Can a Raspberry Pi run Ubuntu?

Question: I was thinking about buying a Raspberry Pi, and running Ubuntu on it. I have looked around the web, and a lot of stuff says that it's difficult for it to work on ARM processors. Has anyone figured out how to get a Raspberry pi to run Ubuntu?
Answer: From the Official FAQ Page at Raspberry Pi:

What Linux distros will be supported at launch?
Fedora, Debian and ArchLinux will be supported from the start. We hope
to see support from other distros later. (Because of issues with newer
releases of Ubuntu and the ARM processor we are using, Ubuntu can't
commit to support Raspberry Pi at the moment.) You will be able to
download distro images from us as soon as the Raspberry Pi is
released, and we will also be selling pre-loaded SD cards shortly
after release.

Source: My answer on Raspberry Pi SE

EDIT
It seems that since the launch of Raspberry Pi 2, Snappy Ubuntu Core can be run on RP2.

Thanks to a very successful collaboration between the Raspberry Pi Foundation and Canonical, the company behind Ubuntu, we are pleased to announce that Snappy Ubuntu Core is available for the Raspberry Pi 2, the latest Raspberry Pi family member.

Snappy Ubuntu Core on Raspberry Pi 2 | Ubuntu Insights

However, it should be noted for the anxious that this is not a desktop version of Ubuntu.
Comment: Thanks. I hope they make it work for the Raspberry pi soon. I know a lot of people would be in favor of that.
Comment: Or they will move on to a board that supports it. http://cubieboard.org/
Comment: See the answer below by @0xF2 for helpful details (which would be worth adding to this answer....)
Comment: @Jordan Raspberry Pi 2 has been launched. I should run Ubuntu Core
Comment: Snappy Ubuntu is an incompatible sibling to the traditional Debian-based Ubuntu.
Comment: By now, "Ubuntu MATE and Ubuntu Snappy Core also run on Pi 2 and 3 only". [source](https://www.raspberrypi.org/help/faqs/#softwareDistros)
Answer: Some complications with ARM are a common issue for all distributions, they are not always Ubuntu-specific.  They stem from the fact that ARM has a number of different architectures, offering limited to no compatibility between each other.
The leading Linux ARM distributions are the following (excluding Gentoo which by definition is compiled to the exact target), and I am listing the corresponding target architecture:
Ubuntu: ARMv7 and up, thumb 2 (32 bit)
Debian: ARMv4t and up (armel), ARMv7 and up (armhf)
Fedora: ARMv5tel (arm) ARMv7hl (armhf)
Arch Linux: ARMv5te or higher

To your specific question, the original Raspberry PI runs a BCM2835 (ARM1176JZF-S) Broadcom CPU. This is armv6k architecture, which is not compatible with recent builds of Ubuntu, which are optimized for performance at the expense of compatibility with older chip designs like this Broadcom's.
The obvious choice is to run the armel architecture of Debian -- you will feel almost at home as if you were on Ubuntu.
Revisiting this a few years later, there are now many models of R.PI available on the market:
Raspberry PI A, B, A+, B+, Zero, and Zero W: These are not compatible with Ubuntu ARM builds, as they use the BCM2835 Broadcom CPU (ARM v6k).
Raspberry PI 2, model B: this runs a BCM2836 Broadcom CPU. This is ARMv7 architecture, a Cortex A7 to be precise. This board (and presumably all subsequent "series 2" R.PI boards) will run Ubuntu just fine.
Raspberry PI 3, model A+, B, B+: these run on a BCM2837 Broadcom CPU. This is ARMv8 architecture, a Cortex-A53 64-bit chip to be exact. These board are a superior option over any R.PI 2 boards when it comes to running Ubuntu. Revision 1.2 of the Raspberry PI 2 uses this same 64 bit core, making the newer PI 2 boards significantly better than the original version.
Raspberry PI 4, model B: this one is based on the BCM2711, a Quad core Cortex-A72 (ARM v8) 64-bit chip almost thrice as fast as the SoC in PI model 3 boards. This board is now the best option to run Ubuntu on Raspberry PI.
Canonical has released Ubuntu Core (aka "Snappy") for the R.PI 2, but it bears noting this is a server distribution with no desktop environment. Additionally, standard Ubuntu 16.04 and 18.04 server images that can be expanded to include a desktop environment are available for R.PI 2 and R.PI 3. Ubuntu MATE is now also available for Raspberry PI.
Finally, starting with 20.04, official Ubuntu Desktop images are available for Raspberry PI. As long as Raspbian continues to ship a 32-bit userland, Ubuntu 20.04+ should be considered the best fully 64-bit option for Raspberry Pi.
All current Raspberry PI images are linked from this page on the Ubuntu wiki.
Comment: Then what older builds of Ubuntu do run on the Pi?
Comment: I expect 9.04 would work fine, but I am not sure why you wouldn't just use a current Debian instead.
Comment: I need compatibility with a specific WiFi dongle that I know works with Ubuntu. I haven't bought the dongle nor the Pi itself yet, but I just want a Whole setup that's guaranteed to work.
Comment: It is easier to head to Sparkfun or Adafruit and purchase a dongle compatible with Raspbian, the default os for Raspberry PI (a Debian derivative). Looking for "Ubuntu compatible" hardware when you are thinking of using a 5-year-old distro is not going to end well.
Answer: Currently not - Canonical only support ARM's ARMv7 processor architecture and the Pi has an ARMv6 chip.
Comment: Please update this answer. Things have changed :)
Comment: This is now a better reference https://wiki.ubuntu.com/ARM/RaspberryPi
Comment: This is no longer true. There is [an official version of Ubuntu](https://ubuntu.com/raspberry-pi) specifically for the Raspberry Pi.
Answer: Raspberry Pi preinstalled Ubuntu 20.10 Desktop and preinstalled Ubuntu 20.10 Server images are available from ubuntu.com. The preinstalled images allow you to unpack a preinstalled version of Ubuntu onto a target device.
The Ubuntu Raspberry Pi wiki is the most reliable and up-to-date source for information about installing Ubuntu on the Raspberry Pi, but the Ubuntu image for Raspberry Pi linked to at the Ubuntu Raspberry Pi wiki is not an officially supported Ubuntu release. An Ubuntu 14.04 LTS (Trusty Tahr) image is available for the Raspberry Pi 2, which combines the released 14.04 distribution with a PPA containing kernels and firmware which work on the Raspberry Pi 2. The instructions for installing this image are at the same webpage.
Official images
armhf

Raspberry Pi 2: ubuntu-18.04-preinstalled-server-armhf+raspi2.img.xz (4G image, 296MB compressed)

Raspberry Pi 3: The official Raspberry Pi 2 images can be used with a Pi 3B/3B+ after minor changes (see instructions).

Ubuntu MATE for Raspberry Pi 2/3

Raspberry Pi 4: You can install Ubuntu Server + desktop environment (optional) on a Raspberry Pi 4 by following the instructions in this answer.

Further releases can be found at http://cdimage.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/releases/

arm64
The generic arm64 ISO images can be used with the Raspberry Pi 3. Instructions for booting these are here.
Canonical has released official [Ubuntu Core 16 and Core 18 images for Raspberry Pi 3. The instructions for installing it are at Install Ubuntu Core on a Raspberry Pi 2 or 3. As the wiki says: Snappy Ubuntu Core is a new rendition of Ubuntu with transactional updates - a minimal server image with the same libraries as today's Ubuntu, but applications are provided through a simpler mechanism.

Ubuntu Core 16 is based on Ubuntu 16.04, and is supported for 5 years.

Ubuntu Core 18 is based on Ubuntu 18.04, and is supported for 10 years.

A new release of Ubuntu Core is released every 2 years on even numbered years (2016, 2018, etc.).
Ubuntu MATE 16.04 has fully working bluetooth and wifi on the Raspberry Pi 3.
Raspberry Pi packages
Although the majority of the Raspberry Pi cloud/server image works like any other Ubuntu system, there are a few packages in all currently supported versions of Ubuntu that you may not be familiar with.

linux-firmware-raspi2 - GPU firmware bootloader files and WiFi firmware configuration files
linux-raspi2 (linux-image-raspi2) - Linux kernel with patches from https://github.com/raspberrypi/linux
u-boot-rpi - Provides the various uboot* binaries under /boot/firmware
flash-kernel - Automatically copies the latest kernel, dtb file and u-boot script to the Pi's FAT-formatted GPU firmware partition.
Comment: Been using the pre-installed 18.04 image myself couple times. +1 for that one.
Comment: I wanted you to update your answer an hour ago. +1 for updating it 1/2 hour ago :)
Answer: Based on the latest update on the official website's FAQ:

...
  Raspbian (based on Debian), Arch Linux, and Pidora run on the
  Raspberry Pi 1, 2, and 3. Ubuntu MATE and Ubuntu Snappy Core also run
  on Pi 2 and 3 only.
  ...
Answer: If you are considering purchasing a new Raspberry Pi 4 don't be dissuaded by articles stating Ubuntu doesn't support it. From:

Ubuntu 19.10 delivers Kubernetes at the edge, multi-cloud infrastructure economics and an integrated AI/ML developer experience

It states:

The Raspberry Pi 4 Model B is supported by Ubuntu 19.10. The latest
  board from the Raspberry Pi Foundation offers a faster
  system-on-a-chip with a processor that uses the Cortex-A72
  architecture (quad-core 64-bit ARMv8 at 1.5GHz) and offers up to 4GB
  of RAM. With the Raspberry Pi 4 Model B, developers get access to a
  low-cost board, powerful enough to orchestrate workloads at the edge
  with MicroK8s.

Can a Raspberry Pi run Ubuntu?


