Is it possible to transfer money from paypal to any master card?

Question: One of my client offers me to pay through paypal , but paypal is not supported in our country . I have a master card which is provided by payoneer . Is it possible to transfer fund from paypal to my mastercard ?
Comment: You can if Payoneer gives you their bank account in which you link to your PayPal account. Or apply for a PayPal MasterCard which is linked to your funds in PayPal.
Answer: No.
PayPal payments are credited to a PayPal account. PayPal doesn't let you pay arbitrary banks or credit cards, that defeats the purpose of PayPal and there are other services which can do that cheaper or with less hassle.
You need to find another mutually available and satisfactory option with your client.
Comment: There are a few exceptions then. I connected my bank with my paypal account, allowing me to transfer money between them quite easilly. If I pay with paypal, paypal takes it from my bank. If I ask for a refund, I can in turn put it back on my bank. Not sure if this would even work on creditcards though.
Comment: @Migz reread the question. PayPal doesn't operate in the OP's country. They are asking if someone with a PayPal account can use it to directly send money to someone else's credit card. What you are describing is a different scenario. After all, if it's your Mastercard and your PayPal account, you could just withdraw the money to your bank then pay your card as normal.


Prove a Hermitian operator satisfies a property

Question: Assuming $A$ as hermitian operator, then $\langle A \phi|\phi \rangle= \langle \phi|A\phi \rangle$ holds. I need to show that this is equivalent to $\langle A\psi|\psi' \rangle = \langle \psi|A\psi' \rangle$ for $\psi \neq \psi'.$ We may set $\phi = \psi + \psi'$ and get $\langle A(\psi + \psi')|\psi+\psi' \rangle = \langle \psi+\psi'|A(\psi + \psi') \rangle.$ Given the linearity of $A,$ we get: $$\langle A(\psi + \psi')|\psi+\psi' \rangle = \langle A\psi|\psi \rangle + \langle A\psi | \psi' \rangle + \langle A \psi'|\psi \rangle + \langle A\psi'|\psi' \rangle.$$ In the first and fourth term we may use the assumption. I do not know how to go from here. Can somebody provide some hint or a solution proposal?
Comment: Search for polarization identity. This allows you to conclude that $A$ is hermitian iff $\langle \phi, A\phi\rangle \in \mathbb R$ for all $\phi \in H$. Put differently, try now to use $\phi=\psi+i\psi^\prime$; combining both results should do the job.
Comment: Many thanks. I substituted $\phi = \psi + i\psi'$ in the equation defining a hermitian operator and just like in the case $\phi = \psi + \psi'$ I get terms that I do not see how to assemble together using the polarization identity.
Answer: Following the attempt of OP, we also compute
$$\langle \psi+i \psi^\prime,A(\psi+i\psi^\prime)\rangle =\langle \psi,A\psi\rangle  +\langle \psi^\prime,A\psi^\prime\rangle + i\left(\langle \psi,A\psi^\prime\rangle - \langle \psi^\prime,A\psi\rangle\right ) \quad . $$
To conclude the argument, we note that in both cases $\langle \phi,A\phi\rangle \in \mathbb R$ for all $\phi \in H$ by assumption. This gives the conditions
$$\mathrm{Re} \langle \psi,A\psi^\prime\rangle =  \mathrm{Re} \langle \psi^\prime,A\psi\rangle $$
and
$$\mathrm{Im} \langle \psi,A\psi^\prime\rangle = - \mathrm{Im} \langle \psi^\prime,A\psi\rangle \quad ,$$
which in turn imply $$\langle \psi,A\psi^\prime\rangle = \langle \psi^\prime, A\psi\rangle^* = \langle A\psi,\psi^\prime\rangle \quad .$$
The equality has to hold for all $\psi,\psi^\prime \in H$, where $H$ is a finite-dimensional complex Hilbert space, which then shows that $A$ is hermitian. The converse direction is trivial, i.e. if $A$ is hermitian, then all expectation values are real.


C# and .NET relation

Question: I know its extensive topic but I have failed to find some basic overview. I would like to know what is exactly the relation between these two. I know I need .NET SP2 to work with VS 2010, so client PC will need to have the same version of .NET I guess.
I would be very grateful if someone could tell me in a few sentences what is .NET and how it relates ti C#
Comment: @John K., C# is *not* a scripting language...
Comment: To follow up with Thomas so you don't get confused mocco, C# is a compiled language. Not a scripting language. Scripting languages do not get compiled. They are simply read, line by line each time and interpreted. This is great for things like javascript, but when performance is a must, a compiled language is the way to go.
Comment: See: http://www.startvbdotnet.com/dotnet/dotnet.aspx for a definition of .NET.  C# is one of the scripting languages that can be used to create applications for the .NET environment.
Answer: .NET is a framework. What that means is that the .NET platform contains libraries of existing code and architecture from which all applications utilizing it build from. So rather than pouring a new foundation for every house, you already start off with a solid one that has been perfected and improved upon over time. In addition to a starting foundation, the framework serves as a sort of toolbox of existing code that saves you from reinventing the wheel every time you need certain things.
For instance, winforms is an established foundation from which to build windows applications with a rudimentary user interface simply by going to file > new project. You would have to interface with GDI yourself to generate windows forms and user interface if this library of existing code was not there to support you.
C# is simply a programming language. One specifically written with .NET in mind. In fact, most of the .NET framework is written in C# (if not all of it). It's syntax is simply the next progression of the C language, thus transitioning from C++ to C# shouldn't be too difficult. It's a paradigm shift with a lot of things, but at least the syntax is often familiar. Any .NET language is usually compatible with other .NET languages. For instance, I could write a class library in Visual Basic, and you could use that compiled library in your C# program.
Because .NET is a framework, the code you reference in it does not get compiled into your program, rather a reference to code in the framework is all that gets compiled. This means that clients running your program must also have the .NET framework, albeit a stripped down version. They don't need all the development tools that you need so their .NET framework download is a little smaller. Clients running Windows Vista/7 don't need to worry about anything; it's included with their OS. Only certain users running XP would even have to worry about downloading the framework, and most programs accurately detect the requirement and inform the end user to go download it.
All versions of Visual Studio are simply tools to help you build applications and better utilize the .NET framework. I would never recommend coding in any .NET language without at least the express (free) edition of visual studio. Intellisense alone is worth it. That said, it is definitely possible to code something in .NET without the Visual Studio IDE. You could open up notepad right now and write a C# program, compile it with the free compiler, and run it. While Visual Studio 2010 is pretty amazing, and uses the new WPF platform to run, 2008 will serve you just as well. 2010 is optimized for .NET 4 but works just fine when targeting previous versions of .NET as well.
Bottom line:

.NET is a coding framework.
C# is a language built to take advantage of .NET. NOTE: Visual Basic is also a .NET language and choosing between C# and VB is simply a matter of preference.
Visual Studio is a tool to help you in coding for .NET.

That is how they are all related.
Answer: (This is probably a duplicate, but the best answer is off-site)
Quoting from Jon Skeet:

Untangling the Versions
There are lots of different versions of different elements of development. You need to distinguish between the versions of Visual Studio (the IDE), C# (the language) and .NET (the framework). It's quite hard to talk about each of these individually without bringing in other pieces, but I'll see what I can do... Note that I'll avoid introducing the CLR versions as well, as most developers don't really need to know about that.
.NET Framework versions
There have been five significant releases of the .NET Framework, excluding service packs. The framework includes the compilers, runtime, and libraries.

1.0 - released in 2002
1.1 - released in 2003
2.0 - released in 2005, with a new CLR (to handle generics and nullable types) and compilers for C# 2 and VB 8.
3.0 - released in 2006, this is just 2.0 plus new libraries: Windows Presentation Foundation, Windows Communication Foundation, Workflow Foundation, and Cardspace
3.5 - released in 2007, this is 3.0 plus new libraries (primarily LINQ and some extra "base" libraries such as TimeZoneInfo) and new compilers (for C# 3 and VB 9)

C# language versions
There are three significant language versions:

C# 1
C# 2, introducing generics, nullable types, anonymous methods, iterator blocks and some other more minor features
C# 3, introducing implicit typing, object and collection initializers, anonymous types, automatic properties, lambda expressions, extension methods, query expressions and some other minor features

Read the rest here: http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter1/Versions.aspx
Answer: Basically:

.NET is a programming environment including, among other things, a virtual machine (the CLR) and an extensive class library (the BCL)
C# is a programming langage that targets the .NET environment. It is compiled to IL (a kind of assembly language executed by the CLR), and uses the classes from the BCL
Answer: The information HERE might be helpful to you.
Answer: C# is a programming language, very similiar to c++.
.NET is a set of libraries, classes, ready to use methods etc.
It is strictly related to C#. You use them both without noticing it :)
Every 'using' statement imports a set of classes to your project from .NET.
Answer: As Chevex says .NET is a framework and C# is just one of several languages targeting the framework.
Not sure about what you mean about "SP2" and VS2010.  The language features you use will determine what version of the framework is required on the clients running your code.
See here for more information:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb822049.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/8z6watww.aspx

C# and .NET relation


Does the werewolf get pack tactics in wolf form?

