why dose reentry speed need to be so fast

Question: I have been wondering this since I was a kid.  watching films of capsules and shuttles heating up and all that tile trouble and work that went into all. I would always wonder why they dont slow down before entering the atmosphere.
Comment: When you start off from earth, 90%-95% of your weight is fuel.  By the time you make it to orbit, <5% of your total remaining weight is fuel.  It's impossible to get to orbit with enough fuel to decelerate that much.  Moreover, air drag can do a lot of that deceleration for you as long as you can manage the heat.
Comment: Have a look at the proposed possible duplicate in the previous comment. If you think there is something that you would like to know that is not answered in the answers posted to that question, can you edit your question here and make those aspects clearer? *Welcome to Space!*
Comment: Slowing down before entering the atmosphere is not cheap, it is extreamly expensive. You need a very large rocket to do this, not on Earth but in orbit with the capsule.
Comment: They don't slow down for reentry, for about the same reason you don't slow down just above the ground when falling from a tall building. The air, for reentry, serves the purpose of the concrete when falling from a building. it is all that is available to slow you down.
Answer: Capsules do it this way because they are purposefully slowing down by plunging through the atmosphere. This aerobraking is a relatively cheap way to slow down, but has unfortunate thermal effects requiring heatshields.
This is not the only way to re-enter though. Given enough fuel, it's perfectly possible for a ship to burn its engines and slow down to a relative stop in space, and then fall vertically down through the atmosphere. This is essentially how a landing on the moon takes place. However in practice a braking burn to remove all the speed in a low earth orbit requires massive amounts of fuel in orbit, which means even more massive amounts of fuel to lift that fuel into orbit to begin with. The rocket equation hits hard here, and the initial rocket would be ridiculously large and expensive (if even possible at all).
Maybe some day when we are bringing back tons of rocket fuel from asteroids to earth orbit, a ship could use that fuel to slow down, and just parachute down to a gentle landing.  We are nowhere near that in practice however. Compared to the fuel requirements, a heat shield is a much simpler and cheaper method.
Answer: When you are in orbit round the Earth, you are going at about 8km/sec (about 18,000mph) and when you are arriving from "outside" (the Moon or Mars) you will be falling in at about 11km/sec. When you are sitting on the ground, you are going at 0km/sec. So that is the amount by which you have to change your velocity. The question is: how?
One way is to fire a rocket. This is how you slow down when landing on the Moon (where the orbital velocity is five times slower). Every metre-per-second of velocity change requires a certain amount of fuel. 8,000 metres per second require a lot of fuel. Moreover, all that fuel has to be carried up from the Earth in the first place, so you need more fuel just so you can launch that fuel into space.
Another way of going from 8-11km/sec to 0km/sec is to let the atmosphere slow you down. That uses no fuel at all. But, as you have noticed from the coverage you have watched, all the energy of that high speed turns into heat.
At the beginning of space flight it was not known whether it would be possible to use the atmosphere to slow you down, and still survive without burning up. In the authoritative Interplanetary Flight by Arthur C. Clarke (1960) there is still a lot of doubt about this. In fact, the method we now use - falling directly through the atmosphere - was actually considered impossible. What people were looking at instead was what we now call "aerobraking", dipping briefly into the atmosphere to lose speed and out of it to radiate the resultant heat, but nobody had any idea whether those could work.

To summarise: you have to get rid of between 8 and 11 km/sec. You can't carry the fuel with you to do it by rocket. So you have to use the air, which needs no fuel.

Aerobraking, by the way, turns out not to be very useful, at least for a return to Earth. It depends on spending some time in the atmosphere, slowing down but getting hot, and some time outside the atmosphere, radiating away the heat. Radiation is a very slow way of losing heat.

If you use a heat shield, a fast re-entry is better than a slow one because it is hotter and the burning gases keep the heat away from the craft itself; and also because the
heat shield does not have to burn for such a long time.
If you use insulation or "hot construction", then a fast re-entry
is better than a slow one because it lasts less long and the heat
has less time to penetrate into the craft itself and cook everybody.


SQL Compact, new DataSet, identity column in reverse order and no commit?

Question: I created a new .dsf database for my application. I added just one table with two columns, "ID" (int, auto-increment, step=1, start=1) and another column called "Name" of nchar.
Then I added a new datagrid, choosing the dataset (strongly typed one) created with the table from dsf database. The grid allows me to add news rows, but the column "ID" shows that the row just added as an id of "-1" and so on adding more rows.
In addition, no changes are made on .dsf. Sad, what I'm doing wrong? This is driving me crazy...
EDIT SEE PICTURE BELOW: simple example.. I added a few lines in the table (using visual studio editor).
<code>    public Form1()
    {
        InitializeComponent();
        TabellaTableAdapter ta = new TabellaTableAdapter();
        ta.Fill(dataSet1.Tabella); // Fill the dataset with "Tabella" content
    }

    private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e)
    {
        Data.DataSet1.TabellaRow newrow = dataSet1.Tabella.NewTabellaRow();
        newrow.Name = textBox1.Text; // Set the "Name" field
        dataSet1.Tabella.AddTabellaRow(newrow); // Add the new row
        dataSet1.Tabella.AcceptChanges(); // Commit
    }
</code>
Pressing the button creates those new rows (with negative ids) and no changes are commited back to the database:
Answer: Do those ID values change after an AcceptChanges?
Comment: see the picture.. no changes at all, what I'm missing?


When must I use and verify nonce?

Question: I'm developing a WordPress site which posts a number of ajax calls from jquery to PHP and returns data from PHP to jquery.
I need to know when must I use and verify nonce?
Answer: Nonces should be used to verify intent of the user, especially on destructive actions.
Imagine there is a link user can click to delete a post. User can do it, so when they click is a post gets deleted.
Now imagine someone else tricks user into clicking this link (look at this cat pic!). User still can do it, so from access perspective they are allowed to and a post still gets deleted. But it wasn't their intent to delete anything in this situation.
Nonce adds a level of protection into these situations by limiting the action to a specific user in a specific span of time. If nonce is used then that very specific nonce needs to be used to trick user into taking an action.
Answer: You would use a nonce to help verify that the request came from a page generated by your website.
If you verify a nonce that comes with an AJAX request, then there's a pretty good chance that the request came from your site's front-end, where wp_create_nonce() was run, rather than a bot, 3rd-party application, or malicious script sending a request to your admin-ajax.php file.
Take note of this message from the documentation however (emphasis mine):

They help protect against several types of attacks including CSRF, but
  do not protect against replay attacks because they aren't checked for
  one-time use. Nonces should never be relied on for authentication or
  authorization, access control. Protect your functions using
  current_user_can(), always assume Nonces can be compromised.

So they're far from the only thing you should use to secure your requests, but they can provide an extra layer for certain types of attacks.

When must I use and verify nonce?


Shared database between Daedalus and Cardano-node

Question: I just started diving into the command line tools and as a first step I want to get a Cardano node running. My question is, whether it's a good idea to use the database from the Daedalus wallet (under $HOME/Library/Application Support/Daedalus Mainnet/chain on macOS) and point the cardano-node argument database-path there? Will there be any conflicts between the node instance and Daedalus, perhaps when running them at the same time?
Answer: I do something like this on Linux to conserve space. Only one node can share the chain state at the same time though. Further, if you switch back and forth between newer/older version of cardano-node, it will trigger ledger state rebuilds which take a while before the node is functioning. If your only goal is to be able to use the CLI, you can start Daedalus and set CARDANO_NODE_SOCKET_PATH to the path in Daedalus.
Comment: Ah, just found a post that it's supposed to be at $HOME/Library/Application Support/Daedalus Mainnet/cardano-node.socket
Comment: Thanks! Yes, I noticed the rebuild after launching Daedalus again, which is actually a dealbreaker then for me for this setup. In any case, your suggestion is perhaps the best way for now, thanks for this hint. Just a quick follow-up question: I am not sure where the socket is actually located, I can't find it either in Application Support or within the App package...


LED fuel indicator instead of halogen

Question: I have this problem which is driving me crazy: I want a LED light to indicate when my motorbike is running on emergency fueltank. The system works with a normal halogen bulb, and the system is generating 13,5V whenever is runs on the emergency tank. When the fuel level is above the critical limit, it Will generate ni voltage which is just fine. But, whenever i change the halogen light bulb to s LED with an appropiate resistor it stats on forever and generate 13,5 V ni matter what the fuel level is. It's maybe Nice to know, that whenever the system start it Will turn on the fuel indicator for 2 sec, and turn off again, it's like it's testing for something. Best regards
Answer: The LED isn't a heavy enough load to pull the voltage down.  Apparently whatever was driving the halogen can "leak" a bit, and the designers thought it was okay because the halogen wouldn't show it.
For a quick solution, you could put a second resistor in parallel with the LED/resistor combination that is roughly the same or slightly higher resistance than the halogen was.  Note that halogens, like incandescent bulbs in general, increase their resistance when they get hot, so you might want to account for that by a factor of 2 or 3 from the cold measurement.  Also don't forget to handle the power as Watts = Volts^2/Ohms.
Or you could redesign the driving circuit to allow a lighter load.
Comment: Thank you for yout reply. I'm at 1. Semestre at electrical engeneering and tour suggestion sounds very likely. When i get the opppotunity to test it i Will com back here
Answer: Something might be providing a small trickle of current, which was not enough to light the halogen but is enough for the LED.
This could be the sensor for a failed lightbulb, or if it's not such a fancy bike, perhaps some current leaking through the fuel gauge.
Try connecting a 1 watt 220 Ohm resistor in parallel with your LED+resistor, that might draw enough current to prevent the LED from lighting.
It could also be that the circuit provides a low voltage, not enough to light the halogen but the LED only needs 2 volts or so. Try a 6 V Zener, reverse biased, in series with the LED, and reduce the series resistor accordingly.
Let us know what you find, there might be another way.
Answer: My guess that the low-fuel sensor is a NTC thermistor.  The light bulb consumes enough current that the thermistor tries to heat up.  When it is submerged in fuel, it can't get hot enough to lower its resistance to the point where the bulb glows brightly.
When the fuel level drops below the sensor, it self-heats and the resistance drops.  Current to the lamp increases and it illuminates brightly.
You need to provide a similar load as the original light bulb.

