No text alert for one person only - iPhone 8

Question: My wife bought a new iPhone 8 and her text alerts work for everyone in her contacts except me. I've checked the phone, and hide alerts is not activated, and do not disturb is not turned on. There are no moon icon's anywhere to disable. When I text her, the little dot next to the message in her message list isn't there to signify a new text. We've tried switching on the DND and then turning it off, switching on hide alerts for that conversation only and then turning it off. Powered the phone off and on, deleted and re-added my contact to her contacts - nothing works. Any suggestions?
Comment: Welcome to Ask Different :) Please consider [editing](https://apple.stackexchange.com/posts/335587/edit) your post to specify the version of iOS running on your wife's iPhone 8. Also specify if your wife is using any other Apple device(s) logged in with the same Apple ID as on the iPhone 8.
Answer: Did you add yourself as a new contact then choose what ringtone you want and text tone? Alert tones is on, and vibration?
Answer: Im sure you checked to make sure you are not blocked by going to Phone app, Recents, finding your number then scrolling down to see Block or unBlock this number. I do not know very much about Wi-Fi Calling, but check to see it that is on. Then check Messages to see if iMessages is on, because it could be set to use your Apple ID that you can be reached at. Or if you are in a separate list of people not in the contacts list and being filtered. I also just now noticed a setting in Messages Audio Messages with option of Raise to Listen and Expire after 2min or 30days. Then check Messenger if she has it.
Comment: Thank you so much for the suggestions! Yes, I added myself as a new contact and assigned a separate alert tone with the hopes it would fix things. I did not check to see if I'm blocked though. I just texted my wife to ask her to do this (we'll see when she actually notices). iMessages is definitely on, but I'm not sure what settings are in place for our Apple IDs. Will also investigate the raise to listen option. I'll let you know if that works...


Bloody dirt texture?

Question: Im trying to get a bloody dirt texture/effect like the reference I have here. The terrain is easy with some noise and displacement but how can I can that blood soaked look?
Comment: Are you using a displacement modifier, or are you doing displacement via shader?
Comment: Im using a displacement modifier with a clouds texture and scatter add on for the rocks.
Answer: First I would make a "splotch" by warping the vectors of a Spherical Gradient Texture with a Noise Texture (softened by mixing with white first) and then cutting it off with a ColorRamp.

Then, use that "splotch" as a mix factor between your main texture and a red color (set to multiply to ""lay" the red over the base texture). Also, use it as a mix factor between your roughness texture and a dark color, to make the blood "shiny":
Comment: Ah, So much simpler than I would have thought. Thanks Chris!

Bloody dirt texture?


Generalize or specialize?

Question: If you are starting a freelance product description writing business, do you generalize or specialize? In other words, do you offer writing in an area like "product descriptions for tech companies" or does that limit business too much?
Comment: What's your training, what languages are you able to realistically translate between? Do you have partners with different skills - what are they?
Answer: This is a form of copywriting (ad writing) and I'd say broadly specialize, but not by label. Mention broad types of products you feel good at writing about. Tech products, household appliances, kitchen appliances, automotive add-ons are examples.
Don't exclude anything or "go negative" in your ad, if somebody wants to contact you about art supplies, or fashion products, maybe you can do it.No need to proclaim all the things you refuse to do, that just makes you seem difficult to work with for legitimate customers that might have called you.
Specificity helps sell, but more important in copywriting is to write about how your service alleviates some (usually metaphorical) pain they have, or represents a new opportunity for gains they want. The value of product descriptions is saved time on their part, a focus on balancing brevity with clarity and accuracy, so you don't lose sales because the prospect's questions were not answered before they became bored or confused. (lost sales is the "pain"). Your service is fitting the best description possible, prioritizing the critical selling features, in the space allowed, by the catalog, the letter, the postcard, the Internet ad, the email, whatever it is. To maximize inquiries, sales, traffic, or whatever the customer needs.
I would make a description of the kinds of products you service (one per broad category) secondary to this, just to reassure your prospects you understand the different approaches to different categories.

Generalize or specialize?


Who is liable if somebody takes a check written to them before the funds are in place to cover it?

Question: This is hypothetical. Suppose I write out a rent check to my landlord, but I don't give it to him. Instead, I leave it on my desk because I still have to deposit funds to cover the check. Unbeknownst to me, the landlord enters my apartment while I'm away, sees the check, assumes he should take it, attempts to cash it, and it bounces. Am I liable for writing a bad check? Is the landlord liable for theft?
Comment: Theft by the landlord, unless he has an extremely good reason to assume that you left the check for him. If you always leave the check on your table and then tell him to enter and take it, maybe ... But it is still a bad idea to sign a check that isn't covered.
Answer: I'll take Washington state law to be typical. RCW 9a.56.060 is the criminal law governing rubber checks. Writing a check which you know at the time of drawing or delivering a check that has insufficient fund with intent to defraud is a crime. That's not the case here. It might appear to be theft on the part of the landlord, except that

In any prosecution for theft, it shall be a sufficient defense that:
(a) The property or service was appropriated openly and avowedly under
a claim of title made in good faith, even though the claim be
untenable

That is, he quite reasonably believed that it was intended for him (it is made out to him). As for civil liability, your "liability" arises from your contract with your bank, and unless you have a remarkable "not my fault" clause in the checking account agreement, you can't sue the bank to avoid the overdraft fees (except if bank breaches a promise to not cash a postdated check until the date written on the check, and the check is dated for some time after the check was deposited). You might attempt to sue the landlord, since his action caused you harm: if his act was negligent. If the rent was already due and you were in arrears, the landlord's act of taking the check to apply to your rent obligation (thus saving you from rent late fees) is what a reasonable person would do. But if the check was for rent due a month in the future, a reasonable person would know that they are not owed the rent at this time, and it is highly unlikely that you intended to hand over the check right now: taking and depositing the check would be neglectful of the ordinary care that the landlord owes you as a tenant, and he could be found liable for the damage that he did.
It is suggested in a comment by Ryan M that violation of the notice requirement under the Residential Landlord-Tenant act negates a good faith defense. State v. Hicks, 102 Wn.2d 182 concludes that

"Animus furandi", or the intent to steal, is an essential element of
the crime of robbery
...
the good faith claim of title defense negates the intent element of robbery

Nothing in the statutes or case law exists which demands completely clean hands in invoking a good faith defense. Use of force is illegal; but use of force in self defense is legal. The courts have not ruled that a person is deprived of that defense if they have committed a criminal act (landlord entering a residence is not a crime, it is a civil wrong), or if they have committed a tort act.
Comment: Landlords can't generally enter rented apartments without permission or cause. Wouldn't entering the apartment illegally negate a claim of good faith?
Comment: I agree that the landlord could be argued to be acting in good faith, but I'd also argue that the first excerpt of a valid defense doesn't apply. There might be some legalese I'm misinterpreting, but I wouldn't expect that taking a check from someone's apartment when they are not home and without their knowledge would qualify as "appropriating openly and avowedly".
Answer:
Unbeknownst to me, the landlord enters my apartment while I'm away, sees the check, assumes he should take it, attempts to cash it

Depends on whether the landlord was trespassing (which would be the case unless the reason he entered the apartment was an emergency, or your lease agreement grants him the right to enter it without notice as he pleases).
If he was trespassing, then he would have zero valid reasons to conclude that the check had been left for him to take, albeit it was in his name. He would have zero authorization from you in regards to the check. Taking it would be theft, and attempting to cash it would be attempted theft.
But if the landlord was not trespassing, then he would know that you would know that he may show up unannounced, and so that you may leave there things for him. The check would then pretty much fall into this bucket, so it would be no theft. (At least, he would have a very strong defense argument should theft be indicted)

Am I liable for writing a bad check?

Surely not if the landlord was trespassing. But if he was not, then there are two possible situations:

You have a history of leaving things for the landlord to take. You know that he may enter the apartment and take what appears to be left for him. Therefore, leaving  a check that will bounce would be your negligence. You are liable.

Although you know that the landlord may enter unannounced, you have no history of leaving things for him to take. As the check has his name on it, it would not be totally wrong for him to assume that you have left it for him, but he would have no standing to be reasonably certain about it either. Therefore he can take chances, but must take the risks too. Instead of giving you a call to double-check (pardon the pun), he jumps to conclusions. Although no crime committed, he is responsible for the consequences (check bouncing fee).
Comment: Not trespassing is not synonymous with reasonably inferring that the check was intended to be delivered to him. It is one relevant fact but not by any means the only one.
Comment: @ohwilleke Sure not synonymous. The point is that if he is trespassing that's _enough_ to invalidate any inferences: no other facts will make excuses. Isn't this true?
Answer: You are liable for the rent until a check is signed and delivered.
When a check is signed and delivered the liability for that rent is substituted for (or co-exists with) liability on the check.
If the check is honored, the rent is discharged and the liability on the check is discharged.
If the check is dishonored, the rent is still owed and there is also liability on the check which can be cleaner to prove or provide the landlord with additional remedies (e.g. a bounced check fee).
No liability arises from the check until is is signed and delivered.
Whether the fact pattern in the question constitutes a valid delivery of the check is a question of fact. The tenant clearly didn't intend to deliver it. The landlord may have been reasonable or unreasonable in assuming that the signed check was delivered to the landlord by leaving it on the table of the apartment and the facts and context will determine that close call.
If it was not delivered, the landlord should have deposited it if the landlord knew that it wasn't delivered (which might even be a crime), but is not a crime and maybe not even a tort, if the landlord believed in good faith that it was intended to be delivered and it wasn't.
Lack of intent to deliver the check, at a minimum, probably relieves the tenant of criminal liability for intentionally writing a bad check, if the tenant is believed. It might relieve the tenant of landlord bad check charges too, although getting the bank to relieve the bad check charges would be harder as the bank would blame the tenant for making the confusion possible.
Even if there is a finding of an intent to deliver, that doesn't end the inquiry of criminal liability. The statutes for bad checks usually have other factors including whether an account existed or was closed, whether the tenant promptly makes the check good, and whether the tenant could reasonably foresee that the check would bounce (e.g. if there was an unexpected charge to the tenant's account or a deposit of a check that the tenant was relying upon itself was a bad check).


