ArcGIS Online Image Offset

Question: I have three geo-referenced images of a museum layout that I have been able to offset by "x" number of meters in ArcScene and ArcGIS Pro. I want to publish the three images online and have it look like below:
I am not able to find a way to add offset to the layers in ArcGIS Online Scenes. I have tried to exported directly to a Exporting ArcScene Documents to 3D Web Scenes and viewed in Esri CityEngine Web Viewer. However the image quality is very low and transparent image backgrounds are not allowed.
Unfortunately this does not allow for easy navigation and will not work for us. I want to do this in ArcGIS Online if possible but I am open to other solutions that would allow other GIS features to be added to the images.
Comment: R can do this easy with anglr package, it just wraps raster data to convert to mesh3d and vis in rgl
Answer: As commented by @KHibma:

You might be able to create a Scene Layer Package (SLP) and publish
  it. I think you'll need to bake the "offset" (z) into the layers to
  get this work. (I say 'think' as I dont have much experience with
  this). Some ideas here including the SLP:
  https://blogs.esri.com/esri/arcgis/2017/01/03/72321/

ArcGIS Online Image Offset


NDA and Applying for Unemployment

Question: Is information required for an Unemployment application exempt from NDAs? I signed one when I was hired, agreeing not to discuss my employer (a celebrity, hence the NDA), employment, separation, etc. but does that mean I can't explain the circumstances of my firing to the Unemployment office? I wasn't fired for something that should prevent me from receiving Unemployment, and the circumstances of my firing don't reflect negatively on the celebrity or the company.
Answer: Google for free/low cost legal help in your county in California and get a lawyer to read the NDA and advise you on what you can/can't say. There could be an exception already in the NDA. See California Bar - Free Legal Help. If not, they may need to contact the legal representatives of your past employer to amend the NDA so you can give the unemployment office what they need to know.

NDA and Applying for Unemployment


In response to an opening bid of 1 spade by my partner, why do I have to have at least 5 pieces in hearts (+ the usual points) in order to respond 2H?

Question: I've had this "rule" drilled into me for decades; but somebody asked me recently for an explanation, which I was unable to provide.
Comment: Select an answer as correct to give out some extra points if you are happy with one of the answer.
Answer: In addition to the other two great answers here, I'll expand a bit more on the "why".
Basically, your goal is to describe your hand as low as possible and as accurately as possible, right?  So you want to show partner whether you have 4 hearts or 5 hearts at the earliest moment possible, while showing other details about your hand too.
If you play 2H shows 5, then you have these choices for most hands (in base 2/1) that are game-interested or game-forcing:
<code>1NT: 6-11, nothing else exciting to say
2C:  12+, Hearts 4 or less, Diamonds 4 or less, Spades 3 or less
2D: 12+, 4 or more diamonds, Hearts 4 or less, Spades 3 or less
2H: 12+, Hearts 5 or more
</code>
Plus the various "spade support" options, of course.
Now you've told your partner (who's mostly in the drivers seat) what you have without taking up almost any space.  Your partner can then tell you their next most interesting thing: whether that is a 4 card heart suit (by bidding 2H), can explore NT, can explore all sorts of things, especially over 1NT or 2C, which are the "least informative" bids.  This is a generally good idea in bidding - the higher the bid, the more space is gone, so the more information you need to convey!
2H steals all that space; after that, what can P bid?  2S to show longer spades or maybe if they're stuck, 2NT to decline but not leaving a lot of room to explore NT; or 3 level bids.  Ick.  If you're going to have to be in a long conversation that might end up with having to really think hard about how safe 3NT is over a 5-2 4S, you want to have that conversation at the 2 level, not the 3 level, as you have only so many chances to show stoppers or shape.
Comment: I think it may be worth emphasizing the most important aspect of your answer: if your partner doesn't have a four-card hearts suit, it's unlikely that hearts would be the best suit, and *if your partner does have a four-card heart suit, your partner is likely to bid hearts even if you don't*.  If your partner has three hearts and six spades, while you have four hearts and two spades, it would be sad to play a 4-3 heart suit when a 6-2 spade suit was available, but if you'd had five hearts, a 5-3 suit would have been better than 6-2.
Comment: Many thanks, Joe, for answering the "why" part of my question.  Your response made a lot of sense and was easy to understand.
Answer: The short answer: because it's just a good idea.
Expanding a bit: One of the primary goals of bidding is to find the best game available. In no trump, game is 9 tricks. In a major suit, it takes 10. In a minor suit, it takes 11 tricks. When you find a good trump fit (8 cards or more in the trump suit), you can usually take about one additional trick with that suit as trumps than you could take in no trumps, and sometimes two.
Thus, when you find that you have a good fit in a major, you look to find game in that major, but when your best fit is in a minor, your first choice is to look for game in no trumps.
When you open five-card majors (almost universal in the United States), you are looking for a 5-3 fit. When partner opens 1S, your first priority is to determine your strength and fit with partner's suit. If you are very weak, you pass.
With a fit: If you have 4 or more spades and game-forcing values, you make the appropriate bid (usually Jacoby 2NT but there are other agreements). If you have minimum responding strength (about 6-9 points) and at least 3 spades, you make a simple raise (2S). If you have invitational strength (about 10-12 points) and 3+ spades, you make a limit raise (usually 3S but there are other common agreements). With game-forcing values and only 3 spades, you generally make a 2-level bid of some sort (see below).
Without a fit: With less than invitational values (Standard American) or less than game-forcing values (2 over 1), you bid 1NT. If you have invitational values or better (Standard American) or game-forcing values (2 over 1), you make the most descriptive bid. If you have five hearts, you bid 2H. Partner now knows you have five hearts and can raise you with 3-card support. Without five hearts, you bid the minor that best describes your hand; some pairs have extensive agreements here, but in my experience most pairs prefer that you bid the cheaper 4-card minor that you hold, and bid clubs if you are 3-3 in the minors unless you have AQJ or better in diamonds.
The worst-case scenario is invitational or better values with 3=4=3=3 shape. As mentioned above, you would tend to bid 2C here unless your diamonds are AQJ or better and your clubs are quite bad. The key thing here is that you don't lose your heart fit. Opener will rebid 2H holding four hearts, which you can raise to the appropriate level.
Answer: Because a 3-4-3-3 hand is much more suited to a Notrump than a Heart contract.
A 2H call must perforce deny 4 cards in any of Clubs, Diamonds, or Spades (unless it is a hand believed to be much stronger than Opener's, which lies outside the scope of this Question and Answer), so if holding only 4 Hearts must be the contract killing four-triple-three.
To communicate this type of hand one either responds with 1 or 2 NT, or in the cheapest possible minor suit at the two level.
If partner has 4 Hearts, responding below 2 hearts allows partner to show that second suit without any bidding problems.
Answer: It is pretty simple. If partner opens 1S, and you bid anything other than spades, you are saying you have at most 2 spades. If you bid 2H, you are denying 4 clubs or 4 diamonds (otherwise you would have bid 2C or 2D first).  So the most clubs and diamonds you have is 3 of each.  So this means you have a maximum of 2+3+3=8 spades, clubs and hearts. Therefore, you must have 5 hearts if you bid 2H. It is not so much a rule that you should have 5 hearts, it is mathematically impossible to have less than 5 hearts.
Comment: This answer fails to demonstrate even a basic understanding of modern (North American at least) Five Card Major bidding styles over an opening of 1 Spade. There are many calls now that show (or infer) support for Spades that are not Spade bids. Today, all of 2NT (Jacoby), 3NT (various), and either 3 (Bergen) or 4 (Splinter) of a minor are likely to be Spade raises.
Comment: Pieter Geerkens' ("Forget I was ever here")  response to Mike J's answer, which is very logical and easy to understand, in contrast, is demeaning and offensive. Geekens' critique starts by stating that, "This answer fails to demonstrate even a basic understanding of modern (North American at least) Five Card Major bidding styles over an opening of 1 Spade." However, his subsquent verbiage fails miserably to explain that sentence.


Do any sound designers who specialize solely in UI sound for products (apps, wearables, etc) exist?

Question: Are there any sound designers who only work at composing/producing sound for products such as digital applications, wearables, home electronics, appliances, etc., or is it too small of a market for specialization?
Comment: Honestly, I don't know - but I used to specialise entirely in portable keyboards [tiny sample sets, GM, music styles etc], which has got to be a pretty small market bracket, so possibly it could be done. You might need to build a close association with a major to make it pay, though.
Answer: Boom libraries do one. I've not heard it but all their libraries are great.
Answer: Henry Daw is ex-Nokia, ex-Microsoft and has set up to do exactly that. His studio is called Oblique Sound http://www.obliquesound.com/
Just plugging a mate :)
Answer: I'm sure this cool dj did a lot of SFX for apps and phones back in the day.
Another certain truth is that sound design is a broad discipline and specializing in one field for marketing purposes will only have you lacking in other directions.


Interviewing a sound designer

Question: I have an assignment for my careers in music class from Cal Poly Pomona. I have to interview someone in the field I wish to be in after graduation.(Sound Design) I have been looking online for people near the Pomona to LA area and found David Farmer is in Burbank and a few others. I need to interview someone who does sound design professionally and has some good credits.If you have someone in mind that is open for interviews and is available between now and the end of November it would help a lot? Also what should I ask?
Thanks.
Comment: David Farmer lives in the SF Bay Area (at least I think he still does).  It's been many years since he's lived in SoCal.

What field are you looking to get into?  Film, Games, TV, etc?  There are a lot of people in the LA area working in sound.
Comment: I would like to do film, but games are also very interesting. And yeah if anyone on here who is professionally doing sound design and lives in the LA area, I would love a chance to interview as many pros as possible. So far everyone on this site has been very helpful and has really good advice. Thanks everyone. If you are open for a 15-20 minute interview and you do film or games sound design please let me know. It would be greatly appreciated.
Answer: Some time ago there seemed to be an industry-wide initiative to promote sound design and raise awareness of it as a discipline. I have a feeling that's still going on, so I'd trust you stand more chance than you might think. Also, the people I've gotten in touch with so far have been quite responsive. Don't forget, this site is full of industry folk too :)
Answer: I can't help you myself, as I'm based in the UK but I can wholeheartedly recommend chatting with Dave Farmer if you can, as not only is he really bloody lovely, but to watch him at work as I've had the privilege to do back on LOTR, is something to behold .