What kind of clothing should I be wearing if I were to hike up Mount Hua in Xi'an during October

Question: I'll be visiting Xi'an on the first week of October this year (2014) and I am planning to hike up Mount Hua. I've read that it's generally cool during October period. Would wearing a sweater be suffice once you hike up the mountain or should I be wearing something thicker?
Answer: Doing a google search for "Mount Hua weather" I found this page which states that the average temperature is 6.8 degrees. So something warm that also protects you from the wind will be important. They also rent out overcoats on the mountain. I would assume that in perfect conditions, you do not need a lot, but the moment it's overcast and windy you will have an issue with only a sweater. Looking at the photos online from people climbing it I would suggest to bring something more than a sweater.
They also say that you should avoid the first week of October:

Please do remember to avoid climbing on holidays of China, such as the May Day (May 1st to 3rd) and the National Day (Oct 1st to 7th).

From my experience, this is a smart advice, and I can only recommend you to follow it. You can find several different reports from reputable sources only form last year (SCMP, IBT), and if you take a look at the photos, you will know what to expect. So again, if you planned to go almost anywhere touristy in China during the first week of October, don't do it.
Last year there were more than 27,000 tourists on the mountain on one day, but its capacity was no more than 20,000. Waiting times for the cable car were more than 4 hours. 10'000 people had to stay on the mountain over night because they cable car down was so overcrowded.
These pictures were taken on the mountain during golden week:
Comment: Curious, why should one avoid climbing on holidays? The phrasing makes it sound like its forbidden but generally one would expect holidays to be the most visited period for sights in most parts of the world.
Comment: @itai added some information above, hope that clarifies it.
Comment: Would climbing it on the second week of Oct makes any difference?
Comment: @NAT3863 The further you go away from the holiday time, the better it will be. I would think that 2 weeks later should be "normal" traffic, and the 1st week after there should be a steady decline.
Comment: Degrees Fahrenheit or Celsius...or something else? What temperature scale are you using?
Comment: Celsius is the scale used in Asia and also here


Difference between phrases in Esther 1:22

Question: What is the difference between the phrases אל מדינה ומדינה ככתבה, to each country according to its writing, and אל עם ועם כלשונו, to each nation according to its tongue, found in Esther 1:22 regarding the decree to kill rebellious wives? Both phrases seem to indicate that it was sent in each country's language.
Comment: Maybe it is just repeated for style.
Comment: @mevaqesh Maybe. Megillah 2a seems to imply that the Anshei Kneses HaGedolah were VERY precise in the wording they chose, though, to the point that we can darshen it as if we were darshening pesukim. If there's someone who says it's just for style, please let me know.
Comment: Not really. There is no evidence that those _derashot_ are anything other than _derash_. No evidence that they reflect original intent. Note Ibn Ezra in the beginning of his second commentary to Esther who writes that we cannot know the meaning of names whose reason isn't stated; particularly of the foreign names in the Megillah. His point his clearly that the related _derashot_ are just that; [_derash_](http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/53349/belief-in-midrashim/53351#53351)
Comment: `If there's someone who says it's just for style, please let me know.` See [here](http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/12602/was-malbim-an-innovator/71508?s=1|0.1281#71508).
Answer: R. Yosef Kara to this posuk (Nusach Alef) says that this decree was sent in the ("official") language of each country and then the designated translators in those countries would translate the content to the other languages of peoples living between them.

ומדבר כלשון עמו - המוליך את הכתב יודע לקרות את הכתב ולדבר ולתרגם את
  הכתב כלשון העם
Answer: Each state's script, and each people's language.
An empire could easily have multiple governing units that don't necessarily correspond to ethnic boundaries; it could also have multiple alphabets which are used for multiple languages. Consider for instance Nigeria, which contains many different peoples with many different languages, but the entire state almost exclusively uses the Latin alphabet in written form.
Comment: What's the point of having both?
Comment: I'm not sure I follow.
Comment: @DonielF different languages can use the same alphabet! E.g. French, Spanish, Portuguese (with minor variations). So the proclamation went out in many different alphabets *and* many different languages.


Search using SOLR

Question: We are using Solr for Search in Sitecore.Is there any "Solr API" or i can use existing Sitecore's LINQ-based search API?
If yes, then how since I am not find any SolrAPI implementation example?
or Should I process with LINQ-based search APIs?
Any example would be highly appreciable
Answer: You may find the following articles helpful for setting up and using Sitecore's Content Search API, which was introduced in version 7.

https://soen.ghost.io/setting-up-solr-for-sitecore-8-x/
https://soen.ghost.io/a-re-introduction-to-the-contentsearch-api-in-sitecore-part-1/
https://soen.ghost.io/a-re-introduction-to-the-contentsearch-api-in-sitecore-part-2/

Some keywords you may also find helpful when researching the topic include SOLR, Sitecore, and Content Search API.
Answer: Mike's post will get a SOLR up and running for you. As for the question about SOLR specific linq statements, there are none. You just continue to use the normal Sitecore Search Context and Sitecore translates it for you under the covers.
Whether you are using Lucene, SOLR or Azure Search, it's the same search context query.
<code>var index = ContentSearchManager.GetIndex("sitecore_master_index")
using (var context = index.CreateSearchContext())
{
  var results = context.GetQueryable<SearchResultItem>()
                       .Where(x => x.Content.Contains("Your search text"));
}
</code>
Comment: That means i can use Sitecore's LINQ-based search API..
Comment: Yes, there are no SOLR specific LINQ statements. Just use the normal Search Context queries. They work for all providers.
Comment: That is why I cannot find any SOLR APIs..Got it..Thanks!

Search using SOLR


ceiling fixture wires

Question: meant to change a lightbulb and the whole light
fixture came down. was confused and didnt pay attention when i took out a wire. any help really appreciated. from the ceiling i see 1 black and 1 white wire connected and 2 brown wires. on the fixture one black and one white, which were connected to the brown ones im guessing. i wasnt thinking and jumped the gun. whats the easiest way to figure this out? thanks in advance
Answer: Looks like a typical switch loop, where you have a power cable coming into the box, and another cable acts as an out and back in, though the switch, for the hot leg.

Connect the black and white of your fixture to the two whites in either configuration. (Technically, the white coming back from the switch is your "hot", so connect that to black if you know which is which. It should've been labelled by the installer.)
Comment: if you look closely you can also see a bare wire, you will need to connect the bare wire from the fixture to that.
Comment: so i should test the two light brown wires to see which is the hot one and thatll will be the one to attach the black one to?
Comment: I don't see any brown wires. I see two dirty white wires, and two blacks connected with a nut. Yes, you could test like that. With basic light fixtures polarity often doesn't matter, though.

ceiling fixture wires


Where does the phrase "get crackin'" come from?

Question:
"There's a lot of work to be done, so we'd better get crackin'"

I've often used this expression, but I have no idea what we might have been cracking, originally? Any insight?
Comment: just a thought but could it be related to 'Craic'?
Comment: Bustin' nuts, baby
Comment: Could it have anything to do with metaphorically cracking your knuckles before starting a task?
Answer: I always though this was related to the cracking of a whip; either to make a horse run faster or to drive cattle etc.
Answer: I think the precise origin will probably always be shrouded in mystery, but this Ngrams graph implies it derives from the earlier British usage Crack on.
I realise Ngrams will have included many spurious occurrences of both phrases (for example, references to a crack on a surface). But this 1764 usage is obviously idiomatic, so we can safely say Crack on was current by then. I can't find any explicit use of Get cracking until at least a hundred years later.
I suggest the basic metaphor being invoked is that in many contexts, a crack is the first stage of a wider split; starting a major task might imply you need to make a small dent or crack in it first. Also, of course, you can't make an omelette without breaking (cracking) eggs.
Comment: I imagine, but have no proof, that the phrase is related to whip cracking, since whips were used to drive work forward, whether it be farm animals or slaves.
Comment: @Matt: [Cassell's](http://books.google.com/books?id=5GpLcC4a5fAC&dq=fitzherbert+batty&q=get+cracking#v=snippet&q=%22get%20cracking%22&f=false) agrees with you.
Answer: Dictionary coverage of 'get cracking'
J.E. Lighter, Random House Historical Dictionary of American Slang (1994) reports that "get cracking" came into U.S. English from the UK during the 1940s:

get cracking to get busy; get going. {This phr[ase] came into U.S. speech through contact with British armed forces during WWII.}

Lighter's first citation for the phrase is from Eric Partridge, Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English (1936), as "Get cracking, begin work."
It appears to have caught on as a naturalized phrase fairly quickly, however, since it appears in Harold Wentworth & Stuart Flexner, Dictionary of American Slang, first edition (1960):

cracking, get Start; start moving; begin working; begin to exert oneself. Often in the phrase let's get cracking.

The entry for "get cracking" in the original edition of Eric Partridge, Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English (1936) is actually a bit more detailed than Lighter's citation suggests:

get cracking. To begin work : Royal Air Force : from ca. 1925. I.e. cracking on speed.

Earlier in the same dictionary, Partridge has this entry for cracking as an adjective:

cracking, adj. Very fast ; exceedingly vigorous (-- 1880) : slightly ob[solete, in 1936]

By the fifth edition (1961) of the dictionary, however, Partridge had evidently rethought the place of "get cracking" in the larger scheme of similar phrases and had adopted the entry that ghoppe reports in a different answer here, with the suggestion that it might have its origin in "whip-cracking at the  mustering of cattle."

Early Google Books matches
Google Search results generally support Partridge's1936 reading of the phrase. The earliest relevant matches are from 1938, and one of them is RAF-specific. From Popular Flying, volume 6, issue 9 (1938) [combined snippets]:

We've got a new vocabulary in Black Bourton, the vocabulary of the R.A.F. Nice things are "wizard"; nasty people are "ropey types," and a reckless man is "split." One is "browned off" when one is rather depressed; the ground is the "deck" and the sky is the "ceiling"; dull-witted people are "drips," and when in a hurry we ask each other to get "cracking." This strange lingo is, of course, subject to changes and ex-R.A.F. men of several years ago would find themselves hopelessly dated by the expressions they use.

