Is there a precise definition of what a "landslide election victory" is?

Question: E.g. in an election dominated by X parties (or candidates), is there some (even rough) threshold Y% of the votes at which we can say a certain party (or candidate) had a "landslide election victory"? 60%? 70%?
Or is it just a very loose figure-of-speech, that varies immensely from country to country and election to election?
Answer: "Landslide victory" is a buzzword used by the media to describe an election won by a larger margin than initially predicted. There is no strict definition, but the usual connotation is that of a surprisingly good result. The implication is that the election suddenly changed the political landscape in a manner a real landslide suddenly reshapes a natural landscape.
For example: When a totalitarian dictator who is known for being in total control of the media and violently suppresses all opposition wins their re-election with 80% of all votes, it would not be called a "landslide-victory" (except maybe for propaganda reasons) because that would be the result everyone expected. But when the opposition would suddenly get 51% and barely defeat the dictator against all odds, it would likely be called a "landslide victory" by independent media because it would imply that the regime lost its backing in the general population and will have serious difficulties to stay in power from now on.
Answer: There isn't really a specific margin to a landslide victory but a good ballpark figure to go by would be 70% representation. About.com has an article about landslide elections in the United States. So to answer your question it is a loose figure of speech and it varies from country to country.
Comment: I'm not sure that would be accurate, as you could have a party that goes from 75% to 70% but that would not be a landslide victory, it would be a loss. Landslides are more about the change in power, rather than the end result.
Comment: Wouldn't an election loss be where you lose control over the elected body? If a candidate goes from 75% control to 70% control they would have still won the election but they would have lost 5% of the seats. Wouldn't this election still be considered a landslide?
Answer: Although it differs from nation to nation because of differences in election practices, a Landslide Victory occurs when a candidate receives a Super-majority of the votes (2/3rds or 66%-67% (rounded, though most people will say 66% is enough of a gap, despite being slightly short) or better) (source).  It's important to distinguish that these victories are not pegged to popular vote as the determination comes from the actual vote that matters, so while having a super-majority in a popular vote does help, it can be negligible in systems where the candidate is determined by a narrower field, such as a Parliamentary system, in which the PM is determined by the winning party's leadership or the vote in the House for the PM or The U.S., which uses an Electoral College, generally will declare Landslides by the Electoral College vote, even when it is not a Landslide by Popular vote (for example, Bill Clinton's Presidential elections are both considered a Landslide victory despite Bill Clinton failing to secure even simple majority of the popular vote in both cases (43% in 1992 and 49.2% in 1996)).
Keep in mind, though, that some nations do not use a 2/3rds majority as the Super-majority demarcation point and will substitute lower levels, with 60% or as low as 55% (in Colorado) as the point of Super-majority (though Colorado uses it only for State Constitutional amendments by Referendum) (source).
For a rather common term, I did find the Wikipedia page for Landslide Victories to be rather lacking on the discussion of the topic, as it only lists recent examples of such victories in the UK and discusses nothing in other nations.  For a better discussion of some real life Landslides and the issues that factored into the success, I highly recommend this TVTropes article.  The elections here limited to a 70% of the vote threshold unless otherwise notable (which might run counter to the Clinton example, as he never got this much in his elections, though his status as not clearing 50% of popular vote might be notable to include) to better manage the size and scope of the definition.  They also list "Show Elections" where a despot holds an illiberal election to demonstrate "Popular Support".
Answer: "Landslide" is not a technical term, and there has never been an impetus to define it technically.  However, here are some norms with regard to American electoral college victories in recent time.
There have been 27 presidential elections between 1912 and 2016.  I chose about a century's worth of data to be considered as a modern benchmark, and I selected a number of elections divisible by three so that they can be categorized in 3 categories of equal size.  Those categories represent the largest third of electoral victories (in the past 106 years) by % of total electoral votes, the middle third, and the bottom third.
Top third: 83.6 - 98.5% of all electors.  At the low end, this includes Herbert Hoover's 1928 win by a 444 - 87 margin.  At the high end, this includes Franklin Roosevelt's 1936 win by a 531 - 8 margin.
Middle third: 67.8 - 83.2% of all electors.  At the low end, this includes Barack Obama's 2008 win by a 365 - 173 margin.  At the high end, this includes Dwight Eisenhower's 1952 win by a 442 - 89 margin.
Bottom third: 50.4 - 61.7% of all electors.  At the low end, this includes George Bush's 2000 win by a 271 - 266 margin.  At the high end, this includes Barack Obama's 2012 win by a 332 - 206 margin.
For those specifically interested in Donald Trump's electoral victory, he places in the bottom third of this data set, 7th from the bottom, with a 304 - 227 electoral victory, or 56.5% of all electors.
Answer: Sean Trende of Real Clear Politics put some thought into this, writing two articles.

Before the United States 2018 election.
After the election.

The term that he used was wave, not landslide.
There are two innovations that he proposes that are worth noting.

He aggregates all elections into one pot.  So his measure combines state legislative elections with federal Senate elections.
He proposes to measure waves by the number of standard deviations they are from typical results.  He shows the results of putting the thresholds at 1, 1.5, and 2 standard deviations.

He concludes that 2018 was not a wave, as while Democrats did well in the House, they did worse in the Senate than 2012.  Democrats also did not do nearly as well in state races, making more modest gains in governorships and state legislative races.
Answer: The definition of a landslide is nebulous to say the least....if you go by the comments posted here "70%" ??? then no-one in American or British politics has ever won a national election in a landslide.
By common agreement there has not been a bona-fide landslide in American Presidential contests since Reagan's reelection in '84 which he won by some 18% over Mondale.
I consider any margin over 10% of the populer vote over your nearest opponent a landslide.
Comment: It would be nice to provide a reference to back up the 10% margin. SE sites typically favor answers that also provide references to emphasize what seem to be personal opinions.
Comment: Down voted because the US has had several notable landslide presidential candidates.  George Washington was unanomously voted into office twice and was popular enough to get such honors until the day he died if he wanted to.  James Monroe should have been elected unanomously but for a single Faithless Elector (lore says he voted against Monroe to preserve Washington as the only president to receive such an honor.  History says that the elector just plain hated Monroe's policies).  Ronald Regan lost by 7 electoral votes, six of which were decided by less than 5,000 voters.
Answer: I wouldn't call anything that has to do with politics a "landslide" unless the victor won by 85 % or more of the popular vote.  Macron's win over Le Pen by 66% in the recent French election the media calls a landslide.  I would call it a "decisive victory," but definitely not a landslide.
Comment: You should provide a source which backs up your statement
Answer: Based on the way the media tends to use the term, it is actually treated as a propaganda term. Thus, if the person who won was favored by the media, then almost anything is called a landslide. If the winner was being put down by the media, then no matter what the margin of victory was, the media will avoid the word landslide like poison.
As an example, consider the U.S. presidential election. Had Hilliary Clinton won, then the media would have called it a landslide victory. However, since Donald Trump won, the media are disparaging it and pretending that the California popular vote changed the dynamics of the situation and ignoring the number of individual voting districts in each state that actually voted for Donald Trump (no matter who the state was counted for).
Comment: Donald Trump's elections did not, by numbers, count as a Landslide.  He carried less than 60% of the states and DC, representing 56% of the Electoral College.  It was an upset victory to be sure, but not a Landslide by any definition.  And I say this as someone who supports the Electoral College over the Popular vote in who gets to be President.
Comment: @hszmv The point was that the media uses the term as a propaganda tool to promote their agenda. had Hiliary Clinton won by 50.0001%, they would have called it a *landslide*. Had Donald Trump won by 67%, the would have avoided the term at all costs.


Embed Windows Media Player in WPF

Question: I downloaded the source code from:
http://diptimayapatra.wordpress.com/2010/04/05/using-windows-media-player-com-in-wpf/
I want to customize the play, buy add Play, Pause and Stop buttons to the form.
However I can't access the method: axWmp.Ctlcontrols.play();

'WMPLib.IWMPControls' does not contain a definition for 'play' and no extension method 'play' accepting a first argument of type 'WMPLib.IWMPControls' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)'

This would not happen if I add Windows Media Player under Windows Form .NET 2.0 Application. Is there any way to access the .play() and .stop() functions?
Answer: You need to add a COM reference to Windows Media Player wmp.dll in your main project.

Embed Windows Media Player in WPF


NLog UI webpage to see logs

Question: I have implemented NLog with database target (SQL Server) but I want to see those log entries in a nice UI.
I have seen these tools on NLog official website

NLog-specific viewers

Gibraltar (using Gibraltar Adapter for NLog) -
  https://nlog-project.org/2009/11/01/gibraltar-adapter-for-nlog-released.html
Sentinel - https://github.com/yarseyah/sentinel
NLogViewer - http://github.com/jkowalski/NLogViewer (functional, but
  no longer in development, not recommended)
LogEntries - http://www.logentries.com (service for cloud logging,
  has .net NLog target)
Legit Log Viewer - http://www.legitlog.com/ (Although their website
  is down, it is Free and powerful log viewer.)
ReflectInsight Viewer (using the ReflectInsight Extension for NLog) -
  http://insightextensions.codeplex.com/

But I think they only are Desktop applications. I need a web application but I can´t waste time making my own UI because it's already implemented as a class library.
There is also Azure Application Insights but it's paid and you need access to Azure Portal to see it.
Do you know another web UI to integrate with NLog? (free, if it's possible)
EDIT: I'd been using Elmah before I changed to NLog. I need something similar to Elmah's UI
Answer: You can use https://github.com/dojo90/NLogViewer
I have also planed a webinterface to easily inject it on ASP .NET Applications.

