"Calzas" vs. "medias"

Question: What's the difference? The dictionary says both mean socks or stockings. If they really refer to the same thing, what's the regional usage for Mexico and Latin America in general?
Comment: The movie **Robin Hood: Men in Tights** was translated as **Robin Hood: Hombres en Calzas** Maybe this helps.
Answer: I was hesitating about posting an answer because you are asking for the usage in Mexico specifically, and my Spanish is castilian, but in case it helps and until you get a better and more complete answer...
My understanding is that 'calcetines' is what we use in a daily basis and 'calzas' would designate larger 'socks', like the ones soccer players (among others) may use for sports (calzas deportivas). The word also designates an old fashioned piece of clothing (something between socks and pants. Check this "calzas" and this other one to get an idea of what it was).
Seems they can also be a woman piece of clothing (but in castilian Spanish the word used for them is the anglicism leggings).
No idea about the use in Mexico, but I hope this helps until someones posts a more accurate answer.
Comment: Medias can be used to refer to sportwear too, but mainly they refer clothing (stocking of different lengths) women use: https://www.google.com/search?q=medias+mujer&espv=2&biw=1277&bih=600&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&sa=X&ei=OwV2VPTnLOPasASfnoHYAQ&ved=0CB0QsAQ
Comment: So you guys don't use medias in Spain?
Comment: @Diego I heard the word _leggings_ for female lightweight pants _my own definition_ instead a sock used for cover their feets before put shoes.

Google Translator says:

_tight-fitting stretch pants worn by women and children._
Comment: medias for women's stockings with an s. Castillian takes a capital c in English. :)
Answer: I'm from Colombia (Bogotá D.C) and I only know that calzas are a short term for calzas dentales:
Below, a example:

¿Tiene cita odontológica?
Si, vengo a que me pongan unas calzas.

Searching a little on internet, the word also be applicable to socks, however I only use the word medias.
Answer: In Chile, "medias" has two meanings. The first is not important in this question, is the sport socks, used by both sexes. With a minimal difference are the same as "calcetas".
The second "medias" refers to a type of lingerie, only wear by women. Is a set of panties with legs and which must necessarily be closed on the feet. That is: a trouser with socks, all together, and with "intimate" features. It can be transparent or opaque. In other countries it said "pantimedias".
"Calzas" are outer garment. Are similar to trousers made with thin and flexible material, and with open feet. Are also known as "leggins".
In real life of a man, there is little difference between medias and calzas, the main thing is that enclose a foot and others do not. If they are fully transparent, are medias, and should take more clothes on (unfortunately). But it would be feasible to tell a lady, "qué lindas tus calzas" and she will answer you: "Son medias". It would be nice.
Comment: @Rodrigo In Colombia, the definition of _medias_ and _pantimedias_ are very different for female and male genders. Both can buy and use socks (medias), but only females buys and uses _pantimedias_.
Comment: This answer reflects the usage for these words in Guatemalan Spanish. Only exception being that _calzas_ is not used and they're simply referred to as _leggings_.
Comment: medias as you describe are called **tights** in English. You many want to amend  your answer...aka pantihose, it depends.
Answer: Here in Argentina, same as @Rodrigo said about Chile.

Media (for men, women, or unisex)
Specific for women kind of "media": Media de nylon, pantimedia, etc.
Calza for women, unless otherwise said: calza deportiva para hombres.
Answer: I learned Spanish while living in Puerto Rico for 5 years. We used "medias" for socks. I live in Dallas, Tx now and the Mexicans call socks "calcetines".
Very interesting how the Spanish language has so many different words for things in different countries. I love learning. So I'll keep my ears open and learn more.
Comment: In Spain, calcetines.
Answer: The word "medias" in Spanish, according to my Mexican-American upbringing in California, means "stockings", but like the see through kind that women wear. You can buy them in a box at any store. They're see through and come in transparent or black colors. I hope this helps.
Comment: Yes, it does mean that too.
Answer: it depends the geographical region of Mexico, for example

Central and south regions: the common term is: calcetines and medias refers to a thin cloth used by women when they wear dresses and it covers both legs
In north region: the common term is medias and it doesn't matter who uses them(women and men)

For example in mexican central region if you say esta zapato me calza bien it means shoes are of your size  and you can use them perfectly
Answer: In the northwest of Mexico, we hardly ever use the word calzas to refer to any kind of sock but instead it has the following meanings:

synonym of calzador
the wedge used to prevent doors to move
an object used to level tables

For sport socks we use calcetín deportivo, calcetas o medias. Medias is also the generic word for women's hosing.

"Calzas" vs. "medias"


Has the law of karma evolved/is it evolving?

Question: As I understand it, Buddhism is not inconsistent with Darwin's theory of evolution. Since the law of karma is central to Buddhism and applies to sentient beings, is the law of karma something that evolved, too?
Comment: Have the law of gravity, or the third law of Newton, or the first principle of thermodynamic evolved?
Comment: Well, at first sight not. But to my understanding they are not the same kind of law. Physical laws apply to anything composed of atoms, sentient or not. The law of karma applies only to sentient beings - at least that is my understanding. Laws in physics are not absolute in the sense that they are just models of reality. At second sight, the laws *have* changed in the sense that humanity thought that Newton's laws (not just the third) were always valid and we now know that that is not true.
Comment: Niwton's and other laws always valid for their reference frames. Kamma and Vipaka are valid on their reference frame( Vignana/consciousness). As others it is also evolved.
Answer: AFAIK, changing is probably the only thing common to both Buddhism and Darwin's theory of evolution. The law of Karma is an important teaching in Buddhism that explains a certain causes and effect process.
The Buddha Dhamma is called Akaliko for 2 reasons:

Gives effect immediately
True for all three times (past, present and future)

But we must not confuse Buddha Dhamma with the word 'Dhamma' used in "Sabbe Dhamma Anatta". Here the word 'Dhamma' means phenomena. All phenomena except Nibbana are conditioned and subjected to change. Buddha Dhamma is the teachings of those phenomena and their behavior. That is true for all times.
Science keep changing as it is based on hypothesis. Buddha Dhamma does not change as it is based on direct knowledge.
If the required causes are present, the effect will come to past. Regarding the teaching of Karma, time itself is part of the equation. Read about Kala Sampatti & Kala Vipatti
Comment: *"Science keep changing as it is based on hypothesis. Buddha Dhamma does not change as it is based on direct knowledge"*. True and very powerful words. Well said.
Answer: Even there is a Buddha or no Buddha there is a universal law that governs the universe out of which one is Karma. Also it is said all Buddhas preach the same universal laws. On this light Karma is not evolving but static law that is ever existing infinitely into the past and andd future including the present.
Answer: By the way Darwin's theory of evolution is not the modern understanding of Evolution. What Buddha Explained as evolution is not parallel Darwin's theory.
Here's the Evolution mentioned in Buddhism
Lord Buddha explained a evolution process that starts with a certain kind of beings who are floating in the air.These beings see a certain compound covering the surface of the earth and some try to come close, But as they are very light it is hard and very few would come close to the surface. Then they learn that someone tasted the compound and it tasted good (There is little explanation about this compound but it is explained as something that looks like Curd). Then they all try to taste it and this event becomes a turning point.
The tasting becomes an addiction, Everyone start to eat it and after a long time the compound is no more and the beings are heavy. Before the addiction they did not needed food. Now they are either living near the ground or upon it.The illuminating bodies they ones had are gone, Their bodies are solid now.
And the first experience of touch has happened among some, But this is strictly taboo. But some still touch each other, but these rebellious beings are outcasts of the new society. The touching goes on with new members and it is essentially the forbidden passion of those days. But this does not go unnoticed from nature. The first signs of gender appears. Now there are no more left to consider them despicable, Everyone is doing it. Now the Male & Female is clearly visible.
This is when the first kind of plants are born. There is nothing to stop the plants from growing as there is nothing covering the earth.This plant said to be very simple and with seed which later on becomes the source of food to these beings. This plant has seeds without a cover to protect it. So these beings just pluck it and eat it. But with time they stop moving across the terrain to find food and settle down.
They settle down as little groups and start their lives, Now the same plants will have to feed them, here nature takes a turn on them. Plants give seeds, But they are with a shell. So the beings now start to make tools to prepare the seeds and start to farm to meet the demand.
With time the small groups grow and become villages then comes the tribes,leaders,Areas,Kings,Kingdoms.

So what about Karma?
Karma is not of physical nature and it is a given law of reality. Karma is a mechanism that has no doer. It is completely independent.

Karma is something that changes. For example....

If you give food you will receive Health,Strength,Food,Endurance. But the Karmic effect will not last forever. It has an expiry date depending on the circumstances of your giving.

Karma is not a universal thing.

Your Karma is going to effect your life and it is bound with your existence.
But when most of the people say "Karma" their have a common misinterpretation of it.
Karma is not a some kind of a data storage of your lives. It is simply how your future is influenced by your past choices & how your choices are going to influence your future.

Karma does not need to evolve.

Like i mentioned before...
"Karma is how your future is influenced by your past choices & how your choices are going to influence your future.*"
It is bound to you, not a part of a universal thing. When you reach nirvana Karmic effects will cease to exist.
No matter what happens to the universe or to you Karma will always be there for the living ones who hasn't reached "Nirvana". Because Karma is not new or old it is simply the eons old outcomes of  choices, Strictly bound to individuals who committed the acts.
Answer: user1362373, karma is evolving (thought in creation), and involving, and can be used also as real "evolvement" (thought in liberation). And it applies to all living beings, whether they are aware of not, sentient or not. de and en are pretty mixed up today.
Such a distinction is that of people who have a by birth or lineage or race thinking, as that of most evolving-inspired ideas have.
Kamma is what keeps beings in this circle of evolution.
If one likes to understand kamma, this might be useful:

Kamma: A Study Guide, by Thanissaro Bhikkhu (2000; 48pp./145KB)
      An overview of the Buddha's teachings on kamma (karma; intentional action).

