Properties page not displaying in Visual Studio 2008

Question: I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Team Development Edition and my Project properties page will not display.  I right-clicked the project name and selected "Properties" and no page displayed as it normally would.  Also, when I double-click the Settings.settings the normal Settings GUI does not display.   I only see the XML in the Settings.settings file.  Please Help.  Thanks.
Answer: It appears that the uninstallation of an add-on is what caused my problem.  Reinstalling Visual Studio did not seem to help, so I took extreme measures and reformatted my machine.
Comment: In my case, re-installing the add-on fixed the issue. It was AnkhSVN that I had uninstalled when the issue started to happen for me.
Comment: Yep, AnkhSVN for me too was the problem on vs 2008 properties not showing up.  Thanks!!!
Comment: If you think reformatting was an appropriate solution you are wasting the time of more knowledgeable people and your own asking questions like these.
Answer: Open the command line and change the directory to your visual studio install directory.
Run devenv /setup
What this basically does is reset your visual studio to the original installation state and resetting the installed packages.
Found the solution here : Property Window is Blank in Visual Studio 2008
The MSDN Entry is here: /setup (devenv.exe
Comment: devenv /setup fixed the same problem in my machine.Thanks
Answer: After re-install my system, i ran into this as well. Here is how I resulted this problem.

in the Solution Explorer, right-click the solution item, and select "Unload Project"
right-click again, and select "Reload Project".
Answer: <code>devenv.exe /resetskippkgs
</code>
worked for me.
Answer: The properties page can be displayed when not doing anything else.
Try going to View -> Properties Window and see if its displayed.  Or try the keyboard shortcut CTRL-W, P
Comment: I'm not trying to see that properties window.  I'm trying to see the project properties window.  The place that has all the build settings and where you sign the assembly etc...
Answer: Are you using multiple monitors? Or were you at some point, and no longer?
I have noticed the Project Properties window opening on the wrong monitor sometimes. So maybe it does open it but in the old position.
To test this, open VS, open your solution, right-click on your project and select Properties. Now press [Alt+Space], [M], [Right-arrow] and now move your mouse around. The window should move to your current monitor.
There is also a Window->Reset Window Layout menu, which you could try, but it doesn't seem to affect the Project Properties window.
Answer: Take a look at this post: "Unspecified error" in Visual Studio 2008 when trying to view project properties
You may need to install the x64 components for Visual Studio 2008. They can be found the install disk. Add Features -> C++
Answer: Perhaps a bit late in responding.  My "properties page Shift+F4" was greyed out, but F4 by itself seemed to open the properties dialog I wanted. Strange.
Answer: F4 brings up the missing property window.  I found that hidden in the Microsoft documentation.  At least it worked on my vb 2008.
Answer: Check if you opened the solution or it may be pointing to your local folder from file explorer.


What does painting on an elephant's face in religious events signify?

Question: Often times I have seen many Hindu based gatherings via the internet where live elephants are involved. One thing I have seen is a sort of paint creating a very beautiful design on the elephant's face. I wish to know if this symbolizes anything for Hinduism or if it is a regional practice. Because I have wished to incorporate that into my own artwork and I don't want to make anything offensive. Does the paint hold any religious significance and will I not anger several people?
Comment: better give link to that paint.
Comment: @user2700: something like this? https://thebreathingghosts.files.wordpress.com/2014/01/india2.jpg
Answer: As far I know most of the time the paintings are done as a decoration. You may see a few symbols like Ohm or Swastika or a Naama(thilak) which do hold religious significance, but mostly they are are nice designs like flowers.
If you want to make use of them in your artwork, you may stick to the non-religious symbols if you are not certain, but the general painting of elephants itself is not a religious ceremony.
Also, you may want to take a look at decorated cows and oxen as well (from south India). We sometimes even use balloons and glitter papers. It is just an expression of happiness and affection mostly.


How to unlock an iPad 2 Without Restoring Back to Original Factory Settings

Question: My iPad is locked. Is there a way in which I can unlock it without having to restore it to factory settings? Is there a software program that helps?
Answer: I assumed you cannot unlock your iPad, and your iPad is not "locked" in some other way. In this case, as far as I am aware, the best way is to back it up to a computer, then factory resetting it. After it has been reset, simply restore data back into the iPad, and the iPad will be like before but without the passcode lock.


Calendar permissions

Question: I am part of a small company who uses SharePoint. The administrators can't see my calendar and mine is the only one, and I can't find where to change my permissions so that they can. Please advise.
Answer: Is the calendar you're referring to a SharePoint calendar or an Exchange/Outlook calendar?
If it's a SharePoint Calendar you can go the the page you'd like everyone to access the calendar from then settings>add an app> Calendar> then on the left side 'Calendars in View'> New Calendar> then provide the URL and name of the calendar you want everyone to be able to see.
If it's from Outlook/Exchange, do the same steps as above however click the 'Exchange' radio button instead of SharePoint after clicking 'New Calendar'. Click the 'Find' button to auto populate your EWS and OWA URLs. if that doesn't work more information on how to find them is here. Then click 'okay.
Everyone will be able to see that calendar overlay as long as they have access to that public calendar.

Calendar permissions


How do you check the current duplex value of a network card set to Auto negotiate in Windows?

Question: I would like to know what duplex (half or full) my network card has negotiated with a switch when they are both set to auto configuration in Windows.
Answer: At command prompt:
powershell "Get-NetAdapter | SELECT name, fullduplex | where name -eq 'card name'"

Enjoy.
Comment: Get-NetAdapter needs Windows 8 or later (re: https://stackoverflow.com/a/27213645/)
Comment: Looks like the documentation at https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh968170(v=vs.85).aspx confirms that this is the operating status not the selected setting.  Glad to see that there is now a way to do this 8 years later reliably.
Answer: Without looking at the switch, the only way it seems possible is if the windows driver for your NIC reports this information.  To see if it does, go to Control Panel --> Administrator Tools --> Event Viewer.  You then want to look at the System logs (in Windows7 this is under the Windows Logs tree).  Once you found the System logs, click on Source at the top to use as the sorting criteria.  Now look for your NIC driver, mine for example is b57nd60a.  Scroll through all the entries that your NIC driver has made and if you're lucky you'll see what speed it negotiated at in the event report.
Comment: This is a pain in the ass, but it works, thanks.  I sorted by Source, and found b57w2k (for a BroadCom chip) and then looked at the history of it configuring it self.
Comment: +1. Worked for me. Searched for my NIC brand name (Marvell in this case) and jumped right to it.
Answer: Type the following into command prompt:
wmic NIC where NetEnabled=true get Name, Speed

It should tell you.
Comment: Could you provide sample output?
Comment: That doesn't appear to list whether or not it negotiated at full-duplex.  Perhaps "get Name,Speed,AutoSense" gives that to you?
Comment: This worked great for me in Windows 10!  Thanks.
Answer: With Powershell run:
Get-NetAdapter | SELECT name, LinkSpeed, fullduplex | ft -autosize

Answer: Some cards (Intel for example) have a diagnostic suite that shows this information. This software is often not installed.  Usually just the driver is installed and the diagnostic/management app is not. I believe the Intel app is called ProSet
Answer: This works in Windows 7, not sure about lower versions:

Right click on the network card in Network Connections in the Control Panel
Click Configure
Click the Link Speed Tab
Look at the Link status Window.
Comment: This one would work with lower versions of Windows but it is relevant only to certain network card drivers. Basic drivers and most drivers from other manufacturers than Intel will not show the information.
Answer: Yes it's easy to see the speed 10/100/1000Mbps, windows tells you and the LEDs tell you, the person was asking about Full/Half duplex, which can be at any connection speed 10/100/1000Mbps.
Answer: There is no software-way to report the duplex mode negotiated(especially with a switch) because all of those things happen on the physical layer.
You will need some kind of measurement device to diagnose that electronically.
Comment: I waffled between serverfault and superuser, imo it's suitable for both, if the mod's think otherwise I wouldn't object.
Comment: `ethtool` does it on Linux, so software interfaces to get to the info exists.
Comment: It depend on OS driver model. If it in windows fully leaved on drivers, than OS no necessarily have such information.
Answer: The easiest way I can think of is to get a switch that has lights on the front or a management interface and simply take a look.
Other than that, I am not really aware of any software able to tell you.
Answer: On my Windows 7 Platform -

List item

Type at the Windows 7 search bar Network and Sharing Center.
 Select -  Network and Sharing Center

Change Adapter Settings
Right Click ( The LAN Lannetwrk Adapter) select Status it will show you the speed you have negotiated with the next network device up stream.
Comment: Link speed is unfortunately not the same as Duplex.  It is possible to be Half Duplex 100mbps for example.
Answer: There's no need to spend an hour in the event viewer :
Inside "Network Connections", right click -> "Status".
Here you can see "Speed".

Comment: Unfortunately Speed does not indicate the status of Duplex in ethernet on Windows.  It is entirely possible to be 1.0 Gbps and half-duplex
Comment: There's actually no such thing as half-duplex gigabit Ethernet.
Comment: @NicolasMelay https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gigabit_Ethernet half-duplex is a thing in 1000Base-T and unfortunately I have seen it in the wild due to cable damage and auto-negotiate.  Which is what prompted this question originally.


Maximum size of RAM sticks?

Question: I just bought an ASUS M5A88-V EVO motherboard and it says that it supports up to 16GB of RAM. I also bought two 8GB sticks of memory.  Will this work with my motherboard or do I need to get four 4GB sticks if I want 16GB?
Answer: Based on the results below:
http://www.crucial.com/uk/store/listparts.aspx?model=M5A88-M%20EVO&Cat=RAM
You are limited to 4GB x 4. i.e. It doesn't look like your board supports 8GB sticks.
Comment: Also make sure you install a 64-bit OS to support all that ram!
Comment: I'd guess this is right. If you look at the QVL from Asus' website for this board, none of the supported configurations it shows has DIMMs larger than 4GB: http://www.asus.com/Motherboards/AMD_AM3Plus/M5A88V_EVO/#MSL
Answer: Always a good idea to read the manual first. This motherboard's specs are at:
http://www.asus.com/Motherboards/AMD_AM3Plus/M5A88V_EVO/#download
The section on memory configurations, says:
You may install 512MB, 1GB, 2GB, and 4GB unbuffered ECC and non-ECC DDR3 DIMMs into the DIMM sockets.
So unless the manual was written before 8GB DIMMs were available and they opted not to mention the then hypothetical sizes, looks like they are not supported. Of course, they still may work - either with their complete 8gb range or just 4gb of them.
You should update your question when you discover the bleeding edge results.
Comment: Thanks; that's a good tip. However for a couple of lines like here, even that's far more work than `Ctrl+C`.
Comment: Doh! I wasted two minutes trying to copy text from the PDF. I don't know why they block that, all it does it to annoy. `:-|`
Comment: @Synetech Add a text-only printer that defaults to print-to-file. Send your PDF there, then you have the text.
Answer: Did you check the manual? Page 2-11 is pretty clear about what you can use:

2.4.2 Memory configurations
You may install 512MB, 1GB, 2GB, and 4GB unbuffered ECC and non-ECC DDR3 DIMMs into the DIMM sockets.

