How do you reconcile I Tim 2 saying that a woman is not to teach a man and the account of Priscilla and Aquila teaching Apollos who was a man?

Question: How do you reconcile 1 Tim 2 which says that a woman is not to teach a man and Acts 18:24-28 which is account of Priscilla and Aquila teaching a man, Apollos?
Answer:
How do you reconcile I Tim 2 saying that a woman is not to teach a man
  and the account of Priscilla and Aquila teaching Apollos who was a
  man?

The words used for "woman" and "man" may also be translated as "wife" and "husband" respectively. Thus, rather than Paul using such a broad brush forbidding a "woman" to teach a "man," his prohibition is for "wives" to teach their own "husbands."
This thought remains consistent with other passages of Scripture such as Ephesians 5:23-24 (AV) where we are told—

For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of
  the church: and he is the saviour of the body. 24 Therefore as the
  church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own
  husbands in every thing.

With the wife being in submissions (subjection) to her own husband, he will have the rule over the doctrine she teaches.
Paul commended the ministry of Phebe, a woman who brought his epistle to the Christians in Rome (Romans 16:1,2). Phebe was a servant of the church at Cenchrea. "Servant" may refer to a deacon, which is a term that sometimes designated administrative responsibilities in the Early Church. In his epistles, however, Paul most often applied the term to any minister of God's Word, including himself (1 Corinthians 3:5; 2 Corinthians 3:6; 6:4; Ephesians 3:7; 6:21)(AV). He also called Phebe a "succorer" or "helper" of many (Romans 16:2); this term technically designated her as the church's patron or sponsor, quite possibly the owner of the home in which the church at Cenchrea was meeting. This entitled her to a position of honor in the church.
Paul also acknowledged the ministry of prophetesses (1 Corinthians 11:5), following the Hebrew Bible (Exodus 15:20; Judges 4:4; 2 Kings 22:13,14) and early Christian practice (Acts 2:17,18; 21:9).
With the number of women commended by Paul in Romans 16 (eight or possibly nine) it is doubtful that Paul idea was to exclude women from ministry in general but instead to preclude them from usurping authority over their own husbands.
Comment: This is written as if Paul were the author of 1 Timothy, but it's widely recognized that 1 Timothy is deutero-Pauline.
Answer: The same reconciliation is made with Deborah in the Hebrew Bible, who was a judge of Israel, who prophesied under the authority of Barak the son of Abinoam, whose faith "conquered kingdoms" (Heb 11:32-33). That is, both Deborah and Barak sang the song of victory together (Ju 5:1-31). Priscilla taught in tandem and under the authority of her husband, Aquila. The New Testament never mentions the one without the mention of the other.
Comment: @ Joseph I dont think the NT says anywhere that Priscilla was under Aquila's authority, nor Deborah under Barak's authority. Can you please provide proofs for your statement?
Comment: @tina - in Hebrew **הֲלֹא** indicates a rhetorical question or politeness. Deborah uses the word when addressing Barak (Ju 4:6 & Ju 4:16), which has the force of "please," and so she was not commanding Barak, but deferring in respect. Please see _Biblical Hebrew Syntax_ (Winona Lake: Eisenbrauns, 1990), p. 684, fn. 48. Finally, she includes him among those who "led" Israel while excluding herself (Ju 5:9). Please see the lexicon discussion, ref. para (3), of **פָּרַע** [**here**](http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=H6544&t=NASB); she was among those who "followed."
Comment: @Joseph-Basically, I agree-but the OP's question is out of the NT-could you address that?
Answer: One can not easily dismiss 1 Timothy as a fraudulent letter (i.e. deutero-Pauline). The internal evidence is that Paul is named as the author in the text (1 Timothy 1:1). The external evidence of genuineness of Pauline authorship for 1 Timothy includes the testimony of Irenaeus and the author of the Muratorian fragment. Possible allusions are found in the letters from Clement of Rome to the Corinthians (95 A.D.), Ignatius of Antioch to the Ephesians (110 A.D.) and Polycarp to the Philippians (130 A.D.).
The 19th century legal scholar, Simon Greenleaf, known for his three volume work on "A Treatise on the Law of Evidence" writes:

Every document, apparently ancient...and bearing on its face no
evident marks of forgery, the law presumes to be genuine, and devolves
on the opposing party the burden of proving it to be otherwise.
(Testimony of the Evangelists Examined by Evidence Administered in
Courts of Law, pp. 33-34, 1874)

In interpreting 1 Timothy, it is important to note that many of the early church fathers took 1 Timothy 2 as applying to large group settings. For example, Chrysostom writes in his "Homily 9" the following:

Great modesty and great propriety does the blessed Paul require of
women,…To such a degree should women be silent, that they are not
allowed to speak not only about worldly matters, but not even about
spiritual things, in the church.

Chrysostom also writes about his own cultural view of women in his work, "The Kind of Women Who Ought to be Taken as Wives" (4):

To woman is assigned the presidency of the household; to man all the
business of state, the marketplace, the administration of
government...She cannot handle state business well, but she can raise
children correctly...

However, one can argue that what Chrysostom writes is a cultural application. For example, consider the analysis of John W. Haley. Back in 1874, he wrote a book in defense of the Christian faith entitled, "Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible." In the book, after surveying ways of harmonizing various narratives where women were involved in leadership over men, he examined both the texts from Corinthians and also 1 Timothy and came to this conclusion:

...with fitting deference, we may ask whether after all the texts from
Corinthians and Timothy may not have been intended for a local and
specific, rather than a general application.

Just like how the Apostle Paul deals with slaves in other passages, so there is a cultural adaptation that lies behind his exhortation:  "I do not allow, at this time, women to assume authority over men." 1 Timothy 2:12 (οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, a temporal present). The context of the passage with the stronger imperative, "let her learn," implies that the situation under discussion is local and, therefore, the prohibition is restricted in scope.
As the culture around us changes it illuminates the nuances of that passage, that for many years we've failed to see, in the original language and context.
Paul alludes to the curse, that fell upon women as the result of the fall. This is reflected in Aristotle's natural observation that "the male is by nature superior and the female inferior, the male ruler and the female [is] subject [to him]" (Pol. 1254.b.13–15). Aristotle also writes that "the male is by nature better fitted to command than the female" (Pol. 1259.b.2–3, b.10).
The order of creation related by Paul, in his letter to Timothy, was not done in order to argue for an ontological view of the inferiority of women. Rather, Paul wrote it to highlight how to best live as Christians with the cultural consequences of the curse upon females as an aspect of the (economic) order of the fall.
In the Genesis account, there are two descriptive facts which, when combined, combine as an issue in God's decree. It should be read in the context of this post-fall statement:

I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth, in pain you shall
bring forth children; Yet your desire shall be for your husband, and
he shall rule over you. (Gen. 3:16b)

Martin Luther writes about this egalitarian view of prelapsarian humanity, in his commentary on Genesis:

Hence it follows that if the woman had not been deceived by the
serpent and had not sinned, she would have been the equal of Adam in
all respects.  For the punishment, that she is now subjected to the
man, was imposed on her after sin and because of sin, just as the
other hardships and dangers were:  travail, pain, and countless other
vexations. Therefore Eve was not like the woman of today; her state
was far better and more excellent, and she was in no respect inferior
to Adam, whether you count the qualities of the body or those of the
mind.

The earliest known commentary on 1 Timothy 2:12 is by the church father, Origen. After quoting 2:12, Origen describes it as "concerning woman not becoming a ruler over man in speaking" (περὶ τοῦ μὴ τὴν γυναῖκα ἡγεμόνα γίνεσθαι τῷ λόγῳ τοῦ ἀνδρός ). Origen speaks of certain disciples of the women, who had become pupils of Priscilla and Maximilla, as not heeding this commandment. Priscilla and Maximilla are known to us as the leaders, along with Montanus, of what was called the Montanist movement. It was a movement in the early church that had women in leadership.
It is significant that Tertullian (after his conversion to Montanism) reproached Pope Zephyrinus (198-217 A.D.) with having initially issued letters recognizing Montanism and than revoking them at the institution of one by the name of Praxeas.
It is difficult to know if Tertullian changed his view of women leaders in public. However, Tertullian writes this beautiful statement (202 A.D.), in his work Ad uxorem (emphasis added):

... How beautiful, then, the marriage of two Christians, two who are one
in hope, one in desire, one in the way of life they follow, one in the
religion they practice. They are as brother and sister, both servants
of the same Master. Nothing divides them, either in flesh or in
Spirit. They are in very truth, two in one flesh; and where there is
but one flesh there is also but one spirit. They pray together, they
worship together; they fast together; instructing one another,
encouraging one another, strengthening one another. Side by side they
face difficulties and persecution, share their consolations. They have
no secrets from one another, they never shun each other's company;
they never bring sorrow to each other's hearts… Psalms and hymns they
sing to one another. Hearing and seeing this, Christ rejoices. To such
as these He gives His peace. Where there are two together, there also
He is present, and where He is, there evil is not.
Answer: They do contradict one another. There are lots of contradictions in the bible, and this is one of them. 1 Timothy is deutero-Pauline. The authors of the deutero-Pauline epistles frequently showed extremely negative attitudes about women. It's not just the author of Luke/Acts who disagrees with the author of 1 Timothy. Paul himself actually didn't share the misogyny of the author of 1 Timothy, as you can see in Romans 16, where he discusses these same individuals, Prisca and Aquila.


Why do many modern web apps keep adding back functionality?

Question: Is it really creating a good experience if we implement the back button inside the app? If yes, then how? I was unable to understand why users wouldn't like to use the browser back button. Many new modern web apps are implementing this function, but if we see websites like blogs and news websites are not implementing this feature, it gives a better experience for their visitors.
Comment: Could you show us an example? This could be for many reasons, so it depends on teh context
Comment: This is a general question. I see that nowadays many web apps implement the back button within the app. Somewhere we needed a back button for the wizard interface or checkout process. But I see many of these apps are used just for page navigation. Even Gmail also have back button.
Answer: I don't think it's about whether the user likes it or not, but about accessibility.
When this type of statement is made, such as the one raised in the question, it's usually thought of as users accustomed to working or constantly using mobile applications, but it's not something real.
There's a very high percentage of users who only use the essential or necessary buttons within the action they want to perform, ignoring the rest, not only their function but also their existence.
However, redundancy often occurs in situations where the Back button is similar in design, size, and position to the one on the device.