T4MVC causing incorrect URL's

Question: Using T4MVC on my new MVC Razor Project and I will have an action link like so
<code>@Html.ActionLink(ViewRes.SharedStrings.HomeLink, MVC.Home.Views.Index, null, new { rel = "dropmenu7" })
</code>
so i would expect a url like
http://localhost:52122/Home/Index
but what i am getting is
http://localhost:52122/Home/~/Views/Home/Index.cshtml
looking into the t4mvc template file, i see where the "~/Views/Home/Index.cshtml" is coming from but I dont wanna touch it because it was made that way and i would guess i shouldnt have to change anything there.
Asking a friend, he says that i should use RouteLink instead of ActionLink because i am sometimes going to locations outside of the controller. However when i do that, i get: "A route named '~/Views/Home/Index.cshtml' could not be found in the route collection." when i try to run the app.
I guess i should also note that the links i am using are in the _Layout.cshtml
What am i doing wrong?
Answer: You need to change 'MVC.Home.Views.Index' to 'MVC.Home.Index()':
<code>@Html.ActionLink(ViewRes.SharedStrings.HomeLink, MVC.Home.Index(), null, new { rel = "dropmenu7" })
</code>

T4MVC causing incorrect URL's


Using the xcolor package

Question: When I use the command \usepackage{xcolor} I get an error saying xcolor.sty was not found. Even though other commands like \usepackage{amsmath} have worked. I am very new to LaTeX and am not sure why this is happening, and help would be greatly appreciated.
Comment: Welcome to the site! have a look at [How do I update my TeX distribution?](http://tex.stackexchange.com/q/55437) :)
Comment: I don't think it applies to me since I have Miktex not Tex Live?
Comment: Thank you everyone for the useful tips, I was finally able to install the package, and I realized my main problem was that I was not being allowed to install the packages due to some random security permissions problem (even though this is my own personal laptop), so I have to manually install a package everythime I need one:(
Answer: I don't think that this is an update issue. I think that the package is simply not installed.
MiKTeX has the option to install missing packages on-the-fly. You can check if this option is enabled by looking by opening the "Settings" application of your MiKTeX installation.
This application can be found by going to:"Start Menu --> MiKTeX 2.x --> Maintenance --> Settings". At the bottom of the first tab, the "General" tab, there should be the option to enable the "on-the-fly installation process". This should solve any issues with missing packages when you compile your documents.
In the same "Maintenance" folder you will also find the applications to update ("Update") and manually manage the packages to be isntalled/removed/updated ("Package Manager"). More information on those two can be found on the link provided by cmhughes.
I hope this has cleared some of the maintenance work needed to install/update/remove packages.

Using the xcolor package


How do CPU's evolve?

Question: Disclaimer: I'm not sure the appropriate SE to put this in, so if Super User is the wrong place I apologize. I realize this is a very broad and probably very complex answer, but how is it that every year/ two years CPU and in general computer engineers are able to improve the performance of said part? Today, the performance increases are more in efficiency rather than raw megahertz, I get that, but even then, how is said efficiency increased? The main thing that confuses me about it is how quickly new designs are made. I would think that efficiency-increasing ideas are hard to come by, so how is it that people have enough to release new generations as fast as they do?
Answer: The simple answer is that we don't see year-on-year improvements, so the premise isn't quite correct.
Keep in mind that the release cadence is for business reasons, not technical: there may not be significant improvement, but consumers expect a yearly release, so that's what they do.

The more complex answer is that there are many aspects to CPU performance:

The microarchitecture, which affects:

How quickly it can process specific instructions (instructions per cycle), which varies by instruction.
How quickly it can process sequences of instructions (things like pipelining, branch prediction, caching, etc.)
Which specialised instructions are supported (things like AES-NI, which hugely speeds up encryption, SIMD [SSE, AVX, etc.], which hugely speeds up large data tasks like image processing, etc.)
See more: https://superuser.com/a/906227/117590

The clock speed, which affects how many cycles you get per second. This has largely stalled but we're still trying to work out efficiency to get higher clocks without frying the CPU or requiring too much cooling.
The number of cores, which affects how many independent instruction streams can be processed at once. This is, again, limited by efficiency. See also: https://superuser.com/a/797486/117590

The now-old tick-tock model shows how this was handled in the past: one year, you'd see a microarchitecture improvement, then the next you'd see a "die shrink", increasing efficiency by using a smaller process size. While the die shrink was happening on the previous microarchitecture, the next-generation one could be worked on at the same time. More recently this is slowing down, because we're running out of little improvements to squeeze out on both the architectural and process size fronts.
For example, the recent Intel Coffee Lake generation had minimal improvements over Kaby Lake, which itself had minimal improvements over Skylake. The architecture itself has remained more or less the same, with some minor improvements in SIMD instructions and side improvements like in the memory controller. The headline change, if any, would be marginally higher clock speeds ... from the efficiency gains in the manufacturing process. Coffee Lake's headline change was an increase in core counts, likely largely for marketing purposes (competition with AMD).
Rarely, we also see large jumps, as with the old Intel Core and recent AMD Zen architectures. There are many design teams working on different architectures in parallel, and occasionally when the primary one's advancement stalls another architecture using different ideas can "take over" (Core replaced Netburst, Zen replaced the Excavator series).
And then outside of the desktop CPU world, we're seeing a huge push for power efficiency for battery-powered devices like laptops and tablets. That's been the headline feature of a lot of new architectures: they're not necessarily faster, but they're more efficient so your battery lasts longer.
Comment: @Corsair64 Because CPUs are insanely complex beasts. There are *many* minor tweaks you could apply ... but many of them will also have a negative impact elsewhere. Perfection is effectively impossible. They could take the time to tweak *everything* do one big release every 10 years, but that's where the business aspect comes into it. (Actually, that's almost what AMD's Zen did. Tiny tweaks to Excavator while working on a complete redesign with Zen.) Also, part of it is the new instructions to keep up with changing software requirements - e.g. SIMD/SSE was largely tied to early multimedia.
Comment: But there are obviously performance improvements, or at least efficiency improvements each year, or otherwise the 7700k and the 8700k would be identical. To be fair, the difference is quite small, but there still is one, so that is the premise of my question.
Comment: @Corsair64 A more apt comparison may be the Kaby Lake vs Skylake generation, which was widely decried for its (almost) lack of architectural improvements. Heck, even the Coffee Lake generation you mention is still largely Skylake IPC... they just crammed more cores on there. See the three main bullet points in the answer.
Comment: I see now the business component of it, however I'm still curious on the microcode side of things. How is it improved every couple of years even though said code has been worked on for such a long time? (Even though said changes are relatively small)
Comment: @Corsair64 AES-NI, hardware-accelerated AES, only became worthwhile once AES reached a certain level of popularity (standardisation in 2001, many years to spread, HTTPS with AES becoming more popular... years to design the instruction set and validate it in a new architecture... AES-NI introduced in 2010.). A large part of improvements, outside of pipelining and branch prediction and caching, come from very specialised instructions that just happen to be (fairly) commonly needed by modern software. We're running out of those improvements too.

How do CPU's evolve?


Simple eigenvalue for eigenfunctions

Question: I know what it means that an eigenvalue of a matrix is simple. My question is about the eigenvalues of operators as the Schröndiger one. Here we work with eigenfunctions rather than with eigenvectors so I can not see what the algebraic multiplicity is.
Answer: When you solve the Schrodinger equation, you solve for the possible energies of the system. These are the eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian operator. Just like a single eigenvalue can correspond to multiple eigenvectors, a single energy can correspond to multiple eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian. This is called degeneracy. An eigenvalue (energy) is called simple if it corresponds to a single eigenfunction of the Hamiltonian.
Take, for example, the one dimensional harmonic oscillator. The Schrodinger equation is -
$$\left (-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{1}{2}m\omega x^2 \right )\psi=E\psi$$
And the corresponding energies are - $$E_n=\hbar \omega\left (n+\frac{1}{2}\right ), n\in\mathbb N$$
In this case, since each value of $n$ corresponds to a distinct eigenfunction, we know that each energy (eigenvalue) has only one corresponding eigenfunction, and the eigenvalues are thus all simple. This is unlike the case of the $2$ or $3$ dimensional harmonic oscillator, which can have degenerate states - energies with certain multiplicity.
Comment: The terms algebraic/geometric multiplicity relate to eigenvalues of matrices (and linear operators over finite dimensional Hilbert spaces). The reason for the two different terms is related to the fact that eigenvalues and eigenvectors of matrices are usually found using the characteristic polynomial. For operators over infinite dimensional spaces (such as the Hamiltonian), there isn't usually a characteristic polynomial, and people mostly just refer to the 'multiplicity' of an eigenvalue, which is indeed closer to the meaning of the geometric multiplicity in matrices.
Comment: So when talking about eigenvalues related to eigenfunction we just need to show that the 'geometric multiplicity' is 1, while when talking about eigenvalues related to eigenvectors we need to show that the algebraic multiplicity is 1?

