Android:Media Player difference between PrepareAsync() and Prepare()

Question: I wanted to implement basic media player functionality and was confused between PrepareAsync()
and Prepare() method calls. Which one should be used if the audio file is in the raw folder .
Comment: Both do the same thing at the end, but Prepare() will not return until preparation is done, while PrepareAsync will return immediately and do the preparation in the background.
Comment: It means Suppose I have audio clip of say for example 10 min . . PrepareAsync will return audio for first few seconds immediately and prepare might take a bit longer to get the file read but once its done it will return the object for the whole file ?
Comment: You can't start playing before the preparation is done or you will have an exception. With PrepareAsync() you will have to start the playback yourself in the "onPrepared" method of the onPreparedListener.
Answer: The difference between those methods is basically in what thread they're executed.
Prepare runs in the thread you call it (most frequently UI thread) and thus if it takes long time (buffering video from the Internet and such) it will block your UI thread and a user might get ANR.
PrepareAsync runs in a background thread and thus UI thread is not blocked as it returns almost immediately. But the player is not prepared so you want to set onPreparedListener in order to know when the MediaPlayer is ready to be used.
Comment: it'll probably work a little faster (though I doubt if you notice it).
you may try yourself and see if it's blocking your UI, if not you can go for `prepare` method, but generally it'd be better to use `prepareAsync` as it won't generate problems in future.
Comment: but if the use case is basic which in my case is (i.e read from raw folder resource ) I can go for Prepare() method. It would work faster in this case ?
Answer: prepare() method is generally used when we want to play our media file synchronously.
prepareAsync() is generally used when we want to play asynchronously.
for eg:
mediaplayer.prepare()

It is used to play the file from local media resources.
mediaplayer.prepareAsync() is generally used for playing the live data over stream. It allows to play without blocking the main thread.
If we use prepare() for live data streaming it eventually crashes because the data is received in streams.
Basically what prepare() does it first load all the data and then it play. Thus it allows to play the media file synchronously.
And prepareAsync() play the data whatever it has in its buffer.
Here is the final Quotes

here are two ways (synchronous vs. asynchronous) that the Prepared
  state can be reached: either a call to prepare() (synchronous) which
  transfers the object to the Prepared state once the method call
  returns, or a call to prepareAsync() (asynchronous) which first
  transfers the object to the Preparing state after the call returns
  (which occurs almost right way) while the internal player engine
  continues working on the rest of preparation work until the
  preparation work completes. When the preparation completes or when
  prepare() call returns, the internal player engine then calls a user
  supplied callback method, onPrepared() of the OnPreparedListener
  interface, if an OnPreparedListener is registered beforehand via
  setOnPreparedListener(android.media.MediaPlayer.OnPreparedListener).

The main difference is that when we use files then we call prepare() and when we use streams then we call prepareAsync().
In your case it must be prepare() method
Check prepareAsync() and prepare() refer the docs its clearly stated


Why is "bicycle" shortened to "bike" and not "bice"?

Question: In my accent, at least, "bicycle" is pronounced /bɑɪsɪkʊl/, but it's shortened to /bɑɪk/, and not /bɑɪs/. The latter would be analogous to how some people shorten "decent" to "dece" /diːs/, but it doesn't happen for bike. Is there a historical reason why this is so?
Comment: This question is on the English StackExchange: http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/123086/when-and-why-has-bike-developed-from-bicycle
Answer: The OED reports that the word was first attested in Cyclist & Bicycling & Tricycling Trades Rev. 29 Dec. 100/1, "We can conscientiously recommend it as an excellent shillingsworth of 'bike' and 'trike' literature". "Bicycle" was borrowed much earlier from French. There not being much evidence about the history of the word(s), one can only speculate. There is some resemblance to hypocoristic reduction and mutilation process for creating affectionate versions of words, like Art ← Arthur, Ginnie ← Virginia, Bob ← Robert. The scare quotes in the citation probably indicates a judgment that the form is seen as "cute". There is certainly nothing regular about the process. It might have been a writer's cute reintroduction of the velarity of original Greek κ.
Comment: Or perhaps the opposite thing happened, i.e. a bit of counter-etymological reinterpretation. Between *bicycle*, *tricycle* and the verb *to cycle*, /ɑɪ/ and /k/ seem like the "stable" elements when the second syllable has been trimmed off, despite the /ɑɪ/ belonging to two different morphemes. Hence *bike*, preserving the vague semantic association. Additionally, *bike* was a "vacant" sequence of sounds, whereas *bice* would've been a near-homophone of *buys* and *byes*.
Comment: Thank you for acknowledging "cuteness".  From a game theoretic standpoint, cuteness may be said to be an engagement and survival strategy.


What does it mean if a fixed effects regression gives the same coefficients as one that has no fixed effects?

Question: I am doing a difference-in-differences analysis, looking at whether environmental regulation has an effect on exports. I added fixed effects for country and time, but on STATA it gave me the same coefficients as my original difference-in-difference regression (with controls) and the p values only differ very slightly. What does this mean exactly? How would I be able to interpret this result? Many thanks!
Comment: Hi Matthew! What do you mean when you say your *original* difference-in-differences (DiD) regression? If I interpreted your question correctly, you first estimated a DiD equation with a treatment dummy *and* fixed effects for country and time. Then, you ran a second equation and omitted the fixed effects entirely. After doing both of these, your estimated coefficient on the treatment dummy remained the same. Is this what you are observing?
Comment: Hi Tom! Apologies, I think I should have been clearer in my explanation. So my first DiD equation had the normal dummy variables for time of intervention and the dummy for the treatment group, the interaction dummy variable and some control variables. My second DiD had my fixed effects. After including my fixed effects, I found that the coefficients I got were exactly the same as the first regression I ran without the fixed effects. Not sure why the coefficients are identical.
Comment: Thank you for clarifying. So you replaced the main effects in the first equation with fixed effects. Do your units enter into treatment at the same time?
Comment: Yes they do. I have data from 1990-2018 and my policy intervention is at 2011 affecting the treatment group (UK) and not my control (Australia).
Comment: The only coefficient that changes is the constant term. All the others are the same
Comment: This is to be expected with two discrete groups and two discrete time periods. Edit your question to make it more clear for others. See my response and follow-up if my answer was not clear in any way!
Answer: I assume you are estimating the following DD equation with two groups and two discrete before-and-after periods:
$$
y_{ct} = \alpha + \gamma\textrm{UK}_{c} + \lambda \textrm{After}_{t} + \delta(\textrm{UK}_{c} \times \textrm{After}_{t}) + \epsilon_{ct},
$$
where you are observing some outcome $y_{ct}$ in countries $c$ across years $t$. In this setting, $\textrm{UK}_{c}$ is a treatment dummy equal to 1 for the United Kingdom, 0 for Australia. The variable $\textrm{After}_{t}$ indexes the years after policy/intervention in both treatment and control groups. In accordance with your description, the post-treatment period (i.e., $\textrm{After}_{t}$) is clearly defined. Treatment is instituted in the United Kingdom in 2011 and stays in effect for the entire observation period. Your causal parameter of interest is $\delta$.

So my first DiD equation had the normal dummy variables for time of intervention and the dummy for the treatment group, the interaction dummy variable and some control variables. My second DiD had my fixed effects. After including my fixed effects, I found that the coefficients I got were exactly the same as the first regression I ran without the fixed effects.

The generalization of the first equation you estimated would include dummies for all countries and all years but is otherwise unchanged. In settings with two groups and two discrete time periods, your estimate of the treatment effect (i.e., $\delta$) should be similar. Here is your second specification,
$$
y_{ct} = \gamma_{c} + \lambda_{t} + \delta T_{ct} + \epsilon_{ct},
$$
where $T_{ct}$ is the same as before $(\textrm{UK}_{c} \times \textrm{After}_{t})$. $T_{ct}$ is a treatment dummy equal to 1 during years when the United Kingdom is exposed to treatment, 0 otherwise. $\gamma_{c}$ denotes country fixed effects; $\lambda_{t}$ denotes year fixed effects. I should note, these fixed effects replace $\textrm{UK}_{c}$ and $\textrm{After}_{t}$, respectively, in the former equation.
You can proceed by estimating the second equation in two ways. First, estimate the country and year effects, then interact $\textrm{UK}_{c}$ with $\textrm{After}_{t}$ (i.e., $\textrm{UK}_{c} \times \textrm{After}_{t}$). Software (R/Stata) will drop the main effects for $\textrm{UK}_{c}$ and $\textrm{After}_{t}$. Do not worry about this; the fixed effects will absorb your treatment and time indicators. However, the coefficient on the interaction term will be estimated; that is your treatment effect. In DD contexts, we typically only care about the interaction term. Another way to estimate the second equation is to create the treatment dummy yourself. For example, if you interact the two main effects manually before running your equation and append it to your data frame, you will notice this is simply a treatment dummy (e.g., $T_{ct}$) equal to 1 for the United Kingdom during years after treatment exposure. The estimate of $\delta$ is equivalent to the coefficient on the interaction term.
In sum, the latter DD estimator is a generalization of the former DD estimator with two groups and two periods. Thus, it is not surprising that your estimates of $\delta$ were similar. I should note, had treatment exposure been staggered over time, with multiple countries entering into treatment at different times, then you would forgo the first estimator and instead opt to estimate the more general DD equation.
Since all "adopter countries" begin treatment in the same year, you can safety estimate either equation. In your setting, where your treated country has a clearly defined pre- and post-period, I am partial to the former.
--- Update to address questions in the comments

I'm attempting to do the parallel trends test....As I understand, you interact the treatment variable with time dummies. But for me, the treatment dummy is an interaction dummy variable as you explained earlier. Do I interact this variable with time dummies or include interactions for all years with the 'Country' variable instead? I'm unsure as to how to conduct the test.