Interviewing a sound designer


left navigation bar using css at sharepoint 2013

Question: how to add custom left navigation bar using css at sharepoint 2013.
Does this custom bar apply to all sharepoint pages?
Answer: Yes custom bar will apply to all the SharePoint pages,
there is nice series of articles to customized it,
here is the link of it, in this you will get link of previous parts also.
http://chrisstahl.wordpress.com/2014/03/31/customizing-sharepoint-2013-global-navigation-with-css-and-jquery-part-5/
Answer: I assume you are using the CSS to just customize the branding of the left navigation. If so, you will be able to apply it for all application pages by simply adding the custom CSS to the current masterpage for those pages and making sure you are overriding the sharepoint left menu navigation control styles through your custom CSS.
Here are some good examples of doing just that:
http://sharepoint.rackspace.com/branding-left-navigation-in-sharepoint-2013
http://akashkarda.blogspot.com/2014/05/quick-launch-styles-in-sharepoint-2013.html


Is lawyer going to be prosecuted if it is proven that he/she certainly knew that his/her client is guilty but continued to deny it in court?

Question: If, say, during the process a client, who is accused of committing a murder, admits that he did it to the lawyer and demonstrates some undeniable proofs, like video of him committing a murder in a private conversation, but asks the lawyer to prove that he didn't commit it and the lawyer follows the demand, withholds the evidence and lies and makes his/her arguments to the court that his/her client is innocent. If all the aforementioned actions are disclosed (especially the part about the evidence), are there any problems that may arise for the lawyer?
Comment: The lawyer might be disbarred for disclosing these actions; how are you imagining that they come to light?
Comment: It's worth noting that the concept of "guilty of an offence" is entirely separate to "carried out the act", which is why you can plead "not guilty" to something you obviously did without risking perjury or anything else. You can kill someone, be charged with murder, plead not guilty, present a reasonable defence while never denying you killed someone, and be found not guilty of murder.
Answer: If an attorney knows that his client intends to or does engage in unlawful conduct during his representation, things get complicated for the lawyer who will presumably know this stuff. It would be illegal for a client to testify falsely, so if the client intends to perjure himself, the lawyer should diligently act to counsel to not lie under oath. There is no law requiring a client to confess or provide incriminating evidence (in lieu of a subpoena), so if the client plans to just sit quietly and let the attorney do the talking, then the lawyer is doing his job and he will not be punished, even if it is somehow discovered that the client is actually guilty.
The lawyer might have advance reason to believe that the client intends to commit perjury, so might not allow the client to testify. That happened in the case People v. Johnson, 62 Cal. App. 4th 608. Johnson's conviction was overturned because he was denied the right to testify in his own defense (Rock v. Arkansas, 483 U.S. 44). The Johnson court discusses various options for resolving the client-rights vs. attorney-obligation conflict, including the "narrative option", where the attorney does not ask questions, but rather allows the client to freely narrate events, and then the attorney does not rely on any false testimony. The court concluded that the narrative option is the best resolution of these conflicts. Disallowing client testimony is a denial of the right of the defendant to testify.
Another possibility is that, like Lowery v. Cardwell, 575 F.2d 727, a client might surprise the attorney with false testimony. In this case, the attorney sought (in chambers) to withdraw from the case (denied), and then did not further question the defendant. While the attorney's motivation was ethically admirable, the court found that it was prejudicial against the client, concluding that the attorney's action "amounted to such an unequivocal announcement to the fact finder as to deprive appellant of due process".
If an attorney were to encourage a client to commit perjury, they could be disbarred. But generally, the rule is that it is the prosecution's duty to prove that the accused is guilty, and not the defendant's duty (or the defendant's attorney).
Answer: "Withholding the evidence" in this situation is the lawyer's clear duty; any conversation covered by attorney-client privilege cannot legally be repeated, much less provided to the prosecution. Arguing for an acquittal is also a clear duty, and it can be done whatever your personal opinions are; for example, you can point out that the prosecution have not proved their case beyond reasonable doubt, and your client is therefore entitled to be acquitted, whatever the jury (and you) may think of his likely guilt.
Lying should never be necessary; since saying "I believe my client is innocent" is not a legal argument, many courts do not allow the practice. A lawyer's opinion of facts is no more reliable than anyone else's, and much less so than the jury's.
'Proving the client is innocent' is of course impossible if he is guilty, but bringing forward misleading evidence is a very difficult area of legal ethics; it may be a duty to put forward the evidence of a witness who honestly believes he can provide an alibi (even though you know he must be mistaken) but suborning perjury to put forward a witness (including the defendant) who you believe will lie.
One of the advantages of the barrister/solicitor divide in England and Wales is that a  solicitor can continue to do his job even if he knows you are guilty; a barrister would almost certainly advise you to find some other advocate (for the reasons user5726 mentions among others), and if you refuse or do not have the time or resources, can continue to represent you under specific limitations laid down by the Bar Council (though he cannot, of course, disclose the limitations or the reasons for them till after the case).
Answer: No. A lawyer would be disbarred if he failed to defense a client even if he knew that client was guilty. A criminal defense lawyer is require to make "arguments to the court that his/her client is innocent."
In a criminal action, there is no affirmative duty to deliver or produce evidence, although the steps taken to withhold evidence could conceivable violate the law (e.g. it would clearly violate the law to kill someone who is a witness who could testify against a defendant and a lawyer who ordered that would be criminally and civilly liable).


Factors affecting Battery Voltage

Question: How do batteries produce a certain voltage, such as 1.5V or 9 V? From what I understand, battery EMF comes from oxidation of the anode, which releases electrons that can flow through a circuit. But how do batteries regulate that voltage? What is it about the chemical reaction that creates an electric potential difference of a predictable quantity?
Comment: Read about the standard reduction potential.
Answer: The voltage generated by an individual electrochemical cell will be in the approximate range of a fraction of a volt to a volt and a half for most cells and is determined by the particulars of the anode oxidation process, which vary from one metal to another as you point out.
However, to get 6 volts or 9 volts or 12 volts we have to string together individual cells in series, so their cell voltages add up. The result is called a battery; a 12 volt car battery consists of 6 lead/acid cells in series and a 9 volt radio battery contains 6 zinc/carbon cells in series.

Factors affecting Battery Voltage


Is it true that indexed movies in Germany are not actually banned?

Question: When I'm doing some research on a controversial movie, it's not that infrequent to see that it is put on an index in Germany. Does it means that it is illegal to watch this movie in Germany ?
Comment: i'm not following what this question is about.  what does "indexed" mean in this context?
Comment: @Jenayah [Here's a comprehensive list](https://letterboxd.com/jolocus/list/movies-on-the-german-index-meaning-they-are/) of films on the index. It's hard to find an authoritative source about it, though. EDIT: Never mind, [here you go](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Department_for_Media_Harmful_to_Young_Persons#The_List_of_Media_Harmful_to_Young_People).
Comment: @DForck42 I've edited the question in order to add precisions
Comment: Can you link to said index?
Answer: "The Index" is the colloquial name for the "List of Media Harmful to Young People", which is maintained by the German "Federal Review Board for Media Harmful to Minors". It contains not just movies, but also video games, audio recordings, and printed media (though there are more movies on the Index than the other three categories put together).
This section of the German legal code lists the consequences of a work getting added to the Index. It's unfortunately in German, but thankfully Wikipedia has a translation:

It must not be sold, provided or otherwise made accessible to minors.
It must not be displayed where it can be seen by minors. This would, for example, include playing an indexed game in the presence of minors (e.g. streaming gameplay over the internet).
It must be sold within a shop in an area accessible only to adults ("under the counter"). Basically selling indexed titles per mail order is illegal, however it is permissible if the package may be handed over only to a specified adult person, who has to present ID.
It must not be rented out, except in a shop inaccessible to minors.
It must not be imported by mail order. In this case an adult buyer (importer) is not subject to penalty, if he himself has no intentions of further dissemination it to others or minors.
It must not be advertised or announced in a place where the announcement or advertisement could be seen by minors.
If it is for one of the above six causes, production, acquiring, and holding in store are subject to penalty, too.

In short: yes, movies on the Index are not actually banned in Germany. The purpose of the Index is to make it as hard as possible for minors to stumble across the works listed on it, but adults may still freely purchase them.
Answer: I found this on Schnittberichte:

Is the purchase, sale and ownership of indexed media illegal?

Definitely no. For example, you can buy and sell indexed films and
  also buy and sell indexed games. Ownership is also not a problem.
  Considering the advertising restrictions on indexed media and the
  legal requirement that these contents should not be offered for sale
  by underage persons, none of this is punishable.

Disclaimer: I don't speak German, and I had Google translate that page for me.


Paying someone's college tuition to avoid gift taxes: how do I show the payment is applied to tuition, not other fees?

