Anime where genetically modified girls fight aliens/sea monsters

Question: They're genetically modified girls that fight aliens/sea monsters but are paired with a guy. They have been modified with the monsters DNA and they go to a university/academy to learn to fight until they graduate and can fight the invaders in their squad. The things that attack are huge with tentacle arms and in one episode the things absorb the girls that are fighting them and turning them into mindless drones.
Comment: When did you see this?
Comment: I recommend taking a look at the tips at ["How to ask a good story-ID question?"](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/a/9337/85401) -- there are various types things that if you can recall any of them, may help potential answerers. E.g. About what year was the anime from? Can you remember any visual details? Do you know what network, if any, you saw it on? Do you remember any details from its opening or ending theme? Etc.
Comment: If someone posts the correct answer, you can accept it by clicking on the checkmark by the voting buttons as per the [tour].
Comment: This sound like Kantai Collection or Azure Lane when I heard it (only sea monster). But with aliens it just too many.
Answer: As per Anime about half-human girls who fight monsters?, this may be Black Bullet.

This anime aired in 2014, and was a one-cours series, lasting 13 episodes. It takes place in a world devastated by the "Gastrea" entities, and the characters who fight the Gastrea are divided into pairs of a "Promoter", who leads their partner in their battles, and an "Initiator", who is a "Cursed Child". The Cursed Children are young women whose bodies were altered by the effects of the Gastrea before they were born. Since the series takes place about ten years after the Gastrea appeared, the Cursed Children are all around ten years old.

Found with a search for anime girls fight sea monsters
Answer: The name of this anime is Freezing

The series revolves around the invasion of Earth by an interdimensional
  force called the Nova, and a special military group of genetically
  engineered young women called Pandoras. Pandoras fight alongside their
  male partners known as Limiters, who are created to combat the Nova.
  The story centers around Kazuya Aoi, a Limiter whose late sister was a
  Pandora, and Satellizer el Bridget, a Pandora with a cold personality
  who is known as the "Untouchable Queen" due to her intense aphephobia.
  Both are enrolled at West Genetics Academy, which is a training school
  for Pandoras and Limiters.
Comment: Welcome to the site! Please check [How to write a good story-ID answer](https://scifi.meta.stackexchange.com/a/9445/31394) - essentially, it should be useful to both the asker and the site, explaining what anime you're referring to and how it matches the description given in the question.
Comment: Can you explain why?
Comment: And is this the same one as https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Freezing_(manga)?


A better way to wire alarm contacts?

Question: I'm in the process of replacing a wired alarm with the Ring retrofit kit. The wiring for the contacts and sensors is just wires spliced with crimp-on connectors. I'm currently chasing down intermittently failing sensors, and the crimp-on connectors and tangle of wires is annoying. Is there a commonly accepted alternative way to connect the wires together to create the zones? I'm considering repurposing a 66 or 110 punch block.
Comment: I just sourced a Wago splice for 24 gauge and larger of stranded or solid wire. Would that work? What gauge is this stuff? Solid or stranded?
Comment: And how many wires at each junction?
Comment: Your question isn't clear.  The Ring thing needs bare wires, you can cut off your connectors.  If you have large numbers of sensors connected into single channels using some kind of messy system, the question has nothing to do with Ring and you should add photos here or post a new question about that.  Whether you ultimately use twist nuts, terminal strips, punch down blocks, wagos, etc is largely up to you.  For wires smaller than #18, terminal blocks or IDC connectors would be better.  Twisties will break the wires and Wagos will let go unless you buy special ones.
Comment: I've never seen a 66 or 110 block used for this, but it _could_ probably work fine, if the wire is right for it. They generally need solid, not stranded wire, and within a particular range of sizes. I would guess your alarm wire is stranded; in that case I wouldn't try it.
Answer: You don't indicate what gauge wiring you're talking about, but alarm wire is normally pretty small. I'd imaging that properly crimped connectors will be far more secure than wire nuts or Wagos, and they'll take up less room since they're in-line and not "3-dimensional" to the direction of the wire.
If the wire is tangled, take this opportunity to sort it out and tidy it up. You can use Velcro ties, zip ties, wiring loom or any other method of neatening things up.
Answer: Unfortunately, the few wired security systems I've peeked into were always wired as you've described so I've never seen "pros" do it any other way. The "B-splice" connector is a popular choice because its barbed interior pierces the insulation on a conductor, saving the installer the trouble of stripping insulation. (Photo: www.discount-low-voltage.com)

It's often the case that several pairs of wires need to be connected in series so that multiple sensing points can be attached to a single zone input. A 66-block would provide a reasonable way of accomplishing this. You'll need to check the wires, though: I've only ever used 24 gauge solid in a 66-block; I don't know whether stranded or another gauge would work well.
When I wired my own I landed each conductor of each cable run into its own position on a barrier terminal block (all on a single side of the block). These do have the advantage of accepting a wide range of wire types/sizes. I then placed jumper wires on the opposite side of the block to accomplish the series connections. (Photo: mouser.com)

A better way to wire alarm contacts?


Stepper motor speed control

Question: People I am having a problem regarding the control of the stepper motor speed, I understand that in order to change the speed of the stepper motor I will need to generate pulses at different frequencies using a micro-controller. My problem is that I can't find an algorithm of how to program a micro-controller so that I will be able to generate pulses with different frequencies. Can Someone plz find time to explain how can I interact with the MCU so that I will be able to accelerate/decelerate the stepper motor. To make my question more clearly, I need someone who can give me an Idea on how to tell the MCU to change the frequency of the output it generate,because the motor speed also depends on the frequency of the pulses, I will then try to code that myself, plz people just an Idea. Thank You
Comment: It might help if you edit the question title, and add 'Stepper Motor' to help people find your question more easily.
Answer: One of the most popular and definitive, free, explanations of how to drive stepper motors is 'Control of Stepping Motors, A Tutorial, by Douglas W. Jones' often shortened to 'Jones on Steppers'.
However, if you are new to this, I would recommend you do not drive the stepper motor 'directly' (using two H-Bridges and the MCU), but instead use the MCU to control a stepper motor driver. There are lots of ready made modules. The advantages of a stepper motor driver, over a simple H-bridge are a little complex to describe in a few paragraphs. However the main advantages are they are much simpler to control from a MCU program, and you can get better torque and finer speed or position control.
The right stepper motor driver depends on the specification of the stepper motor you need to drive.
Common examples of stepper drivers suitable for 1A-3A motors can easily be found on www shopping sites by searching for 'stepper motor driver'. You will likely be able to find examples up to 10's of Amps on shopping sites.
These types of modules typically need one clock signal (i.e. a square wave) and a direction signal, and the stepper motor drive modules will derive all of the signals necessary to drive the stepper. The majority of modules are designed for bi-polar steppers motors. The clock signal is generated by a MCU timer.
For example the 16 bit timer on an Arduino's ATmega328 is usable because the maximum count of the timer can be set and changed, and this would change the duration of each pulse, and hence the stepper motor speed. As it is 16bit, it s easy to get a very wide range of oulse frequency, which lets you run very slow up to very fast with very little extra complication.
If you really want to see how to generate the signals to drive a stepper, using simple H-Bridges to control the current, then you can read the source code in the Open Source Arduino Stepper library, which is installed when you install the Arduino IDE.

Stepper motor speed control


How can I wait until xscreensaver is unlocked?

Question: How can I wait until xscreensaver is unlocked?  xscreensaver-command -lock locks the screen, but it returns before the screen is unlocked again.  xscreensaver provides an xscreensaver-command -watch to print UNBLANK events, but how do I parse them and make sure xscreensaver-command -watch is killed afterwards?
Answer: This program will exit after xscreensaver is unlocked (or "unblanked" after an activation that does not require a password):
#!/bin/bash

set -eu

FIFO=/tmp/xscreensaver-wait-for-unlock-$$.fifo
rm -f "$FIFO"
mkfifo "$FIFO"

# Kill `xscreensaver-command -watch` when we exit
trap "exit" INT TERM
trap "kill %1; rm -f $FIFO" EXIT

xscreensaver-command -watch > $FIFO &

while read line; do
    if echo -E "$line" | grep -q "^UNBLANK "; then
        # Make sure the screen is actually unlocked
        xscreensaver-command -time | grep -q " screen non-blanked since " && exit 0 || echo "saw UNBLANK but screen was not unlocked"
    fi
done < $FIFO


The logic in derivation of virtual welfare

Question: I am learning algorithmic game theory with the lecture notes posted by Tim Roughgarden. In lecture 5 it is proved that the problem of revenue (or profit) maximization in single-parameter environment is equivalent to maximizing something called "virtual welfare". I find it hard to understand the logic of the proof.
The very first step of the proof assumes that the payment rule is exactly in the form given by Myerson's lemma:
$$p_i(b_i,\mathbf{b}_{-i})=\int_0^{b_i}z\cdot x'_i(z,\mathbf{b}_i)\mathrm{dz}$$
where $x'_i(z,\mathbf{b}_i)$ is the derivative of the allocation rule $x'_i(z,\mathbf{b}_i)$. Then substitute the formula of payment into the profit object
$$\mathbb{E}\left[\sum_{i=1}^n\mathbf{p}(\mathbf{v})\right]$$
with some calculus the "virtual-welfare" magically shows up.
Then the author claims that maximizing the virtual welfare is equivalent to maximizing revenue, and if the corresponding allocation rule is monotone then we get a optimal DSIC mechanism. I have two questions about this:

The result relies on the assumption that the payment rule is given in the previous form. Why does it must be in that form? The proof feels like some circular reasoning. Is this because that we are restricted on searching only for DSIC mechanism?
Furthermore, sometimes there exists no monotone allocation rule to optimize the deduced virtual welfare, but does this also mean that there exists no monotone rule to optimize the original profit?
Answer: I think I've gotten part of the answer. The above statement actually says that for any truthful mechanism, the expected profit is equal to its expected virtual surplus. If we are searching for truthful mechanisms only, then by the Myerson's Lemma the payment rule must be in that form.


Is it possible to travel to multiple Schengen states with a single Schengen visa?