LED fuel indicator instead of halogen


Why is the surface of a liquid slanted when it is accelerated?

Question: Consider a uniformly horizontally accelerated tube of water. I know that the fluid experiences a pseudo force in addition to its own weight, so that it reaches equilibrium in the below diagram.

But why can't the water also exert a force like this, so it can be in equilibrium horizontally?
Comment: The surface of the liquid is going to be perpendicular to the total acceleration, including gravity.  If you have a cup sitting on a table then the only acceleration is gravity, and the surface is perpendicular to it.  When accelerating the cup from a different direction, the total acceleration vector is going to be slanted.  The new "normal" vector represented by the surface will also be slanted.
Answer: The reason that the second diagram you drew cannot represent what is happening is that it will not satisfy Newton's 2nd law for all parcels of fluid in the tank.  Imagine that you had a tank like the one shown in the diagrams and, rather than accelerating it, you just tilt it at an angle so that base is no longer horizontal.  Basically, what you ave done is change the direction of gravity relative to the sides of the container.  Would you expect the water surface to remain parallel to the base of the container, or would you expect it to be horizontal again (but tilted relative to the base).  What you have done in the acceleration experiments is to add a pseudo-gravitational force component in the direction opposite to the acceleration.  So now, the effective gravity is no longer pointing in the vertical direction.  Thus, the surface of the fluid must readjust to again be perpendicular to the new effective gravitational direction (which is not vertical).
If you do a force balance on a small parcel of fluid within the system having sides dx, dy, and dz, the force balance in the y (vertical) direction reduces to:$$\frac{\partial p}{\partial y}=-\rho g$$The force balance in the x (horizontal) direction reduces to:$$\frac{\partial p}{\partial x}=-\rho a$$where a is the acceleration.  The variation of pressure with position is given by:
$$dp=\frac{\partial p}{\partial x}dx+\frac{\partial p}{\partial y}dy=-\rho adx-\rho g dy$$  It follows from this that the surfaces of constant pressure are given by:$$\frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{a}{g}$$  The free surface is a contour of constant pressure.
Answer: For the sake of simplicity, let's assume it's a cubical container of water. The concept remains the same.
Look at the "free body diagram" of the water itself. As you noted, one side of the water is higher than the other. The surface is slanted.
The water is accelerating, so we know that there must be a net horizontal force acting on it. We also know that the only horizontal forces that are possible in our case are due to the pressure forces acting on the water via $P=\gamma*H$.
The only way the water can accelerate is if the force on one side is greater than the force on the other side. The only way this can happen is if the pressure on one side is greater than the pressure on the other side. The only way this can happen is if one side of the water is higher than the other. Again, $P=\gamma*H$.
The forces acting on the water in the $x-direction$ can be derived using calculus.
Answer: The reason your proposed force can't work is because water is a fluid.
Solids are locked into place, so they can both resist compression and resist shearing (the sideways force in your diagram). Fluids can only resist compression; they cannot resist a sideways shearing. This is precisely what makes fluids flow in the first place.
Answer: Slice the water in the latter case into layers that are perpendicular to the net force. All the layers in this case would be squeezed by the layers of water above them, so they would expand until they could no longer do so - in other words, when each layer extends from left wall of the container to the right wall (or the bottom, if the acceleration is high enough). This case would look like your first picture.
A more mathematical explanation would be that the slanted case is the configuration with the lowest potential energy. But proving that should involve some tedious steps, especially if you assume that the water could be in any shape in the end.
Answer: Imagine yourself inside a car at rest with 10 cm deep water inside it. Label the surface level as 0.
While stopped the water level is at rest, i.e. parallel to the Earth surface.
Next you accelerate the car motor:
The mass of the water is not rigid (is not ice) and it is not firmly linked to the car.
Move ahead the car a little - the water mass will lag a little because the motion could not be transmitted at once to it, without delay. Then:
The front of the car will present a water deficit (imagine a hole between the car and the water). Next moment - the water will fall into that hole and the surface level is negative.
In the rear of the car we have an accumulation of the initial water plus the water that is not present in the front of it - Then the water level will have to be positive; higher then the level 0.
The inertia law, aka the 1st Newton law, is at work in relation to the liquid mass and is often stated as - An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
The water level will be balanced to 0 after the acceleration stopped, whatever the velocity.


Death triggers and the stack

Question: Now upon exiling a creature with a coin counter from Athreos, Shroud-Veiled with Flicker of Fate, does the triggered ability of Athreos, Shroud-Veiled take over and and stop the rest of the Flicker of Fate's effect?
Answer: No, after a triggered ability triggers, it is placed on the stack the next time a player would gain priority.

603.3. Once an ability has triggered, its controller puts it on the stack as an object that's not a card the next time a player would
  receive priority. See rule 117, "Timing and Priority." The ability
  becomes the topmost object on the stack. It has the text of the
  ability that created it, and no other characteristics. It remains on
  the stack until it's countered, it resolves, a rule causes it to be
  removed from the stack, or an effect moves it elsewhere.

No players gain priority during the resolution of a spell, so Athreos, Shroud-Veiled's trigger won't be placed on the stack until after Flicker of Fate finishes resolving.
Answer: No. Spells and abilities in Magic aren't interrupted like that.  The specifics on triggered abilities going onto the stack are covered by rule 603.3 in the Comprehensive Rules, triggers see what happen during a spell resolving, but wait until someone would get priority to be put on the stack in Active Player (the player who's turn it is) /Non-Active Player (every other player, in turn order) order. This is how the situation would resolve:

A player casts Flicker of Fate targeting a creature with a coin counter.
All players pass priority and Flicker of Fate starts resolving.
Flicker of Fate moves the creature into exile.
Flicker of Fate returns the creature to the battlefield.
Active player would receive priority, state based actions are checked and once all of those (if any) are resolved, Athreos' trigger is put on the stack.
Players all pass priority and Athreos' trigger starts to resolve.
Athreos' triggered ability tries to return the creature from exile, but the creature is not in exile, it does nothing.

Once a spell or ability starts to resolve, nothing happens until the entire ability finishes resolving, Not even if say the first half of the ability would cause someone to lose the game, the spell finishes resolving and then whatever that spell resolving triggered happens.

As a side note - If Athreos' ability had been written "If a creature with a coin counter would die or be put into exile, remove all damage and coin counters from it and put it on the battlefield under your control instead" then this wouldn't be a triggered ability anymore, it would create a replacement effect and Athreos would hijack the Flicker of Fate in that case, moving the creature to whoever controls Athreos' battle field rather than flickering it to exile and back. (The damage removal is needed because it never leaves the battlefield, and without it it'd likely just die again)
Comment: @Arthur - first replacement technically alters not interrupts, second I covered replacements in the aside

Death triggers and the stack


How to evenly space vertices along several segments bezier curve

Question: Is there a way I can separate the vertices on the the segments evenly without moving the end points? I would like for the vertices to maintain the current curve.
Comment: related: http://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/24153/vertex-slide-for-curves
Comment: What has worked for me is converting the bezier curve to a mesh curve, then using the "space" command from Loop Tools (see here: https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/7698/how-to-evenly-space-vertices) and finally converting back into a bezier curve.
Answer: As far as I know there is currently no way to do what you ask in Blender.
There currently is no tool to evenly place existing vertex long a curve.
This is now trivial to achieve using geometry nodes in recent versions of Blender 3.0+, otherwise read below for workarounds.
If you already have a curve with the desired shape and wish to add additional vertex you can use the Subdivide operator under the Specials Menu W key. This will evenly subdivide currently selected segments and place vertex along its length at regular intervals while trying to maintain the shape as best as possible.
One workaround you might use is using an array modifier on a mesh to reconstruct you curve.

Create a new mesh
Erase everything but one single edge
Place one of it's vertex on the object's origin so that the edge starts at local coordinates 0,0,0 and extends horizontally in X
Align that object with your curve (same object coordinates and same rotation)
Add an array modifier to the new mesh and set it to Fit Curve mode
Pick your curve as length object and turn on option Merge in the array modifier
Now add a Curve Modifier to the mesh and set it to use your same curve
You should now have a mesh with the same shape as your curve and evenly spaced vertex.
Adjust your mesh edge length to fit your desired level of detail or vertex spacing
Convert your mesh to a curve with Alt+C > Curve from mesh
Enter edit mode on newly created curve and set it's type to Bezier (Tool Shelf > Tools > Set Spline Type button)
Set it's handle types to Auto for smoothest results with the V menu Set handle type > Automatic

Hope this helps
Answer: For Future reference I found another method that may work for individual curve segments.
If your curve only has one segment, select both end points, then use the Subdivide operator and select the number of desired subdivisions, from the operator options panel.
Answer: For what it's worth, an alternative approach:

Convert curve to mesh
Extrude it so it's a surface: (name: curve_mesh)
Make a plane (name: tracing_geo), keep just one edge
Place first and last vertex on begin and end of mesh (curve_mesh)
Add a Subdivision Modifier to evenly increase vertices
Add a Shrinkwrap Modifier and stick it to curve_mesh

As desired you can add more vertices nondestructively. You could even do a bit of modelling with a few vertices.
This works well if you need to create many shapes with evenly spaced vertices.
Answer: Few steps to follow

Draw the curve as needed

Convert the curve to mesh

Activate loop tool addon (inbuild in Blender in all versions)

Right-click on the curve and select space

Convert the mesh to a curve

Convert the curve to bezier

A small video that can help you link is below.
https://i.stack.imgur.com/iufFT.jpg


Is there way to call Dreamweaver Mediator from C# TBB in Tridion?

