Quadcore or Dual QuadCore?

Question: As a DBA, which would you pick for your workstation? QuadCore 2.4GHz with 12GB ram or Dual QuadCore 2.0GHz with 6GB ram?
Comment: the more ram the better!
Answer: Get the memory.  'As a DBA' you're going to be doing I/O bound work more than CPU bound work.  Assuming you have a 64-bit O/S the memory is probably more useful than the CPU cores.
If you are feeling flush, get some internal disks (SSDs for the particularly well heeled) so you can test stuff locally on the machine.  I use XW9300s (pimped somewhat by adding internal SCSI disk arrays) for data warehouse development work with Windows XP and SQL Server developer edition.  This works surprisingly well.  A 64-bit build with 12GB of RAM would be even better, and a similar trick could be done with Linux and Oracle.
Comment: I believe that's the route I'm going to take.
Comment: Just as an aside, if you're considering a machine with fast local disks, look at something like an HP XW4600.  These machines aren't much dearer than a normal PC but have a pci-e x4 slot that will take a RAID controller.
Answer: I would go for the Dual Quad core and I will tell you why.  Put simply the dual quadcore system will continue to be useful as it has enough processing capability that it will not be outpaced by the tendency of software to become more bloated over time.
You can always buy more memory when it is not running fast enough for you.  And to be honest, the memory sticks are getting to be pretty cheap now.
Your system will have a much longer service life if you go with the one with the greater processing capability.
Answer: I would pick RAM over cores. Most programs aren't designed to the point of using more than 2-4 cores at the most.
Comment: Assuming you only have a single program running, though :-)

Quadcore or Dual QuadCore?


How to get American citizenship back, once it is renounced?

Question: American citizens can have dual citizenship, but if an American citizen who has renounced his or her citizenship (even though the person was originally an American citizen), then what is a way of obtaining it again? Can an American citizen without dual citizenship (only an American citizen), renounce his or her citizenship?
Comment: Once they renounce their citizenship, seems to me they don't have an American citizenship to get "back". They should start where any other non-citizen does.
Comment: Was this a voluntary renouncement ir involuntary (required by another government)?
Comment: These are two distinct questions. The second may already have an answer here.
Answer:
American citizens can have dual citizenship , but if an american
  citizen who has his/her citizenship renounced (even though the person
  was originally an american citizen) , then what is a way of obtaining
  the citizenship back?

Possibly, by the same means that a non-citizen could be naturalized. But, immigration and nationality officials have broad discretion and would probably refuse to grant citizenship to someone who had previously renounced it.

And can an american citizen without dual citizenship (Meaning that he
  is only an american citizen), renounce his/her citizenship?

Yes. For example, Prince Harry's financee plans to renounce her U.S. citizenship and contemporaneously be granted U.K. citizenship (the paperwork goes through really easily when the Queen is your grandmother in law). Renunciation of citizenship is not necessarily tied to gaining a new citizenship, but leaving yourself stateless would be a foolish thing to do.
Comment: There's a guy living stateless in one of the former Czechoslovak republics who did just that.  He seems to have done fairly well for himself, but I guess he got lucky.  Or maybe he got the residence permit *before* renouncing instead of after.
Comment: "would probably refuse to grant citizenship to someone who had previously renounced it": I imagine this would depend on the reason for the renunciation and for the change of heart. One ground of inadmissibility, however, is being a former US citizen who renounced to avoid income tax, and none of the many waivers authorized in 8 USC 1182 seems to apply to this ground, so there would be less discretion in such a case (the AG has discretion to find that the renunciation was not to avoid tax, but facts could make that difficult, e.g. if the person were on the record saying that was the reason).


Why not calibrate all display devices to sRGB?

Question: Why do we not calibrate all devices to sRGB in the factory? The assumption is that every monitor is sRGB anyway. So why not calibrate them to that? That would make people see same color as intended on a wide range of devices.
Answer: Simple answer: because it costs. :) Some higher-end monitor models are indeed calibrated at the factory (and come with a calibration report sheet) but it would not be cost-effective to do so for all models in the product line.
Color reproduction varies even between batches of the exact same panel model, so it isn't possible to just use a set calibration for a given monitor model, it need to be done on a unit-by-unit basis. So to save costs, they instead determine the color reproduction curves of the "average" panel and use that for an ok but inconsistent result.
Comment: FWIW, some monitors come with a built-in motorised calibration unit. It's amusing to watch the "arm" rise out of the bezel so it can sample the screen output during the calibration process.
Answer: There are 2 major factor to this.
While it would certainly be possible to calibrate or profile each screen this would add cost to the process. Most users simply aren't that sensitive to this issue so it makes no economic sense to do so.
Its also worth noting that color reproduction is a function of several factors. Such as panel use age, operating temperature etc., but also ambient surroundings. So while this could be done it would be less than stellarly useful for the user in the long run, unless they operate in standardized lighting conditions and never use the monitor.
Certainly there is value in factory calibration. It simply means that the monitor can be calibrated to sRGB. And in some usecases the drift caused by age is acceptable.
The second problem is that is not technically desireable for the panel manufacturers. Forcing something like this on the manufacturers would be a bit like telling people that the the only graphics available graphics api from now on is opengl 2.0 no innovation allowed.
Business dictates that the manufacturers need to be able to innovate. Calibrating everything to sRGB would slow down development of panels that are significantly bettter in gamut than sRGB to evolve. Second not all display panels can reach sRGB. Developping ultra cheap panels also has a market function. No need to restrict innovation.
Calibrating to sRGB would ultimately not solve all color problems. Convoluted profile to profile conversions would still
be needed. Display panels are precicion instruments and need to be handled like that if accuracy is drsired. If not then no big deal.
Comment: @Vikas factory calibration does not mean anything. every factory does q and a so most likely your monitor even if it didnt say was "factory calibrated" the question though is calibrated to what and how well did it calibrate, and has it changed since then.
Comment: @Vikas thing is you dont see color calibration. your eye is adaptive so it will see more or less normally. Its just that what you see does not match from monitor to monitor so its hard to say what the color your seeing is on another system.
Comment: Does it also mean not all monitors (especially low cost 1080p home and business/programming monitors) are factory calibrated? If so, does it necessarily mean they must be calibrated manually by customer to see better colors?
Comment: I'm curious because I checked several low cost monitors (not good ones which have great colors like Adobe RGB). And some mentioned "factory calibrated" while others didn't. And they cost more or less same. So it made me wonder if the ones not mentioning "calibrated" would show worse colors.
Comment: So I guess even in cheapest monitors they will do the formalities so colors don't look horrible to typical customer for day to day tasks?
Comment: And I think some of those cheap ones may use words "color calibrated" for marketing I think. While others won't. Whereas, the actually better and expensive monitors which claim calibrated would have some "report" about calibration. I read at some sources that if it's actually calibrated good enough, it would have some report or more details about it in tech specs.


Graph chromatic numbers defined by interactive proof

Question: Edit (2020-07-15): Since the discussion below is perhaps a bit long, let me condense my question to the following
Short form of the question: Let $G$ be a finite graph (undirected and without self-loops), and $0\leq p\leq 1$ be a real number.  Is there a standard name for the smallest $n$ for which there exists a probability distribution on the set of all maps $c\colon V(G) \to \{1,\ldots,n\}$ (where $V(G)$ is the vertex set of $G$) such that for every edge $(x,y)$ of $G$ the probability of $c(x)\neq c(y)$ is $\geq p$ (so when $p=1$ this is just the chromatic number of $G$)?  Is it discussed somewhere in the literature?

Long version:
Let $G$ be a graph (undirected and without self-loops; and I'll mostly be thinking finite even though the definition doesn't require it), $n$ a natural number (number of colors) and $0\leq p\leq 1$ real.  Let us say that $G$ is interactively $n$-colorable with threshold $p$ (for lack of a better term) when Alice and Bob have a strategy in the following game of interactive proof:
The game: Alice and Bob (also collectively known as "the provers") agree on a strategy in advance, but thenceforth cannot communicate.  Vera (also known as "the verifier") presents each of the provers with a vertex in the graph $G$ and expects an element of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$ (a "color") in response.  Alice and Bob win when they have a strategy which ensures that:

when presented with the same vertex they will always answer the same color,

when presented with vertices connected by an edge in $G$ they will give answers that are distinct with probability $\geq p$ (against any choices made by Vera).

Under the assumptions of local realism (which I make by default), condition (1) requires that Alice and Bob have, in fact, agreed on a choice of color for each vertex, so the game can be simplified to have just one prover who should be able to pick such a choice at random in such a way that each given edge has probability $\geq p$ of having distinct colors.  If furthermore $p=1$, this is merely asking that $G$ is, indeed, colorable with $n$ colors (while if $p=0$, the prover(s) win trivially for any graph with $1$ color).
For example, the cycle graph with an odd number $k$ of vertices is interactively $2$-colorable with threshold $1 - \frac{1}{k}$ by choosing a random edge at which to break the coloring.
Let's say that the interactive chromatic number with threshold $p$ of $G$ is the smallest $n$ such that $G$ is interactively $n$-colorable with threshold $p$.

Question: Does this chromatic number have a standard name?  (Or equivalently, the sup of the $p$ for which $G$ is colorable for a given $n$.)  If so, where can I learn more about it?