You will need to return your 8GB sticks and exchange them for 4GB sticks.
Comment: ... and exchange them for 4gb sticks and some change. It looks like a 8gb stick is about US$65, and 2 x 4GB is US$35 on Amazon. And like @ekaj mentioned, why bother with more than 8gb on a desktop machine?
Comment: Super Photoshop? Ultra BOINC? Games? ☺

Maximum size of RAM sticks?


Does UG supply default values for parameters (in P&P syntax)?

Question: Principles And Parameters syntax posited that along with some principles, there were parametric settings for certain properties, which are either "on" or "off" in a language. Examples are the "head-directionality parameter", the pro-drop parameter, the polysynthesis parameter, and the ergativity parameter, which are assumed to be provided by UG. Was it (ever/generally) claimed that UG supplies a default setting for one or more parameters? My goal is to see how the low frequency of less-common systems (ergative or polysynthetic languages, for instance) was accounted for in that framework.
Answer: Some technicalities have been cruelly sacrificed for the sake of a partly-okay answer.
From Chomsky & Lasnik (1993):

Principles and Parameters theory is not a precisely articulated theoretical system, but rather a particular approach to classical problems of the stdy of language, guided by certain leading ideas that had been taking shape since the origins of modern generative grammar some 40 years ago.

So, there's room within P&P for the concept of default settings, but because P&P is not a single theory, different theorists can choose to implement 'default' settings or not.
P&P in particular, and generative syntax generally, does not do very well with the problem of typological distribution. Why so few verb-first languages? Under an unfairly simplified P&P approach, the Parameter in question has to do with the movement of the verb: verb-first langues like Arabic or Irish have a Parameter which states that V(erb) always moves up to head-adjoin with C(omplementizer). The difference between Arabic and English is that English only does this in ex. questions, Arabic does this all the time. So the Parameter in English is 'do this with questions', in Arabic it's 'do this all the time', and in Mandarin it's 'don't do this'. But most theories of generative syntax have nothing much to say, at least not convincingly, about why there just aren't so many languages that work the way Arabic syntax does, or even the way English does.
Greenberg solved the problem partway with his concept of 'feature hierarchies'. For example, in relative clauses, English is unusual because we can relativize possessors: This is the dog whose owner never picks up after them. Most languages can't do that. Greenberg has a hierarchy of relativizable positions: Subject > Direct Object > Indirect Object > Adpositional Object > Possessor. This means that a language which can relativize an indirect object can always relativize a subject and a direct object, but a language which can relativize a direct object can't necessarily relativize an indirect object. And so on. A very few languages can relativize nothing but a subject, a very few languages can relativize everything including possessors, but most will naturally fall somewhere in between. If we assume that languages are more or less randomly distributed along the hierarchy, we'll naturally wind up with the statistical rarity of languages like English which can relativize possessors.
But even with Greenbergian hierarchies, many typological imbalances still struggle to be explained in generative syntax. They don't help us much in our Arabic vs. English example. Both English and Arabic can perform to V-to-C adjunction, the difference is when they do it and the grammatical function of this adjunction. A hierarchy like 'never > in questions > always' is incomprehensible: "a language which always performs V-to-C adjunction can never perform V-to-C adjunction"? And it's not entirely clear that the hierarchies are actually part of UG; is Greenberg describing innate Parameters of UG, or is he describing an emergent phenomenon, an interesting quirk of syntactic systems interaction? You'll find both points of view.
The development of the PF and LF distinction in the "Y-model" doesn't help much, either; it only 'passes the buck', so to speak. Under the Y-model, the difference between English, Mandarin, and Arabic is that English and Mandarin actually do always perform V-to-C movement, but this movement is only relevant for LF, whereas for Arabic it's relevant at PF. This replaces the need for a Parameter, but it still doesn't give us a good reason for why the Arabic structure should be less common than Mandarin one. Maybe we can answer the question with 'economy': Arabic syntax is less common because it involves more overt movement to be handled by PF, and syntax generally likes to 'procrastinate'. But if this is the answer, it still doesn't tell us why a language should ever choose the 'uneconomical' path in the first place, or why an 'uneconomical' language type wouldn't naturally stabilize over time to an economical one. Proto-Semitic was a VSO language, and possibly Proto-Afro-Asiatic as well; in all those millennia and all those generations, if the reason for the rarity of VSO was 'economy', you'd think Arabic would've sorted it out by now. And so we're back to where we're started.
When 'Parameters' are boiled down to questions of overt (PF) vs. covert (LF) movement, some theorists might (and do) say that the 'default Parameter' is the one which involves the least overt movement. Just like Optimality Theory presents us with 'Faithfulness Constraints' which dislike us mucking about too much with the phonological input, so too do some versions of generative syntax have 'Faithfulness Constraints' which dislike the PF moving too many parts away from the base-generation. But it still seems like all languages do so anyways, sometimes quite drastically, like in Arabic. You can come up with a Constraint based approach, like OT, which says that for some languages (Arabic), a constraint like, "V must license/be licensed by some feature of C" is more important than the Faithfulness constraint, but in other languages (Mandarin), the Faithfulness constraint is more important. But this still passes the buck...why aren't there more languages which rank "V-to-C" higher than "Faithfulness"?
And you can around and around like this in generative theories of syntax, with each successive theory coming up with a different explanation of the original Parameter, but each explanation not really able to answer the question of typology. The constraint-based one comes closest, in my opinion--the default setting is the one which involves the least overt movement at PF--but it leaves unanswered the followup question, which is, "So why would a language ever choose to be uneconomical? Why wouldn't an uneconomical language type be naturally unstable?"
That's why I tend to lean away from generative grammar when trying to understand typology. My personal favorite 'pet theory' is John Hawkins's Performance-Grammar Correspondence Hypothesis, which endeavors to answer just the very question of why some language types are more common than others, without resorting to UG or Parameters, and instead relying on principles of information processing derived from findings in psycholinguistics and cognitive science, which can be broadly applied across multiple versions of syntactic theory, generative or otherwise, UG or no. Some of his findings even suggest that aspects of structure which generative theory ascribes to UG or Parameters might actually not be innate at all, but rather result secondarily from the ways our brains are naturally biased towards receiving and processing information, and the structures our brains find easier or more difficult to parse.
Comment: You describe the Keenan & Comrie Accessibility Hierarchy, but attribute it to Greenberg: do you really think it was first proposed by Greenberg? I was hoping for more engagement of the actual P&P literature – I know many ways to derive the tendencies, I'm just looking for theory-internal discussion, if it exists.
Comment: Ah, you are correct, my mistake! You're right that the specific example I used wasn't from Greenberg himself—I was trying to tie him to the general notion of feature hierarchies and implicational universals, and I overlooked the source of that particular example. Apologies for the inadequacy of my response!


so mainstream or too mainstream

Question: Should I say "something is so mainstream" or "too mainstream". They are both grammatically correct but which one is more common to use?
Comment: Surely it's General Reference that in such contexts ***so** = to [such a] **considerable** degree*, whereas ***too** = to an **excessive** degree*.
Comment: That depends on context.  "so mainstream" is more idiomatic and is ambiguous whether it is good or bad but "too mainstream" conveys a negative connotation.
Comment: Keep in mind that "it is so mainstream" is implying a missing clause - e.g., "Arcade Fire is so mainstream!" might be standing in for something like "Arcade Fire is so mainstream that Matt Lauer mentioned it on the Today Show last week."
Comment: Thanks for the feedback. really appreciated. Peope say that "something is so last season" and it still represents a negative connotation :) Why is that different?
Answer: The word "so" is far over used today.  I would avoid it entire if I could.
But I suggest that "too mainstream" implies that something is mainstream to the point of a detriment.  As in, "that new restaurant is too mainstream for my liking."
To my eye, "so mainstream" implies that something is perfectly or near-perfectly in the mainstream.  This infers neither positive nor negative characteristics, but may suggest preference based upon context.  As in, "His Jazz music so mainstream that it reminds me of Charlie Parker and Miles Davis."  In this, you do not know whether the speaker likes or dislikes "mainstream jazz" music, only that the music being compared to it is subjectively similar.
Answer: "So mainstream" can be descriptive. For example, "That play is so mainstream; I'm sure John will enjoy it."
"Too mainstream" is inherently evaluative, and negative.

so mainstream or too mainstream


How many clipboards are in system?

Question: I was recently thrown there from the windows world and I'd like to ask some questions about clipboards in Linux (and Unix?) systems. What is X clipboard? How many clipboards are in Linux? Actually, I'd like to copy command from terminal to clipboard and then paste it in an other application (gedit, skype etc.). I entered echo !! | xclip in terminal. However when I tried to paste the command to other applications (via Shift+Ins or Ctrl+V), actually an old content have been pasted. At the same time I can paste this command in terminal.
Answer: The xclip manpages (man xclip) say this:
 -selection
      specify which X selection to use, options are "primary" to use XA_PRIMARY
      (default), "secondary" for XA_SECONDARY or "clipboard" for XA_CLIPBOARD

So you can specify the location:
echo !! | xclip -selection <selection>

Where <selection> is one of primary, secondary, clipboard.
Description of these from the ArchWiki: Clipboard

Of the three selections, users should only be concerned with PRIMARY and CLIPBOARD. SECONDARY is only used inconsistently and was intended as an alternate to PRIMARY. Different applications may treat PRIMARY and CLIPBOARD differently; however, there is a degree of consensus that CLIPBOARD should be used for Windows-style clipboard operations, while PRIMARY should exist as a "quick" option, where text can be selected using the mouse or keyboard, then pasted using the middle mouse button (or some emulation of it). This can cause confusion and, in some cases, inconsistent or undesirable results from rogue applications.