You are mostly right. You interact $\textrm{UK}_{c}$ with individual year dummies. Treatment exposure begins at the same time for all treated entities, so you should perform this specification test with the former equation. First, create a single treatment dummy indexing treated countries. Next, create separate dummies for each year. To be precise, this is a separate dummy for 1990, a separate dummy for 1991, a separate dummy for 1992, so on and so forth. Finally, interact the treatment indicator with each individual year dummy. Don't forget to exclude a year dummy to avoid collinearity! Here is the formulation:
$$
y_{ct} = \gamma\textrm{UK}_{c} + \lambda_{1} (\textrm{UK}_{c}*\mathbf{I}_{t = 2008}) + \lambda_{2} (\textrm{UK}_{c}*\mathbf{I}_{t = 2009}) + \lambda_{3} (\textrm{UK}_{c}*\mathbf{I}_{t = 2010}) + \epsilon_{ct},
$$
where $\mathbf{I}$ is the indicator function. You may have seen this represented with a numeral (i.e., $\mathbf{1}_{\kappa}$). Put in words, set the value to 1 if condition $\kappa$ is satisfied, 0 otherwise. Put in your context, if a country is in a particular year then set it equal to 1, 0 otherwise. To save space, I only included three pre-treatment years. In the context of your problem, you would include separate interactions for all $t$ years before treated countries enter into the treatment condition. You could do these interactions manually, or you could leverage Stata's factor variable notation and let the software do these interactions for you.
Practitioners often refer to this as a pre-specification test. In your case, you would interact your treatment indicator with separate year dummies for all years prior to the treatment/intervention. Your $\lambda_{t}$'s in the pre-period should be indistinguishable from zero. Each interaction is assessing the difference in trend in years preceding treatment exposure. Insignificant effects do not definitively prove you have common trends; rather, it supports claims of trend equivalence.
You also have the discretion to interact your treatment dummy with post-treatment year indicators as well. Treatment could possibly grow or fade throughout the exposure period.
There are many ways to incorporate dynamics in your model specification. This is just one! I hope this helps.
Comment: Many thanks for your detailed reply! Really helped a lot!
Comment: Hi Tom I'm attempting to do the parallel trends test as shown on this post: https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/160359/difference-in-difference-method-how-to-test-for-assumption-of-common-trend-betw?fbclid=IwAR3pD-9e6aB8BiJhSWxX1JcrFEyc3KnQgVCBHwR9MFqQuFz7kh9UftCV27o As I understand, you interact the treatment variable with time dummies. But for me, the treatment dummy is an interaction dummy variable as you explained earlier. Do I interact this variable with time dummies or include interactions for all years with the 'Country' variable instead? I'm unsure as to how to conduct the test.
Comment: I would go with the first specification as it gives you more flexibility to assess differences in the group trends. Please see my updated answer and follow-up here if anything is unclear.
Comment: Thank you so much for the detailed answer! It's been a massive help!
Comment: No problem at all Matt! Give it a check or follow-up with me here.
Comment: If it answered your question, give it a check! If you have more questions please follow-up here.
Comment: Hi Tom, I have some questions: Firstly, for DD is it necessary to do a Hausman test to check whether fixed effects can be used in the first place? Secondly, I am using panel data from 1990 to 2018 and I am using STATA for my regressions. If I were to do a regression based on your first equation, what command would I have to use? Is it the normal 'regress' command or do I have to use 'xtreg'? And finally, I have a variable 'Year' which just gives the year of each observation. If I wanted to include time fixed effects, as per your second equation, would I simply add 'i.year?' to the regression?
Comment: In my opinion, it is not necessary. In practice, we often suspect treatment is confounded in some way. DD is a special case of fixed effects, thus we allow for some selection on the basis of time-invariant country-level characteristics. Moreover, we often have to make stringent assumptions using random effects, one of which is to assume the panel-level effects are independent of the covariates in the model. We do not make this assumption with fixed effects. Proceeding with `xtreg` should get the job done. Since I mainly work in R, I am hesitant to advise you further regarding Stata's syntax.


Convert .cpu / .opc to sleigh

Question: Is there a tool to automatically convert binutils cpu definitions (.cpu / .opc files) to sleigh for use in Ghidra? ... or do I need to hand craft a cpu definition for Synopsys DesignWare ARC 625D?
Comment: That would be an interesting project, not aware of anything like that currently for Ghidra.  The information there would also only produce enough SLEIGH for disassembly.  You'd have to still implement the instructions for any analysis or decompilation.
Comment: took a second look, it does look like it a .cpu could have enough to implement the instruction and not just the display and bit-patterns.  Ignoring the conversion, it would still come down to finding a correctly/full implementation in a .cpu format, not seeing to many
Answer: There was a project of using these files to create a processor module for IDA, maybe you can reuse parts of it.
Comment: Thank you for the pointer!
After a bit more research:
- there does not seem to be a ready to use tool for the conversion;
- it should be possible to create such a tool, but it is non-trivial.
For a single processor module, it may well be quicker to hand craft the module. Still, I might have a go at automating at least part of the process...

Convert .cpu / .opc to sleigh


What is the difference between'time is up' and 'time is over'

Question: Are the two phrases'time is up' and 'time is over' used in different contexts or can be used to convey the same meaning
Answer: "Time is over" seems to refer to time as a period that has passed. "Time is up" seems to refer to time as a certain deadline that has been reached. So when one says that the time to submit applications is over, it means that the opportunity to submit an application is missed, and when one says that the time is up, it means that you should submit your application ASAP,  since it is your last chance.
Comment: is the phrase "time is over" even used in standard English ? would you provide a reference because i couldn't find any .
Answer: I think 'time is up' is more recent, more immediate and so tends to refer to the moment of reaching a deadline or soon after i.e. still relevant, while 'time is over' is more broad and general and so tends to refer to a period of time that is in the past and not of current relevance. The immediateness of 'time is up' is what I think gives it its relative abruptness and so its negativity in some contexts.
Answer: They both express the same essential meaning: A period of time has ended.
The connotations of the two are slightly different. "Time's up" is very similar to the phrase "time's run out." It conveys an environment where time is a limited resource and someone is attempting to accomplish a particular task before the resource is used up or runs out.

Time's up! Put your pencils down and pass your exams forward.
I barely finished my exam before time was up.

"Time is over" signals the end of a longer period; one that could have conceivably lasted forever. If it is associated with a deadline for a particular task than the deadline is not typically rushed -- the allotted amount should be more than enough time to complete the task.
This usage is very similar to phrases such as "time has ended" or "time has gone" or even "from another time."

The time for joking is over.
Put away your disco clothes; that time is over.
Now that the ruler has died, this dynasty's time is over.
Answer: "Time is over" seems to be somewhat rarer. I see a few examples from a quick Google in contexts like:

The time for you to submit your applications is over (the opportunity or time period has passed)
  Break time is over for Congress (the time period being described has ended)

So "time is over" can apply to both longer fixed time periods (many days or more) and is used with phrases like "break time" or "excuse time", whereas "time is up" typically means that a short time period has expired, such as to complete a test, and only seems to be used for periods of a few hours or less.
Answer: I would say that '(the) time is up' is more informal and emotional than '(the) time is over'.
For that reason Your time is up! (as in playing a game) is going to be more common than Your time is over! and "The time period for applications is over" is going to be more common than "The time period for applications is up."  ("The time period for applications has passed" is even better in my view.)
Also notice the following contrast: "Your time at the company is up" is more threatening or at least more dismissive than "Your time at the company is over."
Similarly 'X's time is up' is a somewhat rude euphemism for the idea that somebody is about to die; you can even use it to make a threat ("Your time is up!").  That can't be done with over.
Answer: 'Time is up' is used to show that the time allocated in carrying out an activity has ended and you should therefore stop  and submit it wherelse the phrase 'Time is over' means that the long time allocated in carrying out an activity and submitting has ended thus the whole of the work/activity is rendered useless and of no significance.
Answer: i think time is up refer to the term "up" which means thoroughly.i.e the period of time is well expired .E.g i have to put an end to a class at five sharp so, i say to the students "time is up". whereas, the  term over is refer to something more .so , time is over  implies that  a\some minutes are just added.
Comment: You could improve this question (and perhaps attract upvotes!) in two ways: use conventional spelling, grammar, and punctuation (i.e. write more carefully), and, much more importantly ***substantiate*** your position with references to reliable authorities.  SE is very different from other Q&A sites; unvarnished opinions don't do well here.


How can I clear the database entries for a specific object?

Question: I added a custom object and some fields. I also added several entries to the database for this object. Can I delete certain entries or all of them at once that relate to my object in some predefined way, or do I need to write my own code for this?
Comment: You can import the data and then mark the field value as null and update them again using data loader
Comment: You can go into more detail. I'm a newbie and I don't understand what exactly it is about?
Comment: check out this module on trailhead https://trailhead.salesforce.com/content/learn/modules/lex_implementation_data_management

In your case you can Export data first then update the data instead of Import.
Comment: If you want to delete all records, you could check the truncate option
Answer: To clear out the every record in the Custom Sobject
delete [select Id From Custom_Sobject__c];
> Can I delete certain entries or all of them at once that relate to my object in some predefined way
If your custom object has a master-detail field (is the detail/child in this relationship), when the parent is deleted, the child will be deleted automatically. It's called cascade delete.
Apparently, cascade delete could be enabled in lookup too but I haven't used it yet. https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=000313755&type=1&mode=1
if none of the above suits you
You will need to write a trigger to handle the cascade delete.
Answer: We can do this by two way:

Use data loader/workbench to export the ids of the records and use the delete operation of DL/workbench to delete them.

Create a batch apex, which queries all records in the start method. In executing method add them to list and delete the records. Run the batch suing dev console. This ensures that you don't run into any governor limits.
Answer: I solved this issue like this: I went to the developer console in the upper-right corner of the web browser. I clicked Debug > Run Anonymous Apex:
List<Exchange_Rate__c> listDelete = [select Id From Exchange_Rate__c];
delete listDelete;


Can you turn GPS off on a Apple Watch Series 2?