Question: I have a valid multiple-entry Schengen visa issued by the Spanish Consulate in Mumbai, India. I will be travelling to Spain on the 26th of March and then to the UK on 31st of March. Would I be able to travel to France when I leave the UK?
Comment: Please note that UK isn't part of Schengen area.
Answer:
A Schengen visa obtained by any of the Schengen Area member countries allows free movement to its holder within the whole Schengen Zone regarding the European Union Schengen members as well as the EFTA Schengen members, up to its validity and timeframe.

So the countries you can travel using a schengen visa are

Austria, Belgium, the Czech Republic, Denmark,
Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia,
Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland,
Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and Switzerland. Plus Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus and Romania

The visa policy can be found here : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visa_policy_of_the_Schengen_Area
These countries apply the
common visa policy for short stay visas
From these, Let me conclude that you can travel to Spain, France without restiction since all of them are schengen members but UK is not a schengen member.
More details can be found here : eeas.europa [pdf]
Comment: Please do not cite schengenvisainfo.com for truth -- it is a private website that exists solely to accumulate ad impressions, and its information is _not_ kept accurate or up to date. (It kept claiming that there were such a thing as type-B visas for well over 5 years after they were abolished, for example).
Comment: @SagarV: That particular quote does not seem to be wrong, though the "regarding the European Union Schengen members as well as the EFTA Schengen members" part seems to be more confusing than informative.
Comment: Are you associated with  schengenvisainfo.com?
Comment: @SagarV thanks, if you stick to the eu domains you'll be fine. I was wondering why you answered a question already addressed by one of the canonical's, hence my question.  There's a Schengen 'go to' thread in META you might consider adding to.
Comment: UK isn't part of Schengen...
Comment: yes you are correct. Thanks for pointing @Laurent
Comment: @HenningMakholm I removed the cite. But the quote is there because wikipedia also tells the same. Is there any problem with this. Do I have to update the quote too?
Comment: I will clarify it now.
Comment: @GayotFow today itsel I heard of the site for the first time. I already removed it from answer by some comments and some security testing on the site. It is a malicious site. The site link is there in only rev. History


Same footer line on every page

Question: Is there a way to place the same footer line on every page? Right now, I have a chapter called introduction and in my introduction.tex file I have specified a footer line that needs to be added. But the problem is, when the pdf file is being generated, the footer line I specified is only on the last page of the chapter. But I want it on every page in the chapter. Could someone please tell me how I can accomplish this?
Comment: Do you actually want a footnote (which usually elaborates on a superscripted reference in the main text), or a footer, which is usually a short piece of text that appears separate to the main text on each page?
Comment: I've edited the title and body of the question, changing all instances of "footnote" to "footer line", to better reflect the subject of the query.
Comment: @RichardTerrett I apologize for my ignorance for not knowing the difference between a footnote and a footer. But in this case I was actually referring to a footer.
Answer: To get a footer line on every page of the document, one could use the fancyhdr package, maybe along the lines of the following minimum working example (MWE):
\documentclass[twoside]{article}
\usepackage{lipsum} % for filler text
\usepackage{fancyhdr}
\pagestyle{fancy}
\fancyhead{} % clear all header fields
\renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0pt} % no line in header area
\fancyfoot{} % clear all footer fields
\fancyfoot[LE,RO]{\thepage}           % page number in "outer" position of footer line
\fancyfoot[RE,LO]{Message of the day} % other info in "inner" position of footer line
\begin{document}
\lipsum[1-20] % generate about 4 pages of filler text
\end{document}

It's the "Message of the day" string that you'll want to change, for sure.
If the text in the footer line needs to be displayed in bold face and/or italics, you could do so by inserting the commands \bfseries and/or \itshape prior to the "Message of the day" string.
Addendum Two more points:

To get a separate footer line for each chapter, you should omit the command \fancyfoot[RE,LO]{Message of the day} from the preamble and, instead, issue the command \fancyfoot[RE,LO]{Message for Chapter xx} immediately after the respective \chapter command.
In the LaTeX book document class, the first page of a chapter uses the pagestyle "plain" (page number centered in footer line, no other header and/or footer information) even if the other pages follow a different pagestyle (such as "fancy"). If you want to display your chapter-specific footer lines on the first page of a chapter as well, you should issue the command \thispagestyle{fancy} after the respective \chapter command.
Comment: Thank you very much. Now the footer is exactly the way I want it to be. With the help of the pdf link, I managed to add a fancy header as well - )
Comment: To whoever down-voted this answer on 2018-09-10, almost seven years after it was first posted (during which period the answer attracted 21 up-votes): Please let me know what it is about my answer that you found to be either wrong or otherwise sufficiently objectionable to incite a down-vote. I'm not being sarcastic; I simply wish to have a chance to address the supposed shortcoming(s) in my answer. Thanks in advance.

Same footer line on every page


Origin of pronunciation of man/men and woman/women

Question: Is there is some explanation why the plural form of man and woman is pronounced in such a way?
Comment: I think this question is more appropriate for EL&U.
Comment: Ablaut has been around for a very, very long time, and is present in many (most?) PIE-derived languages. If you are looking for a technical explanation, ELU has an [ablaut tag](http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/ablaut) with 9 questions, and [searching there for ablaut](http://english.stackexchange.com/search?q=ablaut) yields lots more. Still more abstruse discussion on ablaut can of course be found by [searching Linguistics.SE for *ablaut*](http://linguistics.stackexchange.com/search?q=ablaut). Tolkien uses ablaut a lot, as in *adan* (man) becoming *edain* (men) in the plural.
Comment: This is an excellent question, but not, I'm afraid, one that can be answered here. If you want deeper understanding of the history, you cannot do better than follow tchrist and Kit's recommendations to seek an answer on ELU. If what you want is some general rule that tells you which words behave this way, there is none: it's basically a matter of historical accident.
Comment: The question title speaks of pronunciation.
Comment: I couldn't disagree more.  This is a relevant question for an EFL learner, and if you don't like the answers provided so far, please provide your own, in graded language.
Comment: Do you mean why the plural is "men", rather than "mans"?
Comment: I will better wait for possible migration to EL&U.
Comment: @m0nhawk It would be closed as a dupe there.
Answer: From Wikipedia:

Ablaut plurals
The plural is sometimes formed by simply changing the vowel sound of the singular, in a process called ablaut (these are sometimes called mutated plurals):

foot feet
goose geese
louse lice
man men
mouse mice (including in a computing context, though sometimes mouses is used there)
tooth teeth
woman women /'wɪmɨn/

This group consists of words that historically belong to the Old English consonantal declension, see Germanic umlaut: I-mutation in Old English. There are many compounds of man and woman that form their plurals in the same way: postmen, policewomen, etc.
Answer: I would caution some of the responders here to please "watch your language".  "mOnhawk" has asked a great question, but too many of you have used language that is too difficult for second language learners to understand.  The lovely people who are asking questions here are second-language learners, and you have to grade your language accordingly. (Of course, it IS difficult, and in my following response to mOnhawk, I have probably failed to appropriately do so, but I have tried, and so should you... I have spent in excess of 2 hours trying to grade my language on this post; how much time did you spend on YOURS?)
mOnhawk, thanks for a great question!  kiamlaluno and trideceth12 have both provided the Wikipedia entry for something called an ablaut plural.  The information they provided is a good start as an answer to your question, but I think that probably the term "ablaut plural" is a little confusing.  I will try to explain "an ablaut plural" in simpler English.  Please look for that explanation in the "thirdly, part c" section, at the end of my post.  Before I explain the strange category called "ablaut nouns", I think it will be useful to give you some information about how to make other kinds of nouns plural.
However, none of the previous responders have talked about the pronunciation of man compared to men, nor woman compared to women.  Neither have I; none of us talk about the pronunciation differences you are asking about.  I would suggest that you read through my long, long answer, which mostly focuses on the grammar related to your question, and then if you have any other questions, please ask.
If you are only interested in the pronuncation differences between an ablaut singular noun (like man) and an  ablaut plural noun (like men), then maybe none of the answers provided so far, including mine, will be helpful.  If, however, you are interested in more than pronunciation, please keep reading, and I hope I can help you.
First of all, when writing or speaking about nouns in a plural form (a countable noun that is more than one -- two or more), the easiest kind of noun to understand and use is the regular noun, which, when you have to spell or pronounce it,  simply adds "-s" or "-es", depending on the sound at the end of the word.  The "sound at the end of the word" difference is difficult to understand, so please let me know if you want more information.  For now, I will give you some examples:

I went to many shops.
I have gone to many classes.
I have kissed many elephants.
I hope to receive many kisses.

You can find more information on these and other variations here: http://oxforddictionaries.com/words/plurals-of-nouns.  If, after you review that explanation, you have any other questions about this part of my answer, please let me know.
Secondly, there are the semi-irregular plurals, a group of nouns that end in certain sounds like -th, -f, -lf, -rf and -fe* for which, unfortunately, you will have to study and memorize the correct form for the plural because there are so many differences; for example:

mouth → mouths
month → months
leaf → leaves
calf → calves
half → halves
dwarf → dwarves
knife → knives
life → lives

Thirdly, there are (at least) three kinds of irregular plural nouns, which, unfortunately, you must also study and memorize to be able to use correctly.  The strange-sounding term ablaut plural is one of these, so please keep reading (it is part (c)) and don't give up!
(a) the kind of plural where the singular and plural forms are the same word (most of these are kinds of animals, but there are other examples (let me know if you'd like some examples):  moose → moose; deer → deer, salmon → salmon;
(b) a small number of nouns where the plural form adds -(r)en (most of them are so old-fashioned that you don't need to worry about them, but here are two examples that are still used today, especially the first one):  child → children; ox → oxen;
(c) finally, this strange German term, the ablaut plural: some irregular nouns have a pronunciation and a spelling difference between vowel sounds in the singular form and the plural forms.  Your question is about the singular/plural pronunciation change between man → men and woman → women, and it is the most relevant and common example of this singular noun → plural noun pronunciation change. Also, when you write or speak using a small number of irregular English verbs, there is also an ablaut past → present → past participle difference in both spelling and pronunciation: sing → sang → sung.
I have given a hopefully comprehensive summary of how to make singular nouns plural in English, including the ablaut, variety, but I realize that I have not precisely answered the question you asked in your headline, about the pronunciation differences.  I hope the information I have provided will help you begin to think about the various ways English nouns are made plural, and hopefully other experts here might address the pronunication issue in a way that easy to understand.  If you have any other questions, please let us know.