Remarks / variants: One reason why I presented it in the form of the interactive game described above is that it admits a quantum variant in which, instead of demanding local realism, we allow Alice and Bob to prepare and share an entangled quantum state (there are possibly nonequivalent ways to define this, though).  For $p=1$ this is known as the "quantum chromatic number", but it makes sense with a more general $p$ as in the case described above.  E.g., the triangle graph is quantum interactively colorable with $2$ colors and threshold $\frac{3}{4}$, whereas it is interactively colorable with $2$ colors only up to threshold $\frac{1}{2}$.  So I am also interested in knowing of the quantum case has a standard name or has been studied in the literature.  (The paper "Non-closure of the set of quantum correlations via graphs" by Dykema, Paulsel and Prakash seems related but doesn't appear to define exactly the concept I just mentioned.)  (Also, another point worth mentioning is that if Alice and Bob, instead of a quantum system, have access to an unlimited supply of Popescu-Rohrlich boxes, they can $2$-color any graph with threshold $1$.)
Finally, we could also, instead of fixing $p$ for all vertices, consider not a graph but an edge-weighted graph where each edge is labeled by the threshold for that particular graph.  I am also interested in knowing whether this generalization has a name.
Answer: I do not think there is a standard name for this, but I may prefer to call it $p$-random chromatic number....
Comment: Nobody used this. I know some similar names such as $p$-flexible chromatic number ($p$ lies between 0 and 1) used for other coloring problems, so I am just suggesting the name of  $p$-random chromatic number for your problem. By the way, your game looks somehow like a random version of the graph coloring game      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_coloring_game
Comment: Have you used this name before this question (or know of anyone who has)? Or are you suggesting a name now?


is it compulsory to perform Rafa Yadain

Question: Please tell me the answer that is rafa yadain after before Ruku and after it  is compulsory if yes then why? if no then why?
Please answer with proves
Comment: Welcome to Islam SE, the Q&A site about Islam. We strongly recommend you to take a [tour](https://islam.stackexchange.com/tour) to familiarise with what Islam SE is about and visit the [help center](https://islam.stackexchange.com/help) to learn about the stack exchange model.
Comment: Anything which is compulsory can be found in the Quran, with a few exceptions hadith only provide optional or recommanded acts.
Answer: According to Imam Hanbal and Imam Shafee, it is mustahabb to perform Rafa Yadain whilst saying Allahu Akbar before bowing in Ruku

There are hadiths that prove that the Prophet Muhammad perform Rafa Yadain before Ruku.

'Abd-Allaah ibn 'Umar (may Allaah be pleased with them both), said that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to raise his hands to shoulder level when he started to pray, when he said "Allaahu akbar" before bowing in rukoo', and when he raised his head from rukoo'.
[Narrated by al-Bukhaari (735) and Muslim (390)]

The majority of scholars said that it is mustahabb for the worshipper to raise his hands at the points mentioned in the hadeeth.
Imaam al-Bukhaari (may Allaah have mercy on him) wrote a book on this issue which he called Juz' fi Raf' al-Yadayn (Section on Raising the Hands), in which he proved that the hands should be raised at these two points on the prayer, and he strongly denounced those who go against that.
He narrated that al-Hasan said:

"The Companions of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to raise their hands during prayer when they bowed and when they stood up (from bowing)." Al-Bukhaari said, "Al-Hasan did not exclude any of the Sahaabah from that, and it was not proven that any one among the Sahaabah did not raise his hands."
[al-Majmoo' by al-Nawawi, 3/399-406]

This is the view of the Hanbalis and the Shafi'is.
We don't know whether or no Imam Abu Haneefah reached the hadith but his followers did but they did not follow this and only performed Rafa Yadain at the start of Salah. They used the following hadith to support this:

Ibn Mas'ood [radhiallaahu anhu] says, 'I shall show you how Nabi [sallallaahu alayhi wasallam] performed Salaat and he only made Raf-ul yadayn in the beginning of Salaat.'
(Sunan al-Tirmidhi Hadith 257)

Based on this, Imaam Abu Hanifa and Imaam Maalik [ra] preferred this view that one should only raise his hands in the beginning of Salaat at the Takbeer Tahrima.
See (Naylul Awtaar vol.2 pg.185; Ilmiyah)
However, all the Imaams consider both views – to life the hands in all positions or only in the beginning as permissible.** According to Imaam Abu Hanifa and Imaam Maalik, it is also permissible to lift the hands in all postions. According to Imaam al-Shaafi'ee and Imaam Ahmad ibn Hanbal, it is not compulsory to lift the hands in all postions.
And Allah knows best.

Source: Islam Q&A and Islam Q&A-Hanafi

is it compulsory to perform Rafa Yadain


Squid Transparent issue

Question: I am facing the issue with transparent squid where I am unable to browse to any HTTP site yahoomail.com is not working while https://mail.yahoo.com is working.
Please see my squid config
# Recommended minimum configuration:
#

# Example rule allowing access from your local networks.
# Adapt to list your (internal) IP networks from where browsing
# should be allowed

acl localnet src 172.16.0.0/22  # RFC1918 possible internal network
acl localnet src 192.168.133.0/24       # RFC1918 possible internal network
acl localnet src fc00::/7       # RFC 4193 local private network range
acl localnet src fe80::/10      # RFC 4291 link-local (directly plugged) machines

#acl SSL_ports port 443 563 1863 5190 5222 5050 6667
acl SSL_ports port 443
acl Safe_ports port 80          # http
acl Safe_ports port 21          # ftp
acl Safe_ports port 443         # https
acl Safe_ports port 70          # gopher
acl Safe_ports port 210         # wais
acl Safe_ports port 1025-65535  # unregistered ports
acl Safe_ports port 280         # http-mgmt
acl Safe_ports port 488         # gss-http
acl Safe_ports port 591         # filemaker
acl Safe_ports port 777         # multiling http
acl CONNECT method CONNECT

#
# Recommended minimum Access Permission configuration:
#
# Deny requests to certain unsafe ports
http_access deny !Safe_ports

# Deny CONNECT to other than secure SSL ports
http_access deny CONNECT !SSL_ports

# Only allow cachemgr access from localhost
http_access allow localhost manager
http_access deny manager

# We strongly recommend the following be uncommented to protect innocent
# web applications running on the proxy server who think the only
# one who can access services on "localhost" is a local user
#http_access deny to_localhost

#
# INSERT YOUR OWN RULE(S) HERE TO ALLOW ACCESS FROM YOUR CLIENTS
#

# Example rule allowing access from your local networks.
# Adapt localnet in the ACL section to list your (internal) IP networks
# from where browsing should be allowed
http_access allow localnet
http_access allow localhost

# And finally deny all other access to this proxy
http_access deny all

# Squid normally listens to port 8080

http_port 8080 transparent

# Uncomment and adjust the following to add a disk cache directory.
cache_dir ufs /var/spool/squid 100 16 256

# Leave coredumps in the first cache dir
coredump_dir /var/spool/squid

#
# Add any of your own refresh_pattern entries above these.
#
refresh_pattern ^ftp:           1440    20%     10080
refresh_pattern ^gopher:        1440    0%      1440
refresh_pattern -i (/cgi-bin/|\?) 0     0%      0
refresh_pattern .               0       20%     4320

Answer: I think the reason port 443 is allowed, but port 80 isn't is do to the deny on CONNECT connections to anyport that's not in the SSL_ports acl:
# Deny CONNECT to other than secure SSL ports
http_access deny CONNECT !SSL_ports

Connecting through the proxy is doing a CCONNECT.  But you're only allowing CONNECT to ports in the SSL_ports acl.  In which you have only 443.
Try changing it to
# Deny CONNECT to other than identified Safe ports
http_access deny CONNECT !Safe_ports

And see if that makes a difference.

Squid Transparent issue


Is the Holy Spirit the combining of God the Father and God the Son's Spirit's

Question: Is the Holy Spirit, the Spirit of the Father? It's a pretty simple question, so I don't really know if there is much I can add to the body.
Comment: What do you mean by "the Spirit of the Father"?  Are you asking if the Father has a Spirit and that Spirit is the Holy Spirit?  Because God (the Father) IS spirit (John 4:23).
Comment: This question isn't clear enough. I think it would help to explicitly ask for trinitarian answers in the question body, and to suggest some alternatives to the spirit being the spirit of the father. (Spirit of the son? An independent spirit?)
Comment: @Narnian Both are biblical terms... I think he is asking if they are the same thing. I have wondered the same thing myself when reading Scripture. Check out my answer and see if the question makes more sense in light of my answer.
Answer: I will answer from the Trinitarian perspective.
The two terms are synonymous...

But when they hand you over, do not worry about how or what you are to say; for it will be given you in that hour what you are to say. For it is not you who speak, but it is the Spirit of your Father who speaks in you. -Matthew 10:19-20
When they arrest you and hand you over, do not worry beforehand about what you are to say, but say whatever is given you in that hour; for it is not you who speak, but it is the Holy Spirit. -Mark 13:11

...and yet, while the Father "is spirit"...

God is spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth. -John 4:24

...the Father is not "the Holy Spirit."

But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. -John 16:13

If the Holy Spirit was just the Father in His spirit form, then He would in fact be speaking on His own initiative. Since Jesus makes it clear that the Spirit will not speak on His own initiative, but will do what He is told (basically), that indicates there is One with more authority who is "over" Him.
Conclusion: From these passages we can conclude that "the Holy Spirit" is not the Father (though the Father "is spirit") and yet, the "Spirit of your Father" is synonymous with "the Holy Spirit." Perhaps the best explanation is that the Spirit is "of" the Father in the sense that He comes forth from the Father, without confusing the two as if they were one Person.
Comment: Eeeeexcellent Jas 3.1.
Comment: I'm definitely having to re-read this. Not because your answer is unclear, but because the Trinity is mind boggling.
Comment: @Ben I agree. I think perhaps the best way of explaining it is that we have one God (with one nature) who exists eternally (and simultaneously) in three distinct Persons (with distinct roles.) From there we can say things like "the Holy Spirit" = "the Spirit from the Father" = "the Spirit **of** the Father" **=/=** "the Father", while remembering that both the Father and the Spirit are God.
Comment: @Jas3.1 You state: "the best explanation is that the Spirit is "of" the Father in the sense that He comes forth from the Father".  Does the Holy Spirit "come forth" for the purpose of bearing Christ out in the lives of the believers?
Comment: Cont. if not, for what purpose does the Holy Spirit "come forth" from the Father?
Comment: @Rick That is a big question. It might be better to post it as a separate question.
Comment: Your reference to John 16:13 actually is a reference to the spirit of truth, not the holy spirit.  Two different things.
Answer: (Although I'm willing to answer my own question, no one should let that deter them from also submitting an answer. Also, for the record, I'm a Trinitarian.)
Yes, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father. This is proven by many scriptures.
 Synoptic parallelism
If we examine the following synoptic parallelism, Luke and Mark identify the one speaking in the apostles as the "Holy Spirit," but Matthew identifies it as "the Spirit of your Father" (i.e., "your Father's Spirit"). Therefore, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father.
Matthew 10:19-20

But when they deliver you up, do not take thought hor or what you shall speak, for it shall be given to you in that same hour what you shall speak. For, it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father who speaks in you.

Mark 13:11

But when they shall lead and deliver you up, do not take thought beforehand what you shall speak, nor premeditate. But, whatever shall be given you in that hour, speak that, for it is not you who speak, but the Holy Spirit.