For situations like the one described in the question, the warmth of an added button with a similar function to an existing one on the device is to make it stand out prominently. This not only enhances the existence of the feature but also helps untrained users to immediately discover that it exists.
Answer: It is, most of the time an issue of legacy code or implementation. In theory, the back button of a browser and the app's back button should work the same but in many cases, this is not the case.
In a lot of apps, let's take for example filling a form across a wizard:

using the back button in the app will take you to the previous step in the wizard while maintaining the users entered data
using the back button in the browser might take you back to the page before starting the wizard and losing the user-entered data.
Answer: I agree that it is for both accessiblity as well as for some techinical navigation flow.
For technical part think like this that you are navigating through multiple pages in a form, but you do not want the data to be stored on the web browser temp files as they are sensitive and encrypted, you might want a back button of its own, as otherwise browser back button will take you to the previous different page and not previous form page.
Another example could be you are using an iframe and there is no way you can go back without having its own back button.
On accessiblity part both on mobile and desktop people have started using behavioural science and principles like where is my eyball at that point of time doing an ctivity, how far do I have to move my mouse to do an activity, how easy it is to reach to it etc.


How can I prove this special version of the Poincaré inequality?

Question: I am reading a paper, Is $L^2$ Physics-Informed Loss Always Suitable for Training Physics-Informed Neural Network?, which uses an "application" of Poincaré's inequality. The form I know and can find everywhere online is $$\lVert u\rVert_p ≤ C\lVert Du\rVert_p$$ where $\lVert.\rVert_p$ is the $L^p$ norm on some compact domain, but the version they use is $$\lVert u\rVert_{2,p} ≤ C\lVert D^2u\rVert_p$$ where $\lVert.\rVert_{2,p}$ is the $W^{2,p}$ Sobolev norm on a compact domain and $D^2u$ is the vector $D^2u_i=\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x_i^2}$, and I can't figure out how they arrive at that. The assumption that $u$ dissapears on the boundary is still there. I've searched various literature like Jost's PDEs book, Evans' PDE book, and Adams' Sobolev Spaces, and can't find the answer anywhere.
Comment: I briefly looked at the paper and I have doubts that what they wrote is correct. Even, if it is correct, the presentation severly lacks explanations (I only spent a couple of minutes looking at the paper so I might be missing something).
Comment: (I removed my earlier objections because it became clear after looking at sections A.2 and A.3 of the paper that their $W^{k,p}$ space only involves spatial derivatives.)
Comment: Like @PiotrHajlasz I am not 100% convinced by the arguments in the paper; parts of Lemma A.4 seems very strange, specifically the arguments concerning the extension from $(u,f)$ to $(\hat{u},\hat{f})$. I don't see how after the truncation one still solves the PDE $\mathcal{L}_0 \hat{u} = \hat{f}$; there is potentially a jump discontinuity in $\hat{u}$ at time $t = T$. And the assertion that $\hat{u}$ is in $W^{2,p}(\mathbb{R}^n\times \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0})$ also feels problematic to me, since the boundary conditions for the heat equation says nothing about the Neumann data.
Comment: That said, the Poincare inequality itself is not one of my concerns. At least if we are willing to put some additional standard assumptions on the domain, the claimed Poincare inequality actually holds.
Answer: The following is a very non-generalizable result specific to the second order Poincare inequality.

Thm: Let $\Omega$ be open, bounded, and connected. Further assume it has  Lipschitz boundary. Then for every $p\in [1,\infty)$ there exists a constant $C$ such that for any $u\in C^0(\bar{\Omega}) \cap C^2(\Omega)$ with $u|_{\partial\Omega = 0}$, $$ \|u\|_{L^p} + \|D u\|_{L^p} \leq C \|D^2 u \|_{L^p}$$
(Here $Du$ is the gradient of the function $u$, and $D^2 u$ the Hessian matrix.)

Proof: Classical Poincare inequality provides (per the boundary value assumption) that $\|u\|_{L^p} \lesssim \|Du\|_{L^p}$. Next observe that $\|Du\|_{L^p} \lesssim \sum_{i = 1}^n \|\partial_i u\|_{L^p}$, and the boundary value assumption on $u$ implies $\int_{\Omega} \partial_i u = 0$ for any $i$. And therefore we may apply the Poincare-Wirtinger inequality (the version subtracting the mean) to conclude that $\|\partial_i u\|_{L^p} \lesssim \|D (\partial_i u)\|_{L^p}$. Sum over $i$ and we have the desired result.

Note that I am interpreting $D^2$ differently then how you stated it in the question. In fact, in the paper you cited, the final sentence of section A.2 supports my interpretation (and not yours).

By density this also extends to $u\in W^{1,p}_0(\Omega) \cap W^{2,p}(\Omega)$.
Comment: Note: there are easy counterexamples if you try to extend this to the third derivative.
Answer: It is noted in Willie Wong's answer that the definition of the operator $D^2$ in the OP is different from the one in the paper cited by the OP. Namely, in the paper $D^2$ involves both the mixed and unmixed partial derivatives, whereas in the OP $D^2$ involves only the unmixed partial derivatives.
However, the original question just as stated in the OP still makes sense, and answering that original question involves the additional task of bounding the $p$-norms of the mixed partial derivatives by the sum of the $p$-norms of the unmixed partial derivatives.
This was done in the previous version of this answer only for $p=2$, but now such a bound is available for all $p\in(1,\infty)$.

To simplify the writing, suppose that the dimension is $2$. Then, without loss of generality, $u$ is supported on $S:=[0,1]^2$. Let $D_j$ denote the operator of the partial differentiation wrt the $j$th argument.
Then, for real $p\ge1$ and $(x,y)\in S$, by Jensen's inequality,
$$|u(x,y)|^p\le\Big(\int_0^x (x-s)\,|(D_1^2u)(s,y)|\,ds\Big)^p
\le\int_0^1|(D_1^2u)(s,y)|^p\,ds,$$
$$|D_1u(x,y)|^p\le\Big(\int_0^x|(D_1^2u)(s,y)|\,ds\Big)^p
\le\int_0^1|(D_1^2u)(s,y)|^p\,ds,$$
so that
$$\|u\|_p\le\|D_1^2u\|_p,$$
$$\|D_1u\|_p\le\|D_1^2u\|_p,$$
and similarly
$$\|D_2u\|_p\le\|D_2^2u\|_p.$$
It remains to note that, thanks to this recent answer,
$$\|D_1D_2u\|_p\le C_p(\|D_1^2u\|_p+\|D_2^2u\|_p)$$
for each $p\in(1,\infty)$ and some real constant $C_p$ depending only on $p$.


Can I render the render border with full quality

Question: Let's say the image is my project.
I got my composition and camera done and got it rendered.
Now I want a close up of my shot without changing the camera perspective and such.
Can I render the render border only, but make it full quality?
Answer: Hi rendering in Blender depends by camera view. Pablo Vazquez did Amaranth patch for what you're looking for:
https://pablovazquez.art/amaranth/
Comment: Hi thanks for your answer. It is exactly what im looking for. Too bad it's not for 2.8
Comment: I still haven't tested 2.8, I don't know if there are new controls for that. In the other case you have to create a second camera. Best wishes


Help! Signs of over and under watering

Question: My bird of paradise is showing signs of over watering (new leaf has brown and yellow edges) but one of my older leaves is dry, crispy and dead!
Answer: Just off the picture alone (which is not enough to be certain) my guess would be that the plant has root rot. You might want to check if the roots of the plant look healthy. My thought process for this guess is that the older leaves are very dry (roots probably rotted away and could not suck up enough water), while there are no signs of limping/wilting (this would be indicative of underwatering).
Again, as I mentioned before this is not certain and only my best guess going off of just the picture. If the roots look healthy, you will need to consider other possibilities (too much afternoon sun, heater dried the leaves out, ...) .

Help! Signs of over and under watering


I can send but cannot receive an sms on my iPhone 5s? This came out of the blue!

Question: I can send but cannot receive an sms on my iPhone 5s-this just came about out of the blue!
Answer: Apple doesn't have a great article on troubleshooting SMS reception so your first course of action would be to contact your carrier or look on their website on how they wish users to troubleshoot SMS reception.
Once you've done that, you could go over this article:

https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT204065

It covers messages, so you might want to disable iMessage entirely on that phone while you work out what's wrong on the carrier side or setting side.
Feel free to ask a second question once you have some troubleshooting done and be sure to include your iOS version and what resources you're using to go through the checklist of things to remedy this.
Comment: Also, with iMessage enabled, have someone send you an iMessage to one of the email addresses checked in Settings -> Messages -> Send & Receive. We assume you'll get that message if you're on wifi, to verify that it's a carrier issue and not a Messages app issue.


Rubik's Cube Question

Question: I tried doing a little bit of googling about this, but I am not able to find a decent answer. Let a configuration of a face be a choice of color for each of the 9 squares on that face of the cube. Is it possible to reach every configuration on some face starting from the solved Rubik's cube? Is there a general method for finding the sequence of moves to reach the possible configurations?
Comment: You cannot change the color of the center square once you choose a face.
Comment: Good point, thank you.
Comment: I suggest that you actually play with a Rubiks Cube. What you are asking is the one thing everyone manages to master very quickly without instructions while it is unpleasant to write down a "general method" for something that simple that relies on lots of cases. (Apart from the center issue, the answer is Yes, you can have any color combination on a single face.)
Comment: Thanks Phira. I will have to take your word for it. I don't have a Rubik's cube handy, so I will try tomorrow and hope it will be as trivial as you suggest.
Comment: It's certainly possible to have any combination of colours on a single face provided you don't care what's on the other faces.  First rotate the cube so the centre square is the colour you want then put the other pieces in place.  As for a general method there are plenty of books on [solving the Rubiks cube](http://www.amazon.co.uk/s/ref=nb_sb_ss_i_5_3?url=search-alias%3Dstripbooks&field-keywords=rubiks%20cube&sprefix=rub%2Cstripbooks%2C430)
Answer: Given that:

6 corners are independently orientable*
7 corners are independently positionable*
11 edges are independently orientable
10 edges are independently positionable
One face only has 4 edges and 4 corners

We will be able to place all 8 non-centre cubies without interference.
The only remaining 'cubie' is the centre, which can only move if we allow 'slice' moves or rotating the entire cube.
Thus, one face is solvable (in this sense) in general iff the centre cubie can be moved to a different face.
As for the algorithm to do so, it will merely be an adapted version of the 'first-layer' algorithms in many beginner methods. There are several variations, all simple.
*meaning they can each be positioned/oriented any way without affecting previous cubies
Answer: An obvious way to do this (without changing the center piece), is to put that face on top (or bottom, if that's how you usually do it), and create the cross with the colors you want, just like when you are solving the cube normally. Then just insert corners with the colors you want, and that particular face can thus be manipulated however you want (not including the center piece).