NLog UI webpage to see logs


How can I make "global" wpf application hotkeys

Question: I am developing a WPF application, which has many windows in it. As usual, main window allows to open other windows. I want to create application-level hotkeys (shortcuts), which would open the particular window, and would work in every window of my application.
I have tried using CommandBinding in my MainWindow class, see the example below, but it works if the main window has focus only (as it actually should).
I have also tried the second way from this question Application Level shortcut keys in WPF, and created binding to a key "P", but whenever I press P, even if it is a TextBox input text or something like that, the window is opened.
I expect the hotkeys work in every window of my application, but not if it is a text input or something else. I might be wrong using the solution, for which I have provided a link, if so, I would be very grateful to someone who explains me how to use it properly.
Answer: Best practice for hot keys is to use modifiers on them.
I suggest adding the CTRL key as a modifer for your command so the user has to hit
CTRL + P to trigger your hot key. And then typing P in a textbox or elsewhere wont cause a problem.
<code><KeyBinding Modifiers="Ctrl" Key="P" Command="{Binding SomeCommand}">
</KeyBinding>
</code>


Can there be general relativity without special relativity?

Question: Can General Relativity be correct if Special Relativity is incorrect?
Comment: This question seems underspecified.  Can special relativity be wrong while GR is right?  Sure.  SR is incorrect as a spacetime model.  Our spacetime is not flat.  It exhibits curvature in many ways.  On the other hand, GR predicts that spacetime looks locally like Minkowski spacetime, so in that sense SR can't be wrong if GR is correct.
Comment: I think this is difficult to answer because we don't have clear definitions. E.g., scalar-tensor theories might or might not be considered to be GR. You can have GR with one of the matter fields being a preferred, universal timelike vector field, and that would establish a preferred frame, which you could say is inconsistent with SR -- depending on what you mean by SR.
Comment: If SR is incorrect then much more than GR is at stake. QFT relies on SR too. So SR being shown to be wrong would mean a serious crisis in physics.
Comment: Can there be calculus without linear algebra?
Answer: No, special relativity is a special domain of general relativity, hence the name. Special relativity is the limit of general relativity when gravitational effects become negligible. You can't have a theory that's completely correct but has a wrong limit (I use limit here not in the strict mathematical sense, but as like a "domain").
Comment: I'm not sure I agree with the idea that "You can't have a theory that's completely correct but has a wrong limit". As an example, take a scalar field with a potential, $V(\phi)=-\frac{1}{2}\mu^2\phi^2+\frac{1}{4!}\lambda \phi^4$. This potential has two stable minima at $\phi=\pm \sqrt{6} m \lambda^{-1/2}$. In the limit $\lambda\rightarrow 0$, the minima are pushed to infinity, so the potential is unbounded below. Therefore the theory is unstable. I am not sure if this limit is "wrong", but the limit leads to an unphysical theory (if you take the theory "literally" and not an effective theory)
Answer: I think this question depends a bit on what you mean. My general philosophy is summarized in Isaac Asimov's essay "The Relativity of Wrong" (The Skeptical Inquirer, Fall 1989, Vol. 14, No. 1, Pp. 35-44, web link):

... when people thought the earth was flat, they were wrong. When people thought the earth was spherical, they were wrong. But if you think that thinking the earth is spherical is just as wrong as thinking the earth is flat, then your view is wronger than both of them put together.

Let me explain what I mean.
General Relativity is defined via Einstein's equations
\begin{equation}
G_{\mu\nu} + \Lambda g_{\mu\nu} = \frac{8 \pi G_N}{c^4} T_{\mu\nu}
\end{equation}
where $G_{\mu\nu}$ is the Einstein tensor, $g_{\mu\nu}$ is the spacetime metric, $T_{\mu\nu}$ is the stress-energy tensor, $G_N$ is Newton's constant, $c$ is the speed of light, and $\Lambda$ is the cosmological constant.
We can consider a Universe with no stress-energy for any matter ($T_{\mu\nu}=0$), and with no cosmological constant, $\Lambda=0$. In this case, Einstein's equations are $G_{\mu\nu}=0$, which can solved by $g_{\mu\nu}=\eta_{\mu\nu}$, where $\eta_{\mu\nu}$ is a $4\times 4$ tensor with components $(-c^2,1,1,1)$ on the diagonal and zero elsewhere.$^\star$
Now... one quite strict definition of "special relativity" would be that the spacetime must have translations, rotations, and Lorentz boosts as exact symmetries. This is the Universe taught in special relativity courses; the twin paradox assumes such a Universe for example. In this strict sense, special relativity is a solution of Einstein's equations, and is therefore necessarily contained inside of general relativity.
However, you might say it is pretty bizarre physically to consider a Universe with no matter at all. Furthermore we now know the Universe does have a non-zero cosmological constant (or at least behaves in a way that is indistinguishable from a non-zero cosmological constant as far as we can tell) -- and special relativity in the strict sense (meaning $g_{\mu\nu}=\eta_{\mu\nu}$ is a solution) is actually not an exact solution of Einstein's equations for non-zero $\Lambda$. So in a certain sense, special relativity (in the strict sense defined above) is not correct for our Universe, since $\Lambda$ is non-zero.
Nevertheless, there is yet another and deep sense in which special relativity is contained in general relativity. Locally around any spacetime point, we can always choose normal coordinates
\begin{equation}
g_{\mu\nu}(x) = \eta_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{3} R_{\mu\sigma\nu\tau}(0) x^\sigma x^\tau + O(|x|^3)
\end{equation}
This is in fact a statement about geometry, and has nothing to do with Einstein's equations. What we need here is to assume spacetime geometry can be described as a Lorentzian manifold (loosely speaking, we assume have a smooth geometry of spacetime). General relativity certainly does make this assumption, and so at any spacetime point we can always locally describe the metric using the metric of special relativity. Therefore there is a sense in which special relativity is an extremely good approximation, for "small enough" distances, near any point for every solution of general relativity.
This way of looking at things is actually quite similar to the Asimov quote in the beginning. Here's how I would modify the quote so it applies to this situation, modifications in bold ("absolute space and absolute time" here is the idea of Newton that was overturned by special relativity):

When people thought that there was an absolute space and absolute time, they were wrong. When people thought that the Universe was described by special relativity, they were wrong. But if you think that thinking there is an absolute space and absolute time is just as wrong as thinking that special relativity is exactly correct, then your view is wronger than both of them put together.

$^\star$ In fact this is not the unique solution, since (a) you can do coordinate transformations but more importantly (b) you can have gravitational waves propagating -- we will ignore this.)
Answer: No, SR (Special Relativity) is an intrinsic essential component of GR (General Relativity).
GR says that in perfectly flat spacetime mechanics behaves exactly according to the rules of SR as the answer of enumaris states.
GR also says that stress-energy causes spacetime curvature, but if you chop a region of curved spacetime into sufficiently small subregions then the curvature in each subregion becomes negligible and we can then use SR inside the subregion. To be more precise, as the size of a subregion approaches zero, so does its curvature, and so the rules of SR are valid locally.
This is similar to how we can chop the curved surface of the Earth into a set of flat maps which we can put into an atlas. Each page of the atlas tells us what's in that region, what the scale of that page is, and how that page connects to the other pages in the atlas.
So, roughly speaking, GR tells us how to construct an atlas of curved spacetime so that we can use SR locally on any atlas page. GR gives us a lot of freedom in how we chop up spacetime, and in what coordinate systems we use for our atlas pages.
(Unfortunately, this gets very difficult to do exactly when the spacetime curvature isn't simple or symmetrical: even the general two body problem in GR has no analytic solution).
TL;DR: GR says that SR is always valid locally, but in regions of high curvature the locale may be very small.
Comment: I would be careful with the statement "as the size of a subregion approaches zero, so does its curvature..." It's a bit imprecise. It sounds like it's suggesting that curvature is zero at a point when in fact the Riemann curvature tensor (or w/e other curvature tensors) are tensors which are defined for all points on a manifold (indeed, the limiting to a point is intrinsic to the Riemann curvature's very definition). It's like if you zoom in on a 1-D curve infinitely it looks flat, but its second derivatives exist a each point and it's still curved.
Comment: @enumaris Very good point. My answer presumes that the reader has some familiarity with limit processes and calculus, and so they know that when you zoom into a well-behaved curve it starts to look flat.
Answer: From a theoretical point of view, one may argue that it depends on how one defines the words GR & SR, and how abstract one wants to be. For starters one may generalize to other than 4 spacetime dimensions. Moreover, the local spacetime model could in principle be different from Minkowski spacetime. Instead of Einstein gravity, one may consider e.g. conformal gravity, SUGRA, Newton-Cartan gravity, etc.
Comment: The terms GR and SR are fixed and not really up for debate. Generalising GR or SR to higher dimensions is still GR or SR unless dimensional reduction comes into play and you get Kaluza-Klien theories.
Answer: As far as I know, and I'm not an expert or a physicist, Special Relativity developed the principle of Relativity which stipulates mainly two rules:

All events follow the same laws of physics in every frame of reference.
The independence of the speed of light, which means that light is always moving at a constant value (in the vacuum, at 299792458 m/s), even if one is in an inertial frame and another accelerating.

