Focus Mode issue with the Nikon 7200

Question: It is my understanding that to change the Focus mode you press and hold the AF - Mode button next to the lens and then rotate the knurled dial on the back of the camera. Then you select your desired Focus Mode.
When I follow thes instructions nothing happens. I checked with a friend who has the same camera and when she pressed the AF - Mode button the display on the top of the camera changed. This does not happen on mine, Any advice will be appreciated. Aileen
Comment: with the focus button do you mean the button in the middle of the AF/M switch on the left side. Am I right? Also this button is deactivated when you have changed the mode to Manual focus with the switch
Answer: It sounds like your camera is malfunctioning. If it doesn't do what it is supposed to do when you press a specific button, you have several options:

Work around the issue and continue to use the camera "as is."
Have the camera looked at by a repair center. Have it fixed if they can fix it.
Replace the camera and move on.

Before you consider those options, though, confirm that the camera's behavior is really unexpected.
In the case of the Nikon 'AF Mode' button, it is only active when a "chipped" lens is attached and switched to "AF". If the lens has an "AF" sitch and it is set to "Manual", or if any of the camera setting options are set to "Manual Focus", the 'AF Mode' button will not be active.

Focus Mode issue with the Nikon 7200


What happens when an ISP blocks all directory servers?

Question: What happens when ISP blocks all DA's.
Do we need to use a VPN?
Are DA's blocked in Tor blocked countries?
How a Tor client gets bridge IP when DA's are blocked?
Answer: If Tor is blocked, you should use a bridge (typically one supporting the obfs4 transport). You can get a bridge in the settings of the Tor Browser, or from https://bridges.torproject.org/. If you cannot access that website, you can connect to it using a VPN or use an alternative bridge distribution method:

Another way to get bridges is to send an email to bridges(at)torproject.org. Leave the email subject empty and write "get transport obfs4" in the email's message body. Please note that you must send the email using an address from one of the following email providers: Riseup or Gmail.

Edit:
Censors will often try to learn all the bridges, but the Tor Project attempts to make it difficult for them. When you request bridges on the website, it limits the number of bridges you can learn by your IP address (actually a block of IP addresses). If you wanted to learn many bridges, you would need to query the website from many different IP addresses in different locations. And when you request bridges through email, each email address can only learn a few bridges, so the censor needs to defeat Gmail's captcha/spam defenses and make many Gmail accounts if they want to learn all the bridges.
While this makes it difficult for censors, it's not impossible for them to learn many bridge relays. Because of this, some people run bridges that aren't published to BridgeDB (the bridge distributor powering the tools above). To get one of these private bridges, you need to learn about it from some other source (for example a friend running one in another country).
Comment: Will the bridge then act as Entry node?
Comment: Or will it be used to get relay data from DA's?
Comment: The bridge will act as an entry node for circuits as well as for getting directory documents. Tor clients rarely (if ever) connect to directory authorities, instead they download their documents from directory caches, which are just regular relays. Essentially every connection that the client makes will be through this bridge relay.
Comment: Thanks. As we can get bridges by a mail or from bridges, won't it be blocked and won't we run out of servers. Or tor use any method to control this.
Comment: @skns I added an edit. Long story short, it is difficult to provide bridges to people without censors using the same distribution method to learn about them and block them. People are working hard on making this better.


Solar panel to DC heating element to pre-heat water before on demand water heater

Question: I'm looking to possibly buy an Craigslist water heater($120), replace the heating element with a DC unit(12V), and power it with a 100 watt solar panel (12V).  On an 40 to 80 gallon insulated tank should I be able to get the water warmed enough in 4 hours of sunlight, during the day, store until nighttime, to cut the use of draw from an electric on demand system?  Thoughts?
Comment: If you want to heat water, it might be more efficient to use the sunlight directly to heat water...
Comment: only 100W for 4 hours , most water heaters have elements that are 3000W plus, I dont think it will raise the temp more than a few degrees.
Comment: 100W for 4 hours is only .4KWh. If the system really produced 100W of usable power  for 4 hours each day for a year, you're looking at saving around 150KWh of power, or around $22 worth at 15 cents/KWh, probably not worth the expense and effort to do what you're proposing.  Since you're putting in a holding tank anyway, you'll probably get more "bang for the buck" by using a solar thermal collector.
Comment: Get the water heater, and a 100w 120v heating element, and a common lamp timer, and set it to run 4 hours a day.   Now you can see whether that's going to give enough heat to be worth buying a solar panel.  I suspect it is not.
Comment: I have two 100 watt panels, I purchased for camping, so I'll experiment with that.  I'm really curious what the 12v DC element will do...  I think the heat transfer/recovery method is likely the quickest method.  Maybe a mix of the two...  I switched to an all electric house after loading up with solar panels on the roof.  My one cost I'm struggling with is my hot water heating.  90% of our remaining electric bill, is due to water heating.  Outdoor Passive water heating is out in NH due to the extreme cold nights.  If I can recover that I will be utility bill free.
Answer: Sadly not much. 100W would not effectively heat a 40 gallon water heater, let alone an 80 gallon. Also, remember that the panel likely won't really put off 100W unless your element has the exact right resistance for your specific panel.
You can do some simple calculations if you're curious how much heat that will produce...
If you use 100 Watts for 4 hours, that is 400 Wh (Watts * hours = Wh)
It takes approximately 2.4 Wh to heat 1 gallon of water 1 degree Fahrenheit.
So 400 Wh per day could heat 10 gallons of water 16.67 degrees. (The equation is [(Wh) ÷ 2.4 ÷ (#Gallons) = (change in degrees). So in other words, if your water comes into the tank at 70° (pretty warm) and you use 10 gallons per day, the theoretical temperature it could produce would be 86° (not very impressive is it?). This will somewhat reduce your draw on the on-demand but not by much.
So doing a little math the other way, if your water came into the tank at 50° and you wanted it to heat up to 120°, that is a 70° increase. If I used -say- 30 Gallons per day and I wanted to heat it up 70°...
The formula is (Wh)=(Change in Degrees)*(#Gallons)*2.4
So that would be [Wh = 70° * 30 Gal * 2.4] which comes to 5040 Wh. Spread that across 4 hours and you can see that you could do it with 1260 Watts.
I understand that your goal isn't to heat your water exclusively with the solar but the numbers show how to do the basic math. For example, if I really do use 30 Gallons per day and I heat it  70° above its original temperature, my total need would be around 5040 Wh so if I offset it by 400 Wh (100W for 4hrs) then I would be offsetting apporximately 5/63, (or 7.9%) of my usage
Please note that this doesn't account for a myriad of factors that could affect it, such as heat-loss, inefficiency, or the derating of your solar panel... These numbers should some idea but don't expect them to be exact. Please let me know if this was helpfull or if there is anything I could explane better by leaving me a comment.
Thank-you,
Maxfield Solar


How to make home a quiet place with quarrelling parents?