How can I open a specific port on OS X 10.11.13

Question: I am currently working with msfvenom on OS X. But I wanted to know, the terminal commands to open a specific port say for example 4444. Can someone please help me out with this?
Comment: [Unless you have a firewall enabled or that port is in use, I'm not sure why you need to open a given port.](http://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/31376/how-can-i-open-port-8080-of-mac-os-x-lion/74155) Can you tell us what's preventing you from using that port?
Answer: You can use the terminal command nc -l 4444 to create a server that listens on port 4444.  However, I think your question really is about opening a port on your router.  If someone else out on the internet somewhere is trying to connect to you on port 4444, the router you have acts as a boundary between you and them, and most often all incoming ports by default are closed.  So even if you run a server on your Mac and it's listening on port 4444, traffic on that port needs to be allowed through at the router level.
Please give us more info so we can help you.
Answer: You can use python to run a simple server that opens whatever port you wish.
python -m SimpleHTTPServer 4444

If you have no firewall, the port is now open. Press Control + C to quit the process and close the port again or test the port from your client as needed.
If you have the default firewall, you will be prompted to actually open the port:

Lastly, if another process has the port open, you'll get an error of the stack trace that ends with the socket error indicating the port is already in use:
socket.error: [Errno 48] Address already in use

That's it - ports open on OS X quite easily unless you've made a custom firewall setting.


Storm doors without glass

Question: Do they make storm doors without glass? I need a storm door for insulation and is located on a dark side of my home. It would be added security without glass.
Answer: What you are looking for, then, is a security door.  These are essentially storm doors with metal bars that make entry more difficult.  They come in a variety of styles and prices.  If you need the "storm" protection as well, you can get some that include glass or plastic, or you can mount a plastic sheet to the inside.
It will look better than a solid non-transparent metal door, and provide significantly more security than any storm door, without a significant increase in cost.
Also, keep in mind that storm and security doors are relatively simple.  If you cannot find what you want, you can buy the door hardware (hinge, latch, gas spring return), sheet metal, and metal tubing to create your own.  A hacksaw, drill, and screws or rivets, plus metal paint, is all you need. It won't be as secure as a security door, though, unless you buy security door hardware. But if all you're looking for is a storm door without glass, this would provide the same level of security.
Also worth considering is buying a storm door with a plastic window.  Some additional clips, or replacing the window with plastic, will provide slightly more security while maintaining the look of a traditional storm door.

Storm doors without glass


What agreement will allow the publication of research based on (anonymized) private data?

Question: An associate has publishable research that is derived from (anonymized) school system data. What language should be used (in a memorandum of understanding with the school system) to assure that all are protected?
Comment: Welcome to Academia SE and thank you for your question. Can you please [edit] your question to clarify the following: 1) What kind of memorandum are we talking about? 2) What exactly do you mean by *language?* 3) Was there no agreement before your associate was able to use the data in the first place? 4) What kind of protection do you wish to achieve?
Answer: This is a tricky question. There are established approaches for biomedical sciences, and they include specific consent forms. However, if you are talking about schools you might have minors involved, and this would much complicate any matter.
In the absence of a specific agreement between participating individuals and researchers, you need to obtain, in my opinion, the approval or waiver from an established institutional review board.
In addition, you need to be able to accurately deidentify your data, in order to make impossible to recognize the school or the subject. This is easier said than done, as just by looking at case mix, number of pupils, and type of subjects taught a very smart researcher could recognize one or more schools.
The safest way to address this would be to report only aggregate data, with effect weighs, such as done by the US National Inpatient Sample project.


How to install Lagrange in Cygwin?

Question: I need to install a script for biogeographical analyses in Windows XP using Cygwin. The program is named Lagrange and is written in C++. It actually comes with instructions to install in Linux and Mac OS X, but as I know almost nothing of the languages used. How can I do it?
Answer: You have to download the source and compile it yourself.
This is not an easy task, Cygwin has a few special quirks that may need source alterations (especially as the source is still in beta).
If using the Python version is not an option may I suggest that you try installing it in a virtualized Linux machine (for example VirtualBox and Ubuntu). Once you are able to install it from source there, you can try on Cygwin.

How to install Lagrange in Cygwin?


Missing part of an idiom or expression I heard "Have you lost the [something] you were born with"

Question: I am writing a story and my character is being scolded for doing something stupid. I have an expression on the tip of my tongue, but part of it keeps evading me! "Have you lost the [thing that keeps evading me] you were born with?" Is it the good senses you were born with? The brain you were born with? I can't remember and it is beginning to drive me crazy... Does anyone know the part I'm missing?
Answer: One possibility is
Have you lost the little sense you were born with?
Sometimes little is omitted.
For examples of usage in published literature, see here and here.
Answer: To paraphrase the 1907 American folk story Epaminondas and His Auntie, the saying is, "You don't have the sense you were born with."
Answer: I think it is 'the silver spoon in the mouth' that was lost.
If they say so, it means you're not lucky.
Comment: We say 'born with a silver spoon in the mouth' of someone from a privileged background, but we don't normally speak of losing the spoon.


Was the official (βασιλικὸς) in John 4:46 Roman or Jewish?

Question: Was the official (βασιλικὸς) in John 4:46 Roman or Jewish?

So he came again to Cana in Galilee, where he had made the water wine. And at Capernaum there was an official whose son was ill.  (Jn 4:46, ESV)
Answer: The commentaries quoted at the end show a wide variation in answering this question.  Some reference early church fathers.  This official appears to be different than the Centurion in Matthew 8:5–13 and Luke 7:1–10 because here it is the official's son rather than a servant, and here the official asks Jesus to come with him, while the centurion said Jesus could heal him without coming, probably because a Jew would consider his house unclean (John 18:28).
The official appears to have been from Herod's court, but still could be Jew or Gentile.  What makes him appear to have been a Jew is Jesus' statement: "Unless you see signs and wonders you will not believe."  (John 4:48, ESV)

Nobleman (βασιλικος [basilikos]). One connected with the king (βασιλευς [basileus]), whether by blood or by office. Probably here it is one of the courtiers of Herod the tetrarch of Galilee, Chuzas (Luke 8:3), Manaen (Acts 13:1), or some one else. Some of the manuscripts used βασιλισκος [basiliskos], a petty king, a diminutive of βασιλευς [basileus].

Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Jn 4:46). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press.

"Royal official" (NASB, NIV) probably means that this man is one of Herod Antipas's court officials, although Herod's official title was tetrarch rather than king. Jesus was extremely unfavorable toward Antipas (Lk 13:32; 23:9; for reasons, cf. Mk 6:17–29); this man who comes to Jesus would be a wealthy aristocrat, probably much influenced by Greco-Roman culture and not very religious by general Palestinian Jewish standards.

Keener, C. S. (1993). The IVP Bible background commentary: New Testament (Jn 4:46). Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press.

The man is called a βασίλικος (basilikos, v. 46) from Capernaum. The term may be an adjective (royal) or a noun. Many exegetes, therefore, have viewed the man as an officer in the army or government service (such as a revenue collector) of Herod Antipas (4 B.C.–A.D. 39), who was not really a king, though he did belong to the royal house of Herod the Great, and sometimes was called king by the people (cf. Mark 6:14). If so, he very likely was a Gentile, though the text never calls him that. Some have attempted to identify him and this whole story with the centurion in Matthew 8:5–13 and Luke 7:1–10, but the accounts differ in important ways. That he was Chuza (Luke 8:3) or the Manean (Acts 13:1), as older exegetes often suggested, is surely not accurate. The royal official had heard that Jesus was returned from Judea and was at Cana, so the official left his ill son, traveled to Jesus at Cana, and begged him to come and heal his son.

Bryant, B. H., & Krause, M. S. (1998). John (Jn 4:46–47). Joplin, MO: College Press Pub. Co.

And there was a certain nobleman [royal officer, βασιλικός].—An officer of Herod Antipas, the tetrarch (whom the common people considered and called a king, Matt. 14:1, 9), The title βασιλικός combines civil and military dignity; hence some have taken this βασιλικός to be identical with the centurion of Capernaum (Irenæus, Semler, Strauss, Baumgarten-Crusius).

Lange, J. P., & Schaff, P. (2008). A commentary on the Holy Scriptures: John (p. 173). Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.
Lange points out the similarities and distinct differences in detail, and he concludes:

Accordingly this miracle has been in fact by most expositors (from Origen down) made distinct from the other.

Lange, J. P., & Schaff, P. (2008). A commentary on the Holy Scriptures: John (p. 173). Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.

The Greek word translated "nobleman" is Basileukos, from Basileus, a king, and implies one connected in some way with royalty. "Origen thinks he may have been one of Cæsar's household, having business in Judea at this time. But the usage of Josephus is the safest guide. He uses the word Basileukos to distinguish the soldiers, or courtiers, or officers of the kings (Herod and others), but never to designate the royal family. He may have been Chuza, Herod's steward (Luke 8:3), but this is pure conjecture. This man seems to have been a Jew.—"Alford. He was probably a king's officer of Herod Antipas, tetrarch of Galilee, and was stationed at Capernaum.

Johnson, B. W. (1886). John: the New Testament commentary, vol. III (p. 81). St. Louis, MO: Christian Board of Publication.

MOST of the commentators think this is another version of the story of the healing of the centurion's servant told in Matthew 8:5–13 and Luke 7:1–10; but there are differences which justify us in treating it as quite independent. Certain things about the conduct of this courtier are an example to us all.

Barclay, W. (2001). The Gospel of John (Rev. and updated., Vol. 1, p. 203). Edinburgh: Saint Andrew Press.

This man was undoubtedly a Jew employed by Herod, the king.

MacDonald, W. (1995). Believer's Bible Commentary: Old and New Testaments. (A. Farstad, Ed.) (p. 1489). Nashville: Thomas Nelson.

The certain royal official is not identified. He could have been a Gentile or a Jew, a centurion, or a minor official in Herod's court. Possibly he was a Jew because Jesus included him among the people who desire signs and wonders (v. 48; cf. 1 Cor. 1:22).

Blum, E. A. (1985). John. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 2, p. 288). Wheaton, IL: Victor Books.
Answer: I believe it is correct to say that the consensus in antiquity was that this person was a Jew and not a Roman.  It was understood that the nobleman was somehow connected to the court of Herod Antipas.