Luke 12:11-12

And when they bring you to the synagogues, and magistrates, and powers, do not take thought how or what thing you shall answer, or what you shall say. For, the Holy Spirit shall teach you in the same hour what you should say.

In De Trinitate ("On the Trinity"), Book XV, Ch. XXVI, St. Augustine wrote,

Deinde in illa summa Trinitate quae Deus est, intervalla temporum nulla sunt, per quae possit ostendi aut saltem requiri, utrum prius de Patre natus sit Filius, et postea de ambobus processerit Spiritus Sanctus. Quoniam Scriptura sancta Spiritum eum dicit amborum.
Ipse est enim de quo dicit Apostolus: Quoniam autem estis filii, misit Deus Spiritum Filii sui in corda vestra: et ipse est de quo dicit idem Filius: Non enim vos estis qui loquimini; sed Spiritus Patris vestri, qui loquitur in vobis.
Et multis aliis divinorum eloquiorum testimoniis comprobatur Patris et Filii esse Spiritum, qui proprie dicitur in Trinitate Spiritus Sanctus

which is translated as,

Furthermore, in that highest Trinity which is God, there are no intervals of time, by which it could be shown, or at least inquired, whether the Son was born of the Father first and then afterwards the Holy Spirit proceeded from both, since holy scripture calls him (i.e., the Holy Spirit) the Spirit of both.
For, it is he (i.e.., the Holy Spirit) of whom the apostle says (Gal. 4:6), "But because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts," and it is he (i.e., the Holy Spirit) of whom the same Son says (Matt. 10:20), "For it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father who speaks in you."
And it is proved by many other testimonies of the divine word, that the Spirit, who is specially called in the Trinity, the Holy Spirit, is the Father's and the Son's.

As Augustine notes, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of both the Son and the Father. Other scriptures in the New Testament also prove this.
The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father:
Romans 8:11

But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwell in you, He who raised Christ from the dead shall also vivify your mortal bodies by His Spirit who dwells in you.

The phrase "of Him who raised Jesus from the dead" refers to the Father. "The Spirit of Him" dwells in the Christian. "He who raised Christ from the dead" is the Father. "His Spirit" is the Father's Spirit, the Holy Spirit, who dwells in the Christian.
The Holy Spirit is frequently referred to as "His Spirit," where the possessive pronoun "His" evidently refers to the antecedent "God the Father" (cp. Num. 11:29; Isa. 48:16; 1 Cor. 2:10; Eph. 3:16; 1 John 4:3). Therefore, the Holy Spirit is the Father's Spirit.
The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Son:
Romans 8:9

But you are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

Philippians 1:19

For I know that this shall turn to my salvation through your prayer, and the supply of the Spirit of Jesus Christ,

1 Peter 1:11

Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ who was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.

Galatians 4:6

And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying, "Abba!" "Father!"
Answer: I personally have always pictured the trinity in a particular way, that helps me understand it. I don't believe there's anything biblical to say 'this is how it is' but I don't think it contradicts anything that the Bible says either - if it does I'd appreciate someone pointint that out.
I generally see:

God - he is outside our time and space, he is the God who knows all and we would generally deem call 'Father'.
Jesus - obviously he's also God, but he was fully human. I don't believe he had the power of God the Father or was all knowing which is why he prayed. He was God in human form that lived within our world and was subject to all it's physical laws.
Holy Spirit - Again, this is God. I tend to picture the spirit as being God the Father manifesting his power in our world. The spirit is how God is able to interact with this world and hence is what fills us with joy, heals us and gives us the gifts of the spirit. The Holy Spirit isn't constrained by our physical laws (hence we can all be filled with the spirit at once - omnipresent).

They are all God, like you consist of multiple parts (body, mind, soul), it is difficult to reconcile these things together but combined they all describe who you are. The same is true for God, all these combined represent who God is.
Comment: wrt #2, the Son is fully co-eternal with the other two, he only assumed the human form briefly.
Answer: I'm going to go out on a limb and say "No", the Holy Spirit is not the Spirit of the Father.  That would imply the Father is something comprised of Spirit and something(s) else, or that the Holy Spirit is lesser than the Father or the Son.  The general idea is that all three persons of the trinity are co-equal and co-eternal.  The Bible is pretty clear that God is Spirit.  That means all the persons of God are Spirit.
It doesn't help that the basic creeds describe the Son as begotten by the Father, or the Holy Spirit as proceeding from the Father and from/through the Son, as those terms imply causation and temporal ordering.
The way I think about it currently is there is one uncreated nature which is God (I find using terms other than "being" or "person" is helpful to disambiguate what we're talking about).  The Father personifies the Will or Way of God, the Son personifies the Reason or Truth of God, and the Holy Spirit personifies the Life of God.

Jesus said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life"
Answer: If Adonay is referring to the Father, yes.

[Act 28:25-26 KJV] 25 And when they agreed not among themselves, they
  departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy
  Ghost by Esaias the prophet unto our fathers, 26 Saying, Go unto this
  people, and say, Hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and
  seeing ye shall see, and not perceive:
[Isa 6:8-9 KJV] 8 Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom
  shall I send, and who will go for us? Then said I, Here [am] I; send
  me. 9 And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but
  understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not.
Comment: Please explain why you quoted these verses. Neither of them mention the Father. The second doesn't mention the Spirit!
Answer: Is the Holy Spirit, the Spirit of the Father?
Yes, That is the part of God that carries out the word of God, or the will of God. God speaks his word and the Holy Spirit makes sure it get don't according to God's will. Genesis 1;2 The Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the water, waiting for God to speak.
Even today the Holy Spirit is waiting for you to speak God's word, It is hard to be effective witness with out it, in you to carry out God's will. Acts 1; 4,5 this tells you that you need the baptism of the Holy Spirit or you witness will be weak. John baptized with water you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit and fire. The world is still happening and it still needs witness, to be a effective witness you need it. We didn't walk with Jesus we didn't see Jesus were not call to be apostle, No but you are called to be a witness. Not a run down and kick in the head witness, But one who has the power of God following out of them to destroy the works of the enemy on the Earth. Read Mark chapter 4 again Don't Kick people or hit them over the head with it either hit yourself over the head with it. Then learn to love people with it. It works.
Comment: Welcome to the site.  A good post on this site will maintain focus on answering the question and not moving into admonition or preaching.  If you can do that, your posts will be much better received.
Comment: I'm not seeing the argument you're making here. Also you've attached Mark 4 to a lot of your answers regardless of the relevance. Finally Narnian makes a really good point. We're not here to preach, we're here to instruct folks in doctrine. If you're interested in a platform for preaching *this isn't it*. If you're interested in strict Q&A about Christian doctrine than this is the place for you.


Problem With Custom Unity-Greeter background

Question: So I have this cool background I like. I set it as my background, but in Unity-Greeter, (Not the lock screen) I just see the default "bruised" wallpaper for 14.04. Ick. Does anyone know how to make my custom wallpaper show on the login screen? I know new wallpapers can be added to the default wallpaper set. (I think when you use xfce4, the default Debian background and the Debian Inksplat background appear alongside the other available wallpapers. Also,after using xfce4, the default xfce background becomes your unity-greeter wallpaper, but when you login to Unity, your previously selected desktop background still appears. If you change the wallpaper and back, the xfce greeter background dissapears.) How can I make unity-greeter diaplay my custom wallpaper?
Answer: This can be done easily with Ubuntu Tweak.  Just click Tweaks, Login Settings, and then "click the button to change the login screen background".  If you want your session wallpaper to be used, there's a one click button for that, "set the same background as the current desktop background"
Comment: Sorry, but that doesn't work. When I change it, and log out, i just see a dark purple background. I'm running on Ubuntu 14.04 with the Numix-Circle and Numix-Dark GTK theme installed.
Comment: Sorry! It works for me. In fact I tried it before answering. I set it to the Sea Fury picture that was included in /usr/share/backgrounds. Maybe see if that one works for you? If so maybe it is something to do with your specific image.
Comment: See edited answer above.
Comment: I'm not using an image from /usr/share/backgrounds. It's in my pictures folder and I downloaded it from the internet, so it still isn't working. I've also tried ten different images-theres obviously nothing wrong with the one I used originally because they all give me a dark purple login screen.
Comment: I tried a background image of my own and I got the purple screen.  I don't know what is special about the Sea Fury picture.  If you figure it out, please come back and post an answer.
Comment: Maybe the picture has to be from /usr/share/backgrounds.
Comment: This was still bugging me.  I resized my background image to 2560 x 1600 px (same as the Sea Fury) and then it worked.  Based on my extensive testing (not) it looks like the login image must be a jpeg image sized exactly at 2560 x 1600.


How do I reassemble the rear gearing after fitting new tyres?

Question: I have a Raleigh maybe 8 years old with shimano 15 gears. How do I reassemble the rear gearing after fitting new tyres? Everything seems to be in correct position but a small bolt with captive nut seems to fit in a triangular hole above the axle, on frame but this then throws the gear all out of position. Any ideas?
Comment: Photos, please.
Comment: Which side is this on, the right side where the sprockets are, or the left side?  Also, do the slots that the axle fit into run horizontally, vertically, or diagonally?
Answer: Sounds like you're placing the tire back into the wrong gear to begin with. Always remember what gear you left off on as it can ruin your entire setup in a matter of seconds.
Comment: I'm not really sure that the OP has given us enough info to make that diagnosis.


Is it possible to copy this bevel over to another edge?