Question: I live with my parents and bagged a job in a multinational company that is luckily(as they say!) based in my hometown. My parents quarrel all the time because they have a difference in opinion on everything. How to make home a better place? I don't want to hurt them but I feel I can't bear it anymore. I have reinstated this quite a number of times to them together and one on one too but they end up quarelling. This is talking a toll on me as I have started believing that I might act like my father/mother in long run and thus don't have any girlfriends and feel I might not marry at all.I am 25 and broken from inside.Please help me.
Comment: Does the Job pay enough for your own place, nearby perhaps, but your own?
Comment: With regards to your second-last sentence, it sounds like you definitely need to find a counsellor or therapist to talk to about your own "brokenness", aside from the issues with your parents.
Answer: This is a difficult situation. How to solve it depends on many factors, but one thing that I found helpful in similar situations is:

You cannot change others, you can only change yourself.

That means you probably cannot change your parent's behaviour - if they want to fight, or feel unable not to fight, that is their decision, and you cannot (directly) change that.
You can, however, change how you handle the situation. How exactly depends on circumstances, but the basic idea is that you enforce the boundaries you need to prevent their behavior from affecting you. Some ideas:

Calmly leave the room when they start quarreling.
Tell them you do not want to eat with them if they regularly quarrel during meals.
Tell them you do not want to be drawn into their quarrels (if they try to do that). For example, refuse to listen to one complaining about the other to you.

Finally, if this does not help / is not enough, you will have to escalate. Options would be to seek some kind of professional help or counseling (for you, as you cannot force your parents to go, even if it might be good for them too), or to move out to your own apartment.
However, only you can decide what is best for you. Try to think about what you need, and try to find support where you need it.
Comment: You could try investing in a good pair of sound-muffling headphones (like construction workers use).  Whenever they start arguing while you're trying to concentrate, put on the headphones.


What happened to Kate Lloyd?

Question: Close to the end of The Thing (2011), Kate Lloyd burns the snow vehicle (or did she blow it up, one of the two).  After that we are left to our own devices on her fate.  Was this intended for us to believe that she died out there from exposure, or was this supposed to be an opening left for another movie, or did this serve some other purpose?
Comment: It's great to speculate but if the two chopper pilots could survive the crash, then it stands to believe the Thing would've also. That would definitely be a great final story and maybe could bridge McReady, Childs and Kate Lloyd together to battle this thing.
Answer: The writer, Eric Heisserer, has revealed that in the script he wrote, Kate does not survive.  He did an interview with the website "Bloody Disgusting":

Question:  So does Mary Elizabeth Winstead's character die at the end? In the film it's a little unclear, was that ever spelled out in a draft?
Answer:  "I was very clear with Kate's fate in the draft. I understand that what I gave them doesn't help in terms of growing a franchise. But there's no way that she could survive. I had it written so that they chase after Sander [on the way to the ship at the end of the film]. They're in a snowcat but he isn't. But then you start to see his tracks they they're following to the ship get longer and longer and more alien. And you realize that he transformed into something that can go very fast on the ice. That's what the smart creature would do. So they get there and Carter checks the one flame unit they have and finds that it's almost completely out of fuel. So they decide to take all of the fuel from the Snowcat and put it into the flame unit. Because it's better to kill this thing [than to be able to get away]. So at the end where she makes a decision that she thinks Carter is The Thing [and she needs to kill him], we realize that she is burning her fuel. She's burning her way home. And the last scene is her looking at the burning snowcat, with no other way of getting anywhere. And just the emotions of the past two days, she starts to cry and then just heads into the wind and starts walking. She is screwed. So that doesn't happen [in the final film], but then again, that may be what audiences want".

While we obviously don't see all the events Heisserer describes in the finished movie, the version of events in the film don't directly contradict Heisserer's account, aside from the bit about using the fuel from the Snowcat to fill the flamethrowers.  So, although the movie doesn't show Kate sitting down in the snow and waiting to die, it is entirely plausible that she does so.  Any other outcome would be totally contradictory to the overall theme of both of the films (the 2011 prequel and the classic 1982 original movie).
It is almost impossible to imagine that Kate survived her ordeal.  The fact that she never reappears, and MacReady and the rest of the American team at Outpost 31 don't seem to know anything about what happened in the Norwegian camp, suggest that Kate really did die in the middle of nowhere, probably by her own choice.
Answer: I didn't think that Kate blew up the snowbile.
I believe she torched her boyfriend and rode off.
I assumed that she survived, and was not infected.
The way the movie ended though with the helicopter pilot and Lars chasing down the infected dog, was interesting.
I only use infected here to refer to not being real and as being the thing.
The movie was fun and worth many a watch.
Comment: *"The way the movie ended though with the helicopter pilot and Lars chasing down the infected dog, was interesting"* - I guess you haven't seen *John Carpenter*'s 1982 version then (to which the 2011 version was actually a prequel)? It is also very  much *"fun and worth many a watch"*.
Comment: It would be nice to have a continuum of the story the John Carpenter's1982 version combine both 2011 story and 1982. In that story the woman survives and goes to the russian camp. And with their help go and found out the american camp...  and where the story begins. The Alien is inside of the two men survived from the american camp. But I would pay for a movie that does not have many CGI
Answer: If Kate supposedly survived the Thing's existence and even made it back to civilization or another Artic Camp for help, she would be able to warn others of her experience. If she died, then the chance for a sequel would be slim. Unless...and here is your possible sequel to the prequel of the original story: All that happened during the John Carpenter film took place before she could make her way back to civilization or for "Help", and the sequel can pick up at the end of the Carpenter film with teams arriving and finding Childs and Macready either frozen or waiting in the fire.
Sorry for the Rantyness...
Comment: In fact *Kate*'s open fate is pretty similar to *Carpenter*'s 1982 version, where it is also left open if *MacReady* and *Childs* finally make it back to civilization alive (which is actually not very likely, since all vehicles are destroyed and they're running low on energy/heat).
Answer: She was effectively left alive.
Sure in the OG script, as written above, she died of exposure.
but they changed that (even in the ending with the pilot it was different)
She took a cat there but the thing also took a cat there.
So she burns up the one (not exploding it) and then she has the other one. and the thing qutie literally told her where the closest base is (russian though. which i think actually appeared in the video game sequel to the older movie). With the short range radio in the cats,
She could fairly likely make it back alright.
It sort of annoys me they didntm' pick up lars though, when they were prepping for destruction, think the american guy would've suggested it.
as for the various mentions that "if she lived she'd have warned the other base" etc.
the movie ended, quite literally, the day of the other movie.  Which in of itself only lasted about a day.
Oh.. and just for notes.
carpenter, chides' actor and russel confirmed that in the story not shown, Chidds is a thing, and he gets torched right after. That "drink" they share?
is in fact oen of the molotov cocktails that russel made earlier (he sure wasn't carrying a bottle of booze to the final battle, just the explosives).
Chids drinks it, without realizing he's drinking fuel.
Russel has the flamer behind him, and that is why he makes that face after the guy drinks
Comment: What's your citation for everyone confirming Childs was infected? I always heard everyone was spectacularly cagey about it, with Russel actually getting annoyed when people asked.
Answer: It's actually very easy to imagine that Kate survived the ordeal. Because, it is only the next morning that the scenes of the end credits (2011)/opening scene of (1982). So even if she survived she wouldn't have been able to warn anyone of the danger before others showed up. To me that leaves the possibility of her running into MacReady after the events of the (1982) movie. If what happened in the movie matched the interview about the draft that puts that would put that possibility to rest, but alas, that didn't happen.

