Sync to Desktop then automatically delete local/original files

Question: I'm looking for something to transfer files and then automatically delete the original files. The situation that I'm planning is to take pictures in my phone, then when I'm in my house or in a local wifi, sync them to my notebook/desktop, delete the original in the phone and then from the copy from my notebook/desktop, upload it to Google Drive, I'm aware that there are other tools that can achieve this manually but what I haven't been able to find is something that can make this process automatically/seamlessly. Thank you for your help.
Comment: @beeshyams Great, I'd be using both Windows and Linux so that fits perfectly, would you link me to a good implementation of rsync in Android? most stuff in the Playstore seems very old. Thanks in advance!
Comment: See this [question](http://android.stackexchange.com/q/164437/131553) but it requires root to run rsync on Android. See also the link in answer which links to rsync for both platforms ( I don't think that requires root). There is a nifty utility called *Grsync* for Linux which i use to manually backup my external SD card. Don't know enough Linux to automate it
Comment: @beeshyams No, I don't think so, and even if then, I have root permissions in my devices, thank you so much for your comments, this was exactly what I was looking for!
Comment: @beeshyams Yes, I'm going to write an answer when I set it up completely so others can benefit from this, since I couldn't find anything from just googling.
Answer: Google Photos is a free app that periodically offers to "free up space" on your device by uploading your photos to photos.google.com (at the quality you choose) and then deleting them from your device.
Items uploaded via Google Photos don't use your Google Drive's limited storage if they're stored in "High quality" but they do if they're stored in "Original quality" (higher quality than high quality).
In order to sync to your PC:
In Google Photos, enable the "Google Drive" setting.
In Google Drive, check the "Automatically put your Google Photos into a folder in My Drive" setting. (You should see a Google Photos folder in Drive then.)
Then, sync it to your PC with the Google Drive sync desktop program. (There's a link to download it at the bottom left of the Google Drive website. Sign in and select the folder/s to sync.)
Photos added to Google Photos will show up in that folder and sync to your PC, and any photos you add to this folder on your PC will sync to the website.
Comment: @beeshyams subtleties :) As you confirm, I countered your down-vote with an upvote :) Ping me for comment cleanup once you're clear with Melissa (who might need the context). // **Melissa:** could you please include the second part of the requirement, i.e. how to get those photos to the desktop machine then? And does Google Photos use Google Drive, as OP demanded?
Comment: @beeshyams OP's question just talks about "taking pictures and sync them, then delete them from device, and have them sync'd with GDrive". So what's wrong with the result here? They get sync'd to GDrive (or what does Photos use as backend?) and deleted from the device, and OP can then sync them to the PC. Same result.
Comment: @beeshyams Sorry for the delay, thanks for the vigilance and the suggestion!
Comment: No problem. There you go with an upvote from me


How does the Bellman-Ford algorithm apply to real networks?

Question: I was doing some reading on the algorithms used in link state vs. distance vector routing protocols.  I understand that Dijkstra's algorithm is used in link state routing, and I can see why this would be so.  But I've also read that the Bellman-Ford algorithm is more useful for distance vector routing because it can work with negative edge weights?  I'm confused by this.  How can you have a negative edge weight in a real network?  My understanding is that the edge weight corresponds to the estimated time it takes for a packet to make its way between one router and the next.  How can this value be negative?
Comment: What, exactly, were you reading?  It's helpful to know the context of your question.
Comment: https://www.quora.com/Why-is-Dijkstra-used-for-link-state-routing-and-Bellman-Ford-for-distance-vector-routing-Why-not-use-the-same
Answer: Negative edge weights are indeed not very useful in routing applications of the algorithm. Being able to handle negative weights is one property in which Bellman-Ford differs from Dijkstra, but it is not the reason it is preferred in Distance Vector algorithms.
Running Dijkstra's algorithm requires full knowledge of all edges and weights in the network. Unlike link state routing algorithms, distance vector algorithms do not construct such a full network map.
This means Dijkstra's algorithm cannot be used in distance vector algorithms. (Distributed) Bellman-Ford works without the full network view and thus can be used in distance vector algorithms.
Answer: I think you're misreading/misinterpreting the article. It doesn't say BF is better for routing because it works with negative weights, that's just a feature of the mathematical algorithm.  As you point out, in "real life," negative weights don't exist.  But neither do imaginary numbers, yet you can do math with them.


Can't find v, r & s values in the signed transaction of myetherwallet

Question: I tried to create a simple transaction using myetherwallet by importing my account from metamask. Once I've put the 'to' address, ether value and gas price, I clicked on 'generate transaction' which provided me with 'raw transaction' and 'signed transaction'. I however do not find the v,r,s values in the signed transaction, neither the tx hash. Shouldn't the signed transaction contain the signature? What am I missing here?
Comment: Could you show your transactions?
Comment: the content of my signed transaction is this:
{"from":"0x4dbacd4235e071b023db285b40ada9ee3fbe19ba","gas":"0x5208","nonce":"0x00","gasPrice":"0x0826299e00","gasLimit":"0x5208","to":"0x5ACe430fef51fcAAa3E82AC9C27A016F1a68711f","value":"0x11c37937e08000","data":"0x","chainId":1}
Answer: The signed transaction contains v, r and s but they are RLP encoded.
The hash is the result of applying keccak256 to the signed transaction as binary string.
Answer: I think I figured this out. Here's the answer:
In Myetherwallet, the signed transaction will keep showing in human readable form (and not bytes) till one uses his keystore or metamask wallet to actually complete the signing process. This step happens just after the 'generate transaction' when you press on Send Transaction. Hope this helps.


What happens when someone dies?

Question: Who keeps the bitcoins?
If he didn't left to anyone his private key, will the bitcoins be lost forever and ever?
Comment: Obviously they are lost, unless the owner left and unencrypted copy of his wallet somewhere.
Comment: they are lost, the person will have to put the key in their will
Comment: @Lohoris A useful link, but not a duplicate.
Answer: Yes, those coins would be lost.  It would be as if you buried a chest of gold out in the middle of nowhere and died without telling anyone about it.
Though it is possible (though mindbendingly unlikely.  Even if bitcoin keeps existing until the heat death of the universe, it will almost certainly never happen.) for someone to randomly recreate the keypair for those coins and thus take possession of them.
Answer: There is a solution for that in the market right now. There are Digital Legacy platforms that keep your Digital Data safe while you are alive and transfer them to your assigned beneficiaries when you are gone. What I mean by Digital Data is all your information and belongings you have on the web, such as - accounts, passwords, docs, pics, contact list, insurances as well as your online currencies (Bitcoins and other type of coins). I am currently using a platform called PlannedDeparture. It allows me to store all the information I want and assign beneficiaries with instructions with what I want them to do with that information or data. For example to close down my facebook account or to claim the money from my online banking and my Bitcoins too. The platform check your activity on social media (you choose which one). If you do not appear to be active they will send an email to verifiers that you have again assigned, to verify your current situation. Once they have confirmed your situation, They will transfer all the data to your beneficiaries with instructions. It is a very user-friendly platform that allows you to store many information under many categories. Check it out at www.planneddeparture.com if you dont like it there are others that may suit your preferences better.

What happens when someone dies?


ArcGIS online Hosted Feature Service not opening in ArcGIS Desktop

Question: I have an ArcGIS Online hosted feature service with about 17,000 features, and it will not open in ArcGIS Desktop 10.2.2 with an Advanced License. I have increased the Maximum features in the REST service end point and I still get the same results. Is there some other method to configure this so that it will open, or is this more of an issue with a limitation of ArcGIS online? Its probably helpful to note that I can get this same service to load into web maps, and Collector for ArcGIS just fine.
Answer: When you publish the hosted feature service, you specify the maximum number of records that can be returned from the service. This is done under the Parameters - Max Record Count property (in the Service Editor wizard), just as you did.
I have noticed that changing this doesn't always getting through. I had to re-publish the service specifying before publishing the larger number of features that can be retrieved to get it working.
I am able to add a hosted service with 20K + features into ArcMap from the Catalog window (My Hosted Services) and I can see that all of the features are drawn and all the rows are available in the attribute table.


Audio effect: tune to a particular frequency

Question: What software configuration or VST do you recommend for taking a realtime audio feed and "tune" it to a particular frequency (note)?
Answer: Antares invented the Auto-Tune, which is I think what you are asking for. They do a plug-in for Evo, but generally people use the full application.
It can gently or aggressively pitch shift an input note to the closest "correct" note.
This Wikipedia article gives some background, and some example audio clips.
Comment: Can you recommend a specific software or VST "receipe" to achieve the objective?
Comment: Yes - the one I linked to in my answer :-)
Answer: I would also suggest looking at Celemony's Melodyne. I haven't used Auto-Tune for a long time, but Melodyne killed it in the water for me. Notably, when Polyphonic tuning came in. They may be closer now than before. Research!
If you just need a rough match, a lot of DAWs and audio-in synth (FX etc.) have pitch transpose / adjustment. However, the two aforementioned plugins will allow you to tighten the fluctuations in pitch.
Answer: You do not say which DAW you are using, but as you mention VST if you are using Steinberg then for real-time operation there is a plug-in that comes with the DAW called PitchCorrect and for non-realtime you have the VeriAudio engine.


What is Neil Armstrong teaching in this image?

