Oracle: getting non unique duplicates with group by ... having count

Question: I'm trying to build a query that shows only non-unique duplicates. I've already built a query that shows all the records coming into consideration:
SELECT       tbl_tm.title, lp_index.starttime, musicsound.archnr
FROM         tbl_tm
INNER JOIN   musicsound on tbl_tm.fk_tbl_tm_musicsound = musicsound.pk_musicsound
INNER JOIN   lp_index ON musicsound.pk_musicsound = lp_index.fk_index_musicsound
INNER JOIN   plan ON lp_index.fk_index_plan = plan.pk_plan
WHERE        tbl_tm.FK_tbl_tm_title_type_music = '22' AND plan.airdate
             BETWEEN to_date ('15-01-13') AND to_date('17-01-13')
GROUP BY     tbl_tm.title, lp_index.starttime, musicsound.archnr
HAVING COUNT (tbl_tm.title) > 0;

The corresponding result set looks like this:
title                   starttime   archnrr
============================================
Pumped up kicks         05:05:37    0616866
People Help The People  05:09:13    0620176
I can't dance           05:12:43    0600109
Locked Out Of Heaven    05:36:08    0620101
China in your hand      05:41:33    0600053
Locked Out Of Heaven    08:52:50    0620101

It gives me music titles played between a certain timespan along with their starting time and archive ID.
What I want to achieve is something like this:
title                  starttime    archnr
============================================
Locked Out Of Heaven   05:36:08     0620101
Locked Out Of Heaven   08:52:50     0620101

There would only be two columns left: both share the same title and archive number but differ in the time part. Increasing the 'HAVING COUNT' value will give me a zero-row
result set, since there aren't any entries that are exactly the same.
What I've found out so far is that the solution for this problem will most likely have a nested subquery, but I can't seem to get it done. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.
Note: I'm on a Oracle 11g-server. My user has read-only privileges. I use SQL Developer on my workstation.
Answer: You can try something like this:
SELECT title, starttime, archnr
FROM (
SELECT title, starttime, archnr, count(*) over (partition by title) cnt
FROM (your_query))
WHERE cnt > 1

Here is a sqlfiddle demo
Comment: Glad to be of some help. If you feel that this answer is a good one, please consider accepting it http://stackoverflow.com/faq#howtoask
Comment: I tried it right away and repladed "your_query" with that whole statement that gives me all the records (i.e. the one with the triple inner join). It seems to work. Thanks alot for the quick answer!


Eclipse can't run specific project

Question: I have problem with Eclipse IDE. I can't run specific file. (all others works fine) When I try to run it, I get output of older project. I can't find name of that new project when I click arrow next to "run" button.
Restarting Eclipse and computer doesn't help. I tried delete that project and make new - same. Can someone help me, please?
Answer: Right click in the editor window there is run option click on it to run

Eclipse can't run specific project


how to save register information at checkout permanently?

Question: At checkout page I selected checkout method as register. Now I completed billing information (it is included also register info). After going to next step meanwhile I'm checking in the admin panel to see customer information. But nothing is there. I know that the entire steps stored in quote object temp. After placing the order it will store as a permanent thing. But I want to  store customer information permanently once I fill the billing information.
Thanks in advance
Answer: Actually the address is already saved in quote table, you can use that is it fits your requirement. This is the table that gets it all saved.
<code>sales_flat_quote_address
</code>
Answer: There are two things to take into consideration here: customer will be saved once order is placed, not in the middle of the checkout process. If you still want to save the customer when billing is filled, you might want to create an observer.
This is explained here: customer save before process checkout button click
Answer: In magento, the information that is saved during the checkout process is a quote and once the process is complete, an order is created from the quote.
Logically speaking, the person who requests a quote is not yet a customer so no customer account is created for this person, once the order process is complete the information is used to create a customer. So, you won't see any customer being created in the backend until the order is placed.
However, if you somehow want to access the information of a quote this is found in sales_flat_quote table and you can access it anytime to get the information you need.


Should you use Genetic algorithm for an extremly large unstructured search space?

Question: My search space is discrete and in the order of $10^{1360}$, with a probably very complex fitness surface. Is it hopeless to attempt to use GA for such a problem? One fitness evaluation could take 1-3 minutes per candidate solution.
Comment: Thanks for the comment. One fitness evaluation is for one solution, not a whole generation. I edited to make it clear.
Comment: This question does not contain nearly enough information to be answerable.
Comment: You are saying that computing the fitness function for a single element in a single generation run takes 1-3 minutes? I.e. a single generation takes a few hours?
Comment: Not an answer to your question, but I hope still useful. There is a branch of search algorithms based on Bayesian methods. Some of these algorithms are targeted at search problems with long computation time and even may take the time necessary to evaluate a function into account when considering which parts of the space to explore to get best improvements quickly. See e.g. http://www.cs.ubc.ca/~hutter/nips2011workshop/papers_and_posters/opportunitycost.pdf
Comment: If the search space is truly unstructured then no algorithm will work besides brute force.
Answer: No.  Just knowing the size of the search space is not enough to tell whether GA will work or not.  It also depends on the objective function (the "shape" of it), e.g., whether it is smoothly varying or not, how many local minima it has, and so on.
There is no good theory to know whether GA will work or not.  Ultimately, all you can do is try it and see.
As a side note: Generally speaking, for most problems, other approaches tend to do better than GA.  This is not a theorem; it's just experience / a rule of thumb that seems to often hold.


Is it illegal to aggregate and publish publically available personal information?

Question: Is it against the law to aggregate and publish legally gathered, publically available information such as:

Social media usernames
Real names
Date of Birth
City/Country
Screenshots of posts/comments
Email address
Answer: It might be a copyright violation to reproduce content that they created. (This question/answer explains fair use.)
It would not be illegal in the US to publish the other information as long as you don't make any threats.
Comment: May have jumped the gun accepting this answer because it's not legal in the UK
Answer: The UK is still in the EU and is expected to keep the GDPR after Brexit becomes effective.
Some of the examples you mention (such as "real names") are what the EU defines as personal data (GDPR Article 4, definition 1).
Under EU law, it is illegal to process (that includes collecting, storing and publishing) personal data unless the activity meets the criteria for Lawfulness of processing (GDPR Article 6).
In your case, consent is the only legal base for processing that may apply.
This means that doing this illegal in the UK, unless you first obtain consent from the data subject.
Answer: If the information is about users who are unaware of or did not authorize the publicity, then it might be illegal. That information might be legally gathered and publicly available but that doesn't mean the public availability was authorized by the people who shared it.
But we are still trying to figure out what property rights are with respect to data in U.S. law. This is currently being discussed in Carpenter v. US 16 S.Ct. 402 (2017).


Dame Aylin Missing?

Question: I am in ACT 3 and am trying to complete the sorcerer's sundries quest with Lorrokan. My issue is that Dame Aylin flew off after she spoke to Shadowheart and gave her the spear. Once I spoke to Lorrokan, everyone told me to go tell Dame Aylin about him… but when I go back to camp she's not there. I finished Shadowheart's quest in case that was the trigger, but now I am stuck in limbo because I can't finish Gale's companion quest because Dame Aylin is nowhere to be found! Is it a bug? Do I need to start Act 3 over again? Thanks in advance for any help!
Answer: From what Reddit says
You might need to start the Act over again, or go to Moonrise Towers, or just kill

 Lorroakan

Or go to "lorroakans tower" and:

 I ended up talking to that short haired merc outside of lorroakans tower and told him that dame aylin was in my camp and he can try to take her. When I long rested, him and his goons came to my camp too try to take her.
Answer: At the end of Act 2, after you've finished

 the Ketheric Thorm arc and left the Mindflayer Colony,

you can talk to Dame Aylin and Isobel inside the throne room and invite them to your camp. However, this is an optional dialogue option that you're not required to do. You probably missed this option.
Note that you haven't broken Gale's questline.

 You can kill Lorrokoan in his tower, then do some jumping downstairs to the lower floor and use a Perception skill check to find a plaque that reads vault. Click the nearby button and you'll end up in Lorrokoan's vault, which is where you can find the tome related to Karsus that you need to find for Gale. Alternatively there's a secondary entrance to that vault through a door on the second floor.

Dame Aylin Missing?


Do we still know more about the Moon than Antarctica?

Question: I have no specific sources to cite, but years ago it seemed we had more general knowledge & study of the Moon than of Antarctica...
...Now however Antarctica is more studied than the Moon, & relevant to general space exploration...
Comment: I'll try to check the skeptics site to see if i misunderstood the order in which we learned about Antarctica & The Moon. But we now know far more about Antarctica & it's absolutely relevant to space exploration: Discovery of life, drilling, terraforming, etc etc.
Comment: This isn't really about the subject of space exploration, but we DO have a [skeptics site](http://skeptics.stackexchange.com) which is about challenging notable claims you encounter. Check it out and see if it is appropriate there. Perhaps it has already been asked and answered.
Comment: It's also quite an apples-and-oranges comparison. How do you quantify *knowledge* about two completely different research subjects?
Answer: This is unlikely. After World War 2, dozens of countries opened research stations on Antarctica. There are more than 50 stations at the moment, many of them operate year-round. Hundreds of scientists get the opportunity to visit and study Antarctica each year.
This is in sharp contrast with 6 manned Moon missions totaling a few weeks of human presence on the Moon, plus some unmanned probes.


What happens if some of the information provided when subscribing a car insurance are incorrect?