Question: According to Section 2503 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, a payment made directly to an educational institution to pay for the tuition of a student does not count as a gift to the student for gift tax purposes. But when I make a payment for a student, how can I show the payment is for the tuition, not for any other fees like dorm room and dining plan? The school will just apply the payment to the entire bill, which includes tuition and all the other fees. Thanks.
Comment: Tuition means only related to school fees. Boarding and others aren't included in tuition.
Comment: Yes @DumbCoder. I've changed the questions now. How do I show the payment is applied to tuition, not other fees like room and board?
Answer: You don't have to show anything. Just make sure the amount you give doesn't exceed the amount of the tuition portion plus the max you can gift per year. For example, suppose the student's yearly breakdown is as follows:

Tuition: $30,000
Room, Board, & Books: $20,000

You can pay for $44,000 without having to file any paperwork. If you are married you can pay the full $50,000 without filing any paperwork since the combination of you and your spouse can gift $28,000 beyond the tuition.
Just make sure to keep all of your receipts in case you are ever audited.
Comment: Hi @TTT , I just saw your reply to my deleted comment--but can't see it now. Anyway, I think non-residents actually need to file gift taxes. See: https://ttlc.intuit.com/questions/3881870-hello-do-non-resident-aliens-have-gift-tax-exempt-on-gifting-intangible-properties-and-is-the-money-in-us-bank-accounts-considered-intangible-thanks
Comment: @Mas - My understanding is you would have to file form 3520 if you receive more than $100K from foreign persons. I'm finding conflicting information regarding whether a Non-Resident alien as the payer should have to file a gift tax form. Might as well err on the side of caution and have her fill it out.
Answer: Tuition means exactly what it says.  From a Wall Street Journal article on the subject:

Two important things to keep in mind: First, tuition is the operative word in the reader's question, experts say.  The grandparent's payment must be for tuition at a qualified institution–not room, not board, not books.
Comment: All the IRS will care about is total tuition and total exclusion claimed, not matching particular payments to particular line items on the tuition statement.  If you are paying all school fees, there is nothing to consider.  If you and other family members are paying fees, then you will need to agree among yourselves how much each of you is contributing towards tuition and how much towards non-excludable fees so that you don't (for example) both claim to have paid all the tuition and none of the other fees.
Comment: Thanks @user4556274. I've found that one too, and have changed the question. How do I show the payment is applied to tuition, not other fees like room and board?
Comment: Thanks @user4556274 . So let's say the tuition is 25k, room, board, and other fees are 10k. I pay the entire 35k. So the 25k is excluded for gift-tax purposes, and the other 10k is still within the 14k exclusion limit. Then I don't need to file any form?


Differences between 死ぬ{しぬ}, 他界する{たかいする} and 亡くなる{なくなる}?

Question: What are the differences between 死ぬ{しぬ}, 他界する{たかいする} and 亡くなる{なくなる}?
Comment: http://dictionary.goo.ne.jp/leaf/thsrs/4551/m0u/%E6%AD%BB%E3%81%AC/
Comment: Kicked the bucket, bought the farm, pushing up daisies, bit the dust, etc.
Answer: From my personal experience,
「亡くなる」 is the most neutral word.
<code>「先生のお父さんはがんで亡くなられたよ」 - "Our teacher's father died from cancer"
</code>
「死ぬ」 is a strong word that is usually avoided by polite people, but is used to express emphasis or to deliberately offend. It can also be used to talk about animals.
<code>「勝手に死ね!」 - Literally, "Die on your own!", but is very strong and rude.
「あのセミが死んでいるよ」 - "That cicada is dead"
</code>
「他界する」 is a polite word (often used on television) to express the idea that someone has "left this world".
<code>「美紀ちゃんは13才という若さで他界した」 - "Miki-chan passed away at the tender age of 13"
</code>
Answer: 死ぬ is the general, neutral term for "to die". 他界する assumes particular belief, namely that the person/animal goes to the afterworld. 亡くなる is euphemism.
Answer: 死亡する is also used in place of 死ぬ because the latter is too strong a word. It's used in news articles, announcements, and I think has a slightly official and impersonal feel to it.


What is a fast way to get the reference in a specific style?

Question: For example, if I want to get the reference in APA, what web resources provide this style? I found a way through Refworks, but it requires several steps. Is there a faster way?
Comment: This probably was not intended as a polling question. The definitive answer is "Use reference management software" and describe the benefits of such.
Comment: This seems like a polling question to me. There are probably a hundred ways of getting a reference into a specific style. The exact speed will depend on what the input is and what the output is and what you are comfortable with.
Answer: Write in LaTeX, and use BibTeX which will automatically format your references in various styles.
Comment: Or use biblatex+biber, easier to customise.
Comment: @aeismail With bibtex I sometimes paste in the resulting .bbl-file, is this not possible with biblatex/biber?
Comment: Not all journals will accept raw LaTeX files using BibLaTeX. For example, it is incompatible with RevTeX which is expected by all [APS journals](http://publish.aps.org).
Comment: Giving a .bbl file is probably OK; but you need to check if the journal accepts biblatex before submitting your .tex files unless you manually do the conversion.
Comment: @gerrit you can but it is a little messy: http://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/12175/biblatex-submitting-to-a-journal
Comment: Even if occasionally you are forced to hand in e.g. Word files, literature managers like [Jabref](http://jabref.sourceforge.net/) allow you to export literature lists to the non-LaTeX world.
Comment: I realize it's a special case, but LaTeX/BibTeX doesn't do a great job formatting citations to Web pages in different styles. See http://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/69033/style-independent-way-in-bibtex-to-cite-a-web-page-as-a-source for details.
Answer: Google Scholar has a nice tool for this. If you search for the article, under each of the search results is a "cite" button which will automatically show you the reference in MLA, APA, and Chicago.
Comment: The same goes for [Mendeley](http://www.mendeley.com/) - at the bottom of each article page there is a *Cite this document* section with tabs to show the reference in different formats.
Answer: I recommend using bibtex: the procedure is very simple:
1) Create an empty file and name it "myreferences.bib" (or any other ".bib" name)
2) Go to the website of the paper you would like to reference to and download the bibtex code. If this option is not available you can search for the article in Google Scholar and click "Import into BibTeX"
3) Copy/Paste the cose into your ".bib" file
4) Enter your latex article, add the references at the correct points, and write, just before the \end{document}, command:
<code>\bibliographystyle{plane}
\bibliography{myreferences}
</code>
For a list of bibliography styles see for example: http://sites.stat.psu.edu/~surajit/present/bib.htm
5) Compile your code using Latex. Compile your code using Bibtex. Compile your code using Latex.
You are done!
Answer: If you are writing in MS Word, just go to References and select APA.

Then Insert Citation, Add New Source and fill in everything you need.
This will handle your in-text referencing as well as your "Works Cited" section.
Once you have added a reference, using it again is as simple as Insert Citation and clicking the existing citation.
Answer: With Zotero you can choose a format to export items among several, including APA. Then you can drag and drop a set of items and the references are formatted according to what you chose.
You can even define your own formats with some Javascript programming if you plan to do this very often.
PD: you should have added the reference before in Zotero before, which is a one-click operation (assuming the data is right), or you can import a set of references from BibTex and other formats.
Comment: I like it. My university has a seminar on Zotero. Note to myself: click on paper icon on browser link
Answer: To be honest, I've found that just taking the time to actually learn the style guide is MUCH faster in the long run than putting everything into a citation tool.  Using a citation tool basically adds at least one extra step, and that equates to lost time.  You have to be able to identify the correct information either way, and you have to know what the final citations should look like either way.  But if you type them in yourself, you save yourself the extra steps of 1) opening another program/accessing another website, 2) reviewing what that tool spits out at you, 3) copying it over to your work, and 4) adjusting any formatting as needed after copy/pasting.  Knowing hotkeys for italicizing/bolding/underlining as needed is also a time-saver.
Answer: I have been working and academia for many years, and recently as a developer of Paperpile I came across this problem several times.
All modern citation/reference managers rely on CSL, the citation style language. For more information on this, see http://citationstyles.org/.
Among these 7,000+ styles, it is, however, difficult to find the citation format you want to have. For this purpose, I would suggest to use the CSL editor search by example (http://editor.citationstyles.org/searchByExample/).
You can type in the inline citation and how the formatted citation should look like, and it will find the citation style that matches most closely. Once, you know the name of the citation style you want to use, you can actually use Paperpile to get the formatted citation (including bold and italic formatting).
You select the reference you want to create the citation for and simply hit Control+C. You will find it in your clipboard and can copy it to Word, Google Docs, and others.


Can wood floors be refinished half a room at a time?

Question: I have a small house. I'm doing it. or would like to do it. my funds are all tied up and I have no help. can't afford it either.  can I just do 1/2 a room at a time?
Comment: Related: http://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/13420/is-it-possible-to-refinish-floors-one-room-at-a-time
Comment: This is a really weird way to think.  It is extremely cheaper to do all at once.  If you think well I only have money for half a room... well that might point to why you have money problems - no offense just trying to help.
Answer: No.  You really can't.
There are several reasons why:

Dust.  Sanding dust will get everywhere.  Ideally you want to move everything into one room, that will hopefully not be refinished, seal off the door and do everything at once.
Equipment Rental.  It is simply not cost effective to rent the sanders for multiple small periods of time.  If you try and do half a room at a time, you'll be paying many times the price over doing it once.
Finish Quality.  When painting anything, the general rule is to always maintain a wet edge.  That is, in the middle of an area, keep painting until you get to a wall or other natural boundary.  If you let the paint/stain/varnish/polyurethane dry in the middle of the floor, you'll end up with an unsightly ridge when you go back to finish the job.


Pi gets stuck on boot

Question: I'm new to the Raspberry Pi. My Pi has got stuck on boot many times. The green and red LEDS are not flashing, but always on. Does anyone know why it happens and how to fix this?
Comment: What power supply do you use? As the green activity LED is always on, the Pi seems to be stuck trying to read from SD. Did you try another mSD card with a fresh and recent Raspbian image for cross-check? Did you check here: https://www.raspberrypi.org/forums/viewtopic.php?f=28&t=58151 ?
Answer: I've had a similar experience to you today (by coincidence) but mine doesn't get as far as yours.
However, there are a couple of things that might work for you (given that you get further than me).
On the Pi2B that was a pair of open contacts next to the LEDs labeled "RUN" - if they're still there on the 3B you might want to try shorting them out (paper clip for a second or to with power on then remove power, remove the paper clip then re-power)
Alternatively have you considered recreating your image on the SD card? The reason I ask this is that if you're getting that far into the boot process could it be that one of the files is corrupt (but not enough to cause any real problem).
One other thing that might back this up is that seemingly the green light should flicker as it reads from the SD card (in the same way that your HDD light flashes on your laptop/pc) - so if the green light doesn't flash a number of other forums point to the fact that your PI is unable to read the SD card.
I hope this helps and of course if I find a way of fixing mine I'll revisit this thread with any relevant information.