Question: Is there any way to turn off GPS when doing a workout to save battery?
Cheers
Answer: According to Apple, the built-in GPS of the Apple Watch series 2 will not kick in if the iPhone the watch is paired to is within range.
So, depending on your workout, having the iPhone with you (or nearby) will result in the iPhone doing the grunt work to conserve power usage of the Apple Watch.
Also, even if your iPhone isn't nearby, the Apple Watch GPS will not kick in unless you're actually doing a workout. For example, if you forgot your iPhone at home when you went to work and did nothing but sit in a car or at your desk the whole day, then the GPS would have never kicked in.
As for a setting to manually switch the GPS off, there wasn't one in the beta versions of WatchOS 3, but there are rumours that a future update may add this option.
Hope this helps.
[EDIT]
I just wanted to clarify that whether the Apple Watch GPS kicks in or not will also depend on the actual workout. Basically, if it's an indoor workout it won't, if it's an outdoor workout it will (i.e. if your iPhone isn't nearby). However, if it's a swimming workout the GPS only kicks in if it's an open water swim (i.e not in the pool) and you're doing freestyle. Any other stroke the GPS won't kick in.
Comment: I think GPS kicks in anytime your arms are above water during an open water swim. So conceivably it would work while swimming fly and backstroke as well. Does Apple specifically state it is limited to forward crawl ("freestyle")? That would take some serious arm motion detection. Still, +1.
Comment: @Phong Yes, Apple states: _During an Open Water Swim where you use a freestyle stroke, your Apple Watch will also use GPS to measure pace and distance._ You can read more here: https://support.apple.com/en-au/HT204523


Where is the passport book number and what is the difference from the passport number?

Question: For the US department of state visa application, there is a question about the passport book number, which is apparently different than the passport number. What is that referring to? The explanation in the side bar was not very clear and other searches gave answers that seemed to say it was the same as the passport number.

Update
It would be helpful to have an answer that shows a few example passports from different countries with the book number location marked. I'm also interested in understanding exactly how these numbers are used in correlation with the passport number.
Comment: _"You may or may not have a Passport Book Number on your passport"_
Comment: [This may (or may not) be one in a new Canada passport](http://www.boredpanda.com/new-canadian-passport-uv-light-images/). The number, EDH02870 in that example, is punched through each page in the passport but is not the passport number (the latter is always two letters followed by 6 numbers). I assume that is the "book number", though I don't think it is identified as such in the passport.
Comment: P.S. The Finnish passport at the bottom of the same page has a number punched through each page too, but I don't know whether the number is the same as or different from the passport number.
Answer: For UK and US passports the book number is the same as the passport number.
For other countries it is not the same thing as your passport number; and you can see in the sidebar - "You may or may not have a Passport Book Number on your passport".
If you have one, it will state so in your passport's identification page (the page with your picture on it); or on the page immediately following it.
It is sometimes called booklet number; as it does on my passport.
Comment: You say book number is the same as passport number for UK/US, however the form has a "does not apply" checkbox. Shouldn't you be advising to select that on passports that don't have a book number, rather than saying to put the same number in twice?
Comment: Are there any countries that _don't_ number their passport booklets? I would expect that the _real_ difference is that a few countries _also_ have a permanent citizen's identification number that they disguise as a reusable "passport number" -- but most just have the _actual_ passport number (i.e. booklet number) and may display a national ID number separately from the passport number.
Comment: My French passport has only a passport number and nothing else. (Consequently, I checked "does not apply" when I applied for a US visa some years ago.)
Comment: For those countries in which a book number is different, how and for what purpose are these two different numbers used?
Comment: It is an extra layer of identification to prevent fraud / counterfeit documents.
Comment: It is definitely the exception and not the norm. Pakistani passports have: Passport Number, Citizenship Number, Tracking Number and Booklet Number on the ID page; and on the second line of MRP portion they have the passport number, birth date, and citizenship number encoded.
Comment: I should clarify for UK/US _passports_.


What technology to use to send custom requests from GUI to python script?

Question: I want to build an web app which crawls/scrapes multiple websites based on user preference for different products and I already have the code for scraping working. Next I have to build a GUI which lets the user select what more exactly he wants to see info about (like select area/characteristics of product).
I found a great way to display the collected info is Dash (my scraping code is already in python, with selenium), however I lack a technology which connects the GUI for user filters, saving the data to a permanent database after which it's displayed with Dash (although I'll mostly be showing tables probably).
Is Flask or React a good idea to handle GUI for user filters + binding to a permanent database?
Answer: TkInter is the standard GUI package for creating desktop applications.
If you want to be browser-based, a simple solution is to use HTML / AJAX / JSON to communicate with Python and handle database CRUD and everything else from there.
Answer: Need your want to be usually a website desktop application, the right solution is to use Ajax /Javascript /JSON to intimation with python and manage database CRUD everything else from there.
Comment: I think the OP might want to know its more exact names.


What is a moment/torque?

Question:
What is a moment/torque? i know the formulas m = fxd (Nm), I know how it works, what is does etc.
But think of it fundamentally, how is it possible, that a force becomes greater when the arm of an object becomes larger?
another point is with the seesaw if you make the arm on the other twice as long the for is twice as big, how is this possible?
fundamentally what is happening?
what is happening in the material?
Answer: See this for a definition of different moments: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moment_(mathematics).  You'll see that many different quantities can be derived from using moments, such as the center of mass and rotational inertia.
As for the second part of your question (involving lever arms), I think that what this comes down to is the amount of work done is the force applied times the distance over which it is applied, $W = F\Delta x$.  This represents the amount of energy that you can put into a system.  For a lever with a particular lever arm, if you apply a force pulling down on the lever over a certain distance, you will do a certain amount of work on the system.  If you increase the lever arm to twice the length, you can apply the same force over twice the distance, and do twice the work.  Or, to make your life easier, you can apply half of the force over twice the distance to do the same amount of work.  This is why using a lever helps you perform work.
Comment: @pwghost The energy comes from you pulling the lever over a longer distance than in the first case.  Its an equal force applied but for a longer distance.  Imagine carrying a box up two flights of stairs as opposed to one.  In each case, you need the same force to overcome gravity, but going up two flights of stairs will take more energy because you are covering more distance.
Comment: @pwghost Exactly, the formula "Work = Force x Distance" is something to remember.  So doubling distance at a constant force leads to a doubled amount of work.
Comment: I didn't think about it from a energy perspective, thx. But it still describes the result but not the reason why this works how it works. if you pull the lever down a certain distance you put energy in the system, what is the reason that you can do twice to work at the second point on the arm. where does the energy come from ?
Comment: thx for this answer, need to think about this. so what you are saying is the force of a doubled distance is proportional to double the work?
Comment: thx, but still why is the work double ? someone is pulling the lever down over a fixed distance. why on the other end the work is double ? that would imply energy is added to the system ? or : is it because the lever on the other end moves twice the distance up of what someone is pulling down ?

What is a moment/torque?


Accessing UI for spark running as kubernetics container on standby name-node

Question: We are launching all spark jobs as kubernetics(k8es) containers inside a k8es cluster. We also create a service on each job and do port forwarding for the spark UI (container's 4040 is mapped to SvcPort, say, 31123).
The same set of nodes is also hosting a Yarn cluster.
Container's entry command is a call to spark-submit to Yarn in client mode.
Now, the spark container may get launched on any of the name-nodes - master or standby. There is a VIP assigned to the active name-node.
When spark container gets launched on active name-node, spark UI and all its tabs are easily accessible from anywhere using VIP:SvcPort
However, when spark container gets launched on standby name node, spark UI is NOT accessible and eventually request fails with 500 error (as the VIP:SvcPort gets redirected to ActiveNamenode:8080 which is not accessible as driver is now running on standby name node.
I have tried to reason and try out multiple service configurations but nothing seems to work this scenario. This config is what I have tried using which UI is accessible when container is on master node but UI is NOT accessible when container is on standby node.
<code>apiVersion: v1
kind: Service
metadata:
   name: spark-svc
   labels:
     deployer: sample_app
     app: spark-app
spec:
  selector:
    app: spark-app
  ports:
  - port: 31123
    protocol: TCP
    targetPort: 4040
    name: ui
  externalIPs:
  - 192.168.122.22
</code>
May anyone pls suggest proper k8es service config for this scenario. We do not want to restrict the spark containers to master name-node as let k8es address the job load within k8es cluster.
Any help is much appreciated.
Answer: there is a spark ui proxy, that is connected to the spark-master and proxies requests for other nodes. See more details here: https://github.com/kubernetes/examples/tree/master/staging/spark
spark-ui-proxy-controller.yaml and spark-ui-proxy-service.yaml
Is this helpful?
Comment: no in your case

spark run in k8s

in question
spark job run in client mode and executors located in YARN cluster


Problems using dynamic linked libraries (wxWidgets) from a DLL

Question: We created a plugin; it is a DLL (Run-Time Dynamic Linking) which uses a 3rd party library (wxWidgets) and also links dynamically to that. The host software seems to scan our plugin, but exported functions are not called. We checked all dependencies with DependencyWalker.
We see in the debugger that the plugin is loaded, but the DllMain is not called, and the plugin is unloaded.
We tried loading our plugin from a simple test application using LoadLibrary and GetProcAddress which recognized and called the exported functions.
Having wxWidgets linked statically worked fine, though.
Does anyone have an idea why the exported function, respectively DllMain are not called, or can point out a tool which is capable to monitor the whole DLL loading process?
Answer: If wxWidgets is loaded already into the process address space before your plugin is loaded (the host app could do that, or there might be another plugin linking to wxWidgets which is loaded before yours), then there might be a chance that it is another version, missing some of the entry points that your plugin needs. Running the host app under DependencyWalker or WinDbg should show you which wxWidgets DLL is loaded, and you could try to load your plugin from your test app using exactly the same wxWidgets DLL. That should reveal whether there are missing dependencies.
Answer: Perhaps the host software does some funky things when loading the plugin and doesn't like wxWindows.
Anyways, try using the ProcessExplorer from the SysInternals suite to check what the process is doing.


the late so and so

Question: How long can you go back to call a dead person "the late so and so?"
JFK is sometimes called the late John F. Kennedy but I don't think Abrahm Lincoln is called the late Abraham Lincoln.
Are there any rules there?
Answer: Garner in Modern American Usage (p499) has an excellent entry on this :

late. A. the late. This expression is elliptical for lately (i.e., recently) deceased. How long this can be used of a dead person depends
  on how recently that person died, but anything more than five years
  or so is going to strike most readers as odd (e.g., the late John F.
  Kennedy). Of course, there's no absolute statute of limitations; the
  question is whether a fair number of reasonable readers would know or
  need to be reminded that the person has died. But the expression
  offers more than just a reminder. It also offers a note of respect -
  and perhaps even a touch of sorrow. So in the fall of 1997 people
  said  the late Princess Diana not because anyone needed to be reminded
  that she had died in August of that year - everyone knew it - but
  because people mourned her death. By the same token, a widowed spouse
  might continue to use my late husband or my late wife.

