer: Having sex with a slave that one owns is permissible in Islam as they are "those your right hand possesses" as mentioned in the verses 23:6 and 4:3. For details on this see Are Muslim men allowed to take "sex slaves?"
Having sex with a such a slave was also permissible for the Prophet Muhammad ﷺ as the Quran explicitly states:

يا أيها النبي إنا أحللنا لك ... وما ملكت يمينك مما أفاء الله عليك
O Prophet, indeed We have made lawful to ... those your right hand possesses from what Allah has returned to you [of captives]
— Quran 33:50

Scholars have recorded that the Prophet ﷺ had either two or four concubines:

Mariyah al-Qibtiyyah was a slave among the gifts sent to the Prophet ﷺ by al-Muqawqis the ruler of Egypt. She became the Prophet's Umm Walad by giving birth to his son Ibrahim. The hadith you have quoted is likely referring to her.

Rayhaanah from the tribe of  Banu Nadir or Banu Qurayza. She was from the prisoners of war that were captured after the Jewish tribes were invaded.

Another captive of war.

A concubine who was gifted to him by his wife Zaynab bint Jahsh.

Ref:

فصل في سراريه - صلى الله عليه وسلم -قال أبو عبيدة : كان له أربع: مارية وهي أم ولده إبراهيم، وريحانة، وجارية أخرى جميلة أصابها في بعض السبي، وجارية وهبتها له زينب بنت جحش
Section on the concubiness of the Prophet ﷺ - Abu 'Ubaydah said: He had four: Mariyah who was the mother of his son Ibraheem; Rayhanah; another beautiful slave women who he got among some of the prisoners of war; and a slave woman who was given to him by Zaynab bint Jahsh.
— Zaad al-Ma'aad also see Tarikh al-Tabari and Al-Bidaya wa'l-Nihaya
Comment: Thanks for the answer
Answer:
Quran 4:25:
"And whose is not able to afford to marry free women, let them marry from believing maids whom your right hands possess. This is for him who fear to commit Sin.."

What Sin?
How to prevent from committing that Sin?
Quran answer: Marry from right hand possess.
Hence, Quran prohibit sex with right hand possess outside marriage (Sin). If sex was allowed with right hand possess outside marriage, then Quran won't mention this act as 'Sin'.

Hadees: Many Hadees collected are not genuine. Bukhari/Muslim hadees were written many years (250-300 years) after Prophet ﷺ death.

Hadees were passed orally & then written down after several years.
— Prophet Mohammad ﷺ to
— Sahaba (disciple) to
— Tabaeen (disciple childrens or new muslims) to
— Taba Tabaeen (Tabeen childrens or new muslims) to
— Imam Bukhari/Muslim who wrote down in their books.
Further, many hadees in same book (with saheeh chain of narration) contradicts each other. Hence, all cannot be genuine.
Conclusion: When Quran contradict hadees, then Quran is the only book that should be followed.

Sunan Nisai 3959 - is not about sex slavery but honey which Prophet ﷺ forbade upon himself. Hadees have contradictions.