Rubik's Cube Question


What are the benefits of waiting to drop troops second?

Question: I see people waiting to react 98% of the time. Unless I have a building (Tesla/bomb tower/etc.), I also wait. It seems that reacting gives you the chance to minimize wasting mana; but, HOW long is TOO long to wait?  Is there a point in which waiting becomes wasteful rather than beneficial? I ask because I was in a game where both of us waited 60 full seconds before we deployed... and that seems silly.
Answer: Most of the strategy in Clash Royale is about gaining an "elixir advantage" on your opponent.  For instance, if your opponent plays a 4 elixir card and you counter with a 3 elixir card that stops it completely, you have just gained a 1 elixir advantage.
Stacking up these "mistakes" your opponent makes is key to victory.  These advantages can be used later in the round to drop a sizeable force that your opponent can't counter, and lets you push up to the tower and inflict damage.
This means that for a lot of players, their deck is reactionary.  They want to see what you play so that they can play the counter card and earn an advantage.
Waiting can work against a player, though.  I will generally let my elixir stack up to 10, but then at 10 I'll play something.  If my opponent doesn't play anything and I climb back to 10 again, I've just gained an elixir advantage for free.
Dropping a defensive tower may seem like the obvious choice, but defensive structures take damage over time, so their effectiveness is less the longer the round drags on without your enemy playing a card.  I will tend to play something soft and cheap, like spear goblins, and then back it up with another card if it seems like I could push towards their tower in a lane.
Comment: I would note that some troops can be dropped behind the King tower for nearly "free" - if the opponent doesn't almost immediately play in response.  This is a common move in higher level play - to bait the opponent to make the first major investment.
Answer: I've had a match where I waited the entire time for the other person to go. The game ended in a draw with anyone dropping a troop. The reason I waited so long, was because I had a bad initial draw for an aggressive move. So whether you should wait or not depends on the cards you get and the deck you are running. If you are running a low cost deck, a tower deck, or a spawner deck, a lot of the time you will want to play earlier. However, higher cost decks tend to want to go second, because they want to see where it is safe to deploy troops, and what they need to use to counter, to maximize elixir efficiency.
Answer: I think it really depends on the person, I once played someone who was trying to rush and kill my base really fast but it didn't work. But I'm getting sidetracked… I think that TOO long would be at 1 min when the double elixir starts. Most likely the opponents want you to deploy first so they can attack on the other side. Hope I helped!
Answer: Sometimes it pays to attack first and use a decoy. For example lets say you use some goblins (cost 2) and your opponent plays a high cost card as a counter. You know you have more elixir than your opponent and can launch an attack on the other side, knowing that it has a good chance of success.


What is this veggie sold as "leek sprout" in an Asian market?

Question: What is this veggie I bought at the Asian market? It was called a leek sprout.
Comment: Leek sprout to me sounds like it's a baby leek.
Answer: Yellow Chinese chives.  These are the same as Chinese garlic chives, but they've been "bleached" by covering them; this results in a milder, sweeter flavor.
They're generally minced and put into dishes as a finishing step.
Comment: @akostadinov "Bleaching" isn't quite the right word - plants left in the dark will not develop as much chlorophyll, so it's more that they don't turn green to begin with and not that the green has been "bleached" out after having previously been green.  I don't think you find these sun-deprived yellow chives in traditional European or Balkan cuisine - usually just normal green ones.
Comment: I think "blanching" is the typical term, even though it's easy to confuse with the act of cooking. See [Cauliflower Blanching](https://gardenerspath.com/plants/vegetables/blanch-cauliflower-heads/).
Comment: The botanical name is 'Etiolation' https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etiolation - it's the same process done with white asparagus and forced rhubarb. Apparently if you go into a dark 'forcing' shed you can actually hear the asparagus growing!
Comment: Given it came rom asian market, I assume you are right. But it looks very much like Bulgarian garlic chives. We call it `green garlic`. I didn't know about bleaching.


Why have we become so quick to migrate to BH.SE?

Question: I've noticed that lately we've very quickly moved quit a lot of question about the interpretation of a specific passage to BH.SE.  Specifically, this question, which seemed unclear in its desire, was quickly moved today.  Do we really want to be moving questions to BH just because they ask about a specific passage?
Answer: I apparently read the question rather differently than you did. Besides probably not speaking English as a first language and some formatting issues it seemed like a very obvious question of "what does this word refer to in this verse". That is a question pattern that works on BH just fine and does not at all on C.SE.
Furthermore my experience is different than yours in this:

If they want an answer from theology (which is probably most of the time)

I would say that much of the time an answer from theology will serve them best, but that isn't what they expect. Most people are unaware of the frameworks that such questions require. Generally when asking about the meaning of a specific verse they expect to just get answers arguing fro what the right interpretation is. They are clueless as to how hard this is or why such questions are nearly impossible to scope.
On the other hand that's exactly the question format that BH is setup to handle. This wasn't a very well researched question, but the pattern suggested to me if it stood any hope of surviving its best shot would be on BH and CSE was a lost cause. Given the choice of closing outright and essentially telling him his question couldn't be asked without a ton of research and narrowing on his part I punted to the site that could handle the question as written.
I don't argue that the most meaningful treatments (and as a pastor what I really think he needs to here) is some theological framework with which to process reality, but this guy doesn't seem to be even close to asking the right question and the question I would have liked to answer (and I suspect that would turn into if left open on C.SE) is a truth question that's going to devolve into a battle over the nature of good and evil and God's relation to them. Not pretty and not constructive for this format.
That's roughly the thought process that went through my head reviewing that post. To answer your question about "why so fast", the answer is simply because somebody flagged it, I read it and it made perfect sense in my head. If it turns out I was reading it wrong and the OP's question is different we can re-evaluate and even move it back. But at first blush I didn't even see a hint of it working on CSE better so gave it what I thought was the best shot it had at survival.
Comment: @ThaddeusB Another good reason for speed is that if the Q looks wrong, then [the faster closed/moved, the better](http://meta.stackexchange.com/a/92638/203418). I found the argument and reasoning of that Meta.SE post compelling. If in the end it proves precipitate, it can always be re-opened. But easier to keep junk off than deal with messes. (Or so I've come to think.)
Comment: Like, I said I think it is fundamentally an English question - the OP simply misunderstood what "knowing good and evil" means...  The bigger issue is the tendency seems to be "this doesn't request a tradition, so let's move it to BH."  That type of question is indeed a bad question for C.SE, but its bad on BH.SE too.  A truth question doesn't cease to be a truth question because it changed sites.
Comment: @ThaddeusB I picked up on the language issue to but assumed they hand really gotten hung up on the real theological issue (possibly in their own language first) and only came here to ask the question about it and had a hard time expressing it. That question would have to be asked on BH. If you are right and they didn't even get that far and were struggling to comprehend the English then the answer is really simple and could be answered on either site.
Comment: @ThaddeusB I don't understand why you think that questions about the meaning of phrases don't belong at BH.
Comment: @curiousdannii I interpreted the question as asking about the theological implications of the text, which would make it a C.SE question.  But, mostly I don't think it is wise to move unclear questions - it is better to simply close them.
Answer: It is only appropriate to move when the questioner clearly wants a "authorial intent reason".  If they want an answer from theology (which is probably most of the time), then it is inappropriate to migrate.  If it is unclear what they want, we should ask first.
IMO, this specific example was an especially poor candidate to move.  First, the question was rather unclear what it wanted. (I have edited it to make it clear.)  Indeed, it probably could have been closed for that reason.  Moving a question when its intent it not clear seems like a really bad idea.  Second, the question seems to be a "nature of God" type question, which is a theology question.  (OK, so its probably based on a misunderstanding of English as the OP is not a native speaker, and there doesn't seem to be any real conflict in the verse.  Still, it is much more on the theology side of things than the authorial intent side of things.)
Comment: Both answers to that question interpreted it in theological terms. Whether or not they were good answers, this suggested that the question was a theological one and belongs in Christianity.
Comment: If the intent was unclear then I'd agree with some of this, but I didn't think the intent was unclear at all and so acted on how I read it. I also disagree about what people tend to expect when asking about words in verses on CSE. I could turn out to be wrong, but for now I just plain disagree with this conclusion.
Comment: @Caleb Naturally, I could be the one who was mistaken here...  Let's see what others think.  (I invited BH chat regulars to weigh in as well.)


Minecraft 1.8 maps not zooming out

Question: I have crafted a map in 1.8 survival, and when I right clicked on it in my hotbar, the entire map instantly filled with information. Before 1.8 I had to walk around before it filled. Also, when I surround the map with paper on a crafting table to zoom out, nothing happens.
Answer: From Minecraft Wiki:

Please note, shift-clicking to retrieve a zoomed-out map will cause
the eight extra sheets of paper to be consumed, but the map will be
unchanged. The data from the old map will not be carried over to the
new one. This is Minecraft Bug MC-87.

If you shift-clicked to retrieve the map, try retrieving it without shift-clicking.
Answer: Are you on creative or survival when you right click the map? If your on creative then it will full the map up instantly. Try searching up the zoom out recipe on the minecraft wiki, they might of changed it.
Answer: The fact that the entire map shows up instantly is a feature of Minecraft 1.8.
For the map not zooming out, do not use shift-click with the zoom-out recipe!
Answer: According to wiki, maps have a zoom level, which was fixed at 1:8 prior to snapshot 12w34a, but from 12w34b starts at 1:1 and can be increased up to 1:16 by re-crafting an existing map (which means it is 64 times smaller than before). And there's a bug(MC-87) where if you use shift click to zoom out a map does not apply correct zoom level. Make sure you are not holding shift while crafting.

