Installing new OS using the Pi

Question: I don't have another computer to go in and mess around with the SD card. Is it possible to change operating systems from within the Pi itself?
Comment: your profile name implies that you already know the answer ..... lol
Comment: It's a joke name haha
Answer: Yes, if you have a second SD card, you can write that one from the running OS, then shut down the running OS and swap the newly-created card into the SD card slot. You will probably need a "USB SD adapter" device that can hold SD cards.
Once you've got the SD adapter and card plugged into the Pi you can use the dd command to copy the .IMG file to the new SD card (dd if=inputfile.img of=/dev/sdx iflag=fullblock oflag=direct status=progress), where /dev/sdx is the name of the device that you found from journalctl.
Answer: dd is the Unix utility to clone disks. (You can view the Linux "manual" page for it by typing man dd in a terminal window.)  It can a physical disk (including a memory card) to another.  I can clone a disk to a file image.  I can clone a file image to a disk, etc.  It operates at the block level of the device and doesn't care about partitions or filesystems (which means it can even clone filesystem types that Linux doesn't recognize).
The most basic version of the command needs an input file (source specified by if=___) and output file (destination).   The "input file" needs to be the name of your downloaded disk image file (the .img file).  The "output file" needs to be the raw device.
In Linux, the devices are always special files in the /dev folder.  If you peek inside /dev you'll see lots of them.  But there is a naming convention.  The device will typically have a name of /dev/sd__.  The "sd" stands for "SCSI device" (some would say "SCSI disk").  Technically your device isn't a SCSI device but that convention has expanded and now all sorts of USB attached devices are reported as if they are SCSI devices.
There will be at least one more letter... e.g. /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc, etc.  The "a", "b", "c" is used to differentiate which device in the event that you have several of them connected at the same time.  Your device will probably show up as /dev/sdb (but that's not a guarantee... check it).  lsblk will show you a device tree of all connected block devices.  (Alternatively you can type dmesg and just the last few lines of output will show the device that it just attached.  You want the last device it found.)
Here is an example and how to interpret the output:
pi@timspi:/dev $ lsblk
NAME        MAJ:MIN RM   SIZE RO TYPE MOUNTPOINT
sdb           8:16   1  29.8G  0 disk
├─sdb1        8:17   1   319M  0 part
└─sdb2        8:18   1  29.5G  0 part
mmcblk0     179:0    0 119.3G  0 disk
├─mmcblk0p1 179:1    0  43.2M  0 part /boot
└─mmcblk0p2 179:2    0 119.2G  0 part /

I have two devices ...
One is "mmcblk0".  This is actually the card that my Pi is currently using.  You can see it has two partitions and they are mounted as "/boot" and "/".
The other is "sdb".  This is the device that only showed up when I inserted an extra microSD card (via a card reader) into a USB port on the Pi.  It also has two partition (sdb1 and sdb2) but they are not mounted (notice the "MOUNTPOINT" column is empty).
If I wanted to overwrite this card with a new OS image, then I would set the dd "of" (output file) parameter to of=/dev/sdb (not sdb1 or sdb2 ... those only address individual partitions or "slices" on the disk).
If your microSD card was previously formatted with an image that the Pi recognizes, it may try to mount any filesystems it finds.  You should unmount them before issuing the dd command.
e.g. sudo umount /dev/sdb1; sudo umount /dev/sdb2
Once you know the device you need to use as the output file, use the dd command suggested by bls in the answer above.

Installing new OS using the Pi


ZF Autoloader to load ancestor and requested class

Question: I am integrating Zend Framework into an existing application. I want to switch the application over to Zend's autoloading mechanism to replace dozens of include() statements.
I have a specific requirement for the autoloading mechanism, though. Allow me to elaborate.
The existing application uses a core library (independent from ZF), for example:
/Core/Library/authentication.php
/Core/Library/translation.php
/Core/Library/messages.php

this core library is to remain untouched at all times and serves a number of applications. The library contains classes like
class ancestor_authentication { ... }
class ancestor_translation { ... }
class ancestor_messages { ... }

in the application, there is also a Library directory:
/App/Library/authentication.php
/App/Library/translation.php
/App/Library/messages.php

these includes extend the ancestor classes and are the ones that actually get instantiated in the application.
class authentication extends ancestor_authentication { }
class translation extends ancestor_translation { }
class messages extends ancestor_messages { }

usually, these class definitions are empty. They simply extend their ancestors and provide the class name to instantiate.
$authentication = new authentication();

The purpose of this solution is to be able to easily customize aspects of the application without having to patch the core libraries.
Now, the autoloader I need would have to be aware of this structure. When an object of the class authentication is requested, the autoloader would have to:
1. load  /Core/Library/authentication.php
2. load  /App/Library/authentication.php

My current approach would be creating a custom function, and binding that to Zend_Loader_Autoloader for a specific namespace prefix.

Is there already a way to do this in Zend that I am overlooking? The accepted answer in this question kind of implies there is, but that may be just a bad choice of wording.
Are there extensions to the Zend Autoloader that do this?
Can you - I am new to ZF - think of an elegant way, conforming with the spirit of the framework, of extending the Autoloader with this functionality? I'm not necessary looking for a ready-made implementation, some pointers (This should be an extension to the xyz method that you would call like this...) would already be enough.
Answer: See the manual on Zend_Loader:

By default, the autoloader is configured to match the "Zend_" and "ZendX_" namespaces. If you have your own library code that uses your own namespace, you may register it with the autoloader using the registerNamespace() method.

$autoloader->registerNamespace('My_');

Note that the autoloader follows the ZF Naming Convention, so Zend_Foo_Bar will look in Zend/Foo/Bar.php.
However,

You can also register arbitrary autoloader callbacks, optionally with a specific namespace (or group of namespaces). Zend_Loader_Autoloader will attempt to match these first before using its internal autoloading mechanism.

$autoloader->pushAutoloader(array('ezcBase', 'autoload'), 'ezc');

Another way would be to create custom class Loader extending Zend_Loader and then register it with:
Zend_Loader::registerAutoload('My_Loader');

ZF will then use this autoloader instead of the default one.
Comment: Cheers @Gordon, I'm going to go with the Zend_Loader_Autoloader approach shown by @Stefan in this case. As so often, I would like to be able to accept both answers. Ah well...
Answer: To extend what Gordon already pointed out, I'd create my own autoloader class that implements Zend_Loader_Autoloader_Interface and push that onto the Zend_Loader_Autoloader-stack.
class My_Autoloader implements Zend_Loader_Autoloader_Interface
{
    public function autoload($class)
    {
        // add your logic to find the required classes in here
    }
}

$autoloader = Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance();
// pushAutoloader() or unshiftAutoloader() depending on where
// you'd like to put your autoloader on the stack
// note that we leave the $namespace parameter empty
// as your classes don't share a common namespace
$autoloader->pushAutoloader(new My_Autoloader(), '');

I wouldn't go with the Zend_Loader approach as, even though not deprecated yet, the new Zend_Loader_Autoloader seems to be best practice currently.


Microsoft Visual C++ 2010, 2008, 2005: removeable?

Question: I have about one million different Microsoft Visual C++ Runtimes installed...  2005, 2008, 2010.  Can I remove some of them, or will I have issues?
Answer: You should be able to remove the versions you no longer need as each is a separate installation and they run side-by-side with no issues (that I know of).
If you want to be 100% sure you could uninstall them all and then reinstall only the ones you want to use, but that shouldn't be necessary.
Comment: A fairly safe method of seeing if the DLLs are still in use is to check HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\SharedDLLs. The 2005 DLL will have an entry like C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\VC\msdia80.dll, and it should have a number associated with it. If that number is not zero (0), some program has reported to Windows that it is still using that DLL.  The 2008 DLL will be msdia90.dll; the 2010 one will be msdia100.dll.
Comment: As with anything, check and test.
Answer: These runtimes are installed by programs that need them, and generally left after you uninstall them. This is done for two reasons: 1, they're shared between programs so it's hard to figure out if there is another program relying on them. 2. Since they're shared, and because they only use CPU time and RAM when actually used, there's little profit in removing them when unused.
You would have to check if all your programs still run after removing one of them. If not, you would have to reinstall the runtime, so make sure that you only remove the ones for which you have a download link.


What is correct course of action when finding free software projects whose executables are spreading a virus

Question: Today I found a GPLed project on SourceForge whose executables are spreading a virus. This fact has been pointed out several times in reviews of the project and the infected executable is still available for download. Apparently, older executables are not infected, so the project itself does not seem to be made with malicious purpose in mind.

There is no preferred way to contact developers and forums for the project are dead.

What should I do?Comment: This question is on topic, but in the future, if you want to ask if a question is on-topic, please use the [meta site](http://meta.programmers.stackexchange.com/)
Comment: Why wait before contacting SourceForge directly? Verify if it's a virus, then contact them right away.
Comment: Your edits made this question *off topic* / *too localized*. Programmers.SE is for subjective or extended discussion about topics concerning the majority of programmers, not for diagnosing virus scans.
Comment: @Mark Trapp  Yeah, I was thinking how to split this into two parts, one for general case and one for this specific case. The second part can be considered off-topic.
Answer: If you can't get in touch with the developers, then contact SourceForge.  Report the problem, give them detailed information they can use to verify the issue, and they'll (probably) take it down.  They're a reputable site and I imagine they wouldn't want to be associated with malware.
Comment: Hey Mason, What do you think about the fact that inbetween when you posted this question and today, SourceForge's reputation has both plummeted and ownership has changed hands (and this SourceForge has *potentially* had its reputation slowly climb back up)?   Should this answer reflect the fact that when people actually asked SourceForge to do something about it, they didn't do anything, and at times, it was SourceForge itself who was responsible for delivering these viruses, either through ads, or through its own intent?
Comment: @opa Wow, yeah, this is an answer that hasn't aged well...
Answer: I would start by sending an email to the project maintainer and developers.
Answer: The State of Projects
Old popular, and no longer maintained and forgotten projects can often be used as a vector to spread viruses if someone is able to compromise the account and upload a new compiled version. The same has often been done with automatic update systems - even worse as they'll deliver themselves and often install an update on the users' systems without the end user knowing.
Possible Actions to Take
Maintainers and Developers
You can try to contact the developer/maintainers(s) but if it's an old project it's unlikely that they will respond. If their account has been compromised then you'll be giving them a heads up or left shouting at a wall.
Platform / Delivery Network
You may have a better chance removing the malicious code by contacting the platform that is hosting the software. I myself haven't tried to directly contact a platform like Sourceforge or NPM. The likelihood that you receive a response back is often tied to the size of the business and if it has been monetized -- if it's a one person show then good luck!
The more information you have to verify your takedown request the more likely and speedily it should happen.
The Community & Your Voice
Often you may try the above steps and get here feeling powerless, but if you're able to leave a comment or review on the software that may be the best thing you can do. Even though many end users will still download the software blindly or previously trust the software.