Question: I recently bought a car in UK and I subscribed a new car insurance. I did my best to answer all the questions with accuracy. However, I cannot remember very well when was my last claim and the previous insurance company (which was abroad) doesn't have that information anymore. I believe my last claim was about 20 years ago, so when subscribing the new insurance I claimed my last claim was 20+ years ago. What happens if in reality it was 19 years ago? Unfortunately, I have no way to verify that. Does that mean in case of an accident, the insurance wouldn't cover? Would that mean the third party would ask me to pay for the damage instead? Also, there were silly questions like if I use the car for social purposes only. I normally use it for social purposes, as I take the train for work. But let's suppose one day there is a train strike and I have to take the car for work. Then let's suppose that day I have an accident... so what happens? Does that mean the insurance doesn't cover? They asked me to install a device on the car to monitor my usage: does that mean that if I use the car for work only once, then they don't cover any other accident even when using the car socially?
Comment: Not an answer, but for your peace of mind when I subscribed my car policy in the UK (by phone) I told the agent that I had had a claim in Spain like 5 years before and he dismissed it as "we can't verify overseas claims". 20 or 19 years ago is not going to make a difference anyway.
Answer: The insurer can avoid the claim for a qualifying misrepresentation

The remedy that is available depends on whether the qualifying misrepresentation is either (a) deliberate or reckless, or (b) careless. If it is deliberate or reckless, the insurer may avoid the contract, refuse all claims and retain the premium. If the misrepresentation is merely careless, the insurer may only avoid the contract if it can show that it would not have entered into the contract of insurance at all had the insured complied with its section 2(2) duty. In those circumstances the insurer must return the premium. If the insurer would still have entered into the contract but on different terms, or would have charged a higher premium, then proportionate remedies as more commonly encountered under the provisions of the Insurance Act 2015 apply.

Your misrepresentation that your last accident was more than 20 years ago when it was 19 years ago is careless and the insurer must prove that they would not have offered you car insurance if you hadn't made that mistake. They aren't going to be able to do this and they are unlikely to try.
However, if it was last year then that starts to look deliberate or reckless, if so, you have no insurance. You might convince a judge that it was mere carelessness if the claim was minor and you car was off the road only for a day or two. If the insurer can show that it never offers insurance to people who make such a disclosure, then you have no insurance. More likely is that they would have charged you a higher premium or excess or both - you are insured but you owe them the difference.
"Social purposes" will be defined in the policy
Particularly since it's a weird term. Most policies would use "private use" or "commercial/business use". Driving to and from work would normally be "personal use", driving for work would be commercial.
Usually within those definitions there are reasonable exceptions. For example, personal use might include not more than X number of business use per year.
Now, this type of situation is unlike the past-crash data because it is a representation of your intentions and no one can accurately predict the future. However, insurance contracts almost alway contain an obligation for the insured to inform the insurer of changed circumstances that increase risk. So, if you start using your car for business, you have to tell the insurer and they may adjust your premium. However, if you had been using it for business and stopped, you don't have to tell them because the change reduces the risk.
Comment: Do you know if the insurer also has to prove causation to cancel the policy retroactively in a deliberate or reckless falsehood case? For example, suppose you actually intended 50% business use and just lied about that, but the accident happened on a Saturday en route to a family wedding?
Comment: @ohwilleke practically, how would they know? Legally, if you make a "deliberate or reckless" misrepresentation then that is a time-bomb in the policy. The policy is broader than any single claim - you have a policy even if you never claim.
Comment: The usual fact pattern would be an accident resulting in a significant claim resulting in a review of the policy and the application for it and an investigation of the accuracy of what was stated in the application, resulting in a policy cancelation that takes effect with respect to the claim made. Prospective cancellation, and a suit for back premiums that should have been paid is another  matter. Retroactive termination/denied coverage when it is for a reason unrelated to the accident would normally not be allowed in U.S. insurance law, even though other penalties might apply.
Comment: Also, does the UK have the concept of incontestability (which makes it impossible for an insurance company to deny a claim based upon an application misrepresentation after a certain number of years, usually one year or two year from the issuance of the policy)?
Answer: I believe that you are overthinking this. An error, made in good faith, saying that your most recent claim was 20+ years ago when it was actually, say, 18 years ago is not likely to be material. That is, ad accurate answer probably would not have changed their willingness to take your business or affected the rate charged significantly. What they are after is an estimate of how oftne you have made claims in the past, and thus how likely you are to make them in the future.
Similarly, that "social use" question is intended to ask if you regularly and routinely use the car for commuting, or for actual business purposes (say as a delivery driver). An occasional unforeseen "non-social" would not void your policy. Checking "social only" if one has an hour-long commute by car every day might. The reason for this question is that someone who uses the car for commuting is in it more hours and drives more miles, and thus statistically has a higher chance of an accident or other claim, and so might pay a higher rate.
Answer:
Also, there were silly questions like if I use the car for social purposes only. I normally use it for social purposes, as I take the train for work. But let's suppose one day there is a train strike and I have to take the car for work. Then let's suppose that day I have an accident... so what happens? Does that mean the insurance doesn't cover?

Broadly speaking there's the following classes of use:
Social Domestic & Pleasure - Normal day to day driving. Shopping, visiting friends or family and pleasure driving such as going to the park or on holiday
Commuting - Driving to and from one place of work in a day. Some insurers include driving your car to the train station and leaving it there while you go to work as commuting.
Business use - Using your car as part of your job, or driving to multiple places of work in one day. There's further sub-divisions of Business use for when you're carrying goods or passengers.
The exact type of journeys covered by the different classes can vary from insurer to insurer with some combining the SDP and commuting aspects. If your insurer differentiates between the two then SDP-only cover would not include driving to work, even one-off occurrences. This doesn't invalidate your insurance in general - just for the times you were using it outside of the covered purposes.
This last aspect is one of the places where the black-box potentially comes in - say some less-than-honest person tried to save a few quid by ticking the SDP-only option but commutes anyway. They then have an accident whilst on the commute, the insurance company looks at the usage data and determines that they were making regular journeys at the start and end of the day, Monday-Friday and it was one such journey they had the accident. A little light digging later and voila the insurer finds out they were exceeding the coverage and they're on the hook for the cost of the claim - Ouch.
It's worth noting here that you likely aren't uninsured in a criminal sense - the insurer will still be considered the insurer of record for purposes of the Road Traffic Act and will have to pay out any third party liabilities. They can decline any first party liabilities however - and may pursue you civilly to recoup the costs they've paid out to the third party.

However, I cannot remember very well when was my last claim and the previous insurance company (which was abroad) doesn't have that information anymore. I believe my last claim was about 20 years ago, so when subscribing the new insurance I claimed my last claim was 20+ years ago. What happens if in reality it was 19 years ago? Unfortunately, I have no way to verify that. Does that mean in case of an accident, the insurance wouldn't cover?

You're fine - firstly an accident that far back is unlikely to qualify as a material fact, i.e. something that affects either the price of the policy or the decision to insure you at all, and even if it did they would have to show that you deliberately misled them as to that fact for it to have major consequences Otherwise the most likely scenario is be required to pay the difference in premium. In twenty years of insuring cars in the UK I don't think I've ever been asked about accident history going back further than 5 years and most insurers will only retain the records for 7-10 years in any event.
Comment: "But let's suppose one day there is a train strike and I have to take the car for work. Then let's suppose that day I have an accident... so what happens?" Worth noting that this particular question is, necessarily, about expected use at the time the application is completed, not actual use in the future (which is not a presently existing fact about which there can be a false representation), so as long as the expectation was sincerely believed at the time, it can't be a true misrepresentation, even if life doesn't turn out as expected.
Answer: If you have not been insured with the same company since the claim I doubt they even have your data or the claim data anymore. At best they would keep it 10 years while they can delete it after only 6 if they want. A lot changes with reporting systems in insurance and most checks don't get carried out until after the fact when in reality they really should be liable to getting that information themselves before insuring you.
Responsibility should fall on you both to come to an agreement, which is what your contract becomes but unfortunately we sign it away in the small print.
If its been 20 years, you can be sure by making a Subject Access Request to your old provider and they will respond with all\if any data they still hold about your claim. I'm guessing stuff was still being processed on paper still back then before paperless desk policies kicked in. Give it a try, it doesn't cost you anything and you will know for sure an answer to give them.


Mass export files from Chatter Feed and Chatter Comments

Question: How to mass export files from  chatter feed and chatter comments.I looked into the reviews of  file exporter app but it looks like it is not supporting chatter attachments.Is there any other way to achieve this?
Answer: You can use the API to accomplish part of this. For files that are attached to feed items, you can query the FeedItem SObject for ContentData where the Type = ContentPost.
Unfortunately, files attached to comments aren't supported in the SObject API. They're supported in the Chatter REST API and Chatter in Apex, but you wouldn't be able to do a mass export because those APIs can only run as the current, logged-in user. They're not data APIs.
Answer: You can retrieve the chatter posts and document record id's in bulk through the rest and soap API by querying the feeditem and feed attachment
then after this you can loop over your list of feedattachments and retrieve the contentDocuments and the files in them 1 by 1 in base64 format through scripting.
the final step would then be to decode the base64 strings and store the documents again with the correct filenames on your local system.
keep in mind when doing such exports that you need to have sufficient data storage and memory allocated to the system performing these exports, hence why you will also need to retrieve documents 1 by 1 to avoid errors


Is here a place for report - without a question?

Question: I noted a problem. I made a heavy testing and I discovered a fundamental discrepancy between theory and practical realization. I spent an extra time to write a short report, and I tried to posted it here. But I got a comment saying it is an off-topic. Well, if you agree, do I have to delete that post. (?)
Comment: Your post is fine even though they don't think so. So I upvoted your post and voted to reopen it. They also downvoted my post into invisible https://unix.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5697/lets-return-to-the-full-meaning-of-unix-linux.
Answer: To answer the title of your question: no, SE's format does not support Questions in the form of "reports". Each Question should have a problem that has a solution (Answer). Self-answers are completely acceptable, too, if you've found an interesting problem and have found a solution to it.
As I said on your question, if you're trying to understand the discrepancy you've found, ask that. You've done a great job describing the results (along with excellent ASCII diagrams!), but when you say:

I do not expect any solving of this problem, but your experience and opinions are welcome.