How ever, be warned, thinking on kamma (which means, trying to trace it back and forward) is said to make one crazy: and that (i.e. such thoughts on kamma) does not need to be done on the path. Just having the faith that wholesome deeds will bring their associated results (and unwholesome deeds, similarly), and to know what is good kamma (action by body, speech or mind) and what is not, is quite OK. Otherwise you would end up in nothing but not very wise things.
(Note: this answer has not been given with the agreement to be means of trade or the purpose of trade and keep people trapped and bound. How you handle it lies in your sphere, but does not excuse the deed here either.)
Comment: I hope you don't mind me editing for grammar sometimes (I have done it in the hope that it makes the answer easier for other people to read and understand). I didn't understand (and so I don't know how to clarify) the sentence, "Such a distinction ... ideas have."
Comment: They are quite welcome Upasaka Chris and do also give info of how much quick-witnessed one is and also it gives a lot of challenge to loosen certain preoccupations as mentioned in the edit text ([intro](http://zugangzureinsicht.org/html/lib/thai/mun/released_en.html) give some hints). Just careful and not always to fast. Sadhu!
Comment: There a certain ways of distinction in different kind of beings, a notion Hindus nourish on as well as evolution theoretic, both always leaded to certain discrimination of kind of Ariya-beings and low beings outside of what the Buddha explained to be a special being and normal being. Its very modern to introduce sentient today, especially in new age movements, Mahayana approaches and worldly Dhamma approaches and is a very poison for developing metta and virtue, Upasaka @ChrisW which is of use for the path. That was the reason why mentioning that.
Comment: I can see you addressed me in the latest comment; if I don't reply to it it's because I didn't understand what you said, nor why.
Comment: One question was, if it is welcome to correct, one question was what "Such a distinction ... ideas have." means. Which part was it, that was not transported well by Atma? And of which do you ask "Why did you do?", valued Upasaka @ChrisW ?
Comment: I asked "why" only because I didn't know "what": if I had known the reason "why" you said that was "in order to explain 'such a distinction'", then I might have better understood "what" you were saying! I still don't thoroughly understand that paragraph though. If I reworded it as, `People who have a view of 'lineage' and 'race' [and/or 'species'] and 'caste' think about 'evolution', however that's beyond what the Buddha explained -- the Buddha explained simply that there are special Ariya-beings, and normal beings.` then would that be like what you intended to say in that second paragraph?
Comment: Yes, thoughts like thought by people pondering about evolution theories become the same ideas as those of people thinking of beings is extend of race and caste, and such is not the path Buddha likes to lead, or a path that leads to liberation, Upasaka @ChrisW.
Answer: I doubt the laws of kamma can be reconciled with the laws of evolution for many reasons, such as:
(1) Buddhism only proposes good results come from good kamma. The Buddhist laws of kamma are not about biological survival & evolution but about psychological happiness & suffering.
(2) Where as Darwinian evolution (I assume) would propose both good actions (e.g., loving off-spring; living in balance with environment) and bad actions (e.g., killing, stealing, raping &/or lying/deceiving when required) contribute to survival & thus evolution.
(3) The supreme practise & goal of Buddhism (the noble eightfold path) results in    celibacy & non-reproduction, thus a diminishing of the gene-pool of enlightenment genes (dhamma dhatu).
(4) Buddhism states the fully-enlightened being or 'arahant' has completed human spiritual evolution where as Darwinism (I assume) would not offer any completion or fulfillment of evolution.
(5) In short, Buddhism is spiritual evolution while Darwinism is biological evolution, i.e., miles apart.


How can I make a pattern transparent in Illustrator, when the elements in the pattern are overlaid and should not show through?

Question: I have made a seamless pattern from these elements. The elements rely on solid white fill in order that they overlay without showing through. However, I need to make a transparent PNG file of the pattern for use in a website. So far I have not figured out a way to do this. Any help gratefully received (p.s. I'm fairly new to Illustrator).
Comment: You could just set the transparency of the image using CSS, the benefit there is you can adjust it without needing to resave the image.
Answer: Making opaque areas (or any other color in fact) transparent is pretty easy:

Expand strokes, and apperances
Apply Trim in pathfinder
Ungroup
Use either the magic wand tool to select white or selecta white object and choose Select → Same → Fill Color
Delete

You can then proceed remaking it into a pattern.

Image 1: Screenshot after procedure, green box in background show effect (and grid too)
An alternative method is using a little known feature in illustrator:

Make the white fill part of objects transparent (in transparency panel). Note do not make it no fill. You can also do this for strokes.
Group
In transparency pane check Knockout group

You now have mostly the same but haven't needed to expand the shape which means you could affect line thickness etc.

Image 2: Showing method 2. with rings selected to show that they in fact are intact
Again you can go ahead and make a pattern out of this shape
Answer: If I am understanding your question correctly, I don't believe you you would need to use any transparency for your pattern. As your image is now, it would not be able to tile seamlessly. Your design would need to be cut to the edge so that patterns could overlap.
I hope my answer may have helped.


When on a call, the screen turns off; when I turn it back on to unmute I am not on the call screen and have to go back to it

Question: This is probably the most annoying thing I have to deal with on my iPhone 6s. I am often on conference calls for work. I mute myself so the background noise is not a problem, and I hit the power button to turn off the screen and put the phone in my pocket. However, when it is time for me to talk I turn back on the screen and it does not show me the call in progress, it takes me to the home screen. I just want to be able to unmute, but I have to navigate back to the call in progress screen to do that. Is there a way to make it stop doing this?
Answer: Putting your phone in your pocket triggers the proximity monitor. When the front of your phone gets close to an object during a phone call, the screen automatically shuts off to prevent accidental touch inputs from the phone being against your face. However, the phone is not actually off! When you take it out of your pocket and thus away from the nearby object (your leg) which it assumes is your face, the screen will turn back on automatically, without you having to press the power button. When the phone re-awakens after moving away from the nearby object, it will show you the last screen you were on: generally, and in your case, it will automatically open up the phone control screen where you can quickly unmute your microphone.
Here's what you're doing wrong
You're pressing the power button. This closes the phone screen and takes you back to your home screen. How you can fix your issue: Just don't press the power button before you put the phone into your pocket, and it still will automatically shut off the screen, and don't press the power button when you take the phone out of your pocket; it will automatically come right back on to your phone call control screen, where you can unmute the call very quickly.

Don't push the power button when you put your phone into your pocket, and don't push it when you take your phone back out.


Is there a way to shift through sensors

Question: We are doing a project and have to use around 25 temperature sensors. Is there a way to shift through them on one Arduino similar to using a shift-register?
It is a set of analog sensors in a fridge.
Comment: What kind of sensors? analog, digital, ...? How far are the sensors? 1mm from each other, 10cm, 2km, ...?
Comment: Think about using a pair of 16-channel multiplexers. Sparkfun have a [board](https://www.sparkfun.com/products/9056) that might be suitable.
Comment: @sempaiscuba, why not flesh out that comment and add it as an answer.
Comment: @sempaiscuba
thanks for the answer. we will probably go with that.
Comment: sorry for not being specific enough.
it is a set of analog sensors in a fridge.
Comment: @sa_leinad Done. :)
Answer: As I mentioned in the comments, one way to do this is to use a multiplexer.
You haven't said which temperature sensors you are planning to use, so I'll illustrate this example using the TMP36 Analogue temperature sensor.
Now, if you were using just one of these, the connection would be trivial:

But you want more sensors than available pins. That's where the multiplexer comes in.
I'm going to illustrate this using 16 sensors and the Sparkfun 16-channel multiplexer breakout board which is based on the 74HC4067 multiplexer. For 25 sensors, you could use a 32-channel multiplexer (like the Analogue Devices ADG732, for example), or just combine two 16-channel multiplexers (which is probably cheaper, but requires a little more care in the wiring).
[If your soldering skills are OK, I wouldn't even bother with the Sparkfun breakout board myself. It's pretty simple to connect something like this on protoboard, or make your own PCB.]
The 16 sensors are connected to pins Y0 - Y15 on the 74HC4067 (pins C0 - C15 on the Sparkfun board). Take care to note which sensor is connected to which pin!
With 16 inputs, we need 4 bits to address them. The address pins are labelled S0 - S3. The Sparkfun datasheet for their breakout board includes a Truth Table mapping the addresses to the inputs:

The input from the selected device becomes the output from the multiplexer (pin Z on the 74HC4067; the SIG pin on the Sparkfun breakout board).
The diagram below shows one way of connecting 16 TMP36 analogue temperature sensors to an Arduino Nano using the Sparkfun breakout board:

Note the mapping chosen for the address pins:

D5 -> S0
D4 -> S1
D3 -> S2
D2 -> S3

This makes the drawing layout simpler, but may not be the most intuitive mapping when you come to write your code. My advice is to assign meaningful labels to the pin-mappings in your code, and document that decision with comments! (I'm sure that I'm probably preaching to the choir here, but this may help someone reading this in the future to avoid some of the pitfalls.)
Now, you cycle through a loop:
<code>while true {
    increment the address to be written to pins D5-D2 (note the order)
    read the input on A0
    <do whatever you need to do with the temperature reading>
}
</code>
And Robert is the male relative of your choice.
Answer: Have you looked at OneWire temperature sensors? You connect them to a bus IC and the bus IC to your Mcu. This allows you to multiplex many sensors.
You can also forego the master bus IC and just bit bang using a GPIO pin. The Arduino OneWire library uses this approach.
You can learn a lot about from this one wire sensors tutorial.
Answer: Another way to do this is with a series of actual shift registers (74HC595 or similar, daisy-chained.)
The shift register outputs drive a transistor. Each transistor has its collector connected to the temperature sensor, and the emitters are all collected into a single Arduino input. Depending on the number you shift into the shift register, you can pick any of the temperature sensors you want to query.