Question: The werewolf shapechange ability states that it polymorphs into a wolf. Does that mean it gains pack tactics as an ability in wolf form?
Answer: No. The abilities the werewolf has in each form are listed in its stat block. From its Shapechanger ability: "Its statistics, other than its AC, are the same in each form," where statistics would include pack tactics.
Answer: RAW: All monsters only have the abilities as listed in their stat block. As werewolves do not list "Pack Tactics" as one of their abilities, they do not get it.
Otherwise: There is nothing preventing a DM from homebrewing an exception to this rule. That said, if you do, you should fairly adjust the stats of the encounter (including CR) to adequately reflect this additional ability.
Ultimately: While it is best to follow the RAW when possible, sometimes you need something special and different to better fit your campaign. Don't be afraid to mix things up and create your own versions of monsters, just be sure to have an in-universe explanation ready in case it gets challenged by the players.
Answer: RAW, no.  The stat block does not include that in any of the shapes.
Rule of cool, rules that make sense, RAF, I'd say they should, and I will be so running that way in the future.  Likewise, weretigers getting pounce, wereboars getting to charge, etc. (when in full animal form).
Comment: People can and will downvote opinions that they disagree with. That's the risk of adding an opinion to an answer. (Put another way: if it doesn't affect anyone else and isn't supposed to be voted on, why put it here to be voted on?) I'll say that I'm also surprised it's downvoted that *much*, but it being downvoted at all doesn't seem unusual to me.
Comment: Nope. If we had rules about how to vote they'd be posted somewhere and enforced. (The only rule is "no serial voting someone's posts".) Voting is explicitly and deliberately up to whatever reasons voters feel are relevant for separating the best answer from the rest. Actually, not even really that: it's just whatever reasons voters feel like.
Comment: I do not understand why anyone would downvote this answer.   No explanations have been provided.  I noted, accurately (and in agreement with everyone else), that the RAW don't permit the pack tactics in this example, so that shouldn't be why.  I stated an opinion that I liked the idea and would use it in my world, but that doesn't affect anyone else unless they want it to, so there's no reason to downvote that part of it.  So what's the deal?
Comment: Hmmm.  I would have thought that downvoting would only really make sense if an answer was factually wrong, or demonstrably bad gaming practice, but not appropriate just for being different from how the voter would do it.
Comment: OK.  I guess I was just inclined to be polite, and not tell someone their answer was bad unless I had a good clear reason for it.
Comment: Yeah, really strange.


Help with minecraft texture pack

Question: I'm making a texture pack for Minecraft 1.9. While I was working on on the pack, 1.10 came out. Back when it was 1.9, there was a bug where it said it was incompatible, when my texture pack was made for 1.9. So, when it said "incompatible" in 1.10, it ignored it, since it still seemed to have no bugs in 1.10, so I kept re-texturing. Later, I started working on andesite, and it showed that purple and black checker pattern that happens when it doesn't know the texture of that block or item. I double checked, and it was the right type of file, right name, right everything, but it still shows that texture. I don't want to have to redo the entire texture pack in 1.10, just so this will happen again when 1.11 comes out. Any tips on how to fix this bug? (BTW, I've re-textured other blocks since this happened, and it seems to only have happened with the andesite.)
Comment: Telling us everything is right isn't particularly useful, as this wouldn't be happening if everything was right. Could you upload some screenshots of your resource pack folders, or upload the resource pack?
Comment: I'm afraid not. I don't know how to upload files like that, and it weirds me out too. This shouldn't be happening. I don't know why it is. Could you maybe tell me step by step what I should've done when saving, just in case I may have done something wrong. Btw, I'm using a Windows 10 computer, with Adobe Photoshop to re-texture.
Comment: There's a lot of things that could have gone wrong. Try dragging the resource pack folder into Google Drive (https://www.google.com/drive/). Once it's uploaded in Google drive, right click and select `Get shareable link`, then paste that here.
Comment: I already told you, even if I could, I'm not going to upload anything. I already have accidentally almost broken a computer before. I'm not doing anything I don't know how to do well.
Answer:
The above is known as the Missing Texture texture. It shows when a block does not have a valid texture in the current resource pack.
In order to fix this, ensure the following:

The texture exists in ANY resource pack
The texture has an even horizontal and vertical size
The texture is a valid image

If any of these is invalid, the above block will show instead.
From the Wiki:

For block or item textures to function, they must have equal width and height (or height that is a multiple of the width if animated); otherwise it will display as a purple and black checkerboard. For most other textures, the file will simply be stretched to fit the required dimensions.
Most solid blocks will turn any transparent area fully opaque. The rest of the blocks, along with most entity textures will allow clear areas of the texture. All items and any blocks or entities which are semi-transparent by default support semi-transparency.
If a file does not exist in any resource pack, including the default, it will display as a purple and black checkerboard.
Comment: Thank you Kaz Wolfie. That is the texture that is being displayed. I know this is a texture the exists in any resource pack, and it is a valid image, so I will check the image size, and I will get back to you. Thank you.
Comment: I just checked. I meant to make the size 106 by 106 pixels. It was accidentally 106 by 107. Thank you.
Comment: If this solved your problem, hit the grey checkmark! it marks the question as solved and gives you some valuable rep. Be sure it works in game first though.
Comment: I just saved and... IT WORKS NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Thank you, very, very, much.

Help with minecraft texture pack


Word for the bottom of the well

Question: Is there a word that describes not the entire well, but only the bottom of it? I've seen some use 'cauldron', but I don't know how common it is. Thanks.
Comment: Not aware of a single word that means "bottom of the well". For a dry well, you could use "floor [of the well]", but I don't think this would work if the well is "working" and contains water.
Answer: It's definitely not cauldron. A cauldron is a large pot used to cook or boil food on an open fire.
The phrase bottom of the well would imply something along the lines of being in a position of little or no power, or at the lowest rung of a ladder. Is this the sentiment you want to convey, or are you looking for a more technical term?
Comment: I am reviewing posts and this is the third or fourth of your answers that has been flagged for deletion as low quality. This comment is to explain how SE EL&U works. At SE we're looking for answers that provide some explanation and context as explained in the [Help, here](https://biology.stackexchange.com/help/how-to-answer). Don't just make an assertion; explain why your answer is right, ideally with citations. Otherwise how can anyone judge if your answer is correct? We only have your word to go on it. As you can see, answers that don't include explanations may be removed.
Comment: Thanks for explaining. First day here and I'm earning the ropes. Will add citations.

Word for the bottom of the well


Exact differential equations and holonomic constraints

Question: I understand that if a constraint equation given on a differential form is exact, that means it is also holonomic since I can find a solution. But there are other types of differential equations, like separable and linear, such that I can find an equation in the form of a holonomic constraint. Why is it that being exact is a condition, rather than just having a solution of the type $f(x,y) = 0$?
Answer:
Here I would like to mention the notion of a semi-holonomic constraint
$$ \sum_{j=1}^n a_j(q,t)~ \mathrm{d}q^j + a_t(q,t)~\mathrm{d}t~=~0, \tag{1'}$$
which puts an
inexact differential equal to zero.
It is possible to incorporate semi-holonomic constraints into Lagrange equations, cf. e.g. my Phys.SE answer here.
Note that eq. (1') does not mean that we demand that the $n+1$ co-vector components
$$ a_t(q,t)~= a_1(q,t)~= \ldots ~=~a_n(q,t)~=~0 \qquad\qquad (\longleftarrow \text{Wrong!} )
\tag{2'}$$
of a co-vector (1') should be zero. Perhaps this potential misunderstanding (2') is secretly the core of OP's question?
Rather eq. (1') means that
$$ \sum_{j=1}^n a_j(q,t)~ \dot{q}^j + a_t(q,t)~=~0. \tag{3'}$$
In particular, a holonomic constraint
$$f(q,t)~=~0 \tag{0}$$
can be put on the above semi-holonomic form
$$ \mathrm{d}f~=~\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{\partial f}{\partial q^j}~ \mathrm{d}q^j +  \frac{\partial f}{\partial t}~\mathrm{d}t~=~0 .\tag{1}$$
Explicitly, eq. (1) means that the total time derivative
$$ \frac{df}{dt}~\equiv~ \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{\partial f}{\partial q^j}~ \dot{q}^j +  \frac{\partial f}{\partial t}~=~0\tag{3}$$
is zero.

References:

H. Goldstein, Classical Mechanics, Section 2.4.


How someone got the idea for the completeness axiom?

Question: I don't understand what was the Motivation for the completeness Axiom and why Analysis and calculus would not work without it:
Comment: Do you mean the *completeness axiom*?
Comment: I think these things usually come from trying to prove something, realising you're making an assumption, trying to prove the assumption is true, then finally realising that the assumption can't be proved or disproved and is an underlying axiom. But I'll await more informed answers.
Comment: @rwbogl the title is now changed
Comment: Related discussion can be found [here](https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1586543/70305) and [here](https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2282923/70305).
Answer: I don't have any good historical information, but I do have some intuition for you.
Analysis, and therefore calculus, is centered around the idea of limits. What happens as we approach a certain point? What is the result of repeating a process indefinitely? The Greeks used this idea in their method of exhaustion to calculate the volume of solids. Newton and Leibniz used this idea with their "infinitesimals" and "fluxions." None of these were rigorous methods, but they got the job done.
When we finally started to introduce rigor into analysis, we needed to really understand what we meant by a limit. This gave rise to the $\epsilon$-$\delta$ definition of the limit and various other formalizations of ideas that were only intuitive up to that point.
The notion of limit and supremum (and infimum) are intimately connected. Roughly, we want to be able to say that, in as many cases as we reasonably can, a process that we carry out ought to have a limit. The completeness axiom (though it can be proven with some set theory) tells us that this always works in the context of bounded sets. Given a set bounded from above, we can inch our way closer and closer to the upper bound, and are guaranteed to approach some limit, namely the supremum.
This idea turns out to be crucial in defining and proving various things that calculus students often take for granted in analysis. As a basic example, how do you define $$x^p$$ for arbitrary real $p$? Calculus students are well aware that $$\frac{dx^p}{dx} = p x^{p - 1},$$ but how do we prove that? It turns out that one way to define this quantity is as $$x^p = \sup_{\substack{a/b \in \mathbb{Q} \\ a/b \leq p}} x^{a/b},$$ where $$x^{a/b} = \left(\sqrt[b]{x}\right)^a.$$ To even make this definition we must assume that such an upper bound exists for every suitable $x$.
So really, the completeness axiom is about just what is says: completeness. We want to be justified in taking "limits" - or things that look like limits - as often as possible; that is, we want our system to be as complete as possible.
Comment: Okey this was really helpfull to fuel my Intuition About this Topic. I am just rephrasing what you were saying but if I take the above set which is bounded from below and not empty I can theoretically Always look at a Point between the Bound and the Point that I know that exists and test if it is in the set or not. If not then this Point is a lower Bound otherwise if I would say if it is not a lower Bound then there must be a Point that is smaller than the Point in Question which is called a lower Bound but such apoint cannot exist because the Point in Question is not in the set.
Comment: If it is in the set then I go down, if it is not in the set I go up. Rinse and repeat this is a Limit process.
Comment: That's the rough idea! The general result is this: Every bounded set contains a sequence that approaches its infimum (or supremum).
Answer: Core theorems in analysis rely on this. Examples:

Heine-Borel
Continuous functions on closed intervals attain maxima/minima
intermediate value theorem.