Minecraft 1.8 maps not zooming out


How much can I get out of the World Of Warcraft Starter Edition?

Question: I'm new to WOW and I just got the starter edition which allows you to play up to lvl 20 and other smaller restrictions. I want to know how much can I really play with these restrictions? Can I still go pretty far into the game as a lvl 20?
Answer: The long answer...
You can sink a lot of time into a level 20 character, even with the restrictions imposed upon a starter edition account.  One of the most common ways to do this is in PvP battlegrounds.
For some people (including myself), the fun in this is finding ways to explore the world or optimize your character within the starter edition restrictions. You can still do the following in the starter edition:

Level professions up to rank 100
Run level 10-20 dungeons solo, or with up to 5 people (although there are only a few, so these can quickly get boring).
Complete all quests available to your faction from level 1-20
Collect companions and toys (obviously, a lot of these are not available to a level 20, but there are still loads to collect).
Participate in yearly world events like Brewfest(Oktoberfest), Midsummer Fire Festival(Summer Solstice), and Hallow's End(Halloween).  While not all content will be available for a level 20, there is almost always something to do for everyone.
Visit the Darkmoon Faire.  The carnival comes to town for the first week of every month. There are quests, gear, and toys exclusive to this event.
Explore!  There are very few barriers in the game that will not allow you to enter due to not having the latest expansion.  The only risk in traveling is that most areas are dangerous to a low-level player (but don't let that stop you).
PvP Battlegrounds: Once you hit level 20, you are matchmade against allies and opponents levels 20-24, but all players levels are scaled to 24 to compensate for hit chance/base stat disadvantages. You can use online databases like http://www.wowhead.com/ to find the best gear for a level 20 character.  Cynwise has created a great guide, albeit outdated, for level 20 twinking https://greentintedgoggles.wordpress.com/2011/07/26/a-guide-to-trial-account-twinking/.

If you're up for a big time sink, and a bit of a challenge, you can play WoW for quite a while at level 20.  And if you're getting a little bored, you can always start over from level 1 with a new class!
One of my level 20 characters, in case you are interested: http://us.battle.net/wow/en/character/Auchindoun/Creativity/simple
Comment: Alright, Thanks for your deep answer. You have given me the confidence to download the game now.
Answer: The short answer is no. The game has a level cap of 100 (assuming you have all expansions), so you'd get 20% of the total leveling experience and none of the post-game (what you do when you hit level cap) content.
The starter pack is roughly analogous to a demo in a singleplayer game in that regard; it gives you enough of the game to understand whether or not it's something you'd want to spend money on.
Comment: To be honest, in my experience, the overwhelming majority of content in mmos I've played comes in post game content. So that you can't get to endgame level cap is the largest limit.
Comment: +1 for great answer. Many people reach level 20 the first day they attempt to level, and your options as a level 20 are, well, very limited. WoW is all about the end-game content.
Comment: Most games are. When I played GW2 1-80 were just a thing I needed to get through to do things I actually wanted to do. Same with ArcheAge I'm playing now. Being <50 makes the game unplayable for doing anything except getting to level 50. (this is also factoring in it's a very much kmmo experience; without high-tier level 50 gear, you're useless.
Answer: Expansion on the Darkmoon Faire (DMF):
This event occurs at the beginning of every month and lasts a week. There is a buff the merry go round gives called "Whee!" Which lasts up to 60 minutes or death, this provides a 10% leveling experience buff and 10% reputation buff. I recommend getting reapplication as needed.
-Obtain the intro quest in any city available at level 10. This rewards 5 tickets. Use one ticket to buy darkmoon storage box (16 slot bag) at the faire (same guy as quest turn in).
-Go back to the DMF at level 15, fish up 100 darkmoon daggermaw (careful not to open bloated sharks as you will loot more than the 10g cap-open them for after you subscribe and the gold cap is lifted).
-Purchase the "faded treasure map" from the female blood elf locate on the pier, complete the quest, receive 100 ticket reward, buy heirloom gear.
-The DMF has a vendor who sells 29 different heirlooms. It takes 18 level 15-20 characters completing the faded treasure map quest to buy all of them.
Battleground Bonus Event (BBE):
-During the BBE you can gain 300 honor for each character's first win of each day. Hunters and discipline priests are overpowered at this level range. Buy more heirlooms with honor (I think up to 12-15 via honor).
Level 1 mount:
-Once you have 35+ heirlooms, you will receive the "heirloom hoarder" achievement (I personally have obtained this on a starter account). This rewards a level one motorcycle mount. It is auto learned and in your mount tab upon earning it. You may use this mount at level one!
Reputation 16 slot bags:
-You can buy tabards from race/faction vendors in each major city. They are located near each city's flight path. Equipping a tabard while in a dungeon will reward a specific reputation (open this window my pressing "u"). At revered, you can buy/equip only one of each rep bag ~1g70s each. There are a total of 6 bags you can unlock/obtain this way.
Gold
-If you find yourself repeatedly capping at 10g (and you will), you can spend down by buying vendor 10-12 slot bags, rep bags, bank slots, reputation mounts, pets, toys, and possibly stackable reagents with a close buy/vendor price to help preserve gold once you subscribe-then vendor items after sub.
Macros
-Macros can be useful but are not required for successful gameplay. Type /macro to open the window. I mostly use macros for healing spells or utility spells such as:
/cast [@mouseover, exists] spell; same spell
This allows you cast on another player my only placing your mouse curser over the player and pressing the keybind on your keyboard.
/castsequence reset=7 spell, another spell, yet another spell
This allows you to tie many different spells together. Mostly used for attack spells.
There are many other useful macros out there which I will not list.
If/when you subscribe:
One could easily play 1-3 months with the information mentioned above. If/when you subscribe, you may have played all of the available class combinations which should give you a better feel for the game.
For newcomers, I would suggest playing damage specialization (DPS) and hold off on tanking or healing specializations since they are more critical in dungeons and to a lesser extent battlegrounds. Other players will expect you to know what you are doing if you play a tank/heal role. As a DPS people will not pay as much critical attention to you, which give more time to learn and enjoy the game.
Good luck and have fun!
Austintexas/Dalaran
Comment: This is good information, but this seems to be completely unrelated to the question.
Comment: what's the link with OP question ?
Comment: Side note: '/cast [@mouseover,exists][] spell' will do the same as '/cast [@mouseover, exists] spell; spell'. The [] signifies "any other condition", no need to set a default spell with ;


Why are only final variables accessible in anonymous class?

Question:
a can only be final here.  Why?  How can I reassign a in onClick() method without keeping it as private member?
private void f(Button b, final int a){
    b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {

        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
            int b = a*5;

        }
    });
}

How can I return the 5 * a when it clicked? I mean,
private void f(Button b, final int a){
    b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {

        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
             int b = a*5;
             return b; // but return type is void
        }
    });
}

Comment: What are you trying to achieve? Click handler could be executed when "f" is finished.
Comment: Note: as of Java 8, your variable only needs to be *effectively final*
Comment: That's what I mean -- it doesn't support full closure because it doesn't allow access to non-final variables.
Comment: I don't think that Java anonymous classes provide the kind of lambda closure that you'd expect, but someone please correct me if I'm wrong...
Comment: @Lambert if you want to use a in the onClick method it have to be final @Ivan how can f() method behaves like onClick() method return int when clicked
Comment: possible duplicate of [Why inner classes require "final" outer instance variables \[Java\]?](http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3910324/why-inner-classes-require-final-outer-instance-variables-java)
Comment: http://stackoverflow.com/q/12830611/2073130 has a good discussion on the why.
Comment: Studied the whole oracle documentation from here https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/anonymousclasses.html still did not find the why answer
Answer: As noted in comments, some of this becomes irrelevant in Java 8, where final can be implicit. Only an effectively final variable can be used in an anonymous inner class or lambda expression though.