The LED in this simplified schematic actually represents the Arduino input pin. Shift a 2 into the register to query T1; 4 to query T2; 8 to query T3, and so on.
Answer: If you are using analog sensors, consider using the CD4051B analog multiplexer (link to data sheet). It's great for expanding analog I/O pins.

Is there a way to shift through sensors


Does it make a sense to create the reference questions for popular topics?

Question: There are topics which keep coming back in different forms such as normality testing of random variables. I thought maybe it makes sense to create a question with the best possible formulation, then put a few answers to it referring to good previous answers. This way we'd increase the probability that whoever is looking for an answer will find this Q&A in Google or SE search, and will be satisfied with a complete comprehensive answer. If someone missed the answer, then we'd know that there's this "best answer" to which we'd refer them.
Comment: What's the mechanism for deciding on "best"? In essence, Stack Exchange is not Wikipedia. There's no mechanism to create official or standard or canonical or best answers by design; the mechanism is just that anything aspiring to that status should receive many upvotes if it's really that good.
Comment: Good approximations to FAQs are possible by someone just writing a good question and then answering it really well. Others could contribute. Everyone, I suppose, approves of the idea, but in practice, this would be as much effort -- for topics such as stepwise selection, evils of, or normality testing, very limited benefit of -- as writing a paper for a journal. I guess that in practice those capable of doing this would rather write a paper for a journal. There aren't enough rewards in what is, for all of us, just one thing that we do on the side to justify the time and effort needed.
Comment: Your notion of an FAQ is proving rather elusive. Compiling a list of references to pertinent threads would indeed be easier than writing a definitive very high quality answer, but in my view it wouldn't deserve the tag FAQ.
Comment: @Nick Cox In fact the appropriate place for creating "lists of important pertinent threads" would presumably be on the tag-wiki entries, which is something the site doesn't take much advantage of and I'm sure the vast majority of readers never visit.
Comment: possible duplicate of [Common Issues and FAQs](http://meta.stats.stackexchange.com/questions/2004/common-issues-and-faqs)
Comment: I've voted this as a duplicate of a prior question, [Common Issues and FAQs](http://meta.stats.stackexchange.com/q/2004/1036). Prior discussion suggested creating a specific faq tag to accomplish this.
Comment: @NickCox, I was thinking that it must be easy to formulate a good question title, then alternative titles inside the body of the question, then in the answer link to all relevant prior answers. I didn't mean to write an entirely new perfect answer, that would take a lot of time. If one has time, then he could write little annotation to prior answers. From there on, this "best answer" would be the place all other answers would tend to collect.
Comment: @amoeba For comparison, look at e.g. the SO tag-wikis for [C++](http://stackoverflow.com/tags/c%2b%2b/info) which includes a list of top SO questions.
Comment: @Silverfish: Since a couple of weeks, I have been slowly reviewing all questions in one of the tags and am collecting a list of "important pertinent threads" along the way. With the current pace, it will probably take me a couple of months (I am trying to restrain myself in order not to get carried away spending all my time doing that). Once I am done, I will post the list on the meta and we can discuss what's the best place for it and if such an endeavor makes sense at all.
Comment: Thanks, @Silverfish. I see that the [c++-faq] has 130+ questions on SO, whereas the wiki lists only 9. So I guess these are like the super-faq. I guess the main question here is how broad the criterion for "important pertinent threads" should be. I guess though that it only makes sense to discuss with the specific examples, and that's why I think my list (once finished) is going to be a good starting point for such a discussion.
Answer:
..we'd increase the probability that whoever is looking for an answer will find this Q&A in Google or SE search, and will be satisfied with a complete comprehensive answer.

I guess the result of this idea would not work as expected. It indeed could increase the probability of such posts being found, but would that stop duplicate questions being asked?
My hypothesis is that users who are asking recurrent duplicates do not perform at least a minimum search before posting them.
One partial solution would be to edit the question's title (when it is confusing or disruptive) to reflect more accurately what the post is about. This post contains useful hints for writing SE titles (perhaps we could add something from it to our own faq question post).
Comment: *"To edit the question's title (when it is confusing or disruptive) to reflect more accurately what the post is about"* -- this is something that should **always** be done anyway!


TestNG with multiple datadriven

Question: My code structure logic is this:
I have to fill three sequential forms to add a entry in a list whose data is from Excel.  I need each form to have entries from different Excel sheet, i.e first form's data from first Excel sheet, second form's data from second sheet, and third from third sheet. How can I work this using simple logic on datadriven framework along with testNG annotations?
Answer: You can indicate the file names in the Data Provider
<code>@DataProvider(name = "formFillingData")
public static Object[][] formFillingData() {
   return new Object[][] {
      { "form1_1.xls", "form2_1.xls", "form3_1.xls" },
      { "form1_2.xls", "form2_2.xls", "form3_2.xls" },
   };
}
</code>
And in the test you can get each set of three files, feeding a factory that creates the objects which represent your data:
<code>@Test(dataProvider = "formFillingData", dataProviderClass = FormFillingData.class)
public void FormFillingTest(String form1, String form2, String form3) {
  FormData formData1 = DataFactory.createFormData(form1);
  fillFirstForm(formData1);
  FormData formData2 = DataFactory.createFormData(form2);
  fillSecondForm(formData2);
  FormData formData3 = DataFactory.createFormData(form3);
  fillThirdForm(formData3);

  addEntryInList();
}
</code>
This will run the @TestMethod for the first row on the data provider, after that the second row, and so on...
Comment: Thanks Joas Farias. Little confused with datadriven part. But I am using 3 different @Test . i.e : [(Test (1) for first form - whose data should be from first excel sheet , Test (2) for second form - whose data should be from second excel sheet and Test (3) for third form - whose data should be from third excel sheet)] only after completing these 3 form i can  add a entry in a list. So this process continues for second form submission with different set of data's from three excel sheets. Jus can u suggest me some simple way to crack this.
Comment: Any particular reason for having three @Test? I've edited the answer to show my understanding of what you've said.
Comment: I got it what you have - my edit is an alternative that uses only one test. Do you need three @Test necessarily?
Comment: I meant three different  Test annotations (for three forms) with priority . first TestMethod with first row of data set in sheet 1 , second TestMethod with first row of data set in sheet 2 , Third TestMethod with first row of data set in sheet 3 and to submit the first form.  Then again the test methods with second rows of data.
Comment: Ok - do you think the code above does follow what you described, beside the architectural fact that it has only one @Test?
Comment: Nope i dont think so
Comment: Could you comment on what seems to be missing?

TestNG with multiple datadriven


Effective action of IIB Calabi-Yau compactification

Question: I'm currently reading K. Becker, M. Becker and John. H. Schwartz  book on string theory. I have a question about Calabi-Yau compactifications of IIB string theory. In chapter 9 page 403, Why do we don't consider self-dual four-form with two fundamental index and two antifundamental index $C_{ij\bar k\bar l}$. It seems that these should leads to$\ h^{(2,2)}$ scalars in four dimensional world. What am I missing? Does self-duality play a role?
Answer: In 4-D, We only see one form gauge field and its corresponding 2-form field strength and of-course Scalars. The main reason is higher forms is dual to scalars in 4-D. Two form field has three form field strength which is dual to one form. So corresponding two form field is just scalars. This operation is done by Hodge star product [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hodge_star_operator].
Similar thing follows in higher dimensions. In 10-D, Type II-B theory, There exist 4-form field which has self-dual 5-form field strength. We want to compactify this form on the Calabi-Yau 3 folds which have 3 complex or 6 real dimensions.There is a theorem which is great interest to us.
"Given a massless p form gauge field in 10 D, we get $b_{p-q}$ massless q form gauge field in $D=4$. Here $b_{\alpha}$ are Betti's number for the manifold."
So for 4 form gauge field in 10 D, we will get

$b_{4}=h_{1,1}$ scalars
$b_{3}=2(1+h_{2,1})$ vectors but only half due to self duality.
$b_{2}=h_{1,1}$ tensors or two form field which is dual to scalars in $4-D$.
$b_{1}=0$ --3-form which is dual to 1-form.

We will get only the half no. of scalars because of self-duality in 10-D.
Comment: Dear Hare, thank you for reply, very clear,   I also found some hints in Polchinski's book, chapter 19. Because of the self-duality, scalars which come from $b_4 $ and $b_2$ are identical. I think that the four-form in the line no. 5 is not dynamical, because there is no field strength for it in four-dimensions and shouldn't be considered
Comment: Thanks, Ahmad. There is only 1 four form which is just volume form and is not dynamical.


What would a meteorite have to be made of so that the sun is obscured for millennia?

Question: I want to make my meteorite hit the Earth, after which the impact debris and ash blocks the sun just enough to make agriculture no longer feasible.
Comment: stop agriculture and a millenia are two very different things, which are you shooting for?
Answer: The rock that did them dinos only managed to block sunlight for way less time than that:

Recent computer simulations and atmospheric models indicate that within a few weeks to months temperatures and light levels would have begun to rebounded [sic] due to the release of heat stored in the oceans and the coagulation and fall of the dust and soot. The major effects of the dust and soot would last about 1 yr [sic] or less.