Question: It seems to me that in this image Neil Armstrong is teaching something related with aerodynamics forces (lift, drag...), but I don't know exactly what is that "Triangle" that He drew (It doesn't seem to be an aircraft).
Comment: Once you get high enough and fast enough, don't worry about lift, just go forward fast and the ground just falls away from you.
Comment: Yes that is likely it.
Comment: He quite obviously is explaining his findings, that at certain altitude, if your angular speed=the rotational speed of the earth, then your speed equals your drag, and your weight is about half your altitude. This is known as the Armstrong-Stetson -paradox. –
Comment: @Jpe61 -- Can't wait to upvote your future answer.
Comment: He did fly the X-15, which flew fast enough to take into account the earths curvature.  Sort of half flying and half orbiting (which would reduce the lift requirement).  Angular speed = rotational speed of earth seems more applicable to geosynchronous orbit.  Would have enjoyed his classes.
Comment: I dare not @quietflyer
Answer:
1)  The triangle shape represents an aircraft-- imagine something like a supersonic version of a Gee Bee racer.  The thing at the leading edge of the vertical fin is the canopy.
2) Here is a sketch that offers an educated guess about parts of the diagram that are either cropped, or hidden behind Neil Armstrong, in the original photos.  Also, for added clarity, labels have been added to the dashed lines representing the horizon, and the aircraft's longitudinal axis.  Note that for the diagram to make sense, the wings must be attached with zero incidence relative to the longitudinal axis of the vehicle, or the vehicle may be a flat-bottomed wingless lifting body.   Only the green vectors represent actual forces.  "L" is the lift vector, "D" is the drag vector, "W" is the weight vector, and "T" is the thrust vector.  Note that "D" is parallel to the flight path, "L" is perpendicular to the flight path, and "W" is perpendicular to the horizon. "T" is drawn in this sketch as nearly, but not quite, parallel to the aircraft's longitudinal axis-- in the original, the direction of the "T" vector is about midway between the direction of the aircraft's longitudinal axis and the direction of the flight path.  No attempt has been made in this quick sketch to make the force vectors add to zero.  We can't see enough of the original to guess whether the force vectors as drawn there would add up to approximately zero or not.
3) The vector labeled "flight path" in this sketch was labeled "V" (for "velocity") in the original.  It represents the aircraft's instantaneous direction (and speed) of travel through the airmass.
4) In the original, the line representing the orientation of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft was simply an extension of the flat bottom of the aircraft; it ended up getting displaced upward a bit in this sketch. This wasn't intentional but does have the effect of causing the line to pass closer to where the aircraft's CG would likely be. The angles of interest can be represented accurately regardless of whether or not the line representing the orientation of the aircraft's longitudinal axis actually passes through the CG or not-- we just need a reference line that is parallel to the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
5) Another detail that ended up different from the original in this quick sketch is the order of the angles illustrated on the left-hand side of the diagram.  In the original, running from right to left, the order is gamma, alpha (this letter has been rotated about 45 degrees clockwise so it looks almost like an upside-down gamma), theta, while the order in the attached sketch is theta, gamma, alpha.  This has no effect on the meaning of the diagram-- the same greek letters are still associated with the same illustrated angles. A confusing point about the upper photo is that it is cropped in such a way that at first glance the angle labeled "theta" appears to duplicate the angle labeled "gamma", but of course this is not actually the case.
6) It appears that the curved line represents the surface of the earth, the overlined "R" represents the radius of the earth, and "h" represents the aircraft's height above the earth's surface.  Neil is probably explaining that at very high speed, orbital effects start to come into play, reducing the need for lift.
Comment: Yes, it is rather clear (to me) that the curve is the surface of the Earth (and yes, _h_ is height), and this is the crucial part of the whole thing. Neil is probably explaining that the Earth curvature matters for fast flight (and/or spaceflight). All other things are pretty standard and mundane.
Answer: It appears that he is teaching about the 4 fundamental forces of flight as well as the angle of attack, I also see notes about the thrust angle in the upper image
The triangle is just a crude airplane (I would think). Armstrong had time in a lot of airframes over the years including space craft, this just may be his generic scribble of a "flying machine", it could also just be an X-15 in the first image it appears there is some sketch of the surface of the planet.


Wrapped Lines Effect

Question:
Any insight on how to achieve an effect like this in Photoshop or Illustrator? Like an ojbect is being pressed into the lines from behind to create curves around contours on the object. I've tried using displacement maps in Photoshop but don't love the result. I'm experimenting with envelope mesh in Illustrator but figured I'd see if anyone has any thoughts.
Comment: Hi and welcome to GDSE! This doesn't necessarily look like a Photoshop effect to me. Could be an analogue effect with some lightning/fluorescent bands on a live model in black outfit photographed on long exposure. See the back of the Chemical Brothers t-shirt [here](https://designmuseumshop.com/products/slow-shutter-t-shirt). And see how they use the same visual in their live show [here](https://youtu.be/TdheCbZqHwM?t=2792).
Answer: A few days have gone and no clever tricks have appeared. Here's one method which is far away from anything clever.
The base shape between your color stripes and the black fabric seems to be a standing man. Not much details is left, so you can use quite coarse drawing. A 2D drawing is enough and a real artist, who can imagine all details by himself, needs no predrawn base shape as a crutch.
I found a simple enough image as 3D model. The 3D model is copied from Trimble SketchUP's 3D warehouse. NOTE: Not everything there is free and many available items have very low quality.

In a 3D program one can render the same model in different ways. We use rendering settings which make it as grey on a black background. The polygon pattern is smoothed and there's no edge strokes.
Unfortunately I have beginner level 3D CAD program which has poor light adjustments and no transparent background. I pasted the 2D rendering to Photoshop and deleted the black background. A new black background layer is inserted and there's a curves adjustment layer for higher contrast:

The grayscale must be adjustable because it affects radically how the shape can be easily colored. In the next image there's a new layer with blending mode Overlay. A rectangular selection is filled with red RGB=255,255,0. The brightest red is on 50% bright grey. Black and white get no color with blending mode Overlay. Adjustment layer makes possible to search a good balance:

The grey area under the color overlay can have several layers. Here the grey shape is duplicated and the copy has got strokes with the smudge brush which spreads the original color. The brush width and the smudge strength setting varies:

This isn't enough for making the stripes like the ones in your example. The base shape is turned off between the stripes and what's left has different colors and they are drawn geodetically like they were in the 3D model before rendering. In an advanced 3D program one could insert them to the model, but I skip it.
You can draw paths. They can be made in Photoshop, but Illustrator has more flexibility. A copy of the man shape is pasted to Illustrator and a couple of rectangles are drawn. A few extra anchors are inserted and dragged with the direct selection tool downwards to get coarse geodetic curves:

NOTE: single open strokes do not work, they behave badly in the corners.
The dragged nodes are converted from corners to smooth ones and fill colors are inserted:

The drawn paths are pasted to Photoshop and replace the test color overlay. There we have a smudged copy of the man shape. The smudges are not especially well aimed but at least they intersect the colored stripes.

NOTE: As well one could continue the whole job in Illustrator. The man shape should in that case be imported as PNG because pasting to Illustrator inserts a white background. Illustrator doesn't have adjustment layers, so adjusting the contrast is difficult in Illustrator.
The grey man shape is not needed elswehere than under the color stripes. By Ctrl+Click the layer icon in the layers panel one can make a selection which contains the pasted color stripes. By having that selection ON a right layer mask is built to man shape layers if the mask is inserted:

NOTE: There's no need to keep 2 man shape layers, but smudging is error prone, a spare is welcome. In addition thinning a stroke is easy with the eraser tool if there's a copy which gets all of the abuse.
In the example there's smaller color stripes in the head, hands an shoes.

Wrapped Lines Effect


Heisenberg equation of motion

Question: In the Heisenberg picture (using natural dimensions):
$$
O_H = e^{iHt}O_se^{-iHt}. \tag{1}
$$
If the Hamiltonian is independent of time then we can take a partial derivative of both sides with respect to time:
$$
\partial_t{O_H} = iHe^{iHt}O_se^{-iHt}+e^{iHt}\partial_tO_se^{-iHt}-e^{iHt}O_siHe^{-iHt}. \tag{2}
$$
Therefore,
$$
\partial_t{O_H} = i[H,O_H]+(\partial_tO_s)_H \, , \tag{3}
$$
but this is not equivalent to what many textbooks list as the Heisenberg equation of motion. Instead they state that
$$
\frac{d}{dt}{O_H} = i[H,O_H]+(\partial_tO_s)_H. \tag{4}
$$
Why, in general, is this true and not the former statement?  Am I just being pedantic with my use of partial and total derivatives?
Comment: @I.E.P. I think here, what you are missing is the mathematical difference of total derivative and partial derivative. On the left $O_H$ as function of $t$, hence the total derivative, on the right, $O_H$ as a composed function via the relation (1), hence the partial derivative for every component function.
Comment: Why you applied partial derivative? In Heisenberg formalism, the state kets are fixed in time and operators do vary in time. So you can take the total time derivative of the operator on the LHS.
Comment: Sorry I can't understand your logic there.  Here the $O_s$ is allowed to vary with time and so does $O_H$, but it is very clear that on the LHS there is a **total** **time** **derivative** of $O_H$, and there is a _partial_ _time_ _derivative_ appearing on the RHS.  Why aren't they both partial derivatives in time?
Comment: @I.E.P. In Eq. (2), On the left hand side, why isn't it $\frac{d\, O_H}{dt}$?
Comment: @I.E.P., On the left hand side, you shall use $\frac{d\, O_H}{dt}$, and the total derivative can be expressed as the sum of partial derivatives.
Comment: @WeinEld Because what I did was take the partial derivative of both sides with respect to time.
Comment: @WeinEld Let's say that I take a total time derivative of Eq. 1.  Then I will get that $\frac{d O_H}{dt}$ on the left hand side (great!) but now on the right hand side the partial derivative of the schrodinger picture operator with respect to time will be a total one; and that would not match what is strictly in textbooks either.  What am I missing here??
Comment: Related [11264](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/11264/which-derivative-with-respect-to-time-is-which-in-the-heisenberg-picture-of-quan?rq=1) .
Answer: With some definitions to make time dependences explicit, your equation (4) can be made sense of. Let's take the following:
Let $O_s$ be an operator depending on time and other parameters $O_s:\mathbb{R}\times S\rightarrow \mathrm{Op}$, where $S$ is the space of the other parameters and $\mathrm{Op}$ is the space of operators on the Hilbert space. Let $\phi:\mathbb{R}\times\mathrm{Op}\rightarrow\mathrm{Op}$ denote time evolution of operators in the Heisenberg picture, given by $\phi_t(O)=e^{iHt}Oe^{-iHt}$.
Note that $(\partial_t \phi)_t(O)=i[H,\phi_t(O)]$ and $\partial_O\phi=\phi$ (because $\phi$ is linear in $O$). Now, given a parameter $p\in S$ we can define the function of time: $O_H:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathrm{Op}$ with $O_H(t)=\phi_t(O_s(t,p))$. Our function $O_H$ is a one-parameter one, so it only makes sense to take its total derivative:
\begin{align}
\frac{dO_H}{dt}(t)=&(\partial_t\phi)_t(O_s(t,p))+(\partial_O\phi)_t\left[(\partial_tO_s)(t,p)\right]\\ =&
i[H,\phi_t(O_s(t,p))]+\phi_t\left[(\partial_tO_s)(t,p)\right]\\=&
  i[H,O_H(t)]+e^{iHt}(\partial_tO_s)(t,p)e^{-iHt},
\end{align}
where in the first step I have applied the chain rule and in the others, the equalities we already had.
Answer: No, you are not "just" being pedantic with your misuse of partial derivatives: your Eqns (2) and (3) are flat wrong. You simply did not apply the definitions right, as @WeinEld has been pointing out.
(You might have spared yourself grief if you illustrated your very question for a simple system, such as the SHO.)
$$
O_H \equiv e^{iHt}O_se^{-iHt} ,
$$
so for
$$
O_S=f(x,p;t) \qquad \Longrightarrow \qquad O_H=f(x(t),p(t);t),
$$
where $x(t)= e^{iHt}xe^{-iHt} $ and likewise for p.
The time-derivative of $O_H$ consists of the partial derivative w.r.t. t after the semicolon, plus the convective derivative due to the flow of x and p in the Heisenberg picture,
$$
\frac{\partial O_H}{\partial x(t)} \dot{x} + \frac{\partial O_H}{\partial p(t)} \dot{p} = i[H,O_H] = e^{iHt}(i[H,O_S])e^{-iHt}.
$$
(Prove this! Unless you did, the discussion is all vapor.)
The partial derivative is
$$
\frac{\partial O_H}{\partial t}=e^{iHt} \frac{\partial O_S}{\partial t}e^{-iHt}=\left (\frac{\partial O_S}{\partial t}\right ) _H.
$$
(Some express this as $ \frac{\partial O_H}{\partial t}$, trusting the reader would properly understand the evident differentiation of only the argument after the semicolon, but this very question may make them think twice. Now, to be sure, since $O_S$ has vanishing convective derivative, $dO_S/dt=\partial O_S/\partial t$, as raised in a comment, so this is a non-issue.)
In any case, putting the two pieces together nets the conventional
$$
\frac{d}{dt}{O_H} = i[H,O_H]+(\partial_tO_s)_H.
$$