It's basically due to the way Java manages closures.
When you create an instance of an anonymous inner class, any variables which are used within that class have their values copied in via the autogenerated constructor. This avoids the compiler having to autogenerate various extra types to hold the logical state of the "local variables", as for example the C# compiler does... (When C# captures a variable in an anonymous function, it really captures the variable - the closure can update the variable in a way which is seen by the main body of the method, and vice versa.)
As the value has been copied into the instance of the anonymous inner class, it would look odd if the variable could be modified by the rest of the method - you could have code which appeared to be working with an out-of-date variable (because that's effectively what would be happening... you'd be working with a copy taken at a different time). Likewise if you could make changes within the anonymous inner class, developers might expect those changes to be visible within the body of the enclosing method.
Making the variable final removes all these possibilities - as the value can't be changed  at all, you don't need to worry about whether such changes will be visible. The only ways to allow the method and the anonymous inner class see each other's changes is to use a mutable type of some description. This could be the enclosing class itself, an array, a mutable wrapper type... anything like that. Basically it's a bit like communicating between one method and another: changes made to the parameters of one method aren't seen by its caller, but changes made to the objects referred to by the parameters are seen.
If you're interested in a more detailed comparison between Java and C# closures, I have an article which goes into it further. I wanted to focus on the Java side in this answer :)
Comment: @MathiasBader: Really? I thought it is still essentially the same mechanism, the compiler is now just clever enough to infer `final` (but it still needs to be effectively final).
Comment: This was all true for Java 7, keep in mind that with Java 8, closures have been introduced and now it is indeed possible to access a non-final field of a class from its inner class.
Comment: @Ivan: Like C#, basically. It comes with a fair degree of complexity though, if you want the same sort of functionality as C# where variables from different scopes can be "instantiated" different numbers of times.
Comment: @Mathias Bader: you could always access non-final *fields*, which are not to be confused with *local* variables, which had to be final and still have to be effectively final, so Java 8 doesn't change the semantics.
Comment: Yeah. Basically, full closures support could be implemented by moving all variables that are referenced in a special auto-generated class.
Comment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/7472195/passing-final-variables-to-anonymous-classes
Comment: If anyone is dumb like me and if you are beating your head against the wall just to know What the hack is this Closure....then here you go.. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Nj3_DMUXEbE
Comment: @lupchiazoem: Suppose you return an anonymous inner class instance from a method. The local variables were on the stack - where are they now? How would you expect the instance to refer to them? I'm afraid the topic of "what the C# compiler does with delegates" is far too big to go into in detail in comments, and likewise "what the Java compiler does with anonymous inner classes".
Comment: This auto-generated constructor, why can't I see it using reflection though?
Comment: @Ustaman: I suspect you could - but it's a bit too much to go into in comments. I suggest you ask a new question with some sample code.
Comment: in turn, the reasons _why_ they choose to implement closures that way are discussed in [another question](http://stackoverflow.com/q/17736620/839601). In particular, one of the answers quotes Guy Steele that "prototype implementation *did* allow non-final variables to be referenced from within inner classes..."
Comment: @mbader: Yup - added a note at the top of the answer.
Comment: @peter: The values *are* references, assuming the variables are reference type variables. It's the same kind of "value copy" as assignment to another variable.
Comment: @JonSkeet I tried to comprehend your statement - This avoids the compiler...of the "local variables", but I'm not able to fathom it. I tried to follow other related answers, but fail to get an idea. Please let know as to why local variables have to be copied? Thanks!
Comment: "..any variables which are used within that class have their values copied in..". @JonSkeet, is it the values or the references that are copied in?
Comment: Aliasing the activation record could have done the job. The only difficult part that is solvable is to optimised the call stack reification only when you detect that the closure can escape the current call stack. So no final could be needed.I wonder if C# is able to optimise the way they copy the environment.
Comment: @JonSkeet I understand this reasoning for making the local variables final, but then how can non-final instance variables be accessed inside an anonymous inner class? are implicitly referred by a `this`?
Comment: is there any specs saying the variable is copied over. if it's on another mem location, then java probably should leave the original variable mutable, as anyway the copied over variable is on another mem location, and any changes on the new variable should be immune to original ?
Comment: @Iwpro2 You seem to confuse the semantics of 'copy' in the Java sense: The inner/anonymous class gets a new reference to the variable/the object behind it. The object itself doesn't change its memory location in any way. Writes to the original variable could still be allowed, but may confuse developers thinking that the anonymous class could then use the new value.
Comment: @JonSkeet As a followup to my earlier comment, if local variables are final or effectively final, why make a copy rather than use them directly?
Comment: I also have trouble understanding the answer. Is it possible to illustrate with code example that what happens/problems created if non final augments could be used?
Comment: @tom: I don't have time to do that at the moment, I'm afraid.
Comment: If you didn't understand this at first (like me), read [this answer](https://stackoverflow.com/a/7423059/8847871) first, then come back.
Answer: There is a trick that allows anonymous class to update data in the outer scope.
private void f(Button b, final int a) {
    final int[] res = new int[1];
    b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {
        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
            res[0] = a * 5;
        }
    });

    // But at this point handler is most likely not executed yet!
    // How should we now res[0] is ready?
}

However, this trick is not very good due to the synchronization issues. If handler is invoked later, you need to 1) synchronize access to res if handler was invoked from the different thread 2) need to have some sort of flag or indication that res was updated
This trick works OK, though, if anonymous class is invoked in the same thread immediately. Like:
// ...

final int[] res = new int[1];
Runnable r = new Runnable() { public void run() { res[0] = 123; } };
r.run();
System.out.println(res[0]);

// ...

Comment: The answer then is that is how they are implemented :)
Comment: thanks for your answer. I know all of this and my solution is better than this. my question is "why only final" ?
Comment: Thanks. I had used the trick above on my own. I was not sure if it is a good idea. If Java does not allow it, there might be a good reason. Your answer clarifies that my `List.forEach` code is safe.
Comment: Read http://stackoverflow.com/q/12830611/2073130 for a good discussion of the rationale behind "why only final".
Comment: there are several workarounds. Mine is: final int resf = res; Initially I used the array approach, but I find it to have too a cumbersome syntax. AtomicReference is maybe a little slower (allocates an object).
Answer: An anonymous class is an inner class and the strict rule applies to inner classes (JLS 8.1.3):

Any local variable, formal method parameter or exception handler parameter used but not declared in an inner class must be declared final. Any local variable, used but not declared in an inner class must be definitely assigned before the body of the inner class.

I haven't found a reason or an explanation on the jls or jvms yet, but we do know, that the compiler creates a separate class file for each inner class and it has to make sure, that the methods declared on this class file (on byte code level) at least have access to the values of local variables.
(Jon has the complete answer - I keep this one undeleted because one might interested in the JLS rule)
Answer: You can create a class level variable to get returned value. I mean
class A {
    int k = 0;
    private void f(Button b, int a){
        b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {
        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
            k = a * 5;
        }
    });
}

now you can get value of K and use it where you want.
Answer of your why is :
A local inner class instance is tied to Main class and can access the final local variables of its containing method. When the instance uses a final local of its containing method, the variable retains the value it held at the time of the instance's creation, even if the variable has gone out of scope (this is effectively Java's crude, limited version of closures).
Because a local inner class is neither the member of a class or package, it is not declared with an access level. (Be clear, however, that its own members have access levels like in a normal class.)
Comment: I mentioned that "without keeping it as private member"
Comment: sir Can you atleast briefly what you mean by
" even if the variable has gone out of scope " sir.
Answer: To understand the rationale for this restriction, consider the following program:
public class Program {

    interface Interface {
        public void printInteger();
    }
    static Interface interfaceInstance = null;

    static void initialize(int val) {
        class Impl implements Interface {
            @Override
            public void printInteger() {
                System.out.println(val);
            }
        }
        interfaceInstance = new Impl();
    }

    public static void main(String[] args) {
        initialize(12345);
        interfaceInstance.printInteger();
    }
}

The interfaceInstance remains in memory after the initialize method returns, but the parameter val does not.  The JVM can't access a local variable outside its scope, so Java makes the subsequent call to printInteger work by copying the value of val to an implicit field of the same name within interfaceInstance.  The interfaceInstance is said to have captured the value of the local parameter.  If the parameter weren't final (or effectively final) its value could change, becoming out of sync with the captured value, potentially causing unintuitive behavior.
Answer: Well, in Java, a variable can be final not just as a parameter, but as a class-level field, like
public class Test
{
 public final int a = 3;

or as a local variable, like
public static void main(String[] args)
{
 final int a = 3;

If you want to access and modify a variable from an anonymous class, you might want to make the variable a class-level variable in the enclosing class.
public class Test
{
 public int a;
 public void doSomething()
 {
  Runnable runnable =
   new Runnable()
   {
    public void run()
    {
     System.out.println(a);
     a = a+1;
    }
   };
 }
}

You can't have a variable as final and give it a new value. final means just that: the value is unchangeable and final.
And since it's final, Java can safely copy it to local anonymous classes. You're not getting some reference to the int (especially since you can't have references to primitives like int in Java, just references to Objects).
It just copies over the value of a into an implicit int called a in your anonymous class.
Comment: I associate "class-level variable" with  `static`. Maybe it is more clear if you use "instance variable" instead.
Comment: well, I used class-level because the technique would work with both instance and static variables.
Comment: we already know that final are accessible but we want to know why? can you please add some more explanation on why side?
Answer: The reason why the access has been restricted only to the local final variables is that if all the local variables would be made accessible then they would first required to be copied to a separate section where inner classes can have access to them and maintaining multiple copies of mutable local variables may lead to inconsistent data. Whereas final variables are immutable and hence any number of copies to them will not have any impact on the consistency of data.
Comment: This is not how it is implemented in languages like C# that support this feature. In fact, the compiler changes the variable from a local variable to an instance variable, or it creates an extra data structure for these variables that can outlife the scope of the outer class. However, there are no "multiple copies of local variables"
Comment: Mike76 I haven't had a look at C#'s implementation, but Scala does the second thing you mentioned I think: If an `Int` is being reassigned to inside a closure, change that variable to an instance of `IntRef` (essentially a mutable `Integer` wrapper). Every variable access is then rewritten accordingly.
Answer: When an anonymous inner class is defined within the body of a method, all variables declared final in the scope of that method are accessible from within the inner class. For scalar values, once it has been assigned, the value of the final variable cannot change. For object values, the reference cannot change. This allows the Java compiler to "capture" the value of the variable at run-time and store a copy as a field in the inner class. Once the outer method has terminated and its stack frame has been removed, the original variable is gone but the inner class's private copy persists in the class's own memory.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_%28Java%29)
Answer: Methods within an anonomyous inner class may be invoked well after the thread that spawned it has terminated. In your example, the inner class will be invoked on the event dispatch thread and not in the same thread as that which created it. Hence, the scope of the variables will be different. So to protect such variable assignment scope issues you must declare them final.
Answer: private void f(Button b, final int a[]) {

    b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {

        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
            a[0] = a[0] * 5;

        }
    });
}

Answer: As Jon has the implementation details answer an other possible answer would be that the JVM doesn't want to handle write in record that have ended his activation.
Consider the use case where your lambdas instead of being apply, is stored in some place and run later.
I remember that in Smalltalk you would get an illegal store raised when you do such modification.
Answer: Try this code,
Create Array List and put value inside that and return it :
private ArrayList f(Button b, final int a)
{
    final ArrayList al = new ArrayList();
    b.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {

         @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {
             int b = a*5;
             al.add(b);
        }
    });
    return al;
}

Comment: OP is asking for reasons as to why something is required. Hence you should point out how your code is addressing it
Answer: Java anonymous class is very similar to Javascript closure, but Java implement that in different way. (check Andersen's answer)
So in order not to confuse the Java Developer with the strange behavior that might occur for those coming from Javascript background. I guess that's why they force us to use final, this is not the JVM limitation.
Let's look at the Javascript example below:
var add = (function () {
  var counter = 0;

  var func = function () {
    console.log("counter now = " + counter);
    counter += 1;
  };

  counter = 100; // line 1, this one need to be final in Java

  return func;

})();

add(); // this will print out 100 in Javascript but 0 in Java

In Javascript, the counter value will be 100, because there is only one counter variable from the beginning to end.
But in Java, if there is no final, it will print out 0, because while the inner object is being created, the 0 value is copied to the inner class object's hidden properties. (there are two integer variable here, one in the local method, another one in inner class hidden properties)
So any changes after the inner object creation (like line 1), it will not affect the inner object. So it will make confusion between two different outcome and behaviour (between Java and Javascript).
I believe that's why, Java decide to force it to be final, so the data is 'consistent' from the beginning to end.
Answer: Java final variable inside an inner class[About]
inner class can use only

reference from outer class
final local variables from out of scope which are a reference type (e.g. Object...)
value(primitive) (e.g. int...) type can be wrapped by a final reference type. IntelliJ IDEA can help you covert it to one element array

When a non static nested (inner class) is generated by compiler - a new class - <OuterClass>$<InnerClass>.class is created and bounded parameters are passed into constructor[Local variable on stack] It is similar to closure[Swift about]
final variable is a variable which can not be reassign. final reference variable still can be changed by modifying a state
If it was be possible it would be weird because as a programmer you could make like this
//Not possible
private void foo() {

    MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); //Case 1: myClass address is 1
    int a = 5;                       //Case 2: a = 5

    //just as an example
    new Button().addClickHandler(new ClickHandler() {

        @Override
        public void onClick(ClickEvent event) {

            /*
            myClass.something(); //<- what is the address - 1 or 2?
            int b = a; //<- what is the value - 5 or 10 ?