General Relativity also follows this principle, because the speed of light is always the same in vacuum for all observers, it doesn't change. This might be incorrect, but I think that also GR without SR it would not work. We can take the ISS as an example:
   We know that the gravity becomes weaker the further that you go from the source of the gravitational field; in our case, the ISS is further from the earth, our source of gravity, than us. Because of the time dilation due to gravity, the further that you go from the source, the faster that time passes, so we might guess that in the ISS the time for the astronauts goes faster than for us. But we need to remember that the ISS is moving, and is moving so fast, fast enough for the relativity effects to be non-negligible, and we know that the fastest and object is moving, the time dilation increase due to the Lorentz factor, and the time gets slower. So having this two assumptions, the SR effects are bigger in the ISS than the GR effects, so the time there gets slower than for us, and the astronauts in the ISS are getting older slowly.
I hope that this could help you.
Answer: I wouldn't have thought so.
One solution to the vacuum equations of GR without cosmological constant is  Minkowski space, this is the space of Special Relativity. Thus we see that General Relativity generalises Special Relativity
And we also see why Einstein opted for the word 'General' when he named this theory - actually this is more to do with general covariance, the theory of which is category theory, at least in one of its senses, it's called functoriality there.
To have GR without SR would mean that we require some physical rule that rules out Special Relativity as a solution. We don't have such a physical rule.
Answer: Where gravity is weak the metric of spacetime is flat and SR holds.
For example,
As $r \to \infty,$
The Schwarzschild Metric of GR $\to $
The flat metric of SR in spherical coordinates:
$ds^2 = c^2  dt^2 − dr^2 − r^2 dθ^2 − r^2 sin^2 θdφ^2$
"GR without SR" $\to$ There is never no gravity or weak gravity.
Answer: No, there can't be general theory of relativity without its special part. Why, what is relative in general theory, length and time interval. From where relative space and time came, from relative speed. But in general theory, there is no more need of relative motion but absolute motion and gravity is just frame of reference as different coordinate frames.
Why there is need of spacetime, because physicists thought for a long that what provide interaction between distant bodies. Space is not vacuum for general theory of relativity to stand. And big bang provide force necessary for motion and expansion is part of it.


original proverb of 「如果做某事太慢,還不如乾脆停下來。」

Question: I found this proverb in a translated article:「如果做某事太慢,還不如乾脆停下來。」Does anyone know its original form? I have searched several Chinese proverb sites but couldn't find anything remotely related to it.
Comment: It doesn't ring any bell. It's somehow against Chinese culture. Chinese promotes the idea of "不怕慢,就怕站", which is opposite to the one you are looking for.
Comment: @dan I found the one you mentioned when doing online search.
Comment: To me it seems to be a proverb about someone who does things so half heartedly that he might as well not do it at all.
Comment: Can you provide more context? If you see it in a translated article, presumably an English article, can you show us the English?
Comment: @ Betty The original book, which I have no access to, is in English. What I have is the translated text in Chinese. The original Chinese proverb was translated into English by the author and was translated back to Chinese by the translator. The translator did not try to find out the proverb in its original form in Chinese. He simply translated it from English. The result is a proverb nobody has heard of.
Comment: @joehua Still, some context would help. Please provide a few sentences before and after this proverb.
Comment: @Betty 鋪設路面需要很多石頭,大的和小的都要。但是,有一些地段,特別是在泥濘山區的傣族地區,石頭是很難尋找的,有時要從遙遠的河床一塊一塊運來。那時幾乎每一個人都參加到搬運石頭的工作中來。無論是女人、老人和孩子,每一個人根據自己的能力來搬運。
    中國有一句老話: 「如果做某事太慢,還不如乾脆停下來。」這對某些人和某些事可能是這樣。但是,我們搬運石頭的工作正好相反。你可以想像一下;在綿延數公里甚至數十公里的山間小道上,一條長長的搬運石頭的人流,好像是許多螞蟻在搬運食物或者是它們的卵。他們運動路綫就像是一條無限長的鎖鏈,這樣的活動在中國已經延續了好幾個世紀了,建築神廟和古老的城墻時都是這樣。
Answer: The context is immensely helpful. I managed to find the source. It is from the book The building of The Burma Road by Tan Pei-Ying (譚伯英《打通滇緬路》). I found the excerpt in its original English version from Google Books.

Apparently the person who translated it into Chinese made a mistake. The English is the opposite of the translated Chinese. It seems that @dan's comment is quite right.
There are also many Chinese proverbs with similar meaning, eg 绳锯木断, 水滴石穿,  and 只要功夫深,铁杵磨成针.
Comment: Wow! Thank you so much. I know the translator's Chinese isn't good. I didn't know his English is so bad.
Comment: I wonder why Google Books doesn't let me preview the book. It let me preview other books but not this one. The page says "preview unavailable." I wonder how you did it.
Comment: @joehua I don't know. I just searched and saw. It's possible that Google Books looks at the country/area/account preview history, etc.
Answer: There is a saying: "一不做,二不休"(either don't do or don't stop).
It means "Either not doing it, or see it through to the end once you started"
In other words:  "If you are not ready to finish what you started (too slow to finish), then don't do it (stop)"
Maybe it is the origin of this translated proverb
Comment: Thanks for the answer. When I see "一不做,二不休", the first thing that comes in my mind is kidnappers saying "一不做,二不休, we'll just kill the hostage." Evidently, I have watched too many crime movies.
Answer: I really have not heard of such original proverb.  But there is one really close, but it is a funny modern phrase, used in southern China or Hong Kong:

生意淡薄,不如賭博

it means

if the business (such as a mom and pop grocery store) is so low, we may as well play some mahjong or do a little bit of gambling

but this is the closest one I can think of, similar to what you wrote down as 如果做某事太慢,還不如乾脆停下來
There is another phrase that is close:

要嗎不做,做就要做到最好

It means

Either we don't do it, or we do it the best

but it has different connotation as your phrase because your phrase is suggesting stop when things are slow, while the phrase above is more like choosing between not doing it or doing it the best.

original proverb of 「如果做某事太慢，還不如乾脆停下來。」


Is 55 minutes enough transfer time at Schiphol

Question: WE are looking to book Birmingham, England (BHX) to Nairobi on 1 May. The flight BHX-AMS is 09.40 arriving AMS 11.50. The Nairobi flight leaves at 12.45, giving us 55 minutes to transfer. Is this enough, given that both legs are KLM?
Comment: If you miss the connection, and KLM look after you until the next available flight, how much of a problem is that for you?
Comment: @SpaceDog not sure about that, is there an immigration check when you're coming from the UK ?
Comment: Shilpol is big airport. Be prepared to run :)
Answer: If KLM allowed you to book this as a single itinerary rather than two separated tickets, then you are covered. If you miss the connection, they will have to find a solution for you with another flight.
Then you need more to think if you are ready to be delayed if you miss the connection.
In theory, 55 minutes should be enough but there is no room for any sort of delay. If your flight arrives 20 minutes late in Schipol which is not uncommon there, then you will most likely miss your connection.
Answer: From my own experience, if things go reasonably well you are likely to get to your next connection in time. Sometimes airport/KLM staff waits in front of your flight to help you get to your connecting flight.
Unfortunately, the same can't be said about your luggage. Schiphol seems to be particularly slow with handling luggage, so there is a much greater chance that your luggage will not make it to your connecting aircraft....
Answer: I flew through Schiphol (from Kuala Lumpar) last year with 45 minutes transfer time. I managed to make the connecting flight with 20/15 minutes to go, however my bag did not make the flight. luckily, I was heading home and my bag was delivered to my house the same day.
I found transferring from one gate to another quite frustrating due to the long walk (jog). When you go to the different gate, if it is in a different concourse you will have to go through a security/ bag check again which can be time consuming if there is a large queue
Answer: I made a connection of 55 mins OF VIE-AMS-DOH at AMS in Dec, 2015. First leg was 10 mins late, I was on last row, so last to deboard. No checked in luggage. As soon as I hit the ground, started running towards new gate. I used the priority immigration lane, then again ran. Made to boarding counter @ gate just 5 mins before they were going to close it.
Both boarding passes were issues in VIE.
Comment: You made it to the gate/boarding counter, you mean? Check-in counter would be were you drop your luggage.
Comment: @jcaron yes, will edit my answer..


Do I need to change the circuit breaker for a new stove with a lighter cord?

Question: The cord on the 40 amp new stove fits the 50 amp receptacle, but I don't know if the power will be too great for the new stove.
Comment: Appliances draw what they need, not the maximum available.
Comment: To continue down that logical path, a circuit breaker doesn't limit current (in an active sense). If the stove tried to draw nominally more than 40 amps on a 40 amp breaker, it would trip. Therefore, it wouldn't be a workable scenario anyway.
Answer: Like stated in the comment, appliances only draw the current they need. So simply put, you're fine. It sounds like new stove uses less power than the old one.
Edit since I feel like I should explain better...
The way it works, is a 50-amp receptacle has the ability to supply 50 amps of current. It is the device that controls how much it uses. Operating normally, your stove won't use more than 40 amps of current. Chances are it will normally use less than that.
Answer: 50 amp receptacles on a 40A circuit are a very special case.
You are specifically allowed to use a 50A receptacle on a circuit whose in-wall wiring and circuit breaker are sized for 40A.   This is an exception to the "receptacle must match breaker" rule, because 40A receptacles do not exist.
The breaker must still match the wire.  So if the breaker is 50A the wire must be 6 AWG.
Comment: Exactly.  There's no such thing as a 40A receptacle, so 40A cords must use a 50A receptacle.   That is allowed under the exception.
Comment: OP mentions "40A cord fits on 50A receptacle"  not the other way round.
Answer: If you check the electrical code book you will see that the breaker needs to be sized to protect the appliance it is serving. So a 40 amp plug/appliance needs a 40 amp breaker. Your wiring is big enough, you just need to change your breaker to a 40 amp. As it is if something goes wrong with the appliance or cord and it draws to much power the breaker will not trip before the cord melts and starts on fire.
Comment: How is this different from a 0.2A clock radio plugged into a 15A outlet? (Also, can I have a cite to the section of the code that says breakers need to be sized to protect appliances? Because 210.23 doesn't say that, and 240.5 doesn't say that...)
Comment: AFAIK the breaker is sized to protect the wiring used in the circuit it feeds - so for example if you have a 14/2 cable you'd use a 15A breaker whereas if you have a 12/2 cable you'd use a 20A breaker.