You could get more dust and soot by using a bigger rock, but I don't think the time the impact winter would last would scale linearly with thr asteroid size or mass. A big enough impactor might actually trigger another Hadean, so you'd be swapping a big problem for an impossibly bigger problem.
Even with just one year of impact winter, the dino killer caused so much collateral damage that another one would kill us all from the heat alone, and then there are the quakes, tsunamis, and kinect impact of the ejecta.
Your best bet for a permanent dark cover is manmade pollution or some biological process, not an asteroid or comet.
Answer: There is nothing that a meteorite could be made of that would do that.  But it's not necessary.  You see, all it really takes is for the cold to last long enough that the ice has time to significantly spread.  Once that happens with more and more of the world coloured white, more sunlight will be reflected back into space.  This increase in "albedo" will lead to an ice age.
Answer: Consider the famines of 526 to 539 AD as an example. In this instance, a combination of volcanic eruptions and possibly impacts by cometary fragments caused global diminishment of sunlight. Crops failed, and civilisations trembled.
In order for such an effect to last for millenia, I would suggest that it would need to be caused simply by larger impacts.
Unfortunately, it is exceedingly difficult to model global atmospheric conditions in such a scenario, so there is little evidence to go on. However, it is possible that impacts on the scale of chixulub might take millenia to fully recover.
This is especially the case in that most photosynthetic organisms on Earth would be killed by such an impact, with recovery beginning from seeds and underground roots and tubers. Human survivors would likely accelerate the process once agriculture becomes viable again by planting stored seed resources.
A suggestion I might make, is that perhaps the Earth is struck periodically by fragments of an object that are crossing the planet's orbit? If smaller impacts are occurring repeatedly on a yearly basis, they could perhaps maintain particulates in the atmosphere?
Comment: The problem with smaller impacts spread over time is the smoke from these impacts is not just fine dust, and as it plummets through the atmosphere it gets really hot. Current models have it that most lifeforms present on the last day of the Cretaceous died from the heat within hours. The impact winter only killed a minority of them.
Comment: Third page of [this PDF](http://uahost.uantwerpen.be/funmorph/raoul/macroevolutie/robertson2004.pdf), under **"A Short-Term Infrared Thermal Event"**: *"The worldwide, overhead, intense IR ther-
mal radiation was the first significant stress
after the Chicxulub impact (Melosh et al.,
1990). (...) This
first event was stressful enough to kill all in-
dividual nonmarine macroscopic organisms
except those protected in soils, underground,
under rocks, or in water, in dense aquatic veg-
etation, or as sequestered eggs, pupae, spores,
seeds, or roots."*
Comment: @Renan Do you have a source for that, I mean north america was pretty screwed but you still had a decent number of things survive.


How do you plan a sprint with disproportionate Devs/QA members ratio?

Question: How do we plan a sprint in which we have 5 developers constantly coding and only 1 QA to test the output?
Basically QA ends up to be the bottleneck in every sprint.
One option is hire more Was but until that is in place, what are strategies can we have in place?
(General agile principles say team members should be somehow interchangeable, however this is  not always possible.)
Comment: FWIW, team members don't have to be interchangeable. The goal is usually to have T-shaped (rather than I-shaped) people on the team so that they can collaborate and/or swarm more effectively.
Answer: Introduction: Focus on Right-Sizing Your WIP
A lot depends on your framework. As you simply tagged your question agile, it's almost impossible to give you a universal answer.
Nevertheless, controlling work-in-progress (WIP) will likely be key.
Kanban
In Kanban, you would typically reduce your WIP for other work states (e.g. development) in order to control the size of the queue waiting for QA. Queuing up large amounts of work in a pseudo-state like "dev complete" or "ready for QA" simply hides the problem, and Little's Law says that the arrival rate has a significant impact on how quickly items can be serviced or how long they remain enqueued.
Scrum
In Scrum, it's true that teams should be cross-functional. When they aren't, you end up with bottlenecks like the one you describe. However, in Scrum a backlog item is always either done or not-done. It can't be "partly done," so work that is developed but not tested—and more importantly, not fully complete per your Definition of Done—is simply incomplete at the end of the Sprint.
Because development and testing are (or should be) collaborative activities within an agile context, development work can't really be called done until it passes all regression tests, acceptance criteria, or refined to meet the objectives of the Sprint Goal. In such cases, the team should generally:

Build an automated, test-first approach into the workflow so that QA stops being the bottleneck.
Pitch in on QA tasks as needed, so that the team is focused on completing backlog items as they are developed, rather than simply keeping everyone busy or enqueuing work. NB: In Scrum, it's often better for the whole team to swarm over a backlog item or user story rather than queue up work.
Train the team members to be more cross-functional. This isn't a quickl solution, but it's usually the right one over the long term.
Hire more I-shaped people to perform testing. This doesn't really solve for the process problem you're describing, but it should address the specific resource constraint you've defined.

Other Considerations
Most agile frameworks focus on throughput rather than utilization. INVEST criteria, WIP limits, swarming, and small batch sizes are all simply techniques to help the team complete work per the Definition of Done rather than focusing on maximizing team-member utilization. This generally results in better incremental progress, even when management targets, delivery dates, or Sprint Goals aren't always reached.
In my professional experience, reliably getting N work items to "done" is often a better predictor of project success than getting X% of jobs to Y% complete (without actually being completely done). Engage the entire team on finding approaches to improve throughout and cycle time (in Kanban), or Sprint Goal completion percentages (for Scrum), and you will generally find greater success and more opportunities for continuous improvement.
Answer: You don't want idle workers, but above all you should not want idle work, it's idle work what actually gets translated as the cost of delay (see related blog post).
The few past months I was able to solve this same thing for a start-up company.
These are the steps I took:

Accept that the done ratio is the speed the whole process goes on the features to production ready, so your fastest is the speed of delivery of your bottleneck.
As per @ToddAJacobs said, limit your WIP. I would add limit it to what your process bottleneck can deliver. Let me highlight that I do not mean the QC individual but the part of the process instead (as you'll see explained on 3.). Don't plan for more than your bottleneck can handle. Get the QC to estimate how much can he ideally take and devs should only take as much as the QC will be able to deliver. That should leave you a lot of idle workers, but work stops accumulating until you figure out how to solve your problem.
Get your idle workers to work in bringing proposals and after, to actively take action on mitigating the issue while the budget is being reviewed. Some of the actions we reviewed and agreed on pursuing were:

Getting the team to improve their quality by pair programming, and other quality procedures. Less bugs means less work for the overloaded QC process (among other good side effects in code coherence and maintenance).
Teams working in automate their related part of the QA's work, and regressions. Work getting easier for the QA means more time to take for story sign off.


ArcGIS 10.2 Model Builder, getting results to 'add to display' when running as a model tool?

Question: I have a finished model that has been saved as a model tool in a custom toolbox. I add the toolbox to ArcToolbox, double click, set the parameters, and run just like any other tool. I have the model setup to add certain results to the map display. However, when running as a model tool and not in edit mode, the results will not add to the display. Is this a workspace environment issue?
Answer: Try making the output a parameter and then it should add it to the display when you run the tool from the toolbox.
Answer: The output datasets (green objects) have to be set as a parameter and uniquely renamed. In addition, the workspace in the model must match the workspace in the map document. In other words, same path to the same geodatabase. This will allow outputs to be generated in the ArcMap TOC upon completion of the model tool.


Do English and French share the same international phonetic symbol?

Question: [e] and [ε] are pronounced almost the same in English. But there is obvious difference between them in french , french [e] sounds like 'ay' in english 'bay', really close to the first English letter "A"—-[ei]. Why french [e] and english [e] are pronounced differently? Dont western languages share the same International Phonetic Alphabet ??  Or they share the same IPA but their pronounciation are different?
Answer: I'm a bit confused by these questions. [e] and [ε] are not pronounced almost the same in English.
hate /heɪt/
bet /bɛt/
It seems like you're referring to letters, not sounds. When you use brackets [], it's is supposed to be referring to sounds, not letters, so if the phonetic transcription is accurate, there shouldn't ideally be much difference between [e] in different languages. That's the whole purpose of IPS is to talk about sounds no what letters represent different sounds.
I may be misunderstanding your question, however. If you have the experience of french linguists using [e] and anglophone linguists using [e] and they ACTUALLY sound different, then I imagine this is either an error, or the result of some kind of academic siloing. It's quite hard to capture all sounds with symbols, and sometimes a language's sound is not quite "exact" for a specific IPA symbol. But they shouldn't be so different as to clearly represent different phonemes, especially one that there is already an IPA symbol for.
Comment: I can confirm that French linguists use [ɛ] for the same sound the English produce in *bet*.  When pronunciation differs for the same word  in different parts of the world (eg France & Quebec, just as UK & US or Aus. pronunciations might differ), then IPA transcription differs as well. We can listen and look at the word [*tête*](https://fr.wiktionary.org/wiki/t%C3%AAte#Prononciation) as an  example.
Comment: Indeed, it is not obvious that English has [e] at all, since the first vowel vocoid of "hate" is closer to [ɛ] than it is to [e]. French, OTOH, clearly does have [e].
Comment: @user6726 I'm not sure what regional accents you hear most often, but that's not how I hear it. I'm from the US. The issue with English (and probably other languages) though is that our mouth moves a lot during vowels. We have dip, trip and more thongs. The IPA is good at referring to "fixed" non-moving vowels, but not every language works like that. It's like looking a color spectrum and asking is it blue? The answer should be -- well, it's a spectrum, but it has blue in it.
Comment: @pixelearth, I suggest getting recordings of pairs like bet/bait and measuring formants 30 msc after release: then compare that to the Jones standard (or, French). I speak US west coast English.
Comment: Lots of people (especially if they're transcribing British English) use /e/ to represent the vowel in English "bet."
Answer: IPA is in principle international and universal. However, no phonetic transcription ever reflects all the phonetic niceties of any language. Instead, IPA aims to represent the most salient features of a given language; this is true of phonetic transcription and all the more so of phonological transcription. For example, French "tête" and English "tit" will both be transcribed with twice /t/ (in phonological transcription) and with twice [t] in phonetic transcription, although the sounds are very different in the two languages: French [t] is an unaspirated dental, while English [t] is an aspirated alveolar. But as there is no phonological distinction between dentals and alveolars in either of these languages this difference is generally ignored even in a relatively close phonetic transcription.