Question: Okay, so I made this beveled detail here and I can't CTRL+Z to undo it. I have yet to save the file at all, can this bevel be copied over to the other corners somehow? or would it be better to revert it to the original shape somehow?
Answer: I think you should apply the mirror modifier on both the x and y axis. Then if you change anything on that edge it will apply to the others also.
Comment: I messed around with mirror a bunch and almost managed to pull it off, it seems to be mirroring from the X on the object workpoint instead of the global (I hope I'm using the right terminology), My problem would be solved if I could just move my workpoint(but not my model) 6 inches positive Y ...
Comment: Deleting half of the object and getting everything into position for the mirror to work did what I wanted, I didn't really get my question answered but my problem in the model was solved. thank you.
Comment: You could also select all in Edit mode and Mesh > Symmetrize, then choose the axis in the Operator box. Actually you couldn' apply the exact same bevel unless you copy its parameters which would be a bit tedious; what you could have done, other than Mirror or Symmetrize, is bevel the 4 corners at the same time, or give each corner a Bevel Weight in the N panel and give your object a Bevel modifier, which would be a non-destructive way


Make C-v and M-v smoother

Question: Trying to mirror my neovim setup in emacs I haven't found a way to make C-v and M-v scroll smoothly, i.e., line by line. Most solutions I looked at improve mouse and point scrolling, but not the before-mentioned shortcuts. Do I miss something?
Comment: There is `scroll-up/down-line`: they are not bound to keys, but you can do that yourself. Not sure whether they are what you are looking for however.
Comment: @NickD I want to replicate [this](https://github.com/karb94/neoscroll.nvim) motion.
Answer:
a way to make C-v and M-v scroll smoothly, i.e. one line at a time.

Maybe you can see 5.44 How can I force Emacs to scroll only one line when I move past the bottom of the screen?:

Customize the scroll-conservatively variable with M-x customize-variable RET scroll-conservatively RET and set it to a large value like, say, 10000. For an explanation of what this means, see Auto Scrolling in The GNU Emacs Manual.
Alternatively, use the following Lisp form in your .emacs:
(setq scroll-conservatively most-positive-fixnum)

It will change the behaviors of C-p and C-n.  If you consist on changing the behaviors of C-v and M-v, bind the corresponding function (the function bound to C-p and the function bound to C-n) to M-v or C-v.  (Not recommended, because C-v and M-v are there for you to move faster.)

Update:
Maybe you want this:
;; C-v
(progn
  ;; unbind `scroll-up-command` from `C-v`
  (global-unset-key [?\C-v])
  ;; bind the function you want to `C-v`
  (global-set-key [?\C-v]
    #'(lambda ()
        (interactive)
        (let ((number-of-lines 15) ; scroll N lines
              (seconds/line 0.05)) ; spend N seconds scrolling one line
          ;; execute what you want:
          ;; "one line at a time"
          (dotimes (_ number-of-lines)
            ;; Scroll up 1 line,
            ;; but the cursor moves on the screen too.
            (scroll-up-line)
            ;; Move the cursor down 1 line so that
            ;; the cursor doesn't appear to have changed position.
            (next-line)
            (redisplay)
            (sleep-for seconds/line))))))

;; M-v is similar
(progn
  (global-unset-key [?\M-v])
  (global-set-key [?\M-v]
    #'(lambda ()
        (interactive)
        (let ((number-of-lines 15)
              (seconds/line 0.05))
          (dotimes (_ number-of-lines)
            (scroll-down-line)
            (previous-line)
            (redisplay)
            (sleep-for seconds/line))))))

Comment: Seems like my wording has confused you. Scrolling with point near border can be made smoother, but I want C-v to have an animation instead of a sudden jump. Again, [this](https://github.com/karb94/neoscroll.nvim) kind of motion is what I'm aiming for.
Comment: @Trashbin2019np: The answer is updated; hope it helps you :-) I'll explain the details of the code at my leisure, but you can test it for yourself and see if it meets your needs.
Comment: that's really nice! Thank you.

Make C-v and M-v smoother


How to Register Multiple Host Names for Server in Active Directory

Question: I have a Windows 2008 server in our corp network which hosts multiple IIS applications.  I want to have users access it via multiple names, e.g. http://app1, http://app2.  How do I register multiple host names in AD to point to this server?  Can I do this myself on the server, or do I need to have a domain admin do this?
Answer: IIS supports Named Virtual Hosts, just like Apache, so long as you don't require SSL for those sites. That way you can use a single IP for everything. For your SSL sites you'll need an IP for each, but IIS can handle that just as well.
As for hostnames, there is not a whole lot you can do from a pure developer standpoint to register new AD names. However, it is possible to ask your MS DNS administrators to register the names in the AD DNS domain. We've do this for our WebDevs all the time.


How come there isn't a tag for questions regarding investors or VCs?

Question: Well as the title says, how come there isn't a tag for questions regarding investors or VCs?
Comment: A lot of those might be a better fit on [startups](http://startups.stackexchange.com/)?
Comment: Why would that be limited to startups?  Large companies also have investors, publicly or privately trade.  Does Workplace limit itself to those who wouldn't deal with it?
Comment: Because the workplace is about navigating the workplace environment not about investing and starting a business.  questions about managing a company are on topic but how they get investmetns would be off topic.
Comment: @Chad how do you figure?  VC negotiations impact the workplace just the same as any other topic on here.
Comment: Well then feel free to ask questions if a new tag is warrented for a question it will get added.
Comment: Yes? I did? Can someone put this as an answer already?  I said @RichardU was correct in what he was saying in Lillienthal's answer and I asked if he could put that as answer.   Your welcome to too Chad, as far as I know at least.
Answer: Because we have no questions justifying their creation.

Venture Capital: 2 closed questions, none open
Venture Capitalists: 1 question created by OP today, potentially off-topic
VC: no open questions (one unrelated)
Investor: 1open question, feels off-topic to me

Tag should never be created in advance. Only create them when they are useful. Generally that requires the expectation that multiple questions will be asked about that topic in future. Existing questions that can have the tag added aren't strictly required but a good indicator that a tag would be useful.
Comment: @JeffQuick Not having a tag does not mean it's off topic, simply that the topic is not frequently addressed or addressed enough to justify creating a tag for it.  Ask enough questions and it might earn a tag
Comment: @JeffQuick Feel free to think that, but I suggest reading it again as you don't seem to understand what I'm getting at.
Comment: @JeffQuick This meta question is asking why there is no tag for VC. Whether or not your question (that could potentially be tagged as [tag:VC]) is on-topic or not does not matter for this meta question.
Comment: How would VCs/Investors be off topic?  There is no rule excluding questions on this as far as I'm aware?
Comment: Here's my VC question, how is this off topic? http://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/66167/negotiating-with-venture-capitalists-while-employed-elsewhere
Comment: @RichardU Ok that's fair.  Want to make that an answer?
Comment: @JeffQuick Whether the entire subject is off-topic has no relevance to the question of whether a tag should be created. I've expanded my answer to clarify the conditions for tag creation (as I see them). My search filters were too strict to catch your question, whether that's on-topic is not that relevant to this meta question.
Comment: @Lilienthal care to elaborate? All I got from that was confusion on what you're trying to say.
Comment: Yes I agree.  So your point is?
Comment: By that logic, your answer is irrelevant.
Comment: @JeffQuick "Q:Why don't we have a tag X? A:We don't have enough questions or expectation of future questions about X to justify it."  I think you are trying to pick a battle about VC relations being on topic and are missing the point that On/Off topic is not the driver for tag creation.
Comment: @Myles I'm not picking battles.  That would be Lilienthal.  I already asked 2 other people if they could make  "A:We don't have enough questions or expectation of future questions about X to justify it." They answer if you look through the other comments.
Comment: @JeffQuick You realise that that's basically what my answer says as well?
Comment: @Lilienthal where does it say that?  Your answer is wordy and confusing beyond the list.


Were there any DeLoreans remaining after the end of BTTF3?

Question: We saw that there were two DeLoreans in BTTF. One got destroyed by lightning (which was found in the shaft by Marty and repaired by 1955 Doc, but permanently destroyed later) but the other one was never seen since the end of BTTF1. What happened to the other DeLorean?
Comment: Isn't the presumption that the Delorean from the end of the first movie the retrofitted one from the first movie? And is that not the same one later struck by lightning and so on? I'm confused by your question.
Comment: With an initial production run of 9,000, there are about 6,500 Deloreans remaining operational in 2021. There's no reason to believe this isn't the case for BttF, either.
Comment: @DarrelHoffman Only after I'd had a night's sleep it popped into my head, you're right.
Comment: @ARogueAnt. Was that the same flux capacitor?  Or did he make a new one to put on the train?  Not sure how he could've acquired it since it was destroyed in 1985 while he was still trapped in 1885 - he wouldn't have access to that wreckage 100 years in the future, so he probably had to rebuild one from scratch.
Comment: @DarrelHoffman - I've always assumed it was the same kind of thing as Tony Stark (movie version) building a 3" arc reactor with the same functionality as the original, which filled an entire building, while in an ill-equipped cave in Afghanistan.  After thinking about it some more the 2nd version can be much better than the 1st!
Answer: Only one time machine DeLorean exists in the movie trilogy. Your confusion likely stems from the overlapping time traveling, creating a big ball of wibbly-wobbly timey-whimy stuff. For example, at one point in 1955 that one car exists as four time-copies of itself at the same time:

Marty's copy, as seen in the first movie
Biff's copy, as seen in the second movie when he steals it to give his younger self the sports almanac
Doc and Marty's copy, as seen in the second movie when the Doc and Marty return to 1955 to try to prevent Biff from giving himself the almanac
Doc's copy, as seen in the third movie when 1885 Doc stored the DeLorean in the cave for his 1955 counterpart

All of this wibbly-wobbliness is resolved at the end of the third movie when the DeLorean is destroyed by the train.
Comment: @Hypnosifl The way the timeline works is a bit inconsistent throughout. While the updating singular timeline is how most changes appear to operate, there is the major issue with why 2015 didn't change when Biff stole the car. Of course the fact that Biff was able to return to that same 2015 also doesn't support the multiple timeline theory either.
Comment: @Hypnosifl Good point. I've removed the last line of my answer.
Comment: So there are none left?
Comment: But BTTF features a timeline that *changes* as time travelers make new trips back in time, rather than a fixed history where whatever they did in the past was part of their history "all along" (I think to make sense of this you have to imagine a series of different versions of the timeline, which the viewer sees in order). So in the scene before Doc gets zapped back to 1885, I think there wouldn't have been a DeLorean in the mine at that moment--if Marty had been standing in the mine when Doc went back, I think he'd have seen the old DeLorean suddenly appear via the "ripple effect".
Comment: BTTF creators Bob Gale and Robert Zemeckis wrote an FAQ where they address that one, see [question 1.9](http://bttf.wikidot.com/official-bttf-faq#toc8). They say that when old Biff returned to 2015, it transformed to 2015-A (the future of 1985-A) around Marty & co., the same way that Doc said that 1985-A would transform back to a regular version of 1985 around Jennifer when they left her sleeping on the porch. They just didn't choose to make 2015-A look different than 2015 because it'd confuse the audience (maybe one could justify it using the timeline 'self-preservation' effect in 1.19)
Comment: @user146309 That is correct. The one car is destroyed.
Answer: The question is a seriously false premise.   The flying DeLorean of the trilogy is a future tech upgrade of the original. This is supported by the flying upgrades offered for sale in the future for any car.
However I feel it is worth pointing out the semicanon videogame sequel is based on the premise that the lightning strike created a time clone DeLorean.  The cinematic scenes from the game have been edited into films on YouTube.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Back_to_the_Future:_The_Game
Additionally in another semicanon continuity - the animated series features a new DeLorean time machine. Which truly is a second DeLorean and is much more advanced.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Back_to_the_Future_(TV_series)
And per the question- both of these are after BTTF 3.
Comment: *"This is supported by the flying upgrades offered for sale in the future for any car."* It's also more directly supported by the story itself - it's right in the script (Marty reading 1955 Doc the letter from 1885 Doc) that the Doc had a hover conversion done on the DeLorean in the early 21st century.