Question: I have Dreamweaver code in one text block as string. What i need is will it be possible to call Dreamweaver mediator from C# TBB and pass the string in text block in Tridion
Comment: This sounds rather bizarre! Can you elaborate on what you're trying to achieve?
Comment: The reason you are finding this hard to achieve is that it doesn't fit the model. You shouldn't try to make your Components into Component Templates.
Comment: I have a component in tridion which has text field and it contians the "Dreamweaver Code". Then i have one TBB with which i have created CT and that CT is used to render this component. The TBB need to fetch the Dreamweaver Code in the text field of the component and by calling Dreamweaver mediator and execute the string fetched.
Comment: @AnandNatarajan: Why are you trying to place "Dreamweaver Code" in a text field? It doesn't looks like a right way. It would be better if you can elaborate on question with more details such as what "Dreamweaver Code" you placed
Comment: I'd bet money that between us we could figure out a way to do this. Tridion  is flexible enough. However, if I did figure it out, I don't think I'd tell you the answer. This is just wrong on so many levels! :-)
Answer: The Template expression language (sometimes referred to as Dreamweaver code) is designed to get content from Components in your layout.
There is the concept of a "double lookup" by using the @@ signs on the outside and the ${ on the inside, which you could use to parse values from a field from your Component, but I don't know of a way to call the Mediator from a C# TBB itself.
Answer: TBBs are self-contained by nature, and talk to each other by pushing or getting package variables in the TBB pipeline (the list of TBBs in Template Builder for a Compound Template).
We usually don't reuse HTML snippets from one DWT in many various Compound Templates.  It's a bit too granular and modular to do it like this.
Your C# TBB would push the processed data into a package variable (list of components, for example, or a processed field) and the the purpose of the DWT template is to simply output the package variable or Component field (it has access to all the Component fields) with HTML.  DWT templates are often the last or almost last TBB in a Compound Template, since their output is finished HTML.
Another way to think of a DWT template is a MS Word template where you put placeholder variables in a document and then connect it to a DB to render 100s of documents only pulling the variables (like name or address) from the DB and the hard coded text (HTML in DWT terms) remains in the doc.
I hope this is a little more clear now...


Future balance of loan balance

Question: I would like to know if there is a formula that could tell me the future balance of a loan. For example, if I have a loan of 10,000 at 6% for 5 years and I do the amortization it brings that the payment should be 193.33. After 3 monthly payments the balance would be 9,568. My question is, if there a formula where I can plug in the 10,000 and it would tell me how much the principal would change after 3 payments, which result should be 9568.
Comment: https://exceljet.net/excel-functions/excel-cumprinc-function
Comment: but aside of excel there is no mathematical formula for this purpose?
Comment: Excel certainly implements a mathematical formula (more probably a *series* formula inside the =CUMPRINC() function.
Comment: Hmm, the question referenced as a duplicate isn't the same question at all. That question asks how amortization schedules work and why the amount of the payment that goes to interest declines. This question asks for a formula for the balance. Someone gave an answer that included a formula that answers this person's question, but it's not at all clear how either the OP here or some future visitor looking for a formula would know that that answer included one.
Answer: Yes, there's a formula, but it's kind of complicated. The formula is:
b=P*(r+1)^n-m*((r+1)^n-1)/r
where:
n is the number of months (assuming monthly payments)
r is the monthly interest rate, expressed as a decimal, e.g. 2% is .02
P is the initial loan amount
m is the monthly payment
b is the balance after n months
Oh, and I'm using "computer notation" here: * is multiplication, / is division, and ^ means raise to the power.
The bank may also add interest from the date the loan was made until the first payment, which complicates the formula a little more.
I probably should write this formula down because every time I need it I ever to figure it out again. In practice I usually find it simpler to set up a spreadsheet. :-)
Oh, I should make clear that the interest rate r here is the MONTHLY interest rate, not considering compounding. So if you have an annual interest rate, divide by 12.
I ran your example through this formula and came up with $9567.86, which if we round off to the nearest dollar matches the number you expected.

Future balance of loan balance


Just wondering any algo strategy popular for vanilla bond trading?

Question: I got extensive experience on algo trading for cash equity, FX, so just wondering any algo strategy popular for vanilla bond trading?
Comment: High-frequency arbitrage still works on some exchanges, due to the illiquidity and latency of market makers, but don't look at the US. Aside from "technical" solutions, one of the standard "quantitative" approaches is three-steps: (1) plot the Z-spread/OAS curve and look for expensive vs. cheap cash (e.g. weird shapes and/or no monotonicity); (2) analyze the time series of both the expensive and the cheap cash  to assess whether a historical equilibrium is now temporarily broken; (3) realize how hard is to go short and hedge with some proxy futures instead ;)
Comment: "vanilla bond trading" - govys or corporates?
Answer: Most bond market makers have some sort of algo that does some or even most of the boring market-making for some or all of their bonds, which computers can do better than human traders. The two main motivations I can immediately think of are:

sometimes bond market makers are compelled (by a trading venue or by regulators) to publish a bid an ask for many bonds in which they're really not interested in. A computer program can publish bid and ask that 1) are not so unrealistic that they won't be accused of mocking the system 2) are, as much as possible, not the best. So the program finds the best bid and ask and publishes its own that are not as good, but also not clearly ridiculous, quickly changing them if the best quotes move. These obligatory quotes are very unlikely to be hit/lifted.

sometimes bond market makers use algo to publish indicative bid or ask for seldom-traded bonds, as a first approximation, and adjusts them for changing market conditions. If someone actually expresses interest, then a human trader verifies whether the computer's quotes actually make sense.

The models that generate these bid and ask can be quite interesting - looking, for example, at parsed news, at historical correlations of bonds (especially corporates) with all sorts of other market quotes, and at trade flows (supply and demand).


Does Google Hangouts SMS integrate with CiviCRM?

Question: SMS seems to be hit and miss at the moment, with Twillo and Clickatell as the only choices. Since Google Hangouts can be used for SMS, is there a way to use that service, assuming the other two don't measure up? Is there anyone working on this, with an extension in anything resembling usable shape? What would it take, if nothing exists, to create something that uses Hangouts?
Comment: Google Hangouts API doesn't include bulk SMS. They partner with Twilio to power voice and SMS services: https://cloud.google.com/appengine/docs/php/sms/twilio
Answer: I have never seen this coming up for discussion and suspect the answer to that part of your question is 'no'. In terms of 'where to start', it would be worth looking at the two extensions Clickatell and Twilio but i suspect you have already looked at them.
Third option is to engage the services of a Professional or use the core teams Paid Issue Queue
Comment: It seems my question has been answered since Google users Twillo to power bulk SMS. I did look at the two existing extensions, but wanted to see if there were other options before putting a lot of effort into this. Unfortunately, if neither Twillo or Clickatell does the job reliably, perhaps what's needed is some work on the existing code to make it more reliable and consistent.


Quantum entangled carbon atoms

Question: Could atoms in a original pure molecule of diamond be entangled?...these atoms are close to each other and interact all the time, could it be there is a greater chance of finding that most of these atoms are entangled?
Answer: It depends on what degrees of freedom are isolated enough to avoid decoherence.
Individual carbon atoms are bonded to each other in a lattice in the diamond, and subjected to ongoing thermal vibrations, so their individual motion states and the state of their valence electrons are not going to be particularly isolated. Also, carbon 12 nuclei has zero spin, so presumably you can't store qubits or entangle their spins. However, carbon 13 nuclei do have spins, as does nitrogen vacancy centres, and they can be entangled and used. Even better, phonons in diamonds, being collective motion modes, can be quantum entangled.
Comment: Wow thank you very much....but...how about expressing bits through electron tunneling?...there is got to be a reaction right...lets say I put some current through one atom and record the change in the other..

Quantum entangled carbon atoms


Should I use Phobos or Tango?

Question: I've decided to learn D, and I'm wondering which standard library I should use. Should I use Phobos or Tango? What are the pros and cons of each?
Comment: Also, take a look here:
Answer: If you need to use D2 then phobos is what you should use for now but tango for D2 is in development.
tangobos allows to use tango and phobos together at the same time. In D2 both work together anyway as they both make use of the separate druntime.
Answer: Tango is currently outdated.  It only works with the old version of D.
In my opinion, Phobos is the only way forward.
I wasn't following d when all of the split library arguments were going on, but from what I can tell, a lot of the reasons for Tango disappeared when D2 was released.
There is a small effort aimed at reviving Tango, but in my opinion having a split in the standard library only hurts D as a whole.
Also barring some major event, Phobos is virtually guaranteed to be supported on every release of D. Even if Tango gets ported to D2 successfully, it could easily be abandoned again.
Answer: Tango.  It's more object-oriented where appropriate, it includes containers (like STL or Java Collections), it's got an active development team, it has more momentum (it may soon be incorporated into the official compiler), and it's got real documentation, including Learn to Tango with D.
It looks like Tango may soon be incorporated into Walter's releases.
Comment: While this comment was true in 2009 when this post was written, it is no longer the case.  Tango doesn't even exist for D2 and now has very little mommentum.  The development of phobos has opened greatly and it is receiving a lot of love.
Comment: There is the TangoD2 project which brings Tango to the D2 world. It is worth taking a look, at least until Phobos gets a proper stream IO package (the stream API in Phobos is deprecated!).
Answer: I've had little experience with both (kinda ..)
Phobos is more flat and python-like, but quite incomplete.
Tango is more Java-like, it makes simple things complicated.
I personally prefer to go with phobos, unless you need a library that depends on Tango (such as DWT).
Comment: One thing I hate about Tango is that it made itself incompatible with Phobos
Comment: Tango was an amazing project. That critic about it being Java-like is nonsense. If anything Java influence made Tango the best designed library I have seen even today when it is not actively developed... However, Phobos was always THE standard library, and that is why I have always recommended Phobos instead of Tango...
Answer: From Dispelling Common D Myths:

Phobos is D's standard lib, period. Tango is now an optional but Phobos-compatible third party library. That's all there is to it.
Answer: Phobos 1* vs Tango
Comment: @FeepingCreature, might I suggest adding that document somewhere on Wiki4D, or as a page in the "D Programming Language" Google group?
Answer: If you use D2, use Phobos
If you use D1, use Tango.
And you must learn D2, so use Phobos. Easy, not ?
Note : Phobos for D2 it's much powerfull and bigger that for D1.
Answer: In my opinion, (having never actually used Boost), Tango is more like Boost, and Phobos is more elegant.  As was stated above, using Phobos is much like Python.

Should I use Phobos or Tango?