            //illusion that next changes are visible for Outer class
            myClass = new MyClass();
            a = 15;
            */
        }
    });

    myClass = new MyClass(); //Case 1: myClass address is 2
    int a = 10; //Case 2: a = 10
}

Answer:  public class Closure {
  public void publicMethod() {
    Integer localVariable1 = 10;

    Map<String, Integer> map = new HashMap<String, Integer>() {
      {
        put("a", localVariable1);
      }
    };

    Thread t = new Thread(new Runnable() {
      public void run() {
        System.out.println(localVariable1);
      }
    });

    List<String> list = Arrays.asList("A", "B", "C");

    Collections.sort(list, new Comparator<String>() {
      public int compare(String p1, String p2) {
        return p1.compareTo(p2);
      }
    });
  }
}

After compilation, the above would result in 4 classes (3 AIC and 1 parent class)
During runtime if Java would have allowed to update localVariable1 or list, it would make the compiled classes invalid and the map would contain outdated data
To avoid such inconsistent behaviour java forces it to be final or effectively final
Answer: Maybe this trick gives u an idea
Boolean var= new anonymousClass(){
    private String myVar; //String for example
    @Overriden public Boolean method(int i){
          //use myVar and i
    }
    public String setVar(String var){myVar=var; return this;} //Returns self instane
}.setVar("Hello").method(3);


Multiple RGB values for a single black

Question: I am very new to blender and would like to understand the mistake I am doing with the color ramp node. I am currently using color ramp to assign different textures to each object in my scene. The complete surface should have the same RGB value. I then use this rendered image and filter out objects based on the pixel values. I have created a simple scene with 2 default cubes(pass index for the bottom cube in 0 and for the upper cube is 1) and added the color ramp settings as shown in the image. But, when I render with this settings, the RGB values on the surface are not uniform. Can someone please help me with this issue. I am using Blender 2.8.
Answer: If you over expose your render you can see patern.
Render saved as PNG 8-bit. Nothing is pluged into Surface socket of Material Output node. Tested with Eevee, Cycles, Samples ... all same result. Even if compression is set to zero.

The only difference did PNG saved as 16-bit. Completely black. So I guess OpenEXR will work as well. So the issue comes from output file format.

... and just for lovers of generic graphics - JPEG

And as mentioned already - Cryptomatte seems to me as a better friend, especially for material. With this ColorRamp 0/1 option I can't imagine to work on more complex object.
Comment: If this A is correct for you, consider mark Q as Solved by click on check mark vote number, so others can see it as answered from list of Q. You can uncheck it any time.
Answer: The first thing I noticed is that you're plugging the Color Ramp directly into the material output without running that first through a shader node like "diffuse" or "Principled BSDF". Not sure if that would fix your problem. Although, Considering your end goal of filtering out objects by the color value, you should look into the Cryptomatte feature. That is basically its purpose and it's a super-powerful feature that many 3d apps and compositing programs support. You might give it a try instead of your current method.
https://docs.blender.org/manual/en/latest/compositing/types/matte/cryptomatte.html
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VBJQM-gIob8
edit:
Just a little info also on why you're seeing different colors across the object. The color your pushing is still being effected the lighting in the scene. If you add the color ramp to an emission shader the color should be even across the object. As a side hint, you don't need to open your render in another image editor to check the color values. Just right-click hold on the image in the rendered window and you'll see a black footer show up with all the color info an more.
Comment: Pluging ColorRamp directly is the best way to avoid any other influence of light in a scene. And YES Cryptomatte is probably the best option (thanks to antialiased edges), but less comfortable for compositing (so many connections) and also produce edge issue for overlaping pixels.
Comment: You might be right on plugging the color ramp directly, I've always thought it was more efficient to run something through a shader, that way the output was receiving the right type of data. Can't find any info on this though. As for Cryptomatte, I've never had issues with overlapping pixels. I've been using it for years on different apps. I do know that the quality of the matte is based on the amount of samples in the render.

Multiple RGB values for a single black


40-yr mortgage loan with a 30-yr balloon payment

Question: if I'm only 17 years into my 40-yr mortgage w/a balloon pmt at 30 yrs, when I refinance do I only need to pay for 17 yrs of amortized principal payments at that time?
Answer: You will need to pay the balance on the loan, remaining principal (probably most of it if this is a balloon loan) plus any interest that has not been paid along the way and instead was rolled into the balloon.
If you'd been paying nothing, you would owe the entire principal plus 17 years of compounded interest.
You didn't say what you have been paying or what the interest rate on the loan is, which makes being more specific difficult, but the bank can always tell you what it would cost to close out your loan; contact them and ask.


Machine Learning in Insurance industry

Question: Is anyone here aware of any research study or industrial application where ML algorithms have been employed to reduce Adverse Selection and Moral Hazard risk in Insurance market?
Answer: I haven't seen the specifical cases you mention , but I know of machine learning within insurance, and the types of models I've seen being used always depended on the criticality of the data and use of the results.
So a more general answer: if they need to justify all modelling decisions (as is often the case in insurance), they stick to more traditional models, such as logistic regression, tree-based methods and the like. More cutting-edge models are considered black-boxes.
If the project if more about analysing ad-hoc topics and non-core businesses, but which could perhaps support core business decisions (or otherwise), then anything is game: from stacked bidirectional LSTMs on word embeddings of their contracts to capsule networks on images scraped from social media websites.
I suppose you could model Moral Hazard similarly to fraud, in which case there are plenty of examples to be found online. I think there was even a Kaggle competition on that.

Machine Learning in Insurance industry


Origin of the name Manhattan

Question: What is the origin of the name Manhattan?
Answer: According to this 2004 article in the New York Times, it's probably from the Lenape language word Mannahatta, with a likely meaning "island of many hills."
Answer:
The name Manhattan derives from the word Manna-hata, as written in the 1609 logbook of Robert Juet, an officer on Henry Hudson's yacht Halve Maen (Half Moon). A 1610 map depicts the name Manahata twice, on both the west and east sides of the Mauritius River (later named the Hudson River). The word "Manhattan" has been translated as "island of many hills" from the Lenape language.
Comment: +1, though asking people to first check Wikipedia or Google is generally considered rude on StackExchange sites. The idea is that we want to build the ultimate resource, i.e. we want to have all questions covered, even those already answered elsewhere. See Meta for further discussion, e.g. http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/8724/how-to-deal-with-google-questions or http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/52415/should-i-ask-a-question-that-has-readily-available-answers-to-it-not-on-stackover
Comment: The New York Time reference is the original source for the Wikipedia claim.
Comment: Well okay, "all questions covered" might be useful regarding to a Google search (the search has to 'end' somewhere) but since Wikipedia is, by definition, a encyclopedia that would be where I'd expect a question like this one being answered. But this is not the right place for that kind of discussion ;-)
Answer: The book, "The Englishman's Guide-book to the United States and Canada," published in London in 1885 by Sampson Low, Marston, SEarle & Rivington says on page 20 "an Indian name, meaning "a place where everybody gets drunk."  I suppose this was some wild story made up for amusement, or who knows.   The full text is in Google Books.

Origin of the name Manhattan


Extension of a continuous preorder

Question: Given a compact metric space $X$ and a preorder $R$ on $X$ (a reflexive and transitive relation) which is continuous in the sense that the upper and lower contour set of any point,
\begin{equation*}
U(x):=\{y\in X: yRx\} ,\; \; L(x):=\{y\in X:xRy\}
\end{equation*}
are closed, is there a coherent completion of $X$ which is continuous in the above sense? Any help appreciated.
Comment: What is a coherent completetion of $X$ (maybe $R$ is meant?)
Comment: A completion of $R$ is a binary relation $S$ such that $S\supseteq R$ and $S$ is complete (i.e. total) . It is coherent if $xRy$ and $\lnot yRx$ imply $xSy$ and $\lnot ySx$. I know coherent completions exist as an application of Szilprajn theorem, but I cannot adapt the machinery of the theorem to guarantee the existence of a coherent completion which is also continuous
Answer: If such an extension $R'$ would exist, then consider the order topology $\mathcal{T}_<$ induced by $R'$, which I'll denote by $\le$ (and its strict version by $<$), which has $\{x \in X: x < a\}$ as a subbasic open (for $a \in X$). This subbasic set is exactly the complement of $U(a)$ for this $R'$. So this subbasic element is open in $X$. Similarly, all other subbasic sets of the form $\{x : x > a\}$ for $a \in X$ are also open in $X$ when $R'$ is continuous in your sense.
So $f: X \to (X, \mathcal{T}_<) \, f(x) = x$ is continuous and as all order topologies are Hausdorff, we get by a standard result that the topology of $X$ is exactly the order topology induced by this extension.
But not all compact spaces are orderable, e.g. take $X= [0,1]^2$ and this already fails: in a connected orderable space, there are at most $2$ non-cutpoints. And $[0,1]^2$ has more.