Hadees: This incident has been reported in Hadith books and History books primarily under exegesis of Quran 66:1-4. There are two separate incidents reported under exegesis of Quran 66:1-4. The first one is what has been referred to in the Question and is included in the following books of Hadith:
From Anas bin Malik (rta) (all variants with more or less the same wording):
Sunan Nisai 3959 (https://sunnah.com/nasai:3959), Sunan Nisai Al-Kubra 11539 and 8857 (through one same chain of narrators), Mustadrak lil Hakim 2/492, Sunan-Al Kubra Bayhaqi 7/351 (through same primary chain of narrators), Al-Ahadith-ul-Mukhtara by Al-Muqdasi 1694.
From Umar bin Khattab (rta):
Al-Ahadith-ul-Mukhtara by Al-Muqdasi 189, Jamay Al-Bayan by Tabri 23/88 (Tafsir-e-Tabri).
Abdullah Ibn-e-Abbas (rta):
Al-Moajam Al-Awsat Tabarani 8764.
These are all the references in which some narrators (one or two), despite having some weaknesses can be taken to the level of Hassan or Sahih. The rest of all the narrations in history books and tafsir books are either with broken chains or include narrators who fabricate narrations or lie or are weak/extremely weak.
Answer — But none of these narrations come from the first-hand source i.e. people who were involved in the incident like Ayesha (rta) or Hafsa (rta). These kinds of narrations are called Mursal of a Sahabi, which may or may not be accepted depending on different factors; and one of these factors which render this narration as non-acceptable is the second incident reported under exegesis of same verses of Quran 66:1-4 by Ayesha (rta) herself, and is reported in the primary Hadith Books including Bukhari and Muslim, please see:
https://sunnah.com/bukhari:5267
https://sunnah.com/bukhari:6691
https://sunnah.com/muslim:1474b
https://sunnah.com/nasai:3958
https://sunnah.com/abudawud:3714
and several other books.
Imam Nisai himself wrote in Sunan Al-Kubra after narrating this incident by Ayesha (rta):
هذا الحديث إسناده جيدغاية صحيح، حديث عائشة هذا في العسل
"This hadith has a very good chain of narration, and it is Sahih. This hadith of Ayesha is about honey".
(Excerpt from Sunan Nisai Al-Kubra 5584)
It can be seen that this incident reported with a stronger chain of narrators and in primary books of hadith contradicts the incident referred to in the question. In addition to this, this incident comes from first-hand source which is Ayesha (rta) herself as opposed to Mursal of a Sahabi. Therefore, many exegetes have concluded that the narration of Bukhari correctly depicts the incident. For instance, Al-Qurtubi mentions the story of Ayesha (rta) and Honey followed by narrations that include Maria (rta), then he writes:
أَصَحُّ هَذِهِ الْأَقْوَالِ أَوَّلُهَا وَأَضْعَفُهَا أَوْسَطُهَا
"The most correct of these opinions is the first of them, and the weaker of them are the others"
(Tafsir al-Qurtubi 66:1 – 18/179)
Ibn-al-Arabi concludes:
وَإِنَّمَا الصَّحِيحُ أَنَّهُ كَانَ فِي الْعَسَلِ وَأَنَّهُ شَرِبَهُ عِنْدَ زَيْنَبَ وَتَظَاهَرَتْ عَلَيْهِ عَائِشَةُ وَحَفْصَةُ فِيهِ وَجَرَى مَا جَرَى فَحَلَفَ أَلَّا يَشْرَبَهُ وَأَسَرَّ ذَلِكَ وَنَزَلَتْ الْآيَةُ فِي الْجَمِيعِ
"And the only authentic narration is that it was about honey, that the Prophet drank it with Zainab (rta), and Ayesha (rta) and Hafsa (rta) pretended to be offended by it. There occurred what occurred and the Prophet made an oath never to drink it again. He confided that to his wife and the verse was revealed regarding all of them".
(Ahkam al-Quran 66:1 – 4/294)

Did the Prophet (SAW) have a sex slave?


How can I use a 3rd party search appliance to build my searches?

Question: I'd like to use Algolia (a cloud-based search provider) for building my search indexes instead of using SOLR. Is that possible? How could I get started?
Answer: Have you checked out the custom search provider for Algolia here?
Comment: Just to add a bit of "info for newbies" to this perfect answer. Sitecore is a simple set of items in databases (duh) which are combined with presentation files to create web pages (I know that). This said, an outside crawler can simply swipe the web pages (Google GSA, Coveo Web Connector) or the database content (Coveo DB and Coveo Sitecore Legacy Connector, and probably others).
Comment: Second part.... Now Sitecore released the Search Provider in version 7  with the default Lucene. The providers declare themselves as indexes in the Sitecore.ContentSearch namespace. This will then tell Sitecore who are the indexes. This is the approach used by Solr, Coveo and any third parties wishing to integrate in Sitecore. I would always recommend products using the Search Provider approach since they will be reactive to the indexing and publishing pipelines. This seems to be the case of Algolia here.
Comment: Third part... Note that you could always create your how search provider in order to send your content to your favorite engine, such as ElasticSearch or the Coveo Push API.
Answer: There is no built in search provider / functionality for Algolia as oppose to Lucene / Solr / Azure Search.
To support Algolia as search provider you would need to have these functionalities:

Create / Update Index or shortly indexing
Search capabilities

1) Indexing
Can be achieved using repository mentioned already by Michael in his answer for Sitecore 7-8.x -> https://github.com/dharnitski/Sitecore.Algolia
For Sitecore 9.1+ you can use my fork of that repository -> https://tothecore.sk/2019/05/21/algolia-index-provider-for-sitecore-9-1
I have made there some significant changes:

.NET Target Framework bumped to 4.7.2
Sitecore referenced nuget packages bumped to Sitecore 9.1 versions
Removed completely Algolia.Search project and replaced it with 5.2.1 version of
Algolia.Search nuget which makes solution much simpler and future
proof; I have used version 5.2.1 as it's the last to use
Newtonsoft.JSON 11.0.2 so same as Sitecore 9.1 uses not to have
version conflicts
Removed switches for old Sitecore 8 versions as
needed for Sitecore 9.1

2) Searching
Can be easily achieved without implementing search provider as Algolia uses it's Javascript library (similarly to Coveo) called InstantSearch:
https://www.algolia.com/doc/guides/building-search-ui/what-is-instantsearch/js/
They have implementations available for various JS libraries / frameworks like Angular, React, Vue, ...
You can also use their c# api client for searching -> https://www.algolia.com/doc/api-client/getting-started/install/csharp/


Setting up DNSsec for an exotic TLD

Question: I have a .money domain name and I would like to implement DNSSEC. My registrar is GoDaddy and their DNSSEC management system does not support .money.
How can I easily setup DNSSEC for my domain?
Comment: [.money should support DNSSEC](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Internet_top-level_domains). So it's a question of your registrar. For DNSSEC to work you need to deploy a (DS?) record in the parent zone (i.e. .money) and handle all the stuff on your DNS server yourself. For this it is generally recommended to find a DNS provider that will support DNSSEC and pass the DS record via support ticket to the registrar who will likely place it in the parent zone.
Comment: @SEJPM sounds like an answer to me
Answer: .money is one of the new top level domains (TLDs), as such it (by itself) should support DNSSEC.
This turns the DNSSEC support into a question of your registrar. As you noted already, it's not supported by default by your registrar and its DNS services.
This leaves you only the option to run your own DNS server with DNSSEC server and by "own" I mean either really your own BIND server (not recommended) or some DNS provider who automatizes DNSSEC for you.
Running DNS yourself however isn't the full solution to deploy DNSSEC. You also need to a) inform your registrar that you don't want to use his DNS servers anymore, but your own (this should be a standard thing) and b) tell the registrar the so called "DS" record. The registrar than needs to put the DS record into the parent zone (i.e. .money), which should be done by a short support ticket along with the DS record.
Answer: All "new" gTLDs support DNSSEC, this is made mandatory by ICANN contracts to registries.
Now the issue may be with registrars. There are two parts: you need (currently, but we are starting to see solutions like in .DK with Cloudflare doing otherwise) to go through your registrar to make it send to the registry the necessary DS or DNSKEY records. This is basically when you are maintaining the  DNS yourselves. The other part is when the registrar is doing the DNS service for you (in which case it still needs to send DNSSEC parameters to the registry, but this becomes hidden to you).
Again, ICANN contracts mandate all registrars to support sending DNSSEC key materials to the registry. However it does not mandade them (as this is in fact totally unrelated to their registration service) to have DNS services that support DNSSEC.
So you will first need to understand in which of the 2 cases you are. And be warned that handling yourself your DNS servers while enabling DNSSEC on them is not a small task/commitment.
In all cases, did you ask your registrar for help? If it is unable or unwilling to help you for a service you pay, it may be a sign you should change where you shop...