Monitor the evident behavior of a simple observable such as $O_S=tx$ in the SHO, $H=(p^2+x^2)/2 $, the celebrated rigid classical-like rotation in phase space, $x(t)=x\cos t +p \sin t$, $p(t)=p\cos t - x \sin t$; thus $O_H=tx(t)$. Hence $dO_H/dt= t p(t)+x(t)$: now appreciate efficiencies and differences of the respective pictures. (Such as $$dO_H/dt=\exp(itH) (it[p^2/2,x] + x)\exp(-itH)=e^{it~[(x^2+p^2)/2,}~ (tp + x)~,$$ with the physicists' customary avoidance of the mathematician's ad map notation.)
You might find your bearings by thinking of the S picture as the Eulerian frame, and the H picture as the Lagrangian, comoving frame.

Heisenberg equation of motion


Is the Uttara Kanda of the Srimad Valmiki Ramayana interpolated?

Question: The Valmiki Ramayana consists of 7 Kandas. The last chapter called the Uttara Kanda is considered an interpolation, added in later time? Does the the Uttara Kanda mentions about sakas or Greeks? Is it really an interpolation or not?
Comment: Most likely no....
Comment: See Tezz's answer to this question: https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/15249/how-many-shlokhas-are-there-in-the-valmiki-ramayana
Comment: Yes (see [this](https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/8999/2995) answer) and No (see [this](https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/15252/2995) answer). Listen to both arguments and make up your own mind.
Comment: Also, see [Between Daśaratha-Jātaka and Vālmīki Rāmāyaṇa which is older?](https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/q/17528/2995).
Comment: With the present Uttara Khanda included, the Valmiki Ramayana totals upto 24000 shlokas.
Comment: It was already answered by me long back @Karmanya Nanda. https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/8999/3869
Answer: The answer can be both 'yes' and 'no'. The jury of scholars is still out, how can I student take it upon myself to answer the query.  However, by logically analyzing the evidence presented by both schools, the answer tends towards "Yes. Uttara Kaanda is a later interpolation."
Based on the prime evidence in Chapter IV of Baala Kaanda and Chapter CXXVIII (128) of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana, the following reply is made:
Verse 2 of Chapter IV of Baala Kaanda of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana reads as under:

(2) चतुर्विंशत्सहस्त्राणि श्लोकानामुक्तवानृषिः |
  तथा सर्गशतान् पञ्च षट्काण्डानि तथोत्तरम् ||

This epic contains twenty four thousand verses split into five hundred chapters in Six Cantos. (Baala Kaanda: Ch IV:2)  [The six cantos are Baala Kaanda, Ayodhya Kaanda, Aranya Kaanda, Kishkinda Kaanda, Sundara (Lanka) Kaanda and Yuddha Kaanda.]
However, the interpretation of the last term "तथोत्तरम् " is explained by many scholars as "thereafter Uttaram". Hence Uttara Kaanda is an original part of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana. While by usage the term "तथो "can be interpreted as "thus", "thereafter" as well as "and". Though the normal usage allows this interpretation, however the first chapter of Baala Kaanda does not allow such interpretation. The first few stanzas make it clear from the query Maharshi Valmiki addressed to Maharishi Narada.

ॐ तपःस्वाध्यायनिरतं तपस्वी वाग्विदां वरम् |
    नारदं परिपप्रच्छ वाल्मीकिर्मुनिपुङ्गवम् ||
को न्वस्मिन् साम्प्रतं लोके गुणवान् कश्च वीर्यवान् |
      धर्मज्ञश्च कृतज्ञश्च सत्यवाक्यो दृढव्रतः ||
चारित्रेण च को युक्तः सर्वभूतेषु को हितः |
  विद्वान् कः कः समर्थश्च कश्चैकप्रियदर्शनः ||
आत्मवान् को जितक्रोधो ध्युतिमान् कोsनसूयकः |
  कस्य बिभ्यति देवाश्च जातरोषस्य संयुगे ||
एतदिच्छाम्यहं श्रोतुं परं कौतूहलं हि मे |
  महर्षे त्वं समर्थोsसि ग्यतुमेवंविधं नरम् ||

The interpretation of the 5th Verse is "I am desirous of knowing of such a person and you definitely are capable of enlightening me about such a man." Maharishi Valmiki having enumerated the qualities he desires in his ideal man, tells Sage Narada that he is definitely capable of answering the query.

बहवो दुर्लभाश्चैव ये त्वया कीर्तिता गुणाः |
  मुने वक्ष्याम्यहं बुद्ध्वा तैर्युक्तः श्रूयतां नरः ||
इक्ष्वाकुवंशप्रभवो रामो नाम जनैः श्रुतः |
  नियतात्मा महावीर्यो द्युतिमान् धृतिमान् वशी ||

The reply of Sage Narada was "The unique and difficult characteristics you have described to be found in any one person is very difficult – almost impossible – but after much reflection I think that there is one such person.  Please listen attentively.
Born in the Ikshvaku dynasty, there is one such person, who is known amongst the people by the name of Rama.  He is renowned for keeping his mind in control, extremely strong, famous and brave, and has conquered his sensual desires."
Thereafter in the next ninety verses Sage Narada describes the attributes of Sri Ramachandra and his story in brief and concludes now he is ruling over Ayodhya where his rule will last for

दशवर्षसहस्त्राणि दशवर्षशतानि च |
  रामो राज्यमुपासित्वा ब्रह्मलोकं प्रयास्यति ||
Ten thousand and ten hundred years (eleven thousand years) before shedding his mortal body.