What happened to Kate Lloyd?


What is the oldest existing copy of Genesis?

Question: This answer https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/18933/what-are-the-oldest-surviving-manuscripts-of-the-scriptures mentions the Nash Papyrus which doesn't contain Genesis and the Codex Sinaiticus which does (but that's more than just Genesis). Is there an older copy specifically of Genesis than that codex?
Comment: Are you interested in the oldest *complete* manuscript, or would a partial manuscript satisfy your curiosity?
Comment: Either/both answers would be great
Comment: I've migrated this to the Biblical Hermeneutics site for you because the expertise in manuscripts is more up the alley of the folks here. It was fine to ask on [christianity.se], but I think you'll get better answers for this particular issue here.
Comment: Are you looking to see Genesis as a distinct book from the other 4 books of the Torah, or just as the Torah being distinct from the Ketu'vim and Nevi'im?
Comment: Just Genesis as distinct from the other 4 books of the Torah
Answer: First let me start with the basic outline of how old various manuscripts are.  The Dead Sea Scrolls (in Hebrew) are the oldest manuscripts, and are roughly from between 200BCE and 100CE.  Other Hebrew manuscripts are much much later, mostly from the 10th century onward with a little bit of 9th century material.  The reason for this is that around that time the Masoretes developed a system for copying very accurately, and this lead to a standardization of the text and the replacement of older copies.  The oldest Greek manuscripts (mostly the Septuagint translation) are much older than non-DSS Hebrew manuscripts.  They fall into two kinds of manuscripts: papyri and uncials.  Papyri are written on papyrus (Egyptian paper) while uncials are written on parchment (animal skins), both are written in the old all-caps "uncial script" (while miniscules are much latter manuscripts written with lower-case).  Papyrus does not preserve as well, and most papyri are fragments.  The oldest Uncials are 4th and 5th century CE, while some Papyri are 2nd or 3rd century CE or even older.
The Dead Sea Scrolls have two very incomplete copies of Genesis: 1QGen and 2QGen (found in caves 1 and 2 respectively).  1QGen has 1:18-21; 3:11-14; 22:13-15; 23:17-19; 24:22-24 and 2QGen appears to have even less.  From roughly the same time (estimate 2nd century BCE) there are a few tiny fragments of a Greek papyrus Fouad 266 with parts of a few verses of Genesis (wikipedia only mentions the Deuteronomy portion, but there's also some fragments from Genesis).  These three manuscripts are the earliest partial copies of Genesis.
A full list of early Greek fragments of Genesis can be found in the appendix of Hurtado's "The Earliest Christian Artifacts: Manuscripts and Christian Origins" (available online on his website).  From the 2nd and 3rd century CE there are 7 or 8 other manuscripts (all but one of which are papyri).  Most of these are short fragments with only a few verses, but a couple are more substantial: The Berlin Genesis Codex from the end of the 3rd century has 30 leaves containing most of Genesis and Papyrus Chester Beatty V from the second century has nearly 16 chapters.  Between the two of them they have most of Genesis (completely missing 36-39 and 47-50).
Turning to the Uncials, in the 4th century CE you have the remaining small portion from Sinaiticus (which still has almost all of the New Testament, but is damaged in the Old Testament), and slightly later a more complete manuscript which was later damaged in a fire.  Vaticanus is an almost complete manuscript also from the 4th century, but unfortunately is missing Genesis.
Unless I missed something, the oldest essentially complete Greek copy of Genesis is the 5th century CE Codex Alexandrinus which has two damaged pages but is otherwise complete in Genesis.
Around the same time there's also the earliest Syriac (Aramaic) copy of Genesis, in the London palimpsest 5b1 dated exactly (the copyist wrote the date) to 463/464.  I was unable to find exactly how complete this copy is.  Slightly earlier (4th century) there's a few chapters in Coptic in the Bodmer III Papyrus.  It's possible, but unlikely, that I'm missing some other ancient translations into more obscure languages.
For an essentially complete Hebrew copy of Genesis you need to go to the 10th century Aleppo Codex, except that the Genesis portion of this manuscript was destroyed in anti-semitic riots in 1947.  So for an extant essentially complete Hebrew copy of Genesis, I think the oldest is the Leningrad Codex from 1008/1009 CE.
Comment: The under-text in 5ph1 contains a copy of the book of Isaiah (not Genesis) dated 771 Seleucid (AD 459 or 460). You have confused this with 5b1, which contains in the main text a copy of the Pentateuch dated the equivalent of 463/4. See Sebastian Brock, The Bible in the Syriac tradition, p. 122.
Comment: Thanks!  You're right, I miscopied from consecutive sentences.
Comment: This is amazing Noah! Do you know, is there anywhere I can access a free English translation of these ancient codices? Thanks : )


Origin of | (pipe symbol)

Question: What is the origin of the | (pipe symbol) in typesetting?
Comment: While not the same, the similar looking । and ।। symbols are used like a period in Sanskrit and Hindi.
Comment: @coleopterist: Yes, the term for it is "danda" (daṇḍa).
Comment: While [this Wikipedia article](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pipe_symbol) may not answer your origin question directly, you still might find it interesting reading.
Answer: That is called the pipe.
Robert Bringhurst tells us:

Despite its importance to programmers and its presence on the standard ASCII keyboard, the pipe has no set function in typography.  For drawing broken rules and boxes, a separate character from a specialized ruling font is commonly used.  Also called a broken bar or parted rule.
Comment: A programmer's pipe is only one of the many avatars of this useful symbol. Please wait and see more, such as the ones coming in. It's however, not appropriate to appropriate the symbol entirely for programming use alone.
Comment: It is certainly useful to physicists and mathematicians, and certainly they publish on a regular basis in print publications. I am wondering if this qualifies as "a set function in typography" or if there is an underlying specialist definition which Bringhurst is using. Also: I am neither a physicist nor mathematician, so perhaps the pipe is not the appropriate symbol in those contexts.
Comment: Sorta related, from [wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vertical_bar#Bibles): "*In the Geneva Bible and early printings of the King James Version, the double vertical bar is used to indicate that an alternative translation is to be found in the margin. Whenever it is used, the marginal note begins with the conjunction 'Or'.)*" Sadly, no reference is given, and my copy doesn't seem to have them.
Comment: Some silly fonts a few years ago printed a pipe symbol on screen as the broken pipe when you keyed pipe on keyboard.
Answer: One use of the pipe symbol in typesetting is for the (usually fifth) footnote at the bottom of a page. In this case, it is doubled and called parallels (||).
Talking of the asterisk and dagger, typographers Hoefler & Frere-Jones say:

Both characters have functions in genealogy
  and other life sciences, where the asterisk
  indicates the year of birth (*1499), and the
  dagger the year of death (†1561). There are
  standard fourth-, fifth- and sixth-order
  reference marks, too: they are the section mark (§), parallels (||), and number sign (#),
  after which the cycle repeats with doubles,
  triples, and so on: *, †, ‡, §, ||, #, , ††, ‡‡,
  §§, ||||, ###, *, †††, ‡‡‡, etc. Beyond
  three, numbered footnotes are always
  preferable, even if you are David Foster Wallace.