Is citing in an abstract required to avoid plagiarism?

Question: Is it considered plagiarism if in the abstract, only key authors of frameworks used were cited and other peripheral concepts mentioned in the abstract were not cited but were cited in the body of the study?
Answer: In the abstract, you want to inform the reader about the paper that you have written, you want to convince the reader that is it worthy of their time to actually read some of it. You should realize that for the bulk of the readers, the abstract is all that they will ever read of your paper and as such, the abstract should stand alone, it should be a self-contained story. Including references in an abstract will ask for an additional investment of time from the potential reader, which might chase them off.
Plagiarism in an abstract arises when you copy text from other sources and include it in the abstract itself. In such cases, you present work written by others as something that you have done yourself, which is clearly wrong.
Plagiarism of another nature could arise when you imply that previous results from others were actually performed by you. As the authors of the original work will have an interest in your paper, rest assured that they will be the first to send you a message (if it was not picked up in the peer review process) asking you why you presented yourself as the author of work that you did not do.
Some final thoughts:
- An abstract is supposed to be short, so there is no room for things that do not belong there (a thorough literature review is one of these things)
- Clarity and honesty are essential. If you do not copy from other people and if you are Always clear (beyond a reasonable doubt) in your descriptions of the sources of the material that you present, you should be fine
Comment: What about non citation (in abstract only) of a peripheral concept/term mentioned and related in the findings of the study? Should that still be cited in the abstract? If that is needed to be cited in the abstract, how should it be done since in the body of the study, that is a secondary citation? It was a secondary citation, so apparently, that was not the focus of the study.
Comment: What do you mean by a peripheral concept/term? As I mentioned, you do not have unlimited space in the abstract, so it should only contain key details. I would be surprised if anything is important enought to be included in the abstract, but not important enough to be put in the body of the manuscript. Again, it depends on what you mean by peripheral concept/term and why you think you would need to add a citation in the abstract
Comment: Okay, thank you so much for your answers. Things are getting a bit clearer now. I'm kind of a new kid here so I really like to clarify some blurry parts of what I'm doing.
Comment: An abstract should not contain anything that is not already in the paper (talk, poster). You can therefore cite the references in the paper (talk, poster) that the abstract belongs to.
Answer: I've worked on academic journals for 20+ years, and the vast majority (> 80%) don't allow citations in the abstract. Those that do require the entire reference (i.e., authors, title, journal, vol, pages) because the abstract has to be able to stand alone. If you cite "Smith et al." and the reader sees only the abstract, "Smith et al." has no meaning.
Regarding plagiarism, you don't need to cite specific works. Just use phrases like "in prior studies" or "researchers have reported XXX."
Comment: The point is: the reader can tell that you don't claim it is original with you.
Answer: That is not plagiarism. Only when you don't cite the relevant source materials at all, plagiarism comes into play.  Such materials ought to be cited next to the relevant concepts. You wouldn't have to cite the references every time you repeat the concept.
Having too many citations in the abstract is something to be generally avoided. As long as you cite those references next to the appropriate concepts in the body of the article, you won't be considered plagiarising content.
Comment: Another point of clarification: Can you even judge a work for plagiarism by just looking at the abstract?
Comment: I agree with the first sentence, and strongly disagree with the second as a general rule. (Plagiarism occurs when you mislead others into believing that something is your own original work when it isn't. Even if you cite the non-original work *somewhere*, if there are parts of your work where it isn't clear what's original and what isn't, you may be guilty of plagiarism.)
Comment: Thank you for the clarification, @ff524. I've made the necessary edit for clarity.


Why is the word "folks" pronounced [foʊks]?

Question: Why is the word folks sound like it's pronounced [foʊks] rather than [fɔɫks]? It's as though people are thinking it's spelled fokes.
Comment: This may be a regional variable. The "l" may still be pronounced at least to some degree in parts of the Anglosphere. There may also be some variation in the way the vowel is rendered.
Answer: This is the result of historical loss/vocalization of the sound /l/ in certain contexts. As Max Williams mentioned, we also see this loss in -alk words like walk, talk, chalk, balk, stalk. Some American English speakers have restored the /l/ in some of these words as well as some other words that traditionally have silent /l/ (like the -alm set). (I don't know if any speakers have retained the /l/ via continuous transmission from some accent that didn't have this sound change.)
The word yolk shows the same phenomenon.
The pronunciation of "olk" in non-Germanic words, and proper names is somewhat variable. The Oxford English Dictionary gives pronunciations with /l/ for "polka" in both British English and American English (although they usually have different vowel qualities), as well as an l-less pronunciation for American English speakers only.
Comment: Did we restore the /l/, or did some dialects just never stop pronouncing it? I don't know.
Comment: @PeterShor: Well, I don't know for sure either, but that is my impression. It at least seems like the use of /l/ in "alm" words has become more frequent recently in American English.
Comment: Yes, it's become more frequent. But a few people were pronouncing the /l/ 100 years ago. I don't know about 200 years ago.
Comment: Do Brits also pronounce the l in "polka dots"?
Comment: Yes, they generally do, @bof. On the other hand I have noticed that many Americans do not pronounce the 'l' in _solder_.
Comment: @ColinFine: There is a question about that one: [What is the correct pronunciation of the word "solder"?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/19990/)
Answer: The l is silent.  I don't think I've ever heard anyone pronounce the "l", anyway.  See also walk, talk, chalk, stalk, half, calf, could, should, would and probably many more.
As to "why do we have these silent letters?" - the language changes all the time, and pronunciation changes faster than spelling.  It's inconsistent.
Comment: Another pair like that is *palm* and *almond*, where some people have an [ɑɫ], some have [ɔɫ], and still others have just [ɔ].
Answer: For comparison, phonemically vault is /vɔlt/, wolf is /wʊlf/, and bolt is /bolt/, but how words like those actually get pronounced varies a great deal.
One thing that's common is for /l/ in the coda to becomes not merely [ɫ] but all the way to [w], which creates a phonetic (but not phonemic) diphthong. That's what's happening here.


Is it better to start the paper title with a verb?

Question: I heard one of my lecturers says that it is always better to start the paper title with a verb. According to the lecturer, the verb leave that impression about something has been accomplished. For example, use Design, develop etc. I tried to find any supportive resources about that but I could not. The other question, is it better to use verb-ing or not (e.g. Developing vs. Develop)? Most of references that speak about choosing title do not pay much attention to the syntax.
Comment: @tohecz Huh?  What's wrong with "Developing..."?  (About 40% of my publications have titles of the form _ing _.)
Comment: _Paving_ the way for _bridging_ the gap between _developing_ new _benchmarking_ methods for machine _learning_ and _addressing_ _engineering_ issues. I think I should be _sleeping_ now... anyway, gerunds are very common, not only because something "has been achieved" but because it's _being_ achieved, it gives a feeling of "present", which is always more interesting than the forgotten past and the never happening future.
Comment: Please no "developing". Try "development". "Design" is both a verb and a noun, so you're save.
Comment: [What tense should paper titles use?](http://academia.stackexchange.com/q/7791/746) has some good info about the use of gerunds (verbs).
Comment: I chuckled at the fact that someone edited the title of this question so that it starts with a verb.
Comment: I hope the answer to the title question is no, because a quick scan of my publication list shows that (unless I missed something while scanning) fewer than 1% of my publications (2 out of 203) have titles that begin with a verb. (Many others, though, begin with nouns or adjectives derived from verbs.)
Answer: I see two issues here. The one is the stylistic sense that some people have developed over their life and that is not necessarily always to be generalized. The other is the strictness of such "style advice".
For the first issue: Everybody develops some kind of preferences about stylistic things they like or dislike and things they believe to be (or have worked) better than others. This personal preference does not necessarily coincide with what is generally considered to be good style, which means it could be true in the special environment of this person but it could also be some anecdotal experience that has no broader foundation. Therefore I would be somewhat cautious to take such advice too strict when it comes from a single person and you cannot find it anywhere else.
For the second: Let's consider this rule exists (which I don't know and didn't check), you shouldn't take it as a strict "law". If you have a title that fulfils the rule and you feel good with it, then go for it. But don't try to twist your formulation just to meet this single criterion as the confusion that you create with it might outweigh the "beauty" that you win by starting the title with a verb.
TL;DR: Be careful with possibly subjective "style advice" and don't take style guides as strict "laws".
Answer: I am neither a native English speaker nor a language expert but here are my two cents. I recall hearing (more than once) that it's best to start strong. In other words, what you feel your paper is really about should be the first thing you express; if it is doing something that wasn't possible to do previously then a word expressing an action is a good call. Ex: "Refinement of XYZ process using awesome method A".
Otherwise if you are doing something in a different way then it might be good to point out what's new with your way of doing that particular thing; "Multispectral analysis of bioluminesce  in deep ocean habitats" (random made-up example).
In the first example you are "advertising" that you are refining XYZ process and that's the cool thing with your paper, whereas in the second example you are pointing out that you are analysing things in multiple light spectra.
In either way the first word isn't a verb, but could be a noun form of a verb; i.e. to refine -> refinement. The problem with using the "-ing" form is that it might give the idea of continuousness, which is out of place as the work is already done in most cases.
Hope that makes some sense :)
Answer: Writing a good title is perhaps the hardest part of authoring. Writing a good title is not so much a matter of style as a matter of good communication. Some key points I therefore try to follow for a title can be summarized as follows

predict and describe the content; recapitulate the conclusion
be succinct and comprise one or possibly two facts
include one active verb in present tense to form subject-active verb-objective
Avoid complicated wording and use no more than three modifiers for any noun