These theorems are essential in developping calculus (differentiation and integration).
Answer: Consider sequence or rational numbers $a_n = (1+\frac 1 n)^n$. Does it converge? If we're working with real numbers, then yes, $\lim_{x\to\infty}a_n = e$. If we were working with rational numbers (which don't satisfy the completness axiom) then no, it doesn't. Completness axiom ensures that sequences which "ought" to converge, actually do.


How does the voltage source provide energy in a circuit?

Question: I understand that a voltage source drives the current to flow from the terminal with lower potential to the terminal with higher potential. However, if the electrons are gaining potential energy then how can it also be supplying energy to the circuit?
Comment: Does it make sense to you that if the battery provides high energy electrons into the circuit, and collects low energy electrons on the other side, that energy must have gone into the circuit?
Comment: Ahh, that might be the source of confusion, and I may have worded my comment imprecisely.  The numbers we use for electromagnetic fields are all based around positive charges.  We would say that the EMF near the source of the electrons has the "lowest" value, but because electrons have a negative charge, that is the highest potential energy for the electron.  They then move towards the point where the EMF is "highest," which because the electron is negative, is actually the lowest potential energy.
Comment: Glad you got Cort's explanation. It took me a long time to understand the positive charge CONVENTION thing when I first met this idea. My first science books were all worded in terms of electron flow, so it really threw me when I learnt about the mysterious "conventional current" notion. Our wording is back to front because the language developed in the 18th and 19th centuries, I think, but it was certainly well before we knew that current in circuits was carried by electrons with negative charge. So we only had 50% chance of "getting it right".
Comment: Yes! So what I'm confused about then is what that potential is referring to? Is it not potential energy?
Comment: Yes, it is potential energy.  The electrons entering the circuit have more potential energy than those leaving.  It's like the electrons entering the circuit are at the top of a hill, and roll down to the bottom of the hill, doing work along the way.  Except in this case, instead of a hill and a gravitational field, we have an eletromagnetic field which causes electrons near one terminal of the battery to have more electromagnetic potential than ones near the other end.
Comment: But I thought the electrons were moving to an area of higher potential?
Comment: Ooooh! Okay that makes a lot of sense. Thanks a lot for your help!
Answer:
However, if the electrons are gaining potential energy [...]

Actually, they are not.

[...] then how can it also be supplying energy to the circuit?

There indeed is a reduction in potential energy, transformed into kinetic energy.
It all comes down to the answer to your first line:

I understand that a voltage source drives the current to flow from the terminal with lower potential to the terminal with higher potential.

This is correct. But. Two types of charges exist. A positive and a negative. What would happen if you suddenly replaced all negative charge-carriers with positive charge-carriers?
The flow will be opposite. The battery is creating a high negative net charge at one terminal, which is the reason that electrons are repelled and want to move away from this end towards the other end. Had they been positive, then they would be attracted to this terminal instead. The current flow would be opposite. In some circuits (most common ones with metallic wiring) the current flow is made from electrons. In others (semiconductors, ionic solutions, etc.) it is made from positive charges (or a mix). So it is not an irrelevant consideration.
So, which terminal is the "high-potential" one and which is the "low-potential" one? You are thinking, that a charge flowing from a low to a high potential must gain energy - but clearly, electrons moving one way or positive charges moving the other way, gives the same final result - energy will be spent as they move through the circuit in the same manner. They are two equivalent ways of thinking of the circuit.
Which do we call high and which low potential? People in the past have made the decision to always name it as if the charge-carrier was positive. The terminal (or point in the circuit) of higher potential is thus the terminal positive charges will move away from - and a "lower potential" point is a point that attracts positive charges. Regardless of what the actual sign of the charge is. This is a convention, so we didn't have to think in charge-carriers all the time.
So it is correct to think that the "high potential" battery terminal actually is a "low potential" point for the electrons. Because they loose energy on their way to that point. Like a ball falling from high potential on a shelf to low potential on the flow. We just don't say this conventionally. But keep it in mind, and then you always understand what potentials mean.


create custom listener inside an activity and call it from another activity

Question: I have a problem in declaring a custom listener inside an activity and not inside a java class.The problem is how can i create it,trigger it and then implement it.The idea is as follows:
My activity detail will be attached to a listener called download. When the user downloads the book the listener will be triggered and then added to an arrayadapter in other activity called for example DownloadedBooksActivity.
Comment: please edit your question and include your code "Not the image of it" with more details to make it easier to help you
Answer: For this, you can store data of DownloadedBooksActivity in a database and then observe changes in it.
As soon as the download complete update the downloaded item in the database and then DownloadedBooksActivity will automatically listen to the changes.
For this you can use Room or ObjectBox.


Illustrator. Spacing between parallel lines of art brush

Question: Hello everyone I am new to Adobe illustrator and I am trying to create a brush that allows me to draw a path with double parallel lines. I have created an art brush and everything works correctly, the problem is that when I modify the thickness of my path, I would like my 2 lines to remain thick and what would be modified was the space between them, this can be achieved somehow mode. Thank you!!
Comment: thats what brushes do. use offset effect instead.
Answer: Use Offset Path effect.
In the Appearance panel, click the fx button and choose Path > Offset Path.
That way the path becomes like a closed object which then gets the stroke applied. So the Offset controls the distance between lines and the Stroke Weight only affects the thickness of the parallel lines.
If the path intersects itself the lower lines won't be visible. Can be good or bad depending on what you want.
Answer: To avoid the end closing strokes seen with Offset Path... And the scale issues present in brushes....
Another option is to merely use 2 strokes stacked on top of each other in the Appearance Panel. Set the black stroke thicker, and the white stroke thinner.

The problem with this method can be the inner stroke color. It may be possible to simply use any background color (as opposed to white) for the thinner stroke. It depends upon the artwork.
However, if you do this and set the entire object's Blend Mode to Multiply or Darken, that inner white stroke visually disappears.....

This keeps the object structure as a single path to alter. It's then a simple matter to change the stroke weights if desired.

And you can use the Width Tool on just one of the strokes. I thinned the white stroke on the curve below with the Width Tool.

Or merely set a Stroke Profile on the Stroke Panel for one of the strokes...
Answer:
A) there's a simple black curve and a pair of green lines. The line pair is dragged to brushes and set to be an art brush.
B) The art brush is applied to the black curve
C) The stroke width of B is modified, in this case it's done with the width tool. The width of green curves doesn't stay the same and you obviously do not like it.
D) This is what I think you expect, only the distance of the green curves varies
Two solutions exist:

Expand the appearance of D and change the wanted stroke width. The drawback is that expand appearance creates 2 separate paths, it's no more a single curve.

Apply to the green line pair Object > Compound path > Make, do it before you drag it to the brushes. The result (D) is still an editable single path.

Offset path and inserting another stroke with offset are other possibilities which work if the distance between the lines stays the same. I used the width tool to offer something more general.
Comment: Thanks for your reply. I have tried option 2 to continue having the path editable, but I can't get the lines to stay the same thickness and only change the spacing...

I must add the compound path before creating the brush, right? and adds it to each of the lines or to the group of both.


Can the correct TIGER Line Id be returned for an address from the PostGIS Tiger Geocoder?

Question: After reviewing the PostGIS Tiger Geocoder documentation, I don't see a method of returning the TIGER Line Id for the address.  I would assume this is information is available internally as part of the the street range interpolation processing.
http://postgis.net/docs/Extras.html
Answer: A geometry is returned as part of the geocode() result, by which you can use to locate the nearest ID from any table that has a geometry column.
<code>select gid from tiger.edges order by st_setsrid(the_geom,4326) <-> ST_GeomFromText('POINT(-71.06941 42.34225)',4326) limit 1;
</code>


Access to webcam in browser?

Question: For an internal project we would like to play with building a video conferencing system. We are able to decide the browser that the user has to use and can install plugins.
The only requirement is that the browser and plugins must be free and work over Linux and Mac. (Don't care about Windows)
What is the best way to do access the webcam and mic stream from a user for sending to a server?
Ideally I would like to do this plugin free but I can see no implementation of the devices tag in HTML5 in any browser yet, unless someone knows different.
If its flash/silverlight, any quick examples of capture and sending to a server?
Also any examples of streaming video from a server to a client would be useful, so we can stick it all together. This I know we can do in HTML5 so this would be a preference.
The client connection part is all I would need as we are building the server, this is the internal challenge.
Basically I'm looking for good examples and best practices for sending and receiving this information.
Edit: As I have discovered from some groups the device tag is no where near completion. So answers will have to be flash/silverlight (does that work on linux??).
See a demo of device tag done on a webkit custom build: https://labs.ericsson.com/blog/beyond-html5-conversational-voice-and-video-implemented-webkit-gtk
Answer: Check out the Red5 project. I think that it is what you're looking for. The examples are quite good.
http://red5.org

Access to webcam in browser?


How to properly perform sentiment analysis?

Question: How to properly perform sentiment analysis for text with 300-600 words? If I use TextBlob and clean my  data and remove stopwords(extended words and comma backslash..etc)  do I need to tokenize the text into sentence then into words then perform lemmatization then apply textblob to lemmatize data? because I think I read somewhere that textblob do all of these as well as pos tag when calling TextBlob() ?
Answer: A rule-based approach is a practical approach to analyzing text without training or using machine learning models. The result of this approach is a set of rules based on which the text is labelled as positive/negative/neutral. These rules are also known as lexicons. Hence, the Rule-based approach is called Lexicon based approach.
Widely used lexicon-based approaches are TextBlob, VADER, SentiWordNet.
Textblob
It is a simple python library that offers API access to different NLP tasks such as sentiment analysis, spelling correction, etc.
Textblob sentiment analyzer returns two properties for a given input sentence:

Polarity is a float that lies between [-1,1], -1 indicates negative sentiment and +1 indicates positive sentiments.
Subjectivity is also a float that lies in the range of [0,1]. Subjective sentences generally refer to personal opinion, emotion, or judgment.

because I think I read somewhere that textblob do all of these as well as pos tag when calling TextBlob() ?