That means it depends on your environment. It may have inconsistencies, if the applications use different selections. Though if you use a desktop enivornment like Gnome it should work fine.
Also as mentioned by Kartik, you can copy-paste in most terminals with Ctrl+Shift+C/V.
Most applications in linux also support selection of text with the mouse to store something in the clipboard.
To get the content of from the clipboard use the -o flag:
xclip -o

If you use it often you can create aliases for those commands in you .bashrc:
alias cbcopy='xclip -selection clipboard'
alias cbpaste='xclip -selection clipboard -o'

Answer: For the record, in Cygwin you can direct your output to /dev/clipboard like so:
echo !! > /dev/clipboard
This copies the output to the system standard clipboard and you can use Ctrl+V or whatever to paste it.
Comment: But that's only for Cygwin, isn't it?
Comment: Oh, how embarassing! I didn't know that. Yeah, I have to use Cygwin, unfortunately.  I'll update the answer. Thanks for the info
Answer: To copy anything in linux from the terminal, there are two ways:

Select it with the mouse to copy and paste it with middle click.
Select with mouse and copy it with the keyboard shortcut. (which is different on different terminals, Ctrl-Shift-C/V on Ubuntu)

Sometimes you can copy and paste anything with Ctrl+C/V like windows (but not on the terminals).
EDIT: echo !! | xclip copies only the previous command.
Comment: @Loom I think you can copy with echo `"something" | xcopy` and paste with Shift + Ins
Comment: Thank you. So, there in no way to copy in Linux from terminal without mouse?
Comment: Thanks. What `xcopy` is and where I can find it?
Comment: @Loom Maybe outside terminal you can paste with Ctrl+V
Comment: @Loom I'm sorry i meant to say `xclip`
Comment: Unfortunately Ctrl+V doesn't working too
Comment: @Loom Please tell which Linux are you using?
Comment: I'm using Ubuntu

How many clipboards are in system?


Why do charges accumulate only at the surface of a conductor when it is placed in a uniform electric field?

Question: I understand that electrons are very mobile in a conductor. But instead of all the charge accumulating on the surfaces of the conductor, as shown below in fig.1, couldn't the charges accumulate with a gradient across the entire conductor? That is to say, can't the positive and negative charges redistribute themselves throughout the conductor such that their density is greatest at their respective edges(surfaces) but lower as we move into the conductor?   Fig.2 describes what I mean. The various shades of the color describe the density of charge in the conductor. The darker the shade, the denser the accumulation of the positive charge and the lighter the shade,  the denser the accumulation of negative charge. Why can't this sort of charge distribution happen? In this case won't the electric field inside the conductor be uniform (and as a result not cancel out the external electric field)? If so, how? Or is there any other reason?
Comment: Charges inside a conductor always arrange themselves in such a way that net electric field inside it must be zero so there cannot be a charge inside this follows from gauss law
Comment: No. What I was asking is that can't the charges redistribute themselves in the second manner and yet produce an electric field at each point within the conductor that is equal and opposite to the external electric field?
Answer: By Gauss' Law, if the charges were distributed as shown in your second figure, there would be a net electric field within the conductor. This would cause the charges to redistribute themselves until they reach the configuration shown in your first figure.
Answer: I had the same doubt once!
And as everybody here have said. It's proof uses Gauss' Law. Trust me!
It's a beautiful concept, exploiting the inverse square law dependence of electric field. Gauss's Law
$$\int E.dS = \frac {Q_{enclosed}}{\epsilon}$$
If a bounded region of space accommodates a finite amount of stationary electric charge (net charge), then the law guarantees that there should be some electric field poking out of the surface that bounds the charge
And if a field exists in a conductor, then the conductor is not happy, it's not in electrostatic equilibrium.
The time order for accomplishing electrostatic equilibrium in electrical conductors is around a few femtoseconds 10^-15 !
But when there is a constant potential drive as in the case of a wire connected to a battery, I guess there might the be sort of a gradient of charge distribution as you say.
One needs to realise Gauss's Law, It's Proof, It's elegance.
And as why the inverse square law allows us to see field emanating from charges as something real spreading.
Answer: A system in non-equilibrium will always go (if possible) for a configuration of equilibrium.
Now, suppose you have a system such as that of Figure 2. In this case you will have an electric field inside the conductor, which will make the electrons move and rearrange in another configuration.
Since the final configuration will be of equilibrium, you cannot have any field inside the conductor (otherwise, charges will start moving) and the charges MUST be at the surface of the conductor (or they will produce an inside field).
Comment: Yes, but how do you say that the second charge distribution shall cause an unequal electric field inside the conductor(that will not cancel out the external electric field at every point within the conductor)? Can you prove that mathematically?
Comment: You can define a gaussian surface inside the conductor. Say you define it as a square that surrounds one type of blue in your figure. By Gauss' Law, since there a total amount of charge inside this surface, there will be an electric field. You know that the field is unequal because if you define another surface, which surrounds another type of blue, you will get a different charge, therefore, a different field. I'm assuming you've seen Gauss' Law.
Comment: Okay, I think I understood your question wrongly. Forget my last comment if that's the case. I'll think about it.
Comment: @Pranoy De: Re. your first comment to this answer, remember that the E field in Gauss' Law is the total E field at the Gaussian surface. So by Gauss' Law, the total E field in your second scenario will be non-zero. Gauss' Law is not just finding the E field due to the charge within the Gaussian surface (which as you ask could combine with the externally induced field to net a zero field) but the total field.


Is there any GPU that has 100+ Mh/s?

Question: After I browsed http://www.mininghwcomparison.com, I found some GPU that had a 100+ hashrate, to 250Mh/s. I checked many other sites, and I didn't see any GPU that goes over 50MH/s, so is this site legit ? Is there any hardware that has a 100+ hashrate ?
Answer: These are all user-submitted values and also non-Ethash-based algorithms. For the most part, the users submitting 100 MH/s+ hash rates have indicated these are for multi-GPU systems. For example, someone has submitted this:

ASUS 2х7990  1000    1500    win 8.1 pro 16.1    Ethereum    95Mh/s

The HD 7990 is, itself, two GPUs rolled into one. And this user has indicated that the 95MH/s is achieved with two of them. That means that each processor is cranking out a bit under 24MH/s -- more in line with what you're probably expecting.
Answer: https://gpulister.com/gpu/66/amd-r7-370-equihash-hashrate
Yes here is more gpu listed with 100+ hashrate. also you can search more gpu with  hash rate their configuration such as Core clock, Memory Clock, Power consumption,Driver Version,Operating System for specific algorithm.

Is there any GPU that has 100+ Mh/s?


What is a wind chill formula that will work from -10 C to +50 C and uses wind speed in km/h?

Question: I'm looking for a wind chill formula that will work from -10 °C to +50 °C and uses wind speed in km/h so that I can use this formula to add this element to a weather station I am programming. I don't need it in code, just the normal math formula will work. I couldn't find this exact formula on google, and I am hoping someone here will know.
Comment: Not sure it exists at the range you're looking for. "Windchill temperature is defined only for temperatures at or below 10 °C (50 °F) and wind speeds above 4.8 kilometres per hour (3.0 mph)." From https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wind_chill#North_American_and_United_Kingdom_wind_chill_index
Comment: https://www.weather.gov/media/epz/wxcalc/windChill.pdf has the formula the US govt uses. As others have noted, wind chill doesn't really apply above 10C. Quoting the site that links to the PDF, https://www.weather.gov/epz/wxcalc_windchill "The wind chill calculator only works for temperatures at or below 50 ° F and wind speeds above 3 mph."
Comment: Having lived in Montreal (where -10 °C is a pleasant winter day) and Dallas, (where the average high temperature in July 2022 was just over 39 °C), I can tell you that a windy day when it's 40 °C "feels like" _oven_, not _chill_
Answer: Wind chill is only relevant for cold temperatures. During hot temperatures, the affect of wind is to increase the felt temperatures.
What would be more appropriate would be apparent temperature, also known as the "feels like" temperature. This calculated temperature considers the effect of the dry bulb temperature, humidity and wind speed.

$ {\displaystyle \mathrm {AT} =T_{\mathrm {a} }+0.33e-0.7v-4.00}$
where:
Ta = dry bulb temperature (°C)
e = water vapour pressure (hPa)
v = wind speed (m/s) at an elevation of 10 m
The vapour pressure can be calculated from the temperature and relative humidity using the equation:
$e = \frac{R H}{100} ⋅ 6.105 ⋅ exp ( \frac{17.27 ⋅ T a}{ 237.7 + T a} ) $
Where:
Ta = dry bulb temperature (°C)
RH = Relative humidity (%)
$exp$ represents the exponential function
The Australian formula includes the important factor of humidity and is somewhat more involved than the simpler North American model.
Comment: Related: http://www.bom.gov.au/jshess/docs/1994/steadman.pdf
Comment: @Fred Is this formula the same as the heat index formula? Also, is this going to work considering that I don't live at an altitude of ten meters? I live at an altitude of 44 meters.
Comment: I presume this means the data to support this formula were collected with an anemometer 10 feet off the ground.   The wind speed at ground level would probably be slower and more variable.
Comment: @DanielVanNattan: The [Heat Index](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heat_index), used in the USA, is a similar measure, based in the Steadman Apparent Temperature, but the equation has a lot more terms. The [Heat Index](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apparent_temperature) measures the effect of humidity on the perception of temperatures **above +27 °C (81 °F)**. In humid conditions, the air feels much hotter, because less perspiration evaporates from the skin.
Comment: @cowboydaniel: The elevation of 10 m for the wind speed, is not elevation above sea level. It is the height above the ground. ["A common anemometer height for meteorological measurements is 10m"](https://www.homerenergy.com/products/grid/docs/1.5/anemometer_height.html) .