There is, however, one outlying instance of "got cracking"—or more precisely "got cracking away"—that might be significant as well. From Bertram Milford, In the Whirl of the Rising (1904), a novel seemingly set in Rhodesia during the Second Matabele War, of 1896–1897:

"You must have had the very devil of a scrap, Peters." one of these [horsemen from Green's Scouts, a relieving force] was saying. "We could hear you banging away from the time you began, and pushed our gees for all they'd carry; for we reckoned all that shooting meant a big thing and no bally skirmish. ... They [the Matabele forces] didn't know we were there till we got cracking away right in their faces, or mostly backs. Magtig! Didn't they skip. ..."

Here it seems pretty clear that "got cracking away" means "started firing our guns." Is this usage connected to the later World War II use of "get cracking"? It's difficult to say. If there is a connection, the literal slang term for gunfire would have to have transmuted into a more figurative sense of getting started. Still, both usages have a strong tie to military usage, and a connection is not impossible.

Conclusion
No reference work has convincingly tracked "get cracking" to its original lair. The term does seem to be of UK English origin, but whether it originated in the RAF in 1925, or in Rhodesia in the late 1890s, or in some bucolic setting to the sound of bullwhips bring cattle into order for transportation or migration remains unclear.
Comment: I found this [Australian newspaper article](http://trove.nla.gov.au/ndp/del/article/86226426) from July 1938, which introduces the term to its readers. Clearly the term was already getting usage outside the RAF before the war.
Answer: Get cracking may have originally been not much more than get to talking as seen in this clip from Passages in the Life of Mrs. Margaret Maitland, 1849 (check)

With John Boag's 1848 Popular and Complete English Dictionary having one definition of cracking to be "conversing familiarly," the last sentence of the above clip can be translated, "The children of that time couldn't have sat chatting about this around the fire."
This use of cracking is related to the phrase to crack a joke, but I'm not sure it's related to the "get to work" meaning of get cracking. Just thought this early appearance was interesting. For more theories on the modern meaning check out the thread on the phrase at Wordwizard.
Comment: @Calithumpian: I think you're *way* out on a limb with that *cracking/talking* connection. We can surely discard the possibility that **get cracking** evolved separately from **crack on**. Bearing in mind the 1764 usage referenced in my answer, it seems unlikely that the (later?) talk/joke associations have anything to do with the usage under discussion.
Comment: @Fumble: If the limb starts to crack, I'll get off. But I knew it was iffy, thus my "not sure it's related." But while we're on limbs, I'm not sure I see how your Ngram shows a connection to _crack on_ when the "spurious occurances" you mention seem to be the vast majority.
Comment: @Calithumpian: The point about the Ngram is that at least *some* occurences of **crack on** are *not* spurious in this context. I put the link to one such, just in case anyone thought they were *all* irrelevant. I may have misinterpreted things, but it seems to me there's support there for saying that **crack on** predates **get cracking**. And I find it almost inconceivable that the latter *didn't* ultimately derive from the former. Even if there's room for debate about which really came first.
Comment: Anyway, that limb may be cracking, but I see it sprouts anew in the form of a recent question about the origin of *out on a limb*. I can't help but think maybe that was inspired by our little dialogue here.
Answer: After looking at the earliest google n-grams of usage of the phrase, (discounting the 1849 passage which clearly uses "cracking" in the sense of talking/gossiping/boasting) I had a hunch it had its origins in military jargon. A little more searching found this:
According to the Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English:

get cracking-get mobile-get skates on-get stuck into it-get weaving. To respond (immediately to an order; to get a move on; Services' (the 2nd, 3rd, 4th, general; the 1st orig. Army and then gen.; the 5th, RAF—see separately at weaving): since ca. 1925, except stuck (ca. 1916) and the last q.v. All usu. in the imperative. Origins: whip-cracking at the mustering of cattle; …
Answer: It is a Crypt gang term to shoot to kill.  Hip hop has made it popular because of their appeal to gangs.  They inside lingo makes them secretly laugh at the ignorance of those using it in our culture so prominently today.  I am a former teacher in a juvenile correctional facility and this came out in our gang training.
Comment: Given that *get cracking* is at least 150 years old, I don't think this modern usage has any relevance to the ***origin***.


Nvidia drivers not working with Fedora 22

Question: I used the net-installer package yesterday to install fedora 22 with the cinnamon desktop.  That installer was buggy but I eventually got it to do the install.  I then went to install my nvidia drivers.  First I tried the run file install and no matter what I did the driver kept detecting nouveau running on my system.  This was even after I did the minimal install and had not yet added any graphics or window managers.  I followed the following steps
to disable nouveau...
dracut --omit-drivers nouveau /boot/initramfs-$(uname -r).img $(uname -r) --force

systemctl disable gdm

reboot

These did not seem to do anything.
I gave up with the run file and decided to use the rpmfusion packages instead.  I installed the drive like this and it seemed to work.
sudo dnf install xorg-x11-drv-nvidia

sudo dnf install xorg-x11-drv-nvidia-libs.i686

This time it seemed to install well.  When I rebooted the system I made it to the login screen with no problem. However once I logged in cinnamon displayed some message about how it had crashed.  I then installed some other window managers and these would not open either.
I also tried installing the driver with a few other ways I found on the internet and all of the installs either did not work or caused it to crash in the same way.  I am using and Nvidia GTX 960 for my display along with a GTX 720 (no display just for debugging CUDA applications).  Does anyone know how to make it work?
Answer: I followed the steps in this thread over at Fedora Forum and it worked great for me. http://forums.fedoraforum.org/showthread.php?t=304646
I had applied the latest updates for F22 and used the latest NVIDIA drivers as of today (352.41).


Triangulation of disjoint line segments

Question: Given a set of disjoint line segments in the plane, prove (or disprove) that you can always join the line segments to make a near-triangulation where the vertices are the endpoints of the segments, the outer face is a cycle and every segment is an edge of the triangulation.
Comment: Are degenerate triangles allowed?
Comment: I don't think degenerate triangles are allowed here.. all the faces except the outer face must be a triangle. That is called near triangulation
Comment: @AlgorithmUser785 - there is a simple counterexample in this case: a set of *collinear* disjoint line segments - it'll be impossible to create any non-degenerate triangle for this set
Answer: This task interested me, at least in non-degenerate case. I've tried to google it and suddenly found a beautiful approach described here (starts with "Next, the constraints are added to the Delaunay triangulation...", but we don't care about Delaunay here).
Name the set of segments $S$. First, forget about segments and build any triangulation $T$ of all endpoints of $S$. Then repeat the following process for all segments one-by-one:
If $e \in T$, we are done with this step. Otherwise, remove all edges of $T$ having an interior intersection point with $e$. One can see that it will unite some triangles of $T$ into one polygon. Add $e$ to $T$; it will break this polygon into two smaller polygons. Triangulate them both and add needed edges to $T$.
The key point is that if $e \in S$ was added to $T$, it will never be removed, because segments in $S$ don't have interior intersection points. So, after this process $S \subset T$.

Triangulation of disjoint line segments


Do great spot like features favour appear in south hemisphere?

Question: As we know, both Jupiter and Neptune have great spot like features in South hemisphere, and Saturn has dragon storm in south hemisphere, is it true that great spot like features appear in South hemisphere more frequently? If so, what is the reason?
Comment: There's no physical reason to expect those storms preferably to appear on either of a planet's hemisphere. However there's the caveat that there is still no sufficient consensus on how to explain the longevity of Jupiter's Great Red Spot. That doesn't mean we can't explain it, it only means there are too many possibilites, and we don't know which one is true.
Answer: Given that we have very few examples, we could not, statistically, draw any significance from any apparent bias.  It's also hard to see any theoretical basis for expecting a bias, so my gut feeling would be there probably is no bias.
It's also worth remembering that human observations of these things are essentially a very brief snapshot in a huge period during which we have no idea about what may have been happening.  So again the statistical significance of what happens at the moment needs to be carefully considered.
Answer: Saturn's Great White Spot phenomenon often occurs in the Northern hemisphere, so it doesn't look like there is any particular preference.
Answer: Hubble observations in 1994 revealed that Great Dark Spot on Neptune observed by Voyager 2 had disappeared. In 1998, further observations revealed the formation of a similar dark spot in the planet's northern hemisphere, so at least in the case of Neptune and Saturn (see adrianmcmenamin's answer), both hemispheres are capable of forming such systems.


What's the difference between 防止法 and 禁止法?

Question: As the title says. I was trying to search for the Japanese name of the Minor Drinking Prohibition Act but when I couldn't find anything, I just took a shot and typed in 未成年者飲酒防止法. By luck, I managed to get the law, but saw the only difference was that 防止法 was 禁止法。
From my understanding, both of these seem to mean "law prohibiting something" but I was wondering if there was any functional, subtle difference between the two and how you know which one should be used.
Answer: It's 禁止法, not 防止法. 防止 means prevention. You say 防止策 or 防止対策 (ways to prevent).


Can Lightroom on an external HDD sync properly with two computers and Lr Mobile?

Question: I have my lightroom on an external hdd connected via USB 3, and I switch between my desktop and laptop with some regularity. My question though is regarding Lr Mobile. Will it sync normally from both computers with my iPhone? In other words, if I sync it on my desktop, and then a few hours later edit photos on my phone, and then open my library on my laptop, will it cause problems?
Answer: Lightroom Mobile doesn't sync all photos, it only sync's with photos in Collections you have configured to sync. If you change an image in a given collection, it should sync, regardless of where you make that change, or even what Lightroom database you are using.
You need to distinguish between your 'photos' and the Lightroom Catalog. Since Collections are defined within the Lightroom catalog, your images on the hard drive are not really what is being sync'd, but rather the metadata. So, if you use the same catalog between your laptop and desktop, then it does not matter which computer made the edits, they will appear from the mobile app when you open the catalog. However, if you have separate catalogs per machine, then the edits to the images in the Collection will only be associated with the catalog that created them.
So,ensure the catalog used by each machine is the same and it should work fine. (for example, keep catalog on the external hard drive.)


What are the conditions for ongoing possession of eternal life in John 5:24?