... that leads your question directly off-topic.
As to your existing Meta Answer here: while you've done great research, SE is also not a bug report forum, nor a way to alert project or kernel developers.
Sharing knowledge is a big part of SE; the format simply demands a Question with a question in it, followed by one or more Answers.
You've had a U&L account for a couple years now, and have provided other valuable Questions and Answers. It does take some time to get used to the way things work around here, so I'd encourage you to take a moment to reflect on your RAID question and see whether there's a problem that someone in this community can answer. If, instead, it's ongoing research or part of a bug report, consider tracking down the developers who are responsible for that code and approach them with your results.
Answer: Let me say my opinion, based on the offer to: Answer your own question – share your knowledge. What I did: I posted me a question, I did a testing, and even I did not solved the problem, I have identified deeper system issues that only project and kernel developers can solve. Hence I vote to accept my post, because I share my knowledge throu it.
Answer: I appreciate your attempt to defend your position, Jeff and the others, but let me explain my point of view: Have a look at allowed type of question and carefuly read the final paragraph. I also edited and expanded my post with new measurement and knowledge.
I respect your fear of endless discussions and even flames, but I did not start any.
Thanks for your careful judgement.


What is the meaning of & at the end of a command?

Question: I have a startup script line:
pyprogramm >> /dev/null  2>&1 &

Meanings:
>> /dev/null - redirect stdout to null device
2>&1 - redirect stderr to stdout (that is redirected to null device)

but what does the very last & mean?
Answer: What is the & terminator ?
The trailing & operator at the end of a command is used to put commands into background. This is actually a standard syntax specified by POSIX standard:

Asynchronous Lists
If a command is terminated by the control operator
   ( '&' ), the shell shall execute the command
  asynchronously in a subshell. This means that the shell shall not wait
  for the command to finish before executing the next command.
The format for running a command in the background is:
command1 & [command2 & ... ]

The purpose of backgrounding commands is to run a command without the main shell in script or interactive shell waiting for command, which would block execution of other commands and make an inconvenience for the user to wait. This is handy for starting long-running commands but you need to continue work in the current shell. As you can guess, this originated from the time where there were no multi-tab terminal emulators, but terminals were actual physical hardware connected to a computer itself.
From the definition you can see that & also serves as command terminator for lists of commands, much like ; does. In your specific example, pyprogramm >> /dev/null  2>&1 & there is only one command in the list.
Sequential ; lists vs asynchronous & lists
More generally,
echo Hello ; echo World ;

and
echo Hello & echo World &

are two examples of lists terminated by the ; and & operators. One difference is that & terminated list will have input connected to /dev/null if job control is disabled:

If job control is disabled (see set, -m), the standard input for an
  asynchronous list, before any explicit redirections are performed,
  shall be considered to be assigned to a file that has the same
  properties as /dev/null. This shall not happen if job control is
  enabled. In all cases, explicit redirection of standard input shall
  override this activity.

In sequential list, however, each command still has stdin connected to terminal if there are no explicit redirections.
Note also, that from the definition we mentioned earlier, & executes commands in subshell. By contrast, the ; terminated list is executed in current shell. There's also difference in exit statuses. For & the standard says:

The exit status of an asynchronous list shall be zero.

This is significant when you want to put multiple commands in background. When you write a script or command you will have to chose commands for which you don't care if they failed or not, or you will have to find a way to handle the non-zero ( error ) exit status.  In your specific example, pyprogramm >> /dev/null  2>&1 & running in background should have some way of indicating if it failed or not, however judging that you use 2>&1 you are hiding error output by redirecting, and you probably assume the script should not fail.
By contrast, ; exit status is defined as:

The exit status of a sequential list shall be the exit status of the
  last command in the list.

Again, this has implications on how you write a sequential list of commands in command-line and how you want things to be handled if some of the commands in the list failed.

Side notes and additional reading

The fact that this is POSIX definition means that all Bourne-like shells, meaning bash, dash, and ksh must support it.
& in redirection is different from & as command terminator. It means duplicating (copying) the file-descriptor object. See What does & mean exactly in output redirection?

In bash there is also |& operator ( note no space between pipe and ampersand ). From bash manual:

If |& is used, command's standard error, in addition to its  standard
  output,  is  connected  to command2's standard input through the pipe;
  it is shorthand for 2>&1 |.  This implicit redirection of  the
  standard  error  to  the  standard  output  is performed after any
  redirections specified by the command.
Comment: What you say about `&` hiding output does not sound correct. The paragraph from the standard which you are quoting speaks of *input*, not *output*. The reason for the distinction between job control being enabled or not is that a background process attempting to read from the tty will get suspended. At that point you need to use job control to put it in the foreground to provide the input it is waiting for. All of that can't be done without job control and thus if job control is disabled the stdin needs to be redirected from `/dev/null` or equivalent.
Comment: I spotted a mistake in your edit as well. In one place you wrote enabled where you should have written disabled.
Comment: @kasperd Yeah, I was just re-reading the POSIX page when I noticed that as well.  Already fixed.  Let me know if anything else needs editing. Thanks :)
Answer: It means run the command in the background. The calling script continues rather than blocking until the called command completes.
Answer: & this returns control of the script to the operating system but sent the response to the background not as nohup that directly sends the entire execution


FreeBSD/ZFS disk in pool and not in a pool at the same time

Question: I have following status:
$ zpool status
   pool: cs01
  state: DEGRADED
 status: One or more devices has been taken offline by the administrator.
    Sufficient replicas exist for the pool to continue functioning in a
    degraded state.
 action: Online the device using 'zpool online' or replace the device with
    'zpool replace'.

scan: none requested
config:
    NAME                      STATE     READ WRITE CKSUM
    cs01                      DEGRADED     0     0     0
      raidz1-0                DEGRADED     0     0     0
        11994499246498421261  OFFLINE      0     0     0  was /dev/ada2
        ada3                  ONLINE       0     0     0
        ada4                  ONLINE       0     0     0
      ada2                    ONLINE       0     0     0

I want to creat new pool:
      $ sudo zpool create bk01 ada5
      invalid vdev specification
      use '-f' to override the following errors:
      /dev/ada5 is part of active pool 'cs01'

So...
     $ sudo zpool detach cs01 ada5
     cannot detach ada5: no such device in pool
     $ sudo zpool detach cs01 ada5
     cannot detach ada5: no such device in pool

So, is ada5 in cs01 or not?
Disclaimer: ada5 was ada2 one (now missing from cs01), but it has a hw error (stopped responding), so it was removed and reformated.
I messed my cs01 pool a bit, so I want to use ada5 as temporary backup so I can recreate cs01. How can I fix this mess?
Answer: This is what zpool labelclear is for.
The disk still has ZFS metadata on it indicating that it is part of a zpool, because you removed the disk without telling ZFS about it first.
To resolve the problem, use zpool labelclear -f <device>. This will wipe the ZFS labels from the device so that it can be used in another pool. -f is required when the device label indicates that it is still active in a zpool, as in your case.


Where to plug the Firewall into the SFP or a normal port?

Question: I have a Cisco SG220 and a ZyXel USG20 firewall appliance.  I'm new to the SG220 and SFP ports in general.  Where is the optimal place to plug in the Firewall to the Switch. Normally I would just plug it into any port on the switch, but with the SFP I'm not sure.
Comment: It doesn't seem to matter much. The Cisco switch is only a layer-2 switch. There may be reasons to pick a particular interface, but you haven't provided any information that could affect the interface choice.
Comment: There is more to it than that. You show the physical network design, but you could have a logical design that is different, the interfaces could be different speeds, etc. If there are 100 Mbps interfaces, and your WAN is limited to 10 Mbps, then the WAN will be the limiting factor. If you have multiple VLANs, you will want the trunk link to the routing device to be a faster interface than the access interfaces if you are doing inter-VLAN routing. Etc. There is just a lot of information you don't detail.
Comment: Interface is 1Gb copper.  Sorry about that.
Answer: USG20 supports 1Gbps so I would connect to SG220 over one of two GigabitEthernet Ports which are usually used for uplinks next to port 0/23 and 0/24. Unfortunately USG20 doesn't support LCAP/PaGP so you won't be able to create bundle for redundancy purposes. But to be honest as @Ron Maupin said doesn't matter where exactly you will connect more likely your limited factor will be WAN.
Comment: Looking up - LACP(Link Aggregation Control Protocol)  and PAgP(Port Aggregation Protocol ) - Got it thanks!!


AS3 loading screen on iOS & android

Question: I am building a book application in Flash Professional CS5.5 to be released on tablet devices and I am trying to understand the best structure for loading the application. For iOS devices I know I can include the default.png, but how can accomplish a similar task for Android? The book application is also going to be large as it includes a lot of assets and animations, is there a good way to show that this is loading on both platforms?
One thing I was trying was a loading screen where the main application was actually a loading system that would import the compiled SWF book, but further research shows that it won't work for iOS devices.
Thanks for any tips or pointers.
Comment: Try looking at this question:  http://stackoverflow.com/q/7917667/516537
Answer: Well, in the end, I'm developing the main app itself for iOS and exporting that with the Default.png. Then the Android version is a smaller splashscreen/preloader app which will load the SWF version of the iOS app. Is this the correct way of doing it? Probably not, but it's what I've come up with after reading way too many articles that brush the concept.

AS3 loading screen on iOS & android


Attacking admin and non-admin User accounts on the same PC

Question: Imagine the following scenario;
A hacker want to attack a remote PC and take control of it using RAT. This PC has three user accounts.
- A (administrator account.
- B (non- administrator  account)
- C (administrator account)
The attacker sends malicious (RAT included!) emails to both  user A and user B to infect the PC.
My question is what happens if user A who has an administrator account installs the malicious application?does his action get the other two accounts infected as well and lets the hacker take control of all user accounts?or only his account is compromised?
Answer: Whenever you detect that an attacker's code has been executed, it is best to act with the assumption that all data on the system is potentially compromised. This is especially true if a privileged user was compromised, as even if they require affirmative action to don their privileges (sudo, etc), they will at some point do so. At that moment the attack code can fully compromise the system.
Even if the infected user has no privileges, a number of local vulnerabilities may exist (unknown to the administrator) that could grant the code increased privileges without any privileged user ever logging in.
It is a problem of 'unknown unknowns', and with local access the attack surface is simply much larger.
It's worth considering that local network communications can be generated, sniffed, and spoofed by the attack code so you can't merely assume that information and accounts on other machines are secure.
Answer: If you're talking about a Windows PC then yes.