Setting up DNSsec for an exotic TLD


Emails from Email Service

Question: Where can I find the old emails which were sent to an Email Service if I am not storing them myself ? Will they have any attachment that they came with ?
Answer: Have you tried checking the emailmessage object records? and regarding the email retention I found a help article that states "For every email with attachment sent from an org, records are created in the EmailMessage object and the Attachment object"  and "If attachments were not deleted by an end-user, attachments can be found in the search result records for up to 30 days".
Comment: Thank you very much for your input and that article. How do I see the emails in the EmailMessage ? Also, just to make myself clear : I am speaking of emails received in an Email Service, from an external non-Salesforce email sender. I'm not sure if that is what you're talking about. I've been doing queries of the EmailMessage object in Workbench and haven't been able to find the email I am hoping to find.

Emails from Email Service


How will I answer a call from potential employer in the office of current employer?

Question: I don't want my colleagues to be suspicious about me looking for other company. What should I do?
Comment: How would you take any other personal call? On your mobile or desk phone? Do you have meeting rooms you can wander into and close the door?
Comment: Related (not duplicate) question - http://workplace.stackexchange.com/q/7190/2322
Comment: If you're in the US, you could use a free Google voice number, and only give out that number. https://support.google.com/voice/answer/150640?hl=en When calling people back, you'll have to press *67 to mask your cell phone number from their caller id. Definitely, do not post your real cell phone number on a job board, you'll get flooded with calls from desperate 3rd party recruiters. The Google Voice number has the added advantage that it can send you a good transcript of the voice mail immediately by text or by email (assuming the person doesn't have a strong accent).
Answer: If you are scheduling the call, schedule it for a time when you can step out of the office, such as a lunch break or outside of working hours. You may need to change when you normally take you breaks to make the phone calls, but it's not unusual for people to change their break times for appointments, at least in places I've worked.
If you aren't scheduling the call and they call you, you can ignore the phone call or send it straight to voicemail. After they leave a message, you can listen to it and try to call them back on a break or, if you have email communication with the caller, you can respond to them via email. Regardless of what you do, you can make the call or send the email when it's convenient for you to have privacy.
Email is definitely the more discreet method of communication, but it's not unusual to have to schedule phone screens during the day. Using your break times and any kind of flexible working arrangements (such as coming in 30 minutes earlier to leave 30 minutes earlier to make phone calls) appropriately can help.
As Kent Anderson said in a comment, you shouldn't use your work email or phone for communication with prospective companies. Instead, use your personal email address and phone number. Communication on your company's systems may be monitored for usage.
Comment: @KentAnderson I didn't put that because I figured it would be obvious. I should include it. The same goes for your work phone (although some recruiters do try to call you on your work phone - they get a very prompt hang-up from me).
Comment: @AmyBlankenship Fixed. I always do that.
Comment: Hopefully this doesn't need to be said, but *do not use your current work email address for such correspondence.* Companies can and do scan emails for various reasons. If your goal is to be discreet, don't use company resources in your job hunting activities.
Comment: And even if, as @KentAnderson says, trying to be discreet, then don't use company resources anyway: it's just poor form.


Remote restart a Windows PC via Chromebook?

Question: So my situation is a little bit weird. I have a Desktop PC at home (Windows 10 64) and a ChromeBook for school (provided by my school) I have a VNC server set up at home that allows me to remotely connect to it from school on my chromebook, which is convenient for Photoshop, AE, etc. Sometimes my server crashes, or starts lagging really bad, and I want a way to be able to remotely restart it from a chromebook so I can get it back up and running without having to go home. If it isn't possible, can I do it with an iPhone?
Answer: Check out Chrome RDP in Chrome Web Store for your Chromebook to remote access your windows PC
OR
Download iDisplay to your iPhone and to your Windows PC to Remote access your desktop
Comment: Is there possibly a free alternative to Chrome RDP? Also, it seems a bit overkill. I might try it, but I'm looking for a small gadget that allows me to simply remotely restart. See, I prefer to use RealVNC because it works best for me, and using both RealVNC and ChromeRDP will probably lag, since they are both remote desktop services.
Comment: @JoshSilveous Actually there are several Web Applications out there in Chrome web store and I really need to know your requirements to use it. Otherwise it is simple as it is.
Comment: I'm not certain what you mean by requirements.. What I'm looking for is a simple interface that has a button that allows me to remotely trigger a restart on my computer. A remote Command Prompt would do aswell.
Comment: if possible check out if "windows remote desktop" is there for chromebook, but that gets lagging. So the best is to use iDisplay from your iPhone


What ranks can queue with unranked for MM?