Edit: The above answer has now been added to the original (identical) question at: How long can you say "the late so and so"? .

the late so and so


Do reserved cards influence the end of the game?

Question: I have some reserved cards in Splendor and 15 prestige points at the end of my turn. Is this the final round of the game, or do I have to buy all my reserved cards to end the game? Do reserved cards have some "negative" points assigned to them for points counting?
Answer: Reserved cards have no effect on the end game trigger, and do not count as negative points. The rules just say that "When a player reaches 15 prestige points, complete the current round so that each player has played the same number of turns. The player who then has the highest number of prestige points is declared the winner".
Answer: Not officially, but it is a common house rule I have run into, among a few groups of players, that you have to have 15+ points but reserve cards count as -3 each.
So you could go out with 18 points and a reserve card, but your score is 15. Likewise if you have 15 points and a reserve card, you need to get rid of it, or get 3 more points to close it out.
Comment: Given that the rules explicitly contradict this, such a house rule would be because the players thought it fun or felt the game needed slight rebalancing and wanted to discourage players from reserving cards they didn't need.  I think that having spent your turn reserving a card that you won't use as opposed to doing something more beneficial is punishment enough and that making defensive plays by reserving something that someone else who is in the lead would have wanted adds for more exciting and interactive gameplay.  If someone suggested to me to play with this house rule I would reject it.


In Eclipse debug mode, when I click "step into" it complains me "source not found"

Question: In Eclipse debug mode, when I click "step into", it complains me "source not found".

The JAR file D:\Soft\apache-tomcate-7.0.00\lib\servlet-api.jar has no source attachment.
  You can attach the source by clicking Attach Source below.
Answer: This means that you have the binary class file and it can't find source to show for the line that you're stepping into. You can solve it by attaching the source code, just as it says.
I think that servlet-api.jar works fine, and this is working correctly.


Need explaination for tag description on servers

Question: While browsing around for servers I faced the server list featuring tags. Some are easy to understand like "pvp".
Some other like "anarchy", "dedicated" or "vanilla" means nothing to me.
Can anybody explain me their meaning?
Answer: I'd guess that Anarchy means there are no rules - feel free to destroy people's creations, loot their stuff, and kill at will.  Obviously PvP means it's a PvP server and don't go there unless you are ok dying a ton and killing other players.
I've not seen Dedicated, but Vanilla just means that it's the core game with nothing special added.  No addons, custom modes, custom settings, etc.
Comment: Dedicated probably means that it is just hosted on a dedicated server, instead of self hosting.


cannot scan QR code for login whatsapp web version

Question: using 3 inch display phone, cannot scan QR code for login. any idea to solve this?
Comment: Well, you don't need to install some third party QR scanner rather than the QR scanner can be found by opening whatsapp> Menu>Whats app Web. Use that QR scanner to scan the QR code !
Answer: Problem is you can't do it with a display that is smaller than 4 inches... Normally, the built-in scanner in Whatsapp has an "OK, got it" button at the bottom of the instruction screen that blocks the camera. On my 3,5 inch model, this button is cut off, so I can't remove the message.
No Chance.


Is this statement for the First Law of Thermodynamics correct?

Question: My Biochemistry book states the First law of Thermodynamics like this:
"The First Law of Thermodynamics states that in a closed system, energy is conserved".
My book defines Closed System as a system which can exchange energy with its surroundings but not matter.
My doubt is how can energy be remain conserved(constant) if the system can exchange energy with its surroundings.
Please clarify.
Comment: You are right. Internal energy can change in a closed system. Your book statements are misleading. The first law of thermodynamics considers the energy balance of your system (internal energy) keeping into account the work exchange and heat exchange between your system and the surrounding environment. Isolated system do not exchange matter nor energy.
Comment: Are you sure it does not use "isolated" rather than "closed"? In any case, energy is always conserved for the usual systems of interest. The first law is a restatement of this property.
Comment: It states like this: "The first law of thermodynamics states that in a closed system energy is conserved. In other words, although energy can be transferred between the system and the surrounding in different ways,  in chemical process we will consider here, energy can neither be created nor destroyed."
Comment: You deleted another question which actually was interesting but somewhat unclear. In essence melting of ice is accompanied by an increase in the entropy ("disorder") of water. However, energy has to be transferred into the ice for this to take place. That transfer results in cooling of the surrounding and thereby in a loss of entropy of the surrounding.
Answer: You can think of the first law of thermodynamics as an energy accounting method. It says that all inputs and outputs of energy should add up to the total change in the energy of a system. The exchanged energy is generally classified as work or heat. By "energy can neither be created nor destroyed," it is meant that nuclear reactions, in which the structure of nuclei changes with accompanying transformation of matter into energy and vice-versa, will not be considered. The reactions considered are ordinary chemical reactions involving making and breaking of chemical bonds resulting from interactions between electrons and nuclei.
Answer: Your book is misleading. It should have stated "An isolated system", but probably for the sake of convenience, mentioned "closed", ignoring the fact that closed has a completely different terminology.
As an isolated system can exchange neither energy nor matter, there is no form of energy entering or exiting it.
Thus the correct statement would be that "The total energy in an isolated system remains constant".


Composite multicolumn index for geopoint range and numeric range query

Question: I am building an app where the server needs to select rows based on some criteria/filters. One of them is the location of the user and the radius at which the user want's to see posts and other filters such date range and filter for a value of another column. This is going to be for an ad-hoc event discovery app.
I have read about PostGIS, its geometry,geography types and I know there is a native point datatype. Based on this answer I understood that it is better to order from equality to range columns, even though I feel like geo point column should be the first.
Suppose the following few rows of a simplified events table (disregard the validity position data):
id  event_title                  event_position   event_type  is_public  start_date
    (varchar)                    (point lat/lon)  (smallint)  (boolean)  (timestamptz)
--  ---------------------------  ---------------  ---------   ---------  ----
 1  "John's Party"               (122,35)         0           0          2020-07-05
 2  "Revolution then Starbucks"  (123,30)         1           1          2020-07-06
 3  "Study for math exam"        (120,36)         2           1          2020-07-07
 4  "Party after exam"           (120,36)         1           1          2020-07-08
 5  "Hiking next to the city"    (95,40)          3           1          2020-07-09
 6  "Football match"             (-42,31)         4           1          2020-07-10

Imagine the table contains several thousand records at least, obviously not only 6.
So in this table a user would be able to query public events close to (122,34) by 100km (suppose first three rows fall into this area) and of event types 0, 1 or 2 falling between dates 2020-07-05 and 2020-07-07. The user would get the rows with ID 2 and 3.
This is the query I want to optimize with an appropriate index. My question is, how is it possible to create such an index? I thought about GiST or GIN index but not sure how these could help. Thanks!
Answer: @jjanes' answer on stackoverflow that I accepted

With the help of the btree_gist extension, you can include the
event_type and start_date columns into the GiST index along with the
event_position.  However, the event_type won't be very useful in the
index as long as the restriction clause is something like event_type in (0, 1, 2).  (But if the list only contains one element, it will be
rewritten into an equality, and in that case it can use that column in
the index efficiently.)  So using the other two columns would be my
starting point.  I would put the usually more selective one first.  If
you are going to leave past events in the table rather than clearing
them out, then the date is probably going to eventually be the more
selective one.
If the location condition is not very selective at all (e.g. most of
your events are in NYC, and most of your users are in NYC, and almost
everything is within 100km of almost everything else), then you might
want a different approach.  Just make a default BTREE index on
(event_type, start_date).  Unlike GiST, such a BTREE can effectively
use a condition like event_type in (0, 1, 2) along with AND start_date between x and y.
I don't think that there is a fundamental reason GiST can't use the
in-list effectively while BTREE can.  Maybe that will be fixed for
GiST in some future version.


datepicker in php

Question: I am using the jquery datepicker and I formated my date as "yy-mm-dd" and from PHP my date format is "Y-m-d". I did an alert and viewed the selected date in the "onSelect" event for the datepicker. Within this event I am using ajax via the jquery "load" function to load content into a div. My problem is very odd behavior!
For some dates my action is querying the database and generating an array which I can iterate over and present names.(I'm using kohana PHP framework). On the other hand, other valid dates are not generating any results from the query when, in fact, it should.
This is my Kohana action query
<code>$v->events = ORM::factory('simpleevent')
                ->where('eventdate', '=', $date)
                ->order_by('eventdate', 'desc')
                ->find_all();
</code>
This id my javascript for the date picker
<code>$(document).ready(function(){
   $("#datepicker").datepicker({
       dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd',
       onSelect: function(selecteddate){
           //alert(selecteddate);
           $('#upcommingevents').load('events/findevent/'+selecteddate);
       }
   });
});
</code>
Any ideas ?
Ok guys....its the cache. The ajax resuests are being recorded in the cache for IE. I added
<code>$.ajax({
    cache: false
});
</code>
before the document is read within the script tag. However this is not clearing the cache memory. Any proper way do do this ?
Thanks.
Answer: You can set HTTP headers in the PHP code that tell the browser not to cache that request:
<code>header("Expires: Mon, 01 Jan 1990 00:00:00 GMT");
header("Cache-Control: no-cache");
header("Pragma: no-cache");
</code>