Extra: Recently & Future Prevention
Stop Reading Here™ or Continue ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
There was a highly used NPM package that the original maintainer was done with - as many open source projects reach in their life cycle. Someone reached out asking to maintain it. Surely this must feel like a nagging burden lifted from a developer's shoulders. Unfortunately the new maintainer released malware to steal crypto wallets.
Ironically I heard about this through word of mouth and reading the issue opened on the github repository before reading an article about it or seeing it show up in the npm audit. This goes to show that your voice on a public platform really can have an impact.
Our meetup group had a quick talk around what the community could do to prevent such a thing, and whose responsibility it is to prevent such from happening.
Platform / Delivery Network
Making it npm's responsibility would require a monetized situation in place which would suck, or maybe it would only be available to businesses - but then everyone else would benefit for free?
Source Maintainer
As open source maintainers we need to be mindful of the consequences of our actions. If you've been an open source maintainer it can become a chore as your intrinsic value you get from the project diminishes. It would be hard to say no to someone that seemingly has the energy you once had to keep your project moving forward. One thing to note is that some platforms allow for a review process before publishing if the correct permission levels are in place. In this instance the project's ownership was completely handed over, you should try not to do this unless you absolutely trust the person/entity - even still this feels like it's not a clean way of conducting the continuation of software that has been established and trusted. People could also make their on forks of code but then that can get messy. Sometimes the best course of action is to archive a project, deprecate it and try to move users towards a new library/project instead.
Community & Consumers
Current infrastructure could use some features to help out.
For instance releases could be verified, approved, or flagged by the community, just like how torrents can be rated up or down by the community so others can make quick decisions before they take the plunge. A high negative rating could flag a package and warn consumers about it and future installs.
As a consumer who blindly installs software and updates to it, it is your responsibility to watch what you're consuming. You can use package managers that have version locking in place to help negate this. Unfortunately I doubt many people spend the time required to review the 100's of packages they're installing when they lay down a good'ol npm install. Some businesses go through a vendor process when software changes; I would hope no business does this for NPM packages (it could seriously halt development), but this was an option brought up.
Money $$$
Nobody wants to pay for free open source software, but if those who were writing code were rewarded for their contributions they may be more motivated to maintain their software and community image. Money could come directly from the consumers or as a trickle down for the platform it's being delivered on. As much as I would hate to see it, I could see libraries following the same path as CI platforms - free for open source but cost for private/business - this could be handled with licensing, but developers don't want to waste time becoming licencing professions either (maybe they could be simplified and straight forward).


Do traps improve when you level the ability after you place them?

Question: For example, if I place a Yordle Snap Trap and then put a point into that ability, will the placed snap trap benefit from the higher level when it is activated?
Comment: I know that spells check level when they're triggered (try leveling up a spell mid-flight!) , but I'm not sure if, for traps, that means when they're placed or when they go off.
Answer: There are a couple of champions who have "latent" trap-like abilities. Testing has indicated that most already placed traps benefit from leveling up, but others (specifically Maokai's saplings) do not benefit from leveling it up.
TLDR:

Nidalee's traps scale retroactively
Teemo's shrooms scale retroactively
Shaco's JackInTheBox scales retroactively
Catilyn's traps scale retroactively.

Maokai's saplings do not scale retroactively. Poor outlier Maokai.

Original Answer
I coerced my friend FallenAngelEyes into helping me test this out with Maokai and his saplings (alas, I do not own Caitlyn).

This is from the level 1 sapling. Nasus takes 64 damage.
I then threw another sapling, then, after it was thrown, leveled up Throw Sapling to level 2.

This did 63 damage, so leveling up sapling toss after the sapling is already in the world has no effect. Compared to later testing, THIS IS THE EXCEPTION!
(Note:That sneaky Nasus gained a level between tests, and increased his magic resistance enough to mitigate 1 damage! Jerk.)
Finally, I threw a 3rd sapling, from level 2, to establish a baseline at the second rank. As expected, it did more damage.

But one ability on one champion doesn't tell the whole story. I then re-ran the tests with Teemo and his traps, and leveling the ability did update existing traps. Teemo and Maokai got different results!
Shaco, Caitlyn, and Nidalee's traps all scale retroactively as well.
The behavior seems intended that traps scale retroactivley - 'tis only Maokai (who was, unfortunately, the first one we tested) that doesn't adhere to this.
Comment: Just as extra information: All of them will use your current Armor/Magic penetration when the trap is triggered (rather than using your penetrations when it's placed). Kind of obvious, but thought it should be explicit :-)
Comment: Perhaps "Testing of this is still ongoing, but preliminary results would indicate that already placed traps do not benefit from leveling it up." ought to be removed, considering you've since discovered it's the other way around.


Is the zero distance limit of Coulomb's law something to worry about?

Question: Coulomb's law fails when the distance $r$ between to point charges vanishes. As $r\to 0$, the electric field between two point changes increases without limit. I should be bothered about the limit $r\to 0$ only if that limit is a physical limit. For example, does anyone ever directly have to use Coulomb's law to determine the force between two overlapping electrons? Even in quantum mechanics, the singularity of the Coulomb potential at $r=0$ do not pose any problem. Hydrogen atom exists and is solvable. So my question is are there situations in physics where $r\to 0$ can be a physical limit and one needs to worry (particularly, classical physics)?
Comment: The hydrogen atom model in QM has an angular momentum barrier.  The singularity is still there.
Comment: @ggcg Of course, the singularity is there. The point I'm trying to make is that $r=0$ is not a physical domain. Hence, we need not worry about the potential becoming infinity at $r=0$. In H atom the electron cannot occupy the $r=0$ location which makes the $r=0$ is not at all a physical limit.
Comment: @mithusengupta123 What if this were the case of two protons in the nucleus? That makes it possible for particles to exist within $r \to 0$ .
Answer: No. Nobody has been able to do an experiment that distinguishes an electron from a true point particle. That is to say, if it has a non-zero radius, it is smaller than we can measure.
By overlapping electrons, you likely mean electrons with overlapping wave functions. This does not mean the electrons occupy the same extended regions of space. It means they are likely to be found at separate points in the same region.
Protons do have a finite radius, but this is misleading. Protons contain quarks. The location of the quarks is limited by the Uncertainty Principal. The radius of the proton is more or less the uncertainty in position of the quarks. The quarks themselves have no known size.
E&M works very well on the smallest scales we can measure.
Answer: Let us separate the classical 1/r singularities from the quantum potentials  used in quantum mechanical equations.
In classical physics, there are no point particles by definition of particle, which has to have a mass. So there will be no possibility of two charged particles to interact at r=0. Their mass will not allow it.
In quantum mechanics the classical 1/r potentials are used to derive the wave functions that describe the quantum mechanical particles. These wave functions with the boundary conditions imposed will give $Ψ*Ψ$ as the probability to find the quntum mechanical particle at $(0,0,0)$. For some systems this is a nonzero value, which means that the orbitals pass through  the pole of the potential, but the interaction is only through the quantum mechanical solutions, not directly particle with the potential. Here are the hydrogen orbitals, and some do pass through $(0,0,0)$.

This overlap is how electron capture works in nuclear interactions.
In general one can say that quantum mechanics  with its probabilistic nature takes care of classical singularities, which is how effective quantization  of gravity is used in the Big Bang model.


Google Gears drag and drop upload

Question: I recently watched the google wave video from google i/o where they said you can drag and drop files from windows explorer to the browser and upload them using gears. Can someone point me in the right direction to do this myself? I've browsed around the gears api page on google code and can't really find any examples that even come close to this.
Answer: You have some info here:
http://fvisticot.blogspot.com/2009/06/google-gears-desktop-drag-and-drop.html
Answer: You may want to try plupload, it allows you to upload files using HTML5 Gears, Silverlight, Flash, BrowserPlus or normal forms, providing features such as upload progress, image resizing and chunked uploads. (See http://www.plupload.com/)
Answer: i've also been looking - the best i've found so far is this but it's not very well documented
http://code.google.com/p/jquerymultiupload/
Josh
Answer: Here is a good post about gears drag-drop upload with ASP.NET
http://coderbag.com/Web-Development/Drag-Drop-file-Upload-With-Google-Gears-and-ASP-NET
Answer: I ended up finding a different solution.
I just used SWFUpload (found it on Google). Not as slick as drag and drop, but it's a lot easier to set up and allows users to do multiple files at once.
Comment: Just used SWFUpload (google it)
Not as slick as drag and drop, but its a lot easier to set up and lets users do multiple files at once.