Hi guys - an update. I've now received my two new Pi3's and the SD cards work perfectly in both of them. The 2B still behaves exactly the same as before (I powered it back up as seemingly there's a resistor that behaves as a thermal fuse that can become 'ok' if you leave it for a day or so - no joy).
Dead PI 2B - for no apparent reason.
I've just found some additional information from elsewhere - it would appear that providing the pi with more that 6.2 volts will also trash it.
I was using the 1000C from adafruit and thought it had a 5v regulator
https://learn.adafruit.com/adafruit-powerboost-1000c-load-share-usb-charge-boost/pinouts
it would appear that it doesn't - the USB port and 5 volt out has 6.8 volts - I'm using 4 lipo batteries (2 x 2 in parallel).
So looks like you need to check the output of components before connecting them (even if their web site does say 5.2 volt output) - but I'm not bitter, I've learnt something :-(
I hope this little snippet of knowledge helps someone else avoid this.

Paul.

Pi gets stuck on boot


Mower sounds like its struggling to cut?

Question: I mowed a lawn that had really thick tall grass my blades were already on the dull side, I hit a patch of grass and nearly stalled out my mower. I sharpened my blades, balanced them, cleaned under the deck, and cleaned the air filter. I mowed one lawn after that and it wasnt overly tall or wet and it sounded like it was clogging as if I were mowing really tall grass. It's time for an oil change and I'm gonna change the oil filter as well, but I doubt that's the problem. Could it be the belts? I only have 57 hours on it, it's an ariens ikonx 52. What all should I check for?
Answer: Belt slippage usually comes accompanied by a particular squealing noise when engaging the drive or obvious difference in cut.
Check that the plane of rotation of each of the blades is flat. If one of the 3 spindles on which the blades are mounted is bent, as it can be after an abrupt encounter with an immovable or dense object, one tip of that blade will be lower than the other. Then as that blade rotates, even though it is sharp it will encounter thicker material than all the other tips and put stress on the mower. To test this you could run the mower towards some medium length grass slowly and then back out. Examine closely the forward cut edge of the grass and see if the three blades are producing the same result.


I accidentally used BTC xpub key to generate HD wallet addresses for BCH, can I recover funds?

Question: I am using Exodus wallet and an eCommerce plugin to accept cryptocurrency payments. To generate the HD wallet addresses I needed to provide an xpub key. I accidentally used the BTC xpub key instead of the BCH xpub key. They are different. Is it possible to recover my funds somehow or are they lost forever?
Answer: The answer, surprisingly, is yes. You need to change the derivation path of your BCH wallet to that of a BTC wallet m/0'/0'/0 and it will generate the necessary private keys.


Rigify generated rig, hand IK controller has unexpected rotation

Question: I am having the same exact issue as described here:
Rigify widgets generating in wrong position and won't rotate. I would comment but do not have enough reputation.
A three-fingered character with mis-rotation of the hand IK control. See the attached .blend file. I believe I have setup the metarig with the proper rolls, and changing the roll of the hand or palm bones in the metarig has no affect on the outcome in the generated rig. I believe I have also assigned the correct rig types to the first palm bone as well as each of the fingers. All other controllers/bones seem to generate correctly. I cannot seem to set roll manually in the generated rig either. Is there a workaround?

Answer: Solved with the help of CGDive! https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/25308/cgdive
The generated rig tries to correct the roll automatically by default, but this can be overwritten by selecting each upper_arm bone and in Bone Properties > Rigify Type > Rotation Axis selecting the rotation axis manually. If you have copied the roll orientations from the human metarig template, then this should be Z manual for the arms. This causes the hand IK control to be correctly oriented when generating the rig.
Comment: I am new to blender and have encountered this very issue. Thanks for the solution. I was however unable to find the Rigify Type menu for the longest time. You must be in Pose mode in order to access the menu. (Using blender 2.91)
Answer: In case anyone reach this page but mcurt09 answer didn't solved your problem, try adding an extra step and editing the hand rotation in edit mode before generate the control rig again. That's what solved it for me.


How far "off" can a piano unison be and still be considered "in-tune"?

Question: I'm talking about either beats per second of a resulting beat between two strings in the midrange of the piano. My piano seems to vary during different parts of the day, I think because of the temperature variation in the room where it sits.
Comment: @Rein Henrichs I think @jbm means that the individual strings (typically three of them) that are all supposed to be the same pitch are actually the same pitch.  If you've ever pressed a key on an old, out-of-tune piano and heard multiple, out-of-tune pitches, it's because the three strings are out of tune with each other.  Poster seems to be asking how far out of tune is acceptable.
Comment: @Rein Henrichs Most of the notes on piano actually use two or three strings for a single note.
Comment: @Kos We're talking about [the beat frequency](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beat_(acoustics)).
Comment: How do you achieve unison on a piano?
Comment: @Rein Henrichs, what Andrew said, better than I did.
Comment: ofc, I forgot to think for a moment there.
Comment: Btw- How are 'beats per second' related? A "beat" is a term usually related to the tempo (as in beats per minute), not pitch; we're just talking about plain Hertz, aren't we? Had me confused for a second...
Answer: In general, the beat frequency should be low enough that you can't notice it.
The average lowest range of human hearing is 20Hz, around E0.  (Most pianos have A0 as the lowest note, since nearly everyone unimpaired can hear it and it's more "musical").  This means that if the beat frequency is above 20 Hz, you will hear a third note corresponding to that frequency.  That's definitely bad.
The "beat" phenomenon still occurs below 20 Hz though, of course.  I would approximate one beat every 3 seconds, or a beat frequency of 0.333.... Hz, to be good enough.  There's no hard and fast rule, really, since more sensitive people may pick up on a slower beat than others.  Once it gets that slow I struggle to notice it, and I certainly wouldn't pick up on it unless I was listening for it.  It's harder to get higher strings to stay within 1/3 Hz of each other as well, since tuning adjustments cause a greater frequency change than for lower strings, so you might have to be more lenient with them.
And, unfortunately, you're never going to get around the variation in how your piano sounds.  You should try to keep the humidity and temperature consistent (which will help how long the piano stays in tune generally as well), but it will never be perfect.
Comment: I notice that the beating happens at different partials of the fundamental, and that varies with which note I'm listening to. For example, in the low tenor say around C3, I can hear slow beats in the partial at C5 even though I'm not playing C5. That's what I notice goes out of tune first, not the fundamental. But by the time I get up to listening around E4, it's mostly the fudamental that I hear beating if it's out of tune.
Answer: You take a tuning fork tuned to 440Hz and a second one tuned at 442Hz, the beating will be 2beats/second and the following is true:
440 + 442  =  2beats/sec
440 + 437  =  3beats/sec
880 + 882  =  2beats/sec
220 + 219  =  1beat/sec
etc.
So the difference in the frequencies equal the beating per second.
The beating itself is heard as a fluctuation of the volume of the sound (not the pitch)
When two strings a perfectly in tune the attack part of the note will sound harder or tighter.  The harmonics (partials) also will be more noticeable thus augmenting the "clarity" or "brightness" of the sound.
As soon as one of the strings are getting "off", the sound become "duller" and less definite.  Overall, a not so perfectly tuned piano will sound less satisfying and will loose definition.  (definition = every notes can be distinguished clearly)
Even though a normal person can't tell how many beats/sec the piano's unisons are out, this person can still notice quite a little difference in the out of tune unison because of the color change that occurred in the sound.  Something like 0.5beat/sec will be noticed because the "quality" of the sound is changed.
Hope that all this make sense.
Answer: The Piano Technicians Guild is an association of piano technicians and they have exams to qualify technicians.
The tuning exam has many parts, including a unison part.
In this part, the examinee will tune 24 unisons from C3 to B4.
The examiners measure the difference between all three strings of each unison. If they are out by more than 0.9 cents, (100 cents = a semitone) then the examinee will lose 2 percent. The unison is measured for left to centre, right to centre, and left to right, meaning that an examinee can lose 6% on one note! 80% is a pass, meaning an examinee can not have more than 10 unison pairs greater than 0.9 cents off.
A constant cents offset will result in a different bps depending on where on the piano you are talking about.
Also, humidity fluctuations throughout the day should affect each unison string the same. If you have unions going out during the day, that has to be some other problem.
Answer: I think the question relates to how many beats per second (or seconds per beat) is acceptable with unisons to consider them to still be in tune.
We agree that one beat per second indicates that two strings are different by 1 hertz,   eg one string is at 440 (A4) and another at 439 and we can hear a slow wow wow wow.
That is a difference of 4 cents.  The tolerance in strictest tuning exams happens to be much less eg 1 or 2 cents.
At 220 (a3) compared with 219Hz the difference is 8 cents.
I guess 8 cents on one if not both of the strings is going to make an audible difference in the frequency of beating of the major 3rds, 4ths, 5ths to the trained ear, so at A3 we would not want any of the strings to be as much as 8 cents out.
Maybe I should analyze a few pianos with Tunelab or similar listening devices after they have had professional or paid-for tunings, and find out what is going on.................
It was a valid question although I have never noticed a periodic change like a worsening then an improvement in what I hear in my own piano
Answer: Not very far. As far as I'm concerned, there are several aspects of how well a piano is tuned. For equal temperament: 1. Pitch of A4 should be at 440 no more than 0.9 cent to pass the PTG test but I tune to within 0.1 cent or closer. 2. Intervals across the piano should be: Octaves, pure or slightly wide; 5ths, slightly narrow; 4ths slightly/somewhat wider than the 5ths are narrow; M3rds should be wide and progressively beat faster going from low to high across the instrument.
Finally, and to your question, unisons should be as perfectly pure or still as you can get them at least within .2 cents but .1 or zero is better. You will hear bad unisons before anything else so that's of paramount importance.
Pianos can "sound OK" and be out of tune by the above standards, it all depends on the musical training and tolerance of the listener; some people can't tell if a piano is in tune at all. BTW, many recordings contain out of tune pianos so that's not necessarily a bench mark.
So even though we can tune a piano to very tight tolerances, in the end it's subjective so the simple answer is: If it sounds OK to you, it's in tune... but if it's been more than a year since you tuned it last, it needs a tuning :)

How far “off” can a piano unison be and still be considered “in-tune”?