When you a local administrator on a system you have complete access to that machine and can escalate to SYSTEM -the highest level of privilege on a local Windows PC. Once the attacker is an admin on that system, the box (and all user accounts and data) should be considered fully compromised.


Can Time Machine back up to an external HD connected to another Mac?

Question: Is it possible to use Time Machine to back up to an external hard drive connected to a Mac on same wifi network?
Answer: Yes. I've been doing this since Snow Leopard. All my MacBook Pros in the house do their Time Machine backups to an external USB drive that's hanging off an iMac running the standard OS X install (i.e. not Server). At the time of writing the iMac has been upgraded to Lion as has one of the MacBook Pros.
First, configure your target machine (the one with the USB drive attached):

Format the drive as OS X Extended Journaled. Give it a useful name. I use 'Remote Backups'.
Go to System Preferences -> Sharing
Make sure File Sharing is turned on and has a check mark next to it
Under the 'Shared Folders' list click the + button and add your newly formatted USB drive to the list of shared folders
Select the drive in the list and under 'Users' make sure everyone shown has read/write access to the drive.

Now you need to configure your source machine (the one you want to keep it's Time Machine volume on this drive):

Open Finder on the machine. Find your target machine and click on it. Mount the drive on this machine.

If you're asked for a user name and password use the user name and password on your target machine that you used to login and setup the share. Make sure you save this user name and password to your keychain

Go to System Preferences -> Time Machine
Click Select Disk...
The list should include the mounted drive, select that. Pick your encryption options and hit the Use Backup Disk button

You're now all set up to use this remote drive as your Time Machine backup location. When Time Machine runs you'll see this drive appear as a mount on your system, and when it's done the mount will go away.
If you browse this drive from the target machine you'll see sparsebundle files, one for each machine that's doing a Time Machine backup to this drive, on the disk. These are the actual "disks" that Time Machine is using on each machine to keep the incrementals. If you click on one, it should mount and you should be able to browse it like normal.
If you have a complete disaster and need to do a fresh OS X install and recover from Time Machine you can point the recovery process at the remote drive and it will ask you to pick a sparsebundle from the drive to recover from. Or, and this is what I recommend, you can unattach the drive from your target and attach it via USB to your machine and do the restore over USB which is much faster.
I can confirm that complete restores from Time Machine backups kept in this manner work well. I've had to do two of them in the past few years on machines that keep their backups this way and both went smashingly well. Browsing Time Machine history in the Time Machine viewer can be a bit laggy, but it does work.
Comment: This apparently only works when all the planets are in  alignment. @stuffe's answer below is the Apple-tastic solution when this approach doesn't work.
Comment: I'm not sure which "special cases" are a source of concern, but I'm happy to report that this works for me without resorting to astrology.
Comment: I assure you no planets align for this to work in my network but I'm happy you found an answer you're so enthusiastic about.
Comment: By _"planets aligning"_ I simply meant that it only works when no special cases exist. Was I using hyperbole? [**Yes**](http://www.wisegeek.org/what-is-the-function-of-hyperbole-in-literature.htm).
Comment: This worked without a hitch for me on Mac OS X Mavericks. In fact, I only had to mount the drive; OS X automatically recognized that it was the drive I had previously had directly connected to the Mac (I recently migrated to a new one, which is now the one in the office connected to the external). Pretty cool.
Answer: The answer by Ian C. is correct. However, one small (but important) detail has been overlooked (one that took me a good hour to figure out!).
If the drive is not showing up in Time Machine on your Source Machine (the machine you want to back up), do the following:

Open 'System Preferences' on the Target Machine (the machine that has the External Drive attached).
Click 'Sharing' then 'Options'.
Untick 'Share files and folders using SMB'
Make sure 'Share files and folders using AFP' is ticked.

Now go back to your Source Machine and your External Drive should show up in the list of Time Machine Backup Disks!
Comment: This was the missing trick!
Answer: If the Mac is running OS X Server (In 10.7, not sure if this is available for 10.6) then you can turn on Time Machine Server, which does exactly what you need.  There's no need to run any of the other server tools if you don't want.  this is the only officially supported way to do this that I know of.
Comment: You so ROCK! Thanks, this is **EXACTLY** the answer. Every other 20 places on the web keep talking about using `tmutil` and using `afp://...` and unsupported NAS etc. and no matter what I did I still got errors. Yes I have the `Server.app` and as soon as I read your comment, problem solved.  THANKS!!!
Answer: I am running High Sierra on the source and target machines and ran into some difficulties with this process but then got it to work. I didn't bother with SMB vs. AFP as noted above (left them both turned on), but what I discoverd on the System Preferences, Sharing screen is that in addition to the Options button which has general choices about sharing SMB and AFP, you can two-finger click on the Shared Folder itself in the Shared Folders list and then choose Advanced Options from the context menu to get other options that apply to that particular share only. Specifically, there is a checkbox for 'Share as a Time Machine backup destination" and a sub-choice to limit the size of backups. Once I set those parameters and went back to the source machine, the share was visible as a valid backup destination.
Comment: This is what did it for me!
Comment: I was running into the problem getting AFP working between a 10.15 mac and 13.6 for a Time Machine Capsule connected to the 10.15 mac ... but your answer shed light on the real problem and was the solution!
Answer: If your backups are really important and you need a much more stable system for doing backups either remotely, wirelessly, online or an external drive, then I describe the best way how to do this below.
A hard drive used for Time Machine backups requires an HFS+ journaled partition which gets corrupted and unmountable very easily. Your signal getting cut off, a cable getting detached, the power going off, or your computer crashing during a backup is all it could take to have big problems. Often Disk Utility cannot repair the disk and you lose all your stored data.
This is why using Time Machine over wireless is risky (time capsules are expensive but do seem to be more reliable); be really sure that you have a good, reliable WiFi signal and set up your router to use a channel different than any other WiFi sources. (The free program WiFi Scanner is great for analyzing WiFi interference.)
My backup hard drive had a habit of mysteriously disconnecting without properly ejecting numerous times and I have lost files; most of my video, graphics, and photos which take up more storage then my laptop can hold.
I do video editing and design and for my situation I need something more reliable and flexible. It's worth it to me to spend a little extra money on this software because losing data had cost me in more ways than one. Here is an excerpt from their website:

This is the most flexible and reliable online backup solution for OS X, compatible with most Internet servers: FTP, FTPS, SFTP, WebDAV. It even supports offline backups to external drives.
xTwin  preserves Finder info, resource forks, ACLs, Privileges and comes with an elegant user interface and a powerful assistant. It also provides numerous high-end features like AES-256 encryption, efficient bz2 compression, powerful exclusion rules and scheduler, support for splitting large files during network transfers, network-error recovery, individual digital signature for backed up files, multi-cores machines optimization and more.
It has a powerful Backup Assistant to make it even easier to create or update backups.
  xTwin is designed to be very reliable and  handles small or very large data sets (hundreds of gigabytes and dozens of thousands of files). It is made to be impervious to network errors or even interrupted backups.

I use xTwin with an external USB teradrive. HFS+ Journaled formatting is so easy to corrupt and lose your data with but Time Machine requires it. So far the best solution I believe is to use xTwin with NFTS formatted drive. I learned that NFTS is much more stable and a lot easier to do data recovery with.  Disk Utility does not come standard with this format, but you can get  software such as Paragon which adds this option into disk utility.
It is much more important to me to have reliable backups than versions and the cool time machine way of accessing older files.
I will stick with this until Apple proves they have made a more stable filing system for backups.
Answer: I had the same issue with TM not recognizing/mounting a TM-formatted NAS volume.  After 2 days of reading forums and tinkering, my solution was a variation on the SMB - AFP issue.  As I have not seen my issue & solution explained elsewhere, I am posting it here.
Running 10.7.5 on a MBA.  Backup destination is a Synology DS214play, running DSM 5.0 with native TM-support.
We also have Mac Mini's running 10.6 and the process for pointing TM to the Synology NAS was very straight-forward which ruled out a problem with the Synology NAS.  This was the major source of confusion.  The different OS versions seem to create a subtle, but crucial difference in how TM handles this.
On the MBA (10.7.5), mounting the drive through finder and setting it to always re-mount during start-up was straight-forward.  I paid attention to the SMB / AFP formats when setting everything up on the partition on the NAS.  When mounting the drive on the MBA, it recognizes and displays only the drive name ("DiskStation").  In the background, it was defaulting to an smb format despite me having specified the afp format on the destination drive.
Solution:  instead of selecting and mounting the drive with a mouse-click, manually enter the IP address of the destination with an afp-prefix.  TM then instantly recognized the destination volume.  Somewhere between 10.6 and 10.7.5 something was changed causing TM to default to adding an SMB-prefix to the destination volume.  Tricky because it is then hidden.  Hope this helps.
Answer: It works even though Apple support told me it wouldn't.
Important step that I missed:
Open Finder on the machine to be backed up. Find your target machine and click on it. MOUNT the drive on this machine—i.e. make sure that the back up drive on is visible on your Finder sidebar as a separate entity (File Add to Sidebar).
I also portioned my backup Mac with a 500G partition for the backup to ensure no corruption etc. on the backup Mac with other applications.
Answer: Not possible that I know.
Only if connected to AEBS (Airport Extreme Base Station)
or server as far as I know
see : https://help.apple.com/machelp/mac/10.7/help/index.html?lang=en#mh15139
GreetZzz
Comment: While this may theoretically answer the question, [it is best](http://meta.stackexchange.com/q/8259) to summarize the contents of the link and provide the link for reference. Links have a tendency disappear over time, leaving a non-applicable answer for those who may stumble upon your answer in the future.