Extension of a continuous preorder


Aftdr opening yeast

Question: I have just used dried yeast for a bread in the bread maker but there is still a lot left how long will it still be good to use after opening it and closing it properly because the booklet of the bread maker says once opened throw it away  up I find that a waste
Answer: My dried yeast keeps well enough in the fridge after opening. It is essentially freeze dried, as long as you keep it air tight and in the fridge it should last a long time, even well after the best before date. I know someone still using dried bakers yeast first opened in the year 2000 so I wouldn't worry.

Aftdr opening yeast


When would you use 'jeder' preceded by an indefinite article?

Question: I am looking at the declension tables for 'jeder' here. I'm confused why the 'with indefinite article' portion of the table exists. That is, when would you ever say something like 'a/an every/each [something]'? I am a native English speaker and the only (weak) parallel I can draw is something like the awkward and possibly incorrect 'This is an everybody occasion' (same meaning as the much more common and obviously correct 'This is an occasion for everybody') and similar awkward constructions.
Answer: It's actually fairly common use in German:
<code>"Wie ein jeder weiß"
"As everyone knows"
</code>
Not that I can think of too many examples in other realms than pointing out the obvious (or assumed common).
Comment: I guess I mean, is it purely up to the speaker whether to use an indefinite article or not, or is there a rule that changes the meaning?
Comment: Ok, so it's just a German way of speaking that doesn't translate, because you could never say "As an everyone knows" in English. But, "Wie ein jeder weiß" means the same as "Wie jeder weiß", right?
Comment: No, there's no rule demanding to use one. It's a question of personal preference, or "feeling stylish" =} ...
Answer: German and English are both west-germanic languages, so they are closely related to each other and have many features in common. But there are also hundreds of grammatical features that are different, and where you can't find parallels in the other language.
The construction »ein jeder« is such a case without parallels in English. In English you have only »everybody« or »each«, but German allows both: »jeder« as well as »ein jeder«.
Both versions are interchangeable and they mean quite the same. Adding the article just emphasizes the fact, that really everyone (without any exception) is meant. Depending on context, the version without articles could also be interpreted as »everybody, with some few exceptions«. »Ein jeder« points out, that exceptions are very unlikely.
But »ein jeder« is less often used, and in most cases »jeder« (without article) is better style (very often »ein jeder« is really bad style).
This also works in other genders, not only male:

female (die Münze / the coin = female)

Eine jede Münze hat zwei Seiten. (bad style)
  Jede Münze hat zwei Seiten.
  Each coin has two sides.

neuter (das Kind / the child = neuter)

Ein jedes Kind weint manchmal.
  Jedes Kind weint manchmal.
  Every child cries sometimes.

male (der Baum / the tree = male)

Ein jeder Baum hat Wurzeln.
  Jeder Baum hat Wurzeln.
  Every tree has roots.

generic (meaning everyone, all genders)

Hier ist ein jeder willkommen.
  Hier ist jeder willkommen.
  Everybody is welcome here.

But as said before: The version without article is always the version with the better style. So when you write or speak, better don't use that article. But when you read or hear it you should know that it is an allowed version.
You might read or hear the generic usage more often than the versions where you use it together with a noun. It rarely is used together with a noun as shown in my first three examples, so the chances are low that you will hear or read such a sentence.
Comment: [jeder/(gehoben:) ein jeder darf mitmachen](http://www.duden.de/rechtschreibung/jeder)
Comment: It might be worth mentioning that the *jeder* when following *ein* has mixed declension, and strong declension when alone; this is similar to adjective declension. Wiktionary says the *ein* is always used for the pronoun in the genitive; I'm a bit skeptical though since I haven't seen it mentioned anywhere else.
Answer: I'd like to throw in a different suggestion, taking tink's example sentence:
Compare "Wie ein jeder weiß" with "Wie jeder weiß".
Sure, both can be translated as "As everyone knows". But in English you also have a slightly different way to translate it is "As every single one knows". IMHO The difference in English between these two sentences reflects the difference in meaning in the German sentences as well:
"Wie ein jeder weiß" <-> "As every single one knows"
"Wie jeder weiß" <-> "As everyone knows"
In either language one could use in most situations one sentence or the other as the difference in meaning is small - but the first puts a special emphasis and implies that the statement applies to every single member of the group without exception.
Answer: This might only be worth the status of a comment, but I think it is relevant.
Maybe it is so that the "ein" in "ein jeder" isn't the indefinite article at all, but the count word?? E.g. we say in Swedish "var och en" (=every and one), where I don't believe that the "en" is an article, but a count word. In Swedish as in German the indefinite article is a homonyme with the count word for one, wherease they're different words in English.
As a matter of fact, and what is easily overlooked, this "one" is also present in the English expression "everyone", which points to a possible common root of the expressions.
Comment: You mean *one*? Not an indefinite article, but still a good observation. From what I could find, *jeder* is cognate with *either*, but not with *each* or *every* (or that relationship goes even further back).
Comment: @CarstenS   You're of course correct, that "one" is not an indefinate article. I will correct that. Maybe it is so that the "ein" in "ein jeder" isn't the indefinite article at all, but the count word?? We say in Swedish "var och en" (=every and one) where I don't believe that the "en" is an article, but a count word
Comment: In German we also can say *»jeder und einer«* in which case *»einer«* in which case it is neither an article nor a count word but an indefinite pronoun like in *»Einer flog über das Kuckucksnest«* or *»Darf ich auch einen haben?«*
Answer: If it is at all useful as a memory jog, there is a children's song "Hände waschen"  in which the words "muss ein jedes Kind" get repeated several times. It's the way my brain works, maybe not for everyone. Musical context triggers acquisition for me.
https://youtu.be/CFLT4Q_i7Hg


How do I change my email address in Call of Duty: Elite?

Question: I entered the email address wrong and now it won't verify and complains every time I log in
Answer: Go to http://www.callofduty.com/elite and create a new account. Follow all the steps, then at the end link your Xbox Live or PSN account to your newly-created Elite account. Your old Elite account will no longer be associated. Log out and log in of Xbox Live or PSN on your console, and you're gold.
Comment: If you managed to solve the problem yourself, you should mark this as the solution.


Is it possible to create an invisible rule in Mail?

Question: I'd like to apply a mail filtering rule within Mail without it appearing in the rules list. Is there any way to make this happen, either from within, or from outside the app?
Answer: No you cannot do that within Mail.app.
However you can add for example a mail filtering proxy that sits between your mail provider and Mail.app. This proxy will be able to filter away mail without Mail.app displaying that it does so. Depending on your mail provider it might also be able to move mail into subfolders, etc. (for example this is possible on IMAP).
Comment: Thank you very much for the answer and the workaround. I will look into this.


HAProxy doesn't support SSL

Question: Is there a way around using HAProxy with SSL? I know the new version is supposed to support that, but how stable is that? Are there any things I need to consider for setting up a load balancer with https?
Comment: should not this question be in SuperUser?
Answer: i use it for ssl.  config it as tcp.  and use the ssl-hello-chk.
Answer: Come on, it is in development, nobody will guarantee you that it's safe and stable enough to use it in production.
Development version is stable enough for me, i've been using it for a while. However, as i said, it is your decision to test it, use it, or trust someone else. You can try alternatives like pound and wait for the stable relase. If you are sure that stable release will be much more safer :)
Answer: FWIW, 1.5-dev17 + latest fixes seems reasonably stable, which does not mean there are no bugs left, of course. Alternatively, if you really need not to worry about tracking bug fixes, you could go for a commercially supported version (or even an appliance) which involves a fork of a development version with all fixes backported.

HAProxy doesn't support SSL


Transform orientation Issues

Question: I 100% know that someone has probably asked this question but why is my orientations (Global and Local) all funked up. Why are my extrusions going off in different directions? Photo on what I mean below...
Comment: Are you using the transform gizmo? It's shown in the picture.
If you use E for extrude, and it goes up like that on the Z axis, I can't imagine why without seeing your file.
Answer: you use Global transformation orientation at the moment. only to do is to shift transformation orientation to Normal and the gizmo will re-orientate perpendicular to selected plane.

Transform orientation Issues


How can I connect the Interactive Brokers TWS API to Mathematica using RLink for automated trading?

Question: I do know there is documentation for the IB TWS Java API. However, instead of Java, I would like to establish a connection between Mathematica and the IBrokers API module using RLink as a 'proxy' to perform automated trading. How might I go about doing this?
Comment: Could you expand on what the advantage would be of approaching the problem this way? The approach you ask about seems quite a bit more complex than the existing solution you mention in your question.
Answer: It may be possible - as noted by @MarcoB its quite a convoluted way of doing things.  I would just download R and RStudio and work from there.
However if you are set on using IBrokers via the R api via RLink try this (disclaimer it crashed for me on 10.1) :
<code>Needs["RLink`"];

InstallR[];

REvaluate["install.packages(\"IBrokers\")"];
REvaluate["library(IBrokers)"];
</code>
Then follow the R API guide here.  Note that it says the API is single threaded so you may run into some timing issues or other limitations if you are trying to execute or monitor multiple things at once.


Avoid figures encroaching on page numbers with LyX

Question: I'm using LyX and have figures in floats and wraps but some of them are too high on the page when converted to PDF and overlap with page numbers.  Is there a way to avoid this and respect the text margins that are set?
Answer: Set the width and/or height of the image inside the fugure menu. Mouse over the image, then right click.
Comment: I guess i'll have to play with it because now it moved everything so that the image is by itself on the page even after gong back to the settings I had. :( But thanks! I thought the bounding box would crop it.


Do Word Formation Rules have to do only with polymorphemic words?