Google Gears drag and drop upload


How to interpret fish plot in R

Question: I am working on subclonal evolution of multiple myeloma. After literature survey, I found people use Fish plot to represent tumor evolution. The example of fish plot can be found here. But I am not able to interpret this plot. How this plot represent tumor evolution and subclones in tumor. Can anybody explain with example. Thanks.
Comment: Have you read the paper cited in your link? Doesn't that explain them? We can't help you understand a plot if you don't even tell us what is being plotted, what the y-axis represents.
Comment: @terdon : This is what I did as first step. But in their paper, they have not given any such explanation or interpretation of Fish plot (implementation info given only) . Paper can be found at (https://bmcgenomics.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12864-016-3195-z). I was hoping to get some useful information in paper but not.
Comment: The population (cells) is going through a bottleneck, whether that is a population size, aneuploidy, dysregulation I've no idea, the y-axis is not labelled. If it's not an oncovirus I'm stumped. Oh it's longitudinal study BTW (obviously)
Answer: Each color is a clone (set of mutations) or an individual mutation (depends on how the input data was generated). This is a cancer with the bottleneck likely being induced by a treatment (e.g. UV, chemo, drugs, etc...)
Based on the vignette this is likely an AML (leukemia).
It looks like grey are healthy cells. At day 0 a specific clone (red) existed at a low frequency (~20-40%). The patient (or cells) was then exposed to a treatment and on day 150 another measurement was taken. In this case two novel clones (subclones of red) have taken over the population. They seem to co-exist or are co-dominate clones with orange being 50-60% of the population and yellow being 30-40%.
The example says "Simple plot with multiple subclones" so: the orange and yellow populations have additional (likely mutually exclusive) mutations that were not present in the red clone - but biologically also have all the mutations in the red clone. So my first assumption was right - each color is a proxy for a set of mutations.
You could have generated the mutation data (i.e. allele frequencies) from a wide variety of sources (scRNA-Seq, exome-sequencing, PCR genotyping, etc...)
Comment: Thanks for this simplistic explanation. I want to know  what does that narrow gray color line, width of each sub-region represent in the above figure (between day 0 and day 150). In the same example (`https://www.rdocumentation.org/packages/fishplot/versions/0.4`)  the other graph with `More complex clonal structure`, in day 403, blue region continue till day 403 but width reduces and green/red region starts very  late in day 403 region. Does that mean that sub-clone represented by blue region still exists in tumor on day 403 and green/red sub-clones  develop on last time span?
Comment: Similarly, in figure `Multiple independent clones, many timepoints`, your explaination is not perfectly applicable. One sub-clone is coming separately from healthy cells. But as per your explanation, all the sub-clones should lie in between healthy cell region (even for multiple clones).
Comment: Its easy, the graph infers treatment was counter-productive. There is an initial clonal expansion of a cancerous cell (red), within healthy tissue (grey). The cancerous cells appears to be controlled by treatment, but healthy tissue is also destroyed (bottleneck). Two new clonal expansions emerge in place of the red/grey cells post-treatment and rapidly become dominant. Thus treatment has lead to a more aggressive cancer, i.e. counter-productive. In population genetics its a "selective sweep", orange/yellows clones are likely present in the originally but couldn't become dominant.
Answer: Author of the package here, stumbled across this today.  The existing explanation is close, but not entirely correct.
Our paper describes it like this: "We first created a fish plot of an AML patient with a chemotherapy-induced bottleneck that eliminated one subclone, while another survived and drove the relapse".
In other words, the grey represents a tumor, starting from a single cell (point at far left). The tumor grows and expands, acquiring additional mutations (red) that increase the relative growth rate of a subclone.  When sampled at day 0 (when the patient showed up with cancer), the red subclone made up about a third of the tumor cells.  Chemotherapy was applied, shrinking the tumor dramatically and completely eliminating the red subclone (patient went into remission).
Unfortunately, remission doesn't always mean "cured", as this tumor persisted, and picked up more mutations (orange subclone), and then within that subclone, picked up even more (yellow subclone).  Each gave those cells sufficient growth advantage that at relapse, essentially all of the tumor cells were comprised of the orange subclone, with a subset of cells that contained both the orange and yellow mutations.
There are also subtleties about whether the orange and yellow mutations pre-existed at very low levels (below the sensitivity of the sequencing that was performed), or were actually brand new mutations, but that's outside the scope of this explanation!

How to interpret fish plot in R


I can't designate barracks

Question: According to the barracks wiki page, beds, cabinets, chests, bags, weapon racks, or armor stands can be used to make a barracks. I have built an armor and weapon rack in a room, but it is not giving me the r button option to make a barracks. What am I missing?
Link to save
Comment: I don't use it. Also, considering it turned out to be **entirely the cause of the problem you had**, I feel justified here.
Comment: Why the downvote?
Comment: That was me and because one of my pet peeves is people asking questions about modded games and not bothering to mention it
Comment: @Studoku You might want to rethink your philosophy there... especially considering DFHack is basically standard.
Comment: This is a useful question and answer, I had the same problem. Anyone using the lazy newb pack could run into this.
Answer: I figured out my problem. I'm using DFHack, so for all of my previous room assignments (ie bed to bedroom, chair to office)I just clicked on the tile to make it work. This doesn't work for barracks, so I instead need to use the q key explicitly.

I can't designate barracks


Can I trust that Shakespeare's sonnets will always be published with the same numbering system?

Question: Can I trust that Shakespeare's sonnets will always be published using the same numbering system? Will Sonnet 30 always be published as Sonnet 30; sonnet 29 always as 29? Was the current order and numbering system published or in manuscript form in Shakespeare's lifetime, or by people who knew him after his death? Or was this numbering system set in place one or two hundred years later? How set in stone is it? Can this exact numbering system be trusted to be followed for the next 40 years at least?
Answer: Since the numbering that we have become familiar with stems from the first edition, printed in 1609 by Thomas Thorpe, this is also the numbering used in most modern editions. However, it has been noted that not all of the sonnets in the 1609 edition were printed in their natural order. For example, Edward Bliss Reed noted in his 1923 Yale edition,

The two chief literary problems are: when were these sonnets written and in what order should they be printed? (…)
The order of the sonnets is a fascinating study. It has sometimes been assumed that sonnets Nos. 1–125 are all written to or about a lovely youth. It is certain that No. 126, the lyric in couplets, marks a division in the series and that most of the sonnets placed after it concern themselves directly or indirectly with the dark woman; but it does not follow as a corollary that all the sonnets before No. 126 refer to a man. (…)
It is easy to see that many of the sonnets are printed in their proper sequence (Nos. 1–17, 40–42, 63–65, 78–86, for example), but on the other hand some sonnets are clearly out of their natural order (cf. Nos. 70, 77, 81). It is not at all certain that all of the sonnets before No. 126 must refer to the youth Shakespeare praised, though Thorpe may have thought so or wished the reader to think so. (…)

However, as can be seen from the table of contents of the Yale edition, Reed preserved the original order. For example, sonnet 18 is Shall I compare thee to a summer's day?, sonnet 55 is Not marble nor the gilded monuments and sonnet 116 is Let me not to the marriage of true minds, just like on Poetry Foundation and many other sites. William J. Rolfe's 1883 edition also uses the familiar numbering and order.
The two editions I own, i.e. one edited by Peter Kerrigan (Penguin) and one edited by Colin Burrow (The Complete Sonnets and Poems, Oxford University Press) also use the familiar order and numbering.
But since the sonnets were not printed in their natural order nor, presumably, in the order they were written, research has been done to determine a more sensible order or even a chronological order. For example, All the Sonnets of Shakespeare, edited by Paul Edmondson and Stanley Wells (Cambridge University Press, 2020) claims to the first edition that

assembles all of Shakespeare's sonnets in their probable order of composition.

It does not only include the 154 sonnets from Thorpe's 1609 quarto edition, but also the sonnets in Shakespeare's plays. However, the order from the 1609 edition can be reconstructed by using an index at the back of the book. This implicitly acknowledges that the numbering is an established feature of the sonnets from the 1609 quarto.
No manuscripts of Shakespeare's plays and poems have survived, with the possible exception of an excerpt from Sir Thomas More, a collaborative play that was not printed and probably never performed during the Jacobethan era. Because of this, all modern editions of Shakespeare's plays and poems are based on editions published between the early 1590s and the closure of the theatres in 1642.
Conclusion: Modern editions of Shakespeare's sonnets usually preserve the order and numbering used in the 1609 quarto edition published by Thomas Thorpe.

Update in response to the following comment by Jimbo:

Did the 1609 quarto just set the order, or did it actually assign the numbers we are familiar with to the sonnets? Since Shakespeare was alive in 1609, one assumes he may have assigned an order to the sonnets that made sense to him. But then again, sometimes arbitrary publishing decisions are made without consulting the author.

We don't know whether the numbering was provided by Shakespeare or by Thomas Thorpe. In Shakespeare's Sonnets and Poems: A Very Short Introduction (Oxford University Press, 2017), Jonathan F. S. Post points out that (emphasis mine),

Once regarded as an unscrupulous opportunist, Thorpe has since been accorded greater respect as a reliable publisher of important books (Jonson's Volpone for one, in 1605). But is is also true that he was not always squeaky clean in his dealings with literary property of the period, and we are still unsure how he managed to acquire the manuscript of Shakespeare's poems. Furthermore, we cannot know to what degree, if at all, Shakespeare was involved in the publication of the Sonnets that he authored.

If Shakespeare wasn't involved in the publication of his sonnets, that would be consistent with his non-involvement in the publication of his plays.
Comment: This is a good overview and makes it clear why it is reasonable to use the standard numbering; even if someone publishes a reordered issue occasionally, it won't change how they have been referred to in hundreds of earlier books. Although if you want to be helpful, you could use the first line as well, which is also commonly used to identify individual sonnets.
Comment: Thanks for the response Tsundoku. Did the 1609 quarto just set the order, or did it actually assign the numbers we are familiar with to the sonnets? Since Shakespeare was alive in 1609, one assumes he may have assigned an order to the sonnets that made sense to him. But then again, sometimes arbitrary publishing decisions are made without consulting the author. It sounds like there is some small chance the order/numbering could undergo a "groundbreaking" reinterpretation in the future.
Comment: @Jimbo That is something I have been unable to establish. Thomas Thorpe was from Stratford where he had lived just around the corner from Shakespeare, so the men probably know each other before moving to London. In addition, the sonnets seemed to have been printed more carefully than the plays. This suggests that fewer liberties may have been taken during the printing process but does not explain why certain sonnets seem to be printed out of order. In the absence of manuscripts, it's hard to day what happened. (1/2)
Comment: I can check some additional sources and update my answer if I find anything that sheds light on this. (2/2)


Did the 1st Century Church Accept the Deuterocanonical books?