Earth-like Atmosphere Breaks Second Law of Thermodynamics due to Conduction?

Question: Consider a neutral gas around an Earth-like atmosphere with density, pressure and temperature given by $\rho,\ p$ and $T$ respectively. To keep the system a closed system assume that the atmosphere is far away from any star and no heat is coming from the planet below. The equation of motion for the gas is given by:
$$\rho\frac{D \vec{v}}{D t}=-\nabla p - \rho\nabla\Phi,$$
where $\Phi$ is the gravitational potential energy, given by:
$$\Phi = -\frac{GM}{r+R},$$
where $R$ is the radius of the planet and $r$ is the distance from the surface of the planet. Now we assume that the atmosphere is at steady-state and axisymmetric and so only depends on $r$. The equation of motion reduces to:
$$\frac{dp}{dr} = -\rho\frac{d\Phi}{dr}.$$
It is also assumed that the energy is spread evenly throughout the atmosphere such that:
$$\frac{d}{dr}\left(\rho\Phi+\frac{p}{\gamma -1}\right)=0,$$
where $\gamma=5/3$ is the ratio of specific heats and we assume our gas is a monatomic ideal gas. The solution to the above two equations is:
$$\rho=A|\Phi|^{1/(\gamma -1)-1},$$
$$p=A(\gamma-1)|\Phi|^{1/(\gamma-1)}+B,$$
where $A$ and $B$ are constants of integration. The key aspect to the solution is that there is a gradient in temperature. Therefore, conduction would act to smooth out the temperature gradients. But this would mean the energy is no longer evenly distributed so surely this means the entropy has decreased? Does this violate the second law of thermodynamics?
Comment: So the question is: "I set up a situation where the atmosphere is hot in some places and cold in others. How is it possible that heat flows?" It basically answers itself. You can have heat flow, because you didn't start with uniform temperature.
Answer: Why do you assume that that entropy is maximised by having energy equally distributed over all altitudes? Spreading energy equally over space contributes to the entropy but it is not the only contribution and indead this is precisely what the temperature gradient in your solution is telling you.
There are two reasons why this assumption fails. Firstly the there is an entropy associated with how particles themselves are distributed in space (all else being equal particle want to be as spread out as possible) this is clearly not independent of gravitational potential energy and so there is a tradeoff to be found between the 2.
Secondly by focusing on the energy density you are assuming that all types of energy "count equally" for the entropy. This is, however, not true. In particular particles can have kinetic in 3 directions (we can tell you have 3 degrees of freedom because $\gamma = \frac{5}{2}$) but only 1 direction effects the potential energy. This means that there are 3 times as many ways for a particular volume of gas to have a certain internal energy than for it to the same potential energy and so internal energy counts 3 times for the entropy. This means that you expect more energy in internal energy than potential energy.
Comment: Exactly, equilibrium doesn't come from equal spreading of energy, it comes from equal temperatures.
Comment: Thank you for the answer. Am I correct in thinking that:$$\frac{d}{dr}\left(\rho\Phi+\frac{3p}{\gamma-1}\right)=0,$$ would give maximum entropy? Any pointers to books etc. where I can find out more would be greatly appreciated also.
Comment: No it wouldn't because it is still only considering the entropy distribution and not the full state of the gas. As the previous comment said the correct condition for maximising entropy is that the temperature across the gas is constant (note that this does not hold for the real atmosphere as it is not in thermodynamic equilibrium and so not in the maximum entropy configuration). The constant temperature condition allows you to use the equation of state to relate the pressure and density. For and ideal gas this reduces to $p/\rho = const$
Comment: So am I correct in thinking that if the Sun were to disappear and the Earth were to stop radiating heat and the magnetosphere were to disappear then the Earth's atmosphere would become isothermal?
Comment: If you wait long enough the temperature in an isolated system will equalise, at which point the system will be at thermodynamic equilibrium and entropy will be maximised. Isothermal is a term used to describe processes rather than systems, so it doesn't make sense in this context.


Journey Builder Wait Period Dates

Question: I can't seem to find any documentation on whether wait periods of days are based on calendar date or full 24 hour periods of time. If I have a scenario where after entry I have a wait period of 2 days and then hours associated to a local time zone are the days of the wait period evaluated based on calendar day of entry or will the wait period be a full 48hrs after the entry date based on time of entry? Trying to determine if entries injected on, say, a Friday afternoon would be evaluated on Sunday to proceed if the hour was set to proceed in the morning or if they would not move forward until Monday morning based on being inserted on Friday afternoon.
Comment: I'm unsure, so not an answer, but I believe it a 24 hour wait, or 2 day wait, will wait exactly that many hours. Because there's a "wait until" feature which wouldn't make sense to have otherwise?
Answer: It's a 24 hour wait, so you can control at what time the next activity will execute. Assume we have an email activity after wait, you wouldn't want to send out email at 12 midnight, hence the implementation is to wait for 24 hours per day of wait time. Hope this helps!

Journey Builder Wait Period Dates


How is Lutheran apostolic succession conferred?

Question: I noticed in a comment that Lutherans have apostolic succession I figured this was a purely Catholic/Anglican/Orthodox thing is there a comparable Sacrament of Holy Orders in the Lutheran world?
Comment: Actually, apostolic succession was very important to the Methodist church in America too; so much so that they sent ministers to Scotland to receive the formal blessing from the Anglican church there when the English church refused it (if I am not getting my denominations and history mixed up).
Comment: @software monkey, yeah I think you probably mean Episcopal instead of Methodist. Or maybe not since it's in Scotland, that's pretty interesting anyway.
Comment: The early Episcopalians (as distinguished from loyalist Anglicans) in the new USA did have a bishop, Samuel Seabury, consecrated in Scotland. http://www.scotshistoryonline.co.uk/episcopal-church.html . I don't know about the Methodists.
Comment: A link in the question to what (apostolic succession)[http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostolic_succession] is (supposed to be) would have been nice (no need to use WP, if you prefer some other site, that'd be grand).
Answer: The Evangelical Lutheran Church in America embraces apostolic succession.  This has been true since Called to Common Mission, an agreement of full communion with the Episcopal Church of the USA, took effect a decade ago. When our bishops are installed (only pastors are ordained) a bishop who holds apostolic succession (often an Episcopal bishop) is present.
Agreeing to this was not simple, because North American Lutherans have long rejected it. But the churchwide assembly accepted the argument that full communion was more important than staying divided from the Episcopalians over this.
Answer: Apparently different Lutheran churches have different practices, with two Scandinavian state churches being the most notable proponents of apostolic succession (source):