AutoCAD 2006 vs. 2012

Question: I'm looking to learn AutoCAD. I have found several videos online that relate to 2006 AutoCAD - but is there a difference to any of of the versions. I have seen job postings asking to know AutoCAD 2008 -- what happens if I only know 2011 or even 2010. Can I work with 2008? Is there a difference to any of this versions or years?
Comment: That's a programming related Q&A site and your question is off-topic.
Comment: Have a look at the questions and answers from this search: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/autocad?sort=votes&pagesize=50 You will find a lot of leads to good resources in those
Comment: I would say you're fine. Going forward is far easier than backwards. In fact, I would say the earlier the better. I was trained in classes on 2008, both AC and REVIT, but forced myself to do all my work in 2010+. It's true that as time goes by more co.s will move to newer versions, but that doesn't make economic sense for everyone. In short, if you can use 2006, you'll be great at 2008+. But here's the most important piece of advice for 2010 and beyond:Don't fight the ribbon, use it - it's beneficial, but at the same time, stay true to command line input - to me it makes all the difference.
Answer: AutoCAD is a lot like Windows... They have major releases and minor releases, so the change from 2006-2007 was a significant change.  They roll out a major release every couple years or so.  Still, it just depends on what you're doing.  If you've got to draw a line, it's drawing a line, and that doesn't change a lot from one release to another.  Some companies use the "features" of the software, but lots of them don't.  My advice: get an account with Autodesk University here and click through the online classes.  Look for some basic AutoCAD classes.  It will really help you learn about the software and the changes made from one release to another.  Also: If you get an interview for a CAD job, they will probably give you a test... usually it's just drawing something in CAD from a piece of paper.  I had one of these where I had to use a version of AutoCAD called Architectural Desktop.  I had never even seen Architectural Desktop before, so I asked the person interviewing me, "Where do I start?" He showed my how to start, and I actually got the job.  That was 7 years ago and I still work for that company today.  Use the free tutorials to acquaint yourself with the software, but don't be intimidated by it.  If you get as far as testing in an interview, do your best, and don't be afraid to ask questions.
Answer: If I recall correctly 2006 was still a version without the ribbon interface. In any case, the most significant change in user interface in the recent years was exactly that - caused quite a bit of stir when it was first introduced, and many drafters still switch to "old" toolbar.
As far as changes go, yes, there are quite a few. But as Asheville said, they more relate to some advanced features of the software, which at this time you will probably not be using. My advice would be to start with some of the newer versions ("the ribbon" ones) and adjust yourself to it. After you've grasped the fundamentals, and found your way around, and wish to expand your knowledge in a more systematic way (although we all know this almost never works :) I would go to one of the either; "Autocad xxxx Bible", or "Mastering Autocad xxxx" books where xxxx signifies the version. They are quite heavy (figuratively and literally) and you can skim through as you progress. Most of the things in there you probably won't need, unless you find yourself working in a large draft office which has it's own way of organizing data, drawing styles, ...
Autocad forums are also a good place to ask questions (search first !) ... the community there is quite helpful.

AutoCAD 2006 vs. 2012


Change App's Launch Images, with out re-submitting to store; Possible?

Question: I was wondering if its possible to change my applications launch images with out having to go through the lengthy submission process?
Answer: It's not. An app bundle is subject for approval, not the executable per se. Sorry.
Answer: This is not possible at all with the iOS SDK
Answer: Maybe but probably not.
If the images are contained in the app themselves then no, you have to submit a new binary to apple for aproval. However, if your app was downloading the launch images from a server you could simply change the images on the server.
Answer: I think you app could show an image you save in the NSUserDefaults, for example. After it's started the app could check if a newer image is available on the web server. You can try this, i'm not sure it will be approved by apple. Just try and write there if they approved your app.
Answer: It's not possible. Your launch image is Default.png, which is packaged with the binary into an app. The whole thing needs to go through the process.


Apache hosting php website and proxy for node js CORS

Question: My setup:
An apache 2.22 virtual host running a php chat reachable at chat.mydomain.nl.
The root folder  /var/www/NEWchat/.
A Node js server not serving any webcontent but for passing information and signalling. The node js server has the name server.js, listens on port 1900 and resides in a folder at /var/www/socket.
I just want to be able to proxy requests made by clients to the socketserver.
In the javascript on the client the address of the socketserver is:
        socket = io.connect('http://mydomain.nl:1900');
without proxying it all works!
Then i edit the directives off the virtual host where the website chat.mydomain.nl is running on like:
<code>LoadModule proxy_module modules/mod_proxy.so
LoadModule proxy_http_module modules/mod_proxy_http.so
documentRoot /var/www/NEWchat
<Directory "/var/www/NEWchat">
allow from all
Options +Indexes
</Directory>
ServerName chat.mydomain.nl
Alias /uploads /var/uploads
ErrorLog /var/mydomainlog/log.log
LogLevel emerg
SSLEngine off
SSLCertificateFile /etc/letsencrypt/live/chat.mydomain.nl/cert.pem
SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/letsencrypt/live/chat.mydomain.nl/privkey.pem
SSLCACertificateFile /etc/letsencrypt/live/chat.mydomain.nl/chain.pem
ProxyRequests Off
ProxyPreserveHost On

<Proxy *>
    Order deny,allow
    Allow from all
</Proxy>
ProxyPass /socket http://localhost:1900
ProxyPassReverse /socket http://localhost:1900
<Location /socket >
    Order allow,deny
    Allow from all
</Location>
</code>
Restart the apache and pointing from the clients to:
socket = io.connect('http://chat.mydomain.nl:1900');
And al i get is :
"No 'Access-Control-Allow-Origin' header is present on the requested resource"
Comment: Solved it by creating a seperate Vhost as proxy for the Node js. Named it socket.mydomain.nl and everyrthing works well.
Answer: Solved it by creating a seperate Vhost as proxy for the Node js. Named it socket.mydomain.nl and everyrthing works well


How many Laws does Mendelian inheritance have?

Question: I know of 3 laws of Mendelian inheritance :
1.law of segregation
2.law of dominance
3.law of independent assortment
But, I've also come across a couple other "rules" of Mendelian inheritance such as principle of unit character/factor and principle of paired factor. I cannot understand what these other rules actually mean and whether they are a part of the Mendel's law of inheritance.
Further is there a distinction between the words Law,Principle and Rule or they mean the same thing.
Comment: Welcome to Biology.SE. The last question `Further is there a distinction between the words Law,Principle and Rule [..]` is a question of philosophy, not of biology (have a look at [philosophy.SE](http://philosophy.stackexchange.com/)).
Comment: We commonly tell about main 2 findings of mendel... (1) Phenomenon of segregation, and (2) phenomenon of independent assortment (second one later came out as as an incomplete-truth)... however normally there were more principles behind these findings. okay I'll write an answer when I'll get time.
Answer: Principle of unit character/factor
To understand this concept, it is good to fall back into the era in which Mendel lived, an era where we knew so little about the nature of genetic information. Consider a famous (and highly racist) argument by Jenkins against the hypothesis of natural selection as formulated by Darwin.

Jenkins supposed that a white man was wrecked on a desert island inhabited by Africans. The shipwrecked European would kill many black men in struggle for existence. He would have many wives and children. Many of his subjects would live and die as bachelors. In the F1, there will be some intelligent young men who are mulattoes (mixed race) more intelligent than negroes. Eventually instead of the beneficial white characteristic rising in frequency through natural selection acting on intermediates, Jenkins said that the European alleles and genes will be diluted out.

Putting aside the obviously racist and false assumption that whites are superior to blacks, the argument is not silly. Why would not the beneficial characteristic of an individual just dilute into the majority unadapted population? The answer is in the long forgotten Mendel's work. Individual characteristics are not 'fluid'. Characteristic of parent don't just average to give the characteristic of the offspring. There are actually particular unit of heredity (a gene) which has some seemingly atomic property in the sense that its effect will be diluted by crossing individuals carrying a given allele (an allele is a variant of a gene) with individuals carrying different alleles.
Principle of paired factor
Here is the underlying discovery of diploidy. Of course, by far not all living beings are diploids (or diplontic) unlike Mendel may have thought but he still discovered that diploidy is a thing.
Mendel discovered that it is the combination of two 'alleles' (the terms 'gene' and 'allele' did not exist at that time yet) that would determine the 'phenotype' (this term did not exist yet either) of an individual.
Comment: thank you for clearing things a bit , but going back to my basic question do these principles hold as the principles of inheritance or not ? Moreover do you perceive that there maybe a difference in what Mendel's law and principles ? also is the principle of unit character a repetition of the principle of paired factor or are they separate for they all seem to be overlapping to me
Comment: Answering your 3 questions in order. 1) Sure, they relate to inheritence. It is a human decision to call them one way or the other then. 2) The difference between principle and law is a question of philosophy, not biology. 3) No, they are different. Maybe try rereading my answer and if it does not help, you can try to specify what is unclear to you.


How MVC framework will help to develop php based website

Question: I used to develop websites using php . I like to learn some framework using php.
So I like to know how effective MVC is ?
Is this easy to learn ?
Comment: There's a lot of information out there on PHP and MVCs. Simply read a few [articles/tutorials](http://www.google.com/search?q=mvc+php) to get an idea of what's it all about and how you could implement it.
Comment: The question is too broad. Go through http://stackoverflow.com/search?q=mvc+php and refine your question to address specific aspects.
Answer: MVC is a way of organizing code that seems uniquely well suited for web applications. You'll have to organize your code in some particular way, try MVC and see if you like it. It's also the de-facto standard in web app design, so it makes your code easier to understand for other programmers.
It helps me minimize mixing languages -- views contain all the HTML, models all the SQL, and controllers describe and handle the API and support code (like authentication).
Answer: I have to say that when I first tried to get my head around MVC I had a great deal of difficulty (especially being someone who is self-taught and started with PHP). Put most simply, and most valuably for me, MVC is a good way to organize your code. It provides a template for separating the different layers of your application, which again sounds confusing, but actually isn't. (Again, this is meant to be an explanation of why MVC is useful and how to get started with it, not how it functions ... which I don't totally understand.)
First off, one really simple way to think about it is to compare it Wordpress (this is assuming you've played with Wordpress). Views function in much the same way as "themes": They are a simple way to combine presentation markup with whatever data is being pushed out to the page.
Models describe (and can interact with) the database.
Controllers do everything in between. (Calling functions in models, loading data into views.)
But it's also important to note that you can use MVC in any way you want to. While the idea is to get you to use a specific organizing pattern, no one is going to stop you from doing it in whatever way works best. I know quite a few folks who forgo models altogether and just use Controllers/Views to do everything they need. I found CodeIgniter to be pretty easy to get up to speed on, and now that I've got the hang of it I find it incredibly useful for both the functions the framework provides, but more importantly, the organizing that MVC forces me in to.
Hope that's helpful.
Answer: MVC is a very good design pattern for developing applications. It allows you clear separation between the views, the data access and processing logic which will result into more maintainable code.
Answer: Obviously learning MVC is going to be different for each person. My recommendations would be to read everything you can on MVC/PHP-MVC/PHP OOP that you can and then try to write your own framework. Then rewrite it using the things you learned the first time. Repeat.
Answer: Few of the major PHP frameworks implement MVC. Most use some variant of "Passive-MVC" or "Model-View-Presenter". They're following the concept, not the actual MVC pattern (which is a runtime organization for graphical apps, not for generating page output).
That's not to say the PHP interpretation of the concept doesn't bring any benefits. It's commonly believed to provide a better structure for large or growing web apps. It's less useful for implementing simple tasks.
Answer: I guess everything that was to be said about MVC was said already... so I'd like to point you to a good PHP framework to start with, should you decide to go with MVC - CodeIgniter. It's probably the easiest one to start with if you never used MVC before.
Answer: Just to add to all the wonderful answers given about MVCs, an MVC framework will do all the basic work for you and it helps save time.  You'd be working on things custom to a particular project like its business logic intead of the basic Create, Read, Update and Delete functions.
Answer: @gowri
You can try with any php frame work. You are at initial stage so start learning codignator or cakephp. Both have good documentation and support. I recommend you codignator. Easy and good mvc.
Comment: what's difference between  codignator and cakephp