And yes without any preprocessing, you can apply textblob or vader pre-trained models
from textblob import TextBlob

testimonial = TextBlob("The food was great!")
print(testimonial.sentiment)

Sentiment(polarity=1.0, subjectivity=0.75)

from vaderSentiment.vaderSentiment import SentimentIntensityAnalyzer

analyzer = SentimentIntensityAnalyzer()
sentence = "The food was great!"
vs = analyzer.polarity_scores(sentence)
print("{:-<65} {}".format(sentence, str(vs)))

{'compound': 0.6588, 'neg': 0.0, 'neu': 0.406, 'pos': 0.594}

But it is always recommended to clean and preprocess your text before applying the text blob or Vader, because they do only minimal preprocessing.
These are some basic text preprocessing steps:

Lowercase / UpperCase
Punctuation/special characters Removal
Remove HTML Code and URL Links
Spell Checks
Tokenization
Removing Stop Words
Normalization

Stemming or Lemmatization


Cannot connect Hc-05 with PIC16f877A

Question: I am trying to connect my HC-05 bluetooth module with PIC16F877A. I know we have to use USART to talk with bluetooth module. So I started with USART of PIC by reading its datasheet.
I am using MPLABX IDE with XC8 compiler and i am not interested in using any libraries.
<code>// CONFIG
#pragma config FOSC = HS       // Oscillator Selection bits (HS oscillator)
#pragma config WDTE = OFF       // Watchdog Timer Enable bit (WDT disabled)
#pragma config PWRTE = ON       // Power-up Timer Enable bit (PWRT enabled)
#pragma config BOREN = ON       // Brown-out Reset Enable bit (BOR enabled)
#pragma config LVP = OFF        // Low-Voltage (Single-Supply) In-Circuit Serial Programming Enable bit (RB3 is digital I/O, HV on MCLR must be used for programming)
#pragma config CPD = OFF        // Data EEPROM Memory Code Protection bit (Data EEPROM code protection off)
#pragma config WRT = OFF        // Flash Program Memory Write Enable bits (Write protection off; all program memory may be written to by EECON control)
#pragma config CP = OFF         // Flash Program Memory Code Protection bit (Code protection off)

// #pragma config statements should precede project file includes.
// Use project enums instead of #define for ON and OFF.

#define _XTAL_FREQ 20000000
#include<xc.h>

void main(void)
{

unsigned int i;
TRISA=0xff;

//UART
TRISC=0X00;
TXSTA=0X20; // TX RS232 settings
RCSTA=0X80; // RX RS232 Settings
SPBRG=31; // Baud rate is set based on Crystal clock

TXSTAbits.TXEN=1; // Enable RS232 transmission
RCSTAbits.SPEN=1; // Enable RS232 reception

while(1)
{

TXREG= 65;
__delay_ms(200);

}
}
</code>
I used the above code to send a char 'A' from PIC to USART and was successful in reading it using my serial monitor on PC (with RS232).
Now form what I understood, if I replace the RS232 with my bluetooth module I should get the same char 'A' transmitted to my mobile phone.
I am using Bluetooth Terminal android app to check the reception of data. But the after the app connects to the module it just shows a blank screen. I dont receive anything.
What could be the reason please help me!!!!!!.
Things that I tried :

There is no problem with the baud-rate, both my Rs232 and HC-05 works at 9600. I have ensured the same using my arduino and HC-05.
there is no logic level problem I have used a potential divider to shift 5V to 3.3V.

I am quite new here so forgive me if my question is not that appropriate.
Answer: Hi guys I finally made a full working program for interfacing PIC with HC-05. The complete details can be found here: https://circuitdigest.com/microcontroller-projects/bluetooth-interfacing-with-pic-microcontroller
Comment: It's better to include code into your answer instead of referring to some external page. And include explanation what fixed your problem.
Comment: Why is that? Why should I create a duplicate when I have already posted the details there?  NO OFFENCE!! Just curious to know.
Comment: https://electronics.stackexchange.com/help/how-to-answer
Comment: Good answer = you explain solution to the problem in this answer. Bad answer = link to another site where is the answer.

Cannot connect Hc-05 with PIC16f877A


pork went over internal temperature, can I make it tender by putting the oven in a lower temperature for a couple of hours?

Question: I cooked a piece of pork shoulder and i put it at 250 celcius for 30 min and 130 celcius for 1 hours. Now the internal temperature is well above the 71 celcius mark and the meat looks tough. If i put the oven at a lower temperature can the meat soften up and make it tender?
Comment: There's a similar question on here asking for advice on how to deal with a roast (might not have been pork) that came out tough. ... but I'm having no luck in finding it.  (I think I answered that you should cut it (across the grain), and then give it a slow braise ... so basically what you suggested, but with slicing, too)
Answer: Your pork will not become tender for quite a while. If you plan to shred it, you'll want to aim for about 205 degrees F / 96 degrees C.
You don't have to go that high if your goal is to slice.
Either way, a cut like pork shoulder is best cooked low and slow to allow all of the marbled fat to break down. It's an incredibly resilient cut of meat, but it requires patience.
While it is technically "done" as in safe to eat, it's not reached its culinary potential.
Comment: +1 this... pork shoulder should have a minimum of 6-8 hours on a low heat. I typically cook (smoke) mine for 12+ hours. If you don't have that kind of time/patience, try the shorter time, wrapping the meat in foil halfway through, and letting it rest wrapped in foil for 30min+ after done.
Answer: The toughness is caused by shrinking the connective tissue in the muscle with heat.  There is nothing you can do, post cooking, to make it tender. About the only thing you can do is shred it.


How to insert data into the excel using LINQ in Selenium C#?

Question: For a login check case-> how to insert data into the Excel sheet after each login is checked whether the login credentials are valid or not using LINQ in Selenium C#.
Answer: LINQ is not something that can insert data to excel. So the answer for your question is "you can't do that with only LINQ"


How to hang up (disconnect, terminate,..) incomings call?

Question: "How do you hang up incoming calls (in Android of course)?"
First, I know this question has been asked and answered several times, and the response is always "you can't". But if we look in the market we get a few applications (all private software, no access to the source code... :-( ) that do this action, such as CallFilter, Panda firewall and others...
So... does somebody know how these apps do the hang up action, (or terminate, or disconnect or whatever you call it..)?
And other question, if the first don't get a response.. does somebody know how send an incoming call to the voice mail?
Of course, all questions are about how to do it programmatically. So with the voicemail question I know there's a flag in contacts that is used for that, but like I said, I'd like to know the programmatical way.
Thanks all!
Edit 1:
I have been seeing the LogCat traces using the application CallFilter and one trace seems to be interest, when it receives an incoming call, the PHONE_STATE is CALL_STATE_RINGING and fast appears one trace:
"05-03 19:32:34.416: INFO/UsageStats(78): Something wrong here, didn't expect com.android.phone to be paused"
and when CallFilter have done whatever do new trace "05-03 19:32:34.486:
INFO/UsageStats(78): Unexpected resume of com.android.phone while already resumed in com.android.phone"
appear, so i think CallFilter do something in one object com.android.phone, but i don't know how access to this.. any idea??
Edit 2:
I have performed at other times, and i don't see anymore the log traces above, so can be that the above may be that this does not mean anything.. i'm not sure..
the CallFilter application simply show one sec the incoming call, and then hang up.. how they do!!!???
Comment: Have you found a solution? If yes, please post is as a self-answer.
Answer: I don't know how to hang up incoming calls, not sure if it's possible.
You can, i think, enter airplane mode programmatically, but it's a brutal method and really not advised. Changing such a setting should be done only by the user when he chooses to.
Comment: I think too that enter in airplane mode is a brutal method, sure there is something better... thank u!!!
Answer: You may try using this API:
http://www.androidjavadoc.com/0.9_beta/com/android/internal/telephony/ITelephony.html


Lighting without highly visible shadows

Question: How I can achieve lighting that we have in Autumn mornings using cycles ? We have some ambient light with very blurry shadows - I'm thinking about something like this:

https://farm4.staticflickr.com/3565/3403192179_0c3044e5df.jpg.
Answer: A shadow is merely the absence of light. The sharpness or distinction of a shadow is determined by the area from which the light is emitted. Thus, both increasing the size of a light and/or adding more (spread out) lights will create the appearance of subtle or blurry shadows. Simply put, more light means less shadows.
In practice there are a few ways to achieve that sort of overcast lighting:

Large light source
Multiple lights
Environment lighting

1: Large light source
All lamps (except the Hemi) in Cycles have the option to increase their Size:

The exact size value that works for you will depend entirely on the scale of your scene and how far away the light is. A small lamp (left) will cast harsh shadows, while a large lamp (right) will cast soft shadows:

2: Multiple lights
Similarly, you can add more lights which will increase the total area that is emitting light.
On the left is a single area lamp with Size = 6, and on the right are 5 area lamps (with reduced intensity) arranged like a dome above Suzanne, also with Size = 6:

Using multiple light sources is a little more tricky to control, but creates slightly more interesting shadows. Here is a screenshot of the scene rendered for the right image above:

3. Environment Lighting
Cycles allows you to emit light from the World - an infinitely far away sphere around the scene.
By default, the world colour is a dark grey (left), however if you click Use Nodes, change it to white, increase the strength and add some buildings just out of view to block some light, it can be used quite effectively (right):

Here is a screenshot of the scene rendered for the right image above:
Answer: In the photograph, the sun is behind the clouds or behind the buildings, so there's no clear directional light source. On the road there are blurry reflections due the rain.
You could use an environment texture that was created in similar weather conditions. On the road you can mix in a glossy shader with textured roughness or bump mapping to simulate the reflections.

Lighting without highly visible shadows


Windows Recovery Boot folder empty

Question: I just install Ubuntu and I'm having problems booting into any operating system. I'm currently on the live USB and I was looking around on the hard drive. There is a partition called ESP which has a folder called EFI/Boot. I am assuming this is where the Windows system boots from. If I look in the RECOVERY partition, there is another folder called BOOT, but it is empty. I cannot boot into any partitions and I would like to boot into the recovery partition to hopefully restore my system. Can I copy the ESP bootx64.efi file into the recovery boot folder?
Comment: sounds like the recovery partition was wiped. Did you recentlly install a secondary os?  The best way to solve Windows boot problems is to use Windows Recovery Console to do so.
Comment: Yes I did. Can I fix it by just copying the boot file? Also, the recovery partition has other files in it, just not in the boot folder
Comment: How can I access the Windows Recovery Console? I cannot boot into anything Windows related.
Comment: Use a Windows 7 installation disk, then repair grub, if thats what your using to boot to the other os.
Answer: On UEFI booting starts with .efi files only from EFI System Partition(ESP).
ESP on UEFI/GPT disk is the equivalent of active partition on BIOS/MBR style disk for Windows 7/8.
So you would not repair booting copying files from ESP to any other partition on a GPT disk.
The simplest way for repairing Windows 7/8 booting is to use a Recovery CD/USB - you can prepare it on another computer. This recovery CD/USB should be the same version as the installed Windows OS - for example Windows 8/64-bit!
It is a good practice to have a Recovery or Live CD/USB for every installed OS on your computer for emergency.