The printed edition of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana in my hands is the Sixteenth Edition printed by M/S Gita Press, Gorakhpur, in the year Samvat 2053 (1996 C.E.) and the details of the shlokas, etc. are from that edition. In this edition, the Six Cantos Baala Kaanda, Ayodhya Kaanda, Aranya Kaanda, Kishkindha Kaanda, Sundara Kaanda and Yuddha Kaanda comprise of 2270 verses in 77 chapters, 4305 verses in 119 chapters, 2414 verses in 75 chapters, 2437 verses in 67 chapters, 2865 verses in 68 chapters and 5843 verses in 128 chapters totalling 20134 verses in 534 chapters (sargas) in six cantos (kaandas). In this edition Uttara Kaanda comprises of 3538 verses in 111 chapters (and it is annotated that six chapters – verses???? Have not been included.) If Uttara Kaanda is included the sargas become 635 plus 6 and then it is not "तथा सर्गशतान् पञ्च " but becomes "तथा सर्गशतान् षष्ट ". Is the second verse of Chapter IV of Baala Kaanda an interpolation to justify the inclusion of Uttara Kaanda as a composition of Valmiki. Chapter IV comprising of 36 verses deals with the story, that Maharshi Valmiki composed the Ramayana consisting of 24,000 verses and taught the same to Lava and Kusha, the twin sons of Seeta Devi. The twins sang the composition in the assembly of sages in the hermitage of Maharishi Valmiki and won great appreciation.  It would appear that the entire Chapter IV is a later interpolation added to justify the claim of Uttara Kaanda being part and parcel of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana.
A perusal of the Sixth Canto Yuddha Kaanda apparently makes one wonder whether the Seventh Canto was indeed Maharishi Valmiki's original work. Shloka 92 – 93 of Chapter 128 of Yuddha Kaanda states that Sri Rama spoke to his devoted brother Lakshmana stating that as the earlier Kings of our dynasty our father, grandfather and great – grandfather ruled wisely and justly over vast tracts of the Earth assisted by a Crown Prince – Heir Apparent, so shall you assist me as the Crown Prince – Heir Apparent. In spite of Sri Rama's request, explanations and entreaties, Lakshmana flatly refused to be the Crown Prince – Heir Apparent.  So Sri Rama anointed Bharata as Crown Prince – Heir Apparent.
Shlokas 107 – 125 enumerates the benefits of reciting, hearing, writing about Srimad Ramayana and benediction to these people. This benediction is usually enumerated at the end of a shruti, song or prayer and thereafter may be a few more verses are sung in conclusion, but definitely not 3,538 or more verses, continuing the main theme / narration. Therefore Uttara Kaanda is most likely not composed by Maharishi Valmiki, but is a later interpolation.
The events described and narrated in Uttara Kaanda are definitely from various Puranas and Upa – Puranas of Sanatana Dharma.  But is the Seventh Canto Maharishi Valmiki's composition?
The jury is still out as the learned scholars still debate this point – but the public at large, especially in heartland of Bharatavarsha have accepted on the basis of faith that Uttara Kaanda is also Maharishi Valmiki's original composition, strengthened by the work 'Ramacharitamanas' by Hindi poet philosopher saint Goswami Tulsidas  which includes Uttara Kaanda. Uttara Kaanda of Ramacharitamanas more or less deals with benefits of reciting, hearing the story of Sri Ramachandra rather than continuing about the life of Sri Ramachandra after his coronation.
This is not to say that Uttara Kaanda is not a part of Ramayana, it is most likely not an integral part of Srimad Valmiki Ramayana.
Nilesh Oak, scholar of Ancient Indian History states - "If one means by 'later addition', that 'Uttar Ramayana" was not part of 'FIRST EDITION' of Valmiki Ramayana… then logic is 'Quite obvious".
On the other hand, if this logic is used to extend it further, to assume, therefore, that 'Uttara Ramayana' in INTERPOLATED, then such a claim is without any basis. It is obvious that in ancient times there were no printed editions and hence there could be no first edition, second edition, etc.
(1) Phalashruti: It comes at the end or beginning of a ethical or religious works. My response…..
(I am reproducing). If one means by 'later addition', that 'Uttar Ramayana" was not part of 'FIRST EDITION' of Valmiki Ramayana… then logic is 'Quite obvious".
Thus I am agreeing that Valmiki completed his first edition in 6 Kandas.
Now to second sub point..
Ramayana is ethical (and religious) work alright. But it is more. Both Ramayana and Mahabharata are Itihas and thus logical for a author to add more info in future editions and/or as seen relevant after the completion of book (e.g. Appendices, notes and so on). Ramayana has Uttara Kanda, Mahabharata has 'Harivamsha' as Khila-parva (Appendix)"
Thus Nilesh Oak is also of the opinion the the original Valmiki Ramayana comprised of just six Kaandas and Uttara Kaanda was later created by Valmiki as an appendix. I bow to the wider knowledge and wisdom if Nilesh Oak.
I had also stated that the events in Uttara Kaanda did occur ad it is part of the Itihasa of Ramayana, but it probably is not an composition of Valmiki Ramayana and a later addition - supported by the Sanskrit and Ancient Indian History scholar Nilesh Oak. [Oak's books on history, etc are available on the Amazon].
Comment: Some users in their wisdom have down voted the answer. It is their opinion and right , but in any criticism, it would be essential to analyze the answer dispassionately. the comment that Uttara Kaanda is a later interpolation acts as a red rag to the devout Hindu. But here the discussion is not on the reality of Uttara Kaanda but on whether it is part of the original Valmiki Ramayana or later interpolation.
Comment: Nilesh Oak, scholar of Ancient Indian History states - If one means by 'later addition', that 'Uttar Ramayana" was not part of 'FIRST EDITION' of Valmiki Ramayana… then logic is 'Quite obvious".
On the other hand, if this logic is used to extend it further, to assume, therefore, that 'Uttara Ramayana' in INTERPOLATED, then such a claim is without any basis.                                                                                It is obvious that in ancient times there were no printed editions and hence there could be no first edition, second edition, etc.
Comment: From earlier comment:                                                                              In Books I and VII, however Rama is made an avatara or incarnation of Vishnu, and the epic poem is transformed into a Vaishnava text. The reference to the Greeks, Parthians, and Sakas show that these Books cannot be earlier than the second century B.C......" **[ The cultural Heritage of India, Vol. IV, The Religions, The Ramakrishna Mission, Institute of Culture ].**
Comment: While stabilizing the original text of Ramayana, historians surmised that portions of two Kaandas, Bala Kaanda and Uttara Ramayana are later additions - "The first and the last Books of the Ramayana are later additions. The bulk, consisting of Books II--VI, represents Rama as an ideal hero.   [Continued].
Comment: **The jury of scholars is still out**--- Who are the scholars who think its an interpolation and who are those who think that it is not? Can u tell some names of such scholars?
Answer: This question was answered by me long back.
I would like to supplement it with further thoughts.

A 6th century version of Ramayana was found in Kolkatta.  In this version, Ramayana ends with Sri Rama's ascension to throne of Kosala Kingdom.  There was no mention of Uttara Kanda in this version.
King Dasaratha thought of performing Aswamedha, to beget sons.

तदहं यष्टुमिच्छमि शास्त्रदृष्टेन कर्मणा | कथं प्राप्स्याम्यहं कामं
  बुद्धिरत्र विचिन्त्यताम् || १-८-९
"Therefore, I contemplate to perform that ritual as enshrined in the
  scriptures and as a rite-oriented one as well... let this
  contemplation of mine be well thought of... and as to how my desire to
  beget sons will be fulfilled."

However, in Uttara Kanda Lakshmana proposes to Sri Rama to perform Aswamedha, to get rid of sins. (2nd sloka of 84th Sarga - Gita Press).  So it is contradicting with King Dasaratha's understanding of Aswamedha.
So Uttarakanda is an interpolation.
Comment: Dasaratha performed aswamedha to beget sons whereas Lakshmana proposes for getting rid of sins.  How can a tradition change from father to son? Further,  what sin did Sri Rama commit for getting rid of the same? @i
Comment: The ashwamedha yajna gives multiple fruits. One fruit is children, another is getting rid of sins. So there is no conflict or contradiction.
Comment: What does Rama's understanding of ashwamedha have to do with dasaratha's?
Comment: One version not having Uttara Kanda don't prove anything.
Answer: I believe strongly that  Valmiki Ramayana ended with Lord Rama as King and Maata Sita as Queen of Ayodhya.
The essence of Valmiki Ramayana was the winning of righteousness and Dharma over evil and Adharma.
The banishment Sita to the forest,birth of Lava,Kusa never happened in the this Hindu Mythology of Valmiki Ramayana is a complete fiction only to reduce the greatness of Lord Rama and Sita Maata.
Also Rama would not send Sita to forest  just because some dhobi questioned,and would not impose his superiority with performing Aswamedha Yaga  which is against Rama's Nature of live and let live. Rama also did not kill Shambuka.  All these are later added  fictious versions to severely discredit Lord Rama's greatness.
Finally when Valmiki Ramayana ended with coronation of  Lord Rama as King ,Quee Sita of Kosala, any other discussions are useless for the good of humanity.
Comment: Welcome to Hinduism SE! Right now your answer looks opinion based which could spark off debates and is strictly not entertained in this site. Back it up with references !


Download all coffe-shop locations in Italy from OSM. Stuck with Qgis, R and geofabrik

Question: I wanted to download all café locations from OSM in Italy.
I tried various ways and one of them was in qgis. I used the awesome quickosm-plugin and did the following:

But it always fails with a timout error asking me to try it later or do a smaller query.
I also tried to download the entire pbf-file from geofabrik here:
https://download.geofabrik.de/europe/italy.html
load this into qgis and then somehow select the right rows. This however also did not work due to its size.
I then tried to use the osmdata and the osmextract packages in R. For both I don't get any results. With the osmdata-package I ran the following:
cafes = opq("Italy") %>%
  add_osm_feature(key = "amenity", value = "cafe") %>%
  osmdata_sf()

Which results in this
> cafes
Object of class 'osmdata' with:
                 $bbox : 32.1634093,-96.9079386,32.2066985,-96.8616477
        $overpass_call : The call submitted to the overpass API
                 $meta : metadata including timestamp and version numbers
           $osm_points : 'sf' Simple Features Collection with 0 points
            $osm_lines : NULL
         $osm_polygons : 'sf' Simple Features Collection with 0 polygons
       $osm_multilines : NULL
    $osm_multipolygons : NULL

And for the osmextract I used the following:
cafes = oe_get(
  "Italy",
  quiet = FALSE,
  query = "Select * from points where amenity  = 'cafe'"
)

Besides some potential errors in my understanding of the query (and in general of osm keys and features) I have no Idea on how to get to the cafe-data.
One last idea would be to download the pbf again and put it into postgis. This however scares me a little bit as the setup of my postgis is not really working.
Answer: One option is to convert the PBF to Spatialite using OGR2OGR:
ogr2ogr -f "SQLite" -dsco SPATIALITE=YES italy.db italy.osm.pbf

Then you can connect to the Spatialite database from within QGIS.

Layer->Add Layer->Add Spatialite Layer

Add a New connection (to italy.db)

Select the Points layer

Set Filter as per the following:
"other_tags" LIKE '%"amenity"=>"cafe"%'

This should get around the need to load the entire file into QGIS.
I also tried using QuickOSM. I could download cafes for Rome, but Italy appeared to be too much data.
Comment: Thanks a lot!!:) I definitly give this a shot:)


How to Investigate Wi-Fi Intrusion and where to look for evidence?