Defining an abstract property that's settable by parent class

Question: I'm not very familar with C# or abstract classes so this is likely a simple fix. I have an abstract class with a nullable Action property:
public abstract class MyAbstractClass {
    public abstract Action<MyType>? myAbstractAction { get; set; }
}

And the concrete class:
public class MyConcreteClass: MyAbstractClass {
    // This gives me a warning that I'm "hiding" the abstract property
    public override Action<MyType>? myAbstractAction = null;
}

The Action property will only be set by the parent of the concrete class:
public classs MyParentClass {
    public MyConcreteClass concreteClassInstance;

    public MyParentClass(MyConcreteClass concreteClassInstance) {
        this.concreteClassInstance = concreteClassInstance;
        this.concreteClassInstance.myAbstractAction = //...
    }
}

My issue is that I'm not sure how to define the Action in MyConcreteClass. The line I used above that gives a default value of null causes an error saying it "hides inherited member" which doesn't seem like what I want. I think it expects me to provide actual get/set blocks but I don't think that will work for me since it's the outer class that determines what the Action does. I kinda feel like I may be using the wrong tool for the job here so would appreciate some direction from someone more familiar with the language.
Answer: The reason why you getting that warning is that in base class you declared a property myAbstractAction, and in child class you declared a field myAbstractAction. So there are two members with the same name.
This property:
public abstract Action<MyType>? myAbstractAction { get; set; }

Should be overridden like that:
public override Action<MyType>? myAbstractAction { get; set; }

You're supposed to type that get and set.
Comment: Ah thank you, I'm relieved it was just a syntax issue
Comment: @WongWray Yeah, there is always a missing semicolon somewhere :)


How to turn off Mac's sounds by default?

Question: In some situations I would open my macbook in a public place or library, and I still have something open that produces sound, such as music or a chat program giving notifications. I would like to have my sound be muted by default when I open the lid. Anyway to achieve this?
Answer: Have you tried muting the sound?

Muting the sound before closing the lid and/or rebooting will keep the sound muted.
I also found this: Mute volume of macbook on sleep
Comment: I want my sound to be automatically muted. I know how to mute the sound in general.
Comment: Ok, I edited the answer with a link to something similar.
Comment: Thanks, maybe this is too much a duplicate?
Answer: Control Plane is ideal for this sort contextual computing. It's a free, open source app in which you can configure a context. For example a context 'library'. In that context certain rules apply (i.e. mute device). The context can be automatically triggered by numerous things (i.e. sleep/wake event, connected wifi, running applications, ...)
It is useful in many other situations as well, I use this app extensively.
Here is how you can configure Control Plane to do what you asked for:

Create a new context and give it an appropriate name (i.e. muted)

Under Evidence Sources make sure Sleep/Wake Event is checked

Under Rules add a new Sleep/Wake Event Rule and set it so when system goes to sleep it activates the muted context with the confidence slider set to 100%.

Under Actions add a Mute action (Sound and Music Actions > Mute). Set it so that system is muted on arrival at context muted.

There you go. You could of course make the context switch to Muted more intelligent by using and combining different rules (each with its own confidence level).


Java Desktop Client with Java EE Server?

Question: I've been coding in J2SE and now I'm currently working on a project that requires me to have a Java Desktop app to interact with a Java EE server for several activities such as database connections. I'm still new to Java EE. May someone guide me on where to start? What particular resource/ebook should I take a look on to?
Answer: Start with this:
http://download.oracle.com/javaee/6/tutorial/doc/
You don't say which Java EE app server you intend to use (Glassfish, JBOSS, WebLogic, etc.)  I'd also recommend looking at the tutorials for your particular vendor.
As far as your client/server interaction goes, the moment you say "desktop" I think "Swing".  If that's the case, you can easily have it use back end services using either EJBs or web services.  The latter will be more reusable, because they use HTTP as their wire protocol; EJBs use RMI, so they're usually called by Java clients.
Answer: If the only aim of your application is to have a Desktop app with database connectivity, then you do not need Java EE server at all. Since JDBC code can be written in normal java files (which will have your app code i.e the swing code).
Comment: already had this in mind but the  requirements are that I use a server app.


Can I pull data from a Google Sheet into inline text in a Google Doc?

Question: I am creating exams for my students in Google Docs and would like to easily change the values and answer options without having to do all the math each time. I would like to have a google sheet where I can set the variables and have each possible multiple choice answer auto generated - and then be able to open a nicely formatted Google Doc where all these values automatically appear.
Answer: This as easy as copying from Google Sheets and pasting in Google Docs, making sure that you "paste linked." It will paste as a table. When you change your sheets, an "update" button will appear on the Google Docs.
NOTE
The "paste linked" option is only available if pasting multiple cells.
If you need to paste a single linked cell, first paste it as part of 2 cell range, then edit the link using "Change Range" to limit it to the single cell.
Credit to @Matěj-Kříž for this workaround.
Answer: Short answer is: NO, this is not possible.
Unfortunately, this is not possible at the moment (02/2023). The main reason is that it does not go to insert the table inline into the text. Inline table is unsupported.
See the related question How can I align a table so that text floats around it in Google Docs?


When did the sounds of 'w' and 'v' change in High German?

Question: As far as I know, the sound 'w' is always pronounced as 'v', and 'v' as 'f' in German words, relative to their cognate English words. So my questions, why did these sounds shift, and when? As far as I know, neither shift is die to the High German Consonant Shift, though I could be mistaken.
Answer: The change of /w/ to /v/ is not considered to be part of the High German Consonant Shift. It looks like it probably occurred later than that; it seems safe to date it after 500 AD and potentially as late as after the 16th century. Actually, we may not be able to give a specific date of completion as the sound change may still not have spread to all present-day dialects of German:

The glide [w] can also surface in the onset in RG [RG = Ramsau German] as an alternate pronunciation of /v/ and intervocalic /b/. For example, the word Wasser 'water' can be pronounced as either [wo.sɐ] or [vo.sɐ]. Variation of /v/ occurs within speakers, so one speaker might produce a word like Wasser with [v] one time and then with [w] the next. This pronunciation of RG [w] reflects an earlier stage of German (i.e. MHG). /v/ is consistently pronounced as [w] in other varieties of Bavarian, such as Imst German described by Schatz (1897:7-8); interested readers are also referred to discussion of Westphalian German in Hall (2014). Intervocalic /b/ also surfaces as [w] in words such as selber 'self': [sɛ.wɐ] ~ [sɛ.bɐ]. For more discussion of this, see Zehetner (1985:85) and Merkle (2005:28 §24).

(Erin Noelliste, 2017, "The Phonology of Sonorants in Bavarian German", page 92, footnote 37, edited to add note "[RG = Ramsau German]")
Old High German is reconstructed as having the approximant /w/ by Wikipedia (which I think helps explain the spelling "W"). This may also have been the value in Middle High German:

The most authoritative scholarly work on Middle High German (Paul 2007: 28) considers [w] in that language to be a bilabial glide (i.e. 'semi-vowel' = ['Halbvokal']), which only shifted to [v] at a later stage. ("Das Zeichen  steht mhd. noch für den bilabialen Halbvokal [w] (wie engl. w), der erst später zum labiodentalen Laut [v] wird"). At a later point in his grammar, Paul (2007: 142) writes that MHG [w] might have been the bilabial fricative (i.e. [β]), which began the shift to [v] in Late Middle High German.
[...] I argue that the two MHG sounds in question were glides (defined featurally in Section 5) and not fricatives. The most compelling evidence for the glide interpretation is that the sounds representing <w> and <j> are retained as glides in many modern German dialects. Two representative examples from a variety of Southern Bavarian (Schatz 1897) are provided in (26):
(26) a. [wint] 'wind' b. [jɔxt] 'hunt'

(Hall, Tracy Alan. 2017. Underlying and derived glides in Middle High German. Glossa: a journal of general linguistics 2(1): 54. 1–31, DOI: https://doi.org/10.5334/gjgl.170 ; page 13)
W as [v]
German "w", as you mentioned, is generally cognate to English "w" ([w]) and for this reason the corresponding Proto-Germanic phoneme is standardly reconstructed as [w]. German and English are standardly classified as further belonging to the "West Germanic" group specifically, so we can extend the reconstruction of [w] to Proto West Germanic.
I Googled and found a book, Analysis of the Scandinavian Loanwords in the Aldredian Glosses to the Lindisfarne Gospels, by Sara M. Pons Sanz, that says North and West Germanic are thought to have split around 500 AD or later. If accurate, this allows us to date the shift of [w] to [v] to some point between 500 AD and modern German.
"The Spelling of Proto-Germanic /f/ in Old High German" (Gustav Must, Language, vol. 43, no. 2, 1967, pp. 457–61. JSTOR, https://doi.org/10.2307/411546 accessed 9 Nov. 2023), has the following footnote:

The bilabial /w/ indeed existed in German probably as late as the 16th century, when V. Ickelsamer in his grammar described the sound of w as one like blowing on hot food: 'wie mã in ein heyss essen bläst' (Fechner 1882, on the eighteenth unnumbered page of 'Ein Teütsche Grammatica' by Valentinus Ickelsamer).