Creating/installing/configuring a recovery partition without a running Windows OS is almost impossible.

Windows Recovery Boot folder empty


Does VI-VII prepare i in D natural minor?

Question: Why can we say that VI-VII prepares i in D natural minor ? VI is the chord B♭-D-F and VII the chord C-E-G. I am struggling to answer this question...
Comment: Related: [Is there a name for the progression ♭VI–♭VII–I?](https://music.stackexchange.com/q/80456/21766)
Answer: VI (or vi in major) can function as a predominant, and VII can function as a dominant. And as with your prior question, this is not limited to the key of D, but is true for all 24 keys.
Thus VI–VII–i is a variation of the textbook PD–D–T (predominant, dominant, tonic) chord progression.
It's less common in the classical style, where the V chord reigned supreme. But in popular music of the last century or so, this progression is very common.
It can also happen in major (using what we call mode mixture), like in Billy Joel's "She's Got a Way." Here the V resolves deceptively to ♭VI, which then moves ahead into a ♭VI–♭VII–I progression.
Answer: Firstly, D natural minor isn't a key. D minor is. And VI>VII will be the same in any minor key, not just Dm.
However, we'll speak in key Dm. VI is B♭ maj., and VII is Cmaj. And going to Dm after that is sort of expected. The direction is good. Actually, it's three quarters of the Andalucian sequence, backwards. Given that, if using only the D nat. min. notes, there's no leading note in the 'dominant' chord, that VII does act rather like the dominant chord in this situation.
It could also be said that CEG represents the top three notes of Am7, which tries to be the 'dominant' in that key.
Comment: Okay but I even with the name of the cadence, I can't find why VI -VII prepares i in Dm ? Can we explain this because VI and VII are substitution of main functions ?
Comment: VI-VII-i in d is the same as IV-V-vi in F where C has the dominant function. So we "steal" or borrow this progression from the relative key. F.
Answer: VI-VII-i in D minor can also be interpreted as IV-V-vi in F major. Both VI and IV function as pre-dominant chords, and V-vi is a deceptive cadence. Since VII-i in D minor sounds the same as V-vi in F major, we can (tenuously) say that VII prepares i in D minor.
Answer: I'll expand a bit on Tim's answer. The pattern VI-VII-i in any minor key is just three notes along the scale, ending on the tonic. Scale passages sound good however long (if not so long as to be boring.)
In many cases, composers in either major or minor keys treat the vii0 chord as a dominant seventh with an omitted root. (The vii07 is also treated as a dominant ninth without the root.)  (There are cases were vii0 is treated as having step 7 as the root.)  In the OP, one could by analogy treat VI-VII-i as an IV7-v7-i pattern which looks more like a cadence. The replacement of the upper version of step 7 with the lower (C♯ with C in this case) makes for a "softer" sound (at least that's the name that's been used for about 1500 years). In "tonal" (as opposed to "modal" rather than to "atonal") styles, the half-step and tritone resolution make the cadence "harder" (again the elder terminology).
So the pattern is very close to a IV-V-i pattern without the roots explicitly expressed.
Answer: I'll try to give an additional opinion:
D-minor is the   relative key of F-major
As we are in d-natural minor we have exactly the identical tone reservoir like F-major. The root tones of the scales are d (minor) and F (major).  In F the perfect cadence (IV-V-I) is Bb-C-F, while there is also the false cadence Bb-C-Dm (IV-V-vi) which is VI-VII-i in d- natural minor. So you can see, the CEG chord that  we hear as the dominant chord in F can  also have a dominant function in d-minor (analogue to it's function in the  progression to its relative key D major: bVI-bVII-I.


Drupal 6 on php 5.5 compatibility

Question: I have running 20+ Drupal 6 sites on php 5.4 without large issues, but what about php 5.5?
Answer: I am doing it.  The only problem I found was with Panels, but this post fixed it.  Also, I had to turn down the default error reporting, but I've not had the site crash.
Comment: Thanks, i have turned off error reporting since php 5.4 either :)
Comment: Are you using Views with no issues? That's a huge known compatibility problem.
Answer: I just encountered an issue with PHP 5.5.14 and Drupal 6. The problem was that logging in was not working. It would refresh the screen and nothing happen.
The issue is that PHP 5.5.14 has very long session id's in the eyes of Drupal 6. Longer than the 64 characters allowed in the sessions table. I had to increase the size of the sid field in the session table to 255 characters in order to get login working. Once I did this, it fixed the problem. There is a similar issue for accesslog but I have not corrected that yet as it is optional and does not seem to affect functionality of my site.
Answer: I'm also on PHP 5.5.
I ran in several problems, not all specific to PHP, but the main problem with PHP was the large number of notices that appeared. I have a version, on my end, that fixes most of these. I get a few when I do some obscure administration once in a while.
However, the hardest was to lose XCache. That's not directly linked to PHP, it's more to do with the fact that they upgraded to a much newer version of XCache and it caused tremendous problems with views (on all pages, not specifically on a page with a view, it's in link with loading the PHP files because the views programmers have what XCache considers bugs in there...)
I've done it a while back and I don't recall, but I think I turned off a couple of modules that would generate many errors and I was not really fond of so I could lose them.

Drupal 6 on php 5.5 compatibility


Is SMTP based on TCP or UDP?

Question: Is SMTP based on TCP or UDP ? I really can't confirm it . In my opinion, SMTP should be based on UDP, but someone told me that is must be TCP.
Comment: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol `SMTP uses TCP port 25`
Answer: In theory SMTP can be handled by either TCP, UDP, or some 3rd party protocol.
As defined in RFC 821, RFC 2821, and RFC 5321:

SMTP is independent of the particular transmission subsystem and
requires only a reliable ordered data stream channel.

In addition, the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority has allocated port 25 for both TCP and UDP for use by SMTP.
In practice however, most if not all organizations and applications only choose to implement the TCP protocol. For example, in Microsoft's port listing port 25 is only listed for TCP and not UDP.

The big difference between TCP and UDP that makes TCP ideal here is that TCP checks to make sure that every packet is received and re-sends them if they are not whereas UDP will simply send packets and not check for receipt. This makes UDP ideal for things like streaming video where every single packet isn't as important as keeping a continuous flow of packets from the server to the client.
Considering SMTP, it makes more sense to use TCP over UDP. SMTP is a mail transport protocol, and in mail every single packet is important. If you lose several packets in the middle of the message the recipient might not even receive the message and if they do they might be missing key information. This makes TCP more appropriate because it ensures that every packet is delivered.
Comment: UDP is **NOT** a reliable ordered data stream channel.  An example of such a channel that SMTP runs over is TLS.  Perhaps SMTP could be extended to SCTP or MBTCP one day —that's not on the horizon yet.
Answer: Seems the SMTP as internet standard uses only reliable Transport protocol. RFC821 has TCP, NCP, NITS as examples!
Comment: SNMP is not SMTP
Comment: @GambitSupport It was a typo (I'm dealing with both SNMP and SMTP so kind of normal to mix them)! the RFC refers to SMTP, and not SNMP, so the answer is still valid.

Is SMTP based on TCP or UDP?


Could not start the command. pdflatex -synctex=1 -interaction=nonstopmode %.tex (with extra info to the other questions of this type :p)

Question: Ive just installed MiKTeX and TeXmaker using this instillation guide: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yPnfHRE_W_g its been great so far but when I try to fun my 'Hello World' pdf I get this error message:
Could not start the command. pdflatex -synctex=1 -interaction=nonstopmode %.tex

my TeXmaker is configured idntially to the screen shot in this simmilar quetion: PdfLaTeX in Texmaker doesn't work: "Could not start the command" . However my LaTeX and PdfLaTeX paths are what the what the suggested answer to that querey already, i.e.,
LaTeX: latex -interaction=nonstopmode %.tex

PdfLaTeX: pdflatex -synctex=1 -interaction=nonstopmode %.tex

When I try to run the file from termainal it brings up the MiKTeX editor TeXworks and the pdf runs fine from there so im really not sure what ive done wrong, Im assuming in need to add a path to TeXmaker however im not sure how to do that
EDIT: sorry for the slow response  this is my configure settings:
Comment: (1) Exactly what OS are you on? (2) Running latex from the terminal does not normally bring op and editor. Please explain in more detail exactly what you did?
Comment: im on windows 10, i did cd to the file directory then ran that file (only one in there) this brought up the TeXworks program with the code i had just written in TeXmaker
Comment: Exactly what did you type on the commandline? I would expect you to type something line `pdflatex file.tex` (for your choice of filename)
Comment: Ah no, i just typed the file name to open it, didn't cross my mind to open it as a pdf. This probably wasnt the best time to ask this question as im going to be away from my computer for today and most of tomorrow
Comment: erh, `pdflatex` converts the `.tex` to PDF. it does not open it as a pdf.
Comment: Does that save a separate copy as a pdf then? Slightly immaterial though, do you have any thoughts why the TeXmaker isnt running for me?
Comment: You can see pdflatex as a sort of compiler, it takes the `.tex` as the input, and gives a PDF as the output. I say something is strange with your windows. Normally TeXMaker picks up the location of pdflatex from the system PATHs. Have you tried the standard Windows solution: reboot? Otherwise try reinstalling TeXMaker
Comment: I'm confused about "terminal ... brings up the MiKTeX editor".  If you go to the directory containing `file.tex` and type `pdflatex file`, what happens?
Comment: ive added a screen shot of the temail to the post, im not sure what i should be getting. in my folder i get a pdf, a text doc and a .aux file all with the same name
Answer: The configuration needs to be as under::

The correct command in the terminal / shell window needs to be as under::

>pdflatex story.tex

is the operative part of the compile command and results in the correponding pdf file with the same name as the .tex file --in this case story.pdf -- in the same folder-- the message at the end of compile operation is as under::
Comment: So you think i need to add '--shell-escape' to my command line as thats the only thing different. Thank you for the information, ill try it when i get to my computer.
Comment: leave out the shell escape --thats for certain other dependencies--you may like to upload screen shot of your configuration


Notification icons did not appear on status bar in Oppo F1s

Question: I am using the oppo f1s 3gb 32gb in Pakistan. I recently update my mobile to Marshmallow from lollipop 5.1. Now the problem is that i receive notifications but but their notification icon did not shown on status bar.
Answer: Here i confirmed from Official customer care office of oppo mobiles that recent update of marshmallow in oppo f1s have this issue . and can't be resolved in marshmallow. They suggest me to downgrade your phone back to lolipop 5.1 to remove this issue. So i personally suggest that don't update your oppo f1s to mashmallow .
Answer: First, make sure whatsapp notifications are on. Go into WhatsApp settings, notifications, and make sure all notifications are on.
There are a few possibilities as to why whatsapp shows that you received a message, but there was no notification.
First, if you have muted a contact or a group, and deselected "show notifications" then WhatsApp will still show that number on the app icon, but no notification will come.
Anther reason could be, that you simply cleared notifications. In that case the number on the app icon will still stay
Comment: I already made confirm all these substances. And after that i posted this question. This is a technical issue.