Joint PMF for two Geometric distribution variables

Question: I am interested to know how to calculate the joint probability mass function for two independent geometric random variables.
Suppose two variables X1 and X2 are independent, such that Xi∼Geometric(theta), how to find the joint pmf distribution of X1 and X2. I am not sure but I think it should be the product of pmf of both mass function.
Also, how should I calculate the probability of the event where kth trial being the the first success/failure for both the variables or k1th trial for X1 and k2th trial for X2?
Comment: As you mentioned, the joint pdf of two random variables is $f_{X,Y}(x,y)=f_X(x)f_Y(y)$ if they are independent. So if $X,Y\overset{iid}{\sim}\text{Geometric}(p)$ then $f_{X,Y}(x,y) = (1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{y-1}p = (1-p)^{x+y-2}p^2$
Answer: Answered in comments:
As you mentioned, the joint pdf of two random variables is $f_{X,Y}(x,y)=f_X(x)f_Y(y)$ if they are independent. So if $X,Y\overset{iid}{\sim}\text{Geometric}(p)$ then $f_{X,Y}(x,y) = (1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{y-1}p = (1-p)^{x+y-2}p^2$


Adding methods to a sudsobject. Monkey patching or import to new object?

Question: I an writing some python code that uses suds to connect up to a device, get the wsdl and query for some device information. That part of the code works and it looks like suds creates and objects and places the data in that object. I would like to add a method to the object, printData, which will print out only the attributes I want, in a specific order and format. I can import the data into a object that I explicitly declare, or write a function, rather than object, but I'm looking to keep it within the object, so other code doesn't need to know about the details, so it is more portable.
There are also other objects, so I really want to just be able to say .print and have it do the right thing (tm) and anyone else who uses the module doesn't have to know or understand the internals.
Now the thing is I can't see to get at the sudsobject Class to add the method. Is monkey patching the way to go, and if so any idea how to get at the sudsobject class so I can add a method or two?
>>> response = client.service.exportDevice(context)
>>> a=response[0]
>>> type(a)
<type 'instance'>
>>> dir(a)
['MACAddress', '__contains__', '__delattr__', '__doc__', '__getitem__', '__init__', '__iter__', '__keylist__', '__len__', '__metadata__', '__module__', '__printer__', '__repr__', '__setattr__', '__setitem__', '__str__', '__unicode__', 'addressType', 'aliases', 'container', 'description', 'deviceType', 'domainName', 'domainType', 'dupWarning', 'excludeFromDiscovery', 'hostname', 'hwType', 'id', 'ipAddress', 'resourceRecordFlag', 'userDefinedFields']
>>> a.__class__
<class suds.sudsobject.WSDevice at 0x101323940>
>>> b=suds.sudsobject.WSDevice()
Traceback (most recent call last):
  File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module>
AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'WSDevice'

Comment: Figured it out, but it won't let me answer it for 7 hours.
Comment: I was able to get it work with the following code:

    >>> def pr(self):
    ...   print self.addressType
    ...   print self.ipAddress
    ...
    >>> a.__class__.pr = pr
    >>> a.pr()
    Static
    10.30.0.2
    >>> b=response[1]
    >>> b.pr()
    Static
    10.30.0.3
Answer: Make a subclass of the object like so:
class Subclass(parentClass):
  def newMethod(self):
    print self.someVariableDefinedInTheParentClass

Here is a working example:
class apple:
  def __init__(self):
    self.color = 'red'

class betterClass(apple):
  def printColor(self):
    print self.color

a = betterClass()
a.printColor()

Comment: I am not able to get the Subclass context to work correctly with sudsobjects. The subclass can't be defined until after the suds client connects and suds creates the objects, via the WSDL definitions.


What is the chord: B F# A

Question: So I was analyzing a song on the piano and saw a broken chord with notes B, F# and A (all ascending). Now it looks like root note, perfect fifth and minor seventh. If you add minor third, it becomes Bm7 chord. But is there a name for a 7th chord with the third missing? I looked around on the internet, couldn't find any.
Comment: Unsure if I'm missing something that downvoters noticed, but I thought this was a useful question and, as a beginner, I have learnt something from the answers. I had this exact question which leads me to wonder if I'm looking to learn the same piece... I have seen this set of notes referred to as _B7sus_ but I'm not sure if that't valid at all because there's no 2nd or 4th in it. In the piece I'm looking at the missing D is in the melody.
Answer: You don't say what the instrumentation is, but it's important to recognize that determining the chord at any given point needs to consider all the parts that are playing. In particular, the 3rds of chords are very often only played in one part, and not doubled by other parts. If I saw such a broken chord, I'd assume that there was either a D or a D# in another part -- perhaps in a vocal lead, or in a bass line -- and that the chord was indeed a B7 or Bm7. Indeed, skipping the third in an arppegiated seventh chord is fairly common for this very reason.
Answer: More information is needed for a useful analysis. With the missing context, we might label it as either a Bmi7 or B7 without worrying about the missing note. Without any of that information we can formally say that it could function as either a Bmi7 or B7. To narrow it down further would require more information.
One would not explain it away as a different name like we do power chords (chords with the root and fifth Exclusively), unless it is in fact in a context where there is mostly power chords used. In that case perhaps we could give it a new identity such as B57, but such a name is not in common use since I just made it up (Perhaps Heinz ketchup should use it in their jingle). Chuck Berry would play power chords like this B5(B-F#), B"6"(B-G#) B"7"(B-A) where the B6 and B7 are missing all but the root and the 6th or 7th respectively. It would not be a problem to add the 5th to the B7 and have it still sound good. I have never heard of these chords being described as having a special name because of the missing notes. This is because, (opinion warning), adding the notes back in would not ruin the sound in any way except possibly voice leading. Power chords are a useful short hand for the value of chords because in certain styles the performer does not care what other notes would fit. One size fits all, so further distinction would be a distraction.
As a side note, while any note can go missing from a chord and still be called the same name it will be more common (outside of power chord land) for the 5th to go missing. In fact, performers often remove the 5th automatically is a common feature (with many exceptions) in jazz.
It is possible that some special name for the chord could be coined if there were a style where such a configuration is used more often, similar to Punk's relationship to power chords.
I was once called out in a theory class for assuming that the root could not go missing too, when in fact it can. Perhaps it is implied or in a different part. It is also important how the chord sounds in context. Does it sound like the same chord in context, even with the root missing?

What is the chord: B F# A


What is the connection between Newton's laws of motion and his law of gravitation?

Question: What is the connection between Newton's laws of motion and his law of gravitation? Is there a connection where one suggests the other, or are they just two separate ideas that are assumed to be true?
Comment: They are completely separate, but neither was "assumed", not even at Newton's time. Some of the most important concepts of mechanics were already developed by Galileo and the motion of the planets suggested a law like the one that is named after Newton. There is a little bit of a controversy whether Newton was the first to notice that a 1/r potential could be used to explain planetary notion.
Comment: Laws in physics (or, more correctly, symmetries and equations of motion) are always derived from observation. They can not and are not being derived mathematically.
Comment: I meant assumed as in only proven experimentally and taken as laws of the universe without some mathematical derivation from another source. Like is the law of gravitation true just because we observe it without fail or can it be derived from Newton's motion laws. Or are the motion laws somehow related to gravity.
Comment: They are different but there was also uncertainty as to whether inertial mass was different from gravitational mass.  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mass#Inertial_vs._gravitational_mass
Comment: Well, you can apply newtons laws of motion while considering the gravitational forces. But , They are not actually derived from one another, if that was what you meant. Neither of them influences others existence!
Comment: This may be of interest. It's not clear what level your asking the question at.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mass#Inertial_vs._gravitational_mass
Answer: The $F= \frac{GMm}{r^2}$ law (Or equivalently $U=-\frac{G M m}{r}$ potential law) can't be deduced from Newton's laws of motion. It's a little secret that parts of physics like this are, from a purely mathematical perspective, totally arbitrary.
For example, it's perfectly reasonable to play build-a-reality and plug in whatever interaction potentials you want. $U=\frac{A}{r^{12}}-\frac{B}{r^6}$ is a completely valid interaction in classical mechanics. It doesn't contradict anything.
In more modern physics the rules can be much more restrictive. (which is a good thing, because it means you can't just plug whatever you want into the theory!)
Comment: So inertia and gravity are just the way the universe is, but they can't be made to explain each other even though both are so mass dependent?
Comment: *"... you can't just plug whatever you want into the theory!"* Unless you are a Nobel Prize Winner following the method of another Nobel Prize Winner: [*"In order to obtain such relations that we conjecture to be true ... we construct a mathematical theory of the strongly interacting particles, which may or may not have anything to do with reality, find suitable algebraic relations that hold in the model, postulate their validity, and then throw away the model."*](http://www.nobelprize.org/nobel_prizes/physics/laureates/2004/gross-lecture.pdf)
Answer: Newton's Laws of Motion provide a framework for all types of forces, connecting observed motions to the forces that control them.
Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation tells you how to calculate the force of gravity. So if you want to solve a problem with gravity you use this law for the force, and the laws of motion to solve the problem.
Many practical problems include multiple forces, thus thre are force laws for friction, springs, etc. Some of these are just good approximations. Engineering uses all of them.


ok still not working right 95 Geo Tracker clutch

Question: IRT this question ... At first I thought I had it good (the clutch) now it idles too high and the peddle won't come all the way back up. I can't put into first or second and I'm at a loss not sure how to actually do this (never said I was a mechanic). Does anyone have any ideas on what I can do before I take it to a shop?
Comment: High idle can indicate a vacuum leak. Check your hoses and air filter.
Answer: Vacuum leak and sounds like you need to bleed your clutch. Bleeding the clutch is not that hard. For the vacuum leak, the main place you want to check is the actuator that should be under the battery tray. Look around for cracked lines, or lines that look older.
Now to bleed the clutch, you want to follow the lines that go under the vehicle and there will be a bleeder valve near the right side of the front differential. Have another person push down on the clutch pedal as you unscrew the valve a little bit. Don't take it all the way out, just enough to get the air out of the system. Make sure your are adding in fluid to the reservoir so no air goes back in. Close the valve after your friend pushes the clutch down. The pedal should stay all the way down to the floor. This is normal, simply pull the pedal back all the way. Repeat this process till you can feel the clutch disengaging.
Comment: You should make this a better answer by saying the steps involved in bleeding a clutch and how a vacuum leak could occur, where one might be found, and how to go about finding the vacuum leak. Short answers like these are ripe for the close hammer ...
Comment: I just added how to do it.