Question: For purposes of 'competitive' MM what ranks can queue along side unranked players when there is not a full 5 man party?
Answer: In a 5 man lobby you can have all ranks, in other cases only 5 ranks plus or minus.
If you have unranked players and the lobby is not full, the ranks you can play with are from Silver 1 up to Master Guardian 1. It's made to disable CS:GO boosting companies and smurfs to queue with low ranks while playing on high rank. For example unranked account can't queue with Supreme, in the past it was possible so you could play as Supreme against MG ranks because your friend was on Silver or unranked account with very low hidden ELO ;) It's not possible anymore.
Answer: While there is no official documentation about this, I was able to join with a Silver-ranked person, but not with a gold nova-ranked person.
Answer: It's obviously that you can play only versus MGE or lower. When I was unranked, I couldn't play with my friend who was DMG, even if I got DMG after 10 wins.
Comment: I was mg2 at the time, and could not queue with unranked.
Answer: The highest rank I could get to was Master Guardian I.
When I got promoted past that, I was unable to play with unranked players any more.


What does Isentropic Efficiency actually mean?

Question: I know that Isentropic Efficiency is a comparison between the actual performance of something(turbine for example) and the performance that would be achieved under idealized circumstances for the same inlet and outlet. Let's say a turbine has an isentropic efficiency of 0.75. What does 0.75 mean and the rest (0.25) mean? Thank you
Answer: It means that, assuming adiabatic operation, for the same pressures in and out, the shaft work done by the turbine is 25% less and the enthalpy change of the flow stream is 25% less.  This, in turn, means that the enthalpy of the exit stream is higher by 25% of the isentropic work.  The decrease in the work is equivalent to the increase in the outlet enthalpy.  So the temperature of the exit stream is higher.
Comment: Sorry Chet. Posted my answer before seeing yours.
Comment: @BobD Oops.  Missed that.  Oh well, maybe our answers compliment one another.
Comment: Yes, because yours pointed out the higher exit temperature and mine referred to a higher exit enthalpy.
Answer: The isentropic turbine efficiency is the ratio of the actual work output of the turbine to the work output of the turbine if the turbine undergoes an isentropic (constant entropy) process between the same inlet and exit turbine pressures.
So if a turbine has an isentropic efficiency of 75% it means it does 25% less work than an ideal (isentropic) turbine due to entropy production in the process.
The work output of an adiabatic turbine is the difference between the inlet and exit enthalpies of the steam. An ideal turbine is both adiabatic and reversible, which makes it isentropic, making the exiting enthalpy a minimum. If it is adiabatic but not reversible, the exiting enthalpy will be greater, meaning there is less energy available for doing work. So we can define the isentropic efficiency, $E_s$ as follows
$$E_{s}=\frac{h_{i}-h_{e}}{h_{i}-h_{es}}$$
Where
$h_{es}$ = the exiting enthalpy for an isentropic process
$h_{e}$ = the actual exiting enthalpy
$h_{e}>h_{es}$
Hope this helps.


Hawking radiation and charge

Question: If black hole has a charge, they will lose charge due to Hawking radiation. If black hole has positive charge, it emit more positron than electron. And the same argument I can apply in rotating black hole. It sould be lose angular momentum due to Hawking radiation Is it right? How I can calculate it?
Answer: The entropy of a static black hole is given by Wald's entropy which is derived from Noether charge. Namely $$S_{W}=2\pi\oint_{\mathrm{H}}Q_{\zeta}$$
where $\mathrm{H}$ is horizon and $\zeta$ is the Killing vector and $\zeta=0$
on the horizon.
Now computing the Wald's entropy for the Einstein-Hilbert action gives the famous law for BH entropy which is given by
$$S_W=A(4G)^{-1}$$
where A is the area of the horizon. Now if you apply the same rule to the rotating BHs you will get the same area law plus some corrections. In order to do so you need to work in string framework to find the entropy for an extremal BH (ie rotating BH).
Look at this for example: http://arxiv.org/pdf/0901.0931v2.pdf
Comment: Minor comment to the post (v1): In the future please link to abstract pages rather than pdf files, e.g., http://arxiv.org/abs/0901.0931
Answer:
If black hole has a charge, they will lose charge due to Hawking radiation.