See some examples in my answer to this question.
Comment: Some complements on the dagger, or obelus, can be read at [Why is a cross † used as footnote marker for people?](http://tex.stackexchange.com/a/268585/30315)
Comment: See also [What are the historical reasons for the conventional sequence of footnote symbols?](http://english.stackexchange.com/a/62582/9001)

Origin of | (pipe symbol)


What does the inspector mean by "Hot and Neutral are not separated"?

Question: In an inspection report on my house, the inspector said "hot and neutral" are not separated. I think he meant "neutral and ground" are not separated. I've attached the picture, is that the case?
Comment: If "hot and neutral" are not separated you just get a short.
Comment: Nobody can answer this without more information because if we guess and give you bad information then you could potentially create a dangerous situation.  We need to see if it is a main service panel by looking at the main breaker.  We need to see if there are more than one buss.  What country are you from and what year was your home built?
Comment: @sharptooth Well he would probably get a short, but then I see in the picture that there are double pole breakers with white wires connected to them, and they are not AFCI breakers.  It is *possible* that one of those "hot" white wires is connected to the bus but without seeing the whole breaker box we can't tell for sure.
Comment: @maple_shaft Just by the simple fact that it's a 4 wire feeder, you can probably safely assume this is a sub-panel.
Comment: It's a sub-panel, and I am in the US (Maryland to be specific).
Comment: @themidnightwill Could you please provide an image that shows the whole panel? Is there an additional bus bar in the panel? I'm guessing there is a separate equipment grounding bus bar, which the green wire from the feeder is attached to. If there is not, you'll have to install one.
Answer: I'm guessing from the image that this is a sub-panel, in which case the inspector is correct.  The National Electrical Code (NEC) says:

National Electrical Code 2008
250.24 Grounding Service-Supplied Alternating-Current Systems.
(A) System Grounding Connections.
(5) Load-Side Grounding Connections. A grounded conductor shall not be connected to normally non–currentcarrying metal parts of
equipment, to equipment grounding conductor(s), or be reconnected to
ground on the load side of the service disconnecting means except as
otherwise permitted in this article.

Which means the only place the "neutral" (grounded conductor) is bonded, is in the main service panel.  If the grounded (neutral) and equipment grounding conductors (EGC) are bonded anywhere else, you can end up with neutral currents on the EGC and metal parts of equipment which is a violation of 250.6(A).

250.6 Objectionable Current.
(A) Arrangement to Prevent Objectionable Current. The grounding of electrical systems, circuit conductors, surge arresters,
surge-protective devices, and conductive normally non–current-carrying
metal parts of equipment shall be installed and arranged in a manner
that will prevent objectionable current.

A second look
After taking another look at this, he could mean that the white insulated wires are not marked appropriately.  When you use a wire with white (gray, or with three continuous white stripes) insulation as an ungrounded (hot) conductor, you have to mark the wire in some way to indicate that it is not used as a grounded (neutral) conductor.

200.7 Use of Insulation of a White or Gray Color or with Three Continuous White Stripes.
(C) Circuits of 50 Volts or More. The use of insulation that is white or gray or that has three continuous white stripes for other
than a grounded conductor for circuits of 50 volts or more shall be
permitted only as in (1) through (3).
(1) If part of a cable assembly and where the insulation is
permanently reidentified to indicate its use as an ungrounded
conductor, by painting or other effective means at its termination,
and at each location where the conductor is visible and accessible.
Identification shall encircle the insulation and shall be a color
other than white, gray, or green.

Since the white wires connected to the breakers are not marked, it looks (to the untrained eye) as if the grounded (neutral) conductors are connected to the hot bus. The most common way to mark the wires, is to wrap a bit of black electrical tape around a small section of the wire.
Comment: So it is a sub panel and the inspector was right per NEC, however what is the best way to resolve this issue?  If there isn't a seperate buss how would the OP install one?
Comment: @maple_shaft Depends on the manufacturer of the panel, some offer "add-on" bus bars which can be mounted to the panel.
Comment: If there is not another one then just maybe it's already installed per manufacturer's specs
Comment: Manufacturer specs cannot override the code requirement to separate neutral and ground in a subpanel.  Most panels have separate bus bars that can be purchased and added on to allow the separation.  The neutral bar (probably the new one) would be insulated from the panel frame to be properly installed.
Comment: I see white wires going into breakers. This does not comply with code.  The wires should be "marked" with a permanent tape around them. Any color legal for hot can be used (black, red, blue). The marking must be on both ends. Technically it is supposed to be done at the time the whole cable is installed.
Comment: @Skaperen That's what I said.
Answer: It would help if you told us where you are, and what you are showing us a picture of.
If it's a main panel, neutral and ground and bonded together. If it's a sub-panel, neutral and ground must be kept separate.
Comment: I don't see a main breaker in the pic. I see the large black and red going down the left side of the box, but pic doesn't show a separate neutral and ground buss.
Comment: Yes, this is a sub-panel. If my memory serves me correct, the black and red are attached to the main panel.


JavaScript to connect SharePoint Office 365 site(SharePoint online)

Question: Is it possible to retrieve the data from Sharepoint online using Javascript, if we are executing The Javascript outside of the cloud environment. I see that using CSOM SharePointonlineCredentials class is available to connect to office 365. Is there any way using Javascript to connect. And my requirement is to run the script from outside of the cloud network. please suggest.
Answer: No.
You would be violating Same-Origin Policy since SharePoint does not expose services through CORS or JSONP.
You would have to use another approach, such as proxy, auto hosted app or sandboxed solution (deprecated).
However if your point is simply to use JavaScript as a language then you access SharePoint through node.js, perhaps with module such as sharepoint-api or node-sharepiont.
Answer: If you want to manipulate a list (or web-part) using JS, you can use the JSLink Feature to do that:
1) Simply go to Site Contents of the site that includes the web-part you want to handle with JS and open the Site Assets Library. Upload you JS file there (.js).
2) Then go to the site and Edit it and find the web-part/list of interest. On the upper right side of the web-part click the arrow for the drop-down menu and select Edit Web Part.
3) Now a menu poped up on the right, with Miscellaneous appearing on ist bottom. Expand Miscellaneous and on the JS Link Option enter:
<code> ~site/SiteAssets/yourFileName.js
</code>
In case you have a question on the JS syntax to retrieve data from the list and handle it, comment and I can edit this answer to include a sample and explaination.
Comment: My requirement is different. I want to fetch the list data from Sharepoint office 365 site and manipualte as per my requirement. I have written the Script to fetch the data. But this script works if i run it in the Sharepoint environemnt. I want to run that script from my server. So is there any way to authenticate/connect to office 365 to get the list data
Comment: so you want to access the list items and munipulate them, without connecting to the cloud Server?
Comment: I'm still not sure of what you want to do exactly, but from what I understood: would exporting an Excel table to the SP Site and creating a read-only Connection to the list (thus list and spreadsheet sync both ways) help? then the spreadsheet updates from the list. You munipulate the list data with JS in the spreadsheet and when you connect to the cloud Server again, it will update the SP list automatically from the spreadsheet.