Jacobian determinant of three degree of freedom robot

Question: I want to determine Jacobian determinant of spherical wrist structure, but my Jacobian is 6x3, so it is not square. How can I get it?
Answer: If $J(q)$ isn't square, you're looking for some alternate metric to take its place. You can take the determinant of $J(q)J^T(q)$. per this tutorial or any number of other pseudo-inverse methods (from Introduction to Inverse Kinematics with Jacobian Transpose, Pseudoinverse and Damped Least Squares methods, by Samuel Buss).
:EDIT:
As highlighted by @SteveO and @PetchPuttichai in the comments, it would appear that the $J(q)J^T(q)$ only when $J(q)$ has full row rank. In any other case, use $J^T(q)J(q)$.
Comment: Shouldn't you use $J(q)^TJ(q)$ instead of $J(q)J(q)^T$ so that the result is 3x3 instead of 6x6?
Comment: @Chuck - I understand that, but a spherical wrist only has 3 DOF.  I think the 6x6 would always have a determinant of 0.
Comment: @Chuck - Actually whenever $A$ has more rows than $B$, it is *always* true that $\det(AB) = 0$ (provided that $AB$ is a square matrix). So in this case, it should be $J^TJ$. In the material you provide, $JJ^T$ is used when $J$ has *full row rank*.
Comment: @mariposa - If this answered your question, please mark it as accepted by clicking the check mark between the up and down arrows to the left of the answer. This flags the question as answered, which marks it as resolved internally *and* helps future visitors find the answers they're looking for faster.
Comment: @SteveO - The 6 rows physically represent the six degrees of freedom the (typically) end effector. I believe the point of checking the determinant of the Jacobian (haven't personally done this before) is to see if there is one or more axes that can't be controlled. As you would want to check this for all six degrees of freedom, you would want a result that returns a 6x6 matrix.
Comment: is there any tutorial to compute the determinant of 3DOF spherical wrist in order to determne its singularities configurations?
Answer: In order to answer your question it would be interesting why you need the determinandt of the Jacobian... maybe there is another way for your problem.
Comment: i want to compute a manipulability and plot it in matlab


Can you change your login info on Pokemon Go?

Question: I had to update the software on my phone last night after playing Pokémon Go for the first time. This morning I'm trying to login and it is not recognizing my Gmail password. I tried the password recovery multiple times and that didn't work so I created a new Gmail account. So now my question is, can I change my login info on Pokémon Go to my new Gmail account? I can't figure it out!
Answer: I had this same problem. I changed my password and then I couldn't log back in. Delete the app then reinstall it. Then log back in using your account with your new password. You'll be good to go. Right where you left off.
Answer: You could try to contact the Support here https://support.pokemongo.nianticlabs.com/hc/en-us
There doesn't seem to be a default-form for this request though.


Does using a pen name complicate a copyright registration?

Question: I am planning to self-publish my first book under my pen name. Do I need to get copyrights for the book and my pen name before having it published on KDP? Or can I go on without this step?
Comment: Possible duplicate of [How can I get a copyright for my e-book?](https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/9623/how-can-i-get-a-copyright-for-my-e-book)
Comment: I removed the bit asking about the cost to register a copyright - I think that may be part of why people were voting to close this as a duplicate. (The answer to that question for US copyright is [here](https://www.copyright.gov/docs/fees.html).)
Comment: @NeilFein I think the title change vastly changes the intent of the question.
Comment: @WeckarE. Any thoughts on a middle ground? Please feel free to edit further.
Comment: @NeilFein I'm actually not quite sure what was wrong with the initial title at all. I'd rather like to know your reasoning before I do a full reversion.
Comment: The question was greatly intersecting with [this one](https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/9623/how-can-i-get-a-copyright-for-my-e-book) and being voted to close as a duplicate, I was differentiating it. I'm not particularly attached to my rewording, what did you have in mind?
Answer: This may depend a bit based on jurisdiction - the Berne Convention gives the general principles of it all, but different countries (esp. the US) do things a bit differently. In general, though:
Assuming you live in a country that's a signatory to the Berne Convention (you probably do), then copyright exists as soon as you write your story down. You don't need to "get" copyright because you already have it. But in some places (mostly the US, as far as I know) there may be benefits to registering your copyright.
You can't copyright a pen name.
For your book, you can register your copyright under your pen name if you want, but it may have implications for how long the copyright will last. For example, in the US, if you register copyright only under your pseudonym and don't include your real identity, the copyright will last 95 years from publication (or 120 years from creation). If you include your legal name, it will last your life plus 70 years. Different countries have different terms on all this, though.
And, yes, you can publish without registering your copyright. Depending on jurisdiction, registration may not even be available. In the US, registration allows statutory damages, but the cost of the court case that would lead to statutory damages may well be high enough to make that remedy largely theoretical.
Answer: It may be worth it for you to look into the difference between a copyright and a trademark. While your pen name cannot be copywritten (copyrighted?), it most likely CAN be trademarked.
Your book is under copyright by default.
Comment: Copyrighted is the correct past tense of Copyright.  You're claiming a "Right" acopy, not "writing" a copy.
Comment: @hszmv The confusion comes from copywriting.


After completing a Mathematics degree and an Electrical Engineering degree, is it possible to pursue a master in Physics?

Question: I am currently studying Electrical Engineering and a Bachelor in Mathematics. I'm interested in theoretical physics, and I wonder if it is possible to pursue a Master degree in theoretical physics after completing my current studies. Or may be if I could later apply for a Master (or Phd) in Mathematics and be able to contribute to theoretical physics in some way, or if you know any other possible way I could get into theoretical physics. Sorry if this was a stupid question, and for any grammatical mistake (if there is any, english is not my mother tongue, so feel free to correct this).
Answer: Sure. People change their field of study between degrees all the time. Hopefully you can take some higher level physics courses and count them toward your current degrees. You could also seek out a physics research project to gain some experience in the field. You should talk to physicists at your institution and get their opinions. They may have specific advice.


Health Insurance dual UK and Canadian Citizen long term stay in France

Question: I am Canadian with UK passport living in France for 10 months.  We have been here for 3 already.  I would like to know if I and my dependents qualify for an EHIC card.  We are not residents of France, we are residents of Yukon Canada.  I think the answer is no based on questions already asked on this exchange, but want to double check.  Thank you.
Dominic Bradford
Answer: You have to be covered by an EU health scheme to get an EHIC.  Because you are not a resident of the UK, you are not eligible for the NHS.  You might buy insurance in France, though, while you are there; this would, I believe, entitle you to get an EHIC so your emergency care is covered in case you travel elsewhere in Europe during your stay in France.
If you have coverage in Canada, you should check whether it is valid in France.


How i can merge two binary trees

Question: I have two binary trees and I want to merge them.
My first question is that whether we can merge two binary trees and if yes how efficiently I can perform the merge operations and what are the various ways i can perform the merging operations. ..?
Comment: Merging binary trees is trivial, just link the root of one as a child of one of the leaf nodes of the other. Did you have some other structure that you want to preserve, like being ordered or balanced?
Comment: lets start with simple unordered unbalanced tree . You said it's trivial so can u just show me how it's done..?
Answer: 1) Flatten both the trees in to sorted lists.
2) Merge the lists from what you got in 1)
3) Construct the tree out of what you got in 2)
Comment: You can flatten the trees into lists in O(n) time using a standard in-order walk.  Merging two sorted lists can be done in O(n) time as well.  Once you've merged the lists, you can construct the BST in O(n) time by recursively constructing trees out of the left and right halves, then gluing them together.  The overall complexity is therefore O(n).
Comment: @templatetypedef: Thanks for the answer. Yes, complexity is O(n).
Comment: @saurabh ranu: I do not think so.
Comment: log(n) time complexity - not possible
Answer: Not considering efficiency this answer may work Algorithm of combining two binary trees? . If sorted or balanced, discussion on efficiency in How to merge two BST's efficiently? and Concatenating/Merging/Joining two AVL trees
Answer: Create a new node and point one tail at the head of one of the trees and point the other tail at the head of the other tree. Perhaps you need to clarify your question to be more specific. What relationships are you trying to preserve?
Answer: A tree is also a graph, so output the edge vertex-pairs (u,v) for each tree, and then union these edge sets, and output the resulting graph.
The issue arises with how to map vertices in the one tree to vertices in the other (e.g. we have edge pair (5,9) in tree 1 and edge pair (5,6) in tree 2, do these 5s correspond to the same vertex ? ).
Coming up with a numbering of vertices (perhaps that assigns numbers to each vertex in an incomplete binary tree, as if it were a complete binary tree, so in other words assigns the vertices in any partial binary tree to slots of a hypothetical complete binary tree of which that tree is a subtree), that somehow provides an desirable equivalence is something that works.