Question: I'm trying to figure out how to configure a network so that I can tell what an intruder did (in the past) while on the network after they are detected.
eg. If someone with a wi-fi enabled laptop parked outside my home and connected to my home network because he was able to crack my weak encryption. and if he were to do some fraudulent activity from my network, how can I configure my network and where would I have to look on the network to see what he was up to?
What devices would be able to log valuable information and how would I make sense of this information?
Comment: could you clarify your question please.  Are you asking how to determine if there is an intruder on your network and determine what they are actively doing or are you asking about how to determine what they did while connected in the past?  Is this a theoretical question or is this in response to thinking you have been compromised.  If it is a response to a real world scenario, what tipped you off or made you suspicious?
Comment: A very nice answer by Callum made me think why at the first place we are taking passive security measures. Why we donot take active measures by deploying ACL on router based on MAC address. A home user knows what are legal MAC addresses for his network based on which we can restrict access. If a router has a support for ACL it a must for security. I further googled it and find articles on ACL configuration for [wireless network](http://kb.netgear.com/app/answers/detail/a_id/13112/~/securing-your-wireless-network:-access-control-list).
Comment: @AJHenderson - Thanks for your comment. The question is a theoretical one and yes I am asking about how to determine what they did while connected in the past. However, I also appreciate the comments on passive network analysis.
Comment: Why don't you just use a strong WPA key and make intrusion impossible? The question sounds really weird.... Why do you accept intrusion as such if you can easily prevent it from happening?
Answer: Most routers (even retail wifi units) have an admin screen that lists all the active clients that have been allocated an IP address by DHCP.  This usually lists the MAC address of the client too.
usually they look like this:
<code>CLIENT NAME       IP ADDRESS       MAC ADDRESS
android_blah      192.168.1.10     AA-BB-CC-00-00-00
my_pc             192.168.1.11     DD-EE-AA-00-00-00
</code>
If you do not recognise the client names - then a handy tip is to take the first 3 octets of the MAC address and google them (e.g. AA-BB-CC) and this will tell you the manufacturer of the device which could help determine whether it really is inside or outside of your home.
Comment: In addition to this, you may also allow only your known MACs connect to the wifi.
Comment: absolutely, but the OP should be aware that MAC address filtering shouldn't be the only security measure because whilst MAC addresses are meant to be only set by the chip manufacturer; nowadays they can be changed by attackers.
Comment: Not only can they be changed by the attackers, but they are also required by the 802.11i spec in order for encryption to work.  So if they are using WPA or WPA2 PSK, which they probably are, it literally requires plaintext MACs to be exchanged in cleartext unless they're using 802.11w (unlikely).
Answer: You yourself likely can't do much as most consumer gear isn't going to keep a log of what happened.  Your ISP likely has records about activity from your account and that could be useful, but you are unlikely to be able to get it without a court order.  General rule, unless you have reason to suspect something nefarious, simply document the breach, fix it and move on with life.  Keeping the MAC address of the connection if you have it (should be listed in the router or AP if the connection was recent), but that is likely spoofed if someone was actually up to no good.
Really you only need to be worried about being able to support it wasn't you.  It's up to the authorities to track down any illicit activity that might have been done (though it is much more likely they were simply a neighbor mooching off your connection.)
It is also worth running virus scans and such on your other systems to make sure they were not up to anything within your network, but if those don't reveal anything I wouldn't be that worried.  What initially raised your suspicions?
On the off chance that your equipment has the ability to record useful information about network activity available and turned on, it would most likely be on the router, but the exact way to get to it would depend on the make and model.
Note that the majority of this answer is addressing the question as you phrased it which seems to indicate you believe they were simply using your network for an Internet connection and not attacking your network directly.  If that is incorrect, then a lot of what you can do changes as computers on your network would have very valuable information in their event logs about access attempts and the like.  You could access this information from the event viewer under administrative tools in the control panel on most Windows machines.  If you can't find it there, you can also find it as a snap-in for Microsoft Management Console, which you can launch by going to run and typing mmc.  The information in there is going to be rather hard to follow if you don't know what to look for though and the full details of what to look for are a bit broad for a Q/A format (more like a lecture series).
More details about what made you think this was going on might help narrowing down the scope of where you might be able to find information.
Comment: Could those down voting please expand on why the answer is not liked?  As I understand the question, I'm not sure what more valid answer could be given.  The question seems to be asking how to determine what was done in the past.  Perhaps the original asker can shed some additional light on what the question is actually about.
Comment: No idea why it was downvoted. I'd say this is the best answer here so far.
Answer: You can scan your network with network security scanners to detect for any intruder IP accessing your wifi network. It may not be a perfect solution for a corporate environment but i think it will work for home network with far fewer nodes in a network. The following is a list of some network scanning tools it some help for you

nmap
network scanner

For passive network analysis you can use network sniffers such as wireshark to analyze your network traces for intruder IP. A relevant article may be of some interest for a read.
Comment: This will work if the intruder is activly on the network, but Tony seems to have been asking about determining what they were doing after the fact, at which point a network scanner isn't going to do any good.
Comment: I edited the answer to your question
Answer: Since I now know your question is theoretical, I can answer it better about how you can setup your network so you would be able to tell.  The exact way of setting it up will vary from device to device, but there are a lot of options available.  The key is that you need a device capable of logging that is in a location on the network that everything the person does will go through it.
For an average home network, this could be either the Wireless Access Point, the Router or if applicable, the gateway or firewall.  The wireless access point will get the information right as they get on to the network and will ensure that all activity coming in on the wireless network is logged, but if they were to use their wireless connection to compromise a wired system and then use the wired system, you would have an incomplete log.
Most likely the Router also serves as the gateway and firewall (the device that gives the rest of the network access to the Internet and ensures the Internet doesn't have unintended access to the private network).  Logging at the gateway and/or firewall ensures that all outbound traffic is logged, but won't tell you anything about what the intruder did internally on your network.
In most home networks, since there is only one router and it also generally serves as wireless access point, gateway and firewall, it will end up being privy to all connections flowing across the network.  It may not have access to all the contents of the packets it routes (if encryption is used) but it at least (by necessity) has access to the routing information (ie, where it is coming from and where it is going).  This is likely the best place in a home network to log.
Most consumer routers do not have this kind of logging by default, however third party firmwares such as DD-WRT often add logging capability to the routers that can either write to an internal store (limited space) or a network share.  Exactly what information can be stored and how it is formatted varies from device to device, but in general information like the IP and MAC Address of the client as well as the requested destination IP, Port and protocol (such as TCP or UDP) as well as a timestamp can give you a lot of what you need to get at least a general idea of what was going on.
If space is no object, it may even be possible to log the content of every packet sent across the network, but that will be a huge amount of space and it may not be safe to exclude "known" MAC addresses from the logging to try and reduce the amount since MAC spoofing is fairly easy on a wireless network.  (IE, the intruder can make themselves look like a valid machine)  Of course, if you are going to this kind of length, you could also do a per machine certificate and/or not use a weak key at which point the problem would likely be avoided in the first place.
Answer: You could always set up a honeypot in conjunction with not broadcasting your SSID (service set identifier). An attacker would not know the real AP exists, thus attack the honeypot which you can log to varying degrees based on how much knowledge you have. A simple google search will wield you with many tools.
MAC address filtering is a good security feature if no clients were connected to your AP which is unlikely. There are also downfalls to not broadcasting your SSID because it is easily uncloaked as soon as a client connects. You could also set up a proxy like squid and log various information such as sites that are visited and such.
Hope this helps.
Answer: Have a look at Kismet.

Kismet is an 802.11 wireless network detector, sniffer, and intrusion
  detection system.  Kismet will work with any wireless card which
  supports raw monitoring mode, and can sniff 802.11b, 802.11a, 802.11g,
  and 802.11n traffic
Kismet includes IDS functionality, providing a stateless and stateful
  IDS for layer 2 and layer 3 wireless attacks.  Kismet can alert on
  fingerprints (specific single-packet attacks) and trends (unusual
  probes, disassociation floods, etc).

You can set kismet up on a raspberry pi with a second wifi NIC and it will happily listen for wireless clients, recording their mac addresses and possibly saving raw packet traffic.


Executing python script from web using QGIS?

Question: I'm using QGIS Desktop (version 2.18.3 on Windows) and have a python script that works in the python console. My script:

Loads a shapefile (of properties in a city, identified by a PropertyID)
Searches and zooms into a specific property (currently for testing purposes, the PropertyID is hardcoded)
Loads a print composer template and displays the property from the above step
Using the "Maps Printer" plugin, exports the print composer as a PNG

Everything in my script works correctly in QGIS' python console. Now I would like to call this python script from a web page. Ideally, it would be:

Web page lets the user enter a PropertyID
Web page passes that PropertyID to my python script, which then generates the PNG and then displays it to the user

Is my web interface scenario possible and if so, what would be the easiest way to achieve this?
I looked at installing QGIS Server (as opposed to QGIS Desktop), but I couldn't find a way to execute my script (and also pass in my PropertyID as a parameter)
As an automation test, I also tried running QGIS through the command line:
<code>qgis --nologo --project "MyProject.qgs" --code "MyScript.py"
</code>
But while it created the PNG, it never updated the map whenever I tried changing the PropertyID in the script itself - plus it's not a scalable solution for multiusers.
I'm open to any suggestions on how to achieve this, even if it requires changing to a Unix platform.
Answer: After some research and testing, it looks like QGIS Server is the way to go. I can filter the shapefile, and save the output as an PNG or PDF.


After launch, who has the voting and staking rights of EOS held in an exchange?