LiveCD: Running a sh script on startup

Question: I have created sh script that backs up computers to a network location, and I'm trying to make a LiveCD of Ubuntu-Mini Remix 14.04 that will be able to launch the script without a GUI.
The script does require some user input so I need to figure out a way for it to be interactive, as well as it needs to run as root.
Answer: I resolved this issue by launching the script as root from the bash.bashrc file. This file runs in the interactive terminal whenever the terminal is started, and as this was a live CD there is no user login set up so it ran perfectly for my purposes.

LiveCD: Running a sh script on startup


Fitness plan suggestions?

Question: I am a 15 year old male, standing at a tiny 5 foot 6 inches and weigh in at 8 stone and 1.1 pound, my fat index is only 10.7% and from my research this suggests that I should go on a lean or "shredding" fitness plan. The problem is I only go to the gym once a week due to school and training. Is this a dieting problem or Can I do more in the gym? It could also be useful to note that I usually stay away from the freeweights section as it is usually packed! Can anyone recommend a fitness plan or even an app on android that could help me out? Cheers
Comment: If you want to gain mass why would you go on a shredding/lean diet?!
Comment: What do you aim at. Let's keep the shredding plan aside, but what's your goal?
Comment: Truthfully at the minute I'm built like a stick figure! So my main goal would be to build muscle mass, not fat and to also define them at the same time! Also just to improve my general over all fitness, for example cardio endurance, but I would like the plan specifically for the strength part of it!
Comment: Thanks for the details. All I can say is, you are still growing and your idea of staying fit is quite impressive. There are several plans that asks for building mass. From your fat percentage it doesn't seem like you have too much, and also you are growing, hence you don't need to cut down your calories. If you get time to go one day to gym only, i'd say on other days do free-hand exercises at home like free hand squats, push-ups, lunges, and if possible get some weights to do curls?
Comment: I wouldn't label 5 foot 6 inches as exactly "tiny"... Also you should still be growing so it's fine.
Answer: If I've converted units correctly, then "8 stone and 1.1 pound" is 113.1 pounds.  At 5 foot 6 inches -- which is not "tiny", in my opinion -- you are grossly underweight.  As @xCodeZone commented, "you don't need to cut down your calories"; on the contrary, please consider eating enough food to increase your total bodyweight to, say, at least 170 pounds.  Note that you cannot exclusively gain (or lose) muscle or fat: while gaining muscle, you'll gain some fat, and while losing fat, you'll lose some muscle.
In addition to eating more, I suggest heavy squats, deadlifts, and presses for your one day per week in the gym.  This will spur muscle protein synthesis, so you'll gain strength and muscular bodyweight (again, in addition to some fat, which you can lose after getting stronger and bigger).
Comment: Unless I'm doing it very wrong, the NHS's [Healthy Weight Calculator](http://www.nhs.uk/tools/pages/healthyweightcalculator.aspx) says that 5'6" and 8st 1lb is somewhere between the 21st and 30th percentile for a 15 year old and classifies it as a "healthy weight".
Comment: @PhilipKendall, thanks for your comment and the link to the NHS's weight calculator.  That calculator indeed says that OP's weight is healthy.  I own that my "you are grossly _underweight_" comment is my _opinion_, and that I am not a doctor.  I'll also opine that OP probably looks very thin, and might as well take advantage of being at nearly the optimal stage of physical development to build body mass.
Answer: Goal: Build Muscle Mass
Experience: Beginner

Diet: Tracked at a calorie maintenance + GOMAD
Exercise: 5x5 Stronglifts

Once you completed the above program, work out if you want to go for a "ripped" look or be strong af. And pick a suitable program accordingly. That is at least 6 months away.

Fitness plan suggestions?


Good architecture for consuming a REST web service in an MVVM app for Windows Phone 7?

Question: I'm having a bit of trouble deciding on the best way to get the data from the web service to the UI.
Given the asynchronous nature of WebClient how would you build this?

Model uses WebClient to talk to webservice
ViewModel asks model for data
View is databound to ViewModel

On the Async complete event I need to get that data back out of the model to the ViewModel, these are the things I've thought about.

I could fire an event in the Model that the ViewModel subscribes to.
I could perhaps do something with passing around callbacks?
Or should I be doing a second level of INotifyPropertyChanged events between the ViewModel and the Model?
Or am I very confused and completely misunderstanding MVVM?
Answer: It depends on how purist you want to be about MVVM.
You could treat the API itself as your Model, in which case the ViewModel has the WebClient and on Async completed you'd set your properties (and they would in turn fire PropertyChanged from within their setters).
Or you can have a local Model that has the WebClient code in it (as it sounds like you have). In this case, my personal approach would to have a "ModelUpdated" event that fires from the Async complete event. (Your option 1).
Your ViewModel can listen for this event, and either fire a PropertyChanged(null) to have the View ask for ALL properties, or fire multiple PropertyChanged events. Remember you're not restricted to firing PropertyChanged from within your setters. There's nothing stopping you from having a method like
private void FireMultipleProperties(){
NotifyPropertyChanged("Property1");
NotifyPropertyChanged("Property2");
NotifyPropertyChanged("Property3");
}

So you could call that method when the Model finishes populating, and your UI will call update each property when they are fired. You'd only need to do this if you have a ton of properties and don't want to fire them all at once with PropertyChanged(null).
Comment: Thanks Ben. I think I want to keep the local models as they'll be used across a number of ViewModels.

I didn't know about the PropertyChanged(null), that's pretty cool.
Answer: I think you need to introduce a new layer into your architecture; a service layer.  Usually, I pass in my relevant services to my ViewModel and the ViewModel does the handling of the async calls and showing busy states and all that fun stuff.
For instance, if you have a Product Model, and ProductListViewModel with a collection of products and maybe a search command, then you would introduce a ProductSearchService (Or ProductLoadService that loads all products).  I would then pass that ProductSearchService into your ProductListViewModel constructor (dependency injection) and let your ViewModel control the retrieval of the Products (your model objects) by calling the relevant service methods and loading the response.

ProductListService Returns Product (Model) List
ProductListViewModel uses ProductListService to get Products
ProductListView binds to ProductList ObservableCollection in ProductListViewModel.

This pattern essentially resembles Model-View-Controller, where the ViewModel takes more of the Controller responsibilities.
Since you mention REST based web services, I have an example blog post of using MVC 2 JSON results as a service layer for a Win Phone 7 app: Data Driven Win Phone 7 Apps with MVC 2 JSON services


How can we check the total_supply of EVM?

Question: I have integrated pallet_evm in my blockchain? I want to check the total_supply of EVM, How could this be done.
Answer: If you are running a blockchain you can check the premined balance you have, see the frontier node template as example: https://github.com/paritytech/frontier/blob/master/template/node/src/chain_spec.rs#L209
Where is creating a balance for three accounts:

0xd43593c715fdd31c61141abd04a99fd6822c8558: 340,282,366,920,938,463,463,374,607,431,768,210,955 ETH
0x6be02d1d3665660d22ff9624b7be0551ee1ac91b:
340,282,366,920,938,463,463,374,607,431,768,210,955 ETH
0x1000000000000000000000000000000000000001:
999,999,999,999,999,999,999,500 ETH

I am not sure if querying the pallet evm there is an easy way to get the total amount of tokens, but for example in Ethereum if you want to query the total supply of ETH is not that easy. You have to calculate it from the following events:

The pre-mine amount.
Proof-of-work mining rewards.
Uncle Proof-of-work mining rewards.
The EIP-1559 token burn.
Proof-of-work rewards and penalties (Eth2).


Moment of inertia of sphere

Question: I know that the moment of inertia of a sphere is $\frac{2}{5}mr^2$ but using the perpendicular axis theorem we can get that the $I_z=I_x+I_y$ and they are all equal in case of the sphere because of its symmetry, therefore $I = I + I$ and then $I=0$! Isn't that wrong?
Comment: Perhaps this is better asked on the physics stack exchange
Answer: The perpendicular axis theorem can be only used to determine the moment of inertia of a rigid object that lies entirely within a plane.  And a sphere does not.