Charge distribution on a Gaussian surface

Question:
In the text, it is said that the skewed distribution of positive charge on the inner wall cannot produce an eletric field in the shell to affect the distribution of charge on the outer wall. Why? Shouldn't the negative charges be more close to the positive charge concentration?
Comment: They also tend to be less concentrated because of the vicinity of the negative charge inside the sphere. That cancels the attraction made by the more concentrated positive charges and is in fact the point of $\nabla \cdot \stackrel{\to }{E}=\frac{\rho }{{\epsilon }_{0}}$.
Answer: This can certainly seem confusing since one might reasonably expect that the positive charge which accumulates densely on the left side of the inner surface of the spherical shell will attract a denser accumulation of negative charge on the outer surface of the shell. However, that does not take into account the fact that the negative charge inside the shell will be repelling the accumulating negative charge on the outer surface. In fact, the attraction from the inner surface and the repulsion from the enclosed charge exactly cancel so that no net field from the internal structure of the shell is experienced by the outer surface.
As a result, the only electric fields that affect the charges on the outer surface will be from the other charges on the outer surface. For this reason, the charges will all spread out as much as possible on the outer surface due to their mutual repulsion. Obviously, the charge distribution for a spherically symmetric surface which minimizes these interactions is the uniform charge distribution depicted in the diagram.
Comment: Geoffrey, if I could give you more than one upvote, I would.  That was an excellent answer, and I will try to use this explanation in the spring, when I am teaching AP Physics C students electricity and magnetism.
Comment: @DavidWhite Thank you! That's very kind, David. I'm glad I could be of help.
Answer: This is presumably because the shaded-blue region is a conductor and the electric field in there must be zero; all of the field lines of the inner charge must therefore terminate on positive charges at the surface of the conductor.
The field in a conductor must be 0 because if it weren't it would generate a large current (for a perfect conductor, an infinite current) which would tend to reduce that field. So very rapidly you get to a point where the field must be 0 because charge followed the E-field lines and built up in ways that oppose them.
Now the positive charge must create a negative charge due to charge conservation, but this negative charge shoots all the way to the outside of the conductor, essentially because the force of the positive charges has perfectly canceled the force due to the negative charge inside, so they're just trying to spread out away from each other. A uniform spherical shell of charge has no electric field inside, so this preserves the condition that the field in the conductor is 0.
Comment: I get it thanks. Just one more thing, suppose there is a hollow conductor sphere of radius R positively charged, if I put a positive charge in any point from a distance R/2 to the center, will it stay there? It will move, all charges will rearrange and them he eletric field will be zero again, correct? It thats correct, the eletric field really was never zero. I dont get it.
Comment: If the sphere is an **insulator** with symmetric positive charge, the particle will indeed stay wherever it is. However if it is a **conductor**, then even though the net positive charge has zero field inside the conductor, the charge placed inside will push charges around in the conductor, and these tend to attract it to whatever side of the conductor is closest. These are sometimes called "image charge effects" since if you place a charge above a neutral conducting plane, the fields are the same as they'd be if a mirror image of that charge had the opposite charge and attracted it.


WebView.getContentHeight() always returns 0

Question: I'm attempting to display an HTML string in a WebView named webDescription. Because this HTML can sometimes be lengthy, I want to limit the height of the WebView to a maximum dimension and allow the content to scroll within the view.
I am using the following code to wait until the page finishes loading, check the content height and set the height of the enclosing (parent) TableRow to a maximum of 150.
    webDescription.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient() {

        public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) {
            // do your stuff here
            Log.i("EVENTDETAIL", "Web view has finished loading");
            Log.i("EVENTDETAIL", "Description content height: " + view.getContentHeight());
            if ( view.getContentHeight() > 150 ) {
                LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, 150);
                view.setLayoutParams(params);
            }
        }

    });

However, view.getContentHeight() always returns 0; thus, the LayoutParams of the parent TableRow never get changed.
Can anyone offer any insight into this and how I might fix my problem? Thanks so much for your consideration.
Answer: use this code:
 if(view.getHeight()>150)
 {
      LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, 150);
      view.setLayoutParams(params);
 }

I meant use getHeight() instead of getContentHeight()
Answer: I would set the WebView to match_parent and set a maxHeight on the TableRow.


Are there any hand ciphers not obsoleted by computer cryptanalysis?

Question: Computerized cryptanalysis has obviously made formerly "secure" hand ciphers like Playfair, Four Square, and the Hill Cipher obsolete because they can be defeated in seconds. But is there a hand cipher where a modern computer attack does not have an advantage over a cryptanalysis done by hand? There are certainly tasks that are more quickly done by humans, rather than computers. I'm wondering if there is a hand cipher that takes advantage of this.
Comment: Duplicate of http://crypto.stackexchange.com/q/1653/351 (see also http://crypto.stackexchange.com/q/844/351).
Comment: @D.W. Do you know that there is a close-link where you can formally mark a question as a duplicate? (Just below the tag line.)
Comment: Thanks, @PaŭloEbermann.  Yes, I'm aware of it.  (For reasons that probably aren't relevant to anyone else, it doesn't work for me: on my primary platform, something on my browser's configuration makes the "close" link not work.  Maybe an ad blocker or something, I've never taken the time to fully trouble shoot it.  My apologies for cluttering things up with comments as a result.)
Comment: @D.W. Almost certainly an ad blocker. I have to disable my "privoxy" to get the StackExchange "close" etc. links to work.
Answer: One time pad is definitely both easy to do and has perfect secrecy, but key management is a pain and can compromise security. Basically a Vigenère cipher with a key as long as the the message should be secure, because different keys can create ALL possible messages with equal probabilities.
Again, it's a one time pad, so no KPA, CPA, or CCA security. Actually I don't think any pen & paper cipher system has such security.
Comment: @WilliamHird A scenario would be a journalist investigating abuses in a totalitarian state. Journalist generates a series of one-time pads (literal pads) and keeps a photocopy/scan of them in a secure bank vault in their democratic home country. While taking interview notes and other observations in the totalitarian state, each note is encrypted with a one-time pad which is then burned. Once the journalist gets home, they can decrypt their notes. You'd probably also want physical hiding techniques for the pads and the encrypted notes.
Comment: Isn't a Vigenere cipher with a key as long as the plaintext basically a one-time pad?
Comment: @rath: Not necessarily! The selection process for the key is what matters. If you use English (or whatever language) text, a standard Vigenere cipher technique, then the biased frequencies in the key let a cryptanalyst potentially break your ciphertext. But if your key's letters are from a uniformly random distribution, then it is pretty much the same thing.
Comment: @Luke Sheppard: Just curious , what would be your motivation for wanting a hand-generated cipher in the first place? The only scenario I can think of would be in prisons, where gangs usually communicate to their fellow gang-bangers by some kind of handwritten code.
Answer: The solitaire cipher is pretty good. The number of ways to shuffle the card pack is 2.3 e71. This is a huge number of possibilities that even a computer couldn't check through...
Comment: It would be nice if somebody showed how you can create a nice scientific format using TeX here by editing the answer.


What does 天將降大任於斯人也,必先苦其心志 mean?

Question: "天將降大任於斯人也,必先苦其心志" seems to be a saying by 老子 or 孟子. Could someone provide a literal translation + what the saying means?
Answer: You can find James Legge's translation on ctext. Here's the snippet:

故天將降大任於是人也,必先苦其心志
  when Heaven is about to confer a great office on any man, it first exercises his mind with suffering

You can also take a look at A. Charles Muller's translation of the same section:

Thus, when Heaven is going to give a great responsibility to someone, it first makes his mind endure suffering.

If you want to understand about the psyche behind such quotes you could flip through a book like The Oxford Handbook of Chinese Psychology which goes into some detail on their interpretation of the saying. One such excerpt notes:

As stated in the Confucian doctrines, individuals should endure stress or suffering because these 'negative' experiences can be beneficial to individuals through strengthening their will, resilience, and inadequacies

Of course, you should consider the context around the quote, also, to get a clearer picture of what was being spoken of.
Answer: 孟子.
天將降大任於斯人也,必先苦其心志。 If diety gonna put a very important undertaking on a person, he must make him suffer emotionally.
It is because diety want to train him. So that it is ok to let him to do somethings important.
Answer: 天將降大任於是/斯人也,必先苦其心志,勞其筋骨,餓其體膚,空乏其身,行拂亂其所為,所以動心忍性,增益其所不能。(traditional Chinese)
天将降大任于是/斯人也,必先苦其心志,劳其筋骨,饿其体肤,空乏其身,行拂乱其所为,所以动心忍性,增益其所不能。(simplified Chinese)
Standard translation from internet (the first sentence is modified by me):
When the Heaven is about to place a great responsibility on one man, it always first frustrates his spirit and will, exhausts his muscles and bones, exposes him to starvation and poverty, harasses him by troubles and setbacks so as to stimulate his spirit, toughen his nature and enhance his abilities.
Both 是 and 斯 are right, but 是 is better. 是/斯 means this, 也 here means nothing in classic Chinese, it is a particle like do in an interrogative sentence in English sometimes.
天(The heaven) 将(is about to, will) 降(befall) 大任(a great mission) 于(to) 是人(this man) 也,必(must) 先(first) 苦(exhaust) 其(his) 心志(will)...
Answer: Found this here, with a nice explanation in easier Chinese. It's all about EQ.
Basically, gods are fickle, they choose you, then nearly kill you, then want you to do their work for them! Threaten them with disbelief, they will behave!
Mencius the Melodramatic:
孟子曰:「天將降大任於斯人也,必先苦其心志,勞其筋骨,餓其體膚,空乏其身,行拂亂其所為,所以動心忍性,增益其所不能。」
Quick translation: What doesn't kill you makes you stronger!
天將降大任於斯人也,
(If) the gods want to get someone to do a big job for them,
必先苦其心志,
(they) will first test his willpower,
勞其筋骨,
test his strength,
餓其體膚,
starve his body,
空乏其身,
empty his life,
行拂亂其所為,
brush away in confusion his daily routine,
所以動心忍性,
therefore who endures this (and survives)
增益其所不能。
(will) increase his abilities.
Answer: I am looking for an equally idiomatic translation of this popular text phrase that every school kid knows in China. The closest I can think of now is "no pain no gain" by the governator.