Simple eigenvalue for eigenfunctions


ASP.NET/IIS: 404 for all file types

Question: I set up 404 handler page in web.config, but it works ONLY when extension of URL is .aspx (or other which is handled by ASP.NET).
I know I can setup static HTML page in website options, but I want to have a page.
Is there any options to assign ASPX handler page for all request extensions in IIS?
Answer: The direct question was whether or not there are options to assign the ASPX handler to all request extensions: Yes, there is. I'll discuss how to do that shortly.
First, I think the "hidden" question -- the answer you really want -- is whether or not there's a way to redirect all 404 errors for pages other than ASPX, ASMX, etc. Yes, there is, and this is the better choice if it'll solve the issue you're having.
To redirect all 404s in IIS 6, right click your web application root (whether it be its own site or a virtual directory in the main site), and choose "Properties." From there, choose the "Custom Errors" tab. Find 404 in the list and change it to the redirect you want.
Now, if that won't suffice -- and I really hope it does -- yes, you can run every page through the ASPX handler. However, doing so comes at a fairly high cost in terms of efficiency -- raw HTML/image serving is considerably faster than anything dynamic.
To do this, right click your web application root and choose "Properties." Choose the "Home Directory" tab. Click "Configuration;" a new window will pop up. Copy the path from one of the ASP.NET page serves, and then use it for a wildcard application map.
Bear in mind, again, this is the wrong answer most of the time. It will negatively impact your performance, and is the equivalent of using a chainsaw to carve a turkey. I highly recommend the first option over this one, if it will work out for you.
Comment: Thanks for complete answer. We will test performance and will decide which to choose.
Answer: For information:
This is one of the several nice things that IIS7 brings - all pages are routed through the handler such that you can do custom 404s and - usefully - directory and file level security for any file (based on the same web.config stuff as for asp.net files prior to IIS7).
So notionally "use II7" is an answer (will be "the" answer in time) - but of course its not a terribly practical one if you're not hosting/being hosted on W2k8 (or higher).
Answer: The web.config can only set up errors pages for pages controlled by it's web site.  If you have any other pages outside the purview of the ASP.Net application, then you set up handling for them in IIS.  There's an option in there for configuring the 404 page where you can point it to your custom page.
Answer: Only other thing i can think of is passing ALL extensions to asp.net.
This way all types of files get processed by asp.net and your custom error page will work.
Comment: It would work, but there are performance considerations for high-traffic sites.
Answer: In the IIS application configuration, you can set a wildcard mapping (".*") to C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll
Answer:
You can setup wild card mapping in IIS (Application configuration/Mappings/Wildcard mappings/ - just set aspnet_isapi.dll as executable and uncheck the Verify that file exists box) that will route all incoming requests to your app - so you can control the behavior directly from it.
You don't have to setup static page in your IIS application settings. Imho, you should be able to setup valid url (e.g. /error_handler.aspx) from your app that will be used as landing page in case of specific server error.
Answer: In IIS you can set a Custom Error for 404 errors and direct it to a URL in the site properties.
It shows a static html by default
C:\WINDOWS\help\iisHelp\common\404b.htm
You can change it to a relative url on your site.

ASP.NET/IIS: 404 for all file types


SQL Server SSL Connection - Performance

Question: I know there are plenty of posts here regarding SQL Server and SSL encrypted connections, however I didn't find any that touched on this particular subject. In this article, it mentions that performance is hindered with enabled SSL connections due to the extra processing required. In a shared database server, where database-A will have encrypted connection, but database-B will not, will database-B's performance be affected somehow due to the encrypted connections being processed on database-A?
Comment: The link is invalid; it's pointing to the Stack Exchange Area 51 site.
Comment: SSL happens on the connections, there is an extra set of handshakes... it doesn't change how SQL Server runs a query.
Comment: Fixed the article I meant to link. @SeanGallardy, there is some extra processing for decrypting/encrypting the packets sent between server and client, aside from the extra set of hand shakes:

- An extra network roundtrip is required at connect time.

- Packets sent from the application to the instance of SQL Server must be encrypted by the client Net-Library and decrypted by the server Net-Library.

- Packets sent from the instance of SQL Server to the application must be encrypted by the server Net-Library and decrypted by the client Net-Library.
Comment: It still doesn't change how the query is run which is the part that will be taking the most amount of time... save for a select * from blobtable in which case, SSL is the least of your performance issues.
Answer: The connection encryption happens at the SQL Server instance level, not at the level of individual databases.
You can have encryption turned on at the instance, in which case every connection to it will be encrypted, or you can set a client to require encryption. Keep in mind every instance such a client connects to will have to have a certificate which the client trusts. Some light reading: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/316898/how-to-enable-ssl-encryption-for-an-instance-of-sql-server-by-using-microsoft-management-console
So to answer your question directly, yes, if one client connects to an instance with encryption and others don't, that one client will require more processing power than the others. Having said that, unless there's a configuration problem or the server is having processing capacity issues, nobody should notice.
Comment: Is that so? I thought that with ForceEncryption set to No, only applications that "requested" an encrypted connection to the instance would be encrypted. From what you're saying, if I set up an instance to accept SSL encrypted connections, and only 1 out of 5 apps that connect to the instance requests the encrypted connection, the other 4 apps would not be able to connect unencrypted (the default)?
Comment: @GuillermoGarcia I updated my answer to reflect clients requesting encryption.
Comment: @S M Thanks for the clarification. I was talking to a colleague about it and we got to the same conclusion. There is some extra CPU involved but like you said, in a well provisioned system, nobody should notice.

SQL Server SSL Connection - Performance


Client certificate required after installing certificate

Question: Using safari on OS X 10.8.2 to connect to an internal server via https:, safari indicates a client certificate is required.  Tried dragging the certificate from the url field to the desktop and adding it to the system keychain which did not work.  Went to the server and exported the certificate then added it to the system keychain which did not work as well.
What could be the problem?  The server is a windows machine running IIS.
Any suggestions to try something else?
Answer: You are looking for a client certificate.  It would seem if you are trying to obtain it from the URL that you are actually getting the server certificate to place in your keychain.
Normally a client certificate is a certificate that identifies the user, or at times the machine, that the request is coming from (ie. not the server you are accessing via Safari).
A client certificate would normally reside in your Login keychain and not the system keychain as it identifies you.
The client certificate is normally provided from the server by some other means rather than accessing the browser, as that is an insecure delivery method.
You need to talk to the owner of the internal server and ask them to provide a client certificate, or if two-way certificate identification is not required then have it turned off in the internal server instead.


How to solve $\lfloor \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009} \rfloor = \lfloor \sqrt{k\cdot2009} \rfloor$

Question: Is there any way to solve this equation (or to tell how many solutions are there), other than checking all 2009 possibilities? $\lfloor \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009} \rfloor = \lfloor \sqrt{k\cdot2009} \rfloor, 0 \le k \le 2009, k \in \Bbb Z$
Comment: My feeling is that it is going to happen sporadically after a certain number $k$. Since, this is the floor function we are talking about, it does not matter if the actual difference keeps decreasing. So, in short, yes, you will have to check all values after a certain $k$. The first occurence is at $524$ and there are $503$ such values.
Answer: Partial answer
We know $ \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009}  >  \sqrt{k\cdot2009}$.
Moreover,
$$\lfloor \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009} \rfloor = \lfloor \sqrt{k\cdot2009} \rfloor$$
implies
$$ \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009}   <   \sqrt{k\cdot2009}+1 \Rightarrow \\
(k + 1)\cdot2009   <  2009k+2\sqrt{k\cdot2009}+1 \Rightarrow \\
1004   <  \sqrt{k\cdot2009} \Rightarrow \\
1004^2   <  k\cdot2009 \Rightarrow \\
k > \frac{1004^2}{2009} \sim 501.75\Rightarrow \\
$$
This that there is no solution up to $k=501$, so you only need to worry about
$$502 \leq k \leq 2009$$
P.S. Note that for each $ n \geq 1$ you can explicitly find like above some $k_0$ so that for each $k > k_0$ you have
$$ \sqrt{(k + 1)\cdot2009}   <   \sqrt{k\cdot2009}+\frac1n$$
If that is the case, then for any $n$ consecutive integers larger than $k_0$ at least $n-1$ are solutions to your equation.
This means that if you can find one which is not, the next $n-1$ are for sure. So you need to seek the non-solutions, and then skip few integers looking for the next non-solution...
I would recommend you to test what values you get for $n=2,3,4,..$.
Answer: As shown in N.S.'s answer, there are no solutions for $k \le 501$ since $\sqrt{2009(k+1)} > \sqrt{2009k}+1$ for all $k \le 501$. Also, for all $502 \le k \le 2009$, we have $\sqrt{2009(k+1)} < \sqrt{2009k}+1$.
Thus, for each $502 \le k \le 2009$, we have either $\lfloor\sqrt{2009(k+1)}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009k}\rfloor = 0$ or $\lfloor\sqrt{2009(k+1)}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009k}\rfloor = 1$.
Since $\displaystyle\sum_{k = 502}^{2009}\left(\lfloor\sqrt{2009(k+1)}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009k}\rfloor\right)$ $= \lfloor\sqrt{2009 \cdot 2010}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009 \cdot 502}\rfloor$ $= 2009 - 1004 = 1005$, we have that $\lfloor\sqrt{2009(k+1)}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009k}\rfloor = 1$ for exactly $1005$ values of $k$ in the range $502 \le k \le 2009$.
Since there are $2009-502+1 = 1508$ values of $k$ in the range $502 \le k \le 2009$, we have that $\lfloor\sqrt{2009(k+1)}\rfloor - \lfloor\sqrt{2009k}\rfloor = 0$ for exactly $1508 - 1005 = 503$ values of $k$.
Comment: Very nice solution +1


Prevent Process Hijacking and injection?

Question: How do you prevent Process Hijacking and escalation?  On Windows?
Is there any proactive ways to prevent DLL injections and Privalage escalation?
I know things like Virus Protection and Setting GPOs are great but are there any other proactive approaches?
Answer: As stated in kfiros answer, AVs will block known methods and flag known malware or DLLs.
The best way to go to block all kind of DLLs injections and more generally, to block code execution is to use built-in security measures like APPLOCKER.
Of course, to be an efficient mitigation, you need to configure it in white-list mode and not in blacklist mode.
AppLocker can be configured by GPO if your windows is on an ActiveDirectory domain.
Refer to :
https://docs.microsoft.com/fr-fr/windows/security/threat-protection/applocker/applocker-overview for more information.
Answer: Your question is very general, and actually doesn't have one answer. DLL injection can be done in many ways, and the known ways are not the interesting ones.
If you insist, it's common today for AVs to hook CreateRemoteThread for example, this way you can try prevent code injection via this injection vector.
There are more ways to prevent DLL injections, but they are destined to stop specific DLL injection methods, so, these ways won't be effective when new methods will be used.
Comment: I was thinking about blocking certain DLLs. Such as System.Reflection.dll, System Managagement and grab the reflection.dlls from metasploit, empire etc and block them by hash.


What is the meaning of "review is overdue"?

Question: I have a status for my paper " a review is overdue"  after 20 days of reviewing my paper, however it is mentioned in the web site that review takes 1 month. What does this means?
Answer: This means a review is overdue: the editor invited a reviewer with a given deadline, which has passed. It seems the editor's deadline was only ~20 days. That's pretty fast, but since the website is claiming that review takes one month, it might be necessary.
The good news is the journal treats its authors well; many journals simply report your paper is "under review" and leave it at that until the decision is made. The bad news is, if the reviewer doesn't submit a review, your paper might take another month (or more) to process if the editor elects to invite more reviewers.
In any case there's nothing to do except wait.
Answer: Normally there are several reviews that an editor will request and then gather so that a decision can be made. The decision itself will take some time. Most likely, the editor asked for a review, setting a deadline, and the reviewer didn't meet the deadline and so this is the response. The deadline set by the editor would be some days, at least, before the expected end of the review period.
On the other hand, stating that review takes a month is, for most journals, just a guess rather than a hard limit.
In effect, it is an internal thing, not something you need to take action on.