A pair of good sources on general science writing which includes formulation of titles:

Glasman-Deal, H., 2012. Science research writing for non-native speakers of English. Imperial College Press, London

and

Day, R.A. & Sakaduski, N., 2011. Scientific English. A guide for scientists and other professionals. Greenwood, Santa Barbara CA
Answer: Select your target journal.
Analyse the most recent 100 paper's titles in that journal. How many start with a verb? How many have colons? What are the median and mode number of words in a title?
Make your title follow the most common format.
That's the first-order effect: maximising the chance of getting published.
The second-order effect is maximising the chance of getting cited. So repeat the above analysis, for the 100 most cited papers from the last ten years, in your  target journal. Adjust citations for length of time lapsed since they were published.
Now try to combine these findings into a happy blend that maximises both your chance of getting published, and of being  cited.
Answer: What has not been mentioned in the above answers is that the nature of a title tends also to vary significantly between disciplines.
For instance, in the biological and medical sciences, the titles of journal articles tend to be summaries of the key findings of the paper:

Overexpression of Gene A Leads to Suppression of the X-Y Pathway in Organism Z under Type A Conditions

In effect, the title serves as a minimalist abstract of the paper.
In contrast to this, papers in the physical and mathematical sciences tend to have shorter titles that don't necessarily say much about the content of the article:

Technique X for Studying Y in Material Z

or

A Proof of Theorem X for Conditions Y

Titles in the humanities can be much more creative, and use wordplay, literary quotes, and allusions:

"Touches of Sweet Harmony": A Study of Organ Construction in Shakespeare's England

Now, your title need not fit into the specific norms of your field, but in that case, you better have a solid reason for doing so.
Answer: A lot of people are giving the exact opposite advice I would give. Most papers go un-cited! You absolutely don't want to be too conventional. If you want to analyze titles experimentally do the following

Get together with a bunch of postdocs, grad students and professors in your field.
Pick a popular journal in your field to analyze and a date range, at least 5 years older than the current date but not too old to be ridiculously obsolete.
Everyone choose 5 papers they remember being really important that received a lot of citations, 5 really important papers that received few citations and 5 middle of the road papers
Look at the titles. Is there something different about the highly cited papers' titles?
If the answer is yes consider going with that, if the answer is no, use your own style and creativity, and ignore most things (although you should follow some common sense).

This actually sounds like a fun party idea. Note the methods are probably really flawed since I just thought about this. Feel free to comment below on an improved experimental design.


Is it possible to build a pure internal NTP system?

Question: I have four machines running Ubuntu 14.04, one is a software router and the others connect to it. I installed NTP on each of them.
What I want is to synchronize clocks among these four machines, with the router acting as the NTP server and the other machines acting as NTP clients. For some reason, the router cannot access any external NTP servers. But I don't think that's a problem, because I only want to synchronize these four machines.
However, after some time, I found that it seems necessary to access an external NTP server.
Do I really need to access an external NTP server? Can I just somehow build a pure internal NTP system for these four machines?
Answer: You have a couple of options depending on your needs and budget. You are correct in that access to external NTP servers is best (if you don't have your own stratum 0 source) in fact NTP needs at least 3 hosts to work correctly.
I wouldn't let a router run the NTP service - I wouldn't like to say how accurate it might keep things free running. If you must use the router allow it to access an external good NTP server.
You could use one of the computers and allow them access to some external NTP severs.
Or you could get yourself a OEM GPS receiver and run your own stratum 0 time service internally without access to any external hosts.
If you can't do any of that then yes you could run a pure internal only time system but what would you reference the clocks against ? You could keep everything in check but it might be 10/20/100 min's out if left to its own devices.
The NTP Docs here give some useful reading.
If you want some specific config help please update your question with the ntp.conf files and the output from ntpq -pcrv


how mongo db does locking for updates/inserts?

Question: I have many data for each user that with write heavy and many for each separate users that there is not any relation between user's data; so there is two options for me to store them:
1. keep all user's data in one collection that is much easier, and
2. keep every user's data in a separate collection;
Now i need to know is a locking battle-neck for parallel writes in first option or not, while my updates/inserts are many but on one by one (there is no need to update/insert many (multi: true).
does mongo lock the whole collection for an updateOne/insertOne (multe: false) or only does it for updateMany/insertMany (multi: true) cases?
Answer: According the documentation MongoDB locks the database only when create an index in the foreground ( this option does not exists any more in MongoDB 4.2. ).
On the other hand the collection are never exclusively locks.
See more what locks are taken on MongoDB on What locks are taken by some common client operations?


Using new Microsoft account: do I lose all my apps?

Question: When I change a Microsoft account, on the new one, do I lose all the apps that I bought with the previous account?
Answer: Yes. Your purchases are tied to your Microsoft Account, so if you reset the phone, and set up with a different account, your purchased content/apps/etc. would be lost.
Comment: If you set a new phone up (or one that's been reset), your purchased content becomes available again (unless it has been removed from the store, for whatever reason)
Comment: what if then I reconnect with the first account, do I have the apps back (considering it is fully synchronized)?


Why was the "th" combination chosen for the "th" sound?

Question: Given that the two "th" sounds don't actually sound like a combination of "t" and "h" why was that particular combination selected or become adopted by the majority ?
Comment: @mpP01 Can you give an example? I don't get what you mean.
Comment: @Billaire: "Th" as in *the* or "those" Im asking not about the evolution of the sound but rather the mapping of the "sound" to the characters...
Comment: There are similar questions for CH, SH, etc.
Comment: Arabic has both English "th" sounds in two different letters in its alphabet. Coincidence?
Answer: The origin of 'th' really has nothing to do with the development of the English language.  It comes directly from the Roman alphabet.
From Wikipedia.:

The digraph ‹th› was introduced in Latin, which used it to transliterate the letter theta ‹Θ, θ› in loans from Greek. Theta was pronounced as an aspirated stop /tʰ/ in Classical and Koine Greek.

It is likely that this combination was chosen by an early scholar while translating Greek and this standard was then generally adopted.  The 'th' digraph can be found, for example, in the writing of Lucius Livius Andronicus (c. 280/260 BC – c. 200 BC).
According to the OED:

The Greek letter, which corresponds etymologically to Sanskrit ध dh (and so, by Grimm's Law, to Teutonic and English D), was in early inscriptions represented by TH, and was a true aspirate;
Comment: You say "it's likely that it was chosen by an early scholar", can you prove this?
Comment: @Alenanno: I am trying to find some evidence.  I know that the Romans translated Greek writings and therefore needed to create a digraph for theta.  Here is evidence of the 'th' in early Roman use: http://www.forumromanum.org/literature/livius_andronicus/trag.html#aegisthus
Comment: Essentially my argument is that spoken language developed en masse, in evolutionary mode, because everyone could speak.  OTOH early written language was the preserve of a select few.  Of course, while the empire flourished, many Romans were taught to read and write.  I hope someone with real classical knowledge can answer this question properly as I freely admit it is a lot of guesswork on my part.
Answer: Let me offer my personal speculation, for what it's worth of course.
But first, I need to introduce a fact well known to students of Old English but that probably needs to be mentioned here.

The vast majority of preserved Old English written documents come from Wessex.  King Alfred was the most prominent king of the House of Wessex but the whole period between the 6th Century and the Norman invasion is dominated culturally by the Kingdom of Wessex.
The dialect spoken in Wessex and Sussex was West Saxon whilst Mercian was spoken in Mercia, East Anglia and Essex (including in London), Northumbrian in Northumbria and Kentish in Kent.
After the Norman invasion, French was ubiquitous but Middle English gradually recovered from London.  That is, with a strong Mercian East Midland background.

Now to the point.
The initial English spelling of /θ/ was indeed th as in Latin.  My understanding is that the 'þ' (thorn) and 'ð' were introduced in Wessex where they replaced the initial 'th' inherited from Latin, whereas other kingdoms of the Heptarchy were probably immune to this trend (that's what needs more investigation).
Later when the evolution of English was driven from London, the use of 'th' came back into fashion, also probably under the growing influence of Latin (non Latin characters being probably considered less prestigious).
wikipedia has the following to say about 'th':

th: Represented /θ/ in the earliest texts
  but was soon replaced by ‹ð› and ‹þ›.
  For example, the word meaning
  "thought" was written ‹mōdgithanc› in
  a 6th century Northumbrian text, but
  later as ‹mōdgeþanc› in a 10th century
  West Saxon text.

and

þ: An alternate symbol called thorn used instead of ‹ð›. Represents
  /θ/ and its allophone [ð]. Together
  with ‹ð› it replaced the earlier ‹d›
  and ‹th›. First attested (in
  definitely dated materials) in the 8th
  century. Less common than ‹ð› before
  Alfred's time, from then onward ‹þ›
  was used increasingly more frequently
  than ‹ð› at the beginning of words
  while its occurrence at the end and in
  the middle of words was rare. Some
  modern editions attempt to regularise
  the variation between ‹þ› and ‹ð› by
  using only ‹þ›.

Important Edit
This update is intended to answer two similar questions (see comments below) which have raised the possibility
of the letter thorn (and others such as ðæt ‹ð› wynn ‹ƿ›) actually being originated "from the Norse or Saxons".
The Saxon origin is right, the Norse isn't.  Here is how things came to be.