The Eusebian Canons place John 4:46-54 alongside Matthew 8:5-10 and Luke 7:1-9, which identify the person in question as a centurion - implying that the noblemen were Roman.  There is an inconsistency in this, however, since the person healed in John is said to be the man's son, whereas in Matthew and John it is his servant.
In the Diatessaron of Tatian the passage corresponding to John 4:46-54 is placed in 6:26-34, whereas Matthew 8:5-10 and Luke 7:1-9 are distributed together in Chapter 11, which means that it was understood this was a different person.  John Chrysostom comments:

And there was a certain nobleman whose son was sick at Capernaum. When he heard that Jesus was come out of Judæa into Galilee, he went unto Him and besought Him that He would come down and heal his son.
This person certainly was of royal race, or possessed some dignity
from his office, to which the title "noble" was attached. Some indeed
think that this is the man mentioned by Matthew (8:5), but he is shown
to be a different person not only from his dignity, but also from his
faith. That other person, even when Christ was willing to go to him,
entreats Him to tarry; this one, when He had made no such offer, draws
Him to his house. The one said I am not worthy that Thou shouldest
come under my roof, but this other even urges  Him, saying, Come
down ere my son die.  In that instance He came down from the
mountain, and entered into Capernaum; but here, as He came from
Samaria, and went not into Capernaum but into Cana, this person met
Him. The servant of the other was possessed by the palsy, this one's
son by a fever (Homily XXXIII on the Gospel of John).

There does seem to be consensus that this nobleman was connected directly or indirectly with the court of Herod Antipas.  Echoing Origen's opinion, Augustine wrote:

Who this nobleman was, who came to Jesus to pray Him to heal his son,
we know not. Some suppose him to have been one of the courtiers of
Herod, to whom the administration of the affairs of the tetrarchy had
been entrusted. For we are told that he was a nobleman. Others think
he was one of the citizens of Capernaum, a city in that neighborhood,
which was in possession of royal authority, and was, therefore, called
the royal city. But the matter is uncertain, and may be left
undecided (Treatise XXIX on the Gospel of John).

Cyril of Alexandria also understood the Greek βασίλικος to mean a royal personage.  Since Galilee would have been under Herod Antipas rather than a Roman at the time, this would have made the nobleman a Jew and not a Gentile:

Now it is probable that the nobleman who came to Christ and entreated
Him to heal his son, was one of the principal persons among the Jews,
and belonged to that city, which was called Capernaum, and was at that
time a very renowned place. For the Evangelist says that he was a
royal officer, that is, one of those who were appointed by the king to
have the management of affairs of state. It is also plain that he was
a person of no small power and influence, for the Jews generally had
great respect for their kings, and honored those who were about them
as if they were kings themselves (Book IV, Commentary on John).


Creating a tree-view with buttons? in QT

Question: I am trying to make a dialog box like below in QT, the only problem is I have no idea what the widget is called. The bar on the left is like a tree-view widget, but when you click on it, it updates the text on the right. Does anybody happen to know what the widget is called or what widget(s) are required to perform this? I am using QT C++ on Windows.
Comment: It's most likely a ListView, rather than a TreeView. Not sure exactly how Qt warps the native controls.
Answer: There is an example with Qt showing you how to do this.
https://doc-snapshots.qt.io/4.8/dialogs-configdialog.html
If you're using Qt Creator as IDE, you can find it under the "Demos and Examples" tab in the Welcome Screen too.
It uses a QListWidget for the selector, and QStackedWidget to control the different pages. Connect the currentItemChanged signal of the list widget to change what page should be shown. Everything you'll need is in configdialog.cpp.
Answer: If you realy need to add QPushButton into QListWidget, use setItemWidget, or into ListView use QAbstractItemView::setIndexWidget
Comment: Adding a button to a listview is not really necessary, just use currentItemChanged


Can't Stackoverflow allow some other content servers for storing profile pictures?

Question: I just signed up for Gravatar, chose a username and found that they don't allow people to delete accounts (I know I can hide the account, but that's not enough). While annoyed already, I wanted to submit some feedback to them and they don't have a feedback option either.
Why is StackOverflow associated with only a website like Gravatar?
Couldn't StackOverflow allow profile images to be accessed from Picassa, imagebucket or some other content server?
Answer: Gravatar isn't very user friendly (which is why I still have a generic gravatar).  It'd be nice if we had options.
Comment: "Gravatar isn't very user friendly" - Exactly!
Answer: If you have looked in the FAQ (Common Questions in the Help Menu) you would've found the following question:

OK, but how do I contact support?

With the answer:

Send an e-mail to support at gravatar dot com

Also, if you would've looked at the privacy policy, you would've found out it is operated by Automattic, which does have a contact page.
Lastly, the reason they aren't able to delete an account, is due to they "global auth", using the same credentials for wordpress.com, askimet API keys, and gravatar. (not that different when compared with stackexchange)
Comment: But... SE accounts _can_ be deleted. All you have to do is ask.
Comment: that's because SE uses a better system *;)*


what do i do if he says i'm harder on her because she isn't my biological daughter

Question: My boyfriend of 2 and a half years loves my daughter and my daughter loves and looks up to him as a father figure, but he said that "i'm harder on her because she isn't my biological daughter" and that "it will make her stronger" am I suppose to be ok with this? I'm upset by this and want him to love her has his own but by him saying these things makes me feel like he doesn't lover her as his own. Am I wrong to think that? What should I do?
Answer:
Your boyfriend's comment is a red flag.
Your daughter does not need to be stronger.
Your daughter is completely dependent on you for her health and wellbeing.
No man should be allowed to threaten your daughter's wellbeing.
However you feel about this is how you feel.
No one gets to judge you or your feelings or your decisions about your daughter's wellbeing.
Your relationship with your daughter is life-long.
Your relationship with your boyfriend is not yet a life-long commitment.
Without any explanation to anyone, including your boyfriend, you have a right to choose the best option for yourself and your daughter, whether you try to work it out with your boyfriend, or you end the relationship, you have a right to act without explaining or justifying your decision(s).
Answer: That "It will make her stronger" line is horsesh*t.  What makes people strong is knowing that they have secure foundational relationships, where they feel safe and secure, and are treated with love, respect and fairness.  Your boyfriend is openly admitting he doesn't want your daughter to feel secure in her own home.  He wants her to feel less than.
I don't think it is healthy for your daughter to live like that... constantly wanting support from a parental figure that she will never get.
Answer: You are supposed to feel however you do with it. I wouldn't be okay with anyone telling me they are being intentionally "hard" on anyone I care for, though I can't tell by this post what his/your definition of hard is.
The reality is that she is not "his own" and to put that expectation on a partner is unfair IMO. I am a SM and, as much as I love my SKs, they could and never would be "my own". I didn't treat them as anything other than my own children, but to ask someone how to love is not something that is within your control. How he treats her, though, is something that can be worked on and an area that I'd suggest you focus on. Treating someone in your household with love and care should be a given (presuming lack of abuse, etc.).


Complex minimal polynomial is image of real minimal polynomial under tautological map.

Question: Let $T_\mathbb{R}$ be a real $n \times n$ matrix, and let $T_\mathbb{C}$ be the same matrix but considered as a complex one. What is the easiest way to see that $\min_{T_\mathbb{C}} \in \mathbb{C}[t]$ equals the image of $\min_{T_\mathbb{R}} \in \mathbb{R}[t]$ under the tautological map $\mathbb{R}[t] \to \mathbb{C}[t]$?
Comment: If $p = \operatorname{Re} \operatorname{min}_{T_{\mathbb{C}}}$, what is $p(T)$?
Comment: The linked question is not posed in the same terms, but amounts to the same issue: since the minimal polynomial over $\Bbb C$ of a matrix with real entries is the tautological image of the minimal polynomial over $\Bbb R$, it must have real entries.
Comment: And note that (at least) [one of the answers](http://math.stackexchange.com/a/136823/18880) shows that this is true in any field extension; it is not necessary to use anything particular about the extension $\Bbb C/\Bbb R$, such as complex conjugation.
Answer: Let $p_{\mathbb C}(T)$ be the minimal polynomial of $A$ over $\mathbb C$ ; by definition, this is the monic polynomial of least degree in $\mathbb C[T]$ for which evaluating at $A$ gives zero. Take the basis $\{1,i\}$ for $\mathbb C$ as a real vector space. Let $I$ be the $n \times n$ identity matrix and consider the (left) $\mathrm{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb R)$-module $\mathrm{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb C)$. In this module, the elements $1 \cdot I$ and $i \cdot I$ are $\mathrm{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb R)$-linearly independent (make the check coefficient-wise).
Now write
$$
p_{\mathbb C}(T) = T^k + \alpha_1 T^{k-1} + \cdots + \alpha_k.
$$
We can write $\alpha_j = \beta_j + i \gamma_j$, from which we can define
$$
p_{\mathbb C}^1(T) = T^k + \beta_1 T^{k-1} + \cdots + \beta_k, \quad p_{\mathbb C}^i(T) = \gamma_1 T^{k-1} + \cdots + \gamma_k, \quad \Rightarrow \quad p_{\mathbb C}(T) = p_{\mathbb C}^1(T) + i p_{\mathbb C}^i(T).
$$
Plugging in $A$, we see that since $p_{\mathbb C}(A) = 0$, by the linear independence of $1 \cdot I$ and $i \cdot I$, we have $p_{\mathbb C}^1(A) = p_{\mathbb C}^i(A) = 0$. Since $\deg p_{\mathbb C}^i < \deg p_{\mathbb C}$, by definition of the complex minimal polynomial, $p_{\mathbb C}^i = 0$. Therefore $p_{\mathbb C} = p_{\mathbb C}^1 \in \mathbb R[T]$.
I wrote the argument this way because in fact this generalizes : let $K/F$ be a finite field extension and $A \in \mathrm{Mat}_{n \times n}(F)$. Then if $p_K(T)$ (resp. $p_F(T)$) denotes the minimal polynomial of $A$ over $K$ (resp. $F$), we have $p_K(T) = p_F(T)$ ; the proof is the same as above, just replace the basis $\{1,i\}$ of the $\mathbb C/\mathbb R$ case by an $F$-basis of $K$ which contains $1$.
(Note that I didn't use the fact that $K$ is closed, nor that $K/F$ Galois, as in the case of $\mathbb C/\mathbb R$ ; all you need is that the extension is finite to allow the use of linear algebra.)
Hope that helps,
Answer: Set $T = T_\mathbb{C}$, and let $p = \min_T$. Without loss of generality, $p$ is monic. Since $\mathbb{C}$ is algebraically closed, it follows that we can decompose$$V = \bigoplus_\lambda V^{(\lambda)}.$$Now, the minimal polynomial is given by$$p(t) = \prod_{\lambda \in \text{Spec}(T)} (t - \lambda)^{m_\lambda},$$where $m_\lambda$ is the smallest integer such that $T^{m_\lambda}$ annihilates $V^{(\lambda)}$.
We now prove that $p$ consists of real coefficients. To do so, it suffices to prove that $m_\lambda = m_{\overline{\lambda}}$ for any $\lambda \in \mathbb{C}$. But $\overline{T} = T$ as $T \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$, and the claim follows immediately upon observing that$$(T - \lambda)^k(v) = 0 \iff (T - \overline{\lambda})^k(\overline{v}) = \overline{0} = 0.$$Hence, the minimal $k$ to kill a $\lambda$-eigenvector is the same as the minimal $k$ to kill a $\overline{\lambda}$-eigenvector.
Alternatively, one can use the observation that if $1, T_\mathbb{R}, \dots, T_\mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ are linearly independent, then so are $1, T_\mathbb{C}, \dots, T_\mathbb{C}^{n-1}$.