How many ad impressions can a visitor generate for the same page with multiple AdSense ads?

Question: If the same visitor views the same page 10 times, and this page has 4 ads, does this mean the page generated 40 ad impressions?
Answer: It depends. The likely reason behind lifting original limit of 3 ads per page is due to the fact that present-day searches & site visits are primarily from mobile devices. Since the user has to scroll to see additional content, it only makes sense that pages with more content can handle more ads.
Is a user going to read your page 10 times start to finish from a mobile device - well, maybe. If they do - then 40 ad impressions are generated, assuming that they were visible to the user.
Same goes for desktop if the ads are above and below the fold, and the user views the entire page - then you have your page views. 10x more times get you to 40.
But the important question you should be asking yourself is what the impact this will have on advertisers. Will this help your earning potential with many impressions but no clicks? AdSense can prove to be a game of less is more. Make sure you are providing useful content to your visitors - and if they decide to read your page 10 times, then I believe that you must have succeeded!
Comment: anytime - happy I could help!
Answer: Yes, An impression is counted for each ad request that returns at least one ad to the site. It is the number of ad units (for content ads) or search queries (for search ads) that showed ads.
If you have 4 ads on a page, One Pageview = 4 ad Impressions
Suppose, you get 5 clicks out of 500 ad impressions, your CTR would be 1% (5/500X100).


Why are there so many German terms in the field of radiative transfer?

Question: A lot of phenomena in radiative transfer are named after a person who studied them (Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, Bragg diffraction, Kikuchi lines, Tyndall effect,...). Others are designated by a description of sorts of what is going on (geometric scattering, photon diffusion,...) But some are just the German word for what is going on, like gegenschein and bremsstrahlung. Sometimes "back-scatter" or "braking radiation" is used, but just as often, the German word is used. Why is it that the German words stuck? Why German rather than another language, say Italian or Dutch?
Answer: German was the language of chemistry, physics and mathematics until the 1940s. Just today, I had to request two German translated papers in chemistry from the library. Anyone interested in doing a PhD in sciences had to show a reading knowledge of German, French or Russian and this requirement was determined by the field of study in American, British or Canadian universities. The term bremsstrahlung was coined by Sommerfeld, a German physicist. Since a majority of the natural scientists knew some functional German it was not a big deal to use this terminology occasionally. Another reason for keeping German words was that an English equivalent did not exist. Another famous term is convolution, for ages it remained as Faltung (folding).
In the late 60s and 70s, universities began to relax these conditions and by late 90s foreign language requirements vanished from the scene in the sciences. However, it is always beneficial to learn one more classical European language besides English in the sciences-if you wish to read original articles.  Perhaps, that is why I think Harvard still requires a functional knowledge of one these languages: Chinese, French, German or Russian for a doctorate in mathematics. Fortunately, machine translation has become so good in the last two three years that scientific texts in German and French can be easily rendered into English even with extensive symbolism.
Comment: Harvard's math PhD language requirement is on the page https://www.math.harvard.edu/graduate/guide-to-graduate-study/. It is French, German and Russian, or Italian on request due to its historical role in algebraic geometry.  There is no comparable reason to include Chinese, although their guidelines say those who are non-native English speakers from a non-English-speaking country can request the exam be waived. That policy was created by a former department chair who grew up speaking one of F, G, or R and was annoyed to be forced to take a reading exam in grad school (not at Harvard).
Comment: Interesting info about the chair. University of Wisconsin, did a survey in late 60s which showed that even then foreign language articles were losing importance in ohysical sciences. On average, 5-6 foreign papers were read per year. Anyway, machine translation has become so good that it can tolerate symbols and equations. I have written two papers in the Journal of Chemical Information and Modelling that show how to best use the available MT for papers containing a lot of chemical equations and mathematical equations in German and French. All we need is someone to automate that process.
Comment: Regarding the last line on translation: Can you please tell me which tool(s) do you use for this? I know that Google translate is free but I don't know which tool can translate symbols as well.
Comment: @ApoorvPotnis, I usually use DeepL (www.deepL.com). You can upload a Word file and a readible pdf. More details can be found in the paper "Facile Solutions to the Problems Associated with Chemical Information and Mathematical Symbolism While Using Machine Translation Tools" search this title in Google Scholar.
Answer: German was the main language of Physics, Chemistry, and Medicine during the second half of the 19th century and early 1900s. Besides being the language of the German Reich, it was also spoken and written across the very large Danubian monarchy. At that time, in Prague, Bucarest or Budapest, and even in Lemberg (Lvov/Lwiw today) the language of educated people was mostly German...


Is it ethical to get participants' consent for the inclusion of their data in the research after data collection?

Question: Suppose that there's a student who has done a subject-based study with ten participants involved. The research settings required not telling the participants that it has been a research before data collection (they participated in an online job interview, but there was no job in reality for them, so none of them got any job in fact [Attention: This was just an example. In reality, they only took an online translation test, at the time they desired.]). Can the researcher get their participants' consent for the inclusion of their data in the research after data collection? Would it be a problem for publication in journals?
Comment: There is a good reason why ethics approval needs to be obtained beforehand. The whole point is to protect the participants (and ultimately you and your institution) from detrimental fallout. What if the participants had forgone another job interview to be able to attend yours? True, it is unlikely, but what if? An ethics approval committee ponders whether the interests of science outweigh the interests of the participants. The way you did it, it is a "candid camera" approach - perhaps acceptable for entertainment, but science should have a higher standard. I think journals may frown on this.
Comment: @m2004 You need the ethics approval for catching them unexpected. The point is not, I think, that you do not inform them of the experiment - of course you don't - many psychological experiments require distractors to get genuine reaction. The point is that you go through the appropriate procedures that permit you doing so, by vetting the balance between your scientific gain and their disadvantage of being lied to. Just as when you experiment on animals, you probably cut and torture them - ethics approval means their very cruel fate is deemed scientifically justified by a dispassionate board.
Comment: I'm wondering how this was ever done in the first place. It seems incredibly unethical to me. Fraudulent. Asking for permission could, perhaps lead to legal action. Drop it.
Comment: @CaptainEmacs Thanks for your enlightening comment. That was an example, of course; I edited with real data. Believe me or not, I insisted my supervisor for changing the approach, but she insisted on not telling the participants beforehand. I was just wondering, what if all of them consent, after all. Would it be okay that way?
Comment: @Buffy Thanks. Could you have another look at the edited version and my reply to Captain Emacs question?
Answer: As long as the study is IRB approved and the approved procedures are followed, then publication should not be a problem. It seems a little strange, but reasonable, that an IRB would aprove a protocol where minimal risk data collection was kept secret, but require informed consent prior to data analysis. I would have expected consent and debriefing to happen immediately following data collection, but again, if there is a reason to delay it, that seems fine.
Comment: Put another way: It depends on your rationale for the deception and the risk to participants. Your local IRB will make this call, and a journal will almost always go with the decision of the IRB.


Uremic encephalopathy, diabetes, and halucinations

Question: I'm in highschool, interested in patient diagnosis and treatment and that's why I'm asking this question.
I've recently heard about a patient with end-stage uremic encephalopathy and diabets. He has delirium and he stoped dialytic therapy because of his halucinations (he ripped off the medical equipment). He had been going to dialys three times a week for 15 years. He has about 70 years old. He doesn't present any signs of dementia.
I assumed halucinations started because of the higher level of urea.
Anti-pshichotic didn't worked on him.
Without dialys theraphy, he'd probably die in a few days.
I'm really interested in this case and curious about the treatment. Isn't something left to do?
All the best!
Answer: The treatment for uremic encephalopathy is dialysis of some sort - peritoneal, etc. - or a kidney transplant, of course. But the latter is not the immediate treatment of choice.
Looking for why delirium suddenly occurred is important; not all delirium in dialysis patients is due to uremic encephalopathy (e.g. rule out rule out cerebrovascular accident, intracranial mass, hyper/hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, and hyperosmolar syndromes as the cause of encephalopathy, etc.)
If the cause is uremic encephaopathy, maybe one can mitigate the symptoms by correction of any existing anemia or calcium and phosphate abnormalities, but the fact remains: assessing the adequacy of dialysis and restarting adequate dialysis is the treatment.
Uremic Encephalopathy