Question: Since most coins held in exchanges are "actually" owned by the exchange in exchange-controlled wallets, while only nominally owned by the exchange account user according to internal exchange policies, how would this be reconciled?
Answer: When you vote your tokens are staked for 3 days. If the exchanges were to use the users's funds to vote, these tokens would get staked (essentially frozen, unmovable) and they run the risk of not having enough tokens should people want to withdraw their tokens.
So while it is theoretically and practically possible for exchanges to use the users's funds to vote, I think it is unlikely that they would actually go ahead and do that without permission from the EOS token holders. They would get found out, and it would cause a major stink.
The short answer is that tokens held at exchanges should be considered "out of circulation" for the purpose of interacting with the EOS mainnet (staking for voting, resources, etc).
I would not be surprised if some exchanges decide to provide some basic tools for EOS owners. They are already announcing support for some airdrops, providing an interface for voting or performing some other basic functions on the EOS mainnet is not too far fetched especially as some of them are running for BPs themselves.
UPDATE: this announcement from Bitfinex is relevant, it does communicate that if EOS holders approve Bitfinex's proposal to allow them to participate in the vote with users's funds, Bitfinex will not use the funds to vote at their discretion, but will vote for the top 30 BPs with the idea of getting to 15% total votes faster.
Answer: When you deposit or hold tokens on an exchange, your tokens are put into a shared wallet that the exchange controls, along with everyone else's tokens. This gives large exchanges, such as Huobi and Bitfinex direct control over an enormous amount of voting power.


How to feed bacteria out of lab

Question: I want to take a sample of skin infection bacteria (I suppose combination of staphylococus, strep, etc) and give it to the doctor for analysis but the appointment is in two weeks. The bacteria will be dead by then, right? Is there any home-made nurturing solution that I can put them in to preserve them until then?
Comment: Depends on the bacteria. You can inoculate the bacterial cells in a sterile isotonic solution like saline and store the sample in the fridge (4⁰C). The cells will survive for 2 weeks.
Comment: The problem that stands out the most is will a clinical lab even bother running tests on a patient-procured sample, and second to that, would the results be valid?
Comment: Do you have sterile swabs with which to take the sample? Just a regular cotton swab won't work.
Comment: Thank you everybody for your answers. Then I can give it a try by extracting the crust that contains liquid on the inside with sterilized tweezers and try to preserve it in saline in the fridge. I hope that the lab will accept it cause the alternative is no sample or me going to the emergency for a pimple since I will never manage to synchronize the doctors appointment with the random moment that it decides to re-appear every time :P
Answer: In a lab there are so many ways of doing this. However, at home is a little tricky. This is what I would do:
Keep your bacteria in a liquid media.
Liquid Media: make the media out of NaCl and AS CLEAN AS POSSIBLE (distilled if possible) water (concentration 18g NaCl / L). Place a sample of the bacteria into the solution. Freeze solution with bacteria (-20 degrees C if possible). Take out when wanted.

How to feed bacteria out of lab


How do you display fields created via the File Entity settings configuration?

Question: I'm using the File Entity module, and it lets me modify the configuration settings, adding a few fields to a file type, but I can't seem to figure out how to get the custom fields I created to show up in the add content screen. Only the Alt text and Title values show up. What am I missing?
Answer: I was also looking for that functionality, and found this module does exactly that: File Entity Inline

This module aims to provide the ability to edit File entities inline,
  as part of another form (such as nodes). This should enable the
  ability for reusable and site-wide editing of file properties, such as
  description, alt text, captions, bylines, etc.
Comment: Ah, looks very interesting, I'll have to play with this one. Thanks for sharing!
Answer: In Drupal 8 you can archive this with core elements/modules.

activate the core module file_entity
in your file type settings /admin/structure/file-types/manage/image add the extra fields a user should be able to use
in your contenttype (admin/structure/types/manage/CONTENTTYPE/form-display) choose the Widget "Editable file" for your image field

If you create a new node, you will be able to edit the extra fields of your image in a popup after clicking "Edit"
Answer: The fields aren't on the add content screen they are on the add file screen (because they are fields on the file entity).
So if you add files via the file/add page you can fill out those fields.
The media module has a feature so that when you upload a file to a node then it pops up the edit form to edit the fields on that file.
So you upload the file then fill out the extra file fields in a 2 step process and then save the node.
Comment: Thanks for your response, rooby, but I'm still unsure it's working as intended. I don't see a separate file/add page, only a file add interface when adding the file via the content add page. That's where I need to see these new fields.

What I'm looking for is an expansion to the file description field you can enable in the file field type. I need a second field for "short" description, and possibly an external link field. Is this possible via a contributed module?
Comment: It looks like the best solution for managing multiple fields as one entity is http://drupal.org/project/field_collection

This module allows you to create a collection field, then from the module settings page, you can add multiple fields to that new item. Regretfully, it does take two separate screens and steps, but it is at least possible. Another regret is that it's not supported by the feeds module, so migrating data will be a bit more complex than I'd hoped.

Thanks for your help.
Comment: the file/add page should be part of the file_entity module (at least it is in 2.x). I find the media module to be a good solution although the fields aren't directly on the content edit page. Field collection doesn't require going to 2 pages. If you use the "embedded" field widget it is all displayed on the parent content form.
Answer: In Structure > Content Types choose another widget for the image field from 'Image' to 'Media selector'. This will provide a better way to input and edit all the fields provided by File Entity.


Flight delay compensation with multiple leg journey

Question: In the British Airways incident last week I traveled with a stop at Heathrow, and (unsurprisingly) the second flight was delayed with more than 3 hours. The second flight itself was under 1500km, the whole travel was above. Which category of compensation can I apply for?
Comment: I can't find an official source right now, but I would strongly suppose the total duration of your trip is what counts.
Answer: The Landshut Regional Court recently dealt with the issue of calculating distance relevant to the amount of compensation pursuant to EU Regulation 261/2004.

The Landshut Regional Court [...] ruling that the decisive factor determining compensation is the immediate distance between the point of departure of the delayed flight [...] and the passenger's final destination [...].

I believe that's quite clear. Note this is the second level (of four) in German courts and it agreed with the decision of the first level. It is possible both courts interpreted the EU legislation wrong but in such a basic case this is extremely unlikely. This site offers a comment as well:

The court also pointed out that the airport from which the delayed flight departs is the point of reference. This means that in cases where a passenger has made a booking consisting of three flight segments and the delay occurs on the second stopover, the relevant departure point would be the first stopover rather than the airport of departure of the first flight segment.

Obviously the comment is not legal advice and I must emphasize my post is not that either. Nonetheless it's a valuable comment.
Original court decision in German.
One important point from it -- I ran it through Google Translate:

Whereas, therefore, the level of compensatory payments is less proportional to the inconvenience of the passengers; On the contrary, the booking behavior of the airlines is to be influenced - in the interest of consumers.

So the argument presented by @m7e (which on the surface does make a lot of sense, I would make it too):

I started from A arriving to B, I was late, I want compensation from A to B

is apparently not valid legally.


Can't override template file in child theme

Question: I have my WordPress installation running using a child theme based on a theme I have bought. The original theme has templates files in a template folder /original_theme/template/testimonial.php. I want to override one of the files inside this folder so I copied it to my child theme's folder child_theme/template/testimonial.php. As far as I understand the documentation on child themes this is the recommend way to apply changes to the template files. This works for the header.php file but not for the template file I want to override. Changes are ignored and even an empty file displays the correct content. Is there anything else I have to do?
Comment: from where and how is being called testimonial.php?
Comment: This question is impossible to answer without knowing how the template files are being included.
Comment: Can you add more information regarding the base theme and maybe find out where and how the file is included in the parent theme. For starters look for `testimonial.php` in the parent theme.
Answer: Replacing templates via child theme only works as far as WP's core functions are being used to locate/load that template. More complex themes might not be implementing that for their features.
In such case the code of the parent theme needs to be examined to determine how precisely that specific template is loaded and what customization options (if any) are there.
Answer: In many cases, when a theme contains a "template" directory, this directory should be omitted in the child theme. For example, rather than having child_theme/template/testimonial.php, put "testimonial.php directly in the child_theme directory.


Can I keep my world between Dwarf Fortress versions?

Question: Dwarf Fortress 0.34.08 was just released. When a new (minor) version comes out, can I simply copy my save folder into the new install and keep playing with my original world and fortress, or would I risk some corruption/crash?
Comment: It depends. Toady wanted to make save compatibility a thing, but quite a few releases have broken it. Best to check the description.
Answer: the developer has said that this version is compatible

As far as I can tell, old saves load up fine and have usable
  minecart/wheelbarrows, so feel free to move your data/save folder over
  to the new version.
Answer: Even though Toady has stated that the saves are compatible, always keep a backup. Recent updates are consistently unreliable. In general, the best way to see if a save is compatible is to simply try it. Keep in mind, various mods will prevent save compatibility. If you have a mod installed, make sure you install the most recent version of said mod onto the newest version.
One other thing. If you have a save you are concerned about, you may want to wait until a more stable version appears 2-3 weeks from now. There will be plenty of gamebreaking bugs in the first 2 weeks after a major release, and if you don't want to lose progress you should assume the worst.


Git: How to avoid merging / fetching a wrong remote in a branch?