Question: I understand that both the Eastern Orthodoxy and the Catholic Church accept the Deuterocanonical books as scripture. However, since their founding (I understand that they would both claim to begin with Jesus, I'm referring to their coming to power in a way) happened later in the 3rd century, I'm curious if any citations exist that suggest the 1st Century Church (or 2nd) supported the Deuterocanon.
Comment: Related: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/86011/50422
Comment: @SpiritRealmInvestigator related but different question.
Comment: Somebody could quote the content here in an answer, and it would be a good one: http://www.cin.org/users/james/files/deutero2.htm
Comment: @ken considering its from Jimmy Akin, it would be quite good!
Comment: The problem to some extent with this question as phrased and thus with many of the answers which conclude no is what does "accept" mean, what does the "church" mean and what does "canon" mean. The more Protestant answers conclude no for the deutrocanonicals while assuming a uniform consistent acceptance of the rest of Scripture (OT and NT) but is that what history shows?
Answer: Did the 1st Century Church Accept the Deuterocanonical books?
The actual answer to this riddle is unknown, but some have quoted these sources. Even the apocryphal Book of Enoch is referenced to in the New Testament. The Book of Enoch is now regarded as scripture only by the Ethiopian Orthodox Tewahedo Church and the Eritrean Orthodox Tewahedo Church.
The Catholic canon was set at the Council of Rome (382), the same Council commissioned Jerome to compile and translate those canonical texts into the Latin Vulgate Bible. In the wake of the Protestant Reformation, the Council of Trent (1546) affirmed the Vulgate as the official Catholic Bible in order to address changes Martin Luther made in his recently completed German translation which was based on the Hebrew language Tanakh in addition to the original Greek of the component texts.
I honestly do not know what books where accepted by the Church in the first two centuries and I doubt anyone can confirm a known Bible Canon to have existed at that time period, one way or another.
Due to the lack of historical documentations it is not clearly known. But glimmers seems to point in a positive way of affirmation, at lest for me.
It seems only natural that the Biblical Canon would be defined after the Age of Persecutions had ended and the Church could devote more time to Doctrine and Scriptural subjects instead of fighting for her safety.
Some Deuterocanonical books seemed to have been held up in higher esteem than some of the Apocrypha books; but no known Canon is known to have existed, until the fourth century.
During the Reformation, for largely doctrinal reasons Protestants removed seven books from the Old Testament (1 and 2 Maccabees, Sirach, Wisdom, Baruch, Tobit, and Judith) and parts of two others (Daniel and Esther), even though these books had been regarded as canonical since the beginning of Church history.
For example, Irenaeus of Lyons (c. 130 – c. 202 AD) makes note of Dan. 13 in his Against Heresies 4:26:3 [A.D. 189]. Dan. 13 is not in the Protestant Bible!

"Those . . . who are believed to be presbyters by many, but serve their own lusts and do not place the fear of God supreme in their hearts, but conduct themselves with contempt toward others and are puffed up with the pride of holding the chief seat [Matt. 23:6] and work evil deeds in secret, saying <code>No man sees us,' shall be convicted by the Word, who does not judge after outward appearance, nor looks upon the countenance, but the heart; and they shall hear those words to be found in Daniel the prophet: </code>O you seed of Canaan and not of Judah, beauty has deceived you and lust perverted your heart' [Dan. 13:56]. You that have grown old in wicked days, now your sins which you have committed before have come to light, for you have pronounced false judgments and have been accustomed to condemn the innocent and to let the guilty go free, although the Lord says, `You shall not slay the innocent and the righteous' [Dan. 13:52, citing Ex. 23:7]" (Against Heresies 4:26:3 [A.D. 189]; Dan. 13 is not in the Protestant Bible). - The Old Testament Canon

Hippolytus of Rome (c. 170 – c. 235 AD) also quotes Dan. 13.

"What is narrated here [in the story of Susannah] happened at a later time, although it is placed at the front of the book [of Daniel], for it was a custom with the writers to narrate many things in an inverted order in their writings. . . . [W]e ought to give heed, beloved, fearing lest anyone be overtaken in any transgression and risk the loss of his soul, knowing as we do that God is the judge of all and the Word himself is the eye which nothing that is done in the world escapes. Therefore, always watchful in heart and pure in life, let us imitate Susannah" (Commentary on Daniel [A.D. 204]; the story of Susannah [Dan. 13] is not in the Protestant Bible). - The Old Testament Canon

The Didache:

"You shall not waver with regard to your decisions [Sir. 1:28]. Do not be someone who stretches out his hands to receive but withdraws them when it comes to giving [Sir. 4:31]" (Didache 4:5 [A.D. 70]).

One could go on.
Thus the Early Church made use of the Deuterocanonical books in her teachings, even though a fixed Canon was still in the makings.
Answer: The Deuterocanonicals belong to an era before Christ was born. The text of the OT was written over about 1,000 years. The last prophetic book, Malachi, was written a little before 400 B.C. None of the writings during the 400 year period from then till Christ was born were accepted as Scripture by Judaism, but accepted as  valuable for understanding Jewish history and culture. They came to be known as "the Deuterocanonical books".
Let me quote from this site:  http://www.bible.ca/b-canon-council-of-jamnia.htm  re. Jewish views on such matters:

"In 90 AD, the council of Jamnia was unimportant in determining the
Jewish Canon. It was not a major council like Nicea, but a small
collection of rabbinic Jewish leaders. They did not gather to
determine the canon of the Old Testament, but rather limited their
discussion to the books of Ecclesiastes and the Song of Solomon.
Roman Catholics and Orthodox leaders misrepresent history when they
make claims that the Canon of the Old Testament was not fixed until
the council of Jamnia in 90 AD... There was clearly a fixed canon long
before Jesus was born."

So, what would that fixed canon be? Rabbi Yochanan ben Zakkai managed to escape Jerusalem before its destruction in A.D. 70 and received permission to rebuild a Jewish base in Jamnia. It was there that discussion of Ecclesiastes and the Song of Solomon in the Hebrew Bible was discussed and those books formally accepted, although we have no complete surviving record of these debates. https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/omitting-the-maccabees/
But here is what Philo says:

"Flavius Josephus, the famous Jewish historian, a priest and a
nobleman, wrote an important treatise in defence of the Jews. It was
entitled 'Contra Apionem', and is dated circa AD 100" and quotes parts
related to the canon [of Hebrew scriptures]. It deduces from this that
"There are several things to note from these remarks of Josephus. (i)
For him the canon whose verbal form was inviolable was closed and in
fact had been closed from the time of Artaxerxes (465-425 BC) -
essentially the time of Malachi. "The number of 'reliable' books which
allow for no alteration and are the code on which Jewish life is
based... is final... and a sharp line is drawn between them and the
numerous records of the period after Artaxerxes which cannot be fully
trusted" (Katz, p.76). (ii) This closed canon was a canon of 22 books
arranged in three parts - 5 books of Moses, 13 of the prophets and 4
of hymns and practical precepts... his OT canon would be identical
with ours irrespective of how he arranged the books within it."
(p.28).

This is the historic evidence before the Catholic church was established, and long before the canon of the NT was sorted. The Protestant view includes as canonical those Hebrew books that were quoted from in the NT. This is another reason for the Protestant OT canon differing from the Catholic OT canon, for the Catholics were happy to use material that was never referred to in the NT. In a nutshell, Flavius Josephus's writing about the Hebrew [OT] canon, circa AD 100, is what Protestants go by.
That canon was closed by the time of Jesus. The only issue is whether post-Malachi writings should be included - Catholicism says 7 of them should. But neither Catholics nor Protestants decided the original canon of the OT. The Jewish nation had that sorted before Christianity ever began! Two Church Councils (Hippo, AD 393 & Carthage, 397) had a canon of 46 books for the OT and 27 for the NT, just what the later Protestants had in 1529, though the 7 Deuterocanonicals were put by Luther into an Appendix at the end of the Bible. The settled canon was exactly the same back then as for the much later Council of Trent in 1563. Only from around 1826 the Protestants stopped including the Apocrypha, even as an Appendix. But the Council of Nicaea in 325 had nothing to do with the canon of scripture.
See also http://www.ntcanon.org/ http://www.letusreason.org/rc15.htm
The Deutercanonicals belong to the era before Christ was born. The 1st Century Church did not accept them as sacred scripture, though they knew about them.
Comment: This answer claims (dubiously) that 1st-century Jews had rejected the Deuterocanon, but it doesn't say anything about 1st-century Christians. This is an important distinction because, among other reasons, the Jews read their canon differently than a Christian would read her Bible. For the Jews of history and today, the Torah is the only "Word of God". The rest of the Tanach is inspired commentary, history, etc.
Comment: We have no historical proof that **"the 1st Century Church did not accept them as sacred scripture, though they knew about them."** Knew about them yes, but did not accept them is an open question.
Comment: Correct that Nicea had nothing to do with the OT or NT Canon of Scripture.  Eusebius records Constantine asking for 50 copies of Scripture.  https://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf201.iv.vi.iv.xxxvi.html  So, by then, even though the specific books are not mentioned, the Canon itself must have been well established.
Comment: How does this answer actually address that the early Church didn't use them? You cite only modern post-Reformation sources and Jewish sources. You don't cite a single 1st-3rd century Christian writer (of which there were many whose writings are extant), hence this is mostly an argument from presumed silence.
Answer: There are a number of verses in the NT that are believed to be references to OT verses from the deuterocanonical books. It may be difficult for the average reader to see this, but biblical scholars do. A good example is Hebrews 11:35 "Women received back their dead, raised to life again. There were others who were tortured, refusing to be released so that they might gain an even better resurrection." referring to the account in 2 Maccabees 7.
So, if some writers of the NT referred to to deuterocanonical books, do you think it would be safe to say that the early church considered them scriptural?
Comment: Welcome to the site Andy! Thank you for your answer.
Comment: Welcome to Christianity SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the [tour] to understand how the site works and [how it is different than others](https://christianity.meta.stackexchange.com/a/1809/50259).
Comment: Thanks for the welcome! I like the policies, that's part of the reason I decided to begin chipping in now & then. Very objective. Although I hope one can be forgiven for occasionally slipping into habits acquired elsewhere from time to time. Stuff happens!
Answer: On the idea of quoting or referencing books as proving they are or should be part of the canon, this is a very weak argument.  We all know about Paul quoting from non-scriptural books, but no one argues that an Athenian or Cretian book was somehow not included as God-breathed scripture.

For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we are also his offspring. Acts 17:28

One of themselves, even a prophet of their own, said, The Cretians are alway liars, evil beasts, slow bellies.  Titus 1:12

What are they missing?  Here's Peter.