I have hit a weight loss plateau. Could my lower water intake have something to do with this?

Question: I have hit a weight loss plateau.
I have noticed that I have started drinking far less water than when I started my workout plan, and even a bit more sugar. So could it be that because of my lower water intake I have hit this weight loss plateau?
Thank you for your help.:)
Comment: Water has no calories. Sugar does. However, it's more likely that you just need to change your routine around some.
Answer: 1.Well first of we must realize that our body does not want us to lose weight. Fat accumulation is the body's Survival mechanism. Back in stone age, accumulation of Fat was vital for survival(Who knew when was the next meal!). So now all you have to do to lose that fat is to CHEAT the body!
Yes, Cheat. Which means that once you follow some routine for some time, the body gets adjusted to it and tries to minimize fat loss. You have to keep changing your Workouts at least every two months to continue getting results. If you:
gym: change the type of exercises for the same muscle groups
Cycle/Running/Cardio: Mix Fast and endurance
2.Another thing to Note is that if one has excess of fat, then workouts without strict diets will easily help in initial fat loss... but as you progress, you HAVE to maintain a good Diet.
Good Diet + great Workouts = Healthy Body!!
and do change the diet patterns every two months so as to not quit due to boredom!:)
3.Regarding the water intake, Water is a prime resource for recovery. After Workouts , while resting, The body recovers all the muscles and it needs the Water. Besides, Water has never harmed any one so Drink up! ;)
Enjoy Your training and do comment if you have any queries!


Is it correct to say "So, you want to jump down from up here/there"?

Question:
Is it correct to say "So, you want to jump down from up here/there" as shown in the picture?
Comment: Does this answer your question? [Is it "I'm here" or "I'm there"?](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/115071/is-it-im-here-or-im-there) See also [Are "in there" and "in here" incorrect?](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/103092/are-in-there-and-in-here-incorrect)
Comment: @FumbleFingersReinstateMonica, no, because "from up" this the main part of the question, not "here/there"
Comment: The word ***up*** is 100% optional in your example, even if you discard (also optional)  preceding ***down***. But if it's not a duplicate, this question looks to me like "proofreading" anyway.
Comment: How can that be the main part of your question, Tom?  The distinction between "here" and "there" has nothing to do with whatever preposition might govern it.  Whether it's "here" on its own, "up here" or even "from up here", what matters is the perspective of the first person.  Your diagram only includes the second person.  "Jump down from up here" tells us that the first person speaker is on the platform -- that "here" is the same region for both speaker and listener.  "Jump down from up there" tells us that the speaker is somewhere else, maybe somewhere close to the arrow's target.
Comment: That is to say, **if** your question isn't about the difference between "here" and "there", then what is the question? Do you want to know whether the phrase "down from up there" is coherent? Do you want to know whether that's a reasonable modifier for the verb "jump"? I'm having trouble imagining any question that has "from up" as its main part. In fact, even though "down from up there" is a coherent phrase, "from up" isn't. Things like "down from" and "from up" don't work well independently. It's hard to see them as main parts of a question, since they aren't even parts of this sentence.
Comment: @GaryBotnovcan Yes, I want to know  "down from up there" is the right structure because there are so many adverbs and prepositions there.
Answer: Yes, it would be correct. The choice of "here/there" depends on the position of the speaker relative to that of the jumper.
Answer: Under a traditional analysis, we would regard "down" as a preposition when it has an object, and usually as an adverb when it doesn't.   That is to say, it was called an adverb in the phrase "go down", but a preposition in the phrase "go down the hill".
Under a more modern analysis, we can regard "down" as a preposition even when it doesn't have an object.   Instead of sometimes calling it a preposition, sometimes an adverb, and maybe sometimes a particle or something else, we can simply say that sometimes it is a transitive preposition, and sometimes an intransitive preposition.   It's a preposition that works with or without an object.
From that perspective, "down", "from", "up", and "there" are all prepositions.   The preposition "from" is strictly transitive, the preposition "there" is strictly intransitive, and the prepositions "up" and "down" can be either.

We can regard "jump down from up there" as a structure with prepositional phrases inside other prepositional phrases.
The phrase "jump down" works.
The phrase "jump there" works.
The phrase "jump down there" works.
The phrase "jump from there" works.
The phrase "jump down from there" works.
The phrases "jump up" and "jump up there" work.
The phrase "jump down from up there" works.
Different frameworks yield different analyses of these phrases.   There might be no clear and simple answer to which embedded phrases are acting as arguments and which as adjuncts.
What is clear is that not every possible combination works.
The phrase "jump down from" fails.   We can explain this failure by saying that "from" does not work as an intransitive preposition.   A required argument is missing.
The phrase "jump from up" fails.   This failure is harder to explain.   The "up" can work as an intransitive preposition.   The preposition "from" can take an intransitive preposition as its argument.
The problem here is that "from" needs something like a location as its argument.   The phrase "from there" works because "there" is locative.   The phrase "up here" represents a location, but the intransitive "up" merely represents a direction.   On its own, it doesn't make a suitable argument for "from".
Comment: That's close.  Under a traditional analysis, "down" can be an adverb on its own, "from up here" is a prepositional phrase with an adverbial function in that sentence (so, yes, an adverbial prepositional phrase), and "from up" is a *compound preposition*, as are "because of", "as of", "up to", and so on.  If we look at "up here" as a phrase by itself, the "up" is more likely a preposition rather than an adjective, but we do have to treat "up" as an adjective in other phrases -- for example, the book title *Down the Up Staircase* uses an adjective "up".
Comment: The coherent phrasing is "high up here".  The meanings of "jump high" and "jump down" are in conflict, so "jump high down" and "jump down high" don't work.  The phrasing "jump down from high up here" is sensible.  The phrasing "jump down from way up here" is a more natural word choice (at least in my dialect).  Also, "high *to* the ground" doesn't make much sense.  "high *from* the ground" is better, and "high *above* the ground" is natural, common and idiomatic.
Comment: can I explain it more simply like this? "down" is an adverb because it can stand alone, for example, "jump down". "from up here" is an adverbial phrase that was created by the preposition "from" followed by the noun "up here" in which "up"  is an adjective which modifies "here".
Comment: Suppose that the platform is very high to the ground. How would you express it, for example, "jump high down from up here" or "jump down high from up here" or "jump down from high up here"?


How would changing pregnancy time affect a female human's metabolism?

Question: If humans were altered so that pregnancy lasted only 3 months, what other biological challenges would this cause?   Obviously it would have be at substantial increase in calorie intake to support the accelerated growth of the baby but by how much? What other challenges what would arise?
Comment: In Stephen Baxter's *Evolution*, a subspecies of human develops from Roman times until the modern era, where specialized bee-queen-like females perform all the reproduction. They have evolved to gestate for approximately 3 months. I didn't find it implausible.
Comment: Well for a start her caloric intake needs to quadruple, the fetus plus the increased demand of the mother  alone will consume 7000 calories a day on average. To add to Alex her other nutrient intake needs to increase by the same which may be more than is physically possible for the human body to uptake.
Comment: The biggest problem would be ensuring that the mother has ample reserves of omega minus three fatty acids, folate (= vitamin D), iodine, iron and especially calcium. The developing baby takes those from its mother; as it is, with 9 months gestation, mothers often run the risk of getting low on those nutrients -- the normal human body doesn't store them, so they must be supplied by the diet day by day. Increasing the rate of extra consumption threefold basically requires a mechanism for women to store them for use in the event of getting pregnant. (Cont'd.)
Comment: ... (Cont'd.) But then, in order to reduce gestation to three months you must have *already* modified your women. The mother is not a passive vessel in which the embryo develops; on the contrary, signals from the mother are essential in driving and regulating the development. (That's why it is so hard to make an artificial womb.) The changes to nutrient uptake and storage are minor footnotes compared to the changes in the complex orchestration which takes a zygote and produces a baby.
Comment: Relevant, but not a dupe: https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/q/137793/21222
Answer: Not being female, I'm at a disadvantage to answer, but just to get the ball rolling...

You've mentioned caloric intake. Broadly speaking, the calories needed for the child must increase 3X. A quick Google search reveals:

If you are pregnant with one fetus, you need an extra 340 calories per day starting in the second trimester (and a bit more in the third trimester). That's roughly the calorie count of a glass of skim milk and half a sandwich. (Source)

In other words, women would need very little change of diet for the first month (though they might lose a little weight), but they would need about 1,000-1,200 more calories a day thereafter.

Women would have back and spine problems. Even with nine months, many women by the end of their term have discomfort-to-real-pain carrying the nearly-born child. You're pushing all that time of mind and muscle development to hold up the baby into just three months. A human body probably wouldn't have the time necessary to adjust to the change and distribution of weight unless the woman were athletic to begin with.

There is a lot of chemistry going on in the female body that humanity is only just beginning to understand. It includes the mother's psychological bond with the child and the development of immunities. Remember how women are stereotyped as moody during pregnancy? That stereotype comes from very real behavioral swings due to these chemical changes — and you just accelerated them 3X.