Evangelical-Lutheran Church of Finland
Church of Sweden

These churches don't have the Sacrament of Holy Orders, as Luther rejected it. Still, bishops, priests and deacons are ordained, thus retaining apostolic succession.
A chart of the succession shows how Luther (an ordained Catholic priest) passed the succession to Mikael Agricola, the bishop of Turku, Finland.
Note that not all Lutheran churches hold the doctrine of apostolic succession.
Comment: This is something I'm not very familiar with, but I know a lot about ELCF and tried to answer to the best of my ability. Sorry if there are errors.
Comment: This doesn't make any sense to me. Martin Luther was (as far as I know) only a priest, never a bishop in RC church. Also, he was excommunicated long before ordaining any successors. Any references on exactly what it takes to constitute apostolic succession?
Comment: @disciple obviously excommunication by the Catholic church wouldn't matter to Lutherans. There probably are different views to this; I've heard it claimed that being ordained as a priest is enough. OTOH http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostolic_succession#Lutheran_claims_to_apostolic_succession mentions that in Sweden Catholic bishops converted to Lutheranism.
Answer: United Methodists have a "clandestine" form of apostolic succession. John Wesley an Anglican priest and founder of the Methodism movement was secretly and illicitly consecrated a bishop by a rogue Greek Orthodox Bishop named Erasmus. There is much debate as to whether the succession from Wesley onward was validly continued or whether there is a break in the succession.
As for the Evangelical Lutherans, in 1999 the Evangelical Lutheran Church and the Episcopal Church formed an ecumenical full communion agreement known as "called to common mission". As part of the agreement from that point forward all evangelical Lutheran bishops will be consecrated by episcopal bishops until all evangelical Lutheran bishops are in the apostolic succession. Additionally, all future evangelical Lutheran pastors will be ordained by bishops in apostolic succession. Strict adherence to the called to common mission document requires that any Lutheran pastor that wishes to serve in an episcopal church must be ordained by a bishop in the apostolic succession.
Also, the Swedish Lutheran church always retained apostolic succession as did several other European Lutheran branches. The Lutheran church when it came to America began having pastors ordain other pastors, then pastors installing bishops and in doing so, broke the line of succession. The episcopal church simply gave American Lutherans back something which they had but lost... The historic episcopate. Luther was never against the concept of the apostolic succession. He was against papal supremacy and the intense divide between the clergy and the laity that existed during the Middle Ages. After his death some of his followers took it a step further renouncing apostolic succession completely and purposely breaking the line of succession. This was done by the Danish Lutheran church as well as several other Lutheran branches.
Answer: The Lutheran Confessions throughout were intended to merely address abuses in the Catholic Church.  Where no abuses were addressed, the intention was to maintain the doctrine of the Catholic Church (see Augsburg Confession, at the end of Art XXI)
Therefore Lutheran Churches tried to maintain Catholic faith and order, and this includes Apostolic Succession.  However, when certain Kings, rulers and some religious authorities refused to allow the ordination of priests/presbyters (aka pastors) or the consecration of new bishops who followed the Reformation in their realm the reformers had to continue the succession through their own presbyters.  This has some historic precedent, as this was a lesser seen practice in the early church.  This precedent was outlined in Melancthon's "Treatise on the power and primacy of the Pope", which was later included in the Confessions.
However, most Lutherans are now prepared to acknowledge that this succession through presbyters was a measure to be taken in the light of the political situation at the time, and that the historic episcopate was never intended to be rejected by the reformers.  The issue at hand for the reformation has never been that the episcopate was "necessary" for the church but rather that it was "beneficial" for the church. Thus the churches which maintained their succession - where it was possible- can claim to be following the original intentions of the reformers. (See Bishop Bo Giertz's book "Christ's Church; her biblical roots,her dramatic history, her saving presence, her glorious future" for a good outline of Apostolic Succession in Lutheranism)
Of course there are many American so-called "Confessional" Lutherans that make outrageous claims about Lutheranism rejecting the historic episcopate and its succession but they have never agreed among themselves on the doctrine of the church and ministry anyway. They inherited a congregationalist church polity (a rather democratic system) which is incredibly messy and divisive from their immigrant founders.  Sad but true.  Unfortunately this amorphous perspective of doing church has spread through the English speaking Lutheran world due to their various prodigious publishing houses.  It's even entered some newly founded European Confessional churches.
The real bottom line difference between the Reformation view of Apostolic Succession and that of the Roman Catholic church (and some Anglicans) is that Lutherans do not believe that having the Apostolic succession through bishops validates or makes "real" the sacraments of the church. Following the lead of St Augustine of Hippo, the Lutheran church emphasizes the word of God connected to the elements as instituted by Christ as that which validates the sacraments and gives them their saving power.  There is ample evidence of this in the historic faith as well.  For this reason many Lutherans over the centuries have not felt the need to pursue the restoration of the historic episcopate, but nonetheless some churches have taken those steps as the situation has arisen.  Several European and Slavic Lutheran churches have restored their historic episcopate and a few American churches have as well.  While not all of those bodies could be considered Confessional or orthodox Lutheran Churches some certainly are.
Comment: Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the [Site Tour](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/tour). For more on what this site is all about, see: [How we are different than other sites](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/q/1808/20394). While your answer provides some interesting information and references *related* to the question, it does not seem to address the specific question asked, which is whether there is a Sacrament of Holy Orders in the Lutheran world similar to that in the other denominations mentioned.
Answer: The ELCA did not receive Apostolic Succession from the Episcopalians. Bp. Mark Hanson was installed Presiding Bishop on October 6, 2001 at Rockefeller Chapel in Chicago, IL, at the hands of other Lutheran Bishops within the historic episcopate. Episcopal Bishops were present though. The five Lutheran bishops came from Africa, Asia, Europe and Central America. They included Bishop Medardo Gomez Soto of El Salvador; Bishop Owdenburg Mdegella of Tanzania; Bishop Ambrose Moyo Zimbabwe; Bishop Julius Paul of Malaysia; and Bishop Maria Jepsen of Hamburg in Germany. Jepson was the only one of the five installing Lutheran bishops not in the historic episcopate. The service marked another milestone in the full communion agreement between the ELCA and Episcopal Church, Called to Common Mission (CCM).
Comment: Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please [edit] to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers [in the help center](/help/how-to-answer).
Answer: Lutherans have NEVER believed in the TRIFOLD "Office of the Keys", that is: that there is indeed a "spiritual distinction" in the rankings of the Priest, Deacon, and Bishop, from an Ordination perspective..   That there is but ONE office of ministry called "Pastor", and so all that is needed for Holy Orders - which like Confirmation, is a solemn rite, not a Sacrament - is another Ordained Minister of the Word to declare them (should they be found worthy) not in sacrament become, but in duty hold, the Authority of the "Office of the Keys" (which is Christ himself) and all of the Priestly powers thereof (such as the consecration of the Sacraments of Baptism and the Eucharist, the preaching office of the scriptures, and the 'In Persona Christi' for the Sacrament of Absolution)..
However, (not a doctrine) the ranks of Deacon, Parish Pastor (parish priest), and Bishop have all been retained for the sake of organization, THOUGH WE DON'T AND NEVER WILL ACCEPT THE NECESSITY FOR AN EPISCOPATE - as this contradicts our teaching in Sola Scriptura, that Bishops and Councils must always submit to the inspired Scriptures as HIGHEST AUTHORITY.
Comment: Welcome to Stack Exchange, we are glad you are here.  Please consider [registering an account](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/help/why-register) to fully take advantage of what this site has to offer.  Also, be sure to check out the [site tour](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/tour) to learn what we are about. *This is not a comment on the quality of your answer, but rather a standard welcome message.*  That said, your answer would be greatly improve by some references to official sources that verify what you write.


uC-controlled high-side switch

Question: I designed a circuit that powers on when the car is started (key is in ACC or ON).  The circuit's uC then enables 12V from the battery by setting port PC5 high.  The uC detects when the key is switched off when port PC4 goes high via the opto-isolator and the uC then remains on until it sends port PC5 low removing the 12V battery supply disabling the circuit until the key is switched on again.  There are many previous questions that cover high-side switching but I haven't seen one quite like this.  The circuit works fine on the breadboard, but I don't know that it's the best approach.  Should I consider using a FET rather than the 3906 BJT?  Would a BJT be more appropriate than the opto-isolator?  Any glaring errors with this design (unnecessary or incorrect value components, etc)?
Comment: You're using a 5V regulator in your "+3.3V supply"...
Comment: The optocoupler is pretty pointless. Just us another 2N3904.
Comment: @Ignacio  Thanks. I went back and forth between regulators as I tried different uCs.  Diagram corrected.
Comment: @Matt. I had a 3904 there and got a handful of opto-isolators to experiment with. Not sure it would protect the uC anyway with the grounds on either side connected together.
Answer: The 2N3906 power switch looks OK as far as circuit topology is concerned. The 2N3906 is rated for a maximum of 200mA and as long as your total load on the regulator is less than that they you should be good to go. If you need a larger load current than say 150mA or so then I would recommend that you find another PNP transistor with a higher current rating.
As designed right now the base current you pull from the PNP transistor is around 1mA. Considering that the worst case current gain of a 2N3906 is 30 you may want to consider changing the R10 to a lower value to increase the PNP base current up to the 8 mA level so that the PNP can fully saturate when the rated current is drawn.
Comment: Ok, so I should select the base R using the hFE curve (Figure 1 of my data sheet)?  The curves appear to peak about 8-10mA. Using a 2k2 yields ~5mA and using a 1k yields ~11mA.  Either would be ok?
Comment: @unix - I look at the maximum collector current I would have in the circuit. Then I round up by 30 to 50%. Then divide that by the minimum current gain (30 in case of 2N3906 data sheet I checked) to get the worst case base current to design for. This is mostly specific to design of switched circuits. In case of linear amplifier circuits there are other factors to consider which are not really important in your application.
Comment: An ammeter reads 45mA for the entire circuit. Even doubling that and dividing by the min current gain gives 3mA but now I understand how the 8mA was derived.  Thanks. Do I even need R13 and R10?  Can I just set R8 to give the desired base current?  My original rationale was to create a voltage divider but 12V is well within the 3904 limit.  Don't remember why I added R13 but now it appears unnecessary.
Comment: R13 is indeed not needed. However it is R10 that limits the base current of the 2N3906. R8 will help to get the Q1 off a little faster when Q2 goes off.
Comment: Diagram updated.  I removed R13 and replaced the optocoupler with a NPN, R1, and R2.  The collector of Q4 is connected to an internal pull-up on the uC and goes high when the key is switched off.

uC-controlled high-side switch


Is there a workaround for the missing FindName method in Silverlight's DataTemplate?

Question: According to the C# compiler and the Silverlight 2 documentation, Silverlight doesn't provide a FindName method for the DataTemplate class.  I want to find a Border that's inside a ContentPresenter.  What's the best way in SilverLight 2?
Answer: If the border is inside a DataTemplate, not a ControlTemplate, then the only way I've been able to do that in the past is to use VisualTreeHelper to locate the element I need.
Answer: Not totally sure I understand the scenario, but since you mention the DataTemplate I'm assuming you're using a template.
If you're using a template then what you do is give your border a name (x:Name="border") and then override the OnApplyTemplate method. In that method you use GetTemplateChild and pass the name you used. This will return a reference to your border.
If you're not use a template and have a reference to the ContentPresenter then you could write a recursive function that looks at the Content property of the child and if it isn't a border then calls your same function on its content.
Comment: That will work for a ControlTemplate, but you can't really do that inside a DataTemplate, I believe.


Remaining private while using Paypal

Question: I am starting a new website and would like to protect my privacy. I am thinking about using a Paypal account to purchase my domain and hosting, as well as for monetization further on. How easy is it for someone to figure out who I am through my Paypal account? I would like to protect my identity as well as possible with this new website.
Comment: Just google "blackhat SEO", you will get something. Though your "privacy protection" will not guarantee from search engine nuking your PBS.
Answer: Disclaimer: I am not a lawyer, this is not legal advice. Please consult a lawyer for any specifics on the follow
The steps to anonymity yourself vary depending upon from whom you want to hide. PayPal or any financial institution wants to know who they are working with (and in some cases legally mandated - KYC). If you just don't want random people to come flame you, "swat" you, etc. Then PayPal is not really your concern because its not like someone is going to call them up and they are going to tell them who you are. However, a government could likely request records from any business to find out who their customers are.
Beyond that, you would also need to protect your identity from the web hosting and domain registrar companies. And also use anonymity strategies (e.g., TOR) when uploading or posting to your website. You will need to publish whois information for your website, but you can use privacy services that will hide that from the public.
Running a business you will likely need to give out a mailing / billing address at some point. You can get a PO Box or mail drop service, but there would still be records about your registration of such with the mail services in many cases.
It also sounds like you plan to setup this website as an "individual", but you may want to take advantage of a corporate structure that offers a high amount of anonymity that at the very least would be very difficult to unravel to find out who you are. You could for example setup a Delaware or Nevada corporation and have that own another corporation etc to create layering. You should be able to setup such structure legally, but it can get expensive and complex. You then conduct all business for the website through the corporation. Clearly, you should find an attorney you can trust.
If your concern is really just PayPal, perhaps you can buy a prepaid card with cash and use that for the purchase transaction. You will still need to give contact data at some point likely though.
Answer: Being a business man / woman requires that you give up some privacy. Namely the people you do business with need to know who you are for legal and other reasons.
Ergo what you want is not facilitated currently in any way shape or form on major platforms like Paypal.
You could try and find a Hosting partner that takes Bitcoins but IANA does require a Name and Address for DNS registrations (it does not require these details published through a WHOIS however)
Also talk to a lawyer in your jurisdiction, as there are often laws in place requiring you disclose your name and other details to potential clients.
Answer: While googling this, I stumbled upon this. There are options about what information is given to payers. I haven't read through all of it, but there are detailed steps on how to obfuscate your private information when receiving payments.
My personal guess on this is that if one really wants to know, he/she might be lucky contacting PayPal's support and doing some social engineering - e.g. report your account as "abusive" only to be then notified by the support that the account belonging to "your name" is in fact not abusive - having leaked your name.
If you depend on truly anonymous paying methods, try cryptocurrencies. e.g. Bitcoin or Ethereum. A crypto-wallets address doesn't necessarily require any information tagged to it - PayPal requires a lot of Information, which of course, may leak.