Above all, you must realize that no prophecy in Scripture ever came from the prophet's own understanding, or from human initiative. No, those prophets were moved by the Holy Spirit, and they spoke from God.  2 Peter 1:20-21 NLT

The OT prophets spoke from God.  This is what set the OT canon apart from all other books, even the ones that might have been used within the books of the OT canon.

But those things, which God before had shewed by the mouth of all his prophets, that Christ should suffer, he hath so fulfilled. Acts 3:18

Do we find this idea in the very early church?  If we do, it will be clear that the very early church rejected what came to be called the Deuterocanonical books.
The Muratorian Fragment written about 170 CE says this, delineating how to tell the difference; that is, the OT prophets were completed and the NT apostles was also the only accepted books based on their timeframe.

But Hermas wrote the Shepherd (74) very recently, [7c] in our times, in the city of Rome, (75) while bishop Pius, his brother, was occupying the [episcopal] chair (76) of the church of the city of Rome. [7d] (77) And therefore it ought indeed to be read; but (78) it cannot be read publicly to the people in church either among (79) the Prophets, whose number is complete, [8] or among (80) the Apostles, for it is after [their] time.
Muratorian Fragment

Melito about the same time also picks up this definition of what is and what is not scripture.  Note how Melito refers to these as "our ancient books" about "our whole faith".

"Melito to his brother Onesimus, greeting. Since you have often earnestly requested of me, in consequence of your love of learning, a collection of the Sacred Scriptures of the Law and the Prophets, and what relates to the Saviour, and concerning our whole faith; and since, moreover, you wish to obtain an accurate knowledge of our ancient books, as it respects their number and order, I have used diligence to accomplish this, knowing your sincere affection towards the faith, and your earnest desire to become acquainted with the word; and that striving after eternal life, your love to God induces you to prefer these to all other things. Wherefore, going into the East, and to the very place where these things were published and transacted, and having made diligent search after the books of the Old Testament, I now subjoin and send you the following catalogue:—"Five books of Moses, viz., Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Ruth, four books of Kings, two of Chronicles, the Psalms of David, the Proverbs of Solomon, or Wisdom,18 Ecclesiastes, the Song of Songs, Job, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Twelve [prophets] in one book, Daniel, Ezekiel, Ezra."
Canon of the Old and New Testaments Ascertained, Part I, Section IV.  Alexander, Archibald.  Quoting from Eusebius.

Melito's OT canon is the same as the protestant canon, sans Esther, which, since he mentions it elsewhere, is merely an overlook.
We back up further to Josephus who again for the OT defines what is valid and to which Melito in the early church will define.

"We have not, therefore, a multitude of books disagreeing and conflicting with one another; but we have only twenty-two, which contain the record of all time and are justly held to be divine.
2. Of these, five are by Moses, and contain the laws and the tradition respecting the origin of man, and continue the history down to his own death. This period embraces nearly three thousand years.
3. From the death of Moses to the death of Artaxerxes, who succeeded Xerxes as king of Persia, the prophets that followed Moses wrote the history of their own times in thirteen books.678
678 [footnote]    These thirteen books were:—

Joshua.
Judges and Ruth.
Samuel.
Kings.
Chronicles.
Ezra and Nehemiah.
Esther.
Isaiah.
Jeremiah and Lamentations.
Ezekiel.
Daniel.
Twelve Minor Prophets.
Job.
As will be seen, Josephus divided the canon into three parts: first, the Law (five books of Moses); second, the Prophets (the thirteen just mentioned); third, the Hagiographa (Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, and Canticles). The division of the canon into three such parts is older than Josephus; at the same time, his division is quite different from any other division known. Jerome's is as follows:—
Law: five books of Moses.
Prophets: Joshua, Judges and Ruth, Samuel, Kings, Isaiah, Jeremiah and Lamentations, Ezekiel, Twelve Minor Prophets (eight books).
Hagiographa (Holy writings): Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Canticles, Daniel, Chronicles, Ezra, Esther (nine books).
The division which exists in our Hebrew Bibles differs from this of Jerome's only in transferring Ruth and Lamentations to the third division, and thus making twenty-four books. This is held by many to be a later form, as remarked above, but as Strack shows, it is rather the original. In the LXX., which is followed in our English Bible, the books are arranged, without reference to the three divisions, solely according to their subject-matter. The peculiar division of Josephus was caused by his looking at the matter from the historical standpoint, which led him to include in the second division all the books which contained, as he says, an account of events from Moses to Artaxerxes.
The other four books contain hymns to God, and precepts for the regulation of the life of men.
From the time of Artaxerxes to our own day all the events have been recorded, but the accounts are not worthy of the same confidence that we repose in those which preceded them, because there has not been during this time an exact succession of prophets.679
679    The Artaxerxes here referred to is Artaxerxes Longimanus who reigned b.c. 464 to 425. It was under him that Ezra and Nehemiah carried on their work and that the later prophets flourished. Malachi—the last of them—uttered his prophecies at the end of Artaxerxes' or at the beginning of Darius' reign. It was commonly held among the Jews that with Haggai, Zachariah and Malachi the prophetical spirit had departed from Israel, and the line was sharply drawn, as here by Josephus, between them and the writers of the Apocrypha who followed them.
How much we are attached to our own writings is shown plainly by our treatment of them. For although so great a period has already passed by, no one has ventured either to add to or to take from them, but it is inbred in all Jews from their very birth to regard them as the teachings of God, and to abide by them, and, if necessary, cheerfully to die for them."
The Church History of Eusebius, Book III, Chapter X.  Commentaries 678 and 679 (indented) by Philip Schaff.

For Peter, Melito, and others, the key distinction to determine the OT canon is to ask if it was written during the time of a valid prophetic line?  Indeed, Maccabees itself will reference this and thus define itself as non-canonical.

It was a time of great trouble for Israel, worse than anything that had happened to them since the time prophets ceased to appear among them.
1 Maccabees 9:27

"So they tore down the altar, and stored the stones in a convenient place on the temple hill until there should come a prophet to tell what to do with them." (1 Maccabees 4:45b-46).

"And the Jews and their priests decided that Simon should be their leader and high priest for ever, until a trustworthy prophet should arise…" (1 Maccabees 14:41).

So, to answer the OP, no the early church did not accept the Deuterocanonical books as scripture.  They are not, like what is scripture, God-breathed, written during a time of a valid prophetic line.
Comment: There are several issues here. The claim about Athenian or Cretan not being included is fallacious -- no one would claim that because Paul quotes it is necessarily scriptural and the argument is predicated on assuming the deutrocanonicals are not inspired (hence assuming the conclusion in the argument of sorts).  "Do we find this idea in the very early church?" Which idea? Is 100% of the OT prophecy? What about the historical books?  Who is Melito and why is his authority trustworthy? Are there no other contemporary accounts? What was the early Church view of the scriptural canon generally?
Comment: Quoting is evidence that they are used by the Christians as an authority not that quoting makes them inspired; hence the comparison fails. In other words, it's not that the NT only quotes inspired sources (your comparison counters that) but that given they are inspired, we would expect them to be quoted (the more usual defense of Deutrocanonicals). Josephus is last I check not a Christian so why should his opinion on Scripture matter?
Comment: That's not the cart before the horse. That expression implies something that follows is done first but my point was that no one was claiming that quoting means inspiration (as you agree) hence logically what is prior is being inspired. Josephus was a Jew who lived after Christ was crucified and resurrected and after the early Church started hence his opinions on scripture are by definition NOT Christian.
Comment: An argument is made that various non-canonical books are quoted by early church fathers or within the accepted canon of 66 books.  So, folks do make that claim.  The idea we find in the very early church is the need to be God-breathed to be included in the OT canon.  Josephus mentions it.  Peter mentions it.  The historical books were written during times of a valid prophetic voice.  Even Maccabees affirms this necessity.  Luke 24:44 defines the necessity.
Comment: You've put the cart (they are inspired) before the horse (they are quoted).  Again, no one argues that quoting makes it inspired.  Instead, various sources tell us why something was inspired, regardless if it is ever quoted.  As to Josephus, again, he's telling us what other sources also say about what makes a book inspired.  The others during the 400 year silence period are useful, but not inspired.
Answer:
I'm curious if any citations exist that suggest the 1st Century Church (or 2nd) supported the Deuterocanon.

Jesus and the NT Authors never explicitly quote from the Deuterocanonical books... nor do they explicitly quote from Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Ecclesiastes, Song of Solomon. However, as shown in another question/answer, even the King James Bible showed numerous New Testament passages referencing Deuterocanonical passages.
Additionally, one must consider that the Bible for the early church was the Septuagint, which includes Deuterocanonical books.
The Masoretic Text (which excludes the Deuterocanonical books) has numerous minor textual differences from the Septuagint. And yet, throughout the New Testament we see many examples of where the inspired authors quote the Old Testament explicitly from the Septuagint, where the Masoretic Text gives a divergent reading.

In Matthew 21:16, Jesus quotes Psalm 8:2 saying "Out of the mouth of infants and nursing babies you have ordained praise". In the Septuagint translation, Psalm 8:2 also says "ordained praise". However the Hebrew Scriptures (Masoretic Text) says "ordained strength".
1 Peter 4:18 quotes the Septuagint Proverbs 11:31 as "If the truly righteous is scarcely saved, what will become of the ungodly and the sinner?". The Hebrew says, "If the righteous is repaid on earth, how much more the wicked and the sinner!"
Hebrews 11:21 quotes the Septuagint Genesis 47:31 with Jacob bowing in worship over the head of his staff, while the Hebrew has Jacob bowing over the head of his bed.
Hebrews 10:5-7 quotes the Septuagint Psalm 40:6-8 as "a body have you prepared for me", while the Hebrew reads as "you have given me an open ear".
Acts 13:41 quotes the Septuagint Habakkuk 1:5 starting with "Look, you scoffers", while the Hebrew starts with "Look among the nations".
Acts 7:42-43 quotes the Septuagint Amos 5:25-27 as "You took up the tent of Moloch and the star of your god Rephan", while the Hebrew reads as "You shall take up Sikkuth your king, and Kiyyun your star-god".
Acts 8:32-33 quotes the Septuagint Isaiah 53:7-8 as "In his humiliation justice was denied him. Who can describe his generation? For his life is taken away from the earth.", while the Hebrew reads as "By oppression and judgment he was taken away; and as for his generation, who considered that he was cut off out of the land of the living".
James 4:6 quotes the Septuagint Proverbs 3:34 as "opposes the proud but gives grace to the humble", while the Hebrew reads similarly but with different underlying word-concepts as "scorns the scornful but he gives grace to the lowly".