Question: Exegetically, in John 5:24, is ongoing possession of "eternal life" conditional on "hears" (once) and "believes" (once), or, do both present tense Greek verbs (participles) indicate required ongoing action (perseverance)?
Comment: Exegesis requires a specific hermeneutic as a framework.  You don't specify any hermeneutic, though.  Are you asking for answers according to some specific hermeneutic or are you looking for answers according to various hermeneutics?
Answer: Please consider the words of Jesus:
"24 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears [present tense participle] my word and believes [present tense participle] him who sent me has [present tense; right now] eternal life. He does not come into judgment [present tense; right now], but has passed [perfect tense; from the past to present] from death to life." (ESV). John 5:24
Many are quick to emphasize the promise of "eternal life" in this verse. They may assert that "eternal life" cannot be lost because it lasts forever. While "eternal life" does last forever, it shouldn't be confused with possession of the state of "eternal life". Two illustrations may be helpful.
Suppose a man is gifted a $100 dollar bill; it's his and worth $100. If the bill is lost, he no longer has possession of it —the bill is still worth $100.00. It would be illogical to conclude he cannot lose it because the bill will always be worth $100.
Many employers offer life insurance to their employees while they remain with the company. It would be unreasonable for former employees to conclude that their life insurance will always remain in effect, even after leaving the company because it's called "life insurance".
In John 5:24, possession of eternal life is true ("has") while a person "hears" Christ's Word and "believes" in Him ("him who sent me"). To overlook these semantic qualifiers based on established rules of grammar  is to reject God's inspired Word. A correct grammatical interpretation of Scripture is necessary for a correct doctrinal understanding. The Bible should define one's theological framework —not one's theology, the Bible.
The Apostle John, with great precision, grammatically constructed the words of Jesus as arranged in this verse. According to the book Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (521-522; 1996), the two conditional participles used ("hears"; "believes"), best fall within the "customary (habitual or general) present" category . Wallace places the participle "believes" of John 3:16 inside this category (522). This category is defined by Wallace as, "the customary present is used to signal either an action that regularly occurs or an ongoing state" (page 521).
Please consider how Young's Literal Translation emphasizes the necessity to remain in ongoing belief:

Verily, verily, I say to you—He who is hearing my word, and is believing Him who sent me, hath life age-during, and to judgment he doth not come, but hath passed out of the death to the life. (John 5:24)

In the book, Life in the Son, Shank wrote the following:

Contrary to the assumption of many, John 5:24 does not present a privileged position, which, once attained, is forever irrevocable. Quite to the contrary, our Savior's Words depict a privileged position directly governed by the specific condition of habitually hearing and believing. Jesus declares that the happy circumstance of deliverance from present condemnation and of standing passed out of death into life is the privilege only of such as habitually hear His Word and believe the Father. It is only on the basis of a present hearing and believing that one shares the eternal life of God and enjoys deliverance from present condemnation and spiritual death. (Page 61; 1989).

A comparable passage to John 5:24 is probably John 10:27-29. This passage is used regularly to emphasize the doctrine known as "eternal security". While it's true that this passage provides security, it's also true that this security is conditional on perseverance. The "sheep" must "hear" and "follow" the Shepherd for eternal life.

27 My sheep hear [present tense] my voice, and I know [present tense] them, and they follow [present tense] me. 28 I give them [the group in verse 27 that is persevering in the present] eternal life, and they [the group in verse 27 that is persevering in the present] will never perish, and no one will snatch them [the group in verse 27 that is persevering in the present] out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them [the group in verse 27 that is persevering in the present] to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them [the group in verse 27 that is persevering in the present] out of the Father's hand. (John 10:27-29)

Conclusion:
A grammatical examination of John 5:24 indicates that Jesus requires perseverance ("hears" and "believes") to be saved. This conclusion is not an abstract theological deduction. All credible English translations grammatically affirm the necessity to persevere in the faith for John 5:24. The requirement to persevere is found in other passages of Scripture — especially within John's Gospel.
Answer: The Answer is Contained within the Verse
The Greek of John 5:24 (no major textual variants):

Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ὁ τὸν λόγον μου ἀκούων καὶ πιστεύων τῷ
  πέμψαντί με ἔχει ζωὴν αἰώνιον καὶ εἰς κρίσιν οὐκ ἔρχεται ἀλλὰ
  μεταβέβηκεν ἐκ τοῦ θανάτου εἰς τὴν ζωήν.

An English Translation (NASB):

Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who
  sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has
  passed out of death into life.

It is true the present tense can be used to reflect a variety of ideas, including what is noted in the question, a present, "ongoing action" or a "once" done idea. There are some key points to keep in mind, however, with this passage.
Argument from The Nature of the Participle
The participle is functioning in a substantive role. The nominative case definite article with the conjoined participles of like case (ὁ ... ἀκούων καὶ πιστεύων) are supplying the subject of the sentence. They are describing "he who..." or "the one who...." Regarding the participle, Daniel Wallace, in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics notes some relevant points:

Regarding Time:

the point of reference [in time] is the controlling verb, not the speaker ... The present participle is used for contemporaneous time [to the controlling verb]. (This contemporaneity, however, is often quite broadly conceived, depending in particular on the tense of the main verb.)(614)

It should be noted that such a time reference is primarily with respect to adverbial uses of the participle, and less so of substantive ones. Yet since the verbal aspect still remains at some level even for substantive uses (620), some time aspect still remains.
Regarding Aspect (i.e. continuous, undefined, punctilliar, etc.):

In particular when a participle is substantival, its aspectual force is more susceptible to reduction in force.(615)

and

many substantival participles in the NT are used in generic utterances. The πᾶς ὁ ἀκούων (or ἀγαπῶν, ποιῶν, etc.) formula is always or almost always generic. As such it is expected to involve a gnomic idea. Most of these instances involve the present participle.(615)

However, though we do not have a πᾶς ("all ...") formula in this passage, Wallace states earlier in his discussion of the Gnomic Present:

the present participle, especially in such formulaic expression as πᾶς ὁ + present participle and the like, routinely belong here.(523)

So the gnomic idea is "especially" true with the πᾶς formulation, but is "routinely" true of many substantive present participles otherwise. The gnomic idea is:

a statement of a general, timeless fact. "It does not say that
  something is happening, but that something does happen." The action or
  state continues without time limits.(523)

and in particular one "kind of gnomic" concept is

the use of the present in generic statements to describe something that is true any time (rather than a universal statement that is true all the time)(523)

To summarize, the present tense of these participles indicate:

If they have any time relation still contained in them in their substantive role, it is controlled by the verb in the sentence.
Given the context of the statement of the format of the assertion, are (it seems rather clearly) used in the routine way of making a gnomic, generic statement that is true at any time a person can be described by the two actions of the participles. That is, an assertion is being made that if any one hears and believes, then any particular one [blank]—where the [blank] in this case is rest of the verse that answers the "then" portion, which analysis follows below.

Argument from the Controlling Verb
The controlling verb is ἔχει ("has" or "is having"). Has what? ζωὴν αἰώνιον, "life everlasting." So the present tense of hear and believe in the participle indicates—if there is any time relation at all—to hearing and believing contemporaneously with "having life everlasting."
If one "has" (i.e. possesses) life everlasting, then that life referred to will not end; but also, if those who have this life are characterized by hearing and believing, then that means once they have truly heard and believed, that belief remains contemporaneously with the possessing of life everlasting received. So the belief never ends, nor the effect of having heard the word that brought that belief. So there would be a sense of perseverance/continuance forever to the participles, because of the relation to the time of the main verb, which persists forever.
However, this does not wholly rule out the "once" idea, either. This is because of the nature of the verbal idea of belief/faith. A belief is something that one enters into at some point. It is a trusting something. But trust/faith is a funny word, because if one later fails to trust/have faith in something, then it evidences that one really never had a true trust/faith in it before—because if one did truly trust/have faith in something, then nothing can pull one from that conviction, because one would continue to trust/have faith despite what might drive one away. So "once" entered into, faith should remain (persevere) if faith is true faith in the object the faith is placed in.
An example may help here. If a young child regularly jumps from a high point into his father's arms, who catches him without fail, one might say the child has faith in his father. But then an incident occurs in which an older brother convinces the child to jump to him, but the brother fails to catch the child, and the child is seriously hurt. After recovery, the father tries to get the child to jump to him. If the child does jump, he shows real faith in the father, for the adversity of the fall did not affect the faith; but if the child refuses, then it shows the child really never had faith in the father, but rather something else (possibly mere ignorance of the potential consequences, or a weak faith in the repeated successes that seemed fun at the time, or what not). A true faith in the father would have remained if the faith of the child had been focused there to begin with.
So in this passage, hearing "My word" (i.e. Jesus' relation to the Father and work for Him, v.17-23) conveys the message from the Father, "Him who sent Me," that must be believed. One enters into a true belief once, for that time one truly places trust in "Him who sent Me," and does so based on "My word," which also shows a trust of the messenger, Jesus, and His message. But continuing to hear what that message conveyed, and believe in the Father from it, is the result of the once entering into faith. Hence why the time frame of the everlasting life one possesses runs forever contemporaneously with the hearing/believing that initiated the faith that coincides with the everlasting life.
Argument Confirmed by Subsidiary Statement
The main verb expressing the possession of everlasting life is further clarified by the statement in the following clause, καὶ εἰς κρίσιν οὐκ ἔρχεται ("and into judgment does not come"). The verb ἔρχεται has the idea of movement to a place, destination, position, etc.. One "comes" via some movement from one thing to another thing. In this case, the one who hears and believes, possessing everlasting life, does not move into a place of judgment, or properly in context, the negative side of judgment, condemnation.
The verse is actually setting up for the contrast coming in John 5:29, where the resurrection of all people is going to come about, and some will be to life, and the rest to condemnation. The "good" that people can do to be part of the life there in v.29 is what is expresses here in v.24, to hear the Son and believe the Father. The former never "come" to the latter condemnation, but persist in the life gained.
So the contrast is the mutually exclusive experiences of either the possessing of life everlasting or the certain coming of one to condemnation. The one who has "once" believed (truly so) will continue to believe, for they possess the life everlasting and do not enter into judgment.
The Argument Confirmed by the Final Clause
The last statement of v.24 is ἀλλὰ μεταβέβηκεν ἐκ τοῦ θανάτου εἰς τὴν ζωήν ("but has passed from the death to the life"). It is a contrasting statement, but. The one hearing and believing "has passed," which is a perfect tense verb, showing a completed action with potentially present, continuing consequences. Those continuing consequences were already confirmed earlier in the verse, they passed to life, that continuing, everlasting life just noted.
However, what concerns us with your question is the use of the perfect tense here. That indicates a "point" in time in which the transition occurs (one at which it "completes"), and the continuing consequences begin. In other words, it emphasizes the "once" aspect of the entry into the continued state of belief, which state continues forever with that same life, the person not ever entering into condemnation.
Conclusion
The emphasis of the passage via the present participles is simply the gnomic idea that any who hear and believe have (1) life everlasting and (2) no forthcoming condemnation. However, real belief, by its particular nature, is something that must be entered into at a particular point in time "once," and then persists. So the word of the Son must be heard, and once that message conveyed by the Son from the Father is believed, the essence of the message heard remains, and the Father believed, and life gained, all of which will never end.
Comment: A pet peeve of mine is when people translate τὸν λόγον μου as "my word" instead of "my message". But in this case I think it really should be translated "the message about me" because the context is about believing God's message about Jesus:  John 5:39 "Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have everlasting life: and they are they which testify concerning me." So one must hear the message about Jesus and believe God who sent him. The faith is faith in God's testimony about Jesus, specifically about God raising him from the dead.
Answer: To user10231: I believe the sense of logos here is "doctrine" or "teaching" (see Heb. 6:1). A verbal message would be hrema, eh?
Comment: Hello imard, welcome to BHSE, glad to have you with us. If you haven't already, please make sure to take our tour, to see how we are a little different from other sites you may know. Thanks! (hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/tour)