And I'm not going to think about what might happen if you 3X morning sickness, but I'll give you two words: hyperemesis gravidarum.

Finally, a woman's body is designed to stretch with the growth of the child. A 3X acceleration in the birthing process may create substantial skin and muscle damage as the body is forced to accommodate the rapid growth of the child. And the ability to recover from that condition might be compromised, too. Have you ever seen a senior citizen who successfully lost a lot of weight? The reason they have huge flaps of skin is because at their age the body can't reabsorb the mass like it could in its youth. I could easily imagine that kind of problem due to too rapid expansion.
Comment: As an addition: Not just muscle damage. Whole organs move. Part of the bones dissolve of the pelvis to prepare for the baby to come out. You say accelerate many chemistry things, but it might not work that way. Just like having 9 mothers 1 father/9 fathers one mother will not reduce the time to get a single child to 1. Moving an organ to make space for the baby for example might not be able to at all to move that fast.
Comment: +1 and thinking about point 1 further.  Obviously there are non-pregnant people who have 1200+ calories more than they "need" each day, but in comparison all of these extra calories are being used in a tiny section of the mother's body.  Would there be heat regulation issues for the womb and/or growing baby, or would it be managed by presumably 3x normal blood flow to the womb?
Comment: 1200 calories a day is a bit off, for one thing a normal mother needs to consume almost 500 more calories a day in the later stages three times that is 1500 but, metabolics is not a linear scale, to push chemistry faster you need drastically more calories, PLUS the mothers metabolic rate needs to increase drastically to supply those nutrients, assuming her body can withstand the increase.
Answer: To add to the answers: Cancer and Higher miscarriage rate.
The increased metabolic activity of development creates more heat. This increased heat generation will cause problems for the mother, in terms of just being hotter. More significantly it will up mutation rate, especially in rapidly dividing cells. The increased mutation rate will have increase rate of miscarriages.
This will be stacked upon the increase of the mothers metabolic rate to digest more food to provide nutrients for the child.
Evidence for this is higher rates of miscarriage during prolonged heat waves.
Answer: Its probably impossible realistically, 2X as fast is the theoretical limit.
Some great work on what factors limit human developmental speed shows humans can only manage a sustained metabolism of around twice their normal metabolism, this holds true of human mothers regardless of condition. near the end of nine months is when the metabolic demand reaches 2.1 times base metabolic rate, which is when human end gestation, when the body can no longer keep up with demand.
fetal demand in black, mothers demand in grey.

https://www.pnas.org/content/109/38/15212
Now of course modern humans can supply more nutrients, but they can't push their metabolism much further, the hypothetical limit on metabolic output is around 4 times Base Metabolic Rate which is how much the the highest output athletes can sustain for extended periods (Grand Tour athletes). note some mammals achieve higher sustained BMR multipliers but humans have remarkably high caloric needs so I will stick to what humans can do in practice. This will leave the mother almost completely helpless, just resting, her metabolic rate is as high as the most extreme athlete's maximum, never mind if they actually had to do anything. These athletes are consuming 7-8000 Kcal per day, so the mother should also be consuming at least this much to be realistic near the end of the pregnancy.
https://www.pnas.org/content/87/6/2324?ijkey=f01718746477247525d7706f2413b63363ac04e3&keytype2=tf_ipsecsha
A realistic number for 6 month development would be 3000 KCal/day in the first trimester, 6000 in the second, and 8000 kcal in the last trimester. This is because in the first trimester the limiting factor is how fast fetal cells can divide, while by the end how fast the mothers body can digest, move and metabolize nutrients is the limiting factor.
Comment: I was hoping you'd add the sources for this additional info. Great work and +1.
Comment: @JBH what in particular, almost everything came from the listed source and its sources, it really is a very thorough study.
Comment: I read your comment to my answer before reading your answer. I was about to post a comment asking for source material... and here it is! Thanks!


Elaboration likelihood model: would attractiveness be a peripheral or central route?

Question: In the elaboration likelihood model, if an advertisement contains an attractive person, would this be using the central route or peripheral route? I would guess it would be peripheral route, since people don't tend to think about if a person is attractive or not, but on the other hand, if the person does think about the person's appearance and finds them attractive, then it could be considered central.
Answer: Unless the advertisement is actually advertising the person's attractiveness directly, this should be a peripheral issue. Consider Wikipedia's description of the central route:

Central-route processes involve scrutiny of persuasive communication (e.g., a speech or an advertisement) to determine the arguments' merits. Under these conditions, a person's cognitive response to the message determines its persuasive outcome. If they evaluate a message as reliable, well-constructed and convincing, it may be received favorably even if it contrasts with the receiver's original position on the message.

Thus the only circumstance in which a person's attractiveness should be a central route is one in which the advertisement's argument is about the person's attractiveness per se...I'm not sure I can even think of a good example of such an advertisement. Even beauty product advertisements (which are about the product, not the person) routinely appeal through peripheral routes by using supermodels with immaculately styled hair, wearing much more makeup than the object of the advertisement – not to mention expensive clothes and other fashion accessories – in idealized, studio-lighted environments. If anything, factors like these obscure the real efficacy of the given beauty product, because most observers will just be overwhelmed by the model's beauty and by the desire to emulate it, regardless of how little the product in question has to do with it. Again, see Wikipedia on the peripheral route:

Peripheral-route processes do not involve elaboration of the message through cognitive processing of an argument's merits. They rely on a message's environmental characteristics: the perceived credibility of the source, message presentation quality, the source's attractiveness or a catchy slogan, and is frequently used when the argument is weak or lacks evidence. The peripheral route is a mental shortcut which accepts (or rejects) a message based on external cues, rather than thought. It is used when the audience is unable to process the message due to the message's complexity or the audience's immaturity. The commonest influences are rewards such as food, sex or money, which create rapid changes in mind and action. Celebrity status, likability, humor and expertise are other factors governing the peripheral process. Appearance can gain an individual's attention; while it can create interest in a topic, it will not effect strong change. The goal of the peripheral process is to create change which can be weak (or temporary) compared with the strong, lasting change of the central route.


make wysiwyg as default

Question: Insted of clicking the WYSIWYG Editor is it possible to make it visible without clicking ?
Answer: Open admin section, go to System -> Configuration -> Content Management.
In the "Enable WYSIWYG Editor" field you will see the available options for WYSIWYG editor:

"Disabled by Default"
"Disabled Completely"
"Enabled by Default"

You can select Enabled by Default

Note:  This will enable the Show/Hide Editor toggle to be active by default when you are editing CMS pages and Static blocks. This setting does not effect the product editing screen.
If you want the WYSIWYG editor to open up automatically on page load for product editing (i.e. Short Description) you would need some custom javascript to 'click' the button on page load. This would be an edit to the admin panel js of Magento and would most likely not be recommended.
For more information refer : How to Enable/Disable the WYSIWYG Editor in Magento
Comment: thankyou for fast reply but what i want is to change the textarea into WYSIWYG editor>
Comment: Which textarea? Custom?
Comment: Description * and Short Description *
Comment: Check this video : https://vimeo.com/130181563
Comment: ok thankyou. done watching and learned things.
Answer: @Rohit Kundale's answer is correct for CMS content. However, you will need to apply the following hack for product content...

Note: The answer to this question was originally posted here by Nikitas:
https://stackoverflow.com/a/20307722/3254362
I am copying the answer here for simplicity...

After a little research i found it.
1) Put this code in the .phtml file you want the editor to appear directly.
2) In the 6th line of the code you can see elements: "short_description". You can change "short_description" with the element id you want. You can add more than one element id separated with comma and without spaces.
Example: I put this code in app/design/adminhtml/default/default/template/catalog/product/edit.phtml because i want the editor to appear directly when i edit product's description, short description etc.
The code:

Comment: ill try this. thank you for reply. ill guve feedback later.
Comment: Did that work for you?

make wysiwyg as default


Should the Greek word "euanggelidzo" in Act 5:42 be translated as evangelize instead of preach?

Question: To underscore the unique anointed ministry of Evangelists as one of the legitimate 5-fold ministries in Christianity alongside pastors, (Eph. 4:11) should the verb, "euangelidzo," be translated as evangelize," instead of the common translation, "preach" or "proclaim" as it is in Acts 5:42?
Comment: What is/are the five-fold ministry of Christianity?  There more than 20 spiritual gifts listed in the NT.  What verse are you considering?  Further, the verb is "euangelizo".  I think you have mis-spelled it above.
Comment: (Michael)  There are over a hundred times  in the Greek N.T. some of which are Mt 11:4-5, Lu 2:10, 9:6, Acts 5:42, 8:36.  Check  a Greek Lexicon for a complete listing.  This Greek word is obscured by modern translations which substitute "preach"  in English instead of transliterating it.
Comment: (Dottard)  Reference is to the five "leadership" gifts listed in Eph. 4:11, while still  recognizing the important  diversity of other giftings  listed in Rom. 12:4-8 and 1 Cor. 12:27-30.   The spelling is a transliteration  phonetically:  the double Gamma" has  n preceding  the g, and the zeta has a d sound before the z.  (See  the Greek-English Concordance by J.B. Smith, 1855.
Comment: Thank you for editing this so that it asks about the one verse, that's exactly what we want to see! While upholding the ministries of Ephesians 4:11 is important, most translators would say that accurately translating each text in its own right is the goal of translation. Acts 5:42 doesn't exist to remind us of Eph 4:11, and Eph 4:11 (written by a different person to a different audience) isn't immediately relevant to how Acts 5:42 should be translated. So that just leaves us with the question of what's the best way to translates Acts 5:42.
Comment: where is this word euangelidzo in the Greek or English NT?
Answer: Most readers of the N.T. are unaware that the word, evangelize (euanggelidzo) is in common usage throughout.  It is obscured by the translator committees' use of "preach" instead.  To the modern mind "preach" conjures up the image of a man in robes (or three-piece suit) standing behind a pulpit, with a choir behind him, and a row of deacons on the front benches, in an air-conditioned church with flowers along the altar!
This was not the reality in the N.T. when it came to Evangelists.  They were the "gumshoe" ministers who walked the streets and meandered through the marketplaces in search of lost sheep, discouraged minds, and wayward men and women.  If the scriptures were differently translated, it would reflect this.
Note that the verb for evangelize occurs 135 times in the Bible, while the Greek word for pastoring only occurs 15 times (and only 4 times does it refer to pastoring (shepherding) a church!  Also note that at the same time, the KJV ignores the word "evangelize, and uses the word "preach" 55 times to express it.  As well, the ESV used the word "evangelize "0" (zero) times, and mentioned "preach" 84 times!
To show this discrepancy read a sampling of the N.T. scriptures using the word "evangelize":