In Roman Britain, texts were written using the Latin alphabet.
Which is fair enough since they were Latin texts.
This was also the time  when the Christian religion
first entered Britain because it had become the Late Roman empire's official religion.
Greek words including a theta (θ) were already transliterated in Latin using a 'th' digraph.
When the Saxons invaded England, they came not only with their language but also with the alphabet that was used to put it in writing: the runes.  The runic
alphabet included such letters as the thorn ᚦ and the wynn ᚹ. It was an alphabet remotely inspired by the Greek alphabet probably passed on by the Etruscan with whom the Saxons were trading.  Only very few inscriptions of Old English
in Runic alphabet have come down to us.
These Saxons were pagans and the Catholic church undertook to Christianise them.  As a result of this effort, Latin made its come back in England together with the Latin alphabet.  The texts were mostly Latin but some included Saxon words
transliterated in Latin .  However there was no character for the English th sound
in the Latin alphabet and two different characters were borrowed:
the ðæt (ð) because this
is how the Irish monks had already
solved the problem (Ireland had not been invaded by the Saxons and it had never
ceased to be catholic, had always used the Latin alphabet and some of its monks
were enrolled along with the ones who had
sailed over from Rome to Christianise the heathens).
Since the th was similar to a d, it was noted as a d with a
cross-stroke added cutting its top ascender (a common habit also used for other letters).
the thorn (þ), because that
was how it was noted by the Saxons themselves using the Runic alphabet.
So that these two letters gradually came to be used interchangeably
in Old English to note the th sound.  Even in the same sentence
you could find the same word using either one or the other.
In a few decades, the Vikings had managed to kill a significant proportion of
the Latin speakers in Britain and only Wessex had been spared thanks to King
Ælfred's mix of stength, luck and diplomatic abilities.
Having secured his kingdom, and now waiting for the Danelaw to fall ripe,
this very able king nearly single-handedly managed to rekindle the once vigorous
English cultural life.  With one change though: for want of Latin scholars, the
majority of texts were now written in Ænglisc (which we now term Old English).
Quite naturally the runic thorn and wynn along with the Irish eth and a few
other exotic 'letters' were used to write this nascent English literature.
That is, until an arrow landed in Harold Godwinson's eye.
There are however more than a single reason why all the non standard
Latin letters fell out of use.
Sure the Anglo-Norman scribes had not learned these letters and were
reluctant to use them. But they were only writing French anyway.
Mercian London rather than Wessex Winchester was now the beacon of cultural
and economical life.
Latin was not just the ecclesiastical language any more but also the scholarship
language.
In fact it took more than 200 years for the th digraph to regain
popularity after the Norman conquest.

Here is a last citation from wikipedia
regarding this part of the story:
The modern digraph th began to grow in popularity during the 14th century; at the same time, the shape of thorn grew less distinctive, with the letter losing its ascender (becoming similar in appearance to the old wynn (Ƿ, ƿ), which had fallen out of use by 1300) and, in some hands, such as that of the scribe of the unique mid-15th century manuscript of The Boke of Margery Kempe, ultimately becoming indistinguishable from the letter Y. By this stage th was predominant, however, and the usage of thorn was largely restricted to certain common words and abbreviations. In William Caxton's pioneering printed English, it is rare except in an abbreviated the, written with a thorn and a superscript E
Now why one might be under the impression that the thorn came from Norse is that
it was used in Old Norse around the same time as Old English and survives
till today in Icelandic.  It is supposed that the thorn in the Icelandic alphabet
is also from Runic origin.
influence alone can not be held responsible for the gradual fall out
of use of the
Comment: Good answer. I was hoping someone would bring up the thorn. On a related note, when you see comical signs like "Ye olde booke shoppe" it should be noted that nobody in Colonial times said "ye" for "the," rather the y is a representation of the thorn.
Comment: I was under the impression thorn was taken from the Norse or Saxons which would make Wessex the wrong place as some sort of initiator in the adoption process. Why didnt some other king from a more appropriate part of England introduce thorn and then th ?
Comment: I second mP01's question on this. I'd be interested to know why it started in Wessex.
Comment: @mP01 and @Marcin. I've added a detailed appendix to my original answer to clarify the use of the thorn in Wessex and its replacement by the *th* digraph.
Answer: The "TH" being pronounced as an interdental fricative is called digraph, which is a "pair of characters used to write a single phoneme" (a single sound, said in plain words).
EDIT: @z7sg and @mP01; I found the historical course of this sound/letter:

The first one was Greek which had θ (Theta) that had it pronounced as a T (a stop). Many languages, Latin included, used "TH" to write the θ for words loaned from Greek, but since /tʰ/ and /θ/ were not native phonemes in Latin, ‹th› came to be pronounced /t/; so did the other languages (German, etc). Plus, the "th" was preserved.
Later, when Greek changed the θ letter sound from /tʰ/ to /θ/, all the languages that took loan words, changed the sound accordingly which was already written as "th".

Source
Comment: The only modern languages that pronounce "th" as /θ/ are the ones that already have the phoneme /θ/. Looking at [Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voiceless_dental_fricative), the main languages written in the Latin alphabet with this phoneme seem to be English, Welsh, and Albanian.
Comment: @tchrist: Oops. I was correcting the statement "all the languages which did take loan words changed the sound accordingly". I did forget about Spanish. /θ/ is spelled 'th' in English, Welsh, and Albanian; /ð/ is spelled 'th' in English, 'dd' in Welsh, and 'dh' in Albanian. Since most European languages don't have the phoneme /θ/, I would imagine most speakers don't pronounce it even in loan words (many of them can't pronounce 'th' even when speaking English). I don't know what Castilian Spanish speakers do with loan words containing 'th', but I suspect they pronounce them correctly.
Comment: How does this fit in with the use of letters *thorn* and *eth* in English, and their being transcribed as "th" in modern English?
Comment: @PeterShor That is a bit confusing. First, you missed an important language. But second, Welsh does use *th* as an unvoiced /θ/, but it uses *dd* for the voiced /ð/; the thing is, *dd* devoices in certain contexts, so that means it winds up being /θ/ there. The first point, though, is that Spanish has a /θ/ phoneme; it just does not spell it *th*.  It spells it *z* (the name of the letter is homophonic with *theta*) except if an *e* or an *i* follow, in which case it spells the /θ/ with a *c*. Spanish also has /ð/, but it spells it *d*. So these sounds exist; they just are spelled differently.
Answer: It's a question of how printing began in Britain.  In written script even late in the middle ages thorn þ (usually) or eth ð was used; "th" was found bot wasn't the most common.
But printing started on the continent and the first English printers bought their typefaces from there.  Since the 'th' pronunciation was rare on the continent (and not seen in Latin which a great many books were written in), there were no typefaces for thorn þ or eth ð, and English printers were forced to use "th".  Since printing produced vastly greater numbers of books and documents than scribes could, the "th" spelling became the most common and replaced the old letters.
"Ye" as in "Ye olde shoppe" came about due to misunderstanding old manuscripts hands which, written quickly often didn't close up the top of thorn so that þ often looked like Y.
Comment: Source for the *ye* origin?  Some chap called Ian has a [different theory](http://www.ianvisits.co.uk/blog/2011/01/08/the-origin-of-ye-in-ye-olde-shoppe/).
Comment: @z7sg: "Well, it looks like a 'y'" isn't that different a theory.  On the other hand it's almost certainly why yogh became translitered as 'z' :-)
Answer: Far too many manuscripts from ancient Roman times are lost to know for sure who chose TH to represent θ and why. It wasn't the /θ/ sound we think of now, though.
The reason it was used in the first place was that after the Norman conquest, French became the primary language of the literate, and "th" was the closest that French had to the sound. Nowadays, "t" and "th" are the same in French, but a thousand years ago it was still a somewhat different sound and could maybe substitute if you didn't mind sounding foreign. So that was the natural choice to transcribe our words their way, even if it wasn't /θ/, without resorting to weird pagan runes.
In other words, it was because the first scribe decided to do it that way, everyone else followed the same pattern, and it wasn't important enough to ever bother changing.
It won out over the thorn "þ" (later simplified to "y") in Elizabethan times largely due to French being the refined language of the nobility and upper classes, so it was kind of inevitable that it would percolate down to the lower classes, especially when the upper classes drove most of the printing that was unifying English around the country. The "French" commonly spoken in England was more of a branch from medieval French mixed with some Parisian, becoming its own distantly related creole before merging entirely into English, but it was still seen as superior to English long after it was essentially dead. (This is now called Anglo-Norman French, and later Law French. Many current legal terms come from this offshoot of French.)
This is the same reason we have silly grammar myths like "no split infinitives" -- they just can't exist in French, so they obviously shouldn't in English. The whys were slowly forgotten, but the rules persisted.
You can still see thorn as "y" in early American colony documents, but by the revolution it had completely disappeared. The Francophilia of many upper class Americans certainly helped there, too.
Comment: https://archive.org/stream/tablessynoptique00bert#page/12/mode/1up - eth disappears around 1100 AD in Old French.
AC Gibson, An Introduction to the Pronunciation of English 1980: Present English /θ/ derives from initial and final (including morpheme final) Old English [θ] (think, throat, bath, tooth, earthly, worthless), from Old French [ð] (faith)
Answer: TL;DR: it's more or less a convention (going way back) that an "h" changes the preceding consonant from a plosive into a corresponding fricative.
I.e. you simply loosen up your lips and get "f" (ph) instead of "p," and "th" instead of "t."
Having "th" stand for both "th" and "dh," in my humble opinion, is a historical mishap.


What does the pressure term in Bernoulli's equation signify?

Question: Consider the Bernoulli equation of fluid dynamics. One of the terms is $p$. I know it is pressure. But what type of pressure is it? Is it pressure due to height or a completely different concept?
Comment: Hi, I would suggest making your question more closed by including the formula in the question. This can be done by enclosing the equation in double dollar-signs.
Comment: Suppose you use a traditional mercury barometer: you have a glass tube in a U shape which is closed on one end, you fill it from the closed end with mercury and then carefully turn it over so that the mercury on the closed end draws a vacuum which pulls it upwards, so that it remains many millimeters above the line of mercury on the open end.