Finally, we can also look at how the early church fathers quoted from these books themselves. Did they treat them the same as other scripture? In a word - yes.
(AD ~80) Clement of Rome

quotes from Wisdom 12:12/11:21 in the same breath as Matthew and Psalms [Letter to the Corinthians 27:5]

(AD ~135) Polycarp of Smyrna

quotes from Tobit 4:10/12:9 in the same breath as 1 Peter and Isaiah [Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians, Chapter 10]

(AD ~189) Irenaeus

quotes from Daniel 13:52 as "they shall hear those words, to be found in Daniel the prophet" [Against Heresies Book IV, Chapter 26, Section 3]
quotes from Baruch 4:36-5:9 in the same breath as Isaiah [Against Heresies Book V, Chapter 35, Section 1]

(AD ~198) Clement of Alexandria

quotes from Sirach 21:6 as "the Scripture which says" [The Paedagogus (The Instructor), Book I, Chapter 8, Section 1]
quotes from Tobit 12:8 as "the Scripture which says" [The Stromata, Book VI, Chapter 12, Section 7]
Wisdom 6:17-18 and 16:26 in the same breath as Romans and Matthew [The Paedagogus (The Instructor), Book II, Chapter 1, Section 4]
Baruch 3:13 in the same breath as Jeremiah [The Paedagogus (The Instructor), Book I, Chapter 10, Section 3]

Given that your question explicitly states only the 1st or 2nd century, I'll stop here - just know that the examples continue multiplying as you continue on, there's many from Hippolytus (AD ~204), Origen (AD ~240), Tertullian (AD ~240), Cyprian of Carthage (AD ~250), and so on.


City Engine: Align Terrain to Shapes - Purpose?

Question: What is the purpose of aligning the terrain to shapes, if I have already aligned my shapes to the terrain?
In my understanding, the terrain is a reference surface, and therefore I wouldn't want to shift it.
Answer: If you have a lot that you want to build a new building on you might want to redevelop the ground. In this case you might want to have the terrain be at the same height as the footprints of your buildings.


FreeBSD `freebsd-update` automation?

Question: freebsd-update command prints updating entries after it downloaded. But it shows them with more. So I have to press some spaces to continue. Is there a way to avoid this behavior? I want to execute update fully automated manner.
Answer: Before doing any of this make sure you are familiar with the freebsd-update process, possible ramifications, and requirements. Like any automated update there is a chance it will screw up.
Create the file /usr/local/etc/periodic/weekly/912.freebsd-update with the following:
#!/bin/sh -
#
#

# If there is a global system configuration file, suck it in.
#
if [ -r /etc/defaults/periodic.conf ]
then
    . /etc/defaults/periodic.conf
    source_periodic_confs
fi

case "$weekly_freebsd-update_enable" in
    [Yy][Ee][Ss])
        echo ""
        echo "Updating system via freebsd-update:"

        freebsd-update cron install;;

    *)  rc=0;;
esac

exit $rc

Don't forget chmod +x 912.freebsd-update
Enable it by adding weekly_freebsd-update_enable="YES" to /etc/periodic.conf
Your normal periodic report will contain the log results from the operation (e-mail to root by default).
The number 912 is arbitrary, it's just the number I use. You can pick anything in the 900 range and it should work fine.
Comment: what about ports? what are the implications of such a script? "what could possibly go wrong?" :) will this perform point releases (e.g. 9.2 → 9.3) or major upgrades (e.g. 9.3 → 10.1)?
Comment: Please reread the first line of this answer, I really meant it. The question was not about any of what you asked, just about automating that process. Ports aren't touched by freebsd-update, you'd need to automate portmaster, portupgrade, or possibly poudriere for that (and that *ain't easy* for some ports). What could go wrong: same as running any freebsd-update, mainly hardware issues in the middle of an upgrade; or a bad diff though that is unlikely from official sources. The script above does not jump versions; it would be much more complicated as you have to specify the new version.

FreeBSD `freebsd-update` automation?


Frankfurt to Buenos Aires to Santiago de Chile, can I buy Nutella in Frankfurt Duty free and not haven taken away in Buenos Aires?

Question: When I was coming from Chile to Germany i had a connection in GRU, Brazil, there they checked our bags and a guy who was bringing "Manjar"(Sweet paste like nutella) from Chile had it taken away from me. Is it possible that this could happen with nutella or other duty free items like alcohol from Frankfurt to Santiago de Chile in the  connection in Buenos Aires?
Answer: I just checked the Argentinian Airport Security Police website (Policia de Seguridad Aeroportuaria). They have a Traveler Information Section (información al viajero) and it says you are forbidden to bring "home-made food, vegetables, sausages, milk and its derivatives". It also states that for a complete list you should consult the National Service for Health and Agricultural Quality (Senasa). I checked that website too and there is a complete list of food products you can (or cannot) bring to Argentina. After reading, it seems to me that you can bring industrialized food, for your own personal consumption as long as the food products are properly labeled and in quantity just for personal consumption.
Once in Ezeiza (main Buenos Aires Airport), I've seen a policewoman confiscate a bottle of water from a traveler, but the bottle was opened. I think you won't have a problem bringing your Nutella and liquor, but I suggest you bring them in it's original packing, preferably sealed.


Build exe file with false positive (Delphi)

Question: I have written a program and build the project. After that, I used VirusTotal.com to scan for suspicious malware and it detected 10. At first I thought it was effected by something that I coded, so I created an empty project and build it. To my surprise after running the scan on VirusTotal, there's 4 suspected malicious malware. I'm thinking that it's all just false positive. Is there a way I can overcome this or avoid it or bypass it as when I want to download from the web, Google Chrome tends to prompt the warning msg when downloading. Even after signing with an EV code signing cert from a reputable CA, it still doesn't help either.
Answer: Some malware are really written with Delphi and some malware detector falsely identify Delphi run time code as the malware.
Those malware detector should detect the actual code of the malware to avoid having a false positive.
You can't do anything for that except contact the malware detector company to explain the problem. Of course, before doing that you must be sure that your system is not infected by a malware infecting your applications as soon as they are compiled.
Read this
And this
Comment: Another thing that might greatly reduce False Positives is to digitally signing your application with trusted certificate. Until your application executable is unsigned AntiVirus programs rely solely on Heuristics to determine how safe your application may be. But once digitally signed they do take into account the trust level of the digital certificate that was used for signing.
Comment: @SilverWarior certificates have no value in that context - it's as blatant as a compiler based decision: https://duckduckgo.com/?q=malware+valid+certificate
Comment: @AmigoJack Yes they do. Well not to the point where AV software will simply skip checking certain file if it is digitally signed. But to the point where AV software is taking into account the thrust level of digital certificate signer while calculating the risk level for specific application. And when Malicious software signed with trusted digital certificate is found the trust level for that specific digital signer is reduced by the company that made such AV software. Now how much trust does specific AV software company put into digital certificates varies greatly from company to company ...
Comment: ... Any way if AV software programs would not be taking into account digital certificates with whom various applications are signed we would have a lot more false positives. In fact I remember from about 5 to 10 years ago when one AV company, I don't remember which one, tried to disable certificate checking and only check files based on heuristics their AV software ended marking bunch of system files as Malware, because those files actually do similar things that Malware does. ...
Comment: ...  In fact many malware programs and viruses are built with reverse-engineered system code that is slightly modified in order to circumvent system protection. Running heuristic analysis on such files would still match that unchanged code and because of this probably flag such file as malicious.


Can i create/view opportunity without having Salesforce licence?

Question: Is there any way to create/view opportunity or other standard objects which are not allowed in my salesforce licence ? like can i use inbound email serices to create opportunity record or running code in system context will allow me to create/view standard objects which are not mentioned in my Salesforce Licence or is there any other way to do that?
Answer: Yes, a way to avoid permission limits due to context is to create an inbound email service. Email Service run in system context so you can create opportunity with it. I have used this trick to sync data between a custom object and a standard object, not writable on a Site running as anonymous.


What do harmonic-harmonic and harmonic-noise ratios have to do with voice pathology?

Question: I was reading about spectral techniques to detect pathological phonation and came across the plan to establish relations between harmonic-harmonic and harmonic-noise ratios in for certain kinds of dysphonia. But what do these ratios have to do with voice pathologies?
Answer: As you know from your previous questions on the topic, the waveform of a breathy voiced vowel is more sinusoidal in shape compared to that of a modal voiced vowel, which is more triangular. The power spectrum of the two types of vowels differ in that more of the energy is distributed over low frequencies in breathy vowels, compared to modal vowels. As I recall, Rothenberg has characterized this as saying that the main difference is in the amplitude of the fundamental, where a breathy vowel has a very prominent fundamental and higher harmonics are much lower in amplitude, and flatter, but modal vowels have a more consistent gentle roll-off across frequencies. By comparing the ratio of two harmonics, one can quantify this relation.
An obvious technique for quantifying spectral tilt would be regression through amplitude of harmonic peaks. However, this does not work the way you'd expect, since a breathy spectrum is a high fundamental and everything else flatter, and regression essentially treats the fundamental as an outlier. Comparison of H1 and H2 has been the most useful metric since it involves the fundamental, and minimizes the effect of formant differences. There is evidence that planned linguistically-contrastive phonation differences can involve a lengthening of the vocal tract via lowering of the larynx, which leads to formant shifts, which gives you a bit of an unsolvable problem. However, for pathological breathiness, this is probably not relevant.
Harmonic to noise ratio calculation is based on the observation that with breathiness, there is a lot of non-harmonic noise in the signal (though this is not always true with linguistic breathiness), where the amplitude of the spectrum at a multiple of the fundamental doesn't stand out so distinctly.
I don't know whether research on the topic has concluded that there are any reliable acoustic differences between pathological breathiness and phonemic breathiness. (Likewise, creakiness).
[EDIT]
Harmonic-to-harmonic measures are supposed to quantify the concept of "spectral tilt", which relates to the overall waveform shape which in turn relates to the glottal volume velocity function which relates to how the vocal folds open and close. The ideal (in the sense of an ideal frictionless surface) is that there would be some amplitude at the fundamental, and other amplitudes at multiples of the fundamental, and nothing in between. However, that ain't the reality of it, so besides the energy contributed by the vibration of the vocal folds, there is "noise", which is low-level random energy (which may have a particular frequency distribution). So then you need a way of discerning the "noisiness" of the signal. As applied to phonation types, as far as I know the added noise should be evenly distributed across frequencies, so you don't expect concentrations of high-frequency noise as you get with [s]; nor should the noise be just low-frequency. So there is a difference in expectation, compared to measures of spectral tilt.
I'm not sure what you mean by "harmonic-to-harmonic ratio" versus "harmonic-to-frequency ratio".
Comment: Thanks a lot for the detailed explanation (again!) - while it is clear thanks to you the importance of harmonic-to-noise ratio, I just want to confirm that this is the same logic for harmonic-to-harmonic ratio and harmonic-to-frequency ratio -- or do these have distinct explanatory advantages?