datepicker in php


Do anesthesiologists (and doctors in general) earn merit

Question: Do doctors earn merit on a regular basis as a result of their good acts of treating and curing illnesses of their patients? Is their profession an excellent one because of their chance to earn merit?
Answer: It is rather the motivation than the act that determines how much merit is accumulated.
Answer: There are many kinds of Doctors. There are greedy doctors. There are doctors who treat patients at nominal fees, they are saintly. There are Paramedics, they treat at the level of consciousness. There are technological Doctors, they treat using AI and automatic robots. There are uneducated doctors. There are ayurvedic doctors, Allopathic doctors , Muslim doctors , Chinese Doctors.The list of types of Doctors can be as big as the diversity of characters found in the world.
Not all doctors can be called good.
Doctors , patient , diseases , treatment are a result of combination and separation in time and place. For example-Some treatments are only possible in USA. Some treatments are only possible in future.
But all combinations and separations are impermanent.
Consider the Dhamma of Doctor: Treat all patients without discrimination.
However this Dhamma can not be Self. Why ? Because the Sankharas of Doctor are impermanent. Form of Doctor is impermanent, Feelings of Doctor are impermanent. Perceptions of Doctor are impermanent. Choices of Doctors are impermanent. Consciousness of Doctors are impermanent.
Therefore it is not a good idea to get attached to the idea of Doctor. In the end the cravings to exist in any form , feeling, perception, choice and consciousness must diminish and eventually end.
Comment: Thank you for the answer. However I should have been more specific in my framing of the question. Assuming that the doctor is a good person, with no history of inflicting harm on others or violating of the precepts is generally a good person. All things considered, would his/her treatment of patients and curing them of their illnesses considered a meritorious act?
Comment: @NithinManmohan As I said Doctor ,no matter how good, is not worth calling Self because form,feelings,perceptions,choices and consciousness of all doctors are impermanent.
Answer: As stonux' answer says, it's the intention that's meritorious -- the act of doing good because of that intention, preserves the merit (see The Essence of Merit).
My guess is that when someone says, "I want to become a doctor", the intention is, "because I want to help people", which I think is generous.
Secondly, Merit - A Study Guide talks about developing "a wise sense of self". It seems to me that a doctor has an opportunity to do that -- to see that the body is impermanent, and what it "requires", and so on.
So I think that answer is yes, but also no -- because I'm not sure you could say that "all" doctors earn merit, nor "on a regular basis", nor because of their "acts". It is my experience, though, that many of them seem to be well-intentioned, and I suppose that their profession gives them opportunities for meritorious activity.
Even so I think (I don't want to find the reference) that the suttas say that (monks') giving dhamma is more meritorious than other activities, such as (doctors') giving medical advice.


Notebook Screen replacement

Question: i have a samsung notebook and it's screen broken couse of physical impact. I have also 2 asus , 1 toshiba and 1 hp notebook screens. Is it possible to replace hp/asus/toshiba etc. (different product) screen panels to samsung notebook or do i need the same model product screen ?
Comment: You need a compatible part and that is very unlikely coming from different manufacturers.
Answer: The short answer is that it is not possible to swap the LCD panels.
The longer answer is maybe.  Computer manufacturers do not make their LCD panels, but purchase them from third parties.  It is entirely possible that a panel found in another laptop, either from the same manufacturer or another are identical, or similar enough, that it could be swapped in.  The problem with this is identifying which panels work with driver boards.  There simply is no easy method to do this.  You could spend hours on researching and find no answer whatsoever.  Its just not worth the hassle.

Notebook Screen replacement


Assign "Share" functionality to a custom button

Question: I want to assign the OOTB "Share" functionality of SharePoint 2013 to a custom button. How to achieve it.
Answer: The OOB share button just pops open a dialog to the appropriate page.  So just hit that share button and figure out which page it's opening (aclinv.aspx with some query string options), and hook up a dialog.
<input type="button" onclick="OpenShareDialog()" value="share" />

Comment: Hi Derek, its not working. DO I need to change anything in querystring?
Comment: How are you deploying the code? Are you getting errors?
Answer: put this in Your onclick function for this button

    EnsureScriptFunc('sharing.js', 'DisplaySharingDialog', function(){DisplaySharingDialog('\u002f')});

this will be the same as hitting OOB share button which is in the upper right corner of the page.
best to paste this line in console of browser dev tools (F12) and check if works.


What is the workflow for creating a coded UI test with assertions in VS2010?

Question: I am creating a coded UI test with assertions in VS2010.  Here is what I want to do:

Run the application.
Test whether the text on a button is "button1".
Click the button.
Test whether the text on the button is "clicked!"

There seems to be no simple way to do this with the coded UI test.  In particular, whenever I start recording and then run the application, the 'add assertions' button is greyed out.
It seems as if the only way to do this is in pieces: first launch the application, then close the coded UI test gadget, then go into the test and right click on Generate Code for Coded UI Test, then use the "Add assertions" button in the gadget to add the gadget, then edit the code because it places the assertions before it launches the application, etc.
Is there a way to do this in one fell swoop?
Answer: Automate "launching application from GUI" with Play and record functionality.


Azman and multiple domains

Question: I have an app that's using the AuthorizationStoreRoleProvider to authorize against a primary domain.  We now have a secondary trusted domain from which users will access the app.  Just wondering if it's possible to configurate an azman policy to authorize users against both domains?  Azman is configured as an XML policy store (not in AD or ADAM).
Comment: AzMan stores SIDs in the xml file, so I think it should work with several domains as well... (not sure though)
Answer: Yes, it's possible. AzMan uses SIDs regardless of whether it is in AD or XML or SQL. SIDs are unique across domains. Since the secondary domain is trusted, your administrators should be able to easily select them from the Windows Object Picker for group assignments. If not, then you can add users to group assignments using the same technique you might use if you were using AD-LDS (ADAM) instead.

Azman and multiple domains


How to know cron job is written right?

Question: I have started cron job for taking backup after every five minutes but the output is not showing. Does this mean my cron tab file is wrong or service is not started ?
I cron job successfully run then what massege is shown in ubuntu ?
Answer: On Ubuntu look in /var/log/syslog which is where (by default) cron logs it's activity.
grep CRON /var/log/syslog
If you modify your script to output a message on success/failure etc. then cron will mail the output to the account that is running the job e.g. root. You can modify this behaviour by adding a email@example.com directive in the crontab file.
Answer: Troubleshooting crontab problems can be very frustrating. I've spent days troubleshooting some tricky script that ran fine manually but failed each time they were executed via crontab.
The other tips are very good. The only thing I can add is that you should make sure that your crontab session has access to all of the necessary environment variables. For example, just because '/usr/local/foobar/bin' is part of your PATH variable, it doesn't mean that your script will know than when it's executed via crontab. You may therefore want to use full paths as much as possible in your script, or "source" a properties files when the script begins so that you know that the proper variables are set.
Answer: Run the following to see if the cron daemon is running:
ps -e | grep cron
Also, have a look in
/var/log/cron
to see if there are any entries.
Answer: cron mostly doesn't display a message unless you put that into the job script
The only way is to either look in the logs (/var/log/cron)
Or (since this is a backup script) just add a file in the folder that will be backed up, and then check if the file is indeed backed up
Answer: I generally just redirect the output to a log file of some kind:
30 * * * * cmd > /home/user/log/cmd.log

How to know cron job is written right?


Move iPhone notes to iCloud

Question: I have OS X 10.8, and there is an empty list of notes on my Mac. But I have some notes on my iPhone, which are not in iCloud. Instead, they are local notes in the "On My iPhone" folder. How to move them into iCloud?
Comment: I have the same issue.  AFAIK, it's the Notes that were created prior to iCloud that are the ones that are missing from my iCloud.
Comment: Are you sure you're signed in to the same Apple account on both devices? If you're using a recent version of iOS your notes should all be in iCloud automatically.
Comment: Yes, they are when I create new ones, but old notes are not.
Comment: Great question. I have exactly the same issue, and it seems the only way to accomplish this transfer is to move each note over manually! Bah.
Answer: Using OSX 10.8 it is simply not possible at the moment, what you need to do is to access a Mac running 10.7 or lower and sync them to that Mac and move them to an IMAP notes account. Then, you can access the IMAP notes in 10.8 Notes app and drag them all to iCloud. The only manual part necessary is to remove the duplicate notes left "On your iPhone" - they need to be removed one by one (or simply left alone).
Details:

Turn off iCloud Notes sync (Settings -> iCloud -> Notes switch to Off)
Set up an IMAP account in Mail on both computers (running 10.7 and 10.8)
Set up iTunes synchronization with the Mac running 10.7 (Make sure to select to synchronize Notes in iTunes)
Synchronize with iTunes
Go to Mail in 10.7 and drag the notes "On your Mac" to the IMAP notes folder
Turn on iCloud Notes sync (Settings -> iCloud -> Notes switch to On)
Open the Notes app in 10.8 and drag the notes from your IMAP notes account to the iCloud notes account
(Optional) Switch to your "On my iPhone" notes account and remove all notes, one-by-one, in order to avoid confusion later.
On your phone, make sure that you are using the iCloud notes account (Notes -> Accounts -> iCloud) when using notes
Answer: Just make sure that you have your iCloud notes sync enabled on your iPhone as per:
Transfer iPhone notes via iCloud
Note that notes which were already on your iPhone before you enabled iCloud Notes sync will not automatically sync to your iCloud account.
What I would do in your case is simply email the notes to your @me.com account which you created just before you enabled iCloud Notes sync. This should move these specific notes to your iCloud account.
Answer: Make sure that "Notes" is enabled in the iCloud settings on iOS.
Secondly, you will have to upgrade your notes to the new iOS 9 / OS X El Capitan version (if you haven't already). In the top level of your iOS Notes app (tap the Accounts button), you will have a little button that allows you to upgrade your iCloud notes. (More info here: http://support.apple.com/en-us/HT204987)
Finally, go into your "On My iPhone" notes folder, then select "Move All" (or select specific notes to move) and select your iCloud Notes folder as the destination.
(Thank you to 'airplay' of http://discussions.apple.com/thread/4961565 for the original advice)
Answer: If you've got other mail accounts set up on your iPhone, the notes might be synced into that account rather than your iCloud account. The problem is that there's no way, that I've found, on an iPhone anyway to move your notes from one account to another.
If they are synced into, let's say, Gmail, you may be able to log into your Gmail account online and copy them manually into the Notes.app on 10.8.
The other problem may be that your notes are automatically stored "On My iPhone" rather than your iCloud account. You can find this out if you go into your Settings, then the Notes section.
If this is the case, your best bet will be to copy the notes individually, and recreate them under the iCloud account. It would also be a good idea to set the default to iCloud from now on.
Answer: If you can sync the notes from your iPhone to your mac and Notes App, you can move them to iCloud by selecting the small drawer icon located at the bottom of the Notes App. That should open a drawer which shows local notes and iCloud notes. Then use drag'n'drop to move them
Answer: There are two reasons:

You need an Apple ID/iCloud account to make sure the notes sync!
But if you already have a @me.com email, and you're logged in, it still doesn't show up! Well, in system preferences, in iCloud, make sure "notes" are checked on all your devices
Answer: I agree, you must check how many Notes accounts you have on your iPhone. To do so go to your Notes app and tap on "Accounts" on the upper right cornder. If you see On My iPhone, then you can do the following:
Some people have found that the issue was sorted once they disabled iCloud Notes sync on the iPhone and re-enabled it. Therefore, go to Settings > iCloud and toggle the Notes switch from ON to OFF and then back to ON. This chould sync your entire set of iPhone notes to your iCloud account.
Answer: I found a way to extract the old notes from the backup of an iOS 7 device, and then import them into the Notes app on a mac (where you can reupload to iCloud if you like).
First find the folder where iTunes stores the backup of the phone. For me it was:
/Users/myself/Library/Application Support/MobileSync/Backup/89e6c98d92887913cadf06b2adb97f26cde4849b

Open a command line terminal, and use grep to search for files containing ZNOTEBODY:
grep ZNOTEBODY -r /Users/myself/Library/Application Support/MobileSync/Backup/89e6c98d92887913cadf06b2adb97f26cde4849b

For me this reported ca3bc056d4da0bbf88b5fb3be254f3b7147e639c
Then create a php file extractnotes.php containing the following code:
<?php
$file = '/Users/myself/Library/Application Support/MobileSync/Backup/89e6c98d92887913cadf06b2adb97f26cde4849b/2b66fd261ee5c6cfc8de7fa466bab600bcfe4f69';
$sqlite = new PDO('sqlite:' . $file);
$query = 'SELECT ztitle, zcontent from znotebody JOIN ZNOTE USING(z_pk) ORDER BY zmodificationdate';
$rs = $sqlite->query($query);
$data = $rs->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_NUM);
foreach( $data as $row ) {
    file_put_contents('/Users/myself/Desktop/notes/' . str_replace( '/', '_', $row[0] ) . '.html', $row[1] );
    sleep(1);
}
?>

and run it via php extractnotes.php - making sure to update the folder names.
You can then use the Notes app on macOS to import the entire folder of notes.

Move iPhone notes to iCloud


Should this site allow open-ended resource questions?

Question: I noticed this question posted to this site asking for books for beginning learners. This type of resource request seems to be too open-ended and subjective for a stack exchange site, where specific questions and objective answers are desired.
Comment: Has this been decided upon? I noticed my question linked in the accepted answer is still open. And would the recent questions about "resources to recommend to beginners" and "free audiobooks" be also considered open-ended resource questions? They seem to generate plenty of "and there's also..." type of answers.
Answer: The strength of Stack Exchange sites over a mere forum is that they offer expert answers to specific questions, which other experts can rate, giving a clear idea of which the best answers are.
I would argue that such open ended questions as the one you have quoted (see also: this question about learning other languages by means of Esperanto go against this, invite infinite "Oh, and there's also" comments or answers, which make a nonsense of voting and dilute the value of the Stack Exchange approach.
Such questions belong much better on a general forum like that of lernu.net, where people can add their suggestions at their leisure with no need to determine the "best" answer.
Comment: Exactly, Stack Exchange is for questions with a definitive answer, not open-ended questions or primary-opinion questions.
Comment: I assumed my question was okay because there were similar questions on Language Learning and I thought it would be more suitable here than there. But looking at the questions there, I do realize that they tend to be more specific, so one could possibly evaluate which of given answers are more useful than others. Whereas with a question like mine, you couldn't really do that, since if one resource is for learning one language and one is for another, you can't really say one is more useful than the other. I therefore stand corrected, and will take my question to [lernu.net](http://www.lernu.net)
Answer: I agree with you and changed the question to ask for an already existing list/resource instead.
Answer: Other stackexchange sites have so-called "comunity wiki"s for open-ended questions (for an example, see this question on the TeX/LaTeX sitehttp://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/11/what-are-good-learning-resources-for-a-latex-beginner) , and I have no problem in admitting them here, too.
Comment: No, Community Wiki is not used to make acceptable an open-ended question. The question must be fine without being CW, as any other question.


Why do voltage differ when you change the number of resistors?

Question: a resistor has a certain resistance, which determines the amount of potential energy the electron lose by passing through it. Since the resistance of a single resistor is constant no matter how many resistor you put in series, why does the potential energy lost in a resistor is different if you change the total number of resistors in series.
Comment: The first sentence is contrary to fact.  The energy loss is determined by the voltage drop across the resistor...
Answer: Resistors do have a resistance, determining the potential energy lost by electrons, but be very clear: that resistance is defined by the $V=IR$ relationship across the resistor.
Thus there is no way to talk about how much energy is lost within a resistor without knowing the voltage difference applied across that resistor.
If you have multiple resistor in series with a battery to generate the voltage potential, the voltage is not controlled by the resistors.  It is controlled by the battery.  The voltage drop across each resistor is adjusted accordingly, and thus the number of electrons traveling through the circuit.
Answer: Let's think about this another way: why is the potential energy lost in a resistor different if you connect it to a different voltage supply?
The answer to both questions (yours and mine) is that energy is conserved. It is not the resistor that determines how much potential energy is available, but it is the power supply. If there is no power supply connected to a resistor, there is no potential energy to be lost by an electron. When you connect a power supply to a resistor, current flows, and the electrical energy added to the system by the supply is transformed by the resistor into internal energy, usually seen as an increase in temperature. If the resistor is a coil of wire in a motor, the energy becomes kinetic in the motor. If the resistor is a filament in a bulb or is part of an LED, the energy becomes photonic.
But the actually potential energy lost by the electron is determined by the supply. A series of resistors will simply distribute the total energy among them. This occurs because the flow of charge will have a smaller rate through each resistor, but the total rate of energy change in the series will be exactly the same as the rate of energy added by the supply.
Answer:
a resistor has a certain resistance, which determines the amount of
  potential energy the electron lose by passing through it

No, this isn't correct; the amount of energy lost by electrons on passing through a resistor is determined by the resistance $R$ and the current $I_R$ through  which is, loosely speaking, how many electrons are passing through the resistor each second.
Note that the voltage across a resistor is proportional to the current through
$$V_R = RI_R$$
So, if the current through is larger, the voltage across is larger, and thus, the potential energy lost by a charge, in passing through the resistor, is larger.

why does the potential energy lost in a resistor is different if you
  change the total number of resistors in series.

Because adding additional resistance in series reduces the current through the original resistor and so, from the previous section, reduces the potential energy lost.
Comment: You say that when the current through a resistor is larger, the voltage drop is larger. Could you tell me how with logic, not just V = RI?
Comment: @gigi, since a resistor is *defined* as that circuit element for which the voltage across is proportional to the current through, then *logically*, if this isn't the case, the circuit element isn't a resistor.


Song of The Heart for Inspire Competence

Question: I was building a Bard for a 3.5 campaign and I noticed that online, even in this Q&A it's suggested to swap inspire competence for Song of the Heart as a bonus feat (Eberron Campaign). Now, the inspire competence ability is a prerequisite for the above feat, so I was wondering: do I have to ignore prerequisites for it because it is a bonus feat? And if that's the case, is there an explicit rule for this or something that can support this theory at my DM's eyes?
Answer: Eberron Campaign Setting says, on page 34, that

A bard can take these feats [...] as a bonus feat instead of gaining a new form of bardic music at 3rd, 6th, 9th, 12th, 15th, or 18th level.
These bard feats are Haunting Melody, Music of Growth, Music of Making, Song of the Heart, and Soothe the Beast.

This is the basis for people talking about swapping songs for feats in general.
However, Eberron Campaign Setting does not say that this can be done ignoring the prerequisites for those feats, and as you note, Song of the Heart has a prerequisite of inspire competence. I can personally vouch that I had overlooked that until just now—there are doubtless answers on this site where I recommend making this exact swap, and I have absolutely played characters who have done so. I suspect other mentions you find of the idea have also overlooked the prerequisite, because I can find no justification in the rules that would allow you to make that trade otherwise.
That said, I have made that swap on several characters, and it has been to the game's benefit. Bardic music, particularly inspire courage, are a bit too small to begin with, and don't provide quite a good enough boost to justify the action costs. You can (and an optimal bard should) mitigate that with Song of the White Raven, and of course you could always take Song of the Heart as a regular feat, but that is basically the crux of my position: characters having feats to play with is a good thing, especially when they use them to differentiate themselves from one another, while feat taxes are a bad thing. Song of the Heart, Song of the White Raven, these are very strong feats, well worth taking normally, but they almost seem then to become mandatory—because inspire courage is a bit anemic without them. Allowing you to get one of these feats as a bonus feat gives another open feat slot "back" to the bard, allowing them to get more creative with it. So I still think it's worthwhile to consider allowing Song of the Heart to be taken instead of inspire competence, in the context of a 3rd-level bard.
Comment: Thank you for your fast reply! I think I will just take it as a normal feat then. I'm going to take dragonfire inspiration that with the proper optimization is broken enough. I don't want to ignore rules to get even more benefits. You took a doubt I had for years away from me, thanks again :D
Comment: @Lalaith Dragonfire Inspiration, Song of the Heart, Song of the White Raven, *medallion of courage*, all certainly make for a **strong** character, but it still falls well short of broken. Words of Creation really needs to be in play before bardic music can really be considered "broken." Even then, even just considering what a bard can do, it's got nothing on [*glibness*](http://www.giantitp.com/comics/oots0767.html). (Still, depending on the optimization level of the game and the trust level of the DM, your choice may well be the best one. Again, it's certainly worth the feat.)
Comment: I forbid myself to use glibness because I already played a bard using it and that's just insane. Of course my build contains all that it need to optimize dragonfire inspiration (words of creation, vest of legends, etc.). I even thought of a Chaos Dragon heritage to make an elemental rotation (I'm not sure they would stack, but as long as I know they should) limiting the use with a magical disease by character background.