Go show John again these things which you see and hear: the blind receive their sight...and the poor are evangelized.  (Mt. 11:4-5)

And the angel said to them, "Fear not for behold I evangelize you with great joy... (Luke 2:10)

And they (the Twelve) went through the towns evangelizing and healing everywhere. (Luke 9:6)

And daily in the Temple, and in every house, they (Apostles) ceased not to teach and evangelize concerning Jesus Christ.  (Acts 5:42)

Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and evangelized him (eunuch) concerning Jesus.  (Acts 8:36)

So, as much as is in me, I am ready to evangelize you who are in Rome also.  For I am not ashamed of the evangel of Christ  (Romans 1:15-16)

For though I evangelize I have nothing to boast about, for necessity is laid upon me, yea, woe is me if I did not evangelize.  (1 Cor. 9:16)

If we, or an angel from heaven, should evangelize contrary to what we evangelized you, let him be accursed. (Gal. 1:8)

There are so many more verses, which when translated from the evangelist's point of view, would shed a whole new light on the Christian ministry, wouldn't one say?  In fact, would it be appropriate to aver that if Evangelists were deemed more valuable to the Church, pastors would gain vital help in serving their communities?  But it can only come from an understanding gleaned from a correct translation of Greek words.
Comment: Lastly, "evangelize" in English often includes the idea of conversion which is also absent in the Greek meaning.  The Greek simply means to bring good news, or preach.
Comment: The problem with you suggestion is that "evangelize" has a unique English and Christian meaning that is not present in the original Greek which mean to "preach" or "proclaim", or "bring good news".  It can be used for proclaiming other things than the gospel.
Comment: What does it mean to "preach"?  What does it mean to "evangelize"?  Are they synonyms, or does each word have a separate meaning?

In English, "preach" means to preach a sermon, and "evangelize" means to preach the Gospels and produce converts.  NTL, and in early Christian bibles, c. 325-499 CE, the word recorded is ευαγγελιζομενοι (preaching the gospel); i.e., preaching the written teachings of a religious group which are generally accepted by that group.

I conclude the apostles, daily, did preach sermons "in the temple," and did evangelize "in every house" (Acts 5:42 KJV).
Comment: I have up-voted both question and answer. I can see worth in the work you have done and I am edified (which is worth more than points). I trust you will not be put off and that you will further grace us with your labours, gently learning how the site operates and how it has to accommodate to the parameters of internet and open use.
Comment: (Dottard) Tn interpreting the N.T. Greek, to  the usage of Plato, Socrates,  et al. , must be added the usage and  implications  of Jesus and His apostles when they co-opted a word.    While it can be used for other decrees and proclamations, it was definitely used by the Lord to specifically  announce the Gospel (euangelion) of the Kingdom. (Luke 3:18,  4:43).  And that Jesus did expect a "conversion" associated with it is evidenced by His command: "Repent, for the Kingdom of heaven is near."  (Mt. 4:17, Mk.1:15)  Conversion of one's worldview is not a modern church invention.
Answer: The Greek word is from a root with two components.
From εὖ (G2095) and ἄγγελος (G32)
That first component can mean:

<code>to be well off, fare well, prosper

acting well
</code>

Or, in the Strong's definition:

<code> εὖ eû, yoo; neuter of a primary εὖς eûs (good);
 (adverbially) well:—good, well (done)
</code>

This is the word used in Jesus' depiction of the praise given to the faithful servant: "Well done" -- good and faithful servant.
That second component, ἄγγελος (ä'n-ge-los), means "angel" or "messenger."
Essentially, εὐαγγελίζονται/euangelizontai, which is a verb in the middle or passive voice in Greek, means one has been "well messaged", i.e. well taught.
Because one can teach in most any context, whether from the pulpit or on the street, whether in a classroom or beside one's sickbed, this word would apply to any context where the gospel is given or is taught.  One interlinear supplies the expression are gospelized for the literal translation of the passive-voice form of this Greek word in Matthew 11:5.
While it is an older word which is less used in the same context today, publish comes close to the active-voice equivalent of this word.  Nowadays, the word broadcast might be similar.  But this is passive voice in Matthew 11:5, unlike in the other passages specified in the question, so in that verse a translation like "are taught (the gospel)" is more grammatically appropriate.
Where possible, consistency in the translation of a word should be maintained.  Translations that use a variety of terms in the target language for the same word in the source language can be problematic in the sense that parallelism and continuity in the text are destroyed.  The target language may sound more natural, but it conveys less of the original sense of meaning.  This is one reason why the KJV so consistently uses a word like "preaching," even when the context may seem odd in English.
I would suggest that "the false impression that preaching from a pulpit was more important" is only an artifact of the English-language translation, and would not be applicable to the Greek context where the word has broad application.
Conclusion
Given today's understanding of the terms, "evangelize/evangelized" is a possible translation, provided that it conveys the essence of teaching or of sharing God's truth and love in any context, not merely from an "evangelistic campaign."  The Greek word has broad application to any form of causing others to know (the truth).


Where did the notify by email option go?

Question: Today I noticed the checkbox for email notification is gone for new questions. Why did it disappear?
Answer: It will be coming back, but it is dying its hair neon green first.
We are in the process of improving the email notifications.  Instead of getting notifications for questions you check the box for and nothing else, email notifications will be driven by your inbox, including comments and other things that are part of the inbox.
We needed to remove the part of the UI you noticed in order to roll this out.  We'll be re-adding a note and link for inbox notifications soon.
In the meantime, if you open your inbox now (where it says Stack Exchange at the upper left and red numbers appear when you have something new), at the bottom of that there is an "email settings" link that allows you to turn on the emails.
Update: inbox emails are now live.
Comment: Does this also mean that we'll be able to subscribe to be notified in our inbox _without_ getting any emails?
Comment: Previously, you used to be able to subscribe to be notified by email when there are new questions in a tag. I'm asking if these changes imply that it will be possible to subscribe to be notified of new questions in your inbox (and only there).
Comment: Neon green is such a cool colour.
Comment: @hammar I don't understand what you mean?  Currently when you load a page and have something new in the inbox you'll get a red circle with a number indicating the number of new notifications.
Comment: @hammar ah I see.  Tag filters/subscriptions are completely separate from this.  Nothing is changing with the tag subscriptions.  They aren't going away.


Galactic revolutions relative to the age of the universe

Question: If the universe is only 40 to 50 galactic revolutions old, how has it acquired its present state so "quickly" relative to this time scale?
Answer: Gravitationally bound dynamical systems evolve towards their equilibrium states on a dynamical timescale of $\sim (G \rho)^{-1/2}$, where $\rho$ is their average density.
If we assume the Galaxy started of with $10^{12}$ solar masses in a sphere of radius $10^5$ pc, then the dynamical timescale is 1 billion years.
If we consider an object at the "edge" of such a system, Newtonian gravity and a bit of rotational mechanics, we find that the fastest possible bound orbital period is also of order $(G\rho)^{-1/2}$. The Sun is not at the edge and the average density inside the solar orbit is much higher and so the orbital period can be a bit shorter than this (a factor of four).
Thus what we see is exactly what is expected for a $>10$ billion years old universe - a relatively settled dynamical system.
You could extend this argument to the timescale for major galaxy mergers. The distance between galaxies is of order ten times their size and thus the mean density of galaxy systems is 1000 times lower than for an individual galaxy. This increases the relevant dynamical timescale to $1 \times 1000^{1/2} \sim 30$ billion years. That the Milky Way and Andromeda will collide some 17-18 billion years post big-bang is also therefore not an unexpected event.
Comment: Would this mean that in about another 20 billion years we would expect the universe to be a collection of "boring" elliptical galaxies? If so, we are so lucky to be living at this time in the history of the universe.


How can I measure the frequency of vibration of a surface/object?

Question: I'd like to know if there is a solution that allows me to measure the frequency of vibration of a surface/object. Primarily I am seeking to improve my speaker/home audio setup. The vibrometers I've found (and can afford) can give me the amplitude of vibration, speed of vibration and acceleration of vibration. I want to be able to measure what frequencies an object is vibrating at, though. If anyone could help me out, either by pointing me towards tools that can meet my needs, or letting me know how to derive the frequency from other data, I'll be grateful.
Answer: If the devices can measure acceleration, then you can calculate frequency from it. The time interval between the membrane's change of direction of motion is related to the time interval between the change of sign of acceleration. For a pure note, the two are the same.
Comment: Thanks! I'll give it a try. The store also says there's viewing software included so that may be helpful.
Answer: An easy and cheaper way to do this is with a microphone (basically an uncalibrated vibration sensor!) and an oscilloscope, upon which you display the microphone output. The frequency of vibration can be extracted from the oscilloscope display by measuring the time between peaks of the waveform; the inverse of that time is the frequency of the vibration.


Add payment specific fee in Magento2

Question: How can we add extra fee on Cash on delivery payment method in magento2.
I tried to convert Phoenix COD in magento2 but not getting the result.
Comment: We can try this module: https://github.com/mrkhoa99/Boolfly_Payment_Fee
Answer: You can try with MSP_CashOnDelivery module: https://github.com/magespecialist/m2-MSP_CashOnDlivery
It add an additional Cash On Delivery payment method that allows you to load a csv configuration file, just like the Table Rate shipping, and set the additional fee.
Currently I found some bug, but it worth a try.
To install it via composer:
<code>$ composer require msp/cashondelivery
$ composer update
$ php bin/magento module:enable MSP_Common
$ php bin/magento module:enable MSP_CashOnDelivery
$ php bin/magento setup:upgrade
$ php bin/magento cache:flush
</code>
Answer: I have created a module to add a payment fee by a specific payment method. You can add a payment fee for any payment methods(online or offline).
Recently I added lots of new features like add tax, support multi-currency, set sort order, etc.
Look at this: https://github.com/mageprince/magento2-paymentfee

Add payment specific fee in Magento2