Moment of inertia of sphere


Superposition of potentials

Question: I'm trying to understand what superposition of potentials means.
For example, let be $$V_0(x) = \begin{cases} 0 &x \in [0,2a]\\ +\infty & \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$$ and $$V_1(x)=-\lambda\delta(x-a), \qquad\lambda>0. $$
If I want to determine the superposition between $V_0$ and $V_1$, what is the result?
I thought that it is a simple "union" of the two potentials, so
$$V(x) =V_0(x)+V_1(x)= \begin{cases} -\lambda\delta(x-a) &x \in [0,2a]\\ \\  +\infty & \text{otherwise}\end{cases} $$ Is this correct?
Comment: Are you talking about superposition of states? "superposition of potentials" just sounds like a strange way to say that they are additive. And that has little to do with it being quantum. Maybe you are using the right terms, and I simply have no idea what they mean. But maybe you are using the wrong terms.
Comment: I'm sure of what I wrote because I reported an exam text.
Comment: Right. $V_1$ with BCs imposed by $V_0$. People abuse language.
Comment: Yes. In the context of it being from an exam test, they most likely meant two additive potentials, but the phrasing of the question "superposition of potentials in quantum mechanics" was misleading.
Answer: If the potentials are in superposition, in the quantum mechanical sense, then the potentials themselves must be quantum mechanical. This means that you are dealing with a quantum field theory. In quantum field theory, fields can be in a state of superposition just like ordinary quantum mechanics: the overall state is just the sum of the two states of the potentials (note: it's the sum of two states, not one state given by adding the two potentials).
After all, potentials can be caused by quantum objects or even directly related to quantum mechanics.  This means that the final solution can be a superposition of states with different potentials.
Comment: Potentials are not in superposition: they are simply additive in the same way that the potential of mass-spring system in a gravitational field is the sum of the potential for the spring and the gravitational potential.  This has nothing to do with anything quantum.
Comment: @ZeroTheHero The question itself is titled "Superposition of potentials", so why are you saying that "Potentials are not in superposition"?  After all, potentials can be caused by quantum objects or even directly related to quantum mechanics (e.g. an electric potential is created by an electron and the electric potential is itself a quantum field, called a photon).
Comment: @ZeroTheHero I think you need to think about the big, complete picture to understand my answer at all.
Comment: With due respect: there is confusion in the mind of the OP and possibly in your on mind.  You can superpose states or solutions, but nobody speaks of superpositions of potentials.  There is no quantum field here: just a single potential with is defined piecewise.  You can solve for this potential using ordinary quantum mechanics, without invoking fields.  And the solution is NOT the superposition of solutions for each potential alone.
Comment: @ZeroTheHero I see... I thought the OP is asking about superposition of potentials in the solutions/states.  I'll edit my question to clarify it.

Superposition of potentials


When writing a formula in excel, is there a way to use relative address for a cell which has been named?

Question: Even pressing F4 multiple times, I cannot use relative address in a formula when referring to a cell which has been named. Does this issue have a solution?
For example, Think about a case in which I have some data in row1 and row2 and I want to use sum function in row 3 such that each cell of row 3 show the sum of its corresponding values of row 1 and row 2; meaning C1=A1+B1, C2=A2+B2 and …I want to perform this by dragging C1 formula to other cells of row3, but if I have already named A1 to something like "sales" and when writhing C1 formula type sales instead of A1, by dragging C1 formula, C2 becomes C2="sales"+B2 rather than C2=A2+B2.( This example was an ordinary one in which one can easily type A1 instead of sales, but think a case this issue occurs when you are dealing with a workbook with multiple sheets and you want to refer to a cell that you have already named for convenience and use relative addressing in your formula, this would be very uncomfortable).
Comment: Reference to named ranges is always absolute, I don't think making it relative (therefore changing name when you copy formula) would be a significant need which Microsoft would consider to address. Maybe if you share a bit more background we might suggest a workaround.
Comment: Can you please add more information (screenshots, sample data, your formula, expected output). Naming a cell (e.g. A1) to whatever, and referencing `=A1` would simply work for me.
Comment: `F4 `is a keyboard shortcut,  repeats  command or action. However, the shortcut does not always work !!
Comment: You can get row/column number of named cell. It is absolute. You can get the same for the cell, in which you enter the formula, by value. It is absolute. You can get the same for the cell, in which you enter the formula, by formula. It is relative. Then `first-second+third` will give you relative row/column numbers while copy or drag-n-drop. Having row and column numbers you can build the reference to the cell which will be relative.
Answer: One option I can think about (which would be volatile) and I don't really see the practicality myself:

Cell A1 is a named cell 'Test'. Formula in C1:
=OFFSET(Test,ROW(1:1)-1,0)+B1

Drag down.
Answer: The one thing you CANNOT do is have Excel natively change "sales" back to a cell reference.
So if the idea is to change it in the pre-fill formula, I cannot see how finding something to click on or buried in the Ribbon would be easier than just typing the address over the NR name. And one cell? Even 10x easier isn't anything much. If the cell referred to is actually pretty hard to accurately type, click, etc., maybe even in another spreadsheet that you can't even open and click on... all you need do is open the Name Manager, edit the NR to show the cell reference, highlight, copy, close it all, then paste in the formula replacing the name. So easy to be accurate, no matter how daunting the written reference would be to type.
Moving on... if you want to retain it in the first cell (C1 here), undo it as above, fill down, then reapply Names to fix C1 back up.
If that doesn't matter, set the formula up in C2 after doing C1, the name won't appear, and fill down with C2's formula.
If there is nothing daunting about the cell address, then just type it ("A1"). Excel does not automatically convert typed addresses into NR's that are identical. You have to tell it to do so. Then fill.
You can use a whole different approach than the one you insist upon, as suggested by JvdV. That formula works nicely, but then so did typing "A1" instead of "sales" so...
If I had to make a bet, I'd say:
1) You really have a complicated thing to type without the NR name and want to avoid that. The Name Manager-Copy-Paste approach solves that.
2) Have a bet and are deperately hoping someone can tell you a rare secret. There is none though so...
3) Are pretty sure you need to write a macro to do things, or buy an Add-In. Well, yes, unless you can do the little steps above.
4) Have a controlled situation and someone can do this, so they must be violating the rules and you have to have proof of it being impossible in ordinary use.
5) Heck, who knows?
Finally, if you are faced with something dauntingly complex to type, much less get right again and again, don't use the Name Manager like this. Create a sheet that you move with you when jumping sheets. On that "crib" sheet, keep all the longform cell references you need from time to time and use copy and paste from that to put them in. So, hardest case, really:
1) Enter your formula using bogus names in places you will fill in. Do a real formula as you go so you get the benefit of colored parentheses and so on, and when ready to hit Enter, press Ctrl-Home instead, type a Space, and hit Enter. Go back and forth, replacing stand-in bogosity with the appropriate references from the crib sheet, then press Ctrl-Home again and remove the space at the start. Hit Enter and see how you did.
If you can buy an Add-In instead of rolling your own VBA, Kutools offers one that specifically claims to do what Excel does not do natively and give you cell addresses for the Named Ranges in your formulas:
https://www.extendoffice.com/product/kutools-for-excel/replace-range-names-in-formulas.html
You know:  and other stuff to. If memory serves, it's pricey though. One can look into others too.


How do I determine whether a permit is required for a new gas line?

Question: I would like to have an exterior gas line installed (for a grill) and an exterior frost-proof faucet (so it's closer to my garden). I had a plumber come out and his quote came back "Any permit by owner". How do I find out if I need to pull a permit? Is the plumber trying to get me to pull a "work by owner" permit (which honestly I think I could do). Does this seem reasonable? I would probably honestly do the work myself except I'm too busy and I've never done natural gas work before.
Answer: You would need to find out who the authority having jurisdiction is. Often time, it is the city, county, or township where you are located. In some cases, it might be the state as well (in MN for electrical, for example).
The wording is a little ambiguous, however. They could mean:

You (the owner) pull the permit, but put down that the contractor is doing the work. This is not unheard of and probably fine. The contractor may be small and not want to deal with pulling the permit. This will then also indicate to you whether they are (or need to be) licensed to work where you are.
They want you to pull a permit as if you as the owner were performing the work. Do not do this. In this case, if something goes wrong with the job, you would be the one responsible for it. For example, after the work is done, the inspection reveals some issues that needs to be addressed. Do you think the contractor will not come and fix it if they've already been paid? Probably not. This scenario could also lead to issues when you sell the house.
Comment: Yep. Walk into your city office complex and look for the Building Permits office. Ask until you have the answer. It's that simple. Philipp offers great advice about liability.
Comment: Good answer, but just to add, permit fees can (depending on the jurisdiction and, I dunno, the phase of the moon) vary widely. Small contractors might prefer to push that load directly onto the client so they don't have billing issues. And when you're in the permits office, remember to ask if any other pressure testing will be required: some jurisdictions require a whole house pressure test (at surprisingly high pressure), which can cause failure, which will then need repair.
Comment: You should also clarify who sits for inspections and if that's the plumber, how is that charged. (AHJs often only specify that an inspection will occur in a 4 hour window, which is time-consuming.)
Comment: Just call the borough/township people. I thought I needed to contact someone for my upgraded fireplace per the code and ended up being since it was propane and not natural gas, nothing needed to be done.
Comment: @AloysiusDefenestrate "ask if any other pressure testing will be required: some jurisdictions require a whole house pressure test (at surprisingly high pressure)" really good advice, thank you!


Is the Chevrolet TPI batch fire injection?