Bonding Neutral and ground in a service panel

Question: My home has a 200amp meter box with 6 double breakers beneath the meter under a flap - 4 breakers are 60amp (stove heater, AC, unknown) - there are also 2 100amp breakers going to load centers inside - I believe the previous owner must have added a 2nd panel since they are different makes. the original box 200amp has neutral and ground connected to same bus and a green screw that appears to bond the bus to ground.
the 2nd panel is 125amp. It also has neutral and grounds on the same bus but there is no green bonding screw - should there be a green screw since this is not a sub panel but appears to be a second (parallel panel) added to increase circuits.
Everything seems to be working - I'm asking because we want to do solar grid tie and company says they will need an available space in the meter box and wiring looks odd. It got me looking at the set up and alos questioning??
Comment: If the 125 amp panel is directly fed from the meter base the neutral and ground can be bonded. If there is a breaker that can turn off the 125A panel with the 6 in the base it is a sub and the ground and neutral must stay Isolated. That was the call an inspector made for me with just 2 service disconnects in my meter base.
Comment: Parallel main panels? Are you sure? That's a new one for me. Does you meter box have a disconnect switch?
Comment: Are the 200A "original box" and the 125A "second panel" the two indoor load centers, or are they in addition to the two indoor load centers and their 100A feeders?
Comment: Sorry for the delay responding - I had trouble logging in-  The outside meter box  is apparently called a combo.  The six 220v double breakers are outside and directly under the meter - apparently these breakers would all be disconnects?. Four of the breakers are 60amp (stove, heater,AC, unknown) The remaining two breakers (@ 100 amp) feed the two inside boxes (panels). A copper ground cable is connected from the ground bar to a copper ground rod in the ground under the combo meter box.
Answer: If the second panel is fed by the first (power is fed to the second panel through a breaker in the first), and the service neutral is bonded at the first panel. Then the ground and neutral should be separate in the second panel, and separate grounding and neutral conductors should be run between the two panels.
Comment: Thanks Tester - The 2nd panel(125Amp)is fed by a 100 Amp breaker located outside under the meter..
Answer: Neutral and ground should be bonded only in your main service panel. Sounds like, in your case, that's the one attached to your meter. Secondary panels should have separate neutral and ground bus bars. Bonding ground and neutral elsewhere in your home will not appear to affect functionality, but is a safety hazard.
The reason it's a safety hazard is that you're creating multiple paths through your electrical system for current that should go entirely over neutral conductors. In this case, your ground conductors (between panels) are probably routinely carrying current. Ground conductors should only carry significant current during a fault.
This is a relatively easy fix - just add a bus bar to your second panel so you have separate neutral and ground buses. But the fact that it wasn't done this way originally likely means your wiring was done by someone not entirely clueful, and it might be good to have an expert review the whole system.
Comment: @Shimon Rura Adding a ground bus would be easier since the existing buss is currently setup as a neutral buss.
Comment: @Tester101 There's more than one reason why it's dangerous, but it's not that useful to list them all.  A big reason relates to lost connections.  Lose a neutral and current is returning on the potentially smaller ground.  Lose both neutral and ground, and now your ground floats with your neutral, energizing every switchplate screw.
Comment: @Harper I agree. I'm just asking for an explanation on one of the dangers listed, as I can't understand how it would work. Although I don't think a dropped conductor was a major motivator in the development of this code, otherwise I'd think that they'd require the ground to be sized the same as the neutral.  The separation is mostly to avoid current on the grounding conductors, enclosures, and other grounded items.
Comment: Thanks for the pointers Tester101 and Harper. I've edited and hope it addresses your concerns. But what exactly do you mean that if you lose ground and neutral then your ground floats with neutral?
Comment: Shimon - Thanks - The outside box (under the meter) holding the six breakers has a ground bar with a grounding rod  the rod and bare wires and neutrals (white wires) for the six circuits are all bonded/connected at this ground bar.    So it appears that meter location would be the 1st disconnect location? and that would make the inside panels  actually sub panels requiring separation of neutrals and grounds. Is that correct?  thanks.
Comment: Jose, yes that's right.


Yamaha DGX 660 and Hammond

Question: Please, I would like to buy Yamaha DGX 660 and I am wondering if it can emulate Hammond (B3...) organ?
Comment: Does the "cool organ" demo here answer your question? Click the "audio & video" tab at http://uk.yamaha.com/en/products/musical-instruments/keyboards/digitalpianos/dp_dgx_series/dgx-660/?mode=model
Answer: It really depends on what you mean by 'emulate.'
The Hammond B3 (along with the A3 and C3) is a 'pitch wheel' instrument, which means that an electric motor turning a shaft connected to tiny toothed wheels is what generates the pitches you hear.  Thus the vibration speed of any pitch can be represented by a whole number (the number of teeth on the wheel times the speed of revolution).  In the 'real world,' including the world of electronic instruments, only the note A can be represented by a whole number, such as in the definition A440.  All other pitches in a tempered scale are multiples of the 12th root of two times some given number between 1-12.  Or to say it another way, a Hammond Organ (of that era) is NEVER in tune by tempered tuning standards.  An electronic instrument which uses sampling can come close, but because of tiny variations in sampling frequency can never be exactly the same as the sound source.  It will come close if done well, but will never be exactly the same.
So if by 'emulate' you mean 'approximate the sound of,' the answer is yes.  If you mean 'match the pitches of exactly' the answer is no.
Comment: This is a relevant answer, but I daresay the tuning system is not the most important specialty of a Hammond's sound generation. More important are quirks like that different notes e.g. an octave apart actually share the _same_ harmonic (with predetermined phase relation), instead of just independently producing in in their overtones.
Comment: @leftaroundabout- But that absence of natural overtones and the generation of predetermined artificial ones is completely a product of the tuning system I was describing.
Comment: Not really: with a bunch of stepper motors instead of mechanical gearing you could implement a tonewheel organ with 12-edo tuning that would still have most of the typical Hammond characteristica. (Or in software, in fact I have once programmed such an organ.)

Yamaha DGX 660 and Hammond


How do I convert an Est file to a shapefile?

Question: I need help converting an Est(Streets and Trips) file to shapefile or some other format that ArcGIS can read. I haven't been able to find any luck using Google and my go to program Alteryx can't read Est files. Does anyone have any insight on how I can convert this data format?
Comment: EST to GPX  (or CSV) > https://www.gps-data-team.com/convert.php then use the geoprocessing tool in arcgis to gpx to features http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/latest/tools/conversion-toolbox/gpx-to-features.htm
Comment: I don't know the answer you need, but some potential responders may be curious if you are comfortable with solutions working in a command line window or you require a GUI. Similarly, if you open that `.est` file using Notepad or better, Notepad++, what do you see? Like, is it readable data or binary formatted? Finally, have you seen [this utility software for GPSes](http://www.gpsu.co.uk)?
Comment: I'm pretty much a beginner with command line apps. I've used commands in the command prompt window before but unfortunately any technical jargon is likely to go over my head. I don't have notepad++ but in regular notepad there is hardly any text with a lot of shapes and numbers. I think this means its a binary file.
Answer: I found this answer at this website.    After converting to GPX you could use GPS Babel to create a shapefile.
*1: you need to download some free software that will convert a microsoft street and trips file (.est) to a file type that the garmin will understand (.gpx) file. I use a program called itnconv that allows me to pick which file type i want to export the .est file to. take that .gpx file and open it in mapsource. double click on it in mapsource and do a recalculate, then send it to your device. It will show up in your my data folder and you can then do an import to have it show up in your custom route folder. You may be able to bypass the mapsource portion of this,but i'm stll looking into that.
2: but microsoft street and trip 2010. it now has an option to download into gps. It will show up in your my data folder and you can then do an import to have it show up in your custom route folder. you may have to do a recalculate once its there, but i'm not sure how to do that within the garmin (or whether that happens automatically when you import and engage the route). does anyone know the answer to that?*


Future super-continent

Question: What will the earth look like when the continents recollide? What will the climate be like? Assume global warming has been taken care of.
Answer: There are a couple of very cool animations on YouTube of the future supercontinent: Pangea Proxima. One is by Christopher Scotese (video) and the other is by Algol (YouTube or also a longer animation with a longer history). The PALEOMAP Project page contains a fair amount of information as to how they estimate the evolution. With regard to the future climate, that is a really tough question that I don't feel qualified to answer.
Also, even though it does not include the future supercontinent, I really like the EarthViewer interactive tool. It has lots of information and it is very intuitive to use.
Comment: @GordonStanger I don't remember where, but in one of the answers here on SE someone mentioned that the sun will engulf the earth by the time radioactive heat decays.
Comment: Before the 'when' there's an 'if'. Plate tectonics is driven by heat from radioactive decay. Sooner or later that energy will decay to the point where plate tectonics slows and finally grinds to a halt. There's no guarantee that the next super-continent will have accreted by then.
Comment: Long before the sun engulfs the Earth it will continue to warm until the Earth gets too hot to sustain photosynthesis, which will of course mean .'curtains' for us. But Michael is right. Neither the cessation of plate tectonics, nor the 'heat death' can be timed precisely. Also bear in mind that some radioactive decay will continue long after it is insufficient to drive the tectonic engine. This will likely lead to volcanoes of unusually deep origin.

Future super-continent


Intersection of compact sets in the unit interval

Question: Let $\mathscr K$ be an uncountable set such that every $K\in\mathscr K$ is a compact subset of $[0,1]$ with positive Lebesgue measure. Does it then follow that there exists an uncountable $\mathscr A\subseteq\mathscr K$ with $\bigcap\,\mathscr A\not=\emptyset$ ?
Comment: In light of the answers, I've added the tags [tag:set-theory] and [tag:continuum-hypothesis].
Comment: We may assume without loss of generality that the measures are as close to $1$ as we like, because by the Lebesgue density theorem, every positive measure set has density as close to $1$ as we like on some small intervals, and since there are only countably many intervals with rational endpoints, we can restrict to an uncountable subfamily that all has big measure on that interval. (This seems relevant, but I'm not sure how to use it...)
Answer: Assuming the continuum hypothesis, the answer is negative.
First of all, we can index ${\cal K}$ by $[0,1]$, let $K_x$ be the set in ${\cal K}$ with index $x$. Now well-order $[0,1]$ in a way corresponding to the first uncountable ordinal. For any $x$, there are only countably many points preceding $x$ in the well ordering. We can therefore choose $K_x$ so that it does not contain any point that precedes $x$. Now let $A$ be any uncountable set and consider $\bigcap_{x\in A} K_x$. For any $y$, there is an $x\in A$ which comes after $y$. Hence this set must be empty.
Comment: It took me a while to remember that if $D\subseteq[0,1]$ is at most countable and $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure, then $1=\lambda([0,1]\setminus D)=\sup\{\lambda(K): K\subseteq [0,1]\setminus D\ ,\ K\ \mbox{compact}\}$. So choosing $K_{x}$  with $\lambda(K_{x})>0$ is possible. For those who struggle like me, I thought I'd make the point.
Comment: @NoelVaillant: We can also do it explicitly: let $D = \{x_1, x_2, \dots\}$, and for $\epsilon > 0$, let $K := [0,1] \setminus \bigcup_n (x_n - \epsilon 2^{-n}, x_n + \epsilon 2^{-n})$.  Then $K$ is compact, disjoint from $D$, and has measure at least $1-\epsilon$.
Comment: @NateEldredge Thank you, yes that works too.
Answer: Assuming $MA_{\aleph_1}$, the answer is positive.
Let $P$ be the collection of all positive measure finite intersections of elements of $\mathcal{K}$, ordered by inclusion. Then $P$ is a ccc uncountable partial order so (by $MA_{\aleph_1}$) it contains an uncountable centered subset $Q \subseteq P$. If we let $\mathcal{A}$ be the collection of all elements of $\mathcal{K}$ that contain some element of $Q$, it follows that $\mathcal{A}$ has the finite intersection property and therefore $\bigcap \mathcal{A} \neq \emptyset$.
Edit: A subset $Q$ of a poset $P$ is called centered if any finite $F \subseteq Q$ has a lower bound in $P$. It was proved by Velickovic and Todorcevic in "Martin's axiom an partitions" (1987) that $MA_{\aleph_1}$ is equivalent to the statement that every ccc uncountable partial order contains an uncountable centered subset.
Comment: So how to reconcile the two answers?
Comment: @TaQ: I wouldn´t call $MA_{\aleph_1}$ "exotic"; after all it is just a "mild" generalization of Baire´s category theorem. It is also the first axiom one usually looks at as an alternative to $CH$, since $\lnot CH$ alone is just too weak.
Comment: @LevBorisov it is a theorem of ZFC that $\mathtt{MA}({\bf c})$ fails. So if CH holds, then $\mathtt{MA}(\aleph_{1})$ will fail. If $\lnot$CH holds, then $\mathtt{MA}(\aleph_{1})$ is consistent with ZFC+$\lnot$CH. Just reading on wiki about Martin's axioms.
Comment: @ Ramiro de la Vega. Reading the wikipedia definition http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martin%27s_axiom#Statement_of_Martin.27s_axiom , I am trying to understand how your reasoning fits in it. What is a "centered" subset, and what is wp's $D$ in your setting? Why is $Q$ uncountable?
Comment: @TaQ: I edited my answer to clarify these points.
Comment: @ Ramiro de la Vega: Thanks for the clarification. Both answers are interesting and useful although I originally was hoping that the positive answer would be a consequence of some less "exotic" axiom.