The Following Module was built either with optimizations enabled or without debug information

Question: I cannot get rid of this in my VS 2008 web project when debugging.  I've checked that it's in debug mode on the non-web project in question and it's in Active(Debug).  Deleted all items in my .NET 2.0 temp folder in Windows.  Not sure what else to do here.
Comment: I reset visual studio setting then resolved problem
Answer: Try disabling "Enable Just My Code" in Tools/Options/Debugging/Options.
Comment: It works but may cause some unwanted side effects when debugging:
http://blogs.devsource.com/devlife/content/net_general/vs_debugging_-_why_doesnt_vs_break_on_exceptions.html
Comment: In VS2010 this checkbox is in Debug > Options & Settings, then under Debugging > General
Comment: I did that and it worked. I was able to use breakpoints and step through code. I don't get it. Why did it work? (I was debugging a Managed C++ module referenced by a Win Service using VS2010)
Comment: This works due to the rebuilding of the options?  What is the deal.  I did solve the issue, but why?
Comment: Didn't work for me.  In my case, doing this will make the error message go away, but then I get the infamous error `The breakpoint will not currently been hit.  No symbols have been loaded for this document`.
Answer: I had the same problem and discovered that I wasn't outputting my debug info on my build. If you right click on the project and go to 'properties', then select the 'build' tab, on the bottom of the page there's an 'Advanced...' button that will display your setting for you output debug info. Set that to 'full' and the error should go away.
Comment: This is the correct answer. You should be outputting "full" debug info when you want to debug your application locally in development mode. You should do this rather than the "Enable Just My Code" answer as that answer can have unintended side effects (as noted above).
Comment: @Tod Thomson, I am not sure why you claim this is the correct answer, as I see the message just now while debugging my web application and trying to enter a class library, so very similar to the configuration described in the question. My _Debug Info_ setting is _full_ and I have no reason to believe it has been different ever.
Comment: @R.Schreurs I tried everything else on this page and the only thing that worked for me was this answer. If it doesn't work for you, feel free to try something else here / provide an answer of your own.
Comment: It's a Microsoft error. Don't say "should". Unless you're saying "The error should go away but it's Microsoft so you should rethink your life"
Answer: I just ran into this issue, and quickly decided that the other answers posted didn't apply to me.

I'm the owner of the project, and I know it was built with debug information, as well as without optimizations. Furthermore, I'm never happy choosing the disabling of a warning as my first choice. Hiding/ignoring this warning could become an issue in a future debugging session.
Since this only started occurring after I signed the assembly, this clued me in on my quick fix: temporarily remove the strong name of my DLL (and consuming EXE). Voila! Problem solved.
A better, long-term solution, could take the form of adding a post-build action to update the GAC so it has the latest version of the signed DLL.
But for now, I'm happy to move on from this diversion, and continue working on the issue that brought me to this debugging session.
Comment: I was in a similar circumstance to you, but took the easy way out... I uninstalled the program that put this DLL in the GAC, because it was just the older version of what I was debugging.
Comment: Also +1 for recommending to fix the source of the problem rather than just enable a workaround like all the others suggesting untick "Enable just my code"
Answer: resolved.  Deleted all occurences (all projects) of the dll in question.
Comment: I closed all VS/VWD sessions where the referenced projects and my active solution were open. Then I deleted EVERY instance of the problem dlls and their companion pdbs.  Next, I deleted everything under the temporary debug website location in the .NET framework structure (for this project, it was  C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\[myWebsite]). This gave me a 'file in use' error on one of the earlier versions until I closed VWD. Then I reopened the project and fixed every outstanding error and warning in the project's code. Only then did the error go away.
Answer: VS2012, clean and rebuild fixed the issue for me. "Properties" -> "Build" -> Optimize code is unchecked. "Properties" -> "Build" -> "Advanced" -> Debug Info: Full
Comment: do we need to change the settings
Comment: This worked for me when debugging a Visual Studio 2010 add-in.  Previously was set to `none`.
Comment: Not Worked for me, but after deleting bin and obj folders then clean and rebuild solution worked again :)
Answer: Check out this link
http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsdebug/thread/43cb16ba-0759-42ab-8e7d-9f168ace3b6f
try unchecking "Just My Code" in Tools->Options->Debugging->General.
it works for me
Answer: Guessing VS 2008 is not rebuilding the dll correctly.
1) Delete all occurrences of the dll
2) Rebuild solution
And that should fix it.
Comment: I deleted the bin directory of my web-app followed by rebuild all. That fixed it!
Answer: Check your build configuration options. Make sure optimizations are turned off and the DEBUG constant is defined.
Comment: Build is selected and optimizations are definitely off.
Answer: If everything else fails, try renaming the Assembly name in the project's properties. This fixed the issue for me.
Comment: After spending hours and scouring the internet trying everything I came across, this worked. Something must be cached?
Answer: I get this issue as well, for some reason it's happened 3 or 4 times; I think it must be a Visual Studio 2005 bug/hick up (or at least my installation).
This has worked every time: to fix it I

Right click on my solution and click Properties.
Open Configuration Manager.
Select Debug in the drop down menu (if not already selected).
Uncheck BUILD. Then re-check it.
Rebuild the solution.
Answer: Tools > options > Debugging > Symbols > Specify excluded modules
look that if the dll or the exe in the excluded modules list
Answer: At least for non-web applications this works:
From: http://www.stellarpc.com/articles/board.aspx?id=40
2 - Allow Debugging...
Due to the nature in which one of the assemblies has been built in your application, you will need to change a few settings to allow the code to be handled by the Visual Studio Debugger.
Right click on any project in question from the solution explorer and select 'Properties'. This will open up the project properties panel giving us access to a great many options for our projects. Navigate to the 'Complile' Tab (or 'Build' if your in a C# environment) and select 'Advanced Compile Options...' from the bottom of the screen. This presents us with a prompt that has two key areas of interest:
1) Optimizations - uncheck 'Enable Optimizations'
2) Generate debug info - Ensure that the option is set to 'Full'
Comment: Interesting... I have my projects configured this way, and even with this configuration, the message is still appearing. So this is not yet the ultimate solution
Answer: I had this issue with a solution in a certain folder, but if I moved it to another folder or others built it, I didn't get the message. I did the clean, rebuild, and even rebooted and still couldn't get the original to debug without this message. I searched my system for copies of the file causing the error and I found that copies were kept in
c:\User\username\AppData\Local\Assembly\dl3
This was on Win7-64 but will be similar on other Windows OSes. I deleted all of the copies I found there and I no longer get the message. I didn't need to uncheck the "Enable Just My Code".
Also, this was for a WPF app, but I came across this thread in my search so hopefully this will help someone else.
Answer: I was able to resolve this issue by following these steps:

Right-click on the Solution (not the Project), and select 'Properties'
In the left panel, select 'Configuration Properties'
In the right panel, select 'Debug' under the 'Configuration' column for your project

If you do not see the Solution listed in Solution Explorer, follow these steps:

In the menu bar, go to Tools -> Options
In the left panel, select 'Projects and Solutions' (you may need to check 'Show all settings' at the bottom-left area of the window
In the right panel, check 'Always show solution'

I hope this helps.
Answer: I too have all these.  And I've done all this.  It appears this happens to me every time I get a fresh copy of the entire solution out of source control.  So if we've done all these, deleted dlls & .pdb files for all references (Assemblies) in the web project, used the clean option on the solution, deleted temp files, closed out VS and reopened, made sure debug mode is selected and set at full and optimations are off, what more is there?!?!?!
Comment: I'm desperate for a solution too. It can't even generate a pdb file.
Answer: I had the same issue on my web project in Visual Studio 2010, and finally I found the reason why I was getting this message. What I did was to change an existing debugging option on Visual studio:

Go to Tools->Options->Debugging->Symbols->All modules
Check the "unless excluded" radio button
Click on the link "Specify excluded modules", then remove the DLL that you want to debug.

In my case it was my web dll file...
Answer: Had this happen to me on a VS 2010 winForms project. Seeing that the majority of people here have web projects, i think that it has to do with access to the folder in which the project is stored. I say this because when this problem occurred to me Google Drive was synchronizing the folder in which i keep my projects. It seems that just disabling the synchronization does not fix the problem.
My solution is similar to one of the answers above:

Went to "Project Properties > Compile > Advanced Compile Options"
Checked "Enable optimization"
Set "General debug info:" to "None"
Unchecked "Define DEBUG constant"
And pressed OK
Then went back and returned the options to their initial state.