Question: I'm looking at a Chevy Tuned Port Injection (TPI) system from a 91 Camaro Z28 with a 350 cubic inch motor. Is the injection on this batch fire (fires all injectors at the same time regardless of the intake stroke of the cylinder)? The 93 LT1 motor was batch fire, then changed to sequential port injection (injectors fire in time with intake valve opening) in 94.
Comment: The information on various forums sure is confusing. The sure-fire way to know would be to backprobe a couple of injectors. Not sure if that's the answer you're looking for though'
Comment: You could, but without an ocilliscope or some way to tell the pulse rate, it would be hard to tell.
Comment: I dug around some sources and could not find the info.  You could buy two noid lights and hook them up. If they flash at the same time it is bank fired. way cheaper than a scope. Scopes open a world of testing not available any other way.
Answer: According to this Corvette web site which pulled this from GM Performance:

"Most early EFI systems were batch-fire systems where the ECM fired all eight injectors simultaneously. Usually batch-fire systems fire the injectors once per engine revolution. This way, the injectors could be sized small enough to be more easily controlled at idle. Later, sequential EFI systems were refined to fire an injector a few degrees before the intake valve opened. Generally, sequential injection offers more precise fuel control at the price of increased complexity. But on production engines, the benefits are more in the area of emissions and driveability than in performance".

So the answer appears to be that the TPI injection system is indeed a batch fire system which fires all eight injectors at the same time. I found several other sources which corroborate this. For instance:
Thirdgen.com
There does appear to be some mis-information out there concening this. Some would say these systems fire 1/2 at a time (odd bank, then even bank, etc, four injectors at a time). This is not correct. The Reason for this mis-information is that the injectors run on two separate circuits. The only reason for splitting these as was done was to distribute the electrical load so as to not overload one circuit.


How Can Linux Top Show 2% Idle, but Load Say 1.20?

Question: On CentOS5, I'm seeing the 'top' command showing a hover between 20% and 2% idle, but then the load says 1.20. How can that be possible? When I type 'uptime', as well, I see 3 load numbers that are generally around 1.20 - 1.35.
Comment: You need to provide more info to understand your question. For example you need to tell us the number of processors of your server. A load of > 1 in a single processor server is consistent with a 2% idle. Check: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Load_(computing)
Answer: Things like waiting on I/O don't take any CPU time but can block other processes from running.
Answer: Maybe you have a process in uninterruptible sleep (process state "D")?
They don't really contribute to load per se while they're sleeping but they are a constant process on the run queue thus the load is artificially inflated.
Cheers


How to remove surrounding quotes inside a String in Erlang?

Question: I am using epgsql to query a database, in Erlang. It returns string results including quotation marks surrounding them like this: "what_was_in_the_row".  How can I remove these quotation marks before working with the result?
Comment: Are you sure it has double quotes? How are you checking? `io:format("~p", ...)` will print an extra double quotes around the string.
Comment: @Dogbert I am putting it and another value in a string with io_lib:format("~p ~p", [Value1, Value2]), and sending it over a socket to a Python program.  The python program sees it as having quotes.  I am currently stripping the quotes away on the Python side.
Answer: the control format ~p (pretty print) keeps information about the type of the variables that are printed. You are printing a string, which is, in erlang, a standard integer list made of printable characters for example [101,102,103] is displayed as "efg" in the shell.
If you call io_lib:format("~p",[[101,102,103]])., you will get the result ["\"efg\""] which needs some explanation.

The surrounding brackets indicate a list, which is the return value type of io_lib:format/2,
then the first double quotes indicates another list that maybe a string, it is syntactic sugar, but it is not part of the result (I say maybe because any list that looks like a string will be displayed as a string with pretty print),
finally the \" is an escape sequence that represents the single character "

You can evaluate the length of each string to verify the difference:

3 = length("efg").
5 = length("\"efg\"").

If you want to get the string without the surrounding quotes, you must use the control format ~s
1> [Res] = io_lib:format("~s",[[101,102,103]]).
["efg"]
2> length(Res).
3
3> [Res] = io_lib:format("~s",[Res]).
["efg"]

Of course, the last line shows that my example is stupid. With io_lib:format("~s ~s!",["Hello","world"]). or any more complex formatting, the result is of type chars(): a  list of char() or chars().


Econometrics - Testing

Question: If we have a time series of returns and two time series of indicators, how would we test the use of these indicators if they are autocorrelated or nonstationary (VAR Models dont produce significant results).
Comment: What I mean to say is I want to test whether a signal can predict returns, but the signal is autocorrelated and possibly nonstationary. How would I go about this testing?
Answer: The classical assumptions of linear regression are that the errors are uncorrelated and the variance of errors is constant (homoskedastic). So regress the returns against the indicators and test for autocorrelation and heteroskedasticity in the errors. If you don't observe any, then there's no issue with conventional hypothesis testing. If you do, use White or Newey-West standard errors (standard in most statistical packages), as appropriate, to compute new t-statistics, then proceed with hypothesis testing.

Econometrics - Testing


Error in Docker: bad address to executables

Question: I'm trying to something with Docker.
Steps I'm doing:
- Launch Docker Quickstart Terminal
- run docker run hello-world
Then I get error like:
bash: /c/Program Files/Docker Toolbox/docker: Bad address
I have to say that I was able to run hello-world image, but now I'm not. I don't know what happend.
I don't know if it matters however I had some problems at instalation step.
Since I have git installed in non standard location. However it seems git bash.exe working correctly for Docker.
My environment:

Windows 10
Git 2.5.0 (installed before Docker)
Docker Toolbox 1.9.1a
Answer: I have the same issue with bash: /c/Program Files/Docker Toolbox/docker: Bad address
I thought the problems is "bash doesn't support docker.exe".
SO  I fix this problem by use powershell ,not the bash.
and if you use powershell maybe face this
An error occurred trying to connect: Get http://localhost:2375/v1.21/containers/json: dial tcp 127.0.0.1:2375: ConnectExenter code here
 tcp: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it.

You can export variable  from bash use export and import to powershell by this below
$env:DOCKER_HOST="tcp://192.168.99.100:2376"
$env:DOCKER_MACHINE_NAME="default"
$env:DOCKER_TLS_VERIFY="1"
$env:DOCKER_TOOLBOX_INSTALL_PATH="C:\\Program Files\\Docker Toolbox"
$env:DOCKER_CERT_PATH="C:\\Users\\kk580\\.docker\\machine\\machines\\default"

that's all
ps:I found this problem fixed by update git from 2.5.0 to 2.6.3.
Comment: Updating git to 2.6.4 resolved my problem. Thanks for that.
Answer: Not entirely sure what the issue is, report it to the project on github. I find the docker mac and windows tools a bit flakey from time to time as they are still maturing. If you don't mind seeing what's underneath, you can try running docker-machine directly or set up your own host pretty quickly with Vagrant.
Docker Machine
Run a command or bash prompt to see what machines you have.
docker-machine ls

Create a machine if you don't have one listed
docker-machine create -d "virtualbox" default-docker

Then connect to the listed machine (or default-docker)
docker-machine ssh default-docker

Vagrant
If that doesn't work you can always use vagrant to manage VM's

Install VirtualBox (Which you probably have already if you installed the toolbox)
Reinstall Git, make sure you select the option for adding ALL the tools to your system PATH (for vagrant ssh)
Install Vagrant

Run a command or bash prompt
mkdir docker
cd docker
vagrant init debian/jessie64
vagrant up --provider virtualbox

Then to connect to your docker host you can run (from the same docker directory you created above)
vagrant ssh

Now your on the docker host, Install the latest docker the first time
curl https://get.docker.com/ | sudo sh

Docker
Now you have either a vagrant or docker-machine host up, you can docker away after that.
sudo docker run -ti busybox bash

You could also use PuTTY to connect to vagrant machines instead of installing git/ssh and running vagrant ssh. It provides a nicer shell experience but it requires some manual setup of the ssh connections.


Core Text Background Color for iOS 6

Question: I am using NSAttributedString in iOS6 and I cannot seem to get this to work:
[attributedString addAttribute:NSBackgroundColorAttributeName
                           value:[UIColor yellowColor]
                           range:range];

Is this method call and NSBackgroundColorAttributeName supported in iOS6?
Edit:
Solved it. It was a legacy issue on my side. The previous kct* (eg. kctforegroundcolorattributename) string attribute constants were still being used. These prevented the newer API values from being implemented correctly.
Answer: You must use an NSMutableAttributedString

Core Text Background Color for iOS 6


Trying to find a sci fi story about a dystopian future and partners

Question: This story was about teens/kids in a school, they would hook up to some VR or some other device, and it would show them their future.  In the book, one of the cool girls saw the future and she was married to one of the "nerds" I guess you'd call it in the class.  She didn't want that, so while she was in the "future" she killed him.  When they "returned" from the experience, something had happened to the nerd. However, when the future happened, she was left out in the cold, while she saw him in the safety of a walled city with one of the other classmates, that could have been her, instead she is now out in the dystopian landscape instead of being in the safety of the walled city.  It sort of sounds like Oath of Fealty, but isn't that book, it was a short story.
Comment: Can you tell us when you read or saw this?  It helps narrow the field of search a lot.
Comment: oh my gosh, it would have been when I was a teen, back in the late '60's, early '70's.
Answer: This sounds like one of James Tiptree Jr's last stories: 'Backward, Turn Backward', that appeared in the posthumous collection 'Crown of Stars' (1988).
The girl is living on the street when she is rescued by the 'nerd'.
Once returned to the start of the story (having killed her benefactor) she winds up back on the street, where gang-members set her on fire for kicks.
I loved Tiptree's early stuff, but even when I read it I thought this story made no sense at all!
Comment: I don't know whether this is the answer or not.  However, the plot description sounds REALLY creepy for a very late Tiptree work, in light of the the violence and ambiguous circumstances of her own death.