How can I cite interviews for radio and TV on CV?

Question: I have many contributions related to interviews in radio, TV, web magazines and print magazines, and would like to know the different ways it might be "cited" in a scientific CV. I was thinking about adding them at the end of my CV is some section called "dissemination of research results" or something like that.
Answer: "Media Appearances" sounds better to me. Then I think I'd cite each appearance as if it were a conference talk:

"How to Solve the Problem of Evil," WFUV Radio, 29 February 1904.

or

"Why I am So Clever," The Today Show, National Broadcasting Corporation, 9 August 1999.

Maybe insert some descriptive language if the citation is unclear.
Answer: Interview section in your CV
If you have significant amount of interviews or you want to bring them in your CV, I did not find any special tip to bring interviews in a separate section; but you can open a section like media appearance/interviews and list your interviews in this section.
Citation style
By googling your question, I found many related links in which the citation of the interviews are clearly presented. I bring some of them here for you. One may find a good resource for citation of interviews in bibme website. In this website, you will find the format, examples and notes on correct citation.
MLA

PUBLISHED/BROADCAST INTERVIEW:
  Last Name, First Name. Interview by First Name Last Name. Publication Information. Medium.
PERSONALLY CONDUCTED INTERVIEW:
  Last Name, First Name. Interview Type interview. Date Interviewed.

Chicago

PUBLISHED INTERVIEW FROM PUBLICATION:
  Last Name, First Name. Interview with First Name Last Name. Publication Title. Publication Information.
PUBLISHED INTERVIEW FROM RADIO/TV PROGRAM:
  Last Name, First Name. Interview with First Name  Last Name. Program Title. Network, Call letters, Date Interviewed.
UNPUBLISHED INTERVIEW:
  Last Name, First Name. Interview by First Name Last Name. Interview Type. Location, Date Interviewed.

Turabian

UNPUBLISHED INTERVIEW:   Last Name, First Name. Interview by First Name Last Name. Interview Type. Location, Date Interviewed.

APA
Although, in the above link, there is no guide for citing in APA format, as indicated Interviews are not supported in bibliographies by APA. Please cite it as an in-text citation., but I have found the following guide in the apastyle website for citation of interviews.

An interview is not considered recoverable data, so no reference to
  this is provided in the reference list. You may, however, cite the
  interview within the text as a personal communication.

How to easily cite your documents?
By the way, I encourage you to use the softwares like JabRef, Zotero and Endnote to prepare your citations and resources. Also you may use some online websites like easybib and citethisforme for easier preparation of your citations.
Answer: I advice you use this citing tool at http://www.calvin.edu/library/knightcite/
If it shows an error search for knightcite in their search bar...the tool helps you cite your work properly
Comment: There seems to be some problem with the link you provided - "Document Not Found (404)".
Comment: In general link only answers are discouraged since when the link dies, as it has here, the answer is useless. Can you tell us why the software you are suggesting is a good answer to the question.
Comment: Read my post again...if there is an error search for it in their search bar


Impact of irregularity at the boundary on the error analysis

Question: I am looking at the pde of the type $u_t=\mathcal{L}u$ for some elliptic operator $\mathcal{L}$ and on some domain $D$. Assume I am solving that with a finite difference method and want to estimate the error. Thus, I create a mesh over $D$ and compute the error in discrete $L^2$ norm, that is at every point on the grid I take the difference between the function itself and an approximate solution, square it and sum up. This sum includes all the points, including the boundary points. By Lax theorem the rate of convergence is the rate of local truncation error PROVIDED the problem is well posed and the derivatives in local truncation error are bounded. However, assume it can be shown that the weak solution exist and unique and is sufficiently smooth inside of the domain but on the boundaries it is only satisfied in a weak sense, and lacks regularity. So there is no hope that the terms in local truncation error are bounded on the boundary, they are not even defined there. Thus, how do all these points on the boundary contribute to the error? They exist even if we refine a mesh, more than that we add points with it. Please let me know should I take into account irregularity on the boundary.
Comment: It seems difficult to answer this question because in my opinion it is not precisely defined.  I suggest that you use mathematics where possible (rather than just words).  Also, your statement of the Lax equivalence theorem is not correct.
Answer: Elliptic problems have weak singularities at reentrant corners, therefore you must interpret solutions weakly, making strong form discretizations like finite differences less natural than weak form discretizations (like finite element methods) to analyze and compute with. The canonical analysis text is

Grisvard (1985) Elliptic problems in nonsmooth domains.

Solution of elliptic systems in domains with reentrant corners is the canonical problem in adaptive finite element methods, thus the topic of thousands of papers. A good place to get started on the background theory is

Brenner and Scott (1994,2002,2008) The mathematical theory of finite element methods.

There are numerous open source software packages that use adaptive refinement guided by a posteriori error estimators to solve elliptic problems in domains with reentrant corners.
Answer: This is one of the many reasons why the analysis of finite element methods is so much simpler than that of finite difference methods...
Comment: not sure that answers my question...
Comment: No, I meant to say that the analysis of the FEM is so much simpler because it uses integrals of functions, not point values. For problems with singularities of the kind that you can get with $H^1$ functions, the integrals are all well defined and so the analysis is simple. But point values don't always exist, and consequently the analysis of the finite difference method is difficult.
Comment: @WolfgangBangerth: You wrote "finite element methods ... finite element methods." We suspect that one of those should be "finite difference methods," and I would suggest that it should be the latter one...
Comment: Ah yes. Thanks for pointing it out, I've edited it.


Designing CMYK artwork on sRGB monitor

Question: Since my monitor is limited to sRGB, is CMYK color space fully visible within sRGB, or Adobe RGB color spaces, or not? Conversely does CMYK have a converted NTSC color gamut % like sRGB or Adobe RGB?
Comment: Many monitors in the market can not attain sRGB, that is the monitors colorspace is not even sRGB but smaller. Some monitors have a much larger colorspace than that sRGB like 100% Adobe RGB or beyond. NTSC is also not well defined in terms of color (jokingly NTSC stands for **Never the Same Color** )
Answer: The simply answer is: No
The complex answer is: Not fully.
Every picture of colors gamuts will show and tell you that although CMYK is contained within RGB there are few colors that go beyond the RGB.
Remember that color profiles have also influence on how colors are showed on monitors and how they are calculated to CMYK.
And yes, CMYK have a converted NTSC color gamut but still will not produce correct results. Especially in the "green zone"
Answer: Strictly speaking, no. There are colors in the CMYK color space that are not visible in sRGB or even Adobe RGB. But you're less likely to encounter them.
Reds, Greens, and Blues are way more commonly seen in imagery than Cyans, Magentas, and Yellows. So unless you have a lot of imagery of daffodils and Caribbean seas, you'll need to worry more about colors that you can see in RGB but not CYMK. Luckily Photoshop has a gamut warning (under the view menu) to show you this.
You still need printed proofs. Even if all the colors match, things look very different in print than on a monitor.

Designing CMYK artwork on sRGB monitor


Prevent auto-selected text from copying

Question: I really like the Linux-style copy paste (highlight text to copy, middle-click to paste) - except when text is automatically highlighted in a dialog box. For instance, selecting text on a web page that I'd like to paste as a file name, when choosing "Save Image" from Firefox or Chrome, the "Save As" dialog box now has the original file name highlighted which overwrites my original "copied" text. The same issue occurs when tabbing between text fields or highlighting the URL bar. Is there a trick to get around this or prevent automatically selected text from being put in the copy buffer, or reverting to the previously selected text once the new selection is deleted/unselected?
Answer: Save As, Save Image As, Save Page As etc are (gtk+) file-chooser dialogs. The file name that appears in the Save... dialog is hard-coded via gtk_file_chooser_set_current_name () and usually defaults to the original file name unless you edit a new document, e.g. :
if (user_edited_a_new_document)
  gtk_file_chooser_set_current_name (chooser,
                                     _("Untitled document"));
else
  gtk_file_chooser_set_filename (chooser,
                                 existing_filename);

Since the file name is by default "highlighted" (read "selected"), your original (primary) selection is overwritten. The easiest way to go around this is to use  CTRL+C and CTRL+V.
Answer: You have two 'clipboards' in Linux.
The first is the one of which you speak, where you select text and it is pasted via SHIFTINSERT or Middle-Mouse.  This clipboard/buffer is very fickle and changes constantly.  Be careful using this, especially with chat clients, because one day you'll paste your password into IRC.
The second is the standard CTRLC and CTRLV, or selecting Copy or Paste from a menu.  This clipboard/buffer is not overwritten by the previous and should be used as a more trusted clipboard.
My recommendation is to utilize the second version of the clipboard more often.
Comment: I've been using the Ctrl-C Ctrl-V as you suggested, was just hoping someone had a way to make the middle-click clipboard work a little better within GUI applications that auto-select text. If no one else has a better solution I'll mark this as accepted.