This is not correct. Black holes lose energy due to Hawking radiation,not charge. Have a look at my answer here.

If black hole has positive charge,

yes, there are charged black holes considered.

it emit more positron than electron.

The mechanism, Feynman diagrams, of Hawking radiation exist outside the horizon of the black hole. The charges of the black hole are within the horizon most of them at the classical singularity, some still falling in. These charges cannot get out of the black hole. Hawking radiation has equal probability of releasing a positive or negative particle, and thus cannot change the charge of a black hole,( by absorbing more pluses than minuses , for example).

And the same argument I can apply in rotating black hole.It sould be lose angular momentum due to Hawking radiatio

The argument cannot hold with hawking radiation, because the probabilities of being emitted at the horizon are balanced randomly in angular momentum. Unless one builds a very specific quantum mechanical model with the gravitons which interact to emit the hawking radiation.
How I can calculate it?
You would need to think up a successful model which would give higher probability for hawking radiation to happen in one direction of the rotation of the black hole than in the other.
Comment: If a black hole is charged and has a positive charge the hawking radiation it does emit will prefer positively charged particles to negatively charged particles. That is because the universe wants every single object(including black holes) to have zero charge. However if the black hole is negatively charged it will emit electrons or any negatively charged particle more often.
Comment: Only if the black hole is neutral the probability of the positive particle or negative particle is the same.
Comment: When I say positive or negative I am referring to its charge.
Comment: When physicists say positive or negative particle they mean it has positive or negative kinetic energy.
Comment: @RoghanArun  physicists I know, clearly define what they mean by positive and negative, work with quantum field theory and keep conservation laws in their calculations

Hawking radiation and charge


How do you say, "Do you need an interpreter?" in Japanese?

Question: How do you say, "Do you need an interpreter?" in Japanese?
I put it in google translate and it came up as 通訳が必要ですか. Is this correct? I don't trust google translate lol..
Answer: I've only recently started studying the language, but that looks ok I think.  It translates more literally to "Is an interpreter needed?".  You could start the sentence addressing the person by their name+さん, though I'm not sure if it would be correct to put them as the topic of the sentence or not. I hope someone else can elaborate further.


Unique Values from Core Data

Question: I have a core data-based app that manages records of auto dealerships.  Each record stores the dealer's address, which is broken into addressLine1, addressLine2, city, state, and zip components, each stored as a string in the data store.
I would like to present a list of cities with dealerships to the user, so I'm trying to figure out if it is possible to get a list of every unique city name that has been entered into the store.  I other words, is it possible to issue some sort of query against all of the dealership records that will return a list of distinct city names?
I would know how to do this easily with a SQL query, but (how) is this done in Core Data?
Thanks very much!
Answer: Core Data have the option to get distinct record. The method of getting unique results using NSArray and NSSets are not recommend.
[fetchRequest setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType];
NSDictionary *entityProperties = [entity propertiesByName];
[fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[entityProperties objectForKey:@"<<yourattrib>"]]];
[fetchRequest setReturnsDistinctResults:YES];

Refer Apple documentation and check the answers for How to fetch distinct values in Core Data?
Answer: You're right, there isn't an "easy" way to do this with Core Data, because Core Data is not a database.  However, it is possible.  Here's the general idea:

Fetch all your Dealer objects via an NSFetchRequest.  To simplify the query, you can set the fetch request to only fetch the city attribute.
Execute NSArray * uniqueCities = [fetchedDealers valueForKeyPath:@"@distinctUnionOfObjects.city"];
Answer: A quick way to ensure a unique set of things is to use NSSet. Once you have the results for a query on city take your NSArray and do
NSSet* uniqueResults = [NSSet setWithArray:resultsArray];

You can transform the set into another collection class if more convenient or just the object enumerator to do something with all of them. I do not know if this approach or the valueForKeyPath method from Dave DeLong is more efficient.