Question: Word Formation Rules are responsible for the existence of well formed words. Are simple words (single, free morphemes) the result of word formation rules?
Comment: This would surely depend on the linguistic framework you're considering. In some they wouldn't be and others they would.
Answer: I once proposed that English verbs do not allow two or more contiguous unstressed syllables, with the exception of denominal verbs, which have the same pronunciation as the noun they are derived from.  For instance, "antagonize", ANTAGonIZE, has only unstressed syllable, but if it were a noun, two contiguous unstressed syllables would be possible: *ANtagoNIZE.
But verbs referring to use of a device of the same name must be excepted from the general rule.  MImeoGRAPH as a verb means to use a MImeoGRAPH, which has two contiguous unstressed syllables.  To CALendar an event is to note it on one's CALendar.
So the rule of denominal verb formation does not change the number of morphemes or the stress of a word, and if you start with a single morpheme noun, you'll wind up with a single morpheme verb.
Answer: Word-formation rules are generally assumed to combine an existing element with something. The initial element in a derivation is inserted by a lexical insertion rule. However, nothing important follows from distinguishing "word-formation" and "lexical-insertion", so they can be subsumed under one general rule concept.


What is the complexity of big-$O$ $O(N \times \mathrm{log}_2(N))$ vs real operations

Question: I usually see books/references writing the complexity of such operations as $O(N \times \mathrm{log}_2(N))$; For example, the complexity of FFT/IFFT operation is $O(N \times \mathrm{log}_2(N))$. However, that operations requires approximately $5N \mathrm{log}_2(N)$ real operations (real additions + real multiplications). So I was wondering what is the complexity of big-$O$ in function of number of real operations? Can it be expressed by number of real operations?
Comment: "of such operations".  Of _what sort_ of operations?  Or do you mean "of some operations"?  Please _edit your question_ for clarity.  A citation would be helpful, too.
Answer: Big O abstracts away knowledge about multiplies and adds and complex math, and focuses on how (whatever operations) scale when you increase N.
For the case of FFTs, the core operation that motivate the development of the algorithm may have been «multiplies» or «complex mult-add», but in real machines the bottle-neck often is more complex. Like cache layout, simd instructions or something else.
So we pick an algorithm that have been optimized for one set of resources, implement it on a machine with a different set of resources, then fiddle around until it executes fast enough.
Comment: "then fiddle around until it executes fast enough" You forgot the "while pretending that we're doing pre-planned design".
Answer: Look at any definition of big-O notation (i.e., the Wikipedia one).
$f(x)$ is said to be $\mathcal O\left(g(x)\right)$ if there is some finite number $A$ such that $|f(x)|$ is always less than $A g(x)$ as $x \to \infty$. Here, $g(x)$ is assumed to be strictly positive for all $x \geq  x_0$.
$A$ does not have to be known for the above statement to be true -- it just has to be known to exist, and to be finite.
So, it's been proven for a long time, by people better at math than me, that the algorithmic complexity of the FFT is $\mathcal O \left(N \log N\right)$.  But this still leaves room for clever people to come up with ways to reduce $A$.
Note that this seems to lead to trivial results -- but if you know the algorithmic complexity of something, you can get an immediate idea of how well it will scale.  Something that's easy for five items but has an algorithmic complexity of $\mathcal O (N!)$ is probably not a good candidate for expanding out to 5000 items.  On the other hand, something that's moderately hard for five items but has an algorithmic complexity of $\mathcal O (\log N)$ is going to be a slam dunk* to expand to 5000 items.
* I doubt any real algorithm is that easy -- I'm purposely choosing an absurd lower extreme.
Comment: OK, I have corrected your update a little and removed my downvote.  As to the rest of your post, the issue is that $O$-notation only tells you of the asymptotic behavior, not the behavior for smaller $x$. For example, when $N=16$, $5N\log_2N$ equals $320$ while $N^2$ is $256$.
Comment: No,Tim, what Wikipedia says is not quite what you claim it says. $f(x)$ doesn't _converge_ to $Ag(x)$ as $x \to \infty$, but rather that there is an $x_0$ such that for all $x >  x_0$, $|f(x)| \leq Ag(x)$ where $g(x)$ is a strictly positive function for all large values of $x$.  For example, $x^3+x^2+x+1 = O(x^3)$ even though $f(x)$ does not _converge_ to $Ax^3$ even for $A=1$; the difference between $x^3+x^2+x+1$ and $Ax^3$ increases without bound as $x \to \infty$. -1 pending corrections.
Comment: I quite like your $\mathcal O(N!)$ nightmare example! For example, a decoding algorithm that would need to try all permutations of a received sequence of length $N$ (e.g. because these were words sent through a reordering network) would have to do (exactly, but also) $\mathcal O(N!)$ tests , whereas if the sequence could be correctly ordered by some property, that complexity would reduce to (e.g. through heapsort) to an $\mathcal O (N \log N)$.
Comment: @DilipSarwate: Thank you.  I've corrected my text (hopefully).  I knew that.  Really, honest, I did!  That part of my brain must just have been asleep.
Answer: That's literally the point of big-O notation: you can't tell that. All you can give is an upper bound of the growth.
Comment: Hi! There's been a downvote. That's very fine! I might be wrong, or the answer might be badly worded. I thought it was correct and on-point, so if the downvoter could come back and comment what's wrong about the answer, I'd love to improve it :)
Comment: I didn't downvote your answer but it is indeed badly worded and misleading.
Comment: @DilipSarwate hey, thanks for the feedback :)


Single Click navigation in File Browser

Question: I thought this would've been asked many times, but I can't find it. Forgive my novice, but I can't seem to find out how to make the File Browser navigate through folders using a single click. Ex: I want to open a file so I open the file browser. In the last version I had (2.81) I could click a folder and it would automatically open the next level down until I got to the file. For some reason, I opened v2.93 and now I have to double click each folder to get to the next level down. I know it's trivial, but it's so much faster to single click to open. Thanks for your help!
Answer: From: https://b3d.interplanety.org/en/how-to-open-folders-by-a-single-click-in-blender-2-8x/

Go to menu Edit > Preferences > Keymap.
Expand tree node File Browser > File Browser Main.
Expand Select | Mouse | Left Mouse key-map.
Tick the Open checkbox.
Click Save Preferences button in the lower left corner of the preferences window
Comment: Thanks so much, Edy! I like learning more and more about Blender, but it still seems like such a complicated application. Maybe they'll make it more intuitive in years to come.

Single Click navigation in File Browser


What is the Difference between Broadcast hash join and Broadcast Nested loop join in Spark?

Question: What is the Difference between Broadcast hash join and Broadcast Nested loop join in Spark?
in Which scenario spark will pick which and which one is faster?
Answer: You can get some information from the source code:

Broadcast hash join (BHJ):
Only supported for equi-joins, while the join keys do not need to be sortable. Supported for all join types except full outer joins. BHJ
usually performs faster than the other join algorithms when the
broadcast side is small. However, broadcasting tables is a
network-intensive operation and it could cause OOM or perform badly in
some cases, especially when the build/broadcast side is big.
Broadcast nested loop join (BNLJ):
Supports both equi-joins and non-equi-joins.
Supports all the join types, but the implementation is optimized for:
1) broadcasting the left side in a right outer join;
2) broadcasting the right side in a left outer, left semi, left anti or existence join;
3) broadcasting either side in an inner-like join.
For other cases, we need to scan the data multiple times, which can be rather slow.
Comment: How can i avoid Broadcast nested loop join ?
Answer: Below are the key differences with Broadcast hash join and Broadcast nested loop join in spark,

Broadcast hash join - A broadcast join copies the small data to the worker nodes which leads to a highly efficient and super-fast join. When we are joining two datasets and one of the datasets is much smaller than the other (e.g when the small dataset can fit into memory), then we should use a Broadcast Hash Join. So it has more efficiently used by developer, when performing left join, right join and inner join. It is something similar like map side join.
Broadcast nested loop join - In nested join for each row of first data set is iterate over every row of other dataset which may degrade performance in join operation.But in certain situation like join keys are not fixed as well as the query is qualified as broadcastable or not, according to the data statistics (size or broadcast hint). If neither of them is evaluated as true and the join type is inner, the query is executed with CartesianProductExec. In this cases BroadcastNestedLoopJoinExec is taken. One of the places where nested loop join is used independently on the dataset size is cross join resulting on cartesian product. In this situation each row from the left table is returned together with every row from the right table, if there is no predicate defined. Apache Spark provides a support for such type of queries with org.apache.spark.sql.execution.joins.BroadcastNestedLoopJoinExec physical operator. It's used when neither broadcast hash join nor shuffled hash join nor sort merge join can be used to execute the join statement.
Comment: 2nd point, data broadcasted  or not? implied but then conditional as you state.impression from other answer that it is still broadcasted?
Comment: Yes, the data is broad casted, In Spark SQL, it is handled by the physical operator called BroadcastNestedLoopJoinExec that broadcasts appropriate side of the query to all executors and most of time returns a cartesian product.


What is the "protection circle" in Tumbbad made of?

Question: I have understood that Vinayak Rao feeds dolls made of flour to Hastar. I haven't understood what is the substance that he used to make the protection circle. Surely, both the substance used to make the doll and the protection circle can't be flour.
Comment: Please add to your question a reason _why knowing is important to understanding or appreciating the movie_.
Comment: https://www.quora.com/How-come-Hastar-in-Tumbbad-be-able-to-eat-dolls-of-flour-even-though-he-burns-even-on-the-slight-touch-of-flour
Comment: Circle was made of flour too, I think  it's more ir what is offered to him as doll or prohibited to him
Answer: Circle was made of flour. Here's why,
Go back to scene where Vinayak has taken Pandurang(his son) into Goddesses' womb to practice their act, while Pandurang makes protection circle with flour this is their conversation:

PANDURANG makes a protective circle with the flour on
the heaving floor.
VINAYAK: Yeh Lakshman-Rekha ki tarah hai. Hastar isse paar nahi kar sakta. [This is like forbidden line. Hastar cannot cross this.]
PANDURANG: Aur kiya toh? [And what if he did?]
VINAYAK: Bhasm ho jayega. Yaad kar... Sona toh utha liya tha usne Devi ka, par anaaj nahi utha paya tha...Issi liye usse iss aate ki bhook bhi hai, aur darr bhi. [Then he will burn to ashes. Remember! He took the Goddesses' gold but wasn't able to take foodgrains, that's why he has hunger for food as well as fear of it.]

This is evident from the final scene where one "copy" of Hastar turns to ashes when it crosses the protection circle(sphere).