Question: Say that I'm on my feature branch XXXX and issuing a git pull bad_remote master here is a BAD thing to do (in the way our workflow and branches are set up, of course).
Is there a way to tell git (or via some Bash magic) to NOT EVER merge or fetch from that remote if you're not in a local branch named YYYY (the branch that is supposed to receive the bad_remote changes)? Having it spitting to me some bad words would a nice feature :)
I know how to solve the problem as soon as it happens, but if that happens and I'm not immediately aware of that... well... cherry-pick is my friend :(
Looking at hooks seems that the pre-merge is (still?) missing.
Thank you.
Answer: This may not solve your problem, but to me it seems you worry about this too much.
You have nothing to lose when fetching. In fact, it is always good, because the remote branches reflect the remote repositories' commit history.
If you merge with the remote branch by mistake, you can always return to the commit you were on using git reset --hard. (If you have any working directory changes, git stash; git reset --hard; git stash pop;


Dealing with error in data - Idempotent approach

Question: A prior question had  an answer that interested me from a design perspective. I work in geospatial data and occasionally have to deal with voids when I read these binary files into my product. What is the best way to deal with voids when reading them in - throw an exception when you encounter them or return immediately. I believe one of the answers that I read talked of returning rather than throwing an exception. Currently I return rather than throw an exception. But I was wondering whether that is the best approach.
Comment: Which language do you use?  The right answer depends a lot on the features of the language, particularly its type system (if it has one).
Comment: @itsbruce - java
Answer: When deciding between throwing an exception or returning an error-code, there are a few considerations to take into account.
The primary one is how exceptional is the situation. Is receiving data with voids in them something that should not happen (and an indication that somewhere else something went really wrong), or is that something that your algorithm is supposed to be able to deal with gracefully. If it should not happen, then that is a strong indicator for using an exception.
A second consideration that I often use (and opinions are divided if it is a valid consideration) is if the immediate caller can be expected to resolve the problem. If I know beforehand that the immediate caller is unlikely to be able to do anything about an error I signal, except to pass the buck up the call chain, then I am more inclined to use an exception to report the error because it is less error-prone to let an exception go up the call chain than to report an error-code up several levels.
Comment: @gansub: Even if voids are normal in geospatial data, it could be an error to pass them on to certain algorithms (like an algorithm to calculate surface area). The error might be that a higher layer didn't do a good job of filtering the voids out.
Comment: +1. That said, there's no need to choose; you can always provide both and let the caller decide the most appropriate mechanism.
Comment: thank you for the answer. Data with voids is actually that can happen in geospatial area. For e.g. mountainous areas can cause shadows preventing data from being observed. So voids are defintiely NOT something gone wrong.
Comment: @Doval - you mean have two code sets and let the caller decide which one to call ?
Comment: @gansub Yes. For example, to turn a string into an integer, C# provides both a `parse` function that throws an exception when it fails, and a `tryParse` function that returns a boolean instead.


What's the precise meaning of imaginary number?

Question: The same to the title,what's the precise meaning of imaginary number? And on the other hand,how can the imaginary number be reflected in Physics?
Comment: Whzt do you mean by "meaning?"
Comment: The mass of a particle with velocity $v$ is given by $\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$ (Theory of special relativity). From this follows, that tachyons (particles travelling faster than $c$) must have an *imaginary* mass, if they exist...
Comment: @draks +1 but not if they cancel that by complex-valued velocities which, if you take [Wick-rotations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wick_rotation) more serious than is probably healthy, indicate a particle hopping through space-time...
Comment: [A related question.](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/154)
Comment: Schrödinger equation uses complex numbers. It seems to me its use of complex numbers is *essential*. This is different from the use of comlex numbers in electrical circuits, fluid mechanics, etc.
Comment: rotate 90 degree, then stretch by the factor of modulus
Answer: I'm unsure what you mean by the "precise" meaning of an imaginary number, but to me it seems best to talk about the prototypical example of an imaginary number, the imaginary unit $i$, and then work from there.
You can think of the imaginary unit as being a solution of the equation $X^2+1=0$ i.e. you define $i$ to be a number such that $i^2=-1$ (note that I cannot say "the" number since it is not unique, as $-i$ also has this property). To me, this is the precise meaning of the imaginary unit. One then defines the complex numbers $\mathbb{C}$ in terms of this imaginary unit as
$$\mathbb{C}=\{a+bi \; |\; a,b\in \mathbb{R}\}.$$
More formally, the complex numbers are obtained by adjoining a root of $X^2+1$ to $\mathbb{R}$ by taking the quotient of $\mathbb{R}[X]$ by the maximal ideal $(X^2+1)$. Let $C= \mathbb{R}[X]/(X^2+1)$. Note that $\{1,X\}$ is a basis for $C$ and $X$ has the property that $X^2=-1$. From this it is seen that the map $\varphi:C \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ defined by $\varphi(a+bX)=a+bi$ is an isomorphism of fields.
Another way of viewing the complex numbers is as follows:
The set $R$ of matrices of the form
$$\begin{pmatrix}
a & 0 \\
0 & a
\end{pmatrix},$$
where $a \in \mathbb{R}$, behaves exactly like the real numbers with respect to the operations of matrix addition and multiplication i.e. they are isomorphic as fields ($R \cong \mathbb{R}$ ). Consider the matrix $\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$. Notice that this matrix has the property that
$$\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{pmatrix}.$$
Setting $i=\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$ and using our identification above, we see that $i$ is a solution of the equation $X^2+1=0$. So with this one could reasonably believe that the precise meaning of the imaginary unit $i$ is $i=\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$. One then notices that the set of matrices $C$ of the form
$$\begin{pmatrix}
a & -b \\
b & a
\end{pmatrix},$$
where $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$ behave precisely like the complex number $\mathbb{C}$ i.e. they are isomorphic as fields ($C\cong \mathbb{C}$), and takes this to be the precise meaning of the complex numbers.
Additionally, one could formally develop the complex numbers by defining $C$ to be the set of pairs $(a,b) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ such that additions and multiplication are defined by
$$(a,b)+(c,d)=(a+c,b+d)$$
and
$$(a,b)(c,d)=(ac-bd,ad+bc).$$
First note that subset $D$ of $C$ consisting of elements of the form $(a,0)$ behaves just like elements of $\mathbb{R}$, so, in particular, $(1,0)$ is the multiplicative identity of $C$. One then notices that the element $(0,1) \in C$ has the property that $(0,1)(0,1)=(-1,0)$ and so it is a solutions to the equation $X^2+1=0$.
Comment: +1: Good explanation.  Your multiplicative identity is wrong though...
Comment: @donroby thank you for pointing that out. I have fixed the typo.
Answer: This is a mathematician's view.
At heart, anything involving symmetry involves group theory.  We like to represent our groups as matrices. One of the most powerful ways to study matrices is to study the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrices.
The eigenvalues of real matrices can still be complex, however.  So if we are studying matrices of symmetries in real vector spaces, we often end up "breaking up" the elements of that space into components that are complex, which has the paradoxical affect of simplifying the study of the underlying matrix.
The further you get into physics, the more you become interested in various types of symmetries, and there is really no way to study those symmetries without looking at complex numbers.  After a while, you start to think of these complex components as parts of the underlying universe that we just don't see because they "cancel out."
Comment: Exactly,in Physics,we can view complex functions as vector fields.
Answer: Studying some LRC circuits might be a good way to get an idea of how complex numbers can be used in physics. As opposed to Quantum Mechanics, LRC circuits can be studied by the average first or second year undergraduate. Yale has a couple of pretty decent lectures on them.
Comment: LRC circuits don't really explain what i is.  In reality, they're just stealing the notation to represent phase as a vector in imaginary space.  But the phase is very much real, and all LRC circuits can be solved using only real math.  It's just tedious to do so.
Comment: In fairness, *any* problem that has real solutions can be solved using only real math. In fact, I claim that any problem involving complex numbers at all can be phrased in a way that only uses real numbers, and then can be solved using only real numbers.
Answer: The precise meaning of a complex number is that it is a particular complex number. It is what it is, no more, no less.
When one uses numbers (or other sorts of objects) to quantify things, one shouldn't confuse the number with the thing being quantified. For example, the picture
<code> * * * * *
</code>
is not the number "5". It is simply a collection of asterisks. By using "5" to quantify the number of asterisks, we can better understand and work with the picture. Sometimes we can use such a picture to help us understand and work with "5". But "5" is "5" and the picture is the picture, and you shouldn't confuse the two.
Complex numbers are often useful for quantifying a variety of things, such as various properties of waves, the impedance of a circuit, or position on a planar surface. They often can be used to simplify formulas and calculations. These are all uses of a complex number.
But what is a number like "$1 + 3 \mathbf{i}$"? "$1 + 3 \mathbf{i}$" is simply "$1 + 3 \mathbf{i}$", just like "5" is just "5".
Answer: In the first place, an imaginary or complex number is an element of the system ${\mathbb C}$ of complex numbers and as such is an object of our imagination.
In the last five hundred years or so mathematicians have come to the conclusion that the introduction of the system ${\mathbb C}$ into the body of everyday mathematics brings overwhelming benefits to the understanding of polynomials and various higher elementary functions (in particular the exponential and trigonometric functions), differential equations, etcetera.
Answer: Physically, imaginary number quantities do not exist. However, it is often very convenient to use them for intermediate steps in extensive calculations, for example you can take the complex exponential $e^{i\omega t}$ to describe harmonic waves in linear systems where you can superimpose different solutions. That means if both a complex valued function and its complex conjugate are valid solutions of a (set of) linear (partial or ordinary) differential equation(s), then their real and imaginary part alone (being $\propto f\pm\bar f$) are also solutions, but since trigonometric identities are a lot messier than exponential ones, using complex numbers is very useful.
There is one possible interpretation of complex numbers though, if you do not take it too literally: Time. Relativistic Minkowsky space-time has a metric $ds^2 = dx^2 + dy^2 + dz^2 - \frac1{c^2}dt^2$. You could turn this into an Euclidean metric by considering time as an imaginary quantity*, e.g. $\beta := \frac i{\hbar} t$. The funny thing is, this Wick rotation (that's why I use Planck's constant $\hbar$ here) turns many quantum mechanical equations into thermodynamic ones by replacing imaginary time with the inverse temperature $\beta$ and vice versa, yielding some interesting interpretations of both theories...
*You can also replace the spacial coordinates by the three imaginary units $i,j,k$ of quaternions...
Comment: Imaginary quantities are no more nonexistent than real ones. It's just a number of people, for whatever reason, like to adopt the **convention** that they only use real numbers to quantify things, so they're forced to jump through some extra mental hoops for those situations where complex numbers (or even more interesting mathematical objects) are a better choice.
Comment: I've always maintained that the adjectives "imaginary" and "complex" were very unfortunate terminology, only imposed to us by traditional use.
Comment: @Hurkyl I love using complex numbers instead of wasting time for your mentioned hoops, but I have yet to encounter something grasp-able that is complex-valued (although I am quite intrigued by considering time a purely imaginary space-direction). I do agree with J.M. on the poor quality of adjective-choice, but it's not like that were the only historically bad choices (talk about [charge](http://xkcd.com/567/)...)
Answer: Let me address your first question about "what's the precise meaning of imaginary number?". First though, in my opinion, we have to be careful when we start to give meaning to mathematical objects. When we talk about "meaning" then the answer, IMO, becomes subjective and so to ask for the precise meaning doesn't really make sense. You are trying to relate it to something else - something that is different.
What we can do is to give the precise definition of what an imaginary number is. And we do that when we define what the complex numbers are. When we have done that, we can then talk about varies ways of thinking about this definition to get an intuition about what the complex numbers are. Or we can find that certain things in say physics have a structure to them that makes us think of complex numbers. But  when we do that we (IMO) often leave the definition and so we leave the preciseness.
Comment: Thank for your amendment of the proper use of terminology.
Answer: Maybe we can think of our numbers as ways to navigate a particular space.
So natural numbers, integers, rational numbers, and real numbers allow us to reach various points of a line.
Adding complex numbers allows us to rotate out of the line, and reach any point on the plane. A particular complex number is a point in the plane. Add another complex number to that and you can get to another. Multiply it with a complex number, and you can "stretch" and "twist" the vector to get to another point again..
Later, Quaternions, Octonions, etc allow you to get out of the plane.