How can I override an entity form with the same date?

Question: I have an entity form that requires choosing from a date field.
I wanted to override a submitted entity form if there is an existing submitted form with the same date.
I was looking for a solution in the net, but I was not able to find anything useful.
Thank you in advance for those who can help!
Answer: When new entity created you need to implement check (if entity with certain date exists) in your FORM_ID_submit() function. If so, use entity_load() to edit existing entity, if not, create new one. Also I recommend using EntityFieldQuery and Entity Metadata Wrappers to deal with entities.


ETH to Tokens Without Wallet

Question: I wanted to buy tokens with ETH and send directly from my brocker to the token selling company, the transaction failed. is there a way to recover my ETH?
Answer: Most token contracts have code which explicitly blocks users from participating in their token sale when sending ETH from an exchange.
In those situations, the transaction should fail, and the Ether should not have moved at all. This is done through the fallback function implemented in the contract.
In order to correctly participate in those kinds of contracts, you will need to have your own wallet, where you are able to send Ether along with a data parameter which specifies the function you are trying to call, usually the function which exchanges the ether for tokens.
Only at that point can you then transfer the tokens back to your exchange from the wallet you used.

ETH to Tokens Without Wallet


How is the order of champion pick selected (draft pick)?

Question: I know in ranked games, a characters elo determines the order of champion picks.  In non-ranked draft pick, pre-arranged teams have priority.  Does team size, elo, or anything else affect the order of champion pick?
Comment: This question is no longer relevant, as Riot has changed the way pick order works.  The player who gets to ban is selected randomly, but team captains (those who invite others) absorb their players chance to be picked.  Ex: If 5 singles are matched, each has a 20% chance to ban.  If a 3 man premade team is matched with 2 singles, each single has a 20% chance to ban, but the captain of the premade has a 60% chance (and those he invited have 0% chance).
http://leagueoflegends.wikia.com/wiki/Draft_Pick
Answer: Pick order is random now in draft/rank mode. This was done, I think, so people can't easily recognize duo queues and get upset before the game (obviously riot doesn't say this officially).
The randomness does have some non-random aspects though. If you are duo/group queueing, the captain of the team will get swapped in for first pick(and banner) if any of the team is randomly put in that first spot and they will replace the captain in whatever spot he is in.
Answer: AFAIK, the ranking only considers premade teams vs. solo queuers.  Premades get higher priority (order randomized within the team), then any stragglers get randomly thrown in underneath them.  This is why you end up in the bottom 1 to 2 slots so often if you solo queue for normal draft pick games - you're getting matched up with a pre-made (or 2).
I don't think that there's been any official word from Riot on this though, so this is all conjecture.
Comment: There's an actual post I remember reading, but can't seem to find, that does confirm the information. Elo, however, was removed from non-ranked games.


Pronunciation of "Syncing"?

Question: I just realized that I have been reading this word since long ago, but I am not sure of its correct pronunciation in American and British English.
Comment: Its pronounced like sync•ing or synch•ing (ˈsɪŋ kɪŋ)
Answer: It's pronounced the same way as 'sinking'. I'm interested to know how you thought it might be pronounced.
Comment: Maybe something weird like "Saincing" or "Sinsing". I was not sure It might be some word like gauge, which is pronounced like "gay-sh", and not "gaush"
Comment: @JosueGalindo It's much easier to think of gauge as *cage*, but with a g ! The way you said makes me worry you are emphasizing the -sh part
Comment: @JosueGalindo: please see my new answer. The things that I want to say are too long for this comment box.
Answer: Pronunciation of Syncing at howjay
You could also check a dictionary that includes both American and British pronunciations, such as Longman's, although that gives you the pronunciation only for the base word, sync.
Even so, checking a dictionary and even asking at a website like here will provide only how some people pronounce any given words, with many words having quite different "received (standard) pronunciations."
Comment: As an Australian, I am regularly exposed to various British and North American pronunciations via teaching colleagues, movies, television, and a wide variety of ESL accents from my students and some colleagues. If I am aware of any variation in pronunciation, I will say so. As far as I am aware, there is no variation in the pronunciation of this word, and the dictionary I checked before posting included only this pronunciation.
Comment: @SydneyAustraliaESLTeacher Only a pronunciation dictionary, whose sole purpose is to provide regional and other varying pronunciations (BrE vs AmE, for instance) could begin to be comprehensive. While, there may be no difference in how Englishspeakers pronounce "in" or "ing" in this word, I wouldn't bet my life on it.
Comment: *In this case*, I would! (Some people may say '-ingk', but that is minor and predictable from their dialect.)

Pronunciation of "Syncing"?


Is a Logic that has no inference rules not possible to be sound?

Question: For example if I have a logic that has a syntax and semantics but no inference rules does that make a logic complete but not sound since soundness states that $LHS \vdash RHS$ implies $LHS \models RHS$. But I'm guessing if we have some type of syntax and semantics we could construct some sort of proof or inference rules from the model and hence the logic it's complete.
Answer: Suppose you have a logic $\mathit{Tiny}$ with two axioms:
$A1$: Socrates is a man (i.e. Socrates $\in$ Men)
$A2$: All men are mortal (i.e. $x \in \text{Men} \Rightarrow x \in \text{Mortals}$)
but no rules of inference.
The only theorems in $\mathit{Tiny}$ are $A1$ an $A2$ - without rules of inference you cannot derive any other theorems apart from the axioms which are given. $A1$ and $A2$ are also true, so $\mathit{Tiny}$ is sound.
However, $\mathit{Tiny}$ is not semantically complete because the statement "Socrates is mortal" is semantically true, but is not a theorem of $\mathit{Tiny}$.
Comment: I have always wondered as a mere mathematician why we don't need a Rule which says that we may quote any axiom. Otherwise there are two sorts of theorem, axioms and those that need a proof - and this is messy. Perhaps @gandalf61 can enlighten me: his proof above depends on this silent convention.
Comment: @SimonGarfe Indeed.  is not even sound.
Comment: MathJax remark. Note the strange spacing in $Tiny$ .... Better to do it $\mathit{Tiny}$.  That is, not `$Tiny$ ` but `$\mathit{Tiny}$`.  The automatic spacing `$Tiny$ ` is what you want when you multiply four items $T,i,n,y$.
Comment: @GEdgar Thanks - fixed.
Comment: What if A1 or A2 is not true. Then would $\mathit{Tiny}$ not be sound?


How do I get case drops in CS:GO?

Question: I've been playing Counter-Strike: Global Offensive for about a month and never got a case. I've even tried idling. Do you have to be MVP? How does it work for CS:GO?
Answer: The loot at the end of a match is totally random. You cannot influence what you get.
An excerpt from this guide:
You get around 2-8 items per week, on an average while you can get 2-4 items per day. Loot only drops on VAC protected servers and as I said, it is totally random. Your score does not affect your drops at all. So you can suck royally at a match and still get a valuable item.

 On a not so serious side note: You can try to pray to RNGesus.
Comment: Sucking royally and getting an item. you're not wrong there. once got 4 kills in a whole 30 round comp and got a case drop from it. the only drop of the whole game.

How do I get case drops in CS:GO?


Can God violate the laws of mathematics and logic?

Question: Can an omnipotent being like God violate the laws of mathematics and logic? Personally, I don't even believe in God, but I am just asking purely hypothetically if such a being could violate the laws of mathematics and logic. So, for instance, can God make 1+1=3? Or, is even God bound by the laws of mathematics and logic? Also, have any philosophers written about this question? I would like to see some references.
Comment: It's the same as asking: Can God make an object that God can not move ? There is a lot of reference on the everyday Joe blogs internet.
Comment: What does it mean to violate mathematical law? I can make 1 + 1 = 3, by just taking a contradiction as an axiom. I think the question is, can God perform contradictions ( move an unmovable rock, or be a married bachelor). I would argue that such notions aren't well defined and so are meaningless to ask if God can do them.
Comment: @user107952 The question was considered also as part of  question https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/87317/is-the-argument-that-god-cant-be-omnipotent-omniscient-and-all-good-invalid-be?rq=1 and its different answers.
Comment: This is akin to the [Euthyphro dilemma](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euthyphro_dilemma) about ethics, and, similarly, there is no answer agreed upon among theologians, see [Is God subject to logic?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/q/22697/9148) Aside from yes/no, a third position is that logic is a part of what God is (as perceived by us, unable to grasp his nature whole), so the question is nonsensical.
Comment: God fought the law and the law won.
Comment: >Can God violate the laws of mathematics and logic? yes, but only "in hell", so nor "in heaven" nor "on earth"(?)!
Answer: The question of whether an omnipotent being can make a logical contradiction true is a question that has received many different answers. There is a Wikipedia article on it. The main options are:

An omnipotent being can create true contradictions, but if they do so, we mere mortals would be unable to understand them. This position was taken by Descartes.

To speak of true contradictions literally makes no sense, and so the question of whether an omnipotent being can do something senseless doesn't arise, or is not well-defined.

To be omnipotent can only reasonably be understood to mean: is able to do whatever is logically possible. So an inability to make true contradictions is not a genuine counterexample to omnipotence.