(page 459, footnote 3)
The consonant spelled "W" still patterns similarly to an approximant/sonorant in German phonology, and I believe I have read that in some regions of Germany a labiodental approximant pronunciation [ʋ] is used. (Wikipedia says this is more common in Southern accents.)
V as [f]: a unetymological spelling of unclear origin
In modern standard German, the letter "V" is pronounced as [f] in native words, where it corresponds to Proto-Germanic *f, which we're pretty sure was a voiceless labial fricative of some sort (either [f] or [ɸ]). I am not aware of any etymological explanation for the rather random use of word-initial "v" vs. "f" in modern German spelling; it could conceivably result from dialect mixing (although that explanation does little to clarify the distribution of the two alternative spellings).
Maybe dialect-mixing could be the cause
I have read that in some historical dialects of German, word-initial and intervocalic singleton *f has undergone lenition or voicing, becoming something like [v] or [v̊]; compare the lenition/voicing of word-initial *s to [z] that is well-known as a feature of standard German today (a number of regional accents of German have voiceless [s] in this position, however).
The Wikipedia article I linked to earlier says that there are accents of German that retain a distinction between semi-voiced or lenis f/v, from *f, and fortis f, from consonant-shifted *p. (This is similar to the constrast between intervocalic "s" and "ß" in modern standard German.)
However, this phonological information doesn't seem to be enough to determine the date of voicing/lenition of /f/ to /v~v̊/, because there is evidence that the HGCS initially resulted in geminate fricatives like /ff/ intervocalically. So voicing/lenition could have applied either before the HGCS, or after it, as long as it occured at some point before the loss of consonant length (a loss that I have heard is not complete in all modern German accents) and was restricted to affecting singleton /f/, not geminate /ff/.
Word-initial voicing of *f to [v] also occcured in at least some accents of Dutch (explaining the standard Dutch spelling of words like "vriend", which corresponds to the pronunciation with [v] that is present in some modern accents of Dutch, although others have voiceless [f]) and in some old accents of English (explaining the "v" in "vixen" and "vat"). However, I don't believe this voicing reflects a shared inherited feature of English, Dutch and German, but a regional tendency towards voicing word-initial as well as intervocalic fricatives (which is most robustly evident in the reflex of *þ as /d/ in both German and Dutch).
Evidently, this voicing process was either reversed, or did not occur for *f in accents ancestral to modern Standard German pronunciation.
Maybe spelling practices of Merovingian Latin, influenced by French sound changes, were the cause
Alternatively, Must 1967 thinks that the use of the spelling "V" for /f/ in German didn't develop as the result of voicing of the sound in German, but instead is derived from the use in Merovingian Latin of the letters F and V for the same sound in intervocalic position (a result of the sound change in Western Romance of Latin intervocalic /f/ to [v]).
Comment: @Adam Why is ł "different"? The origin of the sound doesn't change the fact that it is a sound that exists in those languages. It's also quite hard to get contiguously from Siberia to India to Armenia without running up against languages that definitely have /w/. It's more accurate to say that in the area between Central-Eastern Europe and the Indian subcontinent, there is a higher-than-average percentage of languages that do not have (phonemic) /w/.
Comment: Thanks for the great info. Indeed, it's not full answer, but I appreciate all the useful info. +1, and if you can add info about the dates/process of transformation, I'm glad to accept it too.
Comment: Interestingly, the modern inability to pronounce [w] is basically contiguous from Germany to Scandinavia to Siberia to India to Armenia to the Western Balkans and back.  (Romanians are the exception.  And some Polish or Bulgarian pronunciations of ł, but that's different.)
Comment: @AdamBittlingmayer Calling it an "inability" is disparaging and wildly inaccurate.
Comment: Points taken.  ł seems different because it evolved from dark l.  I'm sure there are a few languages in that zone that have [w], maybe someone can name many of them.
Comment: @AdamBittlingmayer [Ukrainian](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ukrainian_phonology) <В, в> is \[w\] in many positions. E.g. [<вода́>](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/вода#Ukrainian) = \[wɔˈda\]
Comment: @Arfrever I was happy to be corrected but then I listened to the audiofile.
Comment: @AdamBittlingmayer The audiofile seems to be with some russified pronunciation of Ukrainian. Unfortunately many audiofiles seem to be from such speakers. Compare [russified pronunciation of both в here (авторство)](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/авторство#Ukrainian) and [non-russified pronunciation here (Харків)](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Харків#Ukrainian).
Comment: @Arfrever Would you have a word- or syllable-initial example?  The examples given are not so different than German, the initial subject of this question, where it's also *Autor* and locally many names with *-ow* are pronounced more like *-o* or *-au*.
Comment: @AdamBittlingmayer Audio sample for [<творити>](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/творити#Ukrainian) seems correct (non-russified). Also regarding Polish, ,  in Latin / Ancient Greek borrowings is pronounced with [u̯] / [w] (e.g. [](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/aurora#Polish), [](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/automat#Polish), [](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/pneumatyczny#Polish), [](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Europa#Polish).
Comment: @Arfrever Thanks.  To my ear it yes is lighter than a v but similar to German w after a consonant.


Fat in chicken skin after boiling

Question: After boiling a chicken for soup and straining with a fat separator, how much fat is left in the chicken? Does it depend on how long I boil the chicken for?
Comment: Welcome to the site! I've gone ahead and edited your question - asking about fat is perfectly fine, but we try to avoid health and nutrition claims here. I think I've preserved the meaning of your question, but feel free to edit it further if you like.
Answer: Yes, it depends on how long you cook the chicken.  Much of the fat is in the skin and can be removed by peeling it; other fat (such as in the thighs) tends to stick around.  Long, slow cooking will render more of the fat, which melts at around 95° F.
I'm guessing you're trying to avoid fat for dietary reasons, but consider saving it for future cooking purposes - like where you might use another oil.  It's delicious, and not terribly harmful in small quantities.
Answer: I agree, a fair amount of fat tends to remain in the skin. Evidence for this: to make soup, I boil a whole chicken for 2-3 hours, then cool and pull off the meat. Usually I peel off the skin and fry till crisp in a pan. It doesn't produce as much fat as bacon, but more fat than you would think.

Fat in chicken skin after boiling


Why does "money" take "the" in "all the money in the world"?

Question: "All the money in the world " , in this sentence we talk about money in general , right ? I've read a book that says if we're talking about  things in general we do not use "the".
So why "the money" ?
Answer: This sentence is not talking about money in general.  It is talking about a specific set: "all the money in the world", as if it was a specific quantity you could receive:

Suppose I gave you a box with all the money in the world.  How would you choose to distribute it?

Other examples talking about a specific set of money:

Do you still have the money I gave you for your birthday?
The money donated to charities should be included on your tax forms, if you want to take the deduction.

It is possible to talk about money as a concept, in which case you would not use the definite article.  Examples of this:

I don't care too much for money, and money can't buy me love -- John Lennon / Paul McCartney
A wise person should have money in their head, but not in their heart. --Jonathan Swift
Money is a terrible master but an excellent servant. --P.T. Barnum

It is possible to say "all money in the world" to reference the global concept of money, rather than a specific quantity.

All money in the world, in whatever form, relies on the collective agreement that it is worth something.  Even a brick of gold has no value to a starving man, unless he can exchange it for food.

[Edit] With regard to FumbleFinger's objection: I would claim "money donated to charities" is either a kind of ellipsis, or else refers to a conceptual subset of the concept of money.  In my example, it makes little difference whether I'm talking in general about the practice of donating money, or of a specific instance of some quantity donated.  The second half of the sentence applies either way.

Conceptual example:  Money (which has been generally) donated to charities should be declared.
Ellipsis example:  (The specific quantity of) Money (which you have) donated to charities should be declared.

I think a more in-depth exploration is out of the scope of the question, as OP asks only what the definite article means in this context, and not whether the definite article is required.
Comment: @isac  please take note of my edits.  It is possible to omit the definite article, but this changes the meaning.
Comment: ***All [the] water on earth originally came from comets***. That may not be a *true* statement, but it's syntactically fine with or without the article - or with *all **of** the water*, come to that. So I don't really see how your *talking about a specific set* point really "explains" anything here.
Comment: @FumbleFingers  I've edited to try and explain the distinction.
Comment: I've cancelled earlier downvote, but still can't see sufficient reason to *upvote*. I couldn't bring myself to accept article-less *Suppose I gave you a box with all money in the world,* but there's nothing wrong with *Money donated to charities should be included on your tax forms*. And in a context such as *I still have [**the**] money [that] I earned when I last had a job*, I can't really see that including the article or not makes any difference at all to the meaning - it certainly doesn't seem to be a matter of whether or not "money" represents a "concept".
Comment: @FumbleFingers  edited again.  I think we're starting to get well above the scope of this question (and out of my depth), and it might be better posed to ELU to get a truly complete answer.
Comment: You may have a point there (about ELU). But I'm now happy to upvote here mainly on the basis of your final couple of points. You've clarified well enough how to distinguish the article in ***the** (specific quantity of) money (which has **actually** been) donated to charities* from article-less *(**any**) money (real or hypothetical, counted or not, which **might** have been) donated*. And the distinction between addressing what one's choice might be, and *whether a choice even exists in any given context* is crucial, even though it's probably Too Broad for the question as posed here.
Answer: You have misunderstood what was meant in that book by "in general".
In this sentence, we are speaking of money and water in general terms:

Money is an alternative to barter.
Water is necessary for life.

But here, even though we are speaking of "all", we're still speaking of the thing in particular:

All the water in the watering hole dries up during the summer dry season.
All the money in the world couldn't get me to do that.
Comment: @FumbleFingers:  I lack (the) motivation.  :)  But **all** is a shape-shifter.
Comment: @Alexander Kosubek:  And you would be wrong to use the article. *The money is an alternative to the barter* is not grammatical in English.
Comment: Per [comment to @Andrew's answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/186691/why-does-money-take-the-in-the-following-sentence#comment369053_186695), and noting that even *All water in the watering hole dries up during the summer dry season* is "more or less" okay without the article, it's not obvious to me that there's a "complete" explanation here.
Comment: @FumbleFingers: You wouldn't say "I drank all water in the glass."   But you might say "I siphoned all water from the tank" and "All  water in the beaker evaporates when you place it over the bunsen burner". Since you bring it up, care to explain why?
Comment: I don't think I *know* how to explain why - but I kinda assumed you would, if you could be so motivated.
Comment: @Tᴚoɯɐuo I don't _feel_ the examples from your comment to be correct. I'd use the article in all of them.
Comment: @AlexanderKosubek:  There's an old joke among American comedians who are making fun of the syntax of their parents and grandparents who emigrated from Germany:  *Toss papa down the stairs his hat.*    That sentence feels OK to you, right?
Comment: @Tᴚoɯɐuo No, neither of those _feel_ correct. I don't think I like your attidude, though. - I explicitly only referred to your comments, not the content of the original answer. I apoligize for not making myself clearer, before: What is the substantial difference that makes "all water" okay if it is the object, but not okay if it is the subject of a sentence, even though both refer to a finite, well defined subset of all water anywhere? (That's what I take away from your comment posted 20181126T175532)
Comment: @AlexanderKosubek:  My attitude?  I'm not sure what you're referring to.  If it is the joke, my point is that if you use your native language (which I assume is German) to make judgments about what is idiomatic in English, you will end up making the same sort of mistake that John Kennedy made when he said *Ich bin **ein** Berliner*.
Comment: @AlexanderKosubek: In the sentences *I siphoned all water from the tank* and *All water in the beaker evaporates...*  we find **all water** used as direct object in the former and as subject in the latter.  So whether the noun phrase is a subject or an object has no bearing upon the absence of the definite article.
Answer: I don't know what book told you that, but it's not the truth.1
Fact is, there are several reasons we might use the definite article. Macmillan (definition 1b) says:

used when you are referring to familiar things that people deal with regularly
I looked up at the ceiling; suddenly all the lights went out

Many familiar adages and expressions use the definite article even though they talk about things in general. Consider:

The lion is king of the jungle.
Top of the morning to you!
It hit me right between the eyes.
Religion is the opiate of the masses.
All the news that's fit to print.