Would search engines penalize migrating to a new blogging platform while keeping the same content and URLs?

Question: How much does Google penalize search rankings if one takes their blog from WordPress/Square/Webflow/Hugo/etc to another platform - while keeping the same article text body and keeping the same article URLs?
Comment: You say "keeping the same URLs" - does that include the domain name?  Is all you are doing is changing the server/hosting/platform or will the domain/host name change?
Comment: yes to both. Keeping the same domain name/URL and only changing server/hosting/platform.
Answer: Google doesn't care about the serverside engine only indirectly it affects your resulting page. And this you can check via: https://developers.google.com/speed/pagespeed/insights/
Indirectly all of them have an effect on the final page. But with every of these, you can get good SEO. None of them is particularly bad - you should probably care about a particular template and set of modules pluggins you use on them
Answer: Looking into the Google guidelines I was not able to find anything closely related to your concerns. The only thing that popped up was the duplicate content and possibly content scraping issues that you may face and from where you may trigger a penalty if and only if you are not careful and planning to keep both website up.
However there are legitimate reasons why you may want to move the content across and if you do that follow these recommended steps assuming you want to change hostname but keeping blog posts paths or urls the same. If you want to only change the hosting  or CMS platform using the same hostname follow the move with no URL changes instructions.
If you want to keep both websites up use a technique called content syndication following Google duplicate content guidelines here (see "syndicate carefully" advise)


How boiled eggs can help in weight loss?

Question: I have not joined the gym for exercise but only walk of 30 to 45 minutes before my breakfast and after the dinner. In breakfast i take a cup of tea with a slice of brown bread, and in lunch a small bowl of salad and some chicken or fish, in dinner i eat Chapati with some vegetable dish. Do I need eggs too for weight loss?
Should i add/remove some foods to lose weight?
How boiled eggs can help me in weight loss and what should be the quantity and timings like, in breakfast, lunch etc. or any time(when i want)?
Comment: As I said in my other comment, please take the tour and read the help section. This is another question that is very vague and only has a very peripheral relation to fitness. How are you trying to lose weight? What is your workout program? What are you eating currently that you think changing to boiled eggs will help? Etc.
Comment: @JohnP Did the question is according to rules now, I edit it?
Answer: hard one. as an answer for your egg eating question. the whites of the eggs are the part with less saturated fats and cholesterol.so if your trying to lose weight with egg just eat the whites. yokes do carry other nutritional benefits but for losing weight purposes the whites are best. timing can be anytime. qtys i would have 4 egg whites in a serving. with a bit of salt and pepper. your lunch meals seem perfect. also your morning walk before your meal is great.
Egg whites are a low-calorie, fat-free food. They contain the bulk of the egg's protein. The egg white contains about 4 grams of protein, 55 mg of sodium and only 17 calories. A single egg white also offers 1.3 micrograms of folate, 6.6 mcg of selenium, 2.3 mg of calcium, 3.6 mg of magnesium, and 4.9 mg of phosphorus and 53.8 mg of potassium.


Barre Chord Problem Higher Up the Guitar Neck

Question: So I just got my F and F#m barre chords to ring out nicely recently. I tried going up the neck towards the bridge using some different shapes. But as I went closer towards the bridge (around 10th fret) I found it much more difficult to rotate my index finger. On the lower frets I could rotate my index finger so that the more bony side contact the strings. But higher up on the neck, I found it almost impossible to rotate my index that way due to my left arm approaching the neck in a 90 degree angle. What am I doing wrong and how can I fix it?
Comment: You really have to get some pic in here.  It is very hard to decipher exactly what the issue is and it sounds like you have more than one.
Comment: Are you playing an acoustic or electric? If acoustic, does it have a cut-away for better access to upper frets?
Answer: In  my own instance, I find it unnecessary to barre chord clear up to the top of the neck for a couple of reasons. One reason is the angle of my arm as you have mentioned, but even more problematic for me is the closeness of the frets that high up the neck. There are some movable chord shapes that do not utilize the barre finger. Perhaps they could solve the problem when you can not rotate your first finger as you prefer to do, still allowing you to use those higher pitched chords. Another technique I have used when I'm forced to play up that high is to push the guitar forward (in the direction of the tuners) which will temporarily change the angle of my arm to the neck, more in line with when I'm playing further down  the neck. For the most part the only playing I do that high up the neck is licks and riffs, not chording.
Comment: Thanks for the answer! It turns out that I was doing a few things wrong and the biggest problem was that I was expecting them to be really easy. After some practice, I was able to barre cleanly up the neck! Still thank  you for the answer!
Answer: You could try to hold the guitar to the left side instead moving with your arm across your body.
It is not forbidden to practice the barre chord (234 borrowed from E major) till the end of the neck, as long you don't suffer. But the next step you will learn is the barre chord based on the pattern of A major and you will be able to transpose and reach the same chords quite easily.


A question about harmonic measure 2

Question: Suppose $W$ is a bounded open subset of $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $n\geq2$. Let $V$ be the interior of the closure of $W$ and $E$ a subset of the boundary of $V$. If $\omega(x,W)(E)=0$ ($\omega(x,W)$ is the harmonic measure of $W$ at $x\in W$), can we conclude that $\omega(x,V)(E)=0?$
Answer: Not really. Take one of the usual counter-examples in potential theory: $$W = (0,1) \times (0,1) \setminus \biggl(\bigcup_{n=2}^\infty\{\tfrac{1}{n}\} \times (\tfrac{1}{n}, 1-\tfrac{1}{n})\biggr).$$ Then $V = (0,1) \times (0,1)$. If $E = \{0\} \times (0, 1)$, then $\omega(x, W)(E) = 0$, but of course $\omega(x, V)(E) > 0$.
Comment: In Gardiner-Armitage book, pg183, Theorem 6.6.10., they say that if $W$ is a subset of $V$ and $E$ is a subset of  $\partial V$ and outside the closure of $V\setminus W$, then $\omega(x,V)(E)=0$ iff $\omega(x,W)(E)=0$. Your example is not in contradiction with this theorem?
Comment: No, it is not: the closure of $V \setminus W$ clearly contains $\{0\} \times [-1, 1]$.
Comment: Do you know any other conditions ( besides the theorem I cited from Armitage -Garfiner) that guarantees $(\omega(x,W)(E)=0)$ implies $(\omega(x,V)=0$?
Comment: If $W$ is not equal to $V$ in a neighbourhood of $E$, this gets rather delicate. I do not think I have ever seen any results on that, but mind that I am not a specialist on classical potential theory. Do you have a particular example of $V$ and $W$ in mind? The claim is clearly true if $V$ and $W$ are smooth enough, and I think it should also be true if $V$ and $W$ are assumed to be Lipshitz. But I do not know if this goes in the direction that you are interested in.
Comment: For example, take for $V$ a bounded open set and a subharmonic function $u$ on a neighborhood of the closure of $V$. Suppose for example that $uc$. Then $E$ is negligible for $V$. Can we say that it is also negligible for $W$, the interior of the closure of $V$?
Comment: If I am not mistaken, this is not necessarily the case. Let $G(x,y)$ be the Green's function for $-\Delta$ in the ball $B(0,2)$, let $y_n$ be the enumeration of a countable dense set in the unit ball $W = B(0,1)$, let $u(x) = -\sum_n 2^{-n} G(x,y_n)$, let $m = \sup_W u$, and let $V = W \cap \{u < m-1\}$. Then $V$ contains all $y_n$, and hence $V$ is dense in $W$. The set $E = \{u \geqslant m\} \cap \partial W$ is necessarily negligible for $V$. However, it is clearly not negligible for $V$.

A question about harmonic measure 2


What does "mount namespace separation" in the app SuperSU do?

Question: The title pretty much says it all. What does  "mount namespace separation" in the app SuperSU do and how does it affect other apps?
Answer: From the man page for mount:

A mount namespace is the set of filesystem mounts that are visible to a process.