Hope this helps someone as it seems this still happens.
Answer: I had this when trying to remote debug an application on a computer that belongs to a different subnet. I was able to debug and step through the code when running it across the network if the machines were on the same subnet. After changing the subnet though I was unable to step through when running from the network and was getting the "The Following Module was built either with optimizations enabled or without debug information".
The solution? Easy. Copy the built solution across to the machine hosting the remote debugging and run it locally.
Answer: Follow this : (first STOP debuging)
1:right click on project solution name or project  ->  Properties
2:under Configuration Properties select configuration Manager
3:Change configuration to  debug and click on close
4:Change configuration to debug and click on Apply -> OK
 Now rebuild solution....!
Answer: For me, Checking the "Optimize code" box in the project properties, saving, unchecking it, then resaving did it for me.
Disabling "Enable Just My Code" also worked, but that was more of a work-around than a fix as I didn't want that setting.
Answer: I have had same problem, but with different cause and solution.
The window was the same as that shown by Gustavo (above) but the path was in:
"\users\zzz\AppSettings..." (where zzz is windows username)
I had an Excel addin - I was testing the install of the addin, so I had a copy installed through VS install function. VS was obviously trying to debug both the installed copy and the copy I had just launched, and could not find debug symbols on the installed copy.
None of the above solutions worked (without side affects),
SOLUTION:
uninstalling the addin, and manually deleting the files in App Settings worked.
Answer: You mentioned it's a web project...do you have
<compilation debug="true />

in your web.config?
Answer: I had the same problem after building with a Release configuration.
It turned out that when I switched back to Debug, VS wasn't detecting any differences, so it was not updating the .dll and .pdb files in the bin folder.
Here's what worked for me:

Run iisreset (to clean up the temporary folders)
Save the web.config (to force VS to actually rebuild)
Rebuild on Debug
Start the project
Comment: Why didn't you just use the Rebuild command on the Build Menu?  That forces all modules to be rebuilt whether changes are detected or not.
Comment: @Ron sorry I don't remember all the details this was a while ago, I think there was an issue with that version and rebuilding from the build menu wasn't clearing out the files as expected.
Answer: Try a rebuild then debug.
Answer: My case is following: webservice referenced lib1.dll. Later I removed reference as it was no longer used. However lib1.dll remained in the bin folder.
Because library was not referenced then Rebuild and Clean actions were not helpful.
After manually deleting lib1.dll from bin folder I've get rid of this message.
Answer: If you are publishing to IIS and not using built in web server -or IIS express- make sure that your publish profile settings is in debug mode. In vs 11 by default it's in release mode.
Answer: Just to add, I was looking at this blog to find the solution to the same problem I was facing. Unfortunately the solutions mentioned above didn't help me. At last I figured out, I was installing my bits (along with .pdb) through installer and setting permission explicitly on the installation folder.
Because of which VS was not able to load the pdb even though the file browser was showing the correct file but it was giving the same error mentioned above.
Once I unchecked "Enable Just my code" and removed permission settings from the installer, VS started loading the module.
Answer: The one configuration that worked for me was the following
Project --> (Your Project) Properties --> Debug Tab
  make sure Configuration is set to Active (Debug)
  Under "Unable Debuggers", make sure "Enable unmanaged code debugging" is checked
Answer: I'm creating a Windows Service and here's what worked for me:

Uninstall the service.
Open a command prompt and go to c:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v4.0.30319
installutil C:\MyFantabulusWindowService\bin\Debug\MyFantabulusWindowService.exe

Greatness has been achieved!
Answer: Case : testing assembly with Console project in SharePoint development - if you're doing SharePoint development and seeing this alert in VS, make sure you deploy your SP assembly to the GAC before testing your console app IF your core SP project has methods you need to call in your console test app.
Answer: I had this in a repository checkout from SVN where over
time the source code of a project was added to the solution.
The solution looked like this
solution
- project 1
  - Reference '..\assemblies\<companyname>.Customers.Adapter1.dll'
- project 2
  - Reference '<companyname>.Customers.Adapter1.dll' (project reference).
- project '<companyname>.Customers.Adapter1'

To solve:

In project 1, delete the reference to the assemblies folder dll.
In project 1, add a project reference to '.Customers.Adapter1'.
Answer: I had this problem with a project and it turned out commenting out the following line in AssemblyInfo.cs fixed the issue:
[assembly: Debuggable(DebuggableAttribute.DebuggingModes.IgnoreSymbolStoreSequencePoints)]

Answer: For me, i deleted all files in temporary asp.net files, and closed my solution and re-open it and it works fine
Answer: I also had this issue, one way to solve this issue is the project from which file is opening in metadata form, add that project as a project reference and not as a file reference such as dll or exe.


What to put in a biography for a publication?

Question: A publication I submitted to said that I need to include a biography in the paper.  I don't have many formal qualifications, aside from my degree.  I have done my research on my own, and am unaffiliated.  What can I put in the biography?
Comment: Keep it simple. "horse hair is a graduate of the University of Southern North Dakota at Hoople and a regular user at Academia StackExchange."
Comment: In my neck of the woods, it is common to list your degrees, relevant work experience/current position, and research interests.
Answer: I would check a few articles of the journal you publish in and look at what other author are putting in their biography.
Mostly it will be about your degrees (BSc, MSc, PhD, when and where), the field of research you are interested in and what is your current occupation. In summary you can state anything that shows your experitise in the subject you are discussing in the paper.
If no one but yourself paid you for the research, you can state it like:

beside a job as your paying job he/she is working on paper subject

or

Since date has been working on paper subject
Answer: If you don't have strong qualifications or your own research history it is best to focus on your interests and goals. Think about these questions:

What have you done?
What are you doing now?
What do you want to do in the future?
Why is this publication important to you?


"A continuous competition" or "continuous competition"

Question: I want to describe that school life is full of continuous competition, should I say "School life is continuous competition" or "Scool life is a continuous competition" ?
Answer: You could use either.  The two meanings are subtly different but probably amount to the same thing in this instance.
I'll refer to this dictionary page:
http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/competition
1) School life is continuous competition
This is using defn 1: "The activity or condition of striving to gain or win something by defeating or establishing superiority over others:"
Ie, it's like saying "While we are at school we are continuously competing with others".
2) School life is a continuous competition
This is using defn 1.1: "an event or contest in which people take part in order to establish superiority or supremacy in a particular area:"
It's like saying "Being at school is like being in a competition".
So, the second one is a simile (you're not actually in a competition, even if it feels like it), while the first one is a more direct description.  Of course, school could be described as literally being a competition between students, especially if there are prizes, eg for best student in the year or whatever.  This makes the second one more literally true and less of a simile.
However, I think that most people would take the meaning to be the same in either case.


Renovating interior stone basement walls

Question: We have a 100 year old house, and I would like to finish the basement but leave the stone walls exposed.  I believe the stone can look great, but the mortar needs some work, and I am mostly focused on keeping the airflow to prevent any moisture problems.  I'm aware that it is important to manage moisture outside the foundation.  But when it comes to the inside, is it ok to somehow 'seal' the stone, or would that create an unwanted moisture barrier?  In general, what is the best way to renovate the stone on the inside to make it look good without causing any other issues?
Answer: You can do it. Certainly.
There was a recent episode on this for "this old house". They basically suggested cleaning out the loose fill and then replacing the old mortar with fresh mortar. It looked tedious more than anything else - but doable by a homeowner. I've re-mortared and chinked stone foundations. It's a surprisingly high maintenance experience compared to poured walls.
The good news about stone foundations is that with proper bracing, you can fix up almost anything well enough to sell it to someone else who enjoys huffing dust, cobwebs, squirrel mummies and Radon Gas. But for the most part, it's like fight club - we just don't talk about it.
With improper bracing, you can experience the joy of being crushed to death, or lose an eye due to the magic of newtonian physics while you learn about shear loads and amateur metallurgy using those hydraulic jacks you bought at Harbour Freight. It's very educational.
A well built stone wall can always be repaired with less trouble than concrete foundations. The mortar and chinking is mostly for aesthetics, anyway.
Sealing the walls is fine, as long as you do it on the outside first, and then and only then do the inside. You'll have to dig down to the foundation to do this, and that bracing is an issue on the outside as well.
Now the part you won't like. I did this in high school for a relative who had a nearly 200 year old house with a sandstone & rock foundation, in a damp (flood plain) area. It looked great, but ultimately it was wasted effort. Exposed rock and mortar foundations will always breath, sweat and disappoint anyone expecting a modern basement experience. You can apply gallons of sealer, but it will simply create areas where it perforates.
These foundations were designed to keep out animals, hold up your house so it doesn't rot all that quickly and very little else.
They will always be home to spiders. You can seal it with gunnite or epoxy and it will still allow infiltration. It might look OK, in that "I love Halloween" fashion so popular with the gothic/serial killer/lonely artist set, but it will never be a comfortable space.
You might build a second wall that can be plumbed, framed and sheet rocked, but it won't solve much over the long run, even with substantial vapor barriers and ducting. The walls will still slowly shift, moisture will come and go, and you'll never be happy with the low ceilings.
So in summary: You can redo the walls. You can seal them. You can even box them in and add ducting, insulation, AC and lighting. It's still going to be a basement that weeps moisture due to temp and pressure differentials.
Answer: I fixed up the stone foundation of my 1890's house by picking and then with new mortar years ago.  Now I am getting to using drylock (which has proven to hold the mortar together better than when left bare) and building walls for hookups.
There isn't much to do for insulation, unless you have the money to buy two-part spray foam kits ($600+).  Whatever you do to seal the dust and make the place habitable is good.  Just remember to use pressure treated wood against concrete and do everything like it will stay there for 50 years.
Answer: Wet soil in contact with the surface of your stone basement wall will cause moisture to diffuse into the stone wall.  Stone is dense, but eventually will absorb moisture. While a vapor barrier installed against the outside stone wall will keep much rainwater from your wall, it can prevent the wall from drying to the outside. If the interior of the stone foundation wall is painted, it may fail as the weaker of two vapor barriers causes moisture to diffuse through it.  Rule of thumb: No wall should have more than one vapor barrier.  Semi permeable barriers are a better option - slow diffusion.  In England old stone churches provide an interesting solution: install a below grade stone wall a foot away from the foundation, creating an permanent air gap between the foundation and surrounding soil.  The trench between the two walls is covered (with flagstone/slate) so rainwater and debris do not collect in it.  Because space between the structural foundation wall and the secondary wall is open, with no contact with soil, moisture has little opportunity to diffuse through the side of foundation wall from the outside, and any moisture in the wall can still diffuse to the outside on dry days.