Is Mordeth a gholam?

Question: There is a part in one of the books it described how a gholam can slip through a crack in a door and Matrim remembered something about Mordeth...so is he a gholam?
Answer: The being we know as Mordeth is NOT a gholam. He is a twisted amalgamation of three evils:

The Darkfriend known as Padan Fain, both his body AND soul. Fain's soul had been somehow altered by The Dark One so that he could track the three boys.
The corrupted spirit/soul of Mordeth. Mordeth was largely responsible for Shadar Logoth's destruction, and had somehow been "imprinted" on the city when his body died.
The tainted corruption of Mat's dagger. The dagger's taint is essentially Mashadar itself, or at least the malice that it's made of (it's never made exactly clear)

The resulting "person" is a new creature altogether, something the world has never seen before, but it still calls itself "Mordeth". The Dark One had given Fain the ability to track Rand, Mat, and Perrin, and this new Mordeth (let's call him Mordeth 2.0) has retained that ability.
Gholams, on the other hand, were a weapon created during the War of Power, and to date we've only seen one active in the Third Age. Originally, there were six made - three male, three female, and they were designed specifically to track and kill users of the Power. A Gholam would be able to track Rand using this ability, but not Matt or Perrin.
Gholams have no bones, which allows them to slip through cracks and small openings that a normal person could not. There's also something a little "off" about them when you see them, but otherwise they're not worth remembering. Contrast this to Mordeth 2.0, who looks normal but radiates an aura of evil that makes people uncomfortable around him (and therefore memorable).
Mat was most likely remembering his brief encounter with the "ghost" of Mordeth 1.0 in Shadar Logoth. Before his merger with Padan Fain, Mordeth 1.0 was essentially a spirit who could change his form at will... and did so while confronting Mat in the chambers under the city.
Comment: The original Mordeth was basically a ghost trapped within Shadar Logoth (the mist). After Fain chased the boys into the city, he was possessed by Mordeth but - because of what the Dark One had done to Fain - they merged instead of Mordeth simply taking his body over. Afterwards, the merged version still called himself Mordeth.
Comment: Yes, IIRC that was the original one. When Shadar Logoth fell, he was somehow "absorbed" by the city and became something like a ghost that haunted it. He desperately wanted to escape the city and tried to possess Fain later in order to do that.
Comment: I don't know if I believe this because Mordeth came before Padan Fain. How could he have been a mix of those then? In fact, wouldn't you say that basically your second part of the mixture is really all of what Mordeth was?
Comment: Either way it does answer the question...just thought I would argue that point.
Comment: Fair enough, but the Mordeth whom Mattrim is referring to was the one before Fain, right? That was a Mordeth that seemed to expand when they were underground, where Mattrim found the dagger. That shapeshifting what my main basis of the question.
Comment: You may be conflating the gholam's ability to squeeze his body through tiny cracks with Mordeth's apparent ability to turn into or control mist that devours people. I imagine Mordeth's mist could go anywhere a gholam could. Also @Omegacron the tainted corruption of Mat's dagger was part of the evil of Shadar Logoth, so those two are essentially the same
Comment: @childcat15 it's debatable. The dagger is definitely tainted with the evil that destroyed the city, but Mordeth isn't the evil - he's an actual person whose soul was somehow "imprinted" on the city when he died. They're definitely connected, but you could argue that they're still two different things.
Comment: @childcat15 i updated the answer to make the difference more apparent.
Answer: Mordeth is not a gholam; Mordeth is Padan Fain after he has been corrupted by the dagger from Shadar Logoth. Mordeth also is the name of someone during the Trolloc Wars who corrupted and basically destroyed a whole city (Aridhol / Shadar Logoth). There is only 1 gholam in the story, and he was created by the Forsaken in the War of Power. He is immune to channeling, feeds on human blood, and appears not to be hurt from physical damage. AFAIK he has no name.

WEEK 6 QUESTION
How were the Gholams made? Were they created or bred like the Trollocs? How exactly are they controlled if they are immune to the One Power?
ROBERT JORDAN
The gholam—singular and plural are the same—were created, not bred.
Supposedly their creation involved making them so that they would be
obedient to the Chosen, whoever they might be at any given time. This
was an attempt at copying something that had turned up in Myrddraal,
which seem incapable of disobeying one of the Chosen, possibly because
of the use of the True Power in creation of the Trollocs, the parent
stock of the Myrddraal... In any case, if I were you, I wouldn't try giving orders to a gholam unless I were one of the Forsaken.
WEEK 10 QUESTION
Now that Shadar Logoth is gone, (cool way to get rid of it by the way), has the evil power in Padan Fain/Mordeth/the Ruby Dagger decreased any? Has it driven him even more insane? Or since the next book is called Knife of Dreams, will all these questions be answered in it?
ROBERT JORDAN
The evil power in Padan Fain has neither decreased nor increased, nor
has that in the dagger. The corruption in him was partly caused by the
taint on Shadar Logoth, but it didn't constitute a real connection to
the city. Remember that it was because he was Padan Fain, the Hound of
the Shadow, that he was able to leave Shadar Logoth in his new
condition after he merged with/absorbed Mordeth. (By the way, any
other artifacts that might be lying around from Shadar Logoth would
have the same long-term corrupting effect as the dagger. Fortunately,
or unfortunately, any such thing would need to be metal or stone. The
wood and fabric had decayed. It wouldn't have been pleasant to get a
splinter from, say, a chair from Shadar Logoth.)
QUESTION
What is Fain?
ROBERT JORDAN
Mordeth + person. Mordeth is a human-made evil. The Black Wind gets
along with Mordeth because of professional courtesy. Fain is
anti-Forsaken as well as anti-Rand. He has a lot of skills and
abilities outside of channeling. He can not channel.
Comment: We only see 1 Golam, but there were more than 1 created originally.
Comment: yes, only 1 golam in the story, the others are presumed destroyed or lost in stasis boxes.
Comment: There were 6 gholams created originally: three male and three female. And are we _sure_ that the one that killed Herid Fel is the same one who later shows up in Ebou Dar? Hmm, that'd actually make a good question...
Comment: @randal'thor im pretty sure its the same one, there was something in an interview about that. Moridin finds the gholam in the cache that he shows the other foresaken if im not mistaken, or i guess Sammael found the gholam, lol.

Is Mordeth a gholam?


Does using Transmuted Spell metamagic change Wall of Fire's line of sight mechanics

Question: How does this affect Wall of Fire mechanically in terms of line of sight if it took on an element other than fire. And how is this supposed to make sense thematically.
Comment: Welcome to RPG.SE! Take the [tour] if you haven't already and see the [help] or ask us here in the comments (use @ to ping someone) if you need more guidance. Good Luck and Happy Gaming!
Answer: The Transmuted Spell Metamagic does nothing but change the damage type
That is the only thing this Metamagic does and all the other effects of the spell do not change. So the wall of fire is still a wall of fire and is still opaque, it just, through the power of magic, now deals a different type of damage.
When Transmuted Spell is used the only thing that changes is the damage type, if something else were to change, the feature would say so.
Comment: The fire is now presumably temperate but loud, though I'm sure if it's worth mentioning that there isn't a provision for the fire now being audible in any way (despite dealing thunder damage). Transmuted spell seems to leave a lot of narrative/description on the table, which may be worth talking with your table about before choosing the metamagic to make sure you make it work with your table's style of play.


LED light temperature why does it matter?

Question: My question if you are able to change the white balance of your camera why does it matter what your LED lighting temperature is capable of.
Answer: If I'm adding light to a scene that already has a light source - say I'm shooting near a window, and I'm adding a key or some fill light - I need to be able to match the colour of the existing light so that my light doesn't have a colour cast.
In the olden days, we were mostly stuck with tungsten (3200ºK) for artificial lights (unless you were using expensive HMI lights), so we'd have to add blue gels to our lights if we wanted to mix them with daylight (5400ºK), reducing the output of the light, and generally being a bit of a pain (ask a sound recordist, gels make a tonne of noise when they flutter). It's so much easier to just dial in the colour on an LED panel than it was to try and peg a piece of plastic film to the front of a hot light while balancing on a ladder.
Worth noting that the big disadvantage of LEDs is that the spectrum of light they emit is not as smooth as tungsten. Although they may appear white overall, if you look at their emission across the spectrum there will be peaks and troughs. This means that some colours will be brighter and others less so, depending on whether they're in a peak or trough, and this makes the footage harder to grade. The cheaper the LED, the worse this effect is. That's why the expensive LED lights aren't necessarily brighter, it's just that their colour is better (it's also why CFLs are rubbish for film).
Comment: Oh yes that makes so much sense I hadn't even considered other light sources such as daylight... thanks for your answer.
Answer: You can change the temp of the lights individually so that you can have different lighting on a shot.
The white balance will enable you to set your baseline lighting/colour profile and then you can hit the shot with different light temps to  change the look of it (higher temp = bluer light, lower temp = orange light) - it's a similar principle to using different types of light/bulb.
So you light, set your WB for a neutral look, then change the lighting temps to alter the look/feel of the scene.