If Itachi wanted the best for Sasuke, why did he ask him to kill his best friend?

Question: Supposedly everything Itachi did was for the best of Sasuke. To keep him alive, to give him a purpose to survive and get stronger, etc. But he also asked him to kill his best friend to get the Mangekyou Sharingan. If he wanted the best for Sasuke, why would he ask him to kill his best friend, when this doesnt seem to have any apparent purpose for the best of Sasuke, and instead the idea would traumatize him more?
Comment: Maybe so Sasuke could get the power he wanted to kill Itachi? Not sure. Will have to research. Itachi pretty much lived to die at Sasuke's hand.
Comment: There's need to be clarification - the mangekyo sharingan isn't obtained by killing your best friend but seeing him dying.
Comment: @USerNAme quite both, actually. Killing your friend would make you see him die. During Madara's time, Uchiha clansmen slaughtered eachother in hopes of obtaining the MS (which they did succeed in) and other cases, like seeing Shisui die, the MS is also awakened.
Comment: @ᴅᴀɴɪᴇʟッ - kakashi's / obito's sharingan awakened because of seeing friends dying, not because killing.
Comment: Yes, the most common case is by SEEING the friend die. But as I pointed out, once many Uchiha clansmen figured out how the MS is awakened (via Madara & Izuna) they killed other clansmen and still got the MS.
Answer: As I mentioned in the comments:

Maybe so Sasuke could get the power he wanted to kill Itachi? Not sure. Will have to research. Itachi pretty much lived to die at Sasuke's hand. (emphasis mine)

Taken from the Naruto wiki article on the Mangekyo Sharingan:

A Mangekyō Sharingan is distinguished from a normal Sharingan by its appearance, which changes the form of the tomoe seal. While the exact design differs for each user, they all resemble pinwheels. It is initially awakened by the trauma suffered from witnessing the death of someone close to the user.

I also pointed out in the comments that this can also be awakened by killing a close friend. Many Uchiha during Madara's era purposely did this after hearing how this eye was awakened in order to see if they could get it themselves. This process was succesful, which proves the Mangekyo Sharingan can also be awakened by killing a close friend, aside from having to see them die.

 This fact is quite popular already, but it's getting spoiler tagged because it is far-ish in the series. Sasuke figured out that Itachi killed the Uchiha alongside Obito on the order of Konoha's elders. This was not intended.

Itachi wanted to die by Sasuke's hand. He said himself he deserved to be dealt with by another Uchiha. Even if he wanted the best for Sasuke, he still wanted him to kill his friend in order to give him the power of the Mangekyo, so Sasuke would be strong enough to kill him, as he always wanted to. This would fulfill Sasuke's long goal of revenge, with hopes of him not finding out about the Uchiha incident. To answer the question, although Itachi always wanted the best for Sasuke, he wanted him to kill his best friend to:

Inform him about the Mangekyo Sharingan and how to awaken it
Give him the power needed in order to get revenge, with Itachi intending for Sasuke not to learn about the Uchiha incident

Yet another example of Itachi being selfish to "help" Sasuke :D
Answer: First Theory
Considering the end result was Sasuke rejecting Mangekyō, Itachi may have told Sasuke how to get the Mangekyō Sharingan in an attempt to bias Sasuke against it. Itachi has been shown to be a very perceptive and conniving person. Examples of this are abundant:

He sets a trap inside of Naruto to use Shisui's Sharingan to
reprogram Sasuke to defend the Leaf Village. He ultimately ended up
using it to reprogram himself while reanimated.
He set a trap inside of Sasuke's eye to incinerate Tobi should the two cross paths.
His interaction with Sasuke after slaughtering the Uchiha Clan was done to manipulate Sasuke into eventually killing him, with the goal of making Sasuke a hero of the Leaf Village.
In the fight with Kabuto, Itachi was quick to discern how Kabuto's nature as a spy was similar to his own. And then he set a trap by manipulating Kabuto into performing certain actions, so he could use the Izanami, which ensnared Kabuto in a time loop until he became the person Itachi wanted him to be.
He threatened Danzo in order to ensure Sasuke's safety. He obviously understood Danzo well enough to know this would keep Sasuke safe. After the Third Hokage's death, he specifically made an appearance to remind Danzo of their arrangement.

Seeing all this, it isn't entirely far-fetched to suppose Itachi may have foreseen the outcome of telling Sasuke about the Mangekyō Sharingan. And the outcome was indeed that Sasuke rebelled, disgusted by the idea of gaining power the same way as his brother, ultimately choosing to leave Naruto alive.
But why might Itachi do this instead of, for instance, just leaving Sasuke in the dark about this secret? He may have seen it as an inevitability that Sasuke would find the Uchiha Clan's secret stone tablet, in which case he had to do something to make Sasuke not want to try and get the Mangekyō. Well, when someone you hate tells you to do something, it tends to make you not want to do it.
This is just some speculation, and I don't necessarily believe it myself, but I thought it was worth delving into as an alternative to the other answers.
Alternate Theory
As an alternative to what I said, I'd first like to point out that not everything Itachi did was motivated by his desire to help Sasuke. If that were the case, he never would have slaughtered the Uchiha clan, which was a seriously traumatic event that Sasuke was never going to get over (and indeed, this one event basically colored Sasuke's entire life experience).
In that case, it is prudent to note that Itachi was also motivated by a desire for stability in the Leaf Village. In order to do that, for there to be no repercussions against the Leaf Village when he carries out his mission, he had to be the bad guy. And in that case, he has to make his motives seem believable. Thus, he tells Sasuke about Mangekyō not for Sasuke's benefit, but as a clever cover, as if to say, "By the way, do you want to know why I killed Shisui?"
Itachi's stated goal was to make himself the villain, and Sasuke the hero for defeating him. Sasuke's not going to be a hero in the Leaf Village if he kills his best friend (who would presumably be a Leaf Shinobi). This further suggests my first theory might be correct (these two theories aren't mutually exclusive, as Itachi may have multiple motives for doing things).
Again, Itachi had to be the villain. Thus, Itachi and the Leaf higher ups left a lot of evidence that he was the bad guy, for the other Shinobi, and for Sasuke. Danzo, for instance, upon arriving at the scene of the massacre, immediately declared that Itachi secretly harbored a deep hatred for his clan. And they did a good job because the result was that no one ever suspected a thing. Even Anbu like Kakashi, who'd been helping spy on the Uchiha and knew about their discontent, and who personally knew Itachi, never thought that Itachi was under orders. A shocked Kakashi instead concluded that even after all that time working together, he'd never really known Itachi.
Additionally, we have to remember Itachi is playing a role. If we're thinking on the role of villain Itachi, with his motives, it makes sense for him to tell Sasuke about Mangekyō. This though it seems it isn't necessary for Eternal Mangekyō, it still seems like it would have been preferable. In which case, Itachi, acting out his role, wants Sasuke to get Mangekyō. And I'll note that having a secret motive adds plausibility for everything Itachi did, so it's good he didn't just tell Sasuke, "Hey, I want you to get Mangekyō so I can take your eyes and make myself more powerful," but instead, revealed it to him later. Because at that point, Sasuke would be like, "I'm older now, and I have questions about the Uchiha massacre." But hearing Itachi wants his eyes, he'd be like, "Oh, now I get it."
Third Theory
It's possible that Itachi wished for Sasuke to become stronger. Perhaps because of the danger Danzo posed, he wanted Sasuke to have the Mangekyō. He may have felt it was necessary for Sasuke to have Mangekyō to defend himself. Or more likely in my opinion, he simply wanted Sasuke to be informed of the possibility. Being a spy and confused about what's right, Itachi may have been uncertain whether or not Sasuke should get Mangekyō. He wanted Sasuke to decide for himself. In which case, he told Sasuke while thinking something like this, "Well, Sasuke, I don't know what you should do, but if you want power, here's how to get it."
Comment: An interesting perspective. +1. Assuming Itachi did know about the consequences of the mangekyou (going blind from overuse), I guess it'd make sense for him to attempt to pull that off and plan to wait till partially blind to battle sasuke and die.
Answer: Itachi knew the only way Sasuke would obtain the Mangekyō Sharignan would be by killing his best friend which would make Sasuke about 10-20 times stronger than he already is. Itachi wanted Sasuke to be strong enough to face any challenge in the cruel shinobi world they live in and he knew having the Mangekyō would give Sasuke a huge advantage which it obviously did. Shortly after attaining Itachi's Mangekyō Sharingan, Sasuke was even strong enough to take on the Raikage at such a young age.
Answer: You cannot assume Itachi wanted Sasuke to kill his best friend. All we know is that he told Sasuke how to get the MS and that is by experience the intense emotion of seeing someone you love die. This is ultimately how he did obtain it after watching Itachi die.
Itachi knew that a strong Sasuke was important for the future of Konaha. He also knew that there was literally no one else who could teach this to him. Seeing as when Kakashi shows Itachi that he also has an MS (although an incomplete one) Itachi is shocked and astounded. Noting that this is to be expected from a Konaha shinobi.