Meaning of the phase space in statistical physics

Question: I have a silly question about the phase space. I am confused with the meaning of points in phase space. Does the each point in phase space represent concrete particle of the system, or does it represent the whole state of the system? Our teacher told us, that we use the phase space to describe the development of each particle. It is not right, isn't it?
Answer: A point in phase space represents the state of the whole system.
For example, if you have a system of $N$ particle with coordinates $\vec r_1, \dots, \vec r_N$ and momenta $\vec p_1, \dots, \vec p_N$, its general state will be a point in a $6N$ dimensional phase space:
$$\vec X = (\vec r_1, \dots, \vec r_N, \vec p_1, \dots, \vec p_N)$$
Answer: It represents the "space occuped" by the hypervolume momentum-position of a particle.
If you integrate the three components of position you get volume; if you integrate the three components of momentum you get kind of a momentum volume. If you integrate both together you get the space phase volume
Answer: The quickest way to understand phase space is to read a phase diagram. It may be a PV diagram, or mixture fraction-temperature diagram. So read carefully what x axis represents and what y axis represents. Take PV diagram for example. each particle on the diagram is a pair of pressure (P) and volume (V). It describes the gas system state at that moment. If you, somehow, change (compress or expand) the system state, i.e. its pressure and volume change, the particle moves to another location in the phase space. The confusing part may be the term "particle". It is not one particle in the gas. It is a point in the phase space.


What is the proper way to mark a letter stressed in a name?

Question: I have a friend named Chloe (pronounced Clo-ee). She writes her name using an accent mark over the e.  A friend of ours thinks that the accent mark means unstressed, so that her name is pronounced Clo-eh.  Does the accent mark mean stressed or unstressed? I've seen other names that use a double dot over the e to mark something as stressed, like in the name Zoe.
Comment: Your question asks about stress, but I think you actually mean pronounced rather than silent.
Comment: Isn't Chloe with the accent French and make it pronunced Chlo-Ay? I know some use the double dot to stress the "ee" sound, but I've always wondered if the double dot goes over the "o" or the "e" in the name Chloe?
Answer: No, Chloë and Zoë are still stressed on the penult even when written as Chloé and Zoé.
Once upon a time people would write learnéd instead of learnèd, but it doesn't change the stress in English — as opposed to in inglés, where it does.
Answer: Standard Written English doesn't use diacritics,¹ so there is no consensus for what they mean when you do use them.  That is, a native speaker may not think that "Chloë" or "Chloé" is meant to be pronounced differently than "Chloe", and even if they do, no two speakers will necessarily agree on what the pronunciation is.
Culturally, people are entitled to dictate both the spelling and the pronunciation of their names.  If your friend says that her name is pronounced "Clo-ee" and spelt "Chloé", then she is correct.  But your other friend who says that her name is pronounced "Cluh" and spelt "Chloé" is also correct.  And your other other friend who says that his name is pronounced "David" but spelt "Da5id" is correct too.
¹ as pointed out in the comments, names spelled according to the rules of another language are typically reproduced verbatim in English text, including diacritics if any, but English speakers generally won't know what the diacritics indicate unless they recognize and are familiar with the source language.
Comment: I am a strict descriptivist, and I'm quite confident that most speakers don't know that anymore, so by me it no longer counts as an agreed-upon rule.
Comment: Actually, a diaeresis has a perfectly well defined and agreed upon meaning in English native words, like *coöperate, zoölogy, reëlect*, and all the rest like those. It just isn't used that much for that purpose these days.
Comment: If by "accent marks", you mean diacritics, you're actually mistaken in the case of people's names, whether it's François Mitterand, Federico Peña, or Jóhanna Sigurðardóttir. You can see this in quality periodicals such as the *New York Times*, the *Economist*, or the *New Yorker*.  Fish wrappers don't count.
Comment: Yes, I did mean diacritics, I just couldn't remember the word right then. Anyhow, your examples are inapposite, being all people with names whose spelling is dictated by a language other than English -- of course one carries over a name verbatim from another language, diacritics and all, if the technology permits. *Within English*, there is no universal standard for what diacritics mean, and even if someone is following a common convention (diaresis to indicate a syllable split, eg.), I think it unlikely that the majority of readers would know that was the intent.
Answer: As a Chloe myself, and in Montréal, I've grown used to Anglophones saying "Chlo-ee" and Francophones saying "Chlo-ay" and it's fun having 2 prononciations to my name. I like the ë personally but I don't care how people say it.
Answer: I think the two dots above the e mean two es so if it was just one e then you would pronounce it chlo (I am called Chloë as well).


RAD 7.5 Out of memory exceptions

Question: I am working in RAD 7.5, Using WAS 7.0 Server. When I tried to start the server facing, I get Out of Memory exception. Detail error message is pasted below:
java.lang.OutOfMemoryError at java.lang.String.toCharArray(String.java:1101 )

Answer: You might want to increase the available memory to your Java VM. You can do this by a switch to the interpreter.

RAD 7.5 Out of memory exceptions


Is vector dot product and vector cross product allowed in Vector space?

Question: As per the definition of Vector space, for a set of vectors and scalars, the only operations allowed are the 2 closure properties(for addition and scalar multiplication) and 10 axioms(for associativity commutativity, inverse and identity) for the vectors, scalars involved.
If so, where does dot product and cross product(which is vector time vector multiplication) fit in?
These 2 vector times vector multiplication operations are not defined and hence not allowed as per  the definition of Vector space. Is this understanding correct or am I missing something here?
Comment: The basic abstract definition of a vector space does not include any notion of distance. Vector spaces, indeed, can be formed with any field providing the scalars. But one can study quadratic forms, bilinear forms, tensor products and the like and generalise the notions of product. It is not that products are "not allowed" - but where they are defined they provide additional structure. The less structure a mathematical system has, the more generally it can be applied, Vector spaces without defined products turn out to be very useful.
Comment: Ultimately they're just functions from $V \times V$ (where $V$ is your vector space) to your scalar field or into the vector space (dot, cross product respectively). While the definition of vector space gives us a means to characterize sets meeting certain properties under a couple of special functions (operations), we have to make further definitions to get the more general notions of dot/cross products, the inner and outer products. But these are just, again, special functions meeting certain criteria.
Answer: It depends on your structure.
For example, I prefer to define vector space with a single axiom

A vector space is an abelien group $V$ on which a field $k$ acts

Let's look at this for the vector space $V=\Bbb R^3$. Initially, we can see that $\Bbb R^3$ is an abelien group under addition; this is so because of course $\Bbb R$ is an abelien group under addition and for every abelien group $A$, we can naturally define an abelien group structure on $A\times A$ or $A\times A\times A$ or ... component-wise. Viewed as an abelien group, we only have the addition operation at our disposal. Of course $\Bbb R$ itself is much more than an abelien group. We might view $\Bbb R^3$ as a non-unitary ring by also defining multiplication component-wise from the underlying ring $\Bbb R$. But that is of no interest when we want to have a vector space. The ring $\Bbb R$ happens to be a field, but that property does not transfer to a product. And $\Bbb R$ is also a topological space (or even a metric space), which does allow us to define a natural structure of topological space on $\Bbb R^3$. This does not give us a new (binary) operation on $\Bbb R^3$, but allows us to speak og convergence and limits. In fact, the topology is compatible with the group law, i.e., $\Bbb R^3$ is a topological abelien group. But in the context of vector space, we care only for the abelien group structure.
As with every abelien group, the set $\operatorname{End}(V)$ of endomorphisms $A\colon V\to V$ is endowed with a natural ring structure by defining $(A+B)(v)=A(v)+B(v)$ and $(A\cdot B)(v)=A(B(v))$. In particular, the identity endomorphism is the $1$-element of this ring.
To make $\Bbb R^3$ a vector space, we need a base field (and decide to use $k=\Bbb R$) and an action of $k$, i.e., a  ring homomorphism $\phi\colon k\to \operatorname{End}(V)$ and for convenience write $x\cdot v$ for $\phi(x)(v)$, giving us a new operation $\cdot\colon k\times V\to V$ that automatically has some nice properties: E.g., $1\cdot v=v$ follows because in a homomorphism between unitary rings, we postulate that the 1-element is mapped to the 1-element. And things like $(x+y)\cdot v=x\cdot v+y\cdot v$ or $x\cot(v+w)=x\cdot v+x\cdot w$ or $(x\cdot y)\cdot v = x\cdot(y\cdot v))$ also follow immediately from the definition of ring homomorphism. Everything acts together so nicely that using the same operation symbols $+$ and $\cdot$ for various different operations does not confuse us (and in fact is so suggestive that it simplifies our life a lot).
But how do we actually get such a ring homomorphism? There is one natural way, using the fact that $V$ is a direct product of copies of $k$: We map $x\in k$ to the endomorphism of $k^3$ that multiplies component-wise by $x$ (using the fact that each factor $k$ is our field).
This is how we could define a (natural) structure of a real vector space on $\Bbb R^3$, arriving at the usual vector space operations. What we do not have in general is additional structure beyond that of a vector space.
I already mentioned that $\Bbb R^3$ is a topological group. All operations including multiplication with a scalar are continuous under this topology and that allows us to view $\Bbb R^3$ as something more than just a vector space: It is a topological vector space. Not every vector space is also a topological vector space.
I also noted that we can consider component-wise multiplication to view $\Bbb R^3$ as a (non-unitary) ring; this operation is also compatible with the other operations and allows us to view $\Bbb R^3$ as a (non-unitary) algebra over $\Bbb R$. But we cannot do the same for every vector space.
Next, in our specific example we have a nice bilinear map $V\times V\to \Bbb R$ given by multiplying component-wise and adding the results - the dot product. This turns $\Bbb R^3$ into an inner product space. Again, not every vector space is an inner product space, and even if we have an inner product, it is not uniquely determined. But in the case of $\Bbb R^3$ (or more generally, $\Bbb R^n$), we have a natural way to define an inner product. But to repeat: A vector space is in general not endowed (or even endowable) with such an inner product.
Finally, the cross product. To give the broader picture about this, I'd have do dive quite deeply into abstract structures (even compared to what I have done so far). Let's leave it at this: Just as not every vector space is a topological space, or an algebra, or an inner product space, it is also not the case that every vector space allows a cross product. To keep things simple, you may rest assured for the moment that this is only available in a natural way for the specific vector space $\Bbb R^3$. In particular, there is not even a cross product in $\Bbb R^2$ or $\Bbb R^4$.
Summary: If be begin with "Let $V$ be a real vector space ..." then all we have are the vector space operations and are not "allowed" to use dot product or cross product. If we begin "Let $V$ be an inner product space ..." we have the dot product at our disposal. This is also implicitly the case if be begin "Let $V$ be the vector space $\Bbb R^n$ for some $n\in\Bbb N$ ...". But we can use the cross product only  in a context of "Let $V=\Bbb R^3$ ...".
Comment: Nice answer.  I'm guessing it is too abstract for the OP, so I am providing my own (more mundane) answer.
Comment: Have read through your reply.  The summary is very clear and clarified my doubt. Thanks.
Answer: You are correct, an abstract vector space (assume all spaces I mention have $\mathbb R$ as scaars) does not have such operations (dot product, cross product) defined.
An "inner product" on a vector space $V$ is an operation with the properties of a dot product.  Any abstract vector space admits many different inner products.  A vector space, together with a specified inner product, is called an inner product space .  This name exists because mathematicians have found this type of structure useful.
An unexpected result says that an operation like "cross product" only exists for $3$-dimensional spaces.  There is an "analog" of the cross product in $\mathbb R^n$, but in that case you multiply $n-1$ vectors to get a vector answer.  So only the case $\mathbb R^3$ is where you multiply two vectors to get a vector answer.  See HERE for various generalizations of the cross product to other vector spaces.
Comment: The inner product space makes it clear.  Thanks for responding to the question.