1995 Accord Ex Battery keeps disconnecting

Question: So my battery keeps disconnecting, and has been for a couple of days now, resulting in the lights on the dash lighting up for a brief moment and then turning back off and not the car not starting. The positive terminal is more than likely close to the age of the car, pretty loose, and what I assumed was causing the disconnects as I tightened the negative one and it does not move. I would tighten down the positive clamp and it still be able to slip off the post. Guy at AutoZone gave me some post shims to fit over it, installed it this morning and was able to tighten down the positive clamp, but the car was still not starting. It still took some jiggling both cables to get it to turn over and it did start. Any solutions as to why it still wont start? I had the battery tested and it was still good.
Comment: Did you clean all the oxides off the battery terminal and the clamps before you reconnected them?
Answer: Another loose connection on the other end of one of the cables is a distinct possibility.
Otherwise it could commonly be an internally broken cable.
Test and find out.


Software Developer - change core skills to match current employer, or change employer to match core skills?

Question: Should an OOP developer only seek companies in tune with their desired direction and abilities?
Comment: @toddmo You may have a valid point, but redesigning is redesigning and maintenance is maintenance. Consider if you're asked to repair a house that is built using old techniques and you tell the owner, "well I'd just tear it down and start over because it will be better". The owner has the right to decide if that's the course she'll take.
Comment: What do they expect you to use instead? Why? And why is your boss telling you how to do your job?
Comment: @toddmo So it sounds a bit like you're doing maintenance on a system which is already designed as non-OOP, and you'd prefer to redo parts of it as OOP. But your boss wants you to just keep it how it is and do your maintenance task. Maybe it would be better redesigned, but if that's not your job... Personally I'd like to redesign it using a functional paradigm instead.
Answer: If your boss is not aware what object orientated programming is then that should be a massive red flag for the software shop.
If you are afraid that your skillset will atrophy unless you do at least 8 hours a day of practice then that should be a massive red flag for you as a developer, I have not written any code in Visual Studio for windows in over 10 years, but if I have to I am sure that I can hop back into it and hit 90% productivity in a matter of hours.
Unless the core product of said company is software components (so their main customer base is programmers) then there is no reason or indication as to why there is a need for a dramatic change, due to the fact that 100% of customers dont actually
(in my experience complete re-writes of projects tend to repeat all the same mistakes as the original software. )
Comment: @toddmo - superficially aware of the dominant programming paradigm of the last 20 years? You've got to be kidding.
Comment: @toddmo in 97 OOP already had a massive foothold in the industry, VB5, C++, Java, Ada, were all OO technologies that were rather prominent then (just to name a few) .. Some of your comments make it appear that you are extremely green to this field. There is a old saying, if it ain't broke dont fix it. The customers really dont care what tech something is built on (and nor should they. ) They care about having a product that works, and your boss cares about making sure that the customers have a product that works, I fail to see a real issue here
Answer: If you really want to do OOP work, you probably need to change jobs. There could well come a time that your employer is not so thrilled with you using company time to stay fresh on OOP when it doesn't serve the company agenda.
Look at a switch to OOP from your employer perspective for a minute.  Are you the only developer? Then you might be able to get a change in programming model accomplished.  If there's a number of other developers, the organization has momentum that is difficult to turn. Those other developers would also need to change models and may not have the skills so now it's also a big training and re-staffing issue.


How to use Transect-based sampling to select sample trees

Question: I was wondering if you help me how to use Transect-based sampling to select sample trees
Answer: More detail on what your studying, the question you want to answer, and how you want to go about doing it would be very helpful. But I can answer this basic question of how to select tree's with a transect.
You will need:

Forms to fill out for data.
A compass.
A transect tape (really a very long tape measure, about 100 yards or meters).
A sampling design that fits your study. (I'm assuming you already have this, but if you want to talk more about it see above.)
A wooden meter stick.

Once you are in your 1st area and ready to select a random subset of trees.

Pick a random spot. (Usually done by throwing a stick or water bottle over the back of your head and going wherever it lands).
Pick a random number between 0-360. This will be the random direction you go in from your random spot. Find north on your compass, then which way your random number points. In your mind mark a way point in that distance you can walk to (a mountain peak, a distinct tree, anything).
Stick the beginning of your transect tape in the ground and start walking. The length that you walk should be predetermined from your study design.

Now you'll select trees to perform whatever measurement that you've decided on. But how? Most forests are not so dense that a straight transect tape will touch many of them. This is where the meter stick comes in. Walk back down the transect and choose any tree that comes within 1 meter of the tape on either side. Is the forest not dense enough to include enough trees that way? Then simply increase the length of your transect, or length that you measure out from the transect (ie. 2 meters, or 3 meters).
This is technically called a "belt transect". And it used in natural resources to measure things that are abundant, but not very dense. Such as trees in a forest or shrubs in the desert. It is essentially a giant quadrat.
Why all the randomness? Humans are naturally bias. Even if you think you are not being bias, you could subconsciously be choosing a starting point in a dense patch of trees, or a direction that will let you measure your favorite species. A rigorous study relies on a random sample of a population of interest, and small non-random decisions like this means it is not a random sample, but a bias sample.
Comment: Thanks for the prompt reply. Some detail about my study I want to investigate the effect of browsing on above ground carbon-stock in boreal forest. I have two treatments browsed and unbrowsed. 20 x20 meters plots are randomly selected to exclosure or unexclosed plot on the site. Each plot has four subplots measure a radius of 2 meters. To measure the carbon stock I need to transfer sample trees to the laboratory. I want to select a total of 80 sample trees. I found out Transect-based sampling will easy method to select my tree sample. let me know if you need more detail.
Comment: Hmm, based on what you said you should do it a bit differently. Within each 20x20 meter plot the 4 subplots should be placed either randomly or at equal intervals.
If you will have enough tree's with this will depend on the tree density. You can increase the radius or number of subplots to account for this.


How can you use an oaken barrel for secondary fermentation?

Question: I may be able to get my hands on a oaken barrel that I'd love to age a Scottish ale in. What can I do to sanitize it adequately and minimize oxygen exposure?
Answer: More beer has a great guide on taking care of oak barrels which covers cleaning, sanitizing, etc.
The overview is: keep it filled so that it doesn't dry out and use a sulfur-dioxide mixture to sanitize. The oak will soak up some of the beer over time, so brew a little extra and keep it on hand to refill as the level goes down.
You should also remember that oak has some oxygen permeability which is one of the features of using an oak barrel.
Comment: yes this is true, I would expect a slight amount of oxidation from secondary in the barrel


How did Irish defeat Norse at Battle of Tara in 980 CE.?

Question: At the Battle of Tara in 980 C.E. the Norse were (apparently) heavily defeated by the Irish. There is not much material or sources on this battle. Does anyone have  ideas on how the Irish were able to win?
Comment: The tone of this question seems to presume that the Norse would automatically be the better fighters. This is not necessarily true.
Answer: No one knows.
The battle of Tara led to the siege of Dublin and further defeat for the Vikings.
The Annals of the four masters has this to say:

M978.3
The battle of Teamhair was gained by Maelseachlainn, son of Domhnall, over the foreigners of Ath-cliath and of the Islands, and over the sons of Amhlaeibh in particular, where many were slain, together with Raghnall, son of Amhlaeibh, heir to the sovereignty of the foreigners; Conamhail, son of Gilla-Arri; and the orator of Ath-cliath; and a dreadful slaughter of the foreigners along with them. There fell also in the heat of the battle Braen, son of Murchadh, royal heir of Leinster; Conghalach, son of Flann, lord of Gaileanga, and his son, i.e. Maelan; Fiachna and Cuduilich, the two sons of Dubhlaech, two lords of Feara Tulach; and Lachtnan, lord of Mughdhorn-Maighen. After this Amhlaeibh went across the sea, and died at I-Coluim-Cille.

...

M979.6
A great army was led by Maelseachlainn, son of Domhnall, King of Ireland, and by Eochaidh, son of Ardgar, King of Ulidia, against the foreigners of Ath-cliath; and they laid siege to them for three days and three nights, and carried thence the hostages of Ireland, and among the rest Domhnall Claen, King of Leinster, and all the hostages of the Ui-Neill. Two thousand was the number of the hostages, besides jewels and goods, and the freedom of the Ui- Neill, from the Sinainn to the sea, from tribute and exaction. It was then Maelseachlainn himself issued the famous proclamation, in which he said:— "Every one of the Gaeidhil who is in the territory of the foreigners, in servitude and bondage, let him go to his own territory in peace and happiness." This captivity was the Babylonian captivity of Ireland, until they were released by Maelseachlainn; it was indeed next to the captivity of hell.

It may be that this account represents almost everything that remains known about the event.
So whether it was overwhelming numbers, a better defensive position, better tactics, better supplies or some other factor or combination of factors is probably unknowable.
According to Wikipedia: "the Hill of Tara, according to tradition, was the seat of the High King of Ireland." so, if occupied by the forces of Mael Sechnaill and allies, it's cultural significance to them ought to have been a factor affecting their morale. The defensive earthworks at the top a hill may also have been a helpful factor in a three-day battle.