The question assumes an erroneous understanding of what logic is. Logic is a human creation and is a tool for organising and systematising information in order to make our experiences of the world intelligible. If an omnipotent being did weird things that didn't fit our current understanding of logic, we would modify our logic or find other ways of describing what is happening.
Answer:
Can God violate the laws of mathematics and logic?

If God can violate the laws of math and logic, then the important consequence is that the laws of math and logic cant be used to prove the legitimacy of any act of God. Reason and Logic become a whim of God who is not obligated to explain anything. This seems like an unstable universe that humans will never be able to comprehend.
I prefer to believe that laws of math and logic have evolved over billions of years to a stable trustworthy system not easily dismissed. It's trusted knowledge that can be passed to future generations. It leads to a universe that humans can (eventually) comprehend.
Answer: Many posts on this site violate the laws of logic, and my accountant regularly violates the laws of mathematics when 'cooking my books', so if we mortals can do it why shouldn't god?
Answer: The "laws" of mathematics and logic are self-contained systems. You may as well print a rulebook that states "There are no rules" and ask "Can God break the rules of this book?" Actually, now that I type that it isn't as convincing as I thought.
There is no "violating" "laws" that don't have states of failure. The laws in question are just descriptions of systems. They cannot be violated. It's like asking if God could decapitate an echo. It's a malformed question because the verb doesn't apply to the noun.
Comment: Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please [edit] to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers [in the help center](/help/how-to-answer).


magento 2 which event used for after order success and product save

Question: Magento 2 which event used for after order success and product saved in backend. I have created catalog_product_save_after event once saved product inserted data to my custom table. But the problem is once an order is placed from frontend this event is not triggered.so I need the event for after order success product save the event
Comment: you have to use this event `checkout_onepage_controller_success_action` and after that, you have to load the ordered item and get the product id from that and update it to the related product table and custom table. Hope this one helps you.
Answer: You need to use this event order order success.

checkout_submit_all_after
Comment: where i have add events.xml for this event  etc/frontend/events.xml or etc/adminhtml/events.xml  already added this event under  etc/frontend/events.xml not working
Comment: you need to put into the "etc"
Answer: You need to use below events

checkout_submit_all_after
catalog_product_save_after

After order place sucess - use this "checkout_submit_all_after" in

app/code/Your/Module/etc/frontend/events.xml

After product save after -  use this "catalog_product_save_after" in

app/code/Your/Module/etc/adminhtml/events.xml

you can use both event on global level too. use both events on below path

app/code/Your/Module/etc/events.xml


Is there any way to detect, through WSH, which workstations, in a windows domain, has a locked session?

Question: Is there any way to detect, through WSH, which workstations, in a windows domain, has a locked session?
Answer: http://www.microsoft.com/technet/scriptcenter/resources/qanda/nov04/hey1115.mspx
If you scroll down, there is a check if computer is locked script on the page.  The script basically grabs the running processes for the machine and looks for the scrnsave.exe.
It is also worth noting that the author of this script states that he does not know of a foolproof way to determine if a computer is locked.  Hope this helps or at least points you in the right direction.
Answer: Not sure if you are using locked as in locked or as in hung but I use pstools to check for systems with the screen lock turned on. My command line is:
pslist \machinename > machinename.txt
then check the machine_name.txt file for logon.scr if present the screen is locked.


USB C cable with two red wires instead of one red and one black one

Question: I need to deep flash my phone, however instead of the normal red, black, white and green wires, my cable has two red, one white, one green and two uncoated wires. Since I don't really wanna die, which cables should I short out without giving myself an electric shock? (which cables are data+ and ground?)
Comment: This question does not meet the quality requirements of this SE.  I can see that you have not read the Tour page (https://electronics.stackexchange.com/tour).  Please do so and revise your question.
Comment: What do you mean under "deep flash" your phone? Do you mean to discharge your phone battery down to 0% charge status?
Answer: Is your USB like this?
If so, i would recommend using a multimeter to find which cable belongs to every pin. Then:
~A6 & B6 is the standard Green cable
~A7 & B7 is the White cable,
~A1 & B1 & A12 & B12 is the black, and
~A4 & B4 & A9 & B9 is the red cable,
which can be used as a "USB A" based on the picture bellow.

*Even if you flip it, you will get the same cables.


Format Macbook 2, 1 running 10.4.1

Question: I bought a MacBook 2, 1 at a market day and the user didn't wipe the computer.  I was wondering how to format it to basically start fresh. I've  tried booting to recovery mode and Command Rdoesn't seem to work.  I also tried the
advice from the following thread and it didnt seem to work either:
Clean wipe iMac running 10.4.11 OS X?
Answer: In order to "wipe" the drive and reinstall, you need the original install disks.   The Early 2008 (White) MacBook did not support internet recovery at all.
Also, the highest supported OS is 10.7.5 (Lion) so if you intend to upgrade, keep this in mind.  These install DVDs are available on the secondary market (eBay).

Format Macbook 2, 1 running 10.4.1


Travel from Charles de Gaulle Airport to Montparnasse

Question: I need to travel from Charles de Gaulle airport to Montparnasse to catch a TGV (Train à Grande Vitesse or "high-speed train"). What is the best and fastest method to do that? I arrive in CDG at 7:20 am and the pre-booked TGV departure from Montparnasse is at 1:30pm. Any suggestions?
Comment: Also, what terminal are you arriving at? Note that given the time you have, any of the possible options except walking will get you there on time will plenty to spare.
Comment: "Best" is subjective. Fastest? Cheapest? Least walking/stairs? How many are you? How much luggage to you have? Do you have children (including strollers etc.)? Animals?
Answer: Your best bet is Le Bus Direct, Line 4, which runs every 30 minutes and will cost you 18 euros. It should take an hour and a half. You have plenty of time to get there.
Answer: Some options:

Take a taxi. That's an easy one, you just walk out of the terminal, get to the taxi queue, wait, enter a taxi, tell the driver "Bonjour, gare Montparnasse s'il vous plait", and some time later you will get there. There's a flat fare of 55 euros.

Pros: convenient. Cons: more expensive than other options. May take anywhere from 45 minutes to 2.5 hours depending on traffic. Unless you do that on a Sunday, given the time you land, it will probably take a while.

Use Uber or one of the equivalent services. May be cheaper, but not necessarily, and will take slightly longer as they are not allowed to use bus lanes.
Take the RER and metro. If you land at T2 (except T2G), walk to the train station in the terminal, buy a ticket to Paris (about 10 euros per person), board the RER, and change at Denfert-Rochereau to line 6, towards Charles-de-Gaulle Etoile (not the same as Aéroport Roissy Charles-de-Gaulle). Alight at Montparnasse Bienvenüe.

If you land at T1, you'll have to take the (free) people mover (CDGVAL) to Roissypôle where you'll take the RER. If you land at T3, you need to walk to Roissypôle. If you land at T2G, you need to take a shuttle bus to the train station.
There are usually direct (from CDG to Paris Gare du Nord) and omnibus trains alternating on the line. You probably want the direct one. Not much faster than the omnibus one, but less busy until Gare du Nord.
There are two metro lines from Denfert-Rochereau to Montparnasse-Bienvenüe. You do not want to take line 4, as Montparnasse-Bienvenüe station is very large, and line 4 gets you to the very opposite from the train station.
Pros: cheaper (especially if you are alone). Cons: not very convenient if you have lots of luggage. The RER will probably be quite busy at that time of day. Make sure you look after your belongings.
Note that during peak times, this is probably the fastest option (about 1 hour), though definitely not the most comfortable.

Take Le Bus Direct which goes directly from CDG (3 different stops) to Montparnasse.

Pros: direct, convenient. More expensive than the RER option, but cheaper than taxi if there are fewer than 3 people travelling.


Markov property definition

Question: The definition of the Markov property is typically that the next state depends only on the present state and no past states. However, the mathematical definition I usually see (e.g. https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/2463/225553) says that P(X_t = x | X_{t-1}, X_{t-2}, X_{t-3}...X_t0) = P(X_t | X_{t-1}). That seems to say that the present state depends on only the immediate prior state. Are these equivalent definitions or am I misunderstanding the notation?
Answer: You correctly wrote...
$$P(X_t = x | X_{t-1}, X_{t-2}, X_{t-3},...X_{t0}) = P(X_t | X_{t-1})$$
However this is equivalent to the following by virtue of shifting the time index by 1.
$$P(X_{t+1} = x | X_{t}, X_{t-1}, X_{t-2},...X_{t0}) = P(X_{t+1} | X_{t})$$
In words: Given the present, the future is independent of the past.
Hope this helps. If not, feel free to comment and ask for clarification.
Comment: Thanks for answering. The shifted time index makes sense. I'm still a bit confused. Does this mean that

$$P(X_t = x | X_{t-1}, X_{t-2}, X_{t-3},...X_{t0}) = P(X_t | X_{t-1})$$

$$X_{t-1}$$ is considered the "present"? I am still unsure if the statements "The future state depends only on the present state" is equivalent to "The present state depends only on the immediate past state".
Comment: @coderunner, if you were at $t-1$ in time then at that moment it would be the present, right?  Similarly, if you were at $t-5$ in time, $t-6$ would be the immediate past for the process and $t-4$ would be the future.   I'm not sure if that helps...
Comment: e.g. We have states A and B that directly lead to state C. Is it still correct to say the present state C depends only on the immediate prior state(s) A and B? If no, I think I am confusing myself from translating the math notation to english words.
Comment: sorry about that. Had to add another comment because the first was running too long...
Comment: The Markov property is talking about the *state of the process in time*, not just the states themselves.
Comment: Ahh, I think that statement clears it up quite a bit for me. Thank you!

Markov property definition


Picklist value inside Custom Label

Question: Hello I was wondering if I can save several values in one custom label.
Because I have a global picklist value set but I only want to use some of them (but I cannot deactivate those values because they are used in other objects). For example I want to save 'a','b','c' (values from the global picklist) in a custom label to use this label in a LWC combobox.
Does anybody has any idea if this is possible? And if it is how do I do it?
Thanks
Answer: No, you can't.
Why not just create another picklist?
As an option, you can save picklist data in Custom Label or some Metadata record as JSON and parse it in the LWC.

Picklist value inside Custom Label