Kirchhoff's Current Law at the ground node?

Question: Can one do KCL at the ground node? Does any current go into the ground?
I think not, but I am not sure.
Bonus Question:
If yes, then how does grounding buildings drain the current into the Earth?
Answer: You can use KCL at the ground node.
First, because in many circuits, the "ground" node is not actually connected to earth ground or to anything external circuit at all. It's just another circuit node that we use as reference for measuring potential at other nodes in the circuit.
Second, even when the circuit is externally grounded, there is the cut-set form of KCL. A cut set is any set of branches of a circuit that, if they were cut, would split the circuit into two disconnected circuits (but if any one of them were not cut while the others were, the circuit would remain connected). The cut-set form of KCL is:

KCL (cut-set law) For all lumped circuits, for all time t, the algebraic sum of the currents associated with any cut set is equal to zero.

(source)
What that means is, if you consider all the places where your circuit connects to earth ground, the net current through them is zero. So therefore KCL can be applied to all the places where other elements of your circuit connect to the local ground node.
Answer: On most circuits, "ground" is just a lable we put on some point in the circuit to indcate that that point is considered as "zero volts", and is used as a reference when measuring voltages elsewhere in the circuit.  I would prefer to call this point "common" or "reference" but the term "ground" is too well established to change.
This "ground" or "common" is just one node or connection point in a circuit and has no special magic properties, whether it is connected to earth or not.
Answer: As  we have total 4 nodes in the circuit...arrows  are shown in the pic to show the direction of current ...the arrows coming towards a node is the  entering current which we will add in the equation whereas the arrows going away from a node is  the exiting current which we will subtract in the equation.The grounded node has no other path to enter or exit current...it is just to show the absorption of current.


Importing relationship records in MS Dynamics CRM 4.0: missing converse relationship column

Question: I'm using the built-in data import tool in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 to import some Customer Relationship records.  I've created a .csv import file with the following fields:

Party 1
Party 2
Role 1
Role 2

I specify this file, and because I've used the display names for the attributes in the import file, the attributes are mapped automatically by the import tool.  However, I then get an "unmapped mandatory column" error message.  The error detail reveals that it is the "Converse Relationship" field that is missing.
I'm not sure how I'm expected to supply this, since at this point, I haven't imported any records yet!  Has anyone figured out a way to work around this and import customer relationship records?
Thanks!
Answer: all you need to do is add a column at the end called Converse Relationship (case sensitive) this will now work


Front-to-back vs left-to-right driveshaft

Question: What is the reason, that all 4x4 and AWD vehicles use front-to-back driveshafts with lateral semi-axes, vs lateral driveshafts with front-to-back semi-axes? How would the later affect vehicle dynamics during turns and acceleration?
Answer: It's an interesting idea. Some potential advantages I could see:

You could get away with only one differential. On loose ground, the front/back difference isn't much of an issue, and on tarmac you could just switch to FF mode entirely. (That mode-switch would of course require two clutches, though!)
Even if that differential is not lockable or limited-slip, you would avoid some of the typical traction-loss scenarios. In particular, a 4×4 with open differentials crawling on rough ground easily ends up with e.g. the left-front and right-rear wheel slipping, because of a diagonal-loading situation. By contrast, at least one wheel on each side will generally be loaded, so if both left wheels and both right wheel are rigidly locked together you should have quite reliable traction.At higher speed this might not be as useful. Left cornering actually distributes the load away from both left wheels, so then you might need a limited slip differential anyway for best performance.
A trailing-arm style rear suspension could be used, which would offer good ground clearance and might actually be somewhat easier to implement as other kinds of independent suspension.

Of course, these are offset by several disadvantages, already mentioned in the other answers. Apparently, these have proven too strong to make this design viable for any vehicle in practice.
Answer: Basically 1 less shaft.
less mass.
Fewer bearings.
Less impact on the cabin - depending on the vehicle.
But some vehicles have hydraulic motors or electric motors at all corners - pipes or wires are easier compared to shafts...
Comment: Actually it's an H configuration either way. Absolutely the same amount of shafts. I used to think mass was the issue as well, but that's not really the case. The difference in mass would be marginal when compared to the mass of the entire vehicle. Semi-axes are usually lighter weight than driveshafts, and if the driveshaft were to be left-to-right, it might even end up being integrated into the transmission, thereby saving mass. Can you explain what you mean by "less impact on the cabin"?
Answer: I can't understand how your alternative suggestion would work.
Wheel mounts accept rotational drive, delivered via a shaft.  For the front steering wheels, this drive also has to pass through the wheel turning mechanism as well, whether that be a CV joint or a large ball with wiper seals.
If the drive was coming from a shaft running parallel to the side of the vehicle, then it would need translation by a right-angle in order to power wheels.  This would be extra hard at the front, but all wheels need to respond to suspension movements as well.
Traditional 4WD designs use an additional gearbox called a Transfer Case, which is after the main gearbox and splits the drive between front and rear.  Since its aft of the gearbox, the TC is about halfway between the front and rear axles, and needs a short prop-shaft to get to the front and rear differentials.
More modern AWD setups tend to package all that into the gearbox, and are more similar to a front wheel drive and transverse engine, where the rear drive is sent via a longer shaft from the TC/gearbox combo mounted under the engine.  Its a smaller package, and integrates the front diff with the TC, allowing more controlled distribution of torque between front and rear.  Some AWD vehicles turn off the rear power while cruising, for efficiency and are just FWD for a while.
In short Some reduction has already been incorporated into the designs, biased toward the front wheels.


Are UUIDs unique across different systems?

Question: I'm wondering if UUIDs are unique even when they are generated on different systems, which may employ different algorithms.  For instance, if you generated a bunch of UUIDs in MySQL, and .Net, would there be a higher chance of collision, or are all systems using the exact same algorithm, and thereby guaranteeing that collisions are improbable?
Answer: From Universally unique identifier on Wikipedia:
..the word unique should be taken to mean "practically unique" rather than "guaranteed unique". Since the identifiers have a finite size it is possible for two differing items to share the same identifier. The identifier size and generation process need to be selected so as make this practically impossible.
Answer: A UUID is supposed to contain a timestamp and a version number but the rest is supposed to be random, so unless you are sure that the UUIDs are generated at different times, you run the same chances of having a collision whatever the generator software. Older versions of the generation algorithms included the MAC address, which helped to the extent of MAC address collision risks. This is all specified in RFC 4122.
Answer: No, it can vary. Basically, the chance of a collision depends on the amount of entropy (="true" unpredictability) in the UUID generation method.
(a) there are different standard formats of UUID, each of which intrinsically have varying amounts of entropy (e.g. if you base your UUID on a Mac and timestamp, this in principle has less entropy than basing your UUID simply on a string of random bits)
(b) for Type 4, based on random bits, there's no standard random number generation algorithm/standard entropy source.
If you have a "perfect" random number generator, then a random UUID has 2^116 possible values (12 bits are wasted on version markers etc), in other words you would expect to generate around 2^56 or 7x10^16 UUIDs before getting a collision.
Comment: Right, and for further reading, the [birthday paradox](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Birthday_paradox) is a good example that helps explain how you can get to a collision.
Answer: Given the 128 bits, there are 340,282,366,920,938,463,463,374,607,431,768,211,456 possible UUIDs. The theory is that this should be enough for them to be universally unique--so the short answer to your question is yes, even if different systems use other versions of the algorithm.
Take a look at the tables on the wiki article for a good idea of the collision probability.