1See what I did there?
Answer: Ditto Andrew's excellent answer, let me just add:
Don't get confused by the difference between how something is in the real world, and how it is grammatically.
Yes, in real life, "all the money in the world" is, well, all the money that exists. Logically, you might say that it's the same as "money" as a general concept. But GRAMMATICALLY, "all the money in the world" is NOT all money that exists, it's a specific set of money, namely, the money that is "in the world". While in real life that may be all money, grammatically it is not.
Answer: The big, fancy language scholar term for this particular use of the definite article, "the", is "modadic"—the as in the one and only.
From your example, rephrased:

There is only one collection of all money in the one and only world.

Reference:

8. Monadic
("One of a Kind" or "Unique")

The Article
Comment: I'm so glad you noticed that! I was mindful of not wanting to use a circular definition with the first "one", with the *one and only* "the" being qualified enough not to be. ;-)
Comment: I'm gonna upvote this one purely because you *didn't* include the "optional" article in *There is only one collection of all **the** money in the one and only world,* even though you didn't specifically draw attention to that yourself!
Answer: All the money in the world would not make you happy.
We only have one specific world, and all the money in it is very specific.
Having money in the bank is a good thing, if its yours. [non-specific]
And: The money I have in the bank is none of your business. [specific]
Please note: for certain expressions such as money in the bank, a the is used with bank.
Answer: There is a word elided which will make parsing the phrase easier:

All of the money in the world

"Of money" is wrong for different reasons -- the preposition requires more than just a bare noun.
Comment: This is the point I was hoping to see.  As with most English, we've munged it up so it doesn't follow our own quidelines by *omitting a word*.


Problem with Extrude in Blender 3.6

Question: After extruding I get this type edges. But I want the old edge loop to be at the same place
as it were. But when I extrude this the old loop gets messed up and also changes the position and a new loop is generated at the place of the old one.
So I want both(the one before extrude and the one after extrude) the loops to be at the same place.
What shall I do to fix this?
This is the link to video I am watching to learn:-https://youtu.be/zwf86kHwNoE
timestamp:- 6:35
[Video is from Blender Arts channel.]

This is the link of my file:
Comment: I think we'll need to see your Blend file to work out exactly what's going on. You can share it via https://blend-exchange.com/ following the instructions there to copy the link to it and then edit your question and paste the link into it.
Comment: Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking.
Comment: Just after hitting E for extrude the new loop is formed inside the old loop and this also messes some part of old loop. So what can I do so that the new loop will be generated at the same place as that of old loop without affecting the old loop. @John Eason
Comment: I'm not sure exactly what's causing that in your Blend file, but you can select the vertex on the original loop and move it up a bit to get rid of the distortion. It's probably an effect of the subdiv modifier at a guess.
Answer: You have inconsistent Normals:

Display with Overlays > 'Face Orientation'
Flip with AltN 'Recalculate' 'Inside' or 'Outside'.. whichever takes you to all blue, viewed from the front.

I quite like to tweak a modelling copy of my ( Edit > Preferences > Theme > 3D Viewport ) to something akin to this:

.. which means it's comfortable to leave the 'Face Orientation' overlay on all the time. Then you always know which way your faces are pointing.

Problem with Extrude in Blender 3.6


Flood Analysis in QGIS

Question: I am trying to use QGIS to assess what areas will flood if the river floods a specific height.  I have a DEM of the area as well as a vector file of the lines of the river of interest.  I cannot get a raster file of the river height.  Is there any way to do this?
Comment: Could you please clarify what you mean by "areas will flood if the river floods a specific height.". If it is a flat water level, you can simply just mark the area in the DEM that fills to that level. However most river systems are a bit more complex than that, youll likely have a slope and varying levels in tributaries.
Comment: You might check with these folks: https://www.hatarilabs.com/
Comment: For example if the river level rises 1 foot, what will flood, I can't just fill the DEM to a set level because the river does not run at a constant elevation
Comment: Search for HAND - height above nearest drainage.
Answer: If you have GRASS enabled in your processing toolbox, you can use r.lake. This method takes a DEM, a water level and a starting point as input. The output is a raster map with the flooded area.
Comment: It is clear from tool name that this tool is wrong one for river flooding.
Answer: The usage of r.lake can be a way to forward, however r.lake will result in substantial impacted areas of flooding due to its static water filling algorithm. In my option, r.lake would be a good solution in sea level rising. However, in this fluvial inundation case, you can also use IDW tool to extrapolate the water level to the surround terrains.
You need to first identify the overtopping position along the river polyline then make point feature there. Thereafter, you can use IDW method to   obtain a raster with distributed water level. Finally, by substracting the raster with distributed water level from DEM, you can obtain an inundated area.
Yet, the suggested method above is only for rough estimation, since momentum of overtopping water is not considered at all. To get more accurate prediction results, 2D hydrodynamic model should be used.

Flood Analysis in QGIS


When multiple upload is finished in p:fileUpload?

Question: I have a multiple p:fileUpload, I need to upload from 1 to N files on server, after uploading I need to know how many files were uploaded and then start processing method. How can I know when all files are uploaded? I have not found any event for multiple upload, there is event only for individual files, oncomplete in p:fileUpload also works for every file individually. I had idea to use additional button to invoke processing method, but this is not safe, because user can push this button before all files are uploaded. Who can advice me something?
Answer: For other people who may face the same problem.
The file upload component has 'files' property which contain the list of files to be uploaded. As soon as a file uploaded it is removed from the 'files' array, thus when last file is uploaded the 'files' will be empty. This could be used to detect the moment when the last file is uploaded. Afterwards you can trigger remote command to do whatever you want.
Code example:
<h:form enctype="multipart/form-data">

</h:form>

Comment: @bruno the fileUploadWidget is client side only and just a reference to the JS object
Comment: What's the type for the fileUploadWidget bean attribute?
Answer: You can validate a modal dialog, until you finish the process, and ends when you close it.


In what circumstances does an investment advisor have to register as a money transmitter?

Question: As far as I understand it, an SEC-registered investment advisor that doesn't hold the client's assets doesn't need extra regulation pertaining to custody. If a robo-advisor like Betterment (although I understand that they're Broker-Dealer-registered) is registered as an RIA and sends client orders straight to the exchange through a broker like Interactive Brokers, do they have to register as a money transmitter? How do the laws change for assets like crypto (sending an order straight to Binance, Coinbase, etc)
Comment: Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking.
Comment: @Community I answered my own question. I can change the question but I thought it was pretty clear. A Money Transmitter and a Registered Investment Advisor are pretty well-defined legal entities, meaning my question about when an RIA has to register as an MT seems pretty straightforward
Answer: A Money Transmitter (MT) is a subset of Money Services Businesses (MSBs) according to the definition of an MSB (31 §1010.100(ff)). Exempted from inclusion in MSB definition is "a person registered with, and functionally regulated or examined by, the SEC." As an SEC-registered investment advisor, it sounds like such a robo-advisor would not need to register as a money transmitter business as well.


Is a prototype mandatory for applying a patent?

Question: Do I need a prototype to apply for a patent? And if so, does the prototype have be of the same material as finished product? Or can highly detailed cad drawings do the job?
Answer: No, making a prototype (actual reduction to practice), as filing a properly prepared patent application is considered "constructive reduction to practice."

United States patent laws do not require you to have a prototype in order to apply for a patent, all that is required is that you be able to describe the invention so that others could both make and use it. So while you do need to have some kind of identifiable embodiment you can start by proving your concept on paper. (IP Watchdog)

And from the USPTO:

Reduction to practice may be an actual reduction or a constructive reduction to practice which occurs when a patent application on the claimed invention is filed. The filing of a patent application serves as conception and constructive reduction to practice of the subject matter described in the application. Thus the inventor need not provide evidence of either conception or actual reduction to practice when relying on the content of the patent application. (MPEP 2138.05)

NOTE: This is not legal advice. Please consult with an attorney.


Facebook + UserBundle authentication with symfony2

Question: I'm trying to authenticate my users via facebook or userbundle on symfony2
Here's what I did so far (and it works, although not as I want):
firewalls:
    main:
        pattern: .*
        fos_facebook:
            app_url: "http://apps.facebook.com/appName/"
            server_url: "http://localhost/facebookApp/"
            login_path: /fblogin
            check_path: /fblogin_check
            default_target_path: /
            provider: my_fos_facebook_provider
        form_login:
            check_path: /login_check
        anonymous: true
        logout:
            handlers: ["fos_facebook.logout_handler"]

The problem with that config is that when the user is not logged in, he's redirected to /login (form_login), while I'd like him to be redirected to Facebook authentication by default
I already tried simply removing the form_login, but then if I access /login (which is how I want users to login outside facebook), it doesn't know the /login_check route to submit the login form
Maybe chain_provider would be a solution? I didn't get it working either
Comment: Does this solution assist in any way -> http://stackoverflow.com/questions/7257183/fosfacebookbundle-does-not-call-custom-provider
Comment: +1. I've had this issue as well; would love to see a good solution to it.
Answer: An easy and mabye more usable option would be to show all the login options in the login page (including facebook, twitter, open id, or whatever you'd like to use)
Answer: Chain providers is indeed the solution to this problem. Here is what you security.yml config shoud look like:
providers:
  my_project.chain_provider:
    chain:
      providers: [fos_userbundle, my_project.facebook_provider]
  fos_userbundle:
    id: fos_user.user_provider.username_email
  my_project.facebook_provider:
    id: my_project.user_provider.facebook

And, of course, you need to define your own facebook provider as stated here
Answer: You should add the fos_userbundle provider for the form_login (and keep the rest of the configuration):
form_login:
    provider: fos_userbundle

I didn't dig too much, but I think Symfony2 is automatically creating a chained provider in this case.
Answer: Also you can write your event listener where you will be looking whether a user goes to /login form directly or by redirecting.