Prevent auto-selected text from copying


Should I use Backdoor Roth

Question: I recently got a new job that doesn't have a 401k.  I rolled my previous 401k of $30k into a traditional IRA.  I plan on contributing $12,000 to retirement this year but I know I can only contribute $6,000 to a Roth IRA.  What is my best option to save for retirement?  Should I use the backdoor Roth IRA method and if I do how much will I owe in taxes on the 30k?  I don't think we'll go over the earning limits, our before tax household income will be about $190k, but if for some reason we do go over the limit what's the best option to save for my retirement?
Comment: Does your employer offer an HSA with a HDHP?
Comment: Why would you convert the 30k to a roth (or contribute to a roth in general)? You're in a high tax bracket now (and live in CA to boot) - do you expect your tax rate to be _higher_ at retirement?
Comment: @DStanley After I converted that I would be able to add more than $6k to the Roth using the backdoor roth method right?  Right now I have no tax advantaged place to put my retirement money after the $6k roth limit.  I don't want a HDHP since I need to use my health insurance.
Comment: I use my insurance too and have a HDHP. Look at the difference in premium relative to the deductible, In my experience the cheaper premium and tax benefit of the HSA outweigh the increase in deductible. Plus you're not guaranteed to use the deductible, but you are guaranteed to pay the premiums.
Comment: You don't need to convert the existing IRA to contribute to a Roth.
Answer: First of all, a "backdoor Roth IRA contribution" (i.e. a non-deductible Traditional IRA contribution followed by a conversion to Roth IRA) does not allow you to contribute more than $6000 to your IRAs in a given year. The annual contribution limit of $6000 is for the sum of Traditional IRA contributions and Roth IRA contributions. So if you contributed $6000 directly to Roth IRA already, you would not be able to make any Traditional IRA contribution as part of the backdoor. The sum of both contribution methods must still be under $6000. You do not get to contribute more as part of the backdoor. The only purpose of a backdoor Roth IRA contribution is to avoid the Roth IRA contribution income limits.
However, having pre-tax money in your Traditional IRA will mess up the backdoor, as the "pro-rata rule" requires that all conversions from Traditional IRA come from pre-tax and after-tax amounts in the same proportion as in your Traditional IRAs overall, and $30k pre-tax with $6k after-tax will mean that 5/6 of your Traditional IRAs is pre-tax and 1/6 is after-tax. So if you then convert $6k to Roth IRA, $5k of it is pre-tax and you will need to pay tax on that, and the remaining $30k in your Traditional IRA will be $25k pre-tax and $5k after-tax. Both of these situations are not ideal.
There isn't any good way of contributing more than $6000 to retirement accounts if you don't have a 401(k) (other than the HSA that D Stanley already mentioned).
Another thing I will mention is that if you didn't contribute to the 401(k) this year (including on the final paychecks of your last job if they were within this year), you can deduct a Traditional IRA contribution no matter how high your income is (assuming your spouse doesn't contribute to a 401(k)). That will still not allow you to contribute more than $6000 to your retirement accounts, but it will be more in line with you making mostly pre-tax contributions like you were making previously with your 401(k). Or you can contribute to Roth IRA if you believe your tax rate will be low this year, but if it becomes high unexpectedly, you can recharacterize it into a Traditional IRA contribution, which you can deduct.
Comment: Thank you.  It's all starting to make sense.  I don't understand why everyone can't have their own personal 401k that they take from job to job.  It seems like it would be a better system.  I'll see if I can have an HDHP.
Answer:
how much will I owe in taxes on the 30k?

Your marginal tax rate times 30k (possibly more if it pushes you to the next income bracket). Note that this isn't a "backdoor" Roth - you can convert an existing IRA to a Roth at any time - you just need to pay the tax. A backdoor Roth is when you can contribute to an IRA but not a Roth - you contribute to the IRA then convert it to a Roth in the same year.
I would just leave your money in the IRA and contribute more to it to get the tax break since you're already in a high tax bracket and will have high CA state taxes. Then, look at a Spousal IRA if applicable, then fund an HSA if your employer offers a high-deductible health plan (the tax savings and premium savings outweigh the higher deductible in my experience).
You can also look at special-purpose tax-advantaged accounts like dependent-care FSAs and education savings accounts if those are applicable.
At worst, you can fund a non-tax-advantaged account and invest in tax-free investments like municipal bond funds (allowing you to make the tax-advantaged accounts a little more risky)
Comment: You don't need to convert an existing IRA to contribute to a Roth. You can leave the IRA alone and contribute to a new Roth account. I see no pressing reason for you to convert (or to even contribute) to a Roth given the high tax rates you'll pay.
Comment: @DStanley If you try to do a backdoor Roth conversion when you have additional money in a traditional IRA (even if it's a different account), you will be subject to the pro-rata rule which may not be what you want.
Comment: I'm not sure if I have an HDHP, I don't get healthcare until 90 days.  My question is does it make sense to convert my traditional IRA to Roth so that I can then contribute $6k after tax dollars this year to my IRA and do the Roth conversion in addition to my tax deductible $6k roth contributions?  As far as I understand as long as I have pre-tax dollars in any traditional IRA I will have to pay taxes to convert that to Roth IRA so I would have to convert the $30k before doing this.
Comment: Ok, so $6k to the Roth and $6k to HSA if I have it or non-tax advantaged account if I don't?
Comment: @DStanley I'm understanding the OP's comment here to be saying that his income is too high to qualify for Roth contributions and he's asking whether it makes sense to convert his traditional IRA to Roth so he can do a backdoor-Roth with his $6000 IRA contribution limit (presumably to avoid worrying about the pro-rata rule)
Comment: @BakonJarser Is that understanding correct?
Comment: @Daniel My point is that you don't need to convert the existing IRA to do a back-door. You can to a back-door conversion of 6K to a new Roth and leave the original 30k alone.
Comment: D - The last comment is confusing. You can't convert 'just' the new deposit. But OP income won't be above phase out, so he can just make a Roth deposit. No sure why you are referring to back-door.
Comment: @JTP-ApologisetoMonica - OP (and others) seem to think that the original 30k must be converted in order to do a back door conversion.  I agree that a back door is not necessary, but even if it _were_, converting the original 30k is not needed. Contribute 6k to a new IRA, then convert that IRA to a Roth. Leave the original 30k alone.
Comment: See my answer for the math. Pls confirm we agree. If we don't, I am either wrong, or not expressing myself correctly.
Comment: @Daniel I'm not sure if I'll be over the limit this year.  It depends on how much income I can make on the side.
Comment: @DStanley Thanks.  I'll try and see if I can get an HDHP.
Answer: There are a few things that may be getting conflated here.
"Back-door" Roth - This is used to mean that you are beyond the income limit to deposit to a Roth. So, you deposit to a (non-deductible) Traditional IRA, and quickly convert it to Roth. The negative to this, is that any pretax Traditional IRA money is prorated for taxation. e.g. you have $30,000 in your TIRA, You deposit $6000 and convert $6000 to Roth. Now since 30/36 (or 5/6) is pretax, you pay tax on $5K of the conversion, and have $1 in non-tax ira money in the TIRA.
You stated you will be below the $196K cut off. No back door. Just a Roth deposit.
If your taxable income (not gross, taxable) is under $168,400, consider converting the exact amount from the TIRA to bring your taxable up to that number. It's the top of the 22% bracket.
Comment: Thank you.  I think I understand now.  Non-401k accounts are confusing!

Should I use Backdoor Roth


Problem installing outlet off pull chain light fixture

Question: Today I ran wiring from a pull chain light fixture to a new receptacle for my sister.  It works great except the receptacle goes on and off with the pull chain light fixture.
It is currently wired black to black (incoming power, pigtail to light, and wire to outlet) and white to white (same way). Only the pull chain light fixture does not have a ground. The pull chain light fixture has one each hot terminal and neutral terminal.
There is nothing else that we can find that is on the same circuit that is affected the same way.  FYI this house was built in 1957 and the wiring has not been upgraded.
I'd really appreciate any insight on this that anyone has.  Thanks.
Comment: Thanks.  We'll give switching the pigtails around a try.
Answer: This is a pull switch that's on the light fixture??? Somehow you spliced into the wrong side of the pull switch.
Move the hot wire to the other side of the pull switch, that should take care of it.
Or, well I don't know what stage of work you are at, but this might be a great time to install a proper light switch and dispense with the pull switch entirely.
Answer: It sounds more like a loose connection that's being jiggled when the chain is pulled or something else is fooling you.
There's a slim chance of there being a ground wire in the box. Back then some electricians would just cut it off with the sheathing (not knowing what to do with it) and some would wrap it around the clamp screw either inside or outside of the box.
Comment: Thanks.  We checked it pretty carefully but we'll check it again just in case.  Thanks.
Comment: btw you are talking about a basement pullchain light right? sometimes they just have 2 screws to connect to and sometimes they have factory installed pigtails. Did you get the receptacle to stay on?


Data for vehicle speed and altitude at Nürburgring

Question: Are there any sources of data for driving at Nürburgring. I would like to get location data (like GPS data) including altitude and vehicle speed during a high speed lap.
Comment: "Telemtry" was in your title, which means "remote sensing". I think for this data, since you don't need real-time, then actually a GPS logger on a vehicle would work the same. That's why I took telemetry out of the title.
Answer: Open Street Maps has a community portal to upload GPS "traces". These are then publicly accessible.
<code>http://www.openstreetmap.org/traces/tag/Nürburgring
</code>
There isn't a ton of tracks available, but you can try to find other tracks in the region that aren't tagged 'Nürburgring'.