Using emails in an autobiography

Question: I am writing about my life experiences and I want to use email correspondence between myself and another to tell part of the story. I have not used real names in my work and have altered the emails accordingly. Do I need permission to use these emails?
Comment: You may want to browse other questions under the non-fiction tag, as one of them may be useful to you.
Comment: If you want to be confident that the e-mails don't exist, you might want to use [a reserved example domain](http://www.iana.org/domains/reserved).
Comment: @TRiG I'm pretty sure the OP is asking about whether it is acceptable to use existing emails within a larger work, rather than asking about telling one's life's story through made-up emails.
Comment: related: http://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/8394/permission-to-use-emails-from-famous-deceased-person
Answer: I guess the answer will depend on your country. In many European countries, emails fall under the "Secrecy of Correspondence", and breaking this can result in a prison sentence. What the laws of your country say about this, I wouldn't know. The Wikipedia article mentions the situation in the United States.
Another legal question in this situation is reputational damage. There may be more, so I would ask a lawyer.
Finally, you might want to consider if your relationship to the sender of the emails or his family and friends will suffer and if you want that – and how you generally feel about breaking another person's confidentiality. I wouldn't like it, if someone published my emails to them, so I wouldn't do it unless I felt the general public needs to be informed of some illegality.
Comment: IANAL, but it seems to me Secrecy of Correspondence is about third-parties intercepting messages. Suppose I lived in Europe and my friend sent me a letter saying, "I named my dog Edward." Would I be legally barred from sharing that information? If he told me in person could I tell anyone I wanted? (Social consequences aside.)
Comment: I don't know the details of all European laws. In Germany, where I live, if you recieve a letter, you are forbidden to make its contents public. Obviously there are limits to this law, as there are for all laws. I'm not a lawyer and therefore not familiar with when and how you may publish a letter. But basically you must not make a letter public that has been sent to you with the implicit understanding that its contents were addressed to you specifically. Morally, I'd say the same goes for verbal communication: you wouldn't want someone to write a book about what you told them in private.
Answer: For what you need to do legally, you'll need to consult a lawyer in your jurisdiction.  Laws vary.  The rest of this answer is about practical considerations.
First, are you on good terms with the person whose email you want to use?  Do you want to be on good terms after you publish your work?  If so, then talk with this person.  Nobody likes surprises, and there is a presumption that private correspondence is, well, private.  (If the email came from a large, well-distributed, archived mailing list, that's a little different -- but I would still ask.)
Second, even if you change the names, given a large-enough corpus a person who knows what he's doing can identify the person (to a fair degree of confidence) anyway.  Everybody writes with certain "markers" that help to identify their work; what they are varies and you probably don't know you're doing it, but you are.  This isn't just spy-agency stuff here; corpus analysis is a standard tool in fields like linguistics and statistics -- and, for that matter, certain software domains.  What this means is that scrubbing the names doesn't necessarily anonymize.
I recommend that you first talk with the person about your desires, and then work together with that person to transform the email you want to quote in a way that satisfies both of you.  This could involve selective quoting, summarizing rather than directly quoting, and/or rewriting passages (that is, you do the rewriting, not the original author).
Answer: IANAL, but I think if you don't reveal the identity of the other person and there's nothing that can help other to relate him with your story, it is not a problem.
But, just in case, I will ask a lawyer or, better, the other person if you can use those mails. If it's for a good reason, I think the other would help you.
Answer: IANAL but I believe that in the US, the author of an email owns the copyright to it, so if you reproduce someone else's email to you in your autobiography, you have to either get their permission or be prepared to make a fair-use defense.

Using emails in an autobiography


AMD Radeon R5 M330 drivers

Question: Where can I find the drivers for gpu AMD Radeon R5 M330 ? At AMD site there are drivers only for windows.Maybe there is an open source driver or something like a backport?
Answer: There is graphics driver for AMD radeon r5 series gpu for notebook (laptop) on there site for ubuntu too. But you have to manually find it by choosing your gpu specific and os type.
But after what I experienced by installing Proprietary driver for AMD radeon r5 230 gpu, I suggest you don't install it. After I installed Proprietary driver in my ubuntu 15.10 on lenovo g40-70, my system entered low graphics mode and showed error with black screen. I had to uninstall driver by entering recovery mode to get it fixed.
There is already open source Xorg driver for AMD radeon gpu. It works fine. If you are facing low battery backup, install tlp and always keep it running. It prevents laptop from overheating and also increases battery backup.  To install it:
sudo add-apt-repository ppa:linrunner/tlp
sudo apt-get update
sudo apt-get install tlp tlp-rdw
sudo apt-get install tp-smapi-dkms acpi-call-dkms

To start it type :sudo tlp start
Also make sure, while running on batter screen brightness is low so that you get more battery backup. After I installed tlp, I always keep it running and thus get backup of around 4 hours for normal use.
Answer: I'm running mint 17.3, and the (ubuntu) package fglrx-updates version 2:15.200-0ubuntu0.5 with associated dependecies and recommended packages
are really working well (as in fabulously well).
Despite the info on the amd site According to which only r5 m2xx is
supported), this driver does work for the R5 M330. At least on my laptop.
(hp, i7, r5 m330).
Answer: The driver is preinstalled. It is called radeon and is the default for most older AMD GPUs. Though I would highly recommend that you use the padoka PPA to have access to up-to-date driver components, and to do that, open a terminal and paste these commands into it:
sudo add-apt-repository ppa:paulo-miguel-dias/mesa
sudo apt-get update

After you finish this the next time Software Updater notifies you there are software updates ready to install (which might be instantly after you enter the commands above), it will download and install the updated driver components along with any other available updates if any.
Comment: better be safe than sorry. so maybe `ppa:paulo-miguel-dias/pkppa` for stable builds
Comment: @WillGu I've been using `padoka` for more than 6 months now and I've never passed by any bugs.

AMD Radeon R5 M330 drivers


What was the Early Church Fathers' view of female teachers in the Church?

Question: There is a lot of debate between Roman Catholics and Protestants on if women can be reverends or pastors within the church and have and maintain a leadership role. What was the early church fathers' views on females having leadership roles within the church? (i.e. reverends, priests)
Answer: What was the Early Church Fathers' view of female teachers in the Church?
Church Fathers indicate that women do play an active role in the Church and that in the age of the Fathers there were orders of virgins, widows, and deaconesses, but that these women were not ordained.
The Early Church never promoted women to leadership roles within the Church. Although some heretics allowed such.
There were deaconesses in the Early Church, but their function was mainly to help out with the administration of the sacrament of baptism, almsgiving, visitations. These women deaconesses were counted as lay persons and that they receive no ordination properly so called.
"Deaconesses should carry out the anointing of women in the rite of baptism, instruct women neophytes, and visit the women faithful, especially the sick, in their homes. They were forbidden to confer baptism themselves, or to play a part in the Eucharistic offering (DA 3, 12, 1-4). The deaconesses had supplanted the widows. The bishop may still institute widows, but they should not either teach or administer baptism (to women), but only pray (DA 3, 5, 1-3, 6, 2). - History of Deaconesses
The way the faithful lived and understood things would seem a like difficult for us to contemplate nowadays. For example baptism was at one point administered in the nude! Thus deaconesses performed an valuable help in the administration of this sacrament when women were being baptized.
Bishop Hippolytus of Rome:

21 1 At the hour in which the cock crows, they shall first pray over the water. 2 When they come to the water, the water shall be pure and flowing, that is, the water of a spring or a flowing body of water. 3 Then they shall take off all their clothes.The children shall be baptized first. All of the children who can answer for themselves, let them answer. If there are any children who cannot answer for themselves, let their parents answer for them, or someone else from their family. 5 After this, the men will be baptized. Finally, the women, after they have unbound their hair, and removed their jewelry. No one shall take any foreign object with themselves down into the water. ...
9 When the elder takes hold of each of them who are to receive baptism, he shall tell each of them to renounce, saying, "I renounce you Satan, all your service, and all your works." 10 After he has said this, he shall anoint each with the Oil of Exorcism, saying, "Let every evil spirit depart from you." 11 Then, after these things, the bishop passes each of them on nude to the elder who stands at the water. They shall stand in the water naked. A deacon, likewise, will go down with them into the water. (Hippolytus. "Apostolic Traditions" of Hippolytus, 21:1-11. Translated by Edgecomb, Kevin P. Derived from Bernard Botte (La Tradition Apostolique. Sources Chretiennes, 11 bis. Paris, Editions du Cerf, 1984) and of Gregory Dix.
(The Treatise on the  Apostolic Tradition of St. Hippolytus of Rome, Bishop and Martyr. London: Alban Press, 1992)

Deaconesses, unlike male deacons did not preach publicly or publicly proclaim the Gospel. Their service within the Church was of a more subdued manner.

Most Catholic scholars incline to the view that it is not always possible to draw a clear distinction in the early Church between deaconesses and widows (cherai). The Didascalia, Apostolic Constitutions and kindred documents undoubtedly recognize them as separate classes and they prefer the deaconess to the widow in the duty of assisting the clergy. Indeed, the Apostolic Constitutions (III, 6) enjoin the widows to be obedient to the deaconesses. It is probable also, as Funk maintains, that in the earlier period it was only a widow who could become a deaconess, but undoubtedly the strict limits of age, sixty years, which were at first prescribed for widows, were relaxed, at least at certain periods and in certain localities, in the case of those to be appointed to be deaconesses; for example, the Council of Trullo in 692 fixed the age at forty. Tertullian speaks with reprobation of a girl of twenty in viduatu ab episcopo collocatam, by which he seems to mean ordained as a deaconess. There can again be no question that the deaconesses in the fourth and fifth centuries had a distinct ecclesiastical standing, though there are traces of much variety of custom. According to the newly discovered "Testament of Our Lord" (c. 400), widows had a place in the sanctuary during the celebration of the liturgy, they stood at the anaphora behind the presbyters, they communicated after the deacons, and before the readers and subdeacons, and strange to say they had a charge of, or superintendence over the deaconesses. Further it is certain that a ritual was in use for the ordination of deaconesses by the laying on of hands which was closely modeled on the ritual for the ordination of a deacon. For example, the Apostolic Constitutions say:

Concerning a deaconess, I, Bartholomew enjoin O Bishop, thou shalt lay thy hands upon her with all the Presbytery and the Deacons and the Deaconesses and thou shalt say: Eternal God, the Father of Our Lord Jesus Christ, the creator of man and woman, that didst fill with the Spirit Mary and Deborah, and Anna and Huldah, that didst not disdain that thine only begotten Son should be born of a woman; Thou that in the tabernacle of witness and in the temple didst appoint women guardians of thy holy gates: Do thou now look on this thy handmaid, who is appointed unto the office of a Deaconess and grant unto her the Holy Spirit, and cleanse her from all pollution of the flesh and of the spirit, that she may worthily accomplish the work committed unto her, to thy glory and the praise of thy Christ.