How i can merge two binary trees


Apache Port 8080 Windows XP

Question: I've installed Apache 2.2.  Accepted defaults.
I've created a simple php file calling it index.php.
If I enter this in Firefox:
http://localhost:8080/
I get the splash screen:
If you can see this, it means that the installation of the Apache web server software on this system was successful. You may now add content to this directory and replace this page.
http://localhost:8080/manual/
Gets me to the help screen.
I created a new projectd in NetBean 6.5.1.  I pointed directory of the project to:
C:\Program Files\Apache Group\Apache2\htdocs\Apache
Project/Source Directories:
C:\Program Files\Apache Group\Apache2\htdocs
Project URL: http://localhost:8080/htdocs/
I created a simple index.php file with echo("test")
Not Found
The requested URL /htdocs/index.php was not found on this server.
Apache/2.0.63 (Win32) Server at localhost Port 8080
Answer: The URL is just http://localhost:8080/index.php
You don't need the htdocs directory in there.
Answer: The "htdocs" directory is normally where your pages are served from, so I'd expect the URL to be http://localhost:8080/index.php rather than having /htdocs in the URL as well.
Answer: By default, your web root is "htdocs".  Whenever you go to "http://localhost:8080", it looks for any paths/files you specify inside the htdocs directory, so you don't have to manually add it to your URL.
I would suggest uninstalling the current Apache install, and installing WAMP instead.  It gives you Apache with PHP installed, and MySQL for more advanced web applications.  It is also all contained within "C:\wamp", so all your binaries can be found in one place.
Answer: Sounds like your problem is just the url you were trying.  Although, if you're looking for a simpler way, packages like XAMPP can make it really easy to set up a functioning server for development.

Apache Port 8080 Windows XP


How to validate thousands of image URLs

Question: I have multi-vendors and each one has thousands of products and each product has at-least one image URL. we've imported their CSV file to our Magento 1.9 and looks like there are bunch of broken links. would anybody can help me what is the best way to validate those URL links.
Answer: I'm not sure there is a best way but I use this vba code in an excel file to download them. It will tell you which are not downloaded and therefore which are not valid URLs
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10383614/get-pictures-from-a-url-and-then-rename-the-picture

How to validate thousands of image URLs


Word Unscrambler Complexity Class

Question: I'm not that well experienced in the field of complexity classes and related concepts. But, would the task of outputting whether or not a given scrambled word is a real english word be a P or NP problem? (if that even makes sense) All programs that I've seen take the input and generate all permutations of the word, then compare all permutations to every word in the dictionary. What if there was another algorithm that took a different, more efficient approach? Would that change the problem's class complexity? Sorry if I'm using the terminolgy incorrectly
Answer: You don't need to generate all permutations. Just count the number of times each letter appears in the word and compare the counts,
or sort the letters of each word then compare them. These operations are all polynomial so in P.
Comment: \*Hitting head on table for not thinking of this\*
Answer: Generating permutations of a word with k necessarily has exponential complexity, because there are k! permutations, and the algorithm needs to create them all. However, the lookup part can be made more efficient with the use of a datastructure which is called a hash table, which allows a lookup to be performed in near-constant time.
Comment: So what class in the complexity classes would this problem fall under?
Comment: Based on this information, could you express the algorithm's runtime complexity with the _O_ or _Theta_ notation?
Comment: In big O notation, I imagine it would be O(k!) because that's the expression that grows that largest as k approaches infinity
Comment: Yes, but you also need to take into account the time that is needed to build the hash table initially, so it's _O(k! + n)_, where _n_ is the number of words in the dictionary. Whether this is exponential or not depends on whether you consider _k_ a constant or not - for most real languages, there's a limit to how long words are, but from a theoretical standpoint, it's probably best to consider it a variable anyway (and in practice, words can be so long that _k!_ is prohibitively big, especially in Norwegian, where e.g. _sannsynlighetsmaksimeringsestimator_ is a valid word).
Comment: ...so since _k_ describes the size of (a part of) your input, and the complexity contains a term that is exponential in _k_, and this is a decision problem in _P_, the problem is also in _NP_.
Comment: _fgb_ presents a much better algorithm; please use his answer.
Comment: when measuring algorithms in big O notation, you only take the expression that grows the largest as the input approaches infinity, but thank you for the answer, I was wondering whether it fell under P or NP
Answer: The number of English words is bounded, and so obviously the possible length of any English word is bounded, so technically your problem is solvable in constant time (although the constant would be large). If you rephrase your question as say, you are given a dictionary of arbitrarily large length over an alphabet, and then for a query word you want to determine the answer, then things become more interesting. Then the answer given by @fbg is probably your best way to go;  hash the tuples of number of occurrences of each letter (say, taking the alphabet in some sorted order), for each word in your dictionary, and then if you are given a scrambled word and do the same hash, you can tell very quickly whether your query scrambled word can be "unscrambled" to give a solution, otherwise no solution in your dictionary exists.

Word Unscrambler Complexity Class


Netflix keyboard shortcuts

Question: Is there any way to get keyboard shortcuts in Netflix?
I know I can use the space bar to pause and play, but what about skipping forward and backwards?
Answer:
The Netflix movie player (Silverlight version) implements at least the following keyboard shortcuts:

Space – Toggle Play/Pause

Enter – Toggle Play/Pause

PgUp – Play

PgDn – Pause

F – Full-screen

Esc – Exit full-screen

In full-screen mode:

Ctrl+Space – Fast-forward/rewind mode. Initially this key stroke pauses the movie to enter key frame (aka intra-frame or i-frame) fast-forward/rewind mode.  The right and left arrow keys then fast-forward and rewind.

The following Ctrl+Shift+Alt+* shortcuts (Ctrl+Shift+Option+* in Mac OS X) toggle information displays on/off when the player is NOT in full-screen mode. The displays will remain on, however, when full-screen mode is activated.

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+M – Menu

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+C – Codes; frame rate plus other (unknown to me) info. Also makes other overlays green.

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+D – Display A/V Stats on-screen

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+L – Logging window

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+P – Player Info

Ctrl+Shift+Alt+S – Stream bit rate and manual rate selection

Source: Netflix Movie Player Keyboard Shortcuts
Answer: I know this is an old question, but there is now an updated answer for this question.
If using Chrome, for a whole lot more keyboard shortcuts both in show selection and in the HTML5 player, check out the Flix Plus by Lifehacker extension (https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/flix-plus-by-lifehacker/fcjjgdnadfneaamhipplgpfkdnbfagla?hl=en-US) that I wrote.  It also lets you customize the keys.

Netflix keyboard shortcuts


Ferromagnetic vs Paramagnetic

Question: I know a ferromagnetic material (e.g iron) losses its ferromagnetic properties over the Curie temperate. What are the other methods to make iron paramagnetic from its ferromagnetic stage? Please suggest.
Answer: Paramagnetism (or even diamagnetism) is related to how the material responds to an applied magnetic field. On the other hand ferromagnetism (analogously, antiferromagnetism) is related to the alignment of the microscopic magnetic moments in the material).
In this sense, if you take a ferromagnet and apply a sufficiently strong magnetic field you should see the arisal of paramegnetic behaviour. This of course if and only if the material is also a paramagnet.
Comment: But here, My question is related to the ferromagnetic material. Can a ferromagnetic material, such as iron, lose its ferromagnetic property by other methods except heating over the curie temperature?
Comment: By application of a sufficiently high magnetic field

Ferromagnetic vs Paramagnetic


JavaScript + onunload event

Question: I want to fire onunload event to do some clean up operations, I have multiple tabs(Navbar) showing multiple links to different web pages,my problem is that even when I'm in some other  page my unload function which is in  tag of some other jsp is fired. Please help to resove this, I want unload function to be called when user closes browser in that page.
Answer: I'm not sure how you got the onunload event to work....The problem I've found with using the onunload event is that it is fired after the page has been unloaded. This means that no more JavaScript can be executed because the page has been unloaded.
You should be looking into using the onbeforeunload event.
This event is a little unique because if the function that handles this event returns anything a pop up is displayed asking the user if they would like to continue with the operation. So, in your case make sure that your function doesn't return anything. The other thing to note about the onbeforeunload event is that, at this time, Opera does not support it (Safari, FireFox, and Internet Explorer do though).
Both the onbeforeunload and onunload events are executed every time the page is unloaded. If a control on your page submits the page to the server code, the page is unloaded and the JavaScript is executed.
If you don't want the JavaScript to be executed when a control on your page is submitting it to the server you have to implement something that checks to see whether or not your code should be executed.
This is simple, add a JavaScript boolean to the page and a function that set's this boolean to true. Make sure that every element in your page that posts back to your server code sets this boolean to true before it submits the page. Check this boolean in your onbeforeunload event to see if your cleanup code should be executed.
Hope this helps,
-Frinny
Answer: It seems that the unload function has been created in a global scope. Try placing that function only on the page you want to act.
Comment: Dear Elzo ,the problem is that function is declared in a body in chat.jsp,now i have tabs having links to other web pages like Edit,Home,View,Chat,nw when i m editing some text in Edit page ,even then my unload fuction whic is declared in chat.jsp is called ,i just want that when user closes the browser in chat.jsp this should be called not while i m switching to other tabs
Answer: You have a frameset page? And you want to be notified when they navigate away from the frameset? Add an onbeforeunload on the frameset. I don't know what you mean by clean up, but you can't send XHRs during unload safely across browsers

JavaScript + onunload event


Off white rubbery growths on my willow tree in the uk

Question: I have off white rubbery growths on the bark of my willow tree.

It has happened in the last few weeks with the wet weather.
Answer: Some fungus similar to shelf mushrooms. The bark looks abnormal as if damage has been developing over time. Likely the fungus has "roots" into the wood and the trees days are numbered. However, it may live for years. I had an oak with a shelf mushroom that gradually died over 20 years. I doubt there is any way to stop it. Plant another tree nearby if you want a tree in that location.


Why were 4 engines shutdown prematurely during Booster 9's static fire?