How to minify my files before deploying them to the server

Question: I want to enhance the performance of my front-end website and I found that one of the best practices is minifying my files. After searching I decided to use terser package. I've never done this before so some points are confusing me.
1- Do I have to change the script and CSS link in the HTML header with the minified files before building the project (I'm using parcel)?
so they will become :

<link rel="stylesheet" href="style.min.css" />

2- In my case, I have app.js file that imports other files:
import { revealContent } from "./script/revealContent.js";
import { gsapAnimation } from "./script/gsapAnimation.js";
import { map } from "./script/map.js";
import { showPopup, closePopup } from "./script/reservationPopup.js";
import { validateDate, validatePhone, validateForm, errorMessage} from "./script/validateData.js";
import { slider } from "./script/slider.js";

should I minify them before app.js or the order doesn't matter?
3- If the previous script files get minified and they are now inside ./script/min-script/ folder, is terser able to know their new destination when minifying app.js so the process gets done correctly?
4- After finishing the minifying process, I guess the parcel build command should be for the new minified HTML that has the links to minified CSS/JavaScript files right?
I'd highly appreciate your help
Comment: If you're using parcel, it minifies out of the box via the build command. [see docs here](https://parceljs.org/features/production/#minification)
Answer: hey there!
when you minify your CSS and JavaScript files, you should update the references in your HTML to point to the minified versions. So, in your HTML, use links like:
<link rel="stylesheet" href="style.min.css" />

If you move the minified script files to a different folder (e.g., "./script/min-script/"), you need to update the import paths in "app.js" to reflect the new location. Terser doesn't automatically know the new destination of the files, so make sure to adjust the import paths accordingly.
For example, if your "revealContent.js" file was moved to "./script/min-script/revealContent.js", update the import in "app.js" like this:
import { revealContent } from "./script/min-script/revealContent.js";

After the minification process, you should indeed use the parcel build command for the updated HTML file that references the minified CSS and JavaScript files. Ensure that your HTML file points to the correct paths for the minified files.
parcel build path/to/your/minified/index.html

Comment: Why minify using terser when parcel is already being used in the project and it minifies automatically?


Small harddrive for Ubuntu, Large harddrive for Music, Video, Pictures etc?

Question: I have a small SSD for running the operating system (Ubuntu 12.04 LTS, it used to windows but recently made the switch!). I then use another large harddrive for storing all my data (I call it "11111", it shows up under "Devices" in the file explorer, with the option to unmount it).
Question 1:
Is there anyway I can make the default "Documents", "Pictures", "Videos", "Music" links refer to a location of my large "11111" drive instead of a location on my small SSD?
Question 2:
Should I incorporate my "11111" drive into the file system somehow instead? However I dont want my media spread on the two drives, I would like to keep the OS and media on separate independent drives.
Question 3:
Any good tutorials or links on how to do Question 2. I have been googling it but not coming right.
Question 4:
I would like to make Dropbox and UbuntuOne point to locations on "11111" drive instead of on the "file system". Anyone know how to do this?
Any advice, guidance, or links to help me with the above will be highly appreciated.
Comment: For ease of use, and in case your `11111`drive is formatted for Ubuntu (e.g. ext4) consider to [move all your /home directories](http://askubuntu.com/questions/21321/move-home-folder-to-second-drive) to there.
Answer: Option 1: Moving the home directory
The best choice is to copy your home directory over to the other drive and mount that drive as /home as Takkat described in his comment/answer. I use a setup like this on my laptop with a SSD and a fast 7200rpm hard drive. I didn't notice any performance degradation during startup/login compared to having /home on the SSD.
Option 2: Redirect particular directories
Another option was discussed here:
How do I integrate my Windows filesystem with Ubuntu? Note that special folders can and should be redirected by not using symlinks. For regular folders you just need to know where the data is stored to replace the folders with a symlink, though some applications store data across different directories:
$ find -iname vlc
./.local/share/vlc
./.cache/vlc
./.config/vlc

This is where it can get difficult with some applications or in the event of a migration or re-installation you probably find yourself accidentally deleting data you wanted to keep. Therefore go with option 1.
Answer:
I'm not sure unless you specified that when creating partitions before installing, though you can create a symlink to your a folder in 11111. Something like :

ln -s path-to-hdd ~/Documents/11111_docs

You can either do the above or do what says below.
When Installing you have to choose "Do something else" then you
proceed to make the mount points like home/Documents,
home/Music, etc. point to the Hard drive, while you point / to the SSD.
You can change that in the Dropbox settings, click the indicator then
Preferences and go to the last tab then select another folder. In
Ubuntu One by default the Ubuntu One folder will be in your Home
however you can choose to sync a different folder of your choice.
Comment: You can only sync folders that are underneath your home directory in Ubuntu One. Any folders on an external drive, or outside $HOME, cannot be synchronized on Ubuntu One.
Answer: I would agree with LiveWireBT. I think that in your case, your best option is to move the home mount point.
The way to do it is to move the /home/username folder to the root of your large disc. Then modify your fstab file changing the mount point of the hard disk to /home. Reboot and you're done.
An alternative option
If you want finer control of which folders to move, you can, instead of moving the home folder, change the default folder location for Documents, Pictures, Videos, etc. This is done by simply modifying the ~/.config/user-dirs.dirs.


cakephp, linux & mssql

Question: This question has been asked here a number of times, but I have never found a correct solution.
Basically cake 2.x moved to PDO, effectively dropping support for MSSQL on Linux.
Our existing implementation using FreeTDS and CakePHP 1.3.14 worked fine.  Now that I've almost completed the upgrade to 2.4.2 the Mssql support for Linux is a big pain.
The code we have actually connects to both MySQL and MSSQL databases.
My options are:
1) Move to a Windows server, which I don't want to do.
2) Port over the Odbc.php from cake 1.3 into cake 2.4.2 and use that instead
3) Try and hack up Sqlsrv.php (or extend it) and use dblib (sybase) to connect
4) Use the Datasource plugin (branch mssql-2.0).  Kind of works, it extends DboSource.php but doesn't implement a number of things properly.
So, not sure where to go from here. Would love to get a hacked PDO solution working.
Anyone in this situation got a resolution?
Comment: Dropping support for MSSQL linux.
Comment: "Basically cake 2.x moved to PDO, effectively dropping support for Linux." WHAT?
Answer: Searching for the same problem, I came across a post in Nabble that has links to a  Linux native ODBC driver for MSSQL recently released by Microsoft.
This may come in handy: http://cakephp.1045679.n5.nabble.com/SQL-Server-Linux-and-CakePHP-2-tp5463357p5464129.html

cakephp, linux & mssql


All the Small Wars at Once

Question: Looking for a SF Short Story I read many years ago.   Name (although not exactly sure): "All the Small Wars at Once".  I believe it was written by Larry Niven (but not sure).  Brief synopsis (as I remember it):  Society breaks down as all individual differences become a source of conflict; ultimately even differences in hair color (blond, redhead, brunette) cause conflict until all individuals are fighting each other.   Thanks for your help
Comment: Used this in a college ethics class I taught. Great discussions and validated my purchase of a bullet proof vest. I read it a looong time ago in the very innovative magazine "Omni". Is there anything like it published today??
Also used Kurt Vonnegut's "Harrison Bergeron" for a discussion of Wokeness and PC fascism. I think it's a short story from "Welcome to the Monkey House". Still mourn his passing.
Comment: @Gardiloo Hi and Welcome to the site! Have a look the [tour] and checkout [help]. You posted an answer, but didn't address the question, but as it looks like you needed a hand with the site, and maybe had a question I converted it to a comment. When you've earned enough rep you can post these by yourself.
Answer: That's George Alec Effinger's short story "All the Last Wars at Once", originally published in the 1971 original-stories anthology Universe 1 edited by Terry Carr. It was also the (unaccepted) answer to this question. Any of these covers look familiar?
Excerpts:

Above the entrance to the church fluttered a hastily made banner. The masculine symbol had been crudely painted on a white sheet; the white flag indicated that the worshippers were white males and that blacks and women were "welcome" at their own risk. The population was now split into four mutually antagonistic segments. The separate groups began to realize that there was some point in keeping their members together in little cadres. The streets and apartment buildings were death traps.
[. . . .]
Before he started the car again, Stevie opened the glove compartment. There was an unloaded revolver and a crumpled factsheet. Stevie tossed the gun to the ground by the old man. He smoothed out the wrinkled paper. The youth of the world, it proclaimed, had declared war on everyone over the age of thirty years.
[. . . .]
The crowd cheered again, and then it began to break up. Some of the men stood around arguing. One of the small groups of Producers that was slowly walking to the parking lot was deeply involved in debating the boundaries separating Artists and Producers.
"I mean, where are we going to stop?" said one. "I don't like the way this divisioning is going. Pretty soon there won't be any groups left to belong to. We'll all be locked up in our homes, afraid to see anybody at all."
"It's not doing us any good," agreed another. "If you go out and get what you want, I mean, take something from a store or something, why, everybody knows you got it when you bring it home. Then you're the target. I got less now than when this all started."
A third man watched the first two grimly. He pulled out a factsheet of his own from the pocket of his jacket. "That's commie talk," he said. "You're missing the point. Let me ask you a question. Are you right- or left-handed?
he first man looked up from the factsheet, puzzled. "I don't see that it makes any difference. I mean, I'm basically left-handed, but I write with my right hand."
The third man stared angrily, in disbelief.
Bang.
[. . . .]
YANG and YIN. Male and female. Hot and cold. Mass and energy. Smooth and crunchy. Odd and even. Sun and moon. Silence and noise. Space and time. Slave and master. Fast and slow. Large and small. Land and sea. Good and evil. On and off. Black and white. Strong and weak. Regular and filter king. Young and old. Light and shade. Fire and ice. Sickness and health. Hard and soft. Life and death.