More common expression for "move your bowels"

Question: Move your bowels may be too polite and sounds strained, and merely saying shit sounds offensive. What do native English speakers say then when you need to move your bowels, especially when a parent asks his toddlers whether they need to shit?
Comment: The context would be helpful.  For example, in the doctor's office, you would want to use proper clinical terminology.  In many situations, the proper thing is not mentioning it at all!
Answer: In AmE, 'Poop' is the current terminology. That is, in a squeaky voice:

I have to poop

is what the kids say these days. Adults usually don't tend to feel like sharing the particular mode of ...export. They might euphemize even further and just say 'I have to go' or 'I really have to go'.
"Number one" for urinate and "number two" for defecate was the terminology I remember from childhood (but is also not childish and not taboo (that is, not like 'shit', it is very plain sounding))
Comment: ...I've had friends (and family) say such things, but as one of the kids you mention, I'll point out that we're not all saying it, and some of us even consider it vulgar...And actually now that I think of it, "poop" is used more often as another word for crap, that is, not literally. It could be different on other campi, but I thought I'd mention it.
Comment: @czh: Re: "I wanted to know what is the common expression, when a parent ask their toddlers, whether they need to pee or shit?" - in AmE the current answer is: "Do you have to poop or pee?"
Comment: And in BrE, its "poo", as either a noun or a verb. Or some times "poo-poo".
Comment: @Brad: you could add that as a separate answer for BrE (with maybe some extra info to make it more than just 'we do this').
Answer: I'll assume you're talking about usage in mixed company where good manners are required. North Americans seem to use 'go to the bathroom' to cover a wide range of excretory and ablutionary functions, regardless of whether an actual bathroom is within walking distance. Brits might use the similar 'go to the lavatory' or 'go to the loo'. We Australians will typically say 'go to the toilet' or 'use the toilet' - 'toilet' being a word considered almost taboo in certain other English-speaking cultures - although 'bathroom' is creeping into common usage.
If you're talking specifically about bowel movements as opposed to urination, I wouldn't think there is a need to specify one or the other in polite circles. If with close friends or family, you might say something like 'do a poo' or 'take a crap'. There would be a thousand synonyms for 'having a shit' I'm sure.
Comment: @czh: The answer for parent-to-child communication, would most likely be something akin to 'go potty', or 'go wee-wee'. These are child-like terms that no sane adult would use when speaking with another adult. Again, 'use the bathroom' is probably middle ground that would be understood by any native English speaker.
Comment: *Do a [number two](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=number%20two)* is a rhyming euphemism
Comment: In fact, I wanted to know what is the common expression, when a parent ask their toddlers, whether they need to pee or shit?
Comment: I've heard the term "big business" being used before.
Comment: "Drop the kids off at the pool" is my personal favorite and one I use.
Comment: I think that, while your 1st paragraph is, sadly, correct, it doesn't answer the question. (I say 'sadly' because i think 'going to a bathroom' is not necessarily anything to do with pooing.)
Comment: (AmE)  There is also "go/make boom-boom" for kids, and "take a dump" for adults.
Answer: British English
As you can see from the answers so far, this is not a simple question to answer.
We've had answers that specifically mention Australian and US usage. I'll do my best to answer for Britain although I'm afraid there will be differences in different parts of the country.
In the version of British English that I speak I have known variants change with the generations. I have also known differences between different families of the same generation.
Some possibilities.
Family
Young child: Mummy, I need a wee!  (urination)
Young child: Mummy, I need a poo!  (defecation)
Mother: Do you need a wee/poo?
Farm
Farmer: John, can you clear up the cow shit from the yard? (I have worked on a farm so I know this is used without there being any sense of it being a bad word.))
Male friends at a pub
Man A: Where's Bill?
Man B: I think he's gone for a crap."  (possibly 'shit')
Women friends at a pub
[I don't know what women say when men aren't around]
Mixed company
"Where's Jane?"
"She's in the Ladies."
"Where's Bill?"
"He's in the Gents/Mens."

I'll add others if requested.
Answer: It's sad to see that conventions of "culture" seem to ban the casual and acceptable mention of normal physical functions and deprive us from using commonly accepted terms to describe what we all do frequently. A medical doctor once told men that "normal" bowel movement frequency is anything from several times a day to several times a week.
It's perfectly normal to inhale. We all do it. We all also exhale. It's not only normal, it's actually required to stay alive. The same goes for food and drink. It's perfectly normal to eat. Or to drink. But when it comes to using proper words for the "exhale" equivalent of eating and drinking we're struggling to find words that are not offensive or vulgar.
We feel the need to disguise the "exhaling" equivalent with words that don't quite spell out the real thing, so as not to upset people or breach agreed conventions of acceptable language.  We use "wee" which literally means "little" in English, or we prioritise the bodily activities with "number one" and "number two".  (Who did ever come up with that? )
Words that describe the actual bodily activities are either euphemistic and rather ancient sounding phrases like "move your bowels" or more often than not Latin phrases which have made it into the common language by way of medical terminology, like "urinate" or "defecate".
Sadly, there are no commonly accepted "standard" terms to describe "passing urine" or "moving your bowels" in plain English with language that is not offensive or upsetting to one party or another.
Depending on the region, local customs and other factors like education, etc., it may be perfectly allright for a parent to ask her toddler if she's had a "shit". In other regions or other social circumstances, the parent will be more inclined to use "have you done a poo-poo?" as the defining term.
I've heard families use the word "stinker", as in "Have you done a S?" [sorry]
English is spoken as a native language on several continents, with quite different rules around socially acceptable terms.
The very intimate parent-to-child communication about bodily functions can probably not be defined with a single rule for all English-speaking communities world-wide. There will be many different word choices, depending on the country, custom, value framework, religion, rank in the social model, etc. that define what the locally acceptable term will be.
Therefore, a "common expression" does not exist. It is very much dependent on the socially acceptable terms of the immediate environment.
A nanny caring for children of the English Royal family will use words that differ quite a lot from those used by a 3rd generation beneficiary in NZ, or those used by a white collar worker in Kentucky, US.
Therefore, I think that there is no "common expression" for all English-speaking communities, especially if the focus is on parent / toddler communication.
Comment: I've been living in Japan for many years and I found Doctors use exactly the same word as parents use; "unchi" for shit and "oshikko" for pee. And I think it is more reasonable teaching children the words that is likely to be used even as they grew up.
Answer: If it's absolutely necessary to avoid "move [one's] bowels" and you don't want to sound like a six-year-old, I'm afraid you're not going to do any better than "defecate."


Voltage drop in Vin of 7805 regulator when used with a Bridge rectifier and CT(Current Transformer)

Question: I have a voltage regulator circuit powered by a CT. I rectify the output AC voltage to DC voltage and provide that as an input to the regulator L7805CV. My input voltage is about 7.20V When I connect the regulator, the input drops to 4.6 V and the output is only 3.3 V instead of 5V. When I try it with another regulated voltage of about 15 V, the output is fine to 5V and there is no drop from the input side. I tried the regulator circuit with appropriate capacitors at input and output side still makes no difference. Why is there a drop only when I connect it to the CT?
Comment: Show your circuit. How are you measuring the voltages? What do you consider to be 'appropriate capacitors', in particular what is the value of the input filter capacitor?
Comment: How much current does the transformer provide?
Comment: I am measuring the voltages with a multimeter. I used .47uF for the input side and 100 nF in the output pin. @SpehroPefhany
Comment: CT details and current in primary of CT are required.
Answer: The dropout of a 7805 is around 1.6V with no load, but this is not guaranteed you really need more voltage, but let's work with that. It also draws around 5mA with no output current.
To reduce the ripple voltage to (say) 0.1V you need a capacitance of 0.01s*0.005A/0.1V= 500uF. Your 0.47uF is woefully inadequate, and your measurements are suspect because they have a shipload of ripple.
That's assuming you have no other parts, however you have not entered your circuit schematic, so that's going to be it.
Comment: Probably not- you probably have to change the turns ratio in your CT.
Comment: I have no load connected to the circuit. It's only the CT, Bridge rectifier and the 7805 regulator in the circuit.
Comment: This actually helped. I increased my capacitor value to 1000uF as it was only available now. I have the output pin to 4.3V. I will try making the capacitance value higher even more and maybe I will end up having the 5V required.
Answer: A Voltge transformer produces 10% higher voltage with no load and the peak is 1.4*RMS and the '05 Regulator has a TYPICAL dropout in datasheet of 2V. (old BJT technology).
This means you are expected to provide 7V Typ and 1.5times this for no load or 10.5V.
Voltage transformers have about 10 % conduction loss and achieve rated AC Vrms at rated load.
CT's have higher conduction loss if only rated for low secondary currents since the turns ratios tend to be high and only specified for lower currents at a fixed burden R load.
Comment: I will try with the CT connected to a higher load so that I would get a higher voltage above 10.5V and will post the results.