It makes it so that the superuser has separate mount points visible to it from the rest of the system/apps.  I believe the intention is to prevent any issues when remounting partitions, such as remounting /system as read-write.  With this option enabled it should remain read-only to unprivileged apps.
It can, however, just break things more.  It made my SD card unusable in root apps: Internal and external SD storage inaccessible as root
Comment: +1. Using *Systemless root*, in my case, unchecking it works fine and resolved TiBu issues too


Which method of preparation would produce a more tender and juicier steak, grilling or broiling?

Question: I do not have an outdoor grill but would like to make steak. I just bought a grill pan, and I have an electric oven with a broiler setting. Between these two methods which would produce the more tender and juicier steak if I have an already tender steak like Filet Mignon?
Comment: Since people's taste is highly subjective and 'best' is a bit vague, you might want to lay out the particular characteristics of the end product you are looking to attain. Otherwise, this question is a bit open-ended.
Comment: As @mfg says - "best" for what? We don't know from the question text. There are many different cuts - what do you mean by "tender type"? This is far too vague as is, needs clarification to be reopened. It also seems to cover very similar ground as [How do you properly cook a steak?](http://cooking.stackexchange.com/q/267) and [How do you cook a steak like those found in fine steakhouses?](http://cooking.stackexchange.com/q/3218)
Comment: @CosCallis: Of the 3 answers so far, one is somebody's "favourite way" and the other refers to a completely different method that is neither grilling nor broiling - neither actually answers the question. Clearly this isn't inspiring good answers. You made some good points in your answer, but a lot of it is speculation that wasn't inherent to the question. The word "best" here is next to meaningless, and there's really no other substance to make it work. This is really just inviting people's opinions.
Comment: @Aaronut, While I would agree that this question could be better worded a 'good question' is asked all the same. I also see this as clearly different from the two questions you present as similar (and they are similar, but not 'the same'). The difference in OP's question is he is trying to discern the 'best' (ok, sure that can be subjective...)  technique given his limited tools (electric oven and 'grill' pan) A full range of available answers presented in both of the other questions are excluded by context.
Answer: If by 'grill pan' you mean something heavy (cast iron) like:
 OR

then it would be your choice as to whether you want to heat them
on top of your stove or under your broiler. If your 'grill pan' is less heavy duty (say aluminum) then it is unlikely to be capable of with standing the heat required to 'best' cook a steak. When the weather here does not favor outdoor grilling I get great results out of placing my cast iron griddle/grill (similar to the second picture) inside of a half-sheet pan and under the broiler to preheat. Once the iron reaches 500F I will add the steak for about 3 minutes per side (for a med-rare) I would also suggest wiping the iron with a little oil first.
Answer: You can also slow-fry steak on your cooktop. This requires quite a bit less heat, but takes rather longer.
I use butter to fry it in and try to keep the heat just below where it will burn the butter (about half on my cheap electric cooktop). The meat probably gets turned a few times more than what most cooks recommend. It's fairly well done when the meat's juices pooling on the top are starting to go clear.
Comment: Whilst I would agree with @MFG that "best" is a bit subjective, I think "best" and "steak" precludes the use of the term 'Well Done"
Comment: I suspect the term 'well done' might be subjective, too. I simply don't like my meat at all red; I find it too tough to eat.
Comment: Too much Roo on your Barbie mate ;) With quality beef the red is nice and tender. Same holds true for lamb chops...


Field edits that are exported automatically in Cognito Forms PDF attachment?

Question: Can I edit the specific fields that are automatically attached in the PDF when selected in the notification email section? I want most of them but a few of the consents make the output crowded. Also, can I include any uploaded files directly into that same PDF to make one file?
Comment: I closed this question as it looks as a support ticket, not as a practical, detailed question. See [tour], [ask].
Answer: We currently testing support for custom PDF and Word merging support in Cognito Forms, which would allow you to easily create custom merge templates in Word.  You even have the option to download and customize the default templates if you do not want to start from scratch.
Please upvote this feature and send us support request if you are interested in participating in the private beta.
In terms of including file attachments in the output, this is something on the drawing board but will not be in place for the beta.  Are you wishing to include Word/PDF documents or something else?  Do you just want them embedded as links or actually appear in the document?


Furnace struggles to ignite after new inducer motor

Question: I recently replaced the inducer motor and wheel on my 15 yr old Payne furnace due to very loud and annoying operation.  The new motor made a huge difference... runs much smoother and quieter.  But the other morning I awoke to a cold house and realized the furnace was locked out.  The code read that there was a lack of flame being sensed.  After resetting, cleaning the flame rod, and watching it operate, the burners will light for an instant, but go out immediately.  Almost like there is too much air flow to allow ignition. (reminds me of trying to light a torch on a windy day) After the third try, it did finally ignite and appear to run normally.  Any ideas?
Answer: First off, I am going to assume you replace the inducer motor and wheel with the proper replacement. They are sized exactly to provide enough flow through the heat exchanger while maintaining a negative pressure in the vent pipe.
That said, you are having a problem with flame proving. You cleaned the flame sensor but unless you have extremely dirty gas it is almost never dirty enough to cause a problem. Make sure the white wire is connected all the way from the flame sensor to the circuit board. If you have a multi meter with micro amps you could unplug the white wire at the flame sensor and plug a lead into each wire in series. You should get about 4-5 micro amps with the furnace running. If you don't, it is either a bad ground or a bad circuit board. Usually a bad circuit board but I have seen all sorts of grounding problems from no ground to the furnace to a bad house ground allowing too much voltage into the ground circuit. I have also seen Payne (Carrier, Bryant, Day and Night) furnaces work for 15 years with a bad ground and then stop working. Once the ground was fixed the furnace continued working fine.


Is there an error display app?

Question: Is there an app for android that displays an error when an app or game crashes ? Because in windows, when a program crashes , an error is always displayed revealing a reason for crash. Eg. It says ' * file is missing','incompatible graphics card' etc. But  an android app quits, or fails to install without explanation. So is there an app that displays errors that explain, for example if an app needs a specific android version, what gpu works with it, or it is not an original  etc.
Comment: There is always a crash report I guess
Answer: There is no general, automatic way to find out a human-understandable reason why an app failed to install/run/work.  It is definitely not true that Windows apps always fail with a sensible error message.

if an app needs a specific android version

Apps contain explicit information about what versions of Android they target and support.  This information is displayed in the Play Store and other app stores, or you can find it using one of the tools listed here.

what gpu works with it

Ideally this would be published by the developer/app store as well.

it is not an original

Don't pirate apps.

To get other errors/logging or stack traces, you can use the logcat command from ADB or a local shell on your device.  There are also apps like aLogcat to provide a graphical interface.
Answer: Your best opportunity to do this is using:
adb shell logcat

with your device hooked up to a computer in debug mode. It will provide a live stream of debug info, from which you can ascertain the cause of any failure. It's not as easy as what you want but it does the job you need.

Is there an error display app?


What does "get children on the right path to success" mean?

Question: Does it mean "choosing the right path for children to succeed"?
"We want our children to be successful in school and life. Getting children on the right path to success is where the discrepancies begin. Many believe that preschools should be teaching children to read, write and perform basic math skills. Parents want to see handouts done during the day and even ask if there is homework for the children. These things have very little meaning to children."
Source: https://www.huffingtonpost.com/entry/want-preschoolers-to-become-successful-allow-them_us_5a157ee8e4b0f401dfa7ec2f?section=us_education
Answer: Correct.

"get children on the right path to success"

=

"teach children how to make decisions that will lead them to a prosperous life"


Speculative conditional: Why does it use the past tense or past perfect tense?

Question: We use simple past to state a hypothetical present situation that we would like to speculate about (If they were here, I would be happy), past perfect for a hypothetical past (had they been here, I would have been happy), and simple present to a hypothetical future. Any explanation why this makes sense, as opposed to past for past, present for present, and future for future?
Comment: ["It is clear that a division of conditionals into the zero, first, second, and third categories does not adequately reflect actual usage."](http://clok.uclan.ac.uk/1531/1/elt.ccp101.full_1531.pdf) —from ***"If only it were true: the problem with the four conditionals",*** Christian Jones and Daniel Waller, *ELT Journal* 65:1 pp 24–32 (2011), Oxford University Press,  doi: 10.1093/elt/ccp101.
Answer: You seem to be confused both about terminology and tenses, so let's try to get this straight:
For present hypotheticals we use a form that is technically referred to as the subjunctive. The subjunctive is identical to the simple past in most forms, but you'll notice that it differs for the first-person singular:

If they were here, I would be happy.
  If I were rich, I would be happy. (Not: If I was rich.)

(Just to make things complicated, this form of the subjunctive is disappearing and many people do, in fact, say If I was rich. But for the purposes of illumination, let's treat this as a separate way of inflecting the verb.)
For past hypotheticals we use the past perfect (or pluperfect), not the "present past" that you referred to. (I've never heard the term "present past" before, and in any case I would interpret it as a reference to the present perfect, which is incorrect.) The reason for this is that the simple past is the same in almost all cases as the subjunctive, which is used for the present hypothetical.

If they had been there, I would have been happy.
  If I had stayed, I would have met her.

For future hypotheticals we use the simple present. This is not actually surprising, since the simple present is used for near-future events in a variety of contexts in English.

If they come, I'll be happy.

Note, however, that it's actually possible to use both the modal will and other future constructions such as going to in this construction, depending on context.

If they will reduce the price, I'll buy.

Here will retains some of its historical sense of willingness as opposed to indicating mere futurity.

If they are going to leave, then I am, too.