Remaining private while using Paypal


Is there a soft keyboard for the HTC Droid Incredible that learns word combinations?

Question: A friend of mine was talking about a soft keyboard replacement for the HTC Droid Incredible and I believe that he mentioned one of the features was that it not only suggested words, but it would "learn" word combinations and suggest not only the current word, but the next word in the sentence. However, I've forgotten the name of the keyboard. Does anyone know of such a thing?
Answer: Is it Swiftkey?

SwiftKey brings the future of text entry to smartphones. It uses TouchType's breakthrough Fluency™ technology to predict the next word you want to type, before you even press a key.
  [...]
  SwiftKey doesn't just predict regular words – it learns as you type and remembers how you write. As words and sentences are chosen over time, its Fluency™ engine creates a dynamic understanding of your writing style to boost the accuracy, fluency and speed of prediction.
Comment: Checking out the site now...at first glance, that might be it.
Comment: Yep. That's it. And it appears it's available, too. When I was first told about it, it was in a private beta.


British or American For IELTS/TOEFL

Question: Which one (British or American) is better for IELTS exam?
What about TOEFL?
I'm lerning American, is it essantial to learn British or not?
Comment: I'm voting to close this question because it seems to be mainly about test preparation, not learning English. It's also unclear what "it' refers to in the last question.
Comment: Actually I just wanted to make sure if I just know about one of them (British & American), I can get a good mark from (IELTS/TOEFL) or not? Could you please help me where should I ask this question? Thanks.
Answer: You can find an Information for Candidates booklet on the IELTS website.
It states:

The international test
IELTS is internationally focused in its content. For example,
texts and tasks are sourced from publications from all over
the English-speaking world; a range of native-speaker accents
(North American, Australian, New Zealand, British etc.) are
used in the Listening test; and all standard varieties of English
are accepted in test takers' written and spoken responses.

As such, there should be no problem with using either US English or British English.
Answer: As a native English-speaker, I have never taken either test.  However, your choice may be influenced by what you wish to apply for using the test results afterward.
It is my understanding that the IELTS follows the British system, whereas TOEFL is the prevailing system for Americans.  If applying to a university in the UK, take the IELTS; if it is an American school, take the TOEFL.  If it is for employment, find out which test your employer prefers.
While the two tests are obviously scored differently, and may be based on different Englishes, there may be an accepted conversion system for the test results whereby one test's results may be reasonably assigned an equivalency for the other (see links below).
Resources
IELTS vs. TOEFL: comparing the two major English certification tests
TOEFL Score To IELTS: Conversion Table And Test Comparison
IELTS vs TOEFL: The Differences to Know
Answer: The misconception is the British and American are so very different.  Of course there are differences, but compared to (say) German or Spanish, the variation in dialects in English is small.  If you are learning American English, you are able to understand normal British English speakers.  The grammar is almost identical, there are a few vocabulary and spelling differences.  The variation in accent is greater within British English, than between British and American.
Both the TOEFL and IELTS people recognise this.  And assessors don't discriminate between correct British and correct American English.
Source SOurce
Naturally, if you intend to come to the UK, it would make sense to study British English, but that's not for the sake of the test

British or American For IELTS/TOEFL


Mobile browser initialising different width

Question: So guys I have been working on a responsive website for some time now. I have the layout sorted now and also the content, so I decided to add breakpoints to the website and using media queries adjust the elements accordingly. So I know that breakpoints must be added based on when the layout starts to break and not on the   popular screen resolutions, but when I tested the website on the android version of Firefox on my Moto X(2013), my phone has a resolution of 1280x720 pixels but when I add a breakpoint at let's say 700 pixels using the min-width query, it doesn't affect the page but when I change the same query for a min-width of 980 pixels, it works. Now my question is: isn't it supposed to trigger on the actual resolution or do browsers render it differently? BTW I am talking about the portrait orientation.
Comment: set the viewport - remember!
Comment: I use the min-width and max- width media queries. Aren't these media queries related to the actual viewport than the device output area?
Answer: Resolution is different of aspect ratio, I will recommended you include aspect ratio in you media queries to achieve your goal, see this video to understand differences between aspect ratio and resolutions

Resolution and Aspect Ratio Explained

You can build your media query like this:
<code>    @media only screen and (device-width: 320px) and (device-height: 768px) and (-webkit-device-pixel-ratio: 2){
            .your_css_classes{}
    }
</code>
Comment: Okay. Thanks man, will consider it. Can you please tell me what the device-pixel-ratio media feature is?


My dog's not eat eating or drinking

Question: We got a pet put down 4 weeks ago, and since then my 8 year old, Shaffy, won't eat or drink unless I feed her. She won't go on a walk. She stares at the walls, gets stuck in corners and cries a lot and walks about with her head hanging down like she's sad and distanct and sleeps a lot. Please help.
Answer: Well, I bet you were sad when your dog got put down. That is exactly what's wrong with your other dog. Your dog is grieving the loss of your other dog. Clearly they had a relationship or they were great friends. (not just humans make friends, this has been seen in all species of animals.) Give him lots of extra care and love, and if you think it would be reasonable, get him another friend.
Answer: I wouldn't feed him by hand anymore. He'll get hungry. Even if it is grief, the body's imperative to stay alive will cause him to eat at some point.
However, rather than waiting for him to get interested again, I'd get a few really high value foods. Get him some hot dogs, chicken, bacon, ham, etc... Whatever he really goes crazy for and encourage him with those. If you have something that wouldn't leave a residue on your floors, I'd even suggest "hiding" some of these treats around.
Place one under a chair, or under the coffee table. Maybe put one behind the couch. Basically, encourage him to get up and wander around the room, looking for these treats. Just like with people, he'll have trouble wallowing in grief when he has something that takes his mind off of it. If he doesn't have anything better to do than think about it, he probably will.
I'd also suggest taking him for more walk and spending more time with him than usual. Not just having him sit near you, but brush him down every day. Not only will this help keep your house cleaner, but he'll have time dedicated to him. When you're walking, there will be lots of stimulus for him.
One last thing I'd suggest is to clean your house. If he really is missing his friend, then it's going to smell like the other dog everywhere he goes. Try to wash every thing and if feasible, move things around.
I feel confident that if you try a few of these things, your dog will start to come around. I think it's important not to encourage the moping and not to project things on your dog that aren't there. I know that one animal certainly can miss another animal and it may be the case here, because of the timing. However, some animals do have neurological issues that cause them to act strangely. Also, I know it's very easy for people to project issues onto their animals. It happens very frequently.
A good example is with my Jack Russell. When I was at home, we inherited my grandmothers dog. Because she had been an indoor dog they assumed that she'd be scared of rain storms. In fact she did act fearful to a small extent because I'm sure my grandmother babied her. So they would let her in whenever a rain shower happened and they were home to let her in. My dog saw her getting inside and asked to get in as well. They started letting her in during rainstorms as well. It didn't take long for my dog to figure out she could get inside if she'd come to the door any time it rained. They tried to tell me that she was scared of rain storms and I told them to bite me. I'd frequently seen her go out into rain to kill frogs and she loves to go shooting with us so she isn't scared of loud noises. She simply learned that a certain behavior gained a certain reaction and exploited it to her benefit. Again, I'm not saying your dog doesn't legitimately miss it's friend, I'm just advising that you evaluate your dog based on it being a dog and don't prescribe it human feelings or motivations. It has those on it's own and they're perfectly valid.
I hope your dog perks up soon. Good luck.