Question: Recently (August 7), Booster 9 conducted a static fire test where it only ignited 29 of 33 engines. This is the big static fire, there not another one. I have found that they were shutdown prematurely a lot (example), but no where does it say why. So, what happened, and why were 4 engines shutdown prematurely?
Answer: SpaceX has not released that information at this time, and may never do so. They have no strong reason to publicize it, really.
The engines will shut down automatically if they detect any of a wide variety of issues, so each engine shutdown could have been anything from combustion instability to a bad sensor that didn't report correctly under live conditions. A premature engine shutdown is a bit like a car's "Check Engine" light; it doesn't really tell us anything except "something went wrong".
I think it's more interesting that the test was meant to be 5 seconds but actually ended just short of 3 seconds. That suggests something happened halfway into the test that caused a full system halt.
Comment: " A premature engine shutdown is a bit like a car's "Check Engine" light; it doesn't really tell us anything except "something went wrong"." It may not tell *us* but I would bet that it tells *SpaceX* what went wrong. Even the 1970s vintage SSME controller sent failure identification codes to telemetry explaining why it shut the engine down.
Comment: The engine shutdown would tell SpaceX very little - they would need to consult additional data to make a conclusion. It's just that *we* don't have access to that.
Comment: The launch commit criteria for the Starship system require 30 working engines. Assuming that SpaceX "tests as they fly", that would mean 4 engines out would be an automatic abort.
Comment: @OrganicMarble Oh, sure, there's data SpaceX has access to that'll tell them exactly what happened; I assume they know precisely what was going on. For some failures we (outsiders) can speculate about possible causes even without official statements, because there's only a few things that could create the scenario we saw, but in this case it's too vague.


What is the ancient cosmic canon of proportion and its role in the history of science?

Question: Who had direct inside knowledge of the canon through the alleged secret oral tradition? Some possible examples that have been alluded to include Pythagoras, Plato, Euclid, Copernicus, Galileo, Kepler, Leibniz and Newton. Grattan-Guinness mentions the oral tradition in The Norton History of the Mathematical Sciences but he gives no sources. Partial introduction to what is recorded in written history by Conifold Did geometric patterns in nature suggest the early notions of proportion and ratios?
Comment: Aha, I think this was the kind of reference I was looking for: Isaac Newton's Freemasonry by Alain Bauer.
Comment: I am not sure that what he calls "covert mathematics" in "architecture, art and decoration" necessarily refers to secrets a la freemasons. There is a lot of interesting work on medieval Islamic geometry based on studying mosque decorations, for example. But you may want to look at [Dudley's Numerology, Or, What Pythagoras Wrought](https://books.google.com/books?id=udptayxY2E8C&dq=neo-Pythagorean+numerology&source=gbs_navlinks_s) and [Livio's The Golden Ratio](https://plus.maths.org/content/os/issue22/reviews/book2/index) for that sort of thing.
Comment: Dudley and Livio have little helpful content on the canon. More detail in Isaac Newton's Temple of Solomon and his Reconstruction of Sacred Architecture by Tessa Morrison. "The essence of the temple is its plan, which contains the key to forgotten knowledge, the blueprint by which the universe was made, and the lost canon that provided laws and standards." - John Michell
Comment: More help from physicist and freemason Robert Lomas -- The Lost Key https://books.google.com/books?id=0xc0AgAAQBAJ&vq=Solomon%E2%80%99s+Temple&dq=The+Lost+Key+-+The+Supranatural+Secrets+of+the+Freemasons&source=gbs_navlinks_s
Answer: Proportion is the key concept that underlies most of mathematics. In its modern guise, it's described as the straight line or linearity.
Now consider that the epitome of motion in Newtons theory is straight line motion. Further consider that Einstein then described motion in GR as straight lines on a curved surface. More, consider that calculus is simply the linearisation of a nonlinear function - in none variable, in many variables, in curved surfaces, in curved manifolds and in curved higher dimensional manifolds.
Even more, consider that quantum mechanics - mathematically speaking, is a linear theory.
Once one has understood the many different ways mathematicians have leveraged the concept of linearity, and hence proportionality into many areas and fields of mathematics, one might think that mathematics is simply the unfoldingness of one very simple idea: that of proportion.
This is an idea that every child can easily understand. It's not occult, nor is it a secret. It's one that every mathematician knows. Perhaps it's a secret to the average man in the street who is impressed by the occult looking symbols. This is the same impulse undoubtably that has driven numerology and astrology. Rest easy, there is only one single idea here - if one can only see it.
Answer: The Canon: An Exposition of the Pagan Mystery Perpetuated in the Cabala As the Rule of All Arts by William Stirling  (architect)

The Canon is the numerical interpretation of the Cosmic law and, since
  man is a microcosm of the universe, it is also the law of human
  nature. The history of all civilizations is the history of their
  interpretation of the Canon. Codified by ancient philosophers and
  guarded by priests in the temples, the Canon sanctified the society
  that possessed it, regulating its institutions in accordance with the
  laws of nature. Plato, writing in "The Laws of the Egyptian Canon, "
  claimed that by its use the high civilization of ancient Egypt had
  been preserved from deterioration for 10,000 years.
The Canon was instituted by the ancient theocracies as a standard in
  music, architecture and all other arts. Even after the decline of the
  old world order and of the canonical standard, knowledge of the Canon
  was preserved in the mystery schools of Greece and Alexandria, and in
  the tradition of masonic and other craft guilds.
One of the most revolutionary books of the late 19th century, The
  Canon owes its high reputation to the august literary style of its
  author, as well as to its remarkable contents.

...

The old Masonic writers declare that the true system of the universe,
  and the foundation of all geometrical proportion is to be found in the
  forty-seventh proposition of Euclid, as expounded by Pythagoras, and
  communicated in writing by Plato, .... [p.56].

Stirling, William. The Canon: An Exposition of the Pagan Mystery Perpetuated in the Cabala as the Rule of All Arts. Weiser Books, 1999.
Knight, Christopher, and Robert Lomas. Uriel's Machine: The Ancient Origins of Science. Random House, 2000.
Guénon, René. The Reign of Quantity & The Signs of the Times. Sophia Perennis, 2001. "Critique of modern Western civilization from the point of view of traditional metaphysics."


Obtaining Free High Resolution Satellite Imagery to use in QGIS

Question: I just downloaded QGIS 3.10 Mac version the other day and I am still very green with the program.  I was wondering what is the best way to obtain high resolution satellite imagery?  I know there are some websites you can pay for it, but I was wondering if there are any ways you can get it for free?
Answer: It depends a lot on where you are trying to get data for.  If you're in the US then check out The National Map - there's tons of data for all over the US listed there.
Otherwise you can look for QGIS plugins that will load basemaps and base-imagery into your QGIS project.  As described in this question.
If you're outside the US, or your area of interest is, there could very well be other sources similar to this that can help you out but I am not familiar with them.
Comment: Yes, in the US.  I will look into your suggestions, thank you!
Comment: The XYZ tile server in particular is a very nice feature. https://gis.stackexchange.com/a/217670/8104
Answer: Oftentimes your local government will provide satellite imagery of the area on an official website. Search terms to use when looking for this would be satellite, imagery, gis, raster, download, [jurisdiction] data portal, orthophoto and orthoimagery. Good luck!


Ubuntu One's iPhone music app does not cache songs. How do I configure it?

Question: I've been using the new music streaming app in my iPod Touch for a couple days now. I synced my music folder with Ubuntu One and all my music is appearing in the app. However, after playing several hours of music, the app did not cache any song to play offline. Is there a way to set how many songs are cached? When are the songs cached?
Answer: In the current version, songs are only cached manually.  You can cache a song for offline play by tapping the circle button to the right of the song in the list.  We are considering adding automatic caching to a future version of the app.
Comment: Thank you for your answer. I am now able to cache songs by following your suggestion. However, please, consider the possibility of, at least, cache a complete playlist, because selecting one by one the songs to be cached is a tedious affair.


QGIS does not accept URL when I try to add a WFS layer

Question: When I'm trying to add a WFS layer with this URL
"https://www.wfs.nrw.de/geobasis/wfs_nw_atkis-basis-dlm_aaa-modell-basiert?"
in QGIS, I get the error message "either the WFS server does not support version 1.0.0 or the URL is wrong". Then I tried it with the WFS 2.0 client, and getting the capabilities worked, but when I chose a feature type like "adv:AX_Wald" I get the error message "Download failed: Bad request" and it tells me that there is an error with the Python code. What am I doing wrong?
Comment: Are you using the built in WFS client, or the [WFS 2.0 plugin](https://github.com/JuergenWeichand/qgis-wfs20-client-plugin)?
Comment: the message seems to be correct "either the WFS server does not support version 1.0.0 or ..." The service doesn't report supporting version 1.0.0, you must use either WFS 1.1.0 or WFS 2.0.0 according to the service GetCapabilities response
Answer: This particular WFS server responds with Bad request when you don't specify the correct CRS.
It supports only EPSG:25832 and EPSG:4258 (found out by fetching GetCapabilities).
If you are using the WFS 2.0 plugin, make sure to set it at the bottom of the dialog.


Why are VOL and IOL seperately defined in I2C and SMBUS?

Question: What is the point of defining VOL and IOL separately in I2C and SMBUS?
Comment: I'm not exactly sure, but if you have hardware I2C and hardware SMBus, they're physically different circuits that may and will have different sinking capabilities and voltage performance. They can be closely matched, but they're still different circuits on hardware level. But I don't know for sure. Besides, maybe you should specify what IC you're talking about
Comment: look at smbus on wikipedia. It has two current specs of 350 uA and 4 mA where I2C just has 3 mA, so all the more puzzling!
Answer: That is because while I2C and SMBUS are closely related and the devices are quite interoperable, they still have different electrical specifications, so they can't be listed as one common entry in the specs. It just highlights to the reader that do note that these parameters are different in different standards and it might be important when connecting various chips together.
And it seems there is an error in the table. I2C should have 3mA sink current and SMBUS should have 4mA sink current.
Comment: Actually even in I2C data sheet they specify seperate VOL and IOL specifications?Why is it so?
Answer: Am assuming these specs refer to bus connections logic levels. Keep in mind that these lines are pulled up to some unknown positive voltage with a pull-up resistor, and are pulled down to ground by a NMOS transistor, or by a NPN bipolar transistor, or possibly even by a very fast switch.
The NMOS transistor might be viewed as a pull-down resistor when turned on. Its resistance varies as its drain voltage on the bus drops, but we're mostly interested in its characteristics when it yanks the bus line low.

The \$V_{OL}\$ spec says that the NMOS drain-to-source resistance should be no more than 100 ohms when it is turned on, and is pulling the bus low.
The \$I_{OL}\$ spec says that the NMOS transistor should maintain its less-than-100 ohm drain-to-source resistance while 3mA flows through it.

Viewing the bus pull-down device as a turned-on resistor this way is a gross simplification - a transistor of any type is non-linear.