Hybrid Model: Combine two Classifiers built on different Populations / datasets

Question: I have two classifier (A & B) built upon two distinct datasets (a & b), classifying a binary outcome (0,1). The two datasets (a & b) contain exactly the same variables, but strongly differ in the number of observations (e.g. n of a = 50, n of b = 400)
Note that the two datasets cannot be combined due to methodological reasons!
I want to apply each classifier to make probabilistic predictions on new data. So each classifier gets the same new input data and makes its own probabilistic estimates (e.g. A: 0.4 and B: 0.55). I could now take the mean of those predictions (0.475) and be happy with it. However I am looking for methods that weight those predictions based on some criteria such as the number of observations each classifier was built on.
Alternatively, I would also be happy with a combined classifier C, that results for example from weighting model coefficients from both classifiers A & B.
(I learned about Ensemble methods but as far i understand it, those methods combine predictions from various models - but those models are built upon the same populations, which is not what I need)
Comment: i'd go for a random effect meta-model
Answer: I am not experienced in this area. Perhaps you need a mixture model with an additional parameter p that indicates the probability of the response being in distribution A. The probability of being in distribution B would be (1-p).
But this is only suitable if you have a mixture of two different distributions. In your case, I am not sure. It sounds like the same endpoint being measured in two samples of different sizes.


I am looking the author of specific position

Question: Who is the author of this study?
<code>[FEN "q7/8/8/6R1/7R/k7/P7/6K1 w - - 0 1"]
</code>
Answer: This seems to be a correction of study by Luigi Centurini that was published in Schachzeitung, vol. 8, i. 10 (Oct., 1853), p. 333: "White moves, but can only draw." The original setting was:
<code>[FEN "q7/8/8/8/8/8/6RR/k6K w - - 0 1"]
</code>
(Note that a very closely related study with the same material but with a 'White wins' stipulation appears on p. 332.)
According to Harold van der Heijden's chess study database, which probably incorporates the Arves source cited by another poster it was corrected
(M. Garcia & M. Campioli in Estudios Artisticos de Ajedrez - XVII-21 2015), but I have not seen that correction myself.
(Note: That other post seems to have gone away as I was adding this reply?  Pity -- the alternate source it gave would have been useful, as it may have been the original publication.)
(Added: after getting a link to the www.arves.org web site cited in the deleted post I find that the web page did not provide any more useful source information, but seems to be a selection from van der Heijden's database, release V. The front page I thought could have been the original publication was from a book on rook endgames published in 1853.)
Added:  The author, then, would be Garcia & Campioli, after Centurini, or some similar writing.  Centurini didn't author the position, but neither did Garcia & Campioli create it independently of Centurini.
Comment: The deleted answer's link for you: https://www.arves.org/arves/index.php/en/halloffame/550-centurini-luigi-1820-1900


How do I remove a wrapper from a JSON Object?

Question: I have a JSON object with a wrapper which contains information about the service it came from. Before parsing the object I really care about I would like to take off the wrapper and then just parse the object.
How do I turn this JSON object:
<code>{"object":{"id_object": 1, "description": "Black" }, "origin":"colors"}
</code>
Into this:
<code>{"id_object": 1, "description": "Black"}
</code>
I am using GSON as JSON parser, but if any other will give me the functionallity, I can change the library.
Thanks in advance.
Answer: Since the whole thing is a blob of json, it doesn't make sense to 'unwrap it.' Just parse the whole thing, and and grab the value of the 'object' key, and go along from there.
Answer: Super hacky solution:
<code>private class Holder{
    private IdHolder object;
    private String origin;

    public IdHolder getObject() {
        return object;
    }
    public String getOrigin() {
        return origin;
    }

    private class IdHolder{
        private int id_object;
        private String description;
    }
}

    Holder holder = gson.fromJson("{\"object\":{\"id_object\": 1, \"description\": \"Black\" }, \"origin\":\"colors\"}", Holder.class);
    System.out.println(gson.toJson(holder.getObject()));
</code>
Would recommend @bmargulies answer though, that is the right thing to do.


Phospholipid Bilayer structural reversal

Question: What would happen if the phospholipids in the phospholipid bi-layer were reversed, the fatty acid tails now facing outwards and the phosphate heads facing inwards? I'm assuming this will not affect the protein channels, but perhaps the loss of cholesterol in the structure of the bi-layer. Would this then mean that the fluid mosaic model no longer holds?
Comment: I guess that it true, but the point here is to make the inference in the bi-layer structure after the reversal. What would it's characteristics be, and how would it's functions be altered?
Comment: Why should protein channels not be affected ? Even if they are not reversed, environment around them will change which will have a disastrous effect.
Comment: DO you mean to ask that if we assume nothing in the proteins change(eventhough that isn't realistic), what will be the impact of reversal of the bilayer ?
Comment: For a start, let's just not consider the protein channels unless absolutely necessary.
Comment: its easy to do this by the way -just mix the lipids into oil
Answer: This would have quite dramatic consequences. The layers are ordered in the way they are, because of their polarity. In the way they are ordered, the hydrophobic tails are inside and directed towards each other, the hydrophilic heads are orientated to the outside and inside. Since both sides of the membrane are surrounded by aqueous solutions, this is necessary to allow a contact between solution and cell membrane and to allow an exchange of molecules between them. If the layers would be oriented the other way, this contact and exchange wouldn't be possible. Proteins channels in the membrane wouldn't be possible as well, since the intermembrane domains are composed preferrably of amino acids with hydrophobic sidechains, while the domains on the outside of the membrane contain more hydrophilic amino acids.
A turn like this would need a completely different composition of life - meaning it couldn't be based on water like it is.
Comment: Your answer is sufficient to an extent, @Chris, it implying that the fluid mosaic model is made no longer possible. However, I do not understand why the phosphate heads point outwards while the fatty acid tails point inwards if there was to be diffusion of lipids into the cell. It is conventionally known that lipids dissolve into the phospholipid bi-layer, but how would this be possible as there are phosphate 'heads' present? Imagine a lipid wanting to diffuse into the cell, how will it pass through the phospholipid bi-layer if the phosphate heads are hydrophilic in the first place?
Comment: You have to think about how fats (or fatty acids) travel through the blood stream: As small droplets (or micelles) which are organized in the same way: Hydrophilic part outside, hydrophobic part inside. They can fuse with membranes (or are actively taken up) and can so be transported to the cells.
Comment: Can you explain how fatty acids travel through the bloodstream or provide a source where I can read further on this matter? Are you referring to 'blood lipids'?
Comment: A nice source is the Wikipedia article on [blood lipids.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blood_lipids)
Comment: I may have misheard previously that lipids "dissolve" into the membrane. Is it sufficient to say that they fit through the gaps in the Phospholipid bi-layer, therefore not repelled by the phosphates? Do protein channels come into affect this process at any stage?
Comment: The lipids travel in form of complexes with proteins which can then dock to the cells via special receptors (the interaction between Apolipoprotein E and the LDL receptor would be such an example). This can lead to the take-up of the lipids by the cell (for example for further break-down) or also into the membrane (for example for cholesterols).
Answer: Someone has thought this was a very good question and performed an MD simulation on spontaneous bilayer assembly. There, lipids start in random orientations. The ordered bilayers we know and love spontaneously assemble in under 100ns.
So if the lipids were jumbled up (or even reversed), the would probably reform fairly quickly. I wouldn't imagine that it would do the cell much good though...
Answer: If the layer is opposite,then there wont be any cytoplasmic liquid(cytosol) inside the cell, as tail is Hydrophobic.If there is no cytosol,then no function of the cell.Even it becomes difficult to pass substances through the cell when layer is different.
Comment: Do you have any source for your answer ?


Why does the heart use lipids (and not glucose)?

Question: Fetal hearts use glucose as their primary metabolic substrate.  Adult hearts use free fatty acids, which are less efficient (require more $O_2$ to synthesize the same amount of ATP); however, during cardiac failure, the heart can switch to glucose utilization.  Why doesn't it just use glucose all the time?
Comment: The heart uses lipid and glucose (although the fatty acids contribute a much greater fraction to cardiac energy production - you can experimentally cause damage to the cardiac myocytes if you decrease the ability of the heart to metabolize either glucose or fatty acid fuels
Answer: Lipids require more oxygen to burn, but also they are cheaper to store (since they have great calorific power than carbohydrates and they're hydrophobic, thus not requiring water for their storage). The body can store so much lipids that it becomes an almost everlasting energy source (A normal adult have enough energy stored as fat to allow basal metabolism for weeks to months), which cannot apply to glucose. If fat is not present, glucose would have vanished from the body long time ago. Glucose levels must be maintained at a certain level, because it's the main energy source for the brain (which cannot use lipids ). The brain can use ketone bodies (product of fat oxidation) as a last resort.
For all the previous reasons, the heart (and many other organs, like the liver) uses fat while possible. If possible just means when not starving to death and with sufficient oxygen supply. This second condition doesn't apply to heart failure. In this case, oxygen supply fails and the tissue switch to glucose just because they can use it without oxygen (glycolysis and lactic fermentation).
Comment: But...most tissues strongly prefer glucose under those conditions (not starving to death and with sufficient oxygen supply), even if you are fat, typically cited as being due to the increased oxidative stress of fatty acid metabolism; the question is why the heart prefers fatty acids instead, despite this.
Answer: The usual explanation is that glucose is potentially dangerous because there is always a chance glycolysis will run too fast and produce lactic acid.  While lactic acid buildup is no big deal for a skeletal muscle, lactic acid build up in the heart can affect the ion channels and hence the heart rhythm.
Fuels for the heart are fatty acids, ketone bodies, and lactic acid taken from the blood.  Evidently when the source of lactic acid is the blood, the heart does not take it up any faster than it can convert it to pyruvate (and then to AcCoA, etc.)
Since aerobic metabolism is so important for the heart, is has a high content of mitochondria.
Comment: Welcome. Could you add sources to your answer? As a scientific stack we appreciate, and factually demand answers to be backed up by references.
Comment: Why will glycolysis run too fast? Any reason?