What does 天將降大任於斯人也,必先苦其心志 mean?


Has the USA ever taken unilateral military action?

Question: In the post-American Revolution era, has the United States ever taken unilateral military action against another country besides during the Civil War?
Comment: I know this looks trivial to answer, but IMHO this is the kind of question it would be good to have an answer to here.
Comment: The question is very poorly researched, and could benefit from engaging with the theories of sovereignty and government that exist.
Comment: Could even be considered asking for a list, which is specifically a type of question not to ask.
Comment: I agree with @T.E.D.. The op is not asking for a list. She/he is just asking if it has happened before. I think it is a very valid (though trivial) question.
Answer: Yes, the USA has frankly engaged in unilateral military action so many times, it would be serious work just to count them all.
Just among declared wars, three of the five (a bare majority) were one-on-one wars that the USA declared first.
Among non-declared wars, this has been a common scenario. Presidents Reagan and Bush in the 1980s engaged in 3 of them that I can think of off the top of my head (Grenada, Panama, and the Libyan bombing).
Interestingly the official Marine hymn mentions two such military actions in the first line: The Mexican/American War, and the First Barbary War.
Comment: @DVK I don't really care to reargue the politics of that invasion here. *At the time* the entire rest of the world (as well as a large portion of the USA) [viewed it as a unilateral US military action](http://www.un.org/documents/ga/res/38/a38r007.htm).  That's good enough for me.
Comment: -1 for Grenada. It was not "unilateral military action" - it was undertaken on the request of legitimate government after a coup. As per Wikipedia: "Media outside the U.S. covered the invasion in a negative outlook despite the OAS request for intervention (on the request of the U.S. government), Soviet and Cuban presence on the island and the presence of American medical students at the True Blue Medical Facility." Same story as Clinton's Haiti invasion.
Comment: @T.E.D. that's patently false. Many countries in the region supported the invasion of Grenada both politically _and militarily_. "[T]he assault was staged by at least 500 United States marines and army rangers and 300 soldiers from Barbados, Jamaica, Antigua, St. Vincent's, St. Lucia, Dominica and St. Kitts- Nevis" [(NYT)](http://www.nytimes.com/1983/10/26/world/1900-us-troops-with-caribbean-allies-invade-grenada-fight-leftist-units-moscow.html)
Comment: @DVK Have you been reading this? https://openanthropology.files.wordpress.com/2013/10/grenadacia.pdf
Answer: To name just a few of the better-known instances:

Canada and Britain in 1812;
Cuba1 in 1898;
Assorted Indian Nations throughout the 19th century: Sioux, Apache, Cheyenne, etc.; and
Grenada in 1983;

Notes:

The unilateral action was not against Spain, at least in a technical sense. Congress took unilateral action in support of Cuban independence, upon which Spain declared war on the U.S.
Comment: +1 For mentioning Indian nations. Not counting them as countries/nations is racist "Flag Imperialism". http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hYeFcSq7Mxg
Comment: Even if the US was provoked, it would still be unilateral.  Unilateral just means we acted alone, without a coalition or allies.
Comment: @Vector - Debatable. However, ignoring those does not significanly alter the answer either.
Comment: @Ryathal: That is what US history books claim; the accusation is disputed.
Comment: The Indian nations don't count as a "country", if we take the question at face value. But certainly in principle you are correct.
Comment: as there were no Indian NATIONS, just tribal groups scattered around the continent, that indeed doesn't count. Calling them "nations" is modern politically correct nonsense designed to give legitimacy to the tax excempt status of indian tribal casinos and licquor stores.
Comment: @Tea Drinker: Thank you - I did intend the island nation and not the camp.
Comment: isn't listing Canada and Britain in 1812 a little unfair, the British were impressing American sailors into service.
Comment: Let me understand your note.  If the US should take unilateral military action to "free Quebec" you wouldn't consider that military action against the country of Canada?


Solar panel without diodes

Question: I have a 200 watt 12 volt solar panel. It has 3 diodes mounted on the back. Can you take the diodes out and the panel still operate normally in the day time?
Comment: You understand that a solar panel is a type of diode itself, right?
Comment: Why do you want to remove the diodes?
Comment: The panel has stopped working. Have replaced the diodes with no change. I have the right voltage when in the sun but no current. So I thought if I remove the diodes and rely on the charge regular to stop battery drain that may have solve my problem. As it is the panel is useless. I can see no fault on the glass side.
Comment: @Stuart If you are seeing voltage, the panel is fine. If there is no current flowing, something is wrong with the load.
Answer: Those are 10SQ050 50 V 10A Schottky diodes which are specifically sold as solar panel "anti shading" bypass diodes.   They should not be removed - removing them produces absolutely no change during normal operation but removes a useful function when the panel is shaded.

From your description it is possible that 2 of the diodes are used in shading bypass mode and one is in series with the panel output. If this is the case then the output would be reduced by an extremely small amount in operation but this would have zero affect on operation in most cases and utterly minimal effect if a high quality MPPT converter was used. These are very good performance diodes - series voltage drop at rated current is lower than most Schottky diodes usually encountered - probably around 0.6V at full current. If the panel is used with a non-MPPT converter this voltage drop will have no affect on the available power. If used with an MPPT converter it would perhaps reduce output by about 1% to 2% in full sun. Other variable losses would swamp this - non solar tracking, dirt on panel, temperature effects etc.
Without a series diode SOME battery energy will drain through the panel. This will usually be nowhere near as large as full panel current as a non illuminated panel acts as a low current current sink when voltage is applied. Some greater losses may occur during the dawn and dusk periods as panel voltage rises but is below battery voltage.

They do no harm whatsoever in normal use, do not reduce panel output in any way and allow the panel to produce some output when cells in one of the series strings are shaded.
In a high voltage system with multiple panels they also provide protection against reverse voltage destructive breakdown if the panel is shaded while the rest of the array is in bright sun. If a cell breaks down in such conditions it is common for a physical hole to be burned in the panel where the shaded cell used to be. [When only a single panel is used the voltages experienced are extremely unlikely to be high enough to cause this effect].

10SQ050 Datasheet here maybe.
And here
Answer: Yes, you can remove the diodes. But you need to be aware that the solar panel will act as a load itself when the amount of light drops below a certain amount.
If the panel were connected to a battery bank and the charge controller doesn't prevent reverse current flow, the solar panel will discharge the battery.
[Edit]
Upon closer look at your photo, I think that those diodes are intended to allow the solar panel to continue to function should a portion of the panel be shaded.
I'm guessing that there are 3 major strings of solar cells all connected in series.  Note that the diodes are connected across each of those strings.
If one of those strings of cells becomes shaded, the current available from that string will drop to a lower value than the other strings of cells in the panel.  This will cause the voltage across that particular sting to go negative and thus reduce the amount of power available from the panel.
The diode connected across the shaded string will clamp the reverse voltage to about one diode drop.  The diode will then pass the current from the remaining strings to the output leads of the panel.
Comment: Don't remove any of the diodes.  They don't affect the panel in any negative fashion and will definitely help should a portion of the solar panel become shaded.
Comment: Hello I'm using this panel by itself to change a battery in a caravan. I do have a charge regular that prevent reverse current flow. As you can see in the photo there are 3 diodes. Negative pin on the left, diode, dummy pin, diode, live pin, diode then the positive pin. Any idea which diode I could take out. Unsure about the center right pin in the solar panel.
Answer: Those look like high-current bypass diodes used in case of an array section going bad or if a local fuse blows. The diodes allow any remaining good panels to keep supplying power, even if there is a 33% drop in voltage. They allow for up to 3 panels to be in series to build up higher voltages. Regulator / Charger IC's handle these issues to keep battery charging as stable as possible during daylight hours. You can never take the diodes out, because if one panel failed or blew a fuse, the power from the solar panel would drop to zero volts.

Solar panel without diodes


CiviCRM, Ubercart, and donations through the shopping cart

Question: I know that UC CiviCRM creates a "purchases" tab in the CiviCRM contact view that links purchases made through an Ubercart store. Is it possible to set the Financial Type per product in the Ubercart store? For example, rather than requiring a shopping cart checkout and then a completely separate donation process, it makes sense from a usability standpoint to allow a supporter to add a donation to an Ubercart checkout process (using a UC Variable Price product, for example). It would be nice to be able to do this and have the donation push into CiviCRM automatically, but I have a feeling it is not so easy. Am I right, and if so, what would be the best way to implement this?
Comment: If you haven't it may be worth asking on the UC CiviCRM module issues page too as there will be other eyes on that maybe
Comment: Cross-posted: https://www.drupal.org/node/2482685
Answer: we have found that using CiviEntities opens the door for using Rules directly to control what gets pushed in to CiviCRM and how (in our case with Commerce not Ubercart). I can't really flesh out more on this as Eileen did the work  and she is probably en route back from the Sprint in Denver. Perhaps the above is enough to give you something to look in to if no one else comes back with a more succinct solution.
Comment: Thanks -- I will need to do some more exploring with CiviEntities and see if it can help with my case. And maybe explore more of Commerce, too, although my impression was it's overkill for the tiny stores some of the groups we work with have.
Comment: Did you progress this 'exploring' further? Just inherited a D7 ubercart site that has no integration happening with civi
Comment: No more progress with Ubercart. IIRC that particular site ended up building a Commerce cart and working from this as a base: https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/7062/does-anyone-have-a-recipe-for-commerce-rules-civicrm-integration
Comment: Fair enough. seems getting uc_civicrm working again hasn't proven too hard so far


Bold font on buttons?