SOAP web service: many servers, one interface

Question: I have a scenario in which I'm going to need an arbitrary number of servers to provide the same SOAP web service. I would like to generate one set of proxy classes and be able to supply them with a location to point them at the different servers at runtime. Unfortunately, it looks as though the wsdl:port node (child of wsdl:service) requires the address of a specific server to be hardcoded. It appears that due to this the URL will be baked into my proxy classes. I know that I could potentially modify this by hand-editing the generated proxy classes, or modifying the code generation, but I'd really prefer not to resort to that. I feel like there's got to be a better way to solve this problem. I just want to decouple the interface definition from the location that the service will be residing at. I'm using VS2008 and C#.NET if that's of any help though best would be a language-agnostic (SOAP or WSDL specific) general solution to this problem.
Answer: No, in .NET you can change the URL at runtime.
Service svc = new Service ();
svc.url = "Value read from config. file or some such"
output = svc.method (input);

Answer: If you're using a WebReference (pre-WCF) to get to the web service, you can simply set the Url property on the web service proxy class after you create it.
For WCF, you can provide a different endpoint address to the proxy class constructor, rather than using the default (among other possible solutions).
Answer: Why don't you load balance the web servers and then create a DNS entry for the load balanced IP address....essentially creating a web farm.  This will allow you to reference the hostname rather than the static IP addresses and if you ever need to change the IP address of the load balancer or the web servers it is a one time change.  Plus you then have redundancy and performance control.
Comment: Exactly what I was going to say.  Use a reverse proxy.  +1
Answer: When you add a web reference to your project, it places the address of the web service into the .config file of your application / web application.  You can then simply change this setting in the config file to point to a different web service location, assuming of course that the services are identical.
Comment: I don't think this will work for me since I need to switch the server that I'm talking to at runtime. The config file would seem to restrict me to compile (or at least config) time.
Answer: Client proxies have URL property you can set at runtime. To make it simpler, wsdl.exe utility has /appsettingurlkey key. When you generate a client proxy, it's constructor will check the key in appSettings and set the service URL accordingly. I believe WCF has this feature as well.
However, I would agree with @Matt and suggest you consider load balancing as the best solution in the long run.
Answer:
Is this for scaling (each server provides the same data) or
for same API different data on each server?

For 2, then you can do as above, just change the service URL in code.
For 1, you could use round-robin DNS (e.g. you see multiple servers with at the command line type nslookup www.google.com).
Answer: The easiest solution would be to use a software load balancer such as HAProxy.  At more cost, you could use a hardware solution such as Big-IP.
Answer: Here's a hint on how to decide the URL of WSDL. I´m just changing the port but it´s of course possible to make it more advanced.
public class PortChangeReflector : SoapExtensionReflector
{
    public override void ReflectDescription()
    {
        ServiceDescription description = ReflectionContext.ServiceDescription;
        foreach (Service service in description.Services)
        {
            foreach (Port port in service.Ports)
            {
                foreach (ServiceDescriptionFormatExtension extension in port.Extensions)
                {
                    SoapAddressBinding binding = extension as SoapAddressBinding;
                    if (binding != null && !binding.Location.Contains("8092"))
                    {
                        binding.Location = binding.Location.Replace("92", "8092");
                    }
                }
            }
        }
    }
}

Put that in your Add_Code and add the following reference to your web.config.
<webServices>
     <soapExtensionReflectorTypes>
          <add type="Dev.PortChangeReflector,App_Code"/>
     </soapExtensionReflectorTypes>
</webServices>

I hope you can get new ideas of this.


Can I save my sourdough if I accidentally overheated it during bulk fermenting?

Question: I went to do the bulk ferment on my cranberry walnut sourdough last night and because the house was a bit cooler than normal I decided to give the temps a little boost by turning on the oven for a bit (usually 3-5 minutes before turning it off) so that the right rear burner will then be nice and warm for a while.
Well then I got distracted by a movie I was watching (can't count the number of times that's led to some kind of cooking fail, lol), and at least 30 minutes must have passed before I realized what happened. I ran and yanked it off the stove, felt the bottom which was quite hot, started filling the sink with cold water and took a couple of readings with my infrared gun - the bottom was 129 °F (59 °C) while the top of the dough was about 110 °F (43 °C) and then plunged the container into the cold water for about 5 minutes.
I then dumped it onto the counter, it looked fairly flat and the interior was still quite warm so I immediately started folding until the overall temp was uniform (about 112 °F/44 °C) put it in a bin and stuck it in the fridge.  It doesn't look TOO bad this morning seems like there's some life, but now I'm thinking about adding in a fresh batch of starter and take it from there. SOOOO, anyone else ever managed to save a batch under similar circumstances?
;?)
Comment: Hopefully you've decided to remove the dough bowl temporarily while you're doing the gentle heating -- just in case you get distracted.  While watching a movie you could hold it in your lap.  It will get your body heat, AND you'll be less likely to forget about it.
Answer: Yeast starts to die above 130°F, and you didn't quite reach that so you should be fine. Essentially you just gave it a boost. Take it out of the fridge and treat it like you ordinarily would and I expect it will rise normally once it heats up to room temperature.
If it doesn't rise (and it may take awhile) then you've killed the yeast and your best bet is to start over from scratch, any effort you put into reviving a deal loaf is likely wasted time.
Answer: It's harder to tell with sourdough, because wild yeasts won't behave the same as cultivated yeast, and we also have the bacteria to consider.  But using cultivated yeast as a guide, your nearly 60 °C/129 °F would slowly kill it, while at 110--112 °F (~44 °C) it won't be thriving but will survive.
I'm surprised that even after 30 minutes it had an average temp so high - you cooled the outside and then mixed, and were still at 112 °F.  So quite a lot of it must have been hot enough to start slowly killing the yeast.
Still, with commercial strains, I would expect it to survive, just take longer to rise. I can't find different figures for sourdough starters, so I would draw the same conclusion. This old answer to a closely related question "Is there any potential harm to using warm water in my sourdough starter?" suggests that a varying temperature isn't ideal but cause major harm when added to the starter - and the starter is more sensitive as it has to live longer.
So I'd leave it longer, if I had time, rather than risking over-working the dough to mix in more starter.  If you're in a hurry, you could fold in more starter, or you could prove some commercial yeast with warm water, mix in a little flour, and fold that in.


Quickened Seize the Day

Question: On my opponent's turn, during main phase 2, I Quicken a Seize the Day. My opponent gets an additional combat phase, correct? One of my friends is convinced that the caster of the Seize the Day "controls" the extra combat, and so can attack on an opponents turn, but I'm pretty sure this is not the case. Clarification?
Answer: One of the rulings on Seize the Day addresses this situation:

If you somehow cast Seize the Day during an opponent's main phase, that opponent attacks during the resulting combat phase, since it's still that player's turn. If you somehow cast it not during a main phase at all, all that happens is you untap the target creature.
Answer: The wording of Seize the Day is pretty straightforward:

Untap target creature. After this main phase, there is an additional combat phase followed by an additional main phase.

It just says "there is another combat phase", not "you get another combat phase". There is no concept of "owning" a phase, other than whose turn it's on.
https://mtg.gamepedia.com/Combat_phase

506.2. During the combat phase, the active player is the attacking player; creatures that player controls may attack. During the combat phase of a two-player game, the nonactive player is the defending player; that player and planeswalkers they control may be attacked.

If you cast it on your opponent's turn, then your opponent is the active player, and so they are the attacking player.
Answer: That should work, as it was given flash by quicken and does not state that you get an extra combat phase. It simply states there is another combat phase.
Comment: "That should work" is probably not the right response to lead with, as the querent isn't seeking ot understand whether it would work, but whether A or B happens.

Quickened Seize the Day


How to install Selenium WebDriver on Mac OS

Question: How to install Selenium WebDriver on Mac OS X 10.7.5 supporting Chrome, Firefox and safari ? What I have to set, where to install.
Comment: This post is currently the top hit on a Google search for "install selenium mac," so here's an updated link (the one above appears to be broken): https://selenium-python.readthedocs.io/installation.html
Answer: Install
If you use homebrew (which I recommend), you can install selenium using:
brew install selenium-server

Running
updated -port port_number
To run selenium, do: selenium-server -port 4444
For more options: selenium-server -help
Comment: To start selenium automatically: `brew services start selenium-server-standalone`
Comment: Best answer to date
Comment: How to specify chromedriver path using this fomulae?
Comment: To run selenium, do: `selenium-server standalone --port 4444`
Answer: Mac already has Python and a package manager called easy_install, so open Terminal and type
sudo easy_install selenium

Comment: This works but assumes that you want to run Selenium with Python. If that is what you want see http://damien.co/resources/how-to-install-selenium-2-mac-os-x-python-7391 Typically I think what people are looking for though is how to run the Selenium Standalone Server from the command line so it is available use by other scripts.
Comment: If you need to uninstall the python version of selenium:  1. sudo easy_install -m selenium   2. sudo rm -rf /Library/Python/2.7/site-packages/selenium-3.11.0-py2.7.egg (file name may vary, depending on version)
Answer: To use the java -jar selenium-server-standalone-2.45.0.jar command-line tool you need to install a JDK.
You need to download and install the JDK and the standalone selenium server.
Comment: This is what I was looking for but it is not clear where to get the jar file from. The current version on http://www.seleniumhq.org/download/ does not seem to work for me running OS X 10.11.5 El Capitan. This guide worked though: http://damien.co/resources/how-to-get-started-selenium-2-mac-os-x-java-7403
Answer: First up you need to download Selenium jar files from http://www.seleniumhq.org/download/. Then you'd need an IDE, something like IntelliJ or Eclipse. Then you'll have to map your jar files to those IDEs. Then depending on which language/framework you choose, you'll have to download the relevant library files, for example, if you're using JUnit you'll have to download Junit 4.11 jar file. Finally don't forget to download the drivers for Chrome and Safari (firefox driver comes standard with selenium). Once done, you can start coding and testing your code with the browser of your choice.
Answer: I installed Selenium web driver (for Chrome) by first:

downloading the appropriate web driver from here.
then navigated to mac's folder /usr/local/bin and pasted the downloaded web driver there.
Afterwards just ran the file there by double clicking it.

The file was installed there so that we do not have to specify the WebDriver path when instantiating the browser.
For more detailed walkthrough, you can reference from here.