This is a pure future conditional. You can use going to for the future hypothetical in almost any case where you would otherwise use the simple present with no change in meaning.
Comment: And the similarity of the subjunctive to the past is not because of any similarity of meaning, but because the particular grammatical forms in Old English (which was a more inflected language like German) have led to almost identical forms today. Compare German "er war" = "he was" (past) vs. "er wäre" = "he were" (present subjunctive).
Comment: Note that we don't use just any subjunctive in hypothetical conditionals in modern English: *were* is the past subjunctive, as opposed to *be*, the present subjunctive (*be they men or women, they shall die*). Note also that *if they had been* is technically past perfect subjunctive, not ordinary past perfect. There is no difference in form, but that shouldn't be a reason to stop differentiating between these tenses; we also differentiate between *be* in *he will be rich* (infinitive) and in *he requests that the goods be delivered* (present subjunctive).
Comment: @Louis, Here is the Proto-Germanic verb: http://wiki.verbix.com/Languages/Proto-Germanic. As you can see, the subjunctive forms are not particularly close to the past forms, though subsequent sound changes made their distinctiveness less clear. The Proto-Indo-European subjunctive and optative are even more distinct. An example inflection is here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_verb#.2Ab.CA.B0er-
Comment: Thanks, Sorry I was meaning to say "past perfect" not "present past". And my question was asking about an explanation why they make sense, can you help with that?
Comment: @Louis, I thought I had helped with that. To be clearer: the present conditional uses the *subjunctive*, which is similar to the past for historical reasons. The past conditional uses the *past perfect* in order to avoid similarity to the subjunctive. And the future conditional uses the present tense because the present tense is often used for future actions anyway.
Comment: and why is histotically the subjunctive form is similar to the past?
Comment: @Louis -- Short answer: coincidence. Long answer: They were plenty different in Proto-Germanic and even more different in Proto-Indo-European, but sound changes along the way caused the distinctive characteristics of each inflection to fall together.
Comment: @JSBangs: can you give sources or examples for that? If it's just coincidence how come almost all subjunctive and past forms of the verbs are the same (perhaps only "were" is an exception)


How does one go about starting a Massive Open Online Course (MOOC)?

Question: Currently my university does not offer any MOOCs. I am interested in creating one. How should I go about it? Does my university need to sign an agreement with one of the providers such as Coursera or can I approach them independently?
Comment: Be warned: Building a good MOOC requires _at least_ as much work as writing a good textbook!
Comment: For fun? I guess I don't know anyone who has actually taught a MOOC (my institution does not offer them either) but my impression is they're a fair amount of work and sponsorship from your university probably brings compensation of some form (monetary, administrative assistance, or otherwise).
Comment: MOOCS are platform independent and can be implemented on almost any LMS (learning management system)
A first step is to take a MOOC by yourself. It will give you a pretty good idea about the pros and cons.
Platforms providing MOOCS are constantly looking for new contents. New platforms emerge almost on a monthly basis.
Answer: As far as I know, you don't need to have a signed deal with e.g, Coursera. You can do it independently. For example, the University of Helsinki has started offering some MOOCs, but they are not listed in the aforementioned provider.
One good approach would be to follow the line of Khan Academy, maybe it seems rather simplistic, but it can bring good results. One piece of general advice that I can give is to focus on quality instead of quantity. Just a couple of well-made online courses, with lecturers that have experience in the topics, is enough. Also pay attention to the evaluation tools that your site will have, that is crucial for its success and interaction with the prospective students.
Good luck in your idea!
Comment: Thank you Layla. Coursera does offer many tools though such as forums and more importantly a huge audience.
Comment: Just to add another data point, one of my alma maters just started offering independent MOOCs (though only for alumni, which I think is a super cool way to keep alumni engaged)


Tannakian Formalism

Question: The Tannakian formalism says you can recover a complex algebraic group from its category of finite dimensional representations, the tensor structure, and the forgetful functor to Vect. Intuitively, why should this be enough information to recover the group? And does this work for other base fields (or rings?)?
Answer: A very nice and very general version of Tannakian formalism is in Jacob Lurie's paper,
Tannaka duality for geometric stacks, arXiv:math/0412266.
I like to think of Tannaka duality as recovering a scheme or stack from its category of coherent (or quasicoherent) sheaves, considered as a tensor category.
From this POV the intuition is quite clear: having a faithful fiber functor to Vect (or more generally to R-modules) means your stack is covered (in the flat sense) by a point (or by Spec R). This is why you get (if you're over an alg closed field) that having a faithful fiber functor to Vect_k means you're sheaves on the quotient BG of a point by some group G, i.e. Rep G.. Over a more general base, you only locally look like a quotient of Spec R (or Spec k for k non-alg closed) by a group ---- ie you're a BG-bundle over Spec R, aka a G-gerbe. Even more generally, the kind of Tannakian theorem Jacob explains basically says that any stack with affine diagonal can be recovered from its tensor category of quasicoherent sheaves..
Actually the construction of the stack from the tensor category is just a version of the usual functor Spec from rings to schemes. Recall that as a functor, Spec R (k) = homomorphisms from R to k. So given a tensor category C let's define Spec C as the
stack with functor of points Spec C(k) = tensor functors from C to k-modules (for any ring k, or algebra over the ground field etc). The Tannakian theorems then say for X reasonable
(ie a quasicompact stack with affine diagonal), we have X= Spec Quasicoh(X)  ---
so X is "affine in a quasicoherent-sheaf sense". Again, the usual Tannakian story is the case X=BG or more generally a G-gerbe.
Comment: This is only meant to cover reconstruction theorems for symmetric monoidal categories (or their homotopical analogues), not eg the Gabriel-Rosenberg type reconstructions for abelian categories or the Bondal-Orlov reconstructions for derived categories.
Comment: Just to make it clear: the category of quasi-coherent sheaves determines the scheme in **all cases**, not just in the quasi-seperated, quasi-compact case (as for example in the Gabriel-Rosenberg theorem)?
Comment: Not all reconstruction theorems could possibly fit into such a neat interpretation: while some important spectra have functoriality in the direct image direction, some others have in the inverse image direction. Some important spectra are even not compatible with localizations, what is expected in nice commutative sheaf theoretic situations.
Answer: This doesn't answer your question directly, but I think does explain why such theorems exist: if your notion of "representations" of some algebraic gadget are insufficient to reconstruct the gadget from the 'collection' of representations, then you better go think up better "representations"! I mean this rather loosely, so for example I'm claiming that thinking about representations of complex algebraic groups without also thinking about how they tensor would be lame.
This for example is why the "representation theory of a subfactor N < M" is all about the bimodules between N and M.
The forgetful functor to Vect I don't think of as so essential -- it lets you construct the original gadget in the category you expect, but if you don't have this function it shouldn't prevent you from believing that there's a "gaget object" in some other category.
Answer: I'm not sure how to answer the question about intuition.  In regards to your second question, the Tannakian formalism works over any field and in fact works for more general categories than Rep(G).  A category C is called a neutral Tannakian category over k (k a field) if it is a rigid abelian tensor category together with a k-linear tensor exact functor from C to k-Vect.  This latter functor is known as the fiber functor (and is just the forgetful functor referenced in the original post when C = Rep(G)).  In this case, there's a theorem that says any neutral Tannakian category is equivalent to the category of representations of an affine group scheme G, where G is given by the tensor automorphisms of the fiber functor.
One of the original references for this is a 1982 paper by Deligne and Milne titled 'Tannkian Categories.'  Deligne also has an article in the more recent FGA explained.
My understanding is that sometimes k can even be replaced by an arbitrary commutative ring.  I don't know general conditions under which this holds.  However, a great example of the Tannakian formalism in action where k is a general commutative ring is the Mirkovic-Vilonen paper on the geometric Satake correspondence, which they prove in great generality (Ginzburg also has a nice paper on this topic, but only in characteristic zero).  The Mirkovic-Vilonen paper can be found here http://arxiv.org/abs/math/0401222
In this paper, they prove that their fiber functor is represented by a k-module which is free over k (k any commutative ring here) and hence the Tannakian formalism still works.  I don't know if this condition is also a necessary condition.
There's also a version of the Tannakian formalism over a scheme, so to speak.  If we view a group G as a principal G-bundle on a point and the category of vector spaces as the category of vector bundles on a point, then we can try to generalize to a scheme.  Namely, if we fix a G-bundle on a scheme X, then this induces an exact tensor functor from Rep(G) to the category of vector bundles on X using the associated bundle construction.  It turns out that the converse holds: given an exact tensor functor from Rep(G) to vector bundles on X, this is equivalent to giving a G-bundle on X.  There's a proof of this fact in a set of notes on the webpage for the seminar that Dennis Gaitsgory is currently running.
Answer: Some time ago I was also puzzled by this same question, and only now, after seeing yours, I start to think maybe I understand the idea. These are my own thoughts though, so you're encouraged to re-check them.
Consider for simplicity an affine algebraic group (on the opposite side would be a complex compact one). Then we know that the regular representation k[G] (respectively, L2(G)) should decompose as \sum R^*\otimes R.
Now what does knowing all the whole tensor category of representation imply? This means we can reconstruct the space k[G] as a G-representation by the above formula, so we know the functions on G! The multiplicatication of functions on G should be embedded in the product above, though I can't yet figure exactly how.
E.g. for a linear group G there is some representation V which contains linear functions. Then functions of the form x^n can be obtained, up to conjugacy, as the highest vectors in V\otimes ... \otimes V, taken n times.
By the correspondence between functions and spaces, this would allow us to reconstruct the original space of group G. Now the action on the space of functions translates into the action of G.
So, I think if on this road one tries to define what the point of G is, one would arrive exactly at the defintion of it as the automorphisms of the fiber functor, the way it is in the Tannakian formalism.
I wonder if somebody could give a reference to a text explaining this point of view?
Comment: After some thought I posted a question about this: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/3474/decomposition-of-kg
Comment: The decomposition of L^2(G) is Peter-Weyl, right? I've never heard of or seen any algebraic version of Peter-Weyl. You seem to be asserting that such a theorem exists. Do you have a reference for this?

Tannakian Formalism


Legal to treat customers differently based on where they live?