My dog's not eat eating or drinking


Common Home folder for ubuntu 16.04.1 and 18.04.1

Question: I want to dual boot ubuntu 16.04.1 and 18.04.1 on my system and want to  have a common Home folder for both OS. How do I do so? Will there be any problems? Also which one should I install first?
Comment: I can only given an opinion from when I tried it (long ago).  It's not worth it. Many programs will work perfectly, and may do so for some time, but when I did it, my mail MUA (evolution) had a new feature in the later version, once I started using it - the older version couldn't read the file...  Programs change between versions so you'll have to check what apps you use, and if any changes have been made that will create problems with the files used by those apps - a lot of work that I decided wasn't worth it.  I loved it until I had problems (*my example was from years ago*)
Answer: If you have a separate home partition(say /dev/sda3), you simply have to select it on installation time to mount on /home and not to format.
If you have not a separate partition you can do two things,
1: Mount the old installation disk on /ubuntu (not necessarily ubuntu) in new installation. Then link home directory inside it to /home.
<code>ln -sf /ubuntu/home /home
</code>
OR
2: Make a separate home partition. Copy all old contents(there in /home/*) to it and mount it to /home in both of installation
here is a simple partition guilde https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/5/html/deployment_guide/s1-filesystem-ext4-create
Problem or not?
Generally, there would be no problem. It might be a problem if you would like different home configuration. For example if you would like to use "Powerline" on one and not on other. If you would change configuration files like .bashrc in one, the other will get same effects. So you would not enjoy separate home configurations(I don't think this, a problem)


Presta valve problem

Question: new to the Presta valve game, I just replaced my tube and the valve tore in less than 10 mins of riding. My bike tire is 26x1.9 the tube the got was 1.7-2.4. I have both the same rims and the front is also running a Presta valve. Not sure if I did something wrong or just a faulty tube.
Comment: @DanielRHicks As I wrote, many road cyclists just throw them away and manage just fine (rule 60). I use them, but always unscrew them before inflating when using tubes. Some tubes come with threadless valves anyway.
Comment: Can you expand on the nature of the tear?  Is it torn in the butyl rubber right at the foot of the valve stem, or elsewhere?   Are your rims drilled for Presta or Schrader ?
Comment: If youtore the tube itself, it is more likely that it was installed incorrectly (irrespective of the valve type).
Comment: Did you  pull the valve all the way through the hole, and install the nut reasonably firmly (though not wrenched tight with pliers)?
Comment: I do not think the nut is necessary in any way. Many people just throw them away.
Comment: @VladimirF - The nut makes it possible to get the chuck on tight without damaging the tube.
Answer: A picture of the damage would tell for sure but 90% of the time tearing a valve - presta or schrader - is due to under inflation.
Low inflation pressure allows the tire to slip (during acceleration and/or braking on the rear, braking on the front) on the rim. The slipping tire rotates the tube. As the tube moves the valve is torn off as it moves against the valve hole in the rim.
It is possible to have a faulty tube. Usually defects (imperfections in molding etc.)look very different than forcibly tearing or cutting the valve on a tube.
Comment: As mentioned in other comments knowing exactly how the tube failed is important to understanding what you could have done differently.
Comment: Thanks so much , I returned the tube and they replaced it , the guy there said it was a faulty tube and replaced it right away. It's a specialized airlock. Any tips to ensure a good tube install ?
Comment: @MattGrandy That would be a good question to post. Here's a link to a Park Tools video on installing tubes. https://youtu.be/eqR6nlZNeU8 Inspecting for damage happens at about 2 min 30 seconds. The install portion of the video happens at about 5 minutes 30 seconds.

Presta valve problem


What connector for Atari 2600 Controller?

Question: I am working on designing a 8 bit computer and I was considering adding support for a Atari 2600 controller. I know it uses a D-Sub9 connector, but is there anything special about it? What I mean is can I go on Digikey and just buy any male D-Sub9 connector and it will be compatible with the Atari 2600 controller?
Answer:
I know it uses a D-Sub9 connector,

DE-9 to be exact.

D for D-Subminiature
E for the shell size of ~19.5 by ~11 mm
9 for 9 pins arranged in two rows as 5+4

but is there anything special about it?

No. Despite being of plastic on the controller they are as standard compatible as it gets.

What I mean is can I go on Digikey and just buy any male D-Sub9 connector and it will be compatible with the Atari 2600 controller?

Yes. At least for the plug side it doesn't matter if it comes with or without nuts for fixing it, as they end below the shell line, so the area a plug may need is free. Personally I always prefer ones with nuts, as they offer an option to fix the controller if possible.
While selection of the plug side is painless, you need to select the right connection side for your project straight or 90 degree thru hole or the same for SMD. Some may have additional pins for better fixation on the PCB, so additional holes/soldering areas are needed.
Don't forget to ground the shell - just in case.
Comment: While the connectors are mostly compatible, the Atari plug tends to be *very* slightly wider across the top than a metal DE-9 plug. The first time it's forced into a metal Cannon-style socket it will likely be an interference fit, and tiny slivers of plastic will shave off the corners. Metal plugs are slightly shorter and looser than plastic ones when used in an Atari-style socket
Comment: @scruss Yes, I noticed this with several joysticks, not just Atari branded. Getting _cheap_ plastic right is hard - especially 40+ years ago. Then again, the (metal) type I'm usually buying is also a tight fit. And unlike Ataris plastic pice it doesn't change much over several insertions.
Answer: Atari Controllers don't have screws, so if you can, chose a male connector without screws to match.
Answer: The pin-compatible connector that matches the Atari 2600 PCB is TE Connectivity's AMPLIMITE : 5745001-3 PCB D-Sub Connectors.
Answer: It is a standard DE-9 connector, with the exception that there is a plastic shell instead of a metal shell.


Grover's algorithm with matrix_product_state method

Question: I implemented Grover algorithm with matrix_product_state method in qiskit. But I found something strange. I designed the oracle part come out $|1111\rangle$ but, real output was $0011\rangle$. I check out my code, but there is nothing wrong with it. Even simulating with the other simulation method (such as statevector, density_matrix etc.) I got correct output. I really don't understand why only matrix_product_state method's output is strange. My code is below.
Comment: I will open an issue in GitHub on this to investigate further.
Answer: Lines 22-25 are a bit strange. Why do you use i in both nested loops? Can you point out exactly where you see the error? is it in the oracle part only or in the whole program?


What does "I'm jacked" mean?

Question: In this film clip one of the characters says "I'm jacked... I'm jacked to the tits!!!" - what does this mean in this context and other contexts?
Comment: It means excited, full of energy, ready to do something; same as "jacked up." It can be completely natural (an adrenaline rush) or drug-fueled.
Answer: In this context "jacked" is a slang term similar to "high", meaning "under the influence of a powerful (usually illegal) drug.  If I had to guess at its origin, I imagine it's a picturesque metaphor of your body plugged into an electrical socket, and therefore "full of energy" or "lit up".  So it's most often used to refer to the use of drugs that make you feel especially powerful or energetic (like cocaine or perhaps steroids).
"Jacked to the tits," is a colorful metaphor that simply means "very high".  In this film clip I don't know if the character is actually under the influence of a drug, but he feels as if he is high -- he's almost uncontrollably excited.
You should be careful not to confuse this with other slang terms that use "jacked".  In some dialects, "jacked" or "jacked up" means "to have some injury or incapacity".  For example, I could say something like:

I woke up this morning and my neck was jacked up (my neck hurts).  I must have slept weird.
She ran her car off of the road and her body was jacked for months after.

Of course, you can use both, for fun:

He was totally jacked last night but after he came down he was jacked up all the next day.

There are other slang uses of "jacked".  In some contexts it can mean "stolen" (as an abbreviation of "hijacked"):

Dude!  My car got jacked last night!

Or as previously mentioned, as the verb meaning "to plug into an electrical outlet" (based on the noun "jack: a female fitting in an electric circuit used with a plug to make a connection with another circuit"):

Hey could you jack my guitar into the amp?

It's a fun word.  Remember, though -- slang isn't universal.  I don't know if these meanings will translate anywhere English is spoken.  Also it's constantly evolving, so terms can take on a different nuance over time.
 Here is a list of various other definitions for "jack", although even this is not complete
Comment: Another slang meaning of "jacked" is "muscular", by the way.
Comment: @MarkHubbard I've often heard 'jacked up' used as a synonym of 'f%cked up' and not in the drunk or drugged sense.  I think it might be the first way I heard it used outside of car maintenance.   I think 12-15 years ago.  I also know of a kids rhyme with the phrase "mess with me and I'll jack you up"
Comment: A female Australian grad student who served as a Resident Advisor in the university dormitories came to breakfast looking unusually tired one morning and said, "I got knocked up at 3:00 a.m.," and then wondered why we all laughed. When we asked her if she was going to the football game to "root for the team," she turned bright red. Ah, the vagaries of English slang. :-)
Comment: AmE speaker here: I've never heard "jacked up" to mean "hurt" or "ruined," but I'm pretty old so I may be out of touch. Also, one can be jacked up without using illegal drugs -- the body naturally produces adrenaline. Otherwise, this is an excellent answer!
Comment: FWIW, I first heard "jacked up" to mean "messed up" about twenty years ago, in urban Michigan.
Comment: Definitely.  My answer isn't a comprehensive list of all the ways "jack" is used in (AmE) slang, and even [this page](http://www.wordreference.com/definition/jack) isn't complete.  As I said, it's a fun word.
Comment: @MarkHubbard I'm old too so it's likely localized.  Hence my warning about slang, unless you don't mind funny looks.  :)
Comment: @MarkHubbard I can confirm the usage.  AmE speaker in the Northeast.
Comment: I've also heard "jacked" to mean "messed up", but without the adverbial "up". As in, "His body was jacked from all the heroin."
Comment: @JimmyJames, Lumberjack and Andrew: Interesting, and thank you!
Answer: Specifically in the big short I believe I'm jacked means I am extremely leveraged in terms of the commissions he has to pay on his investments because they were rated far more highly than they were valued in reality he asked Mark Baum if he could feel that and Mark said no. it's not about the in high
Comment: Not about being high
Comment: Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please [edit] to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers [in the help center](/help/how-to-answer).

What does "I'm jacked" mean?


How do I change my parents' email?

Question: I was signing up for a Battle.net account and since I was underage they asked for my parents' email. I entered my father's email. The problem is he was making a Battle.net account the very next day the email does not seem to work. He assumes it was because his email is linked to my account. Is there a way to change the parent email linked to my account? I don't want to terminate the account because I'm using a guest pass for Diablo and I have activated everything.
Comment: Off the top of my head, try contacting Blizzard support.
Comment: Just create a new email address and forward everything to his main email. Big companies like Blizzard are very slow with things that they have no workflow for.
Answer:
Go to battle.net and login.
Click on Account at the top of the screen
On the left is account details with Account Name. Click edit.

You should see a message on this page:

Use this form to enter a new e-mail address, which will also become the new username for this Battle.net account.

From here, follow the directions.

How do I change my parents' email?