Jessie PIXELS raspi-config error

Question: Anyone feeling like the raspi-config is not working in the new Jessie PIXELS. I cannot overclock or expand file system usinfg config menu
Comment: Are you getting any error messages? Could you include some screenshots to illustrate your problem?
Answer: If you are running a recent version of Raspbian the filesystem was resized on first boot automatically, and depending on which model Pi you are using you may not be able to overclock it.
You can confirm that the file system has been expanded with the following command:
<code>df -h
</code>
the first non header line line /dev/root should show the size of your card and the amount of free and used space.
The Pi3 and Pi Zero do not allow overclocking (at least not via the raspi-config) file. You can check the overclock configuration by viewing the /boot/config.txt file. You can find more info on the available settings in this forum thread and in the documentation for the config.txt file.

Jessie PIXELS raspi-config error


Comparing data with two sets of dates

Question: Has anyone seen an interface that allows users to select two different sets of dates to compare data? And then the corresponding data in tables and/or graph form?
Answer: Even with just sets of integers (like [1 2 3] and [2 3 4 5]) asking what it means to "compare" the data is vague.  Do you want to know which set has more numbers, what elements they have in common, which contains the largest or smallest number?  Etc.
But if you just want a simple interface to compare two lists (kind of diff-like), you could sort them and show them such that if a date appeared in both sets it would be on the same row.
SET-1: [21-Jan-2001 08-May-1975 04-Aug-2000]
SET-2: [13-Mar-1987 04-Aug-2000 12-Apr-2001 08-May-1975]
<code>   SET-1     |    SET-2
-------------+-------------
08-May-1975  |  08-May-1975
    ...      |  13-Mar-1987
04-Aug-2000  |  04-Aug-2000
21-Jan-2001  |      ...
    ...      |  12-Apr-2001
</code>
In terms of information overload, there's always a timeline...sometimes an overkill in terms of use of screen real-estate.  The Simile Timeline is open source and can put dots of different colors on events, and you could use one color for each set:
http://www.simile-widgets.org/timeline/
But the best idea is to go to your users/use-cases and find out what it is people are trying to find out from your data from this "comparison", and design according to that.
Comment: Thanks Hostile Fork for leaving your answer. The data that will be compared is going to be 1:1. What the users are doing is selecting an object and wanting to see how it performed in two separate windows of time. So think of the data being presented in columns of values, such as clicks, impressions, etc., For a single object it will be defaulted to a particular set of dates, but users may want to add an additional set of dates to compare with the default. They may also want to change the default dates.
Comment: @Rollin4eyes: in that case wouldn't a "simple" graph/chart be your best bet as the dates are "just" a selection criteria to compare two (or more) value ranges?

Comparing data with two sets of dates


Can I use a split tab switch for mains voltage and low voltage?

Question: LeGrand (Pass & Seymour) make a multi-control single pole switch with a split tab TM8113WCC, which allows for the control of two independent circuits on a single yoke (one box).  Code question: is it permissible to run a mains voltage (120V) circuit on one side of this device and a low-voltage circuit on the other?
Comment: My use case: I bought a new Panasonic WhisperGreen Select fan.  The fan runs on mains power (120V), but the control of the fan is done by a signal loop to the fans circuity.  In other words, power goes directly into the fan, but control of the fan is a low-voltage loop to the wall switch and back - separate power and control.  If it works for this use, the LeGrand switch would look "cleaner" in my bathroom, and I'd avoid cutting in another box.  All other multi-control switches are all common-cource, which won't work with this fan.
Comment: What is the voltage of the control circuit?
Comment: What's the model number of the fan you're installing?  I can't seem to find a WhisperGreen that uses a low voltage  control circuit.
Comment: @Tester101 The WhisperGreen Select fans (all models, I think) have plug-and-play modules as options. My specific fan is FV-05-11VKL1 with the constant-on module and the humidity sensor options. With the constant-on module, the fan no longer uses mains power for ON/OFF, but the control loop for AUTO/RUN.
Answer: This is OK provided that the wires to the fan control switch are treated as 120VAC wires as per 725.46:

Class 1 Circuit Wiring Methods. Class I circuits shall be installed in
  accordance with Part I of Article 300 and with the wiring methods from the
  appropriate articles in Chapter 3.

(i.e. run using NM and not communications-type cable/wire) and as per 725.48(B)(1):

(B) Class 1 Circuits with Power-Supply Circuits. Class 1 circuits shall be
  permitted to be installed with power-supply conductors as specified in
  725.48(B)(1) through (B)(4).
(1) In a Cable, Enclosure, or Raceway. Class 1 circuits and power-supply
  circuits shall be permitted to occupy the same cable, enclosure, or raceway only
  where the equipment powered is functionally associated.

since the control wires are with the fan's power wires, and we can safely treat them as a Class 1 control circuit using the provisions of 725.130, Exception 2:

Exception No.2: Class 2 and Class 3 circuits shall be permitted to be
  reclassified and installed as Class 1 circuits if the Class 2 and Class 3
  markings required in 725.124 are eliminated and the entire circuit is
  installed using the wiring methods and materials in accordance with Part II,
  Class 1 circuits.
Comment: The downside to wiring it with regular NM cable is that when the nexy guy comes along to replace that switch, they will probably assume its 120V, and wire it up in a way that blows up the fan's electronics.
Comment: @Grant -- 725.46 says you *must* use a Chapter 3 wiring method when installing a Class 1 control circuit.  I personally would wire it as a 14-4 with black/white for 120VAC and red/blue going to the switch, and have tags on both ends of the red and blue wires marking them as Class 1 control wiring.  Anybody who cross-wires a properly labeled Class 1 control circuit to 120VAC and blows something up as a result can replace it out of their own pocket ;)


Arrests in absense of extradition?