Question: I'm used to the buttons with in bold. They need to attract attention. And bold font style is one way. But, I've heard that sometimes such text looks awful (for example, Mac?). In bootstrap 3 font on buttons is normal. So which is better? bold / normal?
Comment: This also depends on the font type. You'll find that some fonts are specifically designed to include Light, Normal, Bold, Heavy and other weights, while others are not specifically designed like this. In general styling the buttons themselves will draw more attention than the font.
Comment: There is no 'better'. It's whatever works for your particular needs and design.
Answer: This seems like an overly broad opinionated question. The aesthetics is dependent on your branding/style. It also depends on how prominent you want your buttons to be.
For example:
Stackexchange uses gradient buttons with normal fonts.
Desk.com uses gradient buttons with bold uppercase fonts.
There are many ways to make buttons noticeable. (ie color, boldness, uppercase, stroke, shadow, etc) Keeping these button styles consistent and following your branding guidelines should be your focus.
Answer: It depends. Buttons often have varying:

Colour or shade
Shape or silhouette (compared to the rest of the page)
Drop shadows (create a perception of depth)
Letters in a button can have a shadow or text effect (see 'Ask Question button' here on UX)
Different size to other elements

These alone add enough contrast for the user, let alone varying type weight.
Assuming many buttons have a darker background colour: the white letters will appear optically larger. As a result, letters typically have larger letter-spacing to compensate. Although this is limited on the web.
Answer: This is very much a stylistic decision. While paragraphs of bold text can decrease readability, this is not an issue with the few words you are likely to have on a button. The typeface will also impact this decision as all bolds are not equal. Some fonts have many weights, for instance Source Sans Pro has 6 weights. But I assume by bold that you a referring to a heavier weight than the body text. There are other ways to attract attention (color, size, etc.). In general, I prefer normal text, but again, that is a stylistic preference. I have seen it work well both "normal" and "bold".
Answer: I would recommend against using bold. The buttons have a lot of graphic treatment already which differentiates it. Using too many things to draw attention add more visual noise.
Comment: Others I believe have it right when they say it depends upon the visual design of the site. It's not really a UX question but just visual design question.

Bold font on buttons?


What's the definition of concept of inversion in architecture? Can you also give some example for this and explanation?

Question: It's one of questions for my exam, and I couldn't find anything about inversion related with architecture on the internet. Thanks for help!
Answer: Hard to say without knowing the material covered in the course. However, it could be referring to Robert Hooke:

As hangs a flexible cable so, inverted, stands a rigid arch.

Which describes a way to find the funicular form for an arch by inverting the shape of a hanging cable under the same loading. In other words, experimental form finding!


Suspended grid ceiling with T-channel on the perimeter?

Question: Is it possible to install a suspended grid ceiling without using L-channels? Two of the walls are structural masonry, and I would like to avoid risking structural integrity by drilling into them. I'm assuming that by using only T-channel, there may be a gap along the edges that fluctuates around an eighth of an inch or so, depending upon the straightness of the wall -- that is something I'm willing to tolerate in exchange for not drilling into the masonry walls.
Comment: most masonry can be drilled without significantly weakening it
Answer: There's no reason you couldn't do what you have planned. Suspended ceilings are a decorative feature, and not a structural one, so you can do whatever you like. I assume you'll cut your interior channel and lay it over the perimeter channel as normal, as opposed to somehow replicating the locking mechanical connection you'd normally have between interior channels.
You're going to have one particular challenge, though, and that's keeping them flat.
L-channel is rigidly mounted to the wall, so the horizontal portion is more or less stuck in position. You can lay interior channel on it and it doesn't move much.
In your case, you'll be suspending the T-channel and it'll have freedom to pendulum away from level. Laying the interior channel on it will have a tendency to tilt it down on the inside flange.
One solution might be to use pop rivets or screws to tie things together more rigidly. You could simply do this through the mating horizontal flanges, or you could strategically cut tabs into the ends of the interior channel so you can rivet in a hidden fashion:
<code>TOP (PLAN) VIEW
__________________________________________

             rivet locations              <-- perimeter channel
_____________*______*_____________________
            ----..----   <-- tabs cut from center rib of interior channel
         |      ||      |
_________|      ||      |_________________
         |      ||      |
</code>
if you are going to rivet from the bottom you might consider just floating L channel, though. It'll look a little more standard since it's narrower and it's usually cheaper.
Comment: Perhaps, but it didn't seem a complete answer. It was addressing your comment about keeping perimeter channel level. I was suggesting L-channel could be suspended on wires instead of using T-channel on the perimeter.
Comment: Perhaps hang L-channel on the perimeter, so it's at least a flat outside surface to hold against the masonry wall? Then the interior channel could be cut to the right length to hold it against the wall, while the wire holds it to the right height.


Conditional Probability on Disease

Question: A man living in a country where only 1 out of 1000 people has the virus A. There is a test available that gives a positive result 5% of the time when the patient does not have virus A and a negative result 1% of the time when the patient does have Virus A. Otherwise, it gives correct results.  Recall that past computation showed that the man 's chance of having the virus, conditional on a positive test, is less than 1.9%. Assume all tests are independent.
Let the conditional probability computed 1.9% serve as the new prior. Compute the new probability that he has the virus A (new posterior) based on his receiving a second positive test.
So my thought process was the following :
P(A) = 0.0001
P(Ac) = 1- 0.0001
P(+/Ac) = 0.05
P(-/Ac) = 0.01
I am asked to calculated to P(A/+) = P(+/A)*P(A) / P(+)
P(+) = P(+/A)*P(A) + P(+/Ac)*P(Ac)
My question is I am still confused on how I can get P(+/A).
Could you please help me?
Answer: $P(+ | A) = 1 - P(- | A) = 1 - 0.01 = 0.99$

Conditional Probability on Disease


When you're running a modal operator, how to you know when the user has clicked on a button displayed in the 3dviewport?

Question: I'm writing a modal operator that needs to keep track of mouse movement and mouse clicks.  A side effect of this is that it makes any panels or workspace tools completely inoperable.  Since my operator is getting first dibs on any mouse events, all the buttons and other controls in the layover panels are being ignored.  I also cannot pass through these events, since I do not know if any given mouse event has occurred within one of the overlaid controls or is in the main part of the viewport.  Is there any any way to make sure that if the user clicks on a button, the signal is sent to that button first?
Answer: Your modal handler needs to return {'PASS_THROUGH'} for any event it doesn't handle.  Here's an example modal event handler that does that:
    def modal(self, context, event):
        v3d = context.space_data
        rv3d = v3d.region_3d

        if event.type == 'MOUSEMOVE':
            mouse_pos = Vector((event.mouse_x, event.mouse_y, 0.0))
            mouse_move = self._initial_mouse - mouse_pos
            self.offset = mouse_move * 0.02
            self.execute(context)
            context.area.header_text_set("Offset %.4f %.4f %.4f" % tuple(self.offset))

        elif event.type == 'LEFTMOUSE':
            context.area.header_text_set(None)
            return {'FINISHED'}

        elif event.type in {'RIGHTMOUSE', 'ESC'}:
            v3d = context.space_data
            rv3d = v3d.region_3d
            rv3d.view_location = self._initial_location
            context.area.header_text_set(None)
            return {'CANCELLED'}

        elif event.type in {'WHEELUPMOUSE', 'WHEELDOWNMOUSE'}:
            return {'PASS_THROUGH'}

        return {'RUNNING_MODAL'}

This is a very simple example that only deals with mouse events, not keyboard or others. You'll have to organize your own tests for whatever you want, but the example should give you a guide.  The example is taken from this tutorial. It might be worth your time to watch the tutorial as well.
Your handler should recognize a specific event to trigger completing.  This one uses Left Mouse click.  Return {'FINISHED'} in that case.
Your handler should recognize a specific event to trigger cancelling.  This one uses typing Esc while holding the right mouse button. Return {'CANCELLED'} in that case.
Your handler should pass through any events it doesn't want to handle..  This one ignores the third (wheel) mouse button. Return {'PASS_THROUGH'} in that case.
Implicit in this example is that in cases that your handler doesn't explicitly handle or ignore it should do whatever it wants with the event and return {'RUNNING_MODAL'} to continue running as a modal event.  Don't fall off the end of the function without returning one of these things. This one is just throwing "handled" events away. A useful modal might do some work between the if statement and the final return.
Comment: The problem here is that I need to know the locations of the various buttons and overlays before I can know if I need to pass the events through.  So if I've created a panel which is accessible through the N menu, I am unable to use it while my operator is running because my operator gets passed the events before the panel controls do.


Why does finely cut paper curl?

Question: When paper is cut to a small width, it curls up like this. Why does this happen?
Comment: Probably depends on how you cut it.  Many methods apply tension to the edge along the cut, and then...
Comment: Did you try with news paper? it will not curl.
Answer: When it happens for a paper you hold above the floor, one of the ways to deal with the forces and deformation. If you are holding the paper at an angle, not vertically, paper closer to the point where you hols it is all that does not let the farther parts just hang down. Now, paper is not really good at shear deformation, but if it so happens that a stripe bends left or right, it keeps doing so, because slightly bending is just an easier deformation and nothing prevents it from doing so.
However, I think you are talking of stronger curls, and that probably has to do with the way you cut it up, bending it as you go through. I just sliced off a thin stripe of paper with boxcutter — almost no deformation occured.
Note also that if we are talking about really large sheets of paper, the paper during its creation is pressed several between cylinders and then rolled onto reels. So small (or not so small) curling is quite typical.

Why does finely cut paper curl?


Auto open search results

Question: The scenario we have is a large list containing several 1000 items with at least two unique indexed columns.
What we'd like is for a user to search for one of these unique fields and resulting item to be displayed instantly on the search page, by this I mean the actual display form, not a list of search results. Each search query should only come up with a single result.
I've played around a bit with search query/results webparts but am still not achieving what I'm after.
It seems like something so basic, is there a way to do this?
Answer: You could configure a Query Rule to do this. Set the number of results to 1 and render the item in your Display Template.