Comparing this form with that given in the same work with that for the ordination of deacons we may notice that the reference to the outpouring of Holy Ghost in the latter case is much more strongly worded: "fill him with the spirit and with power as thou didst fill Stephen the martyr and follower of the sufferings of thy Christ". Moreover, in the case of the deacon, prayer is made that he "may be counted worthy of a higher standing", a clause which not improbably has reference to the possibility of advance to a higher ecclesiastical dignity as priest or bishop, no such praise being used in the case of the deaconess. Deaconess (Catholic Encyclopaedia)

The Apostolic Constitutions:

"A virgin is not ordained, for we have no such command from the Lord, for this is a state of voluntary trial, not for the reproach of marriage, but on account of leisure for piety" (Apostolic Constitutions 8:24 [A.D. 400]).
"Appoint, [O Bishop], a deaconess, faithful and holy, for the ministering of women. For sometimes it is not possible to send a deacon into certain houses of women, because of unbelievers. Send a deaconess, because of the thoughts of the petty. A deaconess is of use to us also in many other situations. First of all, in the baptizing of women, a deacon will touch only their forehead with the holy oil, and afterwards the female deacon herself anoints them" (ibid., 3:16).

Since deaconesses were considered lay persons and the Rite of Baptism was changed over time due to issues such as modesty, deaconesses eventually disappeared.
Council of Laodicea

"[T]he so-called 'presbyteresses' or 'presidentesses' are not to be ordained in the Church" - (Canon 11 [A.D. 360]).

The following may be of interest to some:

What the Early Church Believed: Women and the Priesthood
Answer: Although a number of early Christian groups were quite open to women prophesying & teaching the Gospel, leadership positions in the clergy have been rather consistently occupied by men.
There were a few sects, labeled heretical by most early Christians, that had women presbyters, such as the Montanists or the Priscillianists. Though it should be noted that even the Montanists were divided among themselves on this matter.
Otherwise, the position of the early writers demonstrates a belief that God had appointed men & women to distinct roles & responsibilities.
In response to the Thecla controversy, Tertullian wrote:

But if the writings which wrongly go under Paul's name, claim Thecla's example as a licence for women's teaching and baptizing, let them know that, in Asia, the presbyter who composed that writing, as if he were augmenting Paul's fame from his own store, after being convicted, and confessing that he had done it from love of Paul, was removed from his office. For how credible would it seem, that he who has not permitted a woman even to learn with over-boldness, should give a female the power of teaching and of baptizing. (On Baptism ch. 17)

Regarding the power to baptize (an authority very specifically reserved for certain clergy), the Apostolic Constitutions report:

Now, as to women's baptizing, we let you know that there is no small peril to those that undertake it. Therefore we do not advise you to it; for it is dangerous, or rather wicked and impious (Book III, chapter 9)

Epiphanius of Salamis was particularly direct on this topic (see a compilation of a variety of Patristic quotes, including his, here):

From this bishop [James the Just] and the just-named apostles, the succession of bishops and presbyters [priests] in the house of God have been established. Never was a woman called to these (Against Heresies 78:13)

If women were to be charged by God with entering the priesthood or with assuming ecclesiastical office, then in the New Covenant it would have devolved upon no one more than Mary to fulfill a priestly function. She was invested with so great an honor as to be allowed to provide a dwelling in her womb for the heavenly God and King of all things, the Son of God. . . . But he did not find this [the conferring of priesthood on her] good (Against Heresies 79:3, as quoted here).

--
The role of a deaconess
There were women who were appointed deaconesses. The exact function & authority of a deaconess is a matter of some historical dispute. Canon 19 of the Council of Nicaea ruled that a deaconess was a member of the laity, not clergy.
Epiphanius of Salamis reported:

It is true that in the Church there is an order of deaconesses, but not for being a priestess, nor for any kind of work of administration (Against Heresies 78:13).
Comment: @Jess re the chronology of "On Baptism" that is probably correct. On the other hand, he probably wrote "De cultu Feminarum" after his adoption of (some) Montanist beliefs. I'm not aware of any writings showing he changed his mind on this particular issue, though I'd be interested if you have any recommendations. From what I've read, Montanism in Carthage  & Montanism in Anatolia had sizeable differences, and the Montanism that interested Tertullian was closer to what we would call "orthodox" Christianity than were the more extreme claims of Montanus himself.
Comment: The scholarly consensus is that Tertullian wrote "On Baptism" prior to his conversion to Montanism. So, it's possible that he changed his view on the subject. In other words, it is not so clear to me that "the Montanists were divided among themselves on this matter."
Comment: @HTTR, While it is true that Tertullian was astringent about cultural modesty practices, he did write some pretty egalitarian stuff at times. This article explores some of the reasons why he may have written that way. https://margmowczko.com/tertullian-equality-in-marriage/


How do I test props passed to child component using Enzyme Shallow?

Question: I'm having an issue testing my component which thinly wraps the Material-UI autocomplete.  In my test, I'd like to view the props being passed to , but my console statement is an empty object.  I'm using Enzyme's shallow method to render this.  Here's my code:
const underlineFocusStyle = {
    display: 'block',
    height: '100%',
    outline: 'none',
    position: 'relative',
    padding: '0px',
    width: '100%',
    border: 'none',
    backgroundColor: 'rgba(0, 0, 0, 0)',
    cursor: 'inherit',
    opacity: '1'
};

export class MyAutoComplete extends React.Component {
    render() {
        let { muiTheme, forceOpenOnFocus, ...propsToApply } = this.props;
        propsToApply.underlineFocusStyle = underlineFocusStyle;

        if (forceOpenOnFocus) {
            if (!propsToApply.filter) {
                propsToApply.filter = ((searchText, key) => {
                    return searchText === '' || AutoComplete.defaultProps.filter(searchText, key);
                });
            }
        }
        return <AutoComplete name={'autocomplete'} {...propsToApply} />;
    }
}

MyAutoComplete .propTypes = {
    muiTheme: PropTypes.object,
    forceOpenOnFocus: PropTypes.bool
}

export default muiThemeable()(MyAutoComplete );

And my test:
describe('LLamasoftAutoComplete', () => {
    const muiTheme = getMuiTheme();
    const shallowWithContext = (node) => shallow(node, {context: {muiTheme}});

    it('should pass in ', () => {
        const wrapper = shallowWithContext(
            <LLamasoftAutoComplete
                muiTheme={muiTheme}
                forceOpenOnFocus={true}
                dataSource={['One', 'Two', 'Three']} />
        );

        console.log(wrapper.find('AutoComplete').props()); //  is {}

        expect(true).toBe(false);
    });
});

Comment: linked: https://stackoverflow.com/q/40399026/104380
Answer: As you may already know, shallow rendering a component "one level deep". Also, I assume that you are familiar with the concept of HOC.(Higher-Order components). Your MyAutoComplete wrapped with muiThemeable HOC. So shallow rendering only render the muiThemeable and it doesn't render what you have inside MyAutoComplete's render method. Because those are deep in the component tree more than one level.
To avoid this problem we usually test undecorated component; the original component before wrapping with HOC. So we need to export both decorated and undecorated component from the file, decorated one as a default export and undecorated one as a named export.
export default muiThemeable()(MyAutoComplete);
export { MyAutoComplete };

Now you can import undecorated one and test it. In you case, you don't actually need to render it with context since you no longer have muiThemeable in your component, which depends on context. So your test becomes simpler.
import { MyAutoComplete as LLamasoftAutoComplete} from './your/file/location'

describe('LLamasoftAutoComplete', () => {
    const muiTheme = getMuiTheme();

    it('should pass in ', () => {
        const wrapper = shallowWithContext(
            <LLamasoftAutoComplete
                muiTheme={muiTheme}
                forceOpenOnFocus={true}
                dataSource={['One', 'Two', 'Three']} />
        );

        console.log(wrapper.find('AutoComplete').props());

        expect(true).toBe(false);
    });
});

Read answers to this question for more info: How to test decorated React component with shallow rendering
Comment: Ahhhhhhh, I forgot about the HOC I had applied.  I'll give this a shot today.
Comment: Good answer.  This is what the AirBnB folks do in-house as well.

https://github.com/airbnb/enzyme/issues/431#issuecomment-223767072


What's wrong to write g for 漢語拼音 pronunciation of 歌?