Question: If country A and B has no extradition treaty, then can B arrest As citizens residing in B if A requests?
Answer: Sure they can arrest them.  Are you thinking you can go to a country yours has no extradition treaty with and just commit arbitrary crime sprees with impunity?  Presumably you mean to ask if they can extradite someone even without a treaty, and the answer is: depends on their laws, but otherwise of course they can if they feel like it (which may require giving them something in return).
An extradition treaty just creates a formalized process for handling extradition requests, which may include the types of crimes that may be considered, who can be considered or exempted, and the specific procedures a country may go through to decide on whether or not to grant the extradition.
The existence of a treaty does not guarantee the request will be granted.  US requests to extradite Roman Polanski from Poland, France, and Switzerland have all failed, despite the fact that the US has extradition treaties with all of them. Several countries, such as France and Canada, will also refuse to extradite anyone who may be subject to the death penalty. This has gotten in the way of US extradition requests before.
Answer: I interpret the question a bit differently, as asking can B harass an A citizen in their territotory by arresting them simply because A asked them to? If you are a citizen of A, you can be arrested in B for committing a crime in B. If you are a citizen of A and committed a crime in A (not B) but there is an extradition treaty, you could be arrested and extradited. If there is no crime in B and no possibility of extradition from B to A, then an arrest in B would essentially just be legal harassment. If a nation allows arbitrary arrests, then you could theoretically be arrested without cause. In those nations which require that arrests have some legal basis, you either have to have committed a crime within the jurisdiction, or there has to be a proper extradition request which purports that you committed one of a specified set of crimes in another jurisdiction, in the context of an extradition treaty.

Arrests in absense of extradition?


AR(1) with Nonlinear Least Squares using Marquardt Algorithm: EViews vs R

Question: Some weeks ago, I posted a poorly thought-out question plagued with vague information. This is my attempt to correct the original question and get better answers.
The main problem is:  I cannot obtain similar parameter estimates with EViews and R.
For reasons I do not know myself, I need to estimate parameters for certain data using EViews. This is done by picking the NLS (nonlinear least squares) option and using the following formula: indep_var c dep_var ar(1)
EViews claims that they estimate linear AR(1) processes such as:

Yt = a + B * Xt + ut

where ut errors are defined as

ut = p * ut-1 + e

by using an equivalent equation (with some algebraic substitutions):

Yt = (1 - p) * a + p * Yt - 1 + B *
  Xt - p * B *  Xt - 1 + et

Furthermore, this thread over at the EViews forums suggests that their NLS estimations are generated by the Marquardt algorithm.
Now, the go-to R function to estimate AR(1) processes is arima. However, there are two problems: 1) the estimates are maximum likelihood estimates; 2) the intercept estimate is not actually the intercept estimate.
Therefore, I turned to the nlsLM function from the minpack.lm package. This function uses the Marquardt algorithm to achieve nonlinear least squares estimates, which should yield the same results as the EViews implementation (or very similar ones, at least).
Now the code. I have a data frame (data) with an independent variable and a dependent variable such as the one generated by the following code:
data <- data.frame(independent = abs(rnorm(48)), dependent = abs(rnorm(48)))

To estimate parameters in the equation EViews claims to estimate (3rd one on this post), I use the following commands:
library(minpack.lm)
result <-
nlsLM(dependentB ~ ((1 - theta1) * theta2) + (theta1 * dependentA) +
                    (theta3 * independentB) - (theta1 * theta3 * independentA),
data = list(dependentB = data$dependent[2:48], dependentA = data$dependent[1:47],
   independentB = data$independent[2:48], independentA = data$independent[1:47]),
start = list(theta1 = -10, theta2 = -10, theta3 = -10)
)

Unfortunately, the estimates output by nlsLM are not close to the ones output by EViews. Do you have any idea of what might be causing this? Or maybe my code is wrong?
Finally, I would like to say that I personally am an R user - that is exactly why I'm trying to do this in R instead of EViews. I would also love to provide you the data I'm working with but it's impossible since it's confidential data.
Answer: It seems that the Eviews specification should be:
dep_var  c indep_var ar(1)


Does clay absorb water because of polarity?

Question: From what I have recently learned about ceramics, clay is essentially sheets of silicon and oxygen, bonded by covalent bonds. Between them, water keeps clay from forming a full lattice of $\ce{SiO4^{2-}}$. What I am wondering is, does clay absorb the water because of the water's polarity, i.e. are water molecules bonding with hydrogen bonds to the negatively charged oxygen atoms of the ceramic sheets? Or is water there because pressure from the environment forces it in between the sheets (which I know would then be a physics question)?
Answer: I am no expert regarding clay (which is a surprisingly varied field) and will therefore give a more general answer. I suspect that there is also quite complex interaction with ions on the surfaces of the layers and such things.
Materials can be generally categorized on a rather continuous scale, the extremes of which are called hydrophilic and hydrophobic (or lipophobic/lipophilic which are synonyms).
If something is hydrophilic, it "likes" to be wet, i.e. it is energetically favourable for the surface to be wet because this minimized surface energy of the system. The opposite applies to hydrophobic substances.
As you have observed yourself, clay is quite hydrophilic.
One can indeed estimate whether a material is hydrophilic based on its chemistry: water likes to form hydrogen bonds and water complexes (e.g. around Na+). Therefore things are more hydrophilic the more of said things they have. A good example is that sugars and carbohydrates are very soluble in water despite being large, whereas even small alkanes are barely soluble.
The explanation involving air pressure makes no sense, because to move matter there has to be a pressure difference. But if you imagine clay as a porous substance, the pores might as well be filled with air and there is an equilibrium. In fact (as easily observed when burning earthware) clay gets more voluminous with higher water content.
Comment: I was thinking in hydrophilic terms, yes. Your points are exactly why I was thinking that this could be the reason. By pressure, however, I never meant AIR pressure; clay forms (as I understand it) in water, and the thought was that the pressure from water (oceans, groundwater, etc.) pressed itself inside the sheets and simply stayed there when they were exhumed for use.
Comment: There still is no pressure difference; I either don't understand you or you have an erroneous understanding about pressure.
Comment: I assume there is no pressure issue, then. The thought was that the pressure of deep waters above could press water through the seabed or nearby layers, similar to the pressure of groundwater. I guess that is not the case.
Comment: Somehow you still sound confused, but I guess you have to add more information if that is the case. I did never figure out what exactly confused you :(
Comment: I perfectly understand your explanation, it's very well explained. But it is the basic premise. I just need to know if that premise applies to clay or not.