Auto open search results


Surprising examples of Cavalieri's principle

Question: I showed my calculus students two circular cones with the same base and height, but one of them "right" and the other slanted, and asked which had a greater volume.  They all answered correctly that both have the same volume, but a lot of them had just memorized the formula for the volume of a cone, so the question mostly failed at causing them to think.  What would be a good example of two solids that have the same volume by Cavalieri's principle, but where this fact is not otherwise obvious or deducible from frequently memorized formulae?
Comment: The wikipedia article you cite contains the napkin ring problem, which seems to qualify easily.
Answer: One interesting example along these lines involves the following three solids:

Half of a sphere (the upper half) with a radius of $r$.
A circular cone (vertex at the bottom) with base of radius $r$ and height $r$.
A circular cylinder with base of radius $r$ and height $r$.

The statement that's true is that the areas of the cross sections of shape #1 plus the areas of the cross sections of shape #2 are equal to the areas of the cross sections of shape #3.  It follows that the volumes add, i.e.
$$
\frac{2}{3}\pi r^3 \,+\, \frac{1}{3}\pi r^3 \;=\; \pi r^3.
$$
This shows that you can derive the formula for the volume of a sphere from the formula for the volume of a cone, and vice-versa.
If you like, you make this into an example of the kind you requested by having one of the solids be the complement of either #1 or #2 in #3. That is, have the first solid be a half-sphere and the second be the complement of a cone in a cylinder, or vice-versa.
Edit: Another interesting example is the following pair of solids:

The paraboloid obtained by rotating the region $x^2 \leq y \leq 1$ in the $xy$-plane around the $y$-axis, with circular cross sections.
A triangular prism on a $1$-$1$-$\sqrt{2}$ triangle, with depth $\pi$, using cross sections parallel to one of the $1\times \pi$ rectangular faces.

This example lets you compute the volume of a paraboloid without using calculus (assuming you don't count Cavalieri's principle as calculus).
Answer: I've always been surprised by this way of measuring the area of an ellipse. Instead of the classical use of the semi-major and semi-minor axes, you can actually do something similar to what you do with a parallelogram:
Draw two parallel lines that just touch the ellipse on the outside. We'll say these lines are horizontal. We'll call the distance between these lines h. Halfway between them, measure across your ellipse horizontally. Let's call half this width r. Then the area of the ellipse is $\pi r (\frac12 h)$. It's particularly impressive when $h=2r$ because then the area is just $\pi r^2$.
This works because your ellipse is a shear of another ellipse with the same height and horizontal radius. In essence because of the 2D version of Cavalieri's principle.
Comment: Nice!  How hard is it to show that any two ellipses with the same height and horizontal radius have all the same horizontal cross-sections?
Comment: Hmmm. Not sure at this stage. My understanding is actually in the other direction, which is much easier to show: a shear of any shape preserves horizontal cross-sections, and a shear of an ellipse is still an ellipse.
Comment: Ok; am I wrong, then, that you'd need to know that any two ellipses with the same height and horizontal radius have the same horizontal cross-sections in order to actually calculate the area of an ellipse this way?
Comment: What about this: given an ellipse with particular height and horizontal radius, show that there is a shear of this ellipse which is a "standard" ellipse. Since shearing preserves horizontal cross-sections, the area must be the same by Cavalieri's principle.
Answer: Spiral paper blocks and regular paper blocks
This image search should provide some example pictures of spiral paper blocks.
I would not know of a technique of calculating the volume of the shape of a spiral paper block which does not use Cavalieri's principle or something higher. However, with the principle it becomes directly clear that the volume is the same as that of a regular paper block (with the same paper size and height). As a bonus, the individual sheets correspond to the individual slices, not to forget that the principle itself is nicely illustrated as both blocks contain the same amount of paper.
Didactically, you might consider introducing the shape abstractly first, without presenting or mentioning the real-life thing – but whether that's a good idea depends on several factors.
Comment: If anybody knows (or can produce) an image of a spiral paper block that can be embedded here, feel free to do so.
Answer: This example here I discovered myself:
Consider a cylinder of radius $r$ and height $h$, circumscribing a paraboloid $y=h\left(\dfrac{x}{r}\right)^2$ whose apex is at the center of the bottom base of the cylinder and whose base is the top base of the cylinder.
Also consider the paraboloid $y=h-h\left(\dfrac{x}{r}\right)^2$, with equal dimensions but with its apex and base flipped.
For every height $0\le y\le h$, the disk-shaped cross-sectional area $\pi\left(\sqrt{1-\frac{y}{h}}\,r\right)^2$ of the flipped paraboloid is equal to the ring-shaped cross-sectional area $\pi r^2-\pi\left(\sqrt{\frac{y}{h}}\,r\right)^2$ of the cylinder part ''outside'' the inscribed paraboloid.
Therefore, the volume of the flipped paraboloid is equal to the volume of the cylinder part ''outside'' the inscribed paraboloid. In other words, the volume of the  paraboloid is $\dfrac{\pi}{2}r^2h$, half the volume of its circumscribing cylinder.


Is there any app to clear cache on iOS?

Question: I've read that applications on iPhone create some service files that even after its removal still on your device. To clean up iPhone it's recommended to delete apps and then install them again.
Is there any program that allows clearing cache without deleting apps?
Answer: Try PhoneClean make sure you don't let it clear your music album covers. It gives different options to clear up space. Personally, I clean my stuff out myself using software such as iExplorer and iFunbox. Choice is yours. PhoneClean for simplicity, iExplorer for advanced features.

Is there any app to clear cache on iOS?


What is the right English word that can explain " Dharma"

Question: I'm currently working on a spiritual book. I want to know the exact replacement for the word 'dharma'. I know dharma refers to righteous Order. But I just can't find the exact feel of dharma in any English words.
Comment: Dharma is instructions of the the Supreme Lord Krishna, in simple elaboratory words.
Comment: Duty, Virtue, Custom etc.,
Answer: Dharma has various shades of meaning which developed over time and in different spheres.  Prof. PV Kane has discussed this term in his 'History of Dharmaśāstra'.  In the Rig Veda, the term 'dharma' refers to either a concept of a foundation or the ethical concept of a foundation of divine or supernatural authority for the moral, social and ritual order of society.  It concerns our obligations before the gods, whether to engage in ritual or to engage in moral behaviour with respect to each other.
Similarly, Dr. Rachana Bhangaokar explains -
"drawing from the root word "rta", Dharma in the Rigveda meant both religious rituals and something that nourished and sustained everything else.  Rta represented the natural order of the cosmos, where everything in the universe follows a specific course.  It also meant a moral order which includes the results of following the path of truth.  Thus rta as a concept included both physical and moral harmony. … Gradually, the term rta was replaced by the exclusive use of the word Dharma, which then encompassed what rta represented.  Finally, Dharma became ideal conduct that had to be followed for human beings to become spiritually perfect."
Dharma also continued to be a key term during the period of the philosophical systems.  The Vaiśeṣika Sūtra begins with the words -
"So now, dharma will be explained.  That due to which true knowledge and liberation are obtained is dharma.  The sacred tradition is authoritative because it expresses that."
The Mīmāṃsā Sūtra defines dharma as -
"Dharma has the defining characteristic of guiding actions"
For the Mīmāṃsā philosophers, the injunctions of the Veda provide a paradigm of statements that prompt actions that are aligned with dharma.
Ultimately, it is difficult to capture the idea in a single term.  In the Mahābhārata, Bhiṣma was asked directly 'what is sanātana dharma?' ('kiṃ svid dharmyaṃ sanātanam?') and answered as follows -
"This type of question is very difficult to answer.
It is difficult to explicate by logic [tarka]. It is discerned as follows.
Dharma was propounded for the dignity of living beings.
What is certain is that dharma is anything connected with non-violence
Dharma was propounded for non-violence among living beings.
It is called dharma because it supports; all creatures are maintained by dharma.
What is certain is that dharma is anything connected with giving support"
Comment: I'm not sure how this answers the question: What is the right English word that can explain "Dharma"? You seem to be giving the definition/meaning of 'dharma'...but that's not what OP wanted.
Comment: Yes, fair point.  I was trying to say that there is no one exact relacement for the word Dharma in English, so the OP would do better to contextualise the term within the various contexts discussed above, rather than seek a single replacement - but maybe I didn't express myself clearly enough.


Power supply amperage

Question: I have a small PSU board out of a defunct DVD player that I'd like to use as
a supply for my breadboards. It has two rails, +12 and +5 with two GND
lines, but there's no current indication. My guess is that it's in the
500mA-1A range, but I really have no clue.

What's the best way to test it and determine a safe limit?

Also, if it requires a load in order to operate, should I just wire in a big
resistor across +12 to ground?
Answer: The case for home appliances usually has the power consumption written on it.   That will give you an upper bound if you assume say 80% efficiency.
You could hook a fat power resistor up chosen to dissipate say 1A and see if the output voltage drops indicating overload.
Really, you could do better with a dual-rail PSU from some obsolete computer equipment (eg Zip drive), available really cheaply at flea markets etc.   If you only want 5v, old mobile phone chargers are good; prefer switchmode (light, efficient, well regulated) over transformer (heavy, inefficient, poor regulation).
Comment: Especially audio equipment may exaggerate with its power consumption it mentions on the label. I had a 2x30W stereo which said 360W. And the 1A test is good, but not conclusive. It still may fail after a while due to overload. Overheating doesn't always cause defects immediately.
Answer: Is this an open frame kind of supply? If so, can you make out what kind of regulation it is? Linear supplies tend to have a single rather large transformer, while switchers usually have several, smaller inductors.
If it happens to be a linear type supply, the capacity would be limited by the regulator devices, e.g., if there were a 7805, you could get a data sheet for the 7805 in the particular case style they used.
If it's a switching supply (more likely, really) there might be other ways to tell, but I'm not personally familiar enough with switchers to be able to say.
Answer: If you have some power resistors already, it should be safe to load the power supply with them, starting with a fairly high resistance and slowly decreasing the resistance (increasing current) until you see the output voltage starting to drop too far below its nominal output.  The output is probably rated for +/- 5% or 10%, so when the output falls below 90% of nominal voltage it's overloaded.  You can go in small steps and plot a graph if you care about the details.
If you change the resistance in too large a step you might go too far above the rated output, which could cause damage but is more likely to blow a fuse, so be careful of that, especially if the fuse doesn't look replaceable or you can't tell which component is the fuse.

Power supply amperage