Question: I work at a hotel in the United States (Georgia). Some of our rooms are pretty nice while others are in desperate need of maintenance, pest control, etc. The owner of the hotel regularly tells me not to rent the nice rooms to locals. If we only have nice rooms left, I'm supposed to tell them that we have no vacancies. Even though I understand his reasoning to some extent (locals often will not treat the rooms as well as out of town guests, so give them the rooms that are already beat up) it still feels wrong to discriminate this way. I was just wondering, is it legal to do this?
Comment: (1) Do they come in with a reservation for a certain type of room, and receive a lesser type?  (2) Lying about no vacancies would be the basis of a good question, apart from the "geographic-discrimination" angle.
Answer: I'm not going to comment on what your manager is doing specifically, since I don't know all the facts. But in general:

As a general rule, businesses have freedom of contract. This means they can choose to do business with, or not do business with, anyone they want.
There are specific laws that create exceptions to this freedom of contract. The most important are federal and state civil rights laws, which prohibit many businesses from discriminating on the basis of certain protected classes, such as race, sex, religion, etc.

In general, "locals vs. out-of-towners" is not a protected class, and therefore no law explicitly prohibits this type of discrimination. However, it's possible a court could find that "locals" is a proxy for some actual protected class--for example, if the hotel is in a city and the "locals" are predominantly Black.
Comment: In the specific case of mortgage lending, the practice of using geographic location as a proxy for race is sometimes called [redlining](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redlining).


What happens to shared Google Drive files owned by a deleted account?

Question: If I've been shared files by someone and their account is deleted, what happens to the files? I've read that the files are also deleted, but is that really true? I'm thinking that when an owner (whose account is functional) deletes a shared file, that shared file can still be accessed by those with whom it is shared. Why then can't a shared file be accessed by the people it's shared with even when the owner's account is deleted?
Answer: If an owners account is deleted, the files are deleted as well. If an owner deletes a file, the file is deleted for everyone involved. It doesn't make sense for Google to have stagnant files, space costs money in the world of data-centers.
Comment: I know from experience that when an owner deletes a shared file, the people to whom the file is shared can still access it.
Comment: In google apps for business you can transfer ownership of all files before deleting the user, which would save the unshared files. I suppose any shared files that someone as opted to save in their own drive would remain there, since that is a copy anyway (right)? But if all you have is the share link to the original, I imagine that link would go dead.
Comment: @lightweaver Maybe this was true at some point in time. Right now, I made the experience that the shared files from the deleted account vanished from the account, they were shared to, a few minutes after the sharing account was deleted. This is with two personal accounts.


What are the intestate succession rules for intellectual estate (literary works) in India?

Question: My father passed away without a will. He has some unpublished books that I'd like to publish. However as a will does not exist, I am not sure how the copyright or ownership of the intellectual property (books) passes on. My mother and sister do not have any objections to it. However, we're not clear on how the intellectual estate passes on from my father to us i.e. do we all jointly own it equally or does it automatically pass on to our mother? Is there something I should get in writing from them before I publish his works? How does the royalty and tax get divided if I am publishing the work?
Answer: Intellectual property is just personal property
It follows the same rules as everything else that isn't real estate. In India, the religion of the deceased determines who the heirs are.
Comment: I understand. Whats unclear though is whether we need to go through the probate process to actually have the rights assigned to us or is this something that needs to be sorted out if/when we need to produce proof of copyright to a publisher?
Comment: @Null The probate process is needed anytime someone dies with property that they own without a death beneficiary.


Publish a website in the Team Foundation Server Universe

Question: This seems like it should be obvious so maybe I am not understanding something.  I have TFS setup.  My web apps code is in source control.  I can check-in/out and create builds but I don't quite understand what the recommended method for publishing the code to the production environment is?  I was looking for something like "publish release to web server" but can't find anything.  I think my larger problem is that I can't find a good work-flow diagram for how a team is supposed to move from editing code to testing and then to deploying to the production servers all within the TFS system.  If anyone has any thoughts or links to good walkthroughs on publishing a website from within TFS that would be fantastic.
Answer: For the workflow I would suggest the code promotion model.
Within TFS you have the idea of build quality. SO when you initially check code in the build will kick off with a quality of say "ready for test" if the build passes the testers can decide when they want to take a build for testing, when they have tested a build they can mark it as "ready for deployment", you can then use that realeas to deploy.
Unless things have changed in TFS 2010 you have to roll your own implementation for deployment.  We used MS build to build MSIs using Wix, then had the testers test the deployment process for us.
Have a look at the following msbuild extensions to help with deploying to test/live environments:

http://msbuildtasks.tigris.org/
http://msbuildextensionpack.codeplex.com/

I would really recommend you spend a little time on your build process and get it water tight, there is nothing more embarrassing that deploying a release to live that doesn't work and the client loosing faith over it.
Answer: I don't believe there is a built-in mechanism in Team Build to publish websites, however this can be achieved by overriding AfterDropBuild or AfterEndToEndIteration in your build definition to include necessary tasks for copying the build output to your web servers.


Superposition principle forbids quantisation?

Question: Apparently bound states in quantum mechanics require energy states to be discrete. That means energy in such systems is quantized, right? However, say that we have a superposition of energy eigenstates. Using the superposition principle, I say that their average is a possible state, since we also say that there's the same probability that we'll observe each of the two available states. Then since this average is allowed, I can take the average of that and the smaller of the original states, can't I? And if I repeat this an infinite number of times, I should get something which is as good as continuous, right? If I talk about the $n$th energy levels of some system, I won't be able to express the energy each of these allowed states in terms $n$ without making some messy equations. Isn't this a contradiction?
Comment: Possible duplicate of [What is the energy of a superposition of energy eigenstates?](https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/164204/) Not exactly the same, but the discussion of expectation values should resolve this question.
Comment: On second thoughts, I don't think this is a duplicate. There is something to discuss in the difference between expectation values and superposition states. Voting to reopen.
Answer: No. It is a good thought but no. In short, you are correct that we can prepare states whose average energy takes on any value between the lowest and highest energy state. But this is different than creating a state which is "between" the energy eigenstates.
Let $|n\rangle$ be the $n$th energy eigenstate. This means that we have that:
$$\hat{H}|n\rangle = E_n |n\rangle$$
and better yet:
$$E_{avg} = \langle \hat{H}\rangle = \langle n|\hat{H}|n\rangle = E_n$$
We can define a state:
$$
|\psi\rangle = a|0\rangle + b|100\rangle
$$
with $|a|^2 + |b|^2 = 1$
$$
E_{avg} = \langle \hat{H}\rangle = \langle \psi | \hat{H}|\psi\rangle = |a|^20 + |b|^2 100 = 100 |b|^2
$$
Since $0<|b|<1$ we see that we can have a state which has any average energy between $0$ and $100$. In fact, since $|b|$ is complex there are already an infinity of states which have this property.
Suppose $b = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ so that $|b|^2 = \frac{1}{2}$ and $E_{avg} = 50$. This means that if you prepare and measure this state many times that half the time you will measure $0$ and half the time you will measure $100$. Contrast this with the state $|50\rangle$ where you would measure $50$ every time.
This is meant to illustrate the difference between a quantum state whose average energy is $50$ and an eigenstate of energy whose measured energy is always 50.
There are other differences as well. Suppose the system is a harmonic oscillator. In that case $n$ of state $|n\rangle$ tells you that the oscillator has an amplitude of oscillation of exactly $\sqrt{n}$ in phase space ($\hat{X}^2+\hat{P}^2 = \hat{n} \rightarrow n$ in the appropriate units). If the system is in state $|\psi\rangle$ above you will find it half the time with amplitude $0$ and half the time with amplitude $10 = \sqrt{100}$ but never with amplitude $\sqrt{50}$. This is another sense in which the superposition of two states is not really like the average of the two states. In terms of expectation values things can sometimes be similar but not always. Generally what you've described is not a good way of thinking about quantum states.
Comment: When you mention the state $|100\rangle$, are you talking about some random state with the energy of 100 (units)? Or is it the name of the state? If it's actually for an energy of $100$, then is $|0\rangle$ supposed to be zero-energy?
Comment: Yes, $|100\rangle$ and $|0\rangle$ are energy eigenstates with $100$ and $0$ Energy respectively. (Ignoring zero point energy in the case of a harmonic oscillator which contributes energy of 1/2 unit)
Answer: This can be understood from a purely classical perspective, and it's a notion which appears in the discussion of almost any discrete variable. The expectation value is not necessarily an allowed state. For instance, even with a fair die, the expectation value is 3.5 (since it's the average of the possible numbers), but you'll obviously never get 3.5.
So imagine you're dealing with a superposition of two energy eigenstates $|n_1\rangle$ and $|n_2\rangle$. The question describes a long process of averaging the energies of those states and then using that average with either $|n_1\rangle$ or $|n_2\rangle$, but that isn't even necessary to get an expectation value of some arbitrary value in between the two 'allowed' states. In your discussion of 'averages', I assume you're talking about something like this: $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|n_1\rangle+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|n_2\rangle$$ But you don't need to do that whole infinity-many-averages thing. You could simply consider $$\alpha |n_1\rangle+\beta n_2\rangle$$ where $$|\alpha|^2 +|\beta|^2=1$$ and choose $\alpha$ and $\beta$ such that the expectation value is whatever you want between $|n_1\rangle$ and $|n_2\rangle$.
However, in all of this, whatever $\alpha$ and $\beta$ you consider, you will only ever observe either $|n_1\rangle$ or $|n_2\rangle$. Nothing in between.
Comment: Why did you take square roots of 1/2 in the superposition of $|n\rangle$ states though?
Comment: The sum of the coefficients' _squares_ must be 1. Note the other equation $|\alpha|^2 +|\beta|^2=1$
Answer: As the Schrödinger equation is linear, any linear combination of solutions is also a solution. However, solutions have be normalised to unity, thus representing unit elementary charge. Furthermore, most of
these solutions are not stationary. Only solutions of the time independent equation are and represent discrete energies. Non stationary solitions can represent energies intermediate between those of the stationary states.
Comment: So I can have a wavefunciton evolve over time and eventually I _must_ be able to observe _all_ energies at some point of time or other?
Comment: No you will observe these only on average. A single measurement outcome can only be one of the eigenvalues.