Unique Values from Core Data


Permanently Deleted Contact Records Keep Reappearing

Question: We are using CiviCRM with wordpress and we're trying to do a data cleanse to remove any out of date and spam contacts. None of the records we're trying to delete have financial data attached. We deleted over 500 records in batches using the permanently delete function and with each deletion the message appeared saying these records have been permanently deleted. At the time of deletion the total number of records reflected that these records had been deleted but the next day these records all reappear. Can anyone tell me how to resolve this please?
Comment: do you have any sort of script/job that is importing contacts from somewhere else? Are they exactly the same records (ie do an export of their name/email next time before you delete and then confirm that the new ones that appear are exact match)
Answer: I'm sharing this as I finally found a solution to the question I posted and hopefully it may help someone else who comes across a similar situation. Our organisation is membership based, so when a user sets up a record they are completing a Wordpress form, from which CiviCRM creates a Contact record. At the same time Wordpress creates a Profile which an administrator can access through Users in the menu options. When you look at a Contact record there is a field Contact ID / User ID and each is allocated a number, one of which is a blue link which takes you to the Profile record for that member. To delete a Contact record is very straightforward, but what I didn't realise is that before deleting the Contact record (CiviCRM), you need to delete the Profile record (Wordpress). The system is programmed to create a Contact record to match each Profile record, so if you only delete the Contact record it recreates the Contact record overnight. It's actually very straightforward but it's not covered in the User manual (at least not in the section that relates to deleting Contacts) and has taken me some time to resolve.
Please note, it may work differently for Drupal so it's worth checking if you are using a CMS other than Wordpress.
Comment: I've reproduced with just WP and Core CiviCRM.   This is intended behavior (well as designed).   Have  contact linked to a  CMS user.  delete the contact,  This should remove the uf_match entry.  permanently deleted - no contact, no entry in uf_match.  If the CMS user logins in again, CiviCRM creates a contact and adds to the uf_match table.   So if you want the CMS user gone, you need to do that manually.  The reasoning is the CMS user could have created content and we don't want to orphan content by deleting a contact.  At least that is why I never looked at changing the behavior.
Comment: hmm. yes it is true that a CMS user is connected to a civi record (uf_match table), but i have never seen a situation where if you delete civi user, and do not delete the CMS user (in our case Drupal), that the Civi contact is recreated. maybe a WP scenario only. The Documentation is a community resource - if you feel able to offer an edit then it could help other WP users.
Comment: maybe a WP plugin 'does' something over night that reruns the civi record creation?
Comment: have raised over here https://chat.civicrm.org/civicrm/pl/gwcn61pdj7nk7g8cba7dw3zk5c
Comment: Thanks for all your responses. Yes I'm happy to edit my comment to mention that it may work differently for Drupal. Interestingly it was a post on Google relating to Drupal that drew my attention to the solution.
Comment: Interestingly it was a post on Google relating to Drupal that drew my attention to the solution. I've been doing a data cleanse on our site over the weekend and it's definitely not a plug in that created the situation. It actually makes sense that it's the intended behaviour and I have no issue with how it works, but what would have been a huge help is if there was mention of it in the CiviCRM user guide - specifically in the section relating to deleting civi records.
Comment: The documentation is a community effort. so, like wikipedia, if you think something is wrong or could be improved then you are welcome to do so. if that seems too daunting, then if you supply a link here to the page in question then someone else in the community may tackle it.
Answer: Are those real contacts? Can you check the created date against the contact? It shows up at the bottom when you view the contact or you can grab from civicrm_contact.created_date using mysql.
If the dates are changing than it means those contact are created via Bots. Could check all the forms which are accessible to anonymous user have recaptcha installed these includes user registration, membership signup or event registration etc? Include recaptcha on all your Civi profile forms. Visit the permission page to check if anonymous user is allowed to create contact.
Comment: I've checked a handful of the contacts I know I had already deleted and yes the contacts are being created with a new date. My know how of the system is not sufficient to work out exactly how they're doing it but I've  added captcha boxes on any profile forms where it was missing. I already updated the permission page to stop anonymous users creating contracts. I will see tomorrow morning if I've blocked all the possible avenues. Thank you I really appreciate your help.