I don't know if there are other accounts in Irish sagas or elsewhere that provide a lengthier or more detailed description, if so we have to take into account that such stories tend to flatter their sponsors.
Comment: That quote sounds far too much like the Siege of Dublin the following year to be quite correct - especially as *Baile Átha Cliath* is the ancient name for Dublin. Please verify.
Comment: @Pieter: Thanks, you are right. I was misled by the dates and didn't read as carefully as I should.
Comment: Having a good defensive position on a hill has certianly been known to be pretty dang decisive against even impressively long odds.
Comment: The Annals of the Four Masters were complied from earlier works in 1632-1636.  Unless their account was pure imagination, it must have been based on earlier sources such as The Annals of Ulster c. 1489 which in turn quotes earlier sources verbatum.  It is possible that an expert on medieval Irish history could identify earlier detailed descriptions of the Battle of Tara.
Comment: I know the irish gaels were very good fighters and it seems mael sechnaill who lead them in this battle was a pretty good military leader but with that being said olaf who of course was an old man by 980 had crushed the irish in at least 3 major battles previously (ardmulchan, belan and kilmona) and when you read about him seemed pretty strong with a considerable part of ireland under tax. And on top of that historians mostly point to the fact that vikings or the norse did have a significant advantage in close combat over the irish because of their heavy armor superior weapons.
Comment: The US army usually defeated American Indians, but that was little consolation to the men of St. Clair, Dade, Fetterman, or Custer.  As I remember the Norman knights had a hard time charging uphill to attack the Saxons at Hastings, and almost lost the battle.  Perhaps charging uphill at Tara tired out the Norse too much and they couldn't fight well.


Differential equation for finding closest point on surface.

Question: Inspired by this question I got to think about a more general case. Say I have any discretized surface and want to find closest point from each point outside of surface to the surface. Say that I can estimate a local tensor for the local tangent space and normal space. Can I create a differential equation to encode with a vector field which optimally points out trajectories to go from each point and end up on a point on the surface of the object which would be the closest point?
Answer: This is only an indirect answer to your question.
Because your surface is discretized, it is a polyhedron.
Then you have an exterior  point $a$, and you seek $b$ on the polyhedron that is
closest to $a$, i.e., which minimizes the distance $|ab|$.  This can be formulated as a quadratic
programming problem, for which there are many algorithms.
For example, the GJK algorithm is often used:

E. G. Gilbert, D. W. Johnson, and S. S. Keerthi,  "A fast procedure for computing the distance between complex objects in three dimensional space",  IEEE J. Robot. Automat.,  vol. 4,  pp.193-203. 1988 (PDF download)

So, I think the essence here is not a differential equation, but rather
a quadratic equation that must be minimized.
Comment: Thanks a lot for the input. I was stuck in an old way of thinking.
Answer: Ok, so I thought I could post what I got stuck on thinking about.
Two rectangular objects in the image below.

We want to find shortest distance from any other point to the objects' boundaries. We calculate vectors along the boundaries which are gradients i.e. in the direction normal to the surface. If we fix these vectors as boundary conditions and then try and optimize some local cost function for all the other points. Here is a small experiment.

We can for instance try to minimize the gradient of the field. This is what happens if we try that:

So the basic idea is that if we follow the arrows we will end up on the closest point on the boundary. We see that minimizing the $L_2$ norm of the gradient really may not be what exactly what we should be doing, although it is not entirely off either.
Here is a color coded version of the image. Notice how the boundary condition "reaches out" and causes the surrounding data points to "glow":


Analytics Builder - Incorrect Email Metrics

Question: Whenever we pull an email send report using the 'Recent Email Send Summary Report' we have particular jobs whose delivery rates are lower than their open rates. often the delivered counts are 1 or 2 out of 200, while the open rates remain accurate e.g. 50, 60, etc. Is there a workaround in place for this? Looks like it's only affecting certain emails.
Answer: I think you're confusing some of the tracking terms in the Recent Email Send Summary Report.

Deliverability Rate:  Percentage of Emails Delivered
Open Rate:    Percentage of Emails Delivered that were Emails Opened
Comment: I wish I was confusing terms. Unfortunately, therein lies the problem. Whenever we pull in a certain report, it says that the those delivered are usually 1 or 2, whereas the opens are accurate, usually around 40% depending on send. Have you run into this reporting issue previously?
Comment: If 2 were delivered and only 1 opened, then you'll have a 50% open rate.
Comment: Sorry wasn't clear with my example. Say we sent 100 emails. Our report will show 1 delivered with 50 opens, and 25 click throughs. So all metrics are correct except for deliverability. Not sure if it's a server issue. Any thoughts?


d-separation in Bayes Network vs separation in undirected graph

Question: I've been teaching myself about d-separation and am trying to answer the following question. Given the graphs below, write down all conditional independence relationships involving the random variable C i.e. $C \perp X|Y$
Note: I've had to use $\perp$ for conditional independence as I don't know how to write the proper symbol in LaTeX without adding stuff to preamble (which stackexchange doesn't have).
Here are the graphs:

For image (i), we have a tail-to-tail relationship at B which means C and A are d-separated and so I have $C \perp A|B$. I cannot find any more conditional independence relationships here of the form $C \perp X | Y$ since both $B$ and $D$ are adjacent to $C$ and therefore not valid. Is this right?
For image (ii), we have a head-to-tail relationship at B and D. I think this means $C \perp A|B$ and $C \perp A|D$ and $C \perp A| \{ B,D\}$. I was tempted to write $C \perp B|D$ but I don't think this is valid since only one of the possible paths from C to B would be d-separated. So I find a total of three valid conditional indpendence relationships. Is that right?
For image (iii) and (iv), the problem is now that the graphs are undirected and I have not been able to find as much material online to help with this. I was wondering if someone could help with the following:
(a) explain the meaning of the black squares in (iv)
(b) link to some notes/videos that might help with finding conditional independencies in undirected graphs
Thanks!
Answer: (a) The black squares represent factors in a factor graph. Wikipedia is the wiki page about factor graphs.
(b) A pdf from stat cmu is a reference about Undirected Graph / Markov Random Field.
Comment: Thanks. Yeah I found some helpful stuff as well. Understand it all now :)


Is tire life by mileage a failure point or wear point?

Question: When getting new tires and a seller refers to a tire with a 60,000 mileage life does that mean that the actual tire is expected to reach a full wear pattern by a certain thickness or is that from a tested failure rate around that mileage?  Though, Ive never been able to actually get the full mileage life of a tire even rotating and balancing during the suggestive intervals I've always wondered what the milage life meant when considering new tires.
Comment: I believe it is expected mileage for a tire. It can be more or less in practice depending on the roads and driving style.
Answer: When shopping for tires, some of them will have a mileage warranty, normally in the range of 40,000-70,000 miles.  When a mileage number is listed, it is a pro-rated tread life warranty.  When the tires are kept properly inflated, and rotated on a strict, verifiable schedule, they should give you the listed number of miles before the tread reaches the minimum safe tread depth (typically 2/32".. Which of course is 1/16", but everyone insists on calling it 2/32" for some unknown reason).

Typical tire mileage warranty advertisement
If the tires fail to last that long, and you can verify the rotations, and the tread wear pattern doesn't show any problems with inflation or alignment, then you will be entitled to a warranty claim based on the difference between miles traveled and the miles promised.  As you can imagine, meeting all the requirements is a challenge, and in the end you're probably only going to get maybe 20% of the purchase price of only the tires, so most people don't bother unless the tires really under-performed.
Sport or specialty tires rarely have a mileage rating, but all tires should have a Uniform Tire Quality Grading (UTQG) rating (in the US).  This value is a non-milage based number that ranges in the typical range of 400s-700s.  This is a good number to keep an eye on rather than miles because it attempts to be standardized across brands.  A manufacturer can put whatever mileage warranty they want, but the UTQG must be tested.

UTQG stamp on sidewall of a tire
Comment: Speaking of 2/32", I would presume because the gauge reads that way, and to get around the need for conversions. Say you get your tread measured, and they tell you there is 1/4"  inch left, you get it read later and they tell you 1/8, then they tell you its 3/32, then finally "It's time to replace your tires, they are at 1/16" and having a customer be confused. Instead they would say 8/32, 4/32, 3/32, 2/32 and it presents a ground base for comparison even if they are bad at math. It is an unfortunate side effect of our imperial measurements and cultural math illiteracy...
Comment: @wedstrom Not necessarily math illiteracy in the USA but just a basic problem of comparing fractions isn't simple. I'm guessing it's one of the biggest reasons that virtually the entire world uses the metric system.
Answer: I would assume it's a calculated estimate, based on an "average" wear rate for the compound used - I'd expect that they would run the tyre in controlled conditions for a certain mileage, measure the wear, and extrapolate out to give a full wear life.
As with all these things, the controlled conditions of the test means it's unlikely that many people would achieve it in real life...
Answer: The testing for tires has components in them which I find nefarious and not realistic.  I've never had a 60,000 mile tire last the anticipated distances.  My driving 'style' is most probably the delta between the testing regiment and what I actually get out of a 60,000 mile tire.
Comment: I got 50,000 miles out of a set of tires (the rated life), they were 13 years old when I replaced them. The car was given to me by someone else, and they only used it for city driving, if that makes any difference.
Answer: About 4 years ago, I bought a set of General Altimax RTs for my 2007 Camry. On a dangerous driving scale of 10=highest, I'd say I drive around a 7. Almost always 10-15MPH over the speed limit on freeway and aggressive starts. My Camry has a V6 which has more than enough power to spin the wheels if I try hard enough. With this said, 4 years later, those Generals have gotten a lot louder, but their tread (UTQG ~700) is hovering at about 5/32 which puts them at about 50% used up. Over 50K on the set with rotations about once every two years and a lifetime alignment check every year, these tires have far exceeded what I was expecting from a General Tire. The downside is they don't like it when it's raining out. Rain traction is nearly non-existent- have to granny throttle it. But on dry days - look out! 50K miles and likely will get 70K before finally going after another set - probably the newer RT43!