Filter entries based on multiple custom fields (paginated)

Question: I have a channel called articles to post image galleries or video's or both.
On the back-end there are two custom fields in that channel (1) a 'channel images' field to add multiple images to the post and (2) a matrix field to add multiple video by (a) adding a valid YouTube or Video URL into a 'video link' field OR (b) via adding the embed code into a textarea field, in which case there is a 3td field, an 'assets' field to add a thumbnail.
On the front-end every article is required to have a thumbnail image.
In the source code, I first check if there is an image given in the 'channel images' field, and if so, grab the first image as a thumbnail. If not, I check to see if there is a matrix row and if the 'video link' field is not empty, and if so, grab the YT of Vimdeo thumbnail via that plugin. If that field is empty, I check to see if the embed code textarea field AND assets field are not empty, and grab the assets image as a thumbnail in that case.
This all works except that if the fields are NOT set, the entry is not shown on the page but it IS included in the pagination and number of rendered entries.
So if I want to always display 9 entries per page (3 x 3 blocks), and one entry has OR no channel images input, OR no valid video link input, OR no embed code + assets input, I have 8 entries on the page + the pagination total entries does not add up.
You can not set the required field option conditionally when adding a custom field in the CP.
How do I pre-filter the entries based on conditional logic on multiple custom fields before they are rendered?
The search parameter is not sufficient.
Answer: If you're gonna use Low Search, then the only way to do this properly, is to use a custom filter.


Does hopping have an advantage?

Question: I've noticed that in the game Mario Kart 8 and Mario Kart 8 Deluxe, you can make a little hop by pressing 'R'. Does hopping help you in any way? If so, how does it help you, and how do you use it? I was wondering if maybe it could also make you go faster if you went off road by accident.
Answer: Hopping helps in multiple ways:

It's the only way to drift, which allows for sharper turns without losing (too much) speed. Drifting is done by jumping and keeping the jump button pressed while landing at an angle.
If you can maintain your drift for long enough, you gain a boost upon letting the jump button go. If you keep drifting, you can get a stronger boost. Mario Kart 8 Deluxe offers a third boost level.

Hopping off a ramp or ledge gives you a small boost upon landing. Your character will perform a stunt to let you know you timed your hop properly.

Mario Kart 8 has an exploit named "Fire Hopping", in which a player could hop repeatedly from left to right to get extra speed from a boost. This exploit has been fixed in Mario Kart 8 Deluxe.

While you can easily ignore drifting in 50 CC, it's very helpful for winning 100 CC, and absolutely necessary for 150 CC or higher.

I was wondering if maybe it could also make you go faster if you went off road by accident.

No, but hopping before you get off road helps delaying the loss of speed until after you've landed (if you're landing off road). This is most useful at higher speeds (such as 200 CC), or right before your Mushroom boost runs out (if you're still off road by then).
Comment: To be noted: in earlier mario karts the drift boost was built up by tilting the joystick in the inverse direction and then back in the direction of the drift, brigning a technique known as snaking (where you would drift on straights and build that boost over and over). People that were good at it made it look just like the character was hopping every second or so. This was removed in MK Wii (the predecessor to 8) by making the drift buildup time based instead.
Comment: @Fredy31 was there any drift-boost in Mario Kart 64?
Comment: I think there was boost drift since the very first MK on SNES. But it was definitely present in 64.

Does hopping have an advantage?


could anybody explains me why IIR filters do not have linear phase?

Question: Please tell me. Also I dont know why phase is linear with FIR filters. I would like quantitative analysis. And why linear phase is not achieved by IIR filters ?
Comment: Causal IIR filters cannot have linear phase, non-causal IIR filters can. As in $H(e^{j\omega})=e^{-j\omega\alpha}$
Comment: Not all FIR filters have linear phase. Most of the FIR filters you tend to design have linear phase by design. One example of a  filter that is not necessarily linear phase is from Adaptive Filtering/Equalisation - there usually isn't a constraint to impose phase linearity.
Answer: For digital filters, linear phase places the following requirement on the transfer function:
$$ H(z) = H(z^{-1}).$$
That restriction implies a linear phase IIR filter would need to have poles both inside and outside the unit circle, making it unstable. Similar arguments apply for analog filters.
That being said, there are any number of approximations which may be "close enough" to linear phase, depending on the application--especially if the causality of filter is sacrificed. For a review of techniques, see the introduction to this paper:

S.R. Powell, P.M.Chau, A Technique for Realizing Linear-Phase IIR
  Filters, IEEE Trans. Signal Processing, Vol 39, No 11, Nov 1991, pp
  2425-2435.

The algorithm in that paper achieves linear phase with acausal block processing, rather than the usual offline "Forward-Backward" zero-phase approach.
Comment: Shouldn't your first sentence say "zero phase", not "linear phase"?  when "the causality of filter is sacrificed", you are converting zero-phase to delayed linear phase, no?
Comment: @endolith Isn't a flat line still a line?
Comment: @StanleyPawlukiewicz The requirement specified is zero phase.  Filters can be linear phase and not meet this requirement.
Answer: The impulse response of a linear phase filter must be symmetric.  If the impulse response is infinitely long, then the center of the impulse is an infinite distance away from the beginning, giving the symmetric IIR filter infinite delay.
Comment: "The impulse response of a linear phase filter must be symmetric" ... though not necessarily symmetric about zero?
Comment: Your question is more about if the signal needs to be even, since that is the sharpest form of symmetry.
Regarding hotpaw2's comment I wonder by what logic it needs be symmetric?
Answer: Clements and Pease have shown that causal infinite-duration impulse responses can also have Fourier transforms with generalized linear phase. The corresponding system functions, however, are not rational, and thus, the systems cannot be implemented with difference equations.
Comment: This is the only correct answer.
Answer: So  basically the IIR filter transfer function is $H(z)=\pm H(1/z)$.
so if the poles are inside the unit circle,reciprocally poles are outside the unit circle so the system is unstable and non causal that's why linear phase is not displayd by IIR filter


Apps using the camera API crash after taking a picture on an iPhone 4S running iOS 7

Question: Ever since I updated to iOS 7 in June, I have been having issues using the camera on my phone in apps other than the default Camera app. Regardless of settings, using my camera in any non-Apple app (such as Instagram or Tumblr) will result in that particular app crashing immediately. I have tried everything to remedy the issue short of a full restore on my phone. I'm convinced it's some sort of low memory or high CPU utilization issue, since iOS 7 seems to be much more taxing on my phone's resources than iOS 6 was. Is there some way to fix this issue without simply buying a newer, faster iPhone?
Answer: Rebooting always fixes the problem for me.
As for permanent solutions, haven't tried this myself but this comment has a possible solution (pre-iOS 7 however iOS users have reported success):  http://www.iphoneincanada.ca/how-to/how-to-fix-iphone-camera-roll-crash-and-photos-turned-to-other-in-itunes/#comment-347059180
Answer: A full restore of your phone might be needed if you aren't keen to clear out the camera roll of all photos.
These crashes are not unheard of, but they also are not affecting most of the devices in the wild.
You could probably reset your camera roll following this thread and avoid having to start over with a full wipe of the device:

How can I reset the camera roll to photo IMG_0001.jpg on iOS?