All the Small Wars at Once


Historical origin of commas and periods in numbers

Question: I have heard that in Canada and the United States of America, when we write a decimal number, then we use a period, like 1.111. When we write large numbers, then we use a comma, like 1,111. Sometimes we use spaces for large numbers, like  1 111. I have also heard that Europe, Southern Africa, Central America, the West Indies, and South America use commas and periods the other way around. So, for Americans, 1.111 is the decimal number, while for Europeans, 1.111 is one thousand one hundred eleven. For Americans, 1,111 is one thousand one hundred eleven, while for Europeans, 1,111 is the decimal number. 1 111 is one thousand one hundred eleven for the entire world. How did the commas and periods develop historically?
Update: Recently, USA and China too switched to using comma for the decimal. Now "Made In China" products too display the decimal comma.
Comment: Note that resolution 10 of the 22nd CGPM in 2003 defines that either a comma or a point can be used as decimal marker, but only a space as a separator for groups of three digits. This is exactly to avoid confusion; 1.111 or 1,111 can only mean a decimal number, but it can never mean 1111. See https://www.bipm.org/documents/20126/33145759/CGPM22.pdf/36468a98-a1a8-7697-0470-5a3855653dc9
Comment: Note that as edited this is not correct as the UK is in Europe but uses the decimal point not the decimal comma.
Answer: (I must admit that I'm writing this mostly from memory and I don't have sources and not enough time to look for any, so some details may be wrong.)
Simon Stevin, who developed the notation of decimal fractions in the late 16th century, originally used a circle with numbers inside, so 1.111 would be written as "1⓪1①1②1③" and 365.256 (the length of a year in days) as 365⓪2①5②6③, where ⓪ means the preceding digits are the integer part, ① means 1/10, ② means 1/100 and so on. Stevin published this in the pamphlet "De Thiende" ("The Tenth"), written in Flemish, in 1585 (thanks to @njuffa for providing this detail in the comments).
The positional system for integer numbers had, by that time, already a long history; it was originally developed in India, spread through the Islamic world and was introduced to Europe by Leonardo von Pisa (Fibonacci) in 1202. So Stevin did not need or want to modify the integer part of a number, as this was already well established; Stevin's notation just extends it to include fractional parts by marking it with the circled numbers.
Later people found that the ①, ② etc. are not necessary; you only need the marker ⓪ where the integer part ends and the fractional part begins, and later the ⓪ developed into a dot as it was easier to write, initially centred above the line, but later on the line.
In Germany, Leibniz however introduced a center dot for multiplication (as we still do) instead of the cross in the UK. The reason was that he was working with symbolic algebra and introduced the convention to use x, y, z for unknowns, but the x can easily be confused with the multiplication cross.
But when using a dot for multiplication, having a dot as decimal marker leads again to confusion, so people started using a comma instead.
As France and Germany always had very intense cultural exchange, this became the norm in France too and spread to most other European countries (possibly with Napoleon and the metric system?).
By the way, this was formalised by the 9th Conférence Générale des Poids et Mesures (CGPM) in 1948 and the 22nd CGPM (2003). Resolution 10 of the 22nd CGPM says:

The 22nd General Conference (...)

declares that the symbol for the decimal marker shall be either the point on the line or the comma on the line,

reaffirms that "Numbers may be divided in groups of three in order to facilitate reading; neither dots nor commas are ever inserted in the spaces between groups", as stated in Resolution 7 of the 9th CGPM, 1948.

The second bit of the resolution is important and not well known; you should neither use a comma nor a point to separate the 1000s, just a space. This is exactly in order to avoid confusion, so 1.111 (like 1,111) can only ever mean 1+111/1000, but never 1111.
Comment: Stevin's notation seems to have first appeared in a 36-page pamphlet written in Flemish: Simon Stevin, "De Thiende." Leyden, Christoffel Plantijn 1585. The title translates to "The Tenth". I am unable to find an online scan. Translations into French ("La Disme") and English were also produced. An annotated collection of Stevin's works appeared as Albert Girard, "L'Arithmetique de Simon Stevin de Bruges." Leyden: Elzevier 1625. On [page 830](https://www.google.com/books/edition/L_arithm%C3%A9tique_de_Simon_Stevin_de_Bruge/hg9pAAAAcAAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1) start definitions and examples of the notation
Comment: @njuffa Yes, plural is better (in the example there was only one digit...). I clarify it.
Comment: Good information, but the CGPM seems pointless (no pun intended). Their first point (NPI) was "every current notion is Just Fine" and their second point (NPI) seems to be a compromise to follow no one's existing standard and is thus mostly ignored. (If Excel specifies a style, I imagine that's the actual standard.)
Comment: @MarkOlson: One can change settings in Excel so that it uses commata or points as the decimal marker. (As a German living in Canada, I have made use of that, although I have slowly come around to accepting the point even in private.)
Comment: @MarkOlson I'm not sure I understand really what you mean. The CGPM convention for the thousands divider (no symbol or a space) is very common and certainly not "mostly ignored". You have a point that their decision for the decimal marker is not particularly revolutionary, but as this was a question about the history of the notation it is a very important event that should be mentioned.


I want to remove one particular word (which is the name of someone) from appearing in atuo predict option

Question: There is a particular name of a person who was my EX and i used to exchange a lot of chats with him. Now that I have moved on, still my android suggests his name when i type certain combination of words. How can i solve this issue
Comment: Your Android version, model name, keyboard app name, device status: rooted/non-rooted?
Answer: If you want to remove the words used by the keyboard in the prediction, you can remove a particular word by long press on that particular word,a optipn will appear to remove it.
Answer: If your keyboard doesn't have a option after long pressing the required word to be hidden/forgotten,you can clear the whole history,a bit extreme but it's pretty easy from the options.
Answer: You can do it by removing it from Personal Dictionary.

You can access Personal Dictionary in.

settings > Languge and input > Personal Dictionary
There is also possiblity that name is showing because of saved contacts.

To disable it go to Spell Checker in Language and Input and uncheck look up for contacts.


Is it possible to resolve merge conflict for only specific files after rebase

Question: I was doing a git rebase. There were many merge conflicts during the rebase, and i had to resolve them manually. After the rebase, i have found out that i have made a mistake in resolving conflicts for some files. I would like to resolve the merge conflict again, but only for these files.
Is this possible at all? If it helps, i have only done a git add on these files. I have not committed anything yet.
Thanks,
Kartik
Answer: You can try using git merge --interactive. This should give you finer control over the merge process.


Hit dice vs Hit Points

Question: Old 1E player now getting back into 5E.  What are HIT DICE?  I understand hit points and a 3rd level player has rolled 3 times for HP ( I do like the MAX at first level and then roll option)  but what are Hit dice and why do they matter?
Comment: Have you read either the 5e PHB or even the free Basic PDF? It is explained in both, let us know if you read that and have subsequent questions. (Do you remember Hit Dice from 1e? It shouldn't be an entirely new term for you...)
Comment: Closing this for clarification.  Hit Dice are in 1e and you know what they mean there right? Have you at all looked at what they mean in 5e or did you just hear someone use the term? What exactly do you know and what exactly are you unclear on?
Comment: Related, but not convinced it's a duplicate: http://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/44516/how-can-i-associate-hit-dice-with-healing?rq=1
Comment: Similar question: http://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/47205/comparing-dd-mechanics-between-2e-and-5e/47362#47362
Comment: BobG: http://dnd.wizards.com/articles/features/basicrules___ The basic rules spell it out, located at the link.  If you read p 7 of basic rules (player) and p 3 of basic rules (DM) and still need clarification, you may be able to refine the question.
Answer: Hit Points are a pool of damage-soaking ability: damage deducts Hit Points from your total until you are dead. Healing restores Hit Points to the pool.
Hit Dice are how you get Hit Points. Hit Dice are rolled at each level, and your value on the roll is how many Hit Points you gain (plus whatever applicable bonuses). Thus, the total number of Hit Dice you have is equivalent to your Level.
The term "Hit Dice" is used instead of "Level" because monsters often don't really have levels, because they have no classes. They still have Hit Dice, though, so Hit Dice is a way of referring to level for both players and monsters.
Many things in 5e scale with your Hit Dice – that is, with your level. One of the most important of these is the healing you receive during a short rest: you can "spend" Hit Dice to heal (rolling the Hit Die + your Constitution modifier, and receiving that much healing), which you slowly regain (namely, half your total Hit Dice are recovered with each long rest).
Comment: Rolling hit dice during short rests to recover HP might also be worth mentioning here.
Comment: @mxyzplk Gut reaction, but this seemed like a reasonable source of confusion. It seemed harmless to me to answer it, and it seemed like it would be helpful not just to this user but potentially future users. I disagree that this is the same situation. I have actually upvoted the question, for that matter.
Comment: You've explained the part of hit dice that they say they understand in the question. The *other* major use of hit dice is healing, and since it's exactly what hit dice are in 5e that they're not in 1e, that seems to be far more important.
Comment: "Hit Dice" is a term used in 1e for the exact purpose described here and should be very familiar to a 1e player.  In fact, given that, I'm going to close this question as unclear
Comment: @Miniman Maybe, but ultimately HD are used for a *lot* of things, and that gets away from just a simple definition/explanation of why things are so.
Comment: May I remind you of your own answer to the "Read The Book To Me" meta question: http://meta.rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/5270/what-do-we-do-with-read-the-book-to-me-questions
Comment: It doesn't sound like confusion, it sounds like "I have not read the books just looked at a character sheet."
Comment: @mxyzplk Could be, didn't seem that way to me. Erred on the side of helpful.
Comment: @SevenSidedDie I thought the confusion arose from why the term "hit dice" is used and what it refers to. Yes, some of the answer re-iterates that, but that seemed worthwhile. But fine, I'll add it; it's not like more information *hurts* even if it is awkward to insert.

Hit dice vs Hit Points