Lovesick Character Distracting Readers

Question: How do you show that a character is suffering from lovesickness in a story plot, but not distract the reader from the actual main plot of the story?
Comment: You haven't given us much to work with here. Can you describe the symptoms of "lovesickness" that readers found distracting?
Comment: I'd go even further to say each character *should* have emotional depth and challenges impacting their actions, dialog, and so on. Knowing what each character feels at any moment, and knowing the baggage they're carrying, is part of the job description of a successful writer. The **answer** to this question might be: Beta readers and Subsequent drafts.
Answer: The secret is to make your scenes perform more than one task at a time.
You don't need to dedicate whole scenes/chapters to showing your protagonist's lovesickness. That's not the story, it's not action, it's an emotional undertone. The reader will remember they're lovesick, trust them.
Concoct events that propel the story's momentum while occasionally reminding the protagonist of the pain of love lost. But don't overdo it. Trust your reader.
Answer: I feel like this question is two fold - you're asking about how to write a pining character, and about how to make it non distracting.
There's always someone who's going to be distracted by an element of a story, maybe because they really like it, maybe because they really hate it. I usually just try to spend less 'screen time' on things that I want to mention but I don't want readers to focus on. I also try not to make it too powerful. A random side character's crush could be a funny inside joke, but a random side character's deep attraction to their very best friend, revealed only after one of the pair is dead... that's going to stick in a reader's head a bit more.
One example is from the Heroes of Olympus series. Think of the way Nico's crush on Percy is treated in House of Hades (iirc) - it's major, a big deal, and the characters focus on it for a whole chapter. In Blood Of Olympus, it's mostly just a line or two being thrown around, an inside joke for Nico and Jason.
The more emotionally charged your writing about the crush is, the more distracting it'll be for readers.
Now, about writing the actual pining. Depending on how subtle you want it to be, you could have the character think about them all the time. Maybe if they see their crush's favourite thing, or smell their perfume. Maybe it's even more subtle, just comparing every person they meet to the crush, and finding that none of them match up. Their body language would also be different - more embarrassed around the crush, probably, but that depends on the character. Some people might go the "I'm pulling your hair because I like you" route. Tropes about behaviour from Japanese media like tsunderes and yanderes might come in handy as well. It's helpful to read a lot of (good) stories about crushes to see what else you can do.
Answer: Consequences are key. Show the consequences of being lovesick in a way that will relate to the reader. Describe the character as losing sleep, not eating, etc. Pick a tone that you want to stick with though. Is the lovesickness going to be a good thing in the overall scheme of the story, or is it going to be negative? Answer that, and then branch off from it. If it is a good thing, make sure to follow every symptom with a positive spin from love story.
Answer: You can have a few options here, each leading to a different result:

Muffle the lovesickness. The character's feeling would become a decoration to the plot, not the other way around. You would get what you are asking for at the expense of your character's development;
Make the reader feel the lovesickness with your character. Make this love front and center in your plot (just like your character feels it), and if some other events are important, they would have to wait for their turn;
Make the reader commiserate with your character's lovesickness. Sure love is the great thing, but hey, character, it's time to wake up and pay attention to what's really important!

Lovesick Character Distracting Readers


login reputation points not moved shared for (sqa) stack exchange, stack overflow and server fault

Question: Should your reputation be ported over to these 3 different sites if you log in as the same OpenID?  I thought since the look and feel were similar in nature for these 3 sites, my reputation and badges would move as well.  Does anyone know?  Or did I choose the wrong option when I created my account?
Comment: sorry, I couldn't find a good tag for this post
Comment: You need to link your accounts.  Not posting as answer as should be meta question.
Answer: Welcome, Mr. Wanta!
Your accounts are linked, so you are eligible for the one-time rep bonus. However, you need to have 200 or more rep on one site to get it, and it appears you currently have 115 on StackOverflow, which is your highest rep.
But fear not, the rep comes easy, and in all honesty pales in comparison to the knowledge these guys on SQA.se have to offer! :-)
I hope that makes sense, it's early on a Sunday! :-)
Comment: I'd give you a point but I need a reputation of 15 or higher.  ;-)
Comment: That's alright. I have more rep than I need :) Besides, you don't get rep on the meta sites - they're synched with the primary site. I know it can be frustrating when you're on a site and you want to contribute more but you don't have the rep to, but don't worry, it will come quickly. 15 rep is 2 answer or 3 question upvotes, which is pretty darned easy to get :)


Are these translations of 'metaphor', 'love', 'death', 'dream' correct?

Question: metaphor 隠喩 (in'yu)
love 愛 (Ai)
death 死 (Shi)
dream  夢 (yume)
I ma looking for the words (translations) which are..hmm how to say it.. which are the "most general" :)
Answer: metaphor
My understanding on this section is limited, but here is what my research uncovered. Feel free to comment if this is incorrect.
・暗喩【あんゆ】 is specifically metaphor. However, メタファー is more commonly used these days.
・直喩【ちょくゆ】 is specifically simile. Similes use like or as which in Japanese equates to ~のような  or ~みたい, irrespectively.
・四字熟語【よじじゅくご】 is a four-character idiom that represents a classic tale or proverb (often Chinese in origin). This is comparable to That's the last straw! in English. Without knowing the proverb It is the last straw that breaks the camel's back. this interjection wouldn't make any sense. Japanese has a lot of yojijukugo.
・比喩{ひゆ} is used for the general category of metaphors, similes, idioms, and yojijukugo.
love
・愛{あい} is far and away the most common word for love. Keep in mind that it is a noun, not a verb. To say, ~ loves ~ you would have to use ~は~を愛してる, which is literally ~ is in the state of loving ~. I once read that this word originally came from the Buddhist concept of attachment (thus originally having a negative connotation), but I can't find the evidence for that at the moment.
death
・死【し】 is correct as a noun. The verb is 死ぬ. Keep in mind that this is a more extreme concept in Japanese culture than in the US. For example, the worst profanities I ever heard in Japan include this idea. Otherwise the concept of profanity seemed foreign to people and its equivalence was conveyed grammatically (rather than semantically). All that to say, use it wisely.
dream
・夢{ゆめ} is dream in the literal sense of what happens when you sleep. To have a dream is literally to see a dream, 夢を見る.
So, why those four words specifically?
Comment: thank you. The four words I am going to use in my poetry :)
Comment: I see. Sorry they put this on hold. It looks to me like "prior research effort is clearly indicated." But, at least you were able to get your answer before the topic was closed.  ✌


$j$-invariant for a singular curve

Question: Say I have a plane cubic $f(x,y,z) \subset \mathbb{C}^3$ and I identify it with an elliptic curve by setting $z=1$ and end up with (perhaps after a change of variables) something of the form
\begin{equation}\label{e}
x^3+a_2x^2+a_4x+a_6=0.
\end{equation}
Is the $j$-invariant for this curve even defined?  A normal form is
\begin{equation}
y^2+a_1xy+a_3y=x^3+a_2x^2+a_4x+a_6
\end{equation}
and the $j$-invariant is given by a simple formula in the coefficients.  But this formula assumes the curve is in normal form and in particular that the coefficient of the $y^2$ term is 1.  It seems to me that the first curve is not in normal form.
Comment: There are no $y$'s at all in your first equation. Is that what you intended?
Comment: Yes, and it's the source of my confusion.  That "curve" would just be the union of three lines, correct?  So if the $j$-invariant is defined at all I thought it would be some special value.
Comment: I guess I could be more concise in my original question: is the $j$-invariant defined only when the curve can be put in normal form? Or does this normal form just happen to lend itself to easy computation of the $j$-invariant?
Answer: There is no good way to define a $j$-invariant for this cubic.
As you have recognized, this cubic consists of three lines, and is thus singular. Properly speaking, the $j$-invariant is only defined for smooth cubics.
However, the situation is worse than that. The homogenous cubic $xyz$ has zero locus in $\mathbb{P}^2$ consisting of three lines. Morally, though, there is a sense in which $xyz$ has $j$ invariant $\infty$. Namely, let $F_t(x,y,z)$ be a family of cubics, depending on a parameter $t$, such that $F_0=xyz$ and such that $F_t$ is smooth for $t$ near $0$ but nonzero. Then $\lim_{t \to 0} j(F_t)$ will be $\infty$. I don't see how to give a low-tech proof of this, but the high tech reason is that $xyz=0$ is a semi-stable curve. The reason stable and semi-stable curves are so-named is because the behavior of invariants such as $j$ is continuous, or "stable", when they are perturbed.
By contrast, your curve consists of three lines through a single point; the technical term is that the lines are concurrent. In the $(x,y)$ coordinate chart, you have $3$ vertical lines, so they all pass through the point at vertical $\infty$. (In homogenous coordinates, the point $(0:1:0)$.) I claim that, for any number $j_0$, there is a family $F_t$ of cubics such that, for $t \neq 0$, the cubic $F_t$ is smooth with $j$-invariant $j_0$, and such that $F_0$ is your cubic.
Proof: First note that the symmetry group of $\mathbb{P}^2$ can take any three concurrent lines to any other three concurrent lines. So, I just need to build a family $F_t$ where $F_0$ is some triple of concurrent lines, and then apply a symmetry of $\mathbb{P}^2$ to that family.
Let $G$ be a cubic with $j$-invariant $j_0$. By making a change of coordinates if necessary, we can arrange that $G$ meets the line at $\infty$ in three distinct points. Then set $F_t(x,y,z) = G(x,y,tz)$. For $t \neq 0$, the cubic $F_t$ is isomorphic to $G$. When $t=0$, the cubic $F_t$ is the three lines joining the origin to the intersections of $G$ with the line at $\infty$. $\square$
Comment: You are right that there should only be two components through any singularity. And there are! The components of $xyz=0$ are the lines $x=0$, $y=0$ and $z=0$. The form a triangle, with vertices at $(0:0:1)$, $(0:1:0)$ and $(1:0:0)$.
Comment: Are you sure the curve $xyz = 0$ is semi stable? I thought the singularities of a semi stable curve should be ordinary. This means that there can only be two irreducible components going through a singular point, right? In your example there are 3 curves going through the singular point, no?
Comment: @Insti: I have converted your answer to a comment; answers should be reserved for posts that answer the question. But because you do not have 50 reputation points yet, [you can only comment on your own questions and answers](http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/19756/how-do-comments-work/19757#19757). So, you didn't do anything wrong; the "add comment" button will only appear for you once you gain 50 points. By the way, here is an [explanation of reputation points](http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7237/how-does-reputation-work/7238#7238).
Comment: Great answer. Thank you.
Comment: I don't see how the equations xyz =0 gives a triangle. it's just the three coordinate axes, right? For example....ow wait, are we talking projective here?
Comment: @Bana, yes, I am speaking projectively. I edited to try to make this more clear.

$j$-invariant for a singular curve