Question: This is a question asked on behalf of thousands of new beginner learning 漢語拼音.  When giving a 漢語拼音 dictation test (like spelling test in English) to my students, one very smart student write "g" for my pronunciation of 歌.  When I pointed out it's wrong, he argued: "you taught us HYPY "g" is pronounced as 歌/哥. So when I heard you pronounced 歌 and I wrote "g".  What's wrong with that?"  How can I reply?  Especially knowing it is the biggest flaw if 漢語拼音 teaching.
Comment: What's HYPY????
Comment: @dan Hanyu Pinyin, I suppose.
Answer: 元音有韵,辅音无韵。is a fundamental phonetic concept.  Since HYPY barrowed English alphabets as its symbols, it should stick to the separation of the "names" of the letters and the pronunciation of the letters in spelling.  The name of letter "b" is "bee", but the pronunciation is very short bursting solid sound of both lips, without any "vowel" involved.  When teaching 辅音,all the material pronounced either with "e" or "o" rhyme.  Wrong!  Unless you remind your students that you are introducing the "names" of the symbols, followed by the right pronunciation in spelling, i.e. 辅音无韵。 Thus 歌 is rhymed, must be spelled "ge" as "e" contributes the rhyme.
Is it that the teaching method is so authoritative that no one ever pointed out its flaw? BTW, what's wrong with 声母 and 韵母 that they must be changed to 辅音 and 元音?
Comment: Very good answer which hits the nail exactly on its head. I have been annoyed by this for a long time. The problem is that many teachers are unaware of the difference between the label we put on certain sounds, as compared to the actual sounds. Yes, in English, we can say that a word is spelt "bee eye tee", "bit", but it's not pronounced "beeyetee". Similarly, Chinese teachers, without thinking about it, say it's pronounced "te ien", "tian", but it's obviously not pronounced "teien".
Comment: Too long a comment here, but the answer to the original question is that it's wrong for the same reason it would be wrong to write that the little flying, humming insect is called a "b" on an exam.
Comment: Are we missing something here?  If you told be "b" is pronounced as [bə] (as you didn't clarify it's not the pronunciation), what should I pronounce whe I see "bi", [bə-i]?  Your example is entirely missing the point.  It is letter "b" [bi] or bee, not the pronunciation of "b".  The pronunciation of "b" is short lip-bursting sound, not  [bi]/bee at all.  You are still mixing the name of the letter and the pronunciation of the letter, which is exactly the point in the first place.
Comment: I think there's some miscommunication here. I agree with your answer to the question (I said so in my first sentence). The original question is why "g" is the wrong answer to "how is 歌 pronounced", and my answer, which I think agrees 100% with yours, is that it's wrong for the same reason it's wrong to write the letter "b" on an exam where someone asks you to write how to pronounce the name of the flying insect.
Comment: Agreed.  The confusion comes from your habit not to add "letter" or  "(the) word" in front of your [bi] sound.  Letter [bi} definitely is "b", the word [bi] must be either "be" or "bee".
Answer: Because the consonants, aka initials, in Chinese Pinyin don't work they do in English. When Chinese pupils are learning the alphabet for pinyin, teachers won't teach the standard English pronunciations for all the letters. Instead, they would categorise initials into several categories:
b p m f - all are given an extra final [wo] (we shouldn't see it as a vowel because it contains a [w] pronunciation)
d t n l g k h - all are given an extra final [ə]
You can find more details in the Wiki page: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pinyin, where initials are set into several groups by different colours.
b  p  m  f
d  t  n  l
g  k  h
j  q  x
z  c  s  r
zh  ch  sh
Comment: Do you mean when in spelling, you still keep [w] and [ə] in the pronunciation?  So "di' should be pronounced as [dəi]?   "这是辅音 d [də](拉长), 在拼音的时候它的发音时用舌头顶住上颚........音 [d], 不能有韵(拉长),它的韵是后面的元音提供的。"   Wouldn't be much better?   I think you miss the part that the "name" and the "pronunciation" should be separatedly introduced and specified clearly.  BTW, are you suggesting that  English pronunciation is based on phonetic principles while Chines/Mandarin is not?
Comment: No, I specifically referred to bpmf in Chinese pinyin. They are not pronounced, such as /bo/ but more like /bwo/
Comment: So, you are correcting which part?  The name of "b" or the pronunciation (in spelling) of "b".  My point is very clear: they shouldn't ne the same.   Names are names, in Taiwan many still pronounce "b" as '
Comment: Sorry, typo.  In Taiwan "b" is still pronounced as "bə", not "bo" or "bwo", but whatever the names you use to call it, does no change the fact that there is only one pronunciation for "b" in spelling.  And teachers should make this point clearly.
Comment: I referred to OP's quote. Only main land Chinese would pronounce g (the initial) as /ge/
Comment: Sorry, obviously, 鸡同鸭讲。


How close to align pavers up to a timber retaining wall

Question: I'm wanting to lay concrete pavers on a walkway sloped towards a timber retaining wall.
The question I have is how close to the timber retaining wall should I lay the pavers. Laid immediately up to the timber wall wont allow any water flow through the drainflow coil situated inside the retaining wall, and will likely allow any water to run over the retaining wall which may result in erosion of the wall's piles.
I'm thinking a gap between where the pavers end and where the retaining wall timber starts will require a mortar haunching to bind the sand and base course under the pavers, preventing those layers from washing away. Then by filling the gap between the mortar haunching and the retaining wall timber with gravel/pebbles should allow for any water runoff to access the drainflow coil.
Any thoughts on this process? Heading in the right direction?
I've been looking online for a video of a similar paving/retaining example but not found one yet.
Comment: If you have that much water movement you need a French drain to take the water away.
Answer: Insert a drain channel.
Go to store in the gutter or roofing department. Find a 1 inch or larger U shape. (probably galvanized or aluminum)
Set it between pawers and retainer wall. Try to install it slightly sloped so the water runs off.
As added on bonus:
Wrap mosquito net (the aluminum type) around it before installing it, to stop rocks and sand falling in it.
Comment: Aluminum in contact with earth and water will not last, this is why electrical code won't allow aluminum grounding conductors within 18" of earth. But a nylon mesh or sock would work.
Answer: The primary purpose of a retaining wall, whether stone or timber, is to provide a path for water to pour over the wall, not to be be absorbed behind the wall. That will rot the timbers faster than pouring over them.
Runoff is the #1 defense... find ways to aid that. Take your pavers right up to the timbers, and if possible tuck them beneath.
What you're describing as a haunch sounds like more of a water trap, which will quicken the rot. Same as any water trapped behind the timbers in your fill (there's an obsession with water drainage behind retaining walls... it's a last resort... way, way, way less effective than surface drainage). Get your pavers and substrate under the timbers if you can.
A backdrain system is part of the system, but it's not the key part. You chose timbers, and can sustain them with various chemicals, but should enjoy their 30-year decay as part of your choice... there's no way to keep them structurally pristine. Aging and decaying timber is awesome.
In the meantime, get water pouring over them and not behind them.


How do I get economical/conflict data on Galaxy Map?

Question: The new update 1.3 has added economical data however I am unable to figure out how to get this data on the galactic map. Is there some sort of technology that needs to be installed?
Comment: I'm not adding this as an answer because it doesn't say where to find it, but the [No Man's Sky Website](http://www.nomanssky.com/atlas-rises-update/) says *Install galactic technology to be able to filter the map by lifeform, wealth and economy.*
Comment: I did see that but I have no idea where to get this technology. I suspect it may have something to do with getting rankings in the guilds but maybe I am wrong...
Answer: According to this guide, the new Economical and Conflict blueprints can be purchased at various blueprint vendors - you can find these within the space station. If your current star system does not have the blue print, simple hop to another one until you locate it

Firstly, you're going to want to find a blueprint vendor actually selling the blueprint to build one. It should cost around 400 nanite clusters to buy one however I'm not sure if this canges depending on the solar system you're in.

After you have the blueprint, it doesn't take a whole lot to build it

Once you have the blueprint you going to want around 200 Thamium and Heridium to build the tech. (I advise building it in a tech slot onboard your ship to avoid wasting cargo space.)

Once your technology has been built, you can install it into your ship to and load up the galactic map
Comment: Thanks, I actually came across the Conflict scanner while playing last night, and promptly bought it.


Repairing textured walls

Question: We are making an offer on a home with textured walls.  Unfortunately, the owner has many, many pictures/decorations hanging. Can we ask that the walls be repaired as part of the offer?  Repair looks like a very big deal to me.
Answer: You can ask anything you want from the seller.  Replace the roof, add a garage, repaint, remove shrubbery, fix a sewer line, replace the fireplace, etc.
Typically the seller will either reject any involvement in such projects (considering them excessive or unnecessary for adequate living conditions), or agree to a lower price to offset your cost of doing it yourself (or by a contractor).
Around here (Oregon), wall hanging holes are considered part of the normal wear and tear of a home.  Usually, it isn't much work to spackle the holes, sand, and repaint to get a passably virgin-looking surface.
If there is a serious degradation of the wall surface—beyond normal wear (for example 10 years of missing a dartboard)— you could ask for sheetrock replacement but that would only seem sensible if the wall has widespread major damage evident by its very structure being weakened.
Answer: You and your realtor can ask for any repairs in your offer.  If these walls are damaged beyond the point of a repair with spakle and paint, then you may want to specify the paint color too.  Otherwise you're probably going want to repaint anyway, and most holes can be filled and blended in with the texture in the process of re-painting.
Answer: Yes, you can request repairs but why not adjust your offer to take them into account?  This way, you can be sure the repairs are done to your satisfaction and you're not quibbling over the price of a home for what is a relatively minor issue (compared to finding issues re: foundation, etc.).

Repairing textured walls


What is the new segwit network option on binance and how does it work?

Question: Recently Binance announced support for segwit deposits. I see old address and lot of other options on the right with segwit in the end. Is it a new network? What are the other options mentioned on Binance to deposit BTC and are they similar to segwit?
Comment: Other questions on this site answer what is SegWit and the benefits of SegWit. I don't see why Binance specifically is brought into this. So that's three of the four questions that should be closed if looked at individually. I'd be open to a question on what wallets support SegWit although given that it changes all the time the information would quickly become stale without regular updates. Hence voting to close.
Comment: Closing doesn't help anything. Thanks for your contribution. I was expecting considering your votes on my questions in past and one of the reasons I post less questions and more answers here.
Comment: Hmm a touch bizarre response. I've reached out to you privately.
Comment: Please make your question more focused. There are 4 questions here, and some of them already have good answers in this site.
Comment: I have edited the Question. Hope this looks better. I obviously know the answers to all and thats why answered it myself but intention was to share the misleading options available there to deposit BTC and how segwit is mentioned as a separate network. I mentioned all questions a newbie would have if looking at such option for the first time.
Comment: User: How do I send BTC to 0x address?https://i.ibb.co/0fr5m2K/Screenshot-20201228-042037-01-01.jpg Binance Support: Sir BTC fees are high so this is new network with low fees. Change to some wrapped token and use it.
Comment: Not sure if you realize or not this affects **Bitcoin** and **Segwit adoption**
Answer: On 2020-12-24, Binance announced support for deposits to native segwit addresses.
Segregated witness ("segwit") refers to a soft fork that activated a series of Bitcoin improvement proposals (BIPs) in 2017. Among other things, segwit introduced two new standard output types, Pay to Witness Public Key Hash (P2WPKH) and Pay to Witness Script Hash (P2WSH). These native segwit outputs are more blockweight efficient than prior equivalent output formats, but wallets had to be updated to create them.
After three years, receiving payments to native segwit addresses is considered best practice, and almost all wallets and services are able to send to native segwit addresses.
Answer:
Segwit is not a separate network as mentioned in the screenshot instead its a Bitcoin protocol upgrade that provides lower transaction fees. This is also mentioned in the "Tips" section on same page in Binance.
Segwit is defined in BIP: 141,143,144,145 and 173 according to my understanding. In this context its just an address type you will use for BTC deposits on Binance.
Most of the open source and self-custodial wallets support segwit. Example: Bitcoin Core, Electrum, Samourai, Wasabi, Bluewallet etc.
Other things mentioned to deposit BTC: BEP2, BEP20 (BSC) and ERC20 are not associated with Bitcoin. It is misleading and you will need tokens on other chains to deposit using those addresses which is not same as bitcoin.
You can read about benefits of segwit here: https://bitcoincore.org/en/2016/01/26/segwit-benefits/