This thing measures pressure. Does it only measure pressure "due to height"?
Comment: So you know what pressure is, but you're asking specifically how to interpret pressure in the context of Bernoulli's equation?
Comment: Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/142734/25301
Answer: The Bernoulli equation is normally stated as:
$P_1 + 1/2 \rho v_1^2 + \rho g h_1 = P_2 + 1/2 \rho v_2^2 + \rho g h_2$
Obviously, there is a pressure term on both sides of the equal sign.  In addition to that, the equation must be dimensionally consistent, so each term in the Bernoulli equation must have the same dimensions.
To discern what pressure means in this equation, it is convenient to work with one of the "non pressure" terms.  Thus, the term $\rho g h$ can be manipulated as follows, to illustrate an alternative view of what the pressure term actually represents.
$\rho g h = (m/V) g h$
$\rho g h = (mgh/V)$
Since $mgh$ is equal to gravitational potential energy, it is readily seen that each term in the Bernoulli equation is equivalent to energy per unit volume, including the pressure term.
Regarding what type of term pressure is, consider a pipe with fluid flowing through it.  The inlet pressure is $P_1$ and the outlet pressure is $P_2$.  Since the fluid flow involves a velocity, and velocity is associated with kinetic energy, there is a term for this, which is the $1/2 \rho v^2$ term.  Finally, there is usually a change in height associated with any piping system, so a term is needed in the Bernoulli equation to account for changes in gravitational potential energy, which is what the $\rho g h$ term accounts for.  Thus, the Bernoulli equation is actually an energy balance for fluid flow.
Answer: Pressure is a force per unit area, how it is generated may or may not be relevant.
I would prefer an elephant to stand on my foot than a lady with a stiletto heel...
Comment: This is very brief. The first sentence is ambiguous, and the second sentence doesn't seem very relevant or helpful.


If energy can neither be created nor be destroyed,what is the ultimate source of energy?

Question: We usually say that the ultimate source of energy for earth is the Sun. So this means that sun creates energy but according to the law of the conservation of energy energy can neither be created nor destroyed, so how does the energy come into the sun? That is just an example. We know that energy is transformed from one form to another but is not created and destroyed. But that is confusing because there must be an ultimate source of energy. How is  energy created in this source? If it is related to the atomic level, then how can atoms possess energy? Is the law of the conservation of energy untrue?
Comment: "We usually say that the ultimate source of energy for earth is the Sun." The sun emits energy from itself to us. It's a source in the sense that it delivers energy to Earth, but that's just a transfer. The sun is not a source in the sense of creating energy. There is nuclear fusion in the sun which converts mass energy to electromagnetic and other types of energy, but as you say, that's a conversion, not creation.
Comment: and what about dark energy ? it is an ad hoc energy in many models.
Answer:
We usually say that the ultimate source of energy for earth is the Sun. So this means that sun creates energy but according to the law of the conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed, so how does the energy come into the sun?

The ultimate source of energy in our present universe is the Big Bang. Here is a history of the universe from the interpretation of astrophysical data.

All the energy was created at the beginning of time as we know it, and as the universe expanded various stages of particulate matter appeared, created from that energy. By the time of the Modern Universe at the right of the figure, the energy was apportioned either into mass (nuclear energy is there), or kinetic energy or chemical energy in lumps of matter, or radiant energy. The masses are organized into galaxies and stars within them. The sun is one of those stars and got the energy from the primordial Big Bang.

That is just an example. We know that energy is transformed from one form to another but is not created and destroyed. But that is confusing because there must be an ultimate source of energy.

Astrophysicists have observed and documented the appearance of this energy that is presently locked into nuclear energy and chemical energy, at the beginning of the universe as we know it.

How is energy created in this source?

How all that energy appeared around time=zero is a matter of theoretical speculations.
The fact is that we have a model where once the energy appeared at the beginning of the universe we can explain the whole progress to our present day energy sources.
Comment: I agree with this answer, but there is also the energy due to Hubble expansion which can not be simply related to the big bang. The caveat being that the energy increase in the universe caused by the Hubble expansion seems to not have any effect at the local level, to the best of my knowledge...
Comment: Hubble expansion *is* the Big Bang.
Answer: Matter possesses energy from Einstein's equation $E = mc^2$. This equation describes how matter is a form of energy as well, and can be converted from one form to the other. This is exactly how the sun is power, in a process called Nuclear Fusion. With this idea in mind, check this hypothesis out, called Zero-Energy Hypothesis which simply says that matter is a positive form of energy, and gravity is a negative form of energy, effectively one cancelling the other out to give a total of 0. This is just speculation though. We don't currently have the answer to this question, but at least now hopefully you will understand how a matter body like the sun can produce energy. The sun, in its lifetime has turned 7% of its matter into energy. Some extreme sources of energy could include:
Blue supergiant stars - essentially an extremely powerful sun
Supernovas - an instant release of more energy than the sun in its lifetime
Quasars (and blasars) - supermassive blackholes that fire jets of high energy gamma rays from the north and south poles
Answer: Conceptually, the 'source' of energy could be the quantum foam underlying four-dimensional spacetime.
Consider Hawking Radiation, which is the net emission from a black hole consisting of un-annihilated quantum particles. These particles spontaneously 'pop' into existence from the quantum foam everywhere as pairs but then annihilate with each other virtually instantaneously - except at the event horizon of a black hole, where one falls into the singularity and the other escapes.
This yields a net output of energy apparently 'created' from nothing - but in fact the net energy change in the universe is zero, as the particle that falls into the black hole is essentially an 'anti-particle' which decreases the energy in the black hole, and thus balances the equation.
On the universal scale, energy as we perceive it is simply the localised difference between two positive energy levels (one we consider the baseline against which we are comparing the other).
However, entropy draws the universe to the lowest balanced energy state, which is of course zero. There are localised agglomerations of un-annihilated particle clusters which have combined to form net energy values which have not yet existed long enough to be reduced to nothing. We call these agglomerations 'quarks', 'atoms', 'molecules', 'gas', 'dust', 'stars', 'planets', 'flowers', 'people', and 'mice'.
The mice, of course, actually run the whole show.
Answer: Energy is time.
In order to provide you with a simplified concept: Energy is what is remaining conserved when time goes by. Any effect has a cause, and any energy state corresponds to a former energy state of the same quantity. Energy conservation means that energy at the end of time will be the same as in the very beginning. And the question: "what was before energy?" turns out into: "what was before time?"
Comment: Energy IS time? They are obviously connected via Noether, but I really don't see how you can justify saying that energy is equivalent to time... Certainly no more than momentum is position... They are conjugate variables.
Comment: This doesn't answer why the value of the energy of the universe is $X$ rather than $Y$.  If the total energy of the universe is anything other than zero (though I guess you can always add a constant, so this may just be a non-sequitir), I think it's completely valid to ask why it is what it is.
Comment: Interesting - it's not the answer, but gives a good perspective to understand why it's hard to answer.
Answer: When we talk about energy, we implicitly mean ability to do work. We have a hierarchy of energy, according to how well it can be harnessed to do this. And we find this is related to entropy, how ordered the states of a given amount of matter-energy is. While the energy of the universe is considered to be broadly constant, with some exceptions related to it's expansion, entropy is always increasing. This has been linked in the 'axiom of purification' to the increased mixing of quantum states https://plus.maths.org/content/purifying-physics-quest-explain-why-quantum-exists
Entropy is responsible for the arrow of time, the fact that macroscopic  events are irreversible, despite all quantum events being reversible - only general relativity integrates time, quantum field theory and the standard model do not. The main attempt to unify these, string theory, posits additional dimensions to general relativities 4, but that are 'rolled up' and only manifest at very small scales and high energies, for instance in the big bang and when black holes collide https://phys.org/news/2014-12-universe-dimensions.html Time could be the orientation of a manifold or brane in a larger space, possibly colliding with another.


Kernel: "Previous shutdown cause: -62"

Question: I have a late 2013 27" iMac running  Yosemite, and it randomly shuts off every now and then. I tried everything Reset SMC. Diagnostics, reformat Macintosh HD but still occurs and running out of options.
Comment: Can you look at what the console says before a shutdown and paste it into the question or pastebin and incl. a link? Would help greatly
Answer: If this is new behavior, blame it on Yosemite, file a report, and update whenever available. I'm on Beta 3 or 4, and am just now occasionally logged out at random. Earlier glitches have been fixed, as will this one.
Answer: In general shutdown cause -62 means:

Watchdog timer detected unresponsive application, restarting the system.

So you're advised to troubleshoot your system for any stuck application, startup item and any loading preferences. So try to clean up your system, or reinstalling macOS also may help.
Related: Are OS X shutdown cause and sleep cause numbers listed/explained anywhere?
Answer: Remove externals for now and do a Safe Boot. See Apple Support page on Kernel Panics for more info, procedures.

Kernel: "Previous shutdown cause: -62"


how to Identify a link as an RSS Feeds link using ROME?

Question: I am using ROME library for parsing feeds. I want to know how can I identify a link as an XML link or a normal link. Is there a support for this in ROME.
Answer: It sounds like you are saying that you will be getting a bunch of links from somewhere (RSS feed content or something).  Then you want to go through them and determine if they are RSS/Atom feeds or if they are regular HTML pages.
You could probably attempt to fetch it with Rome and then see if it throws an exception.  A better option might be to pull in the document at the end of each link and see what the header says it is.
Keep in mind that retrieving each link is may run into a problem if someone links to a very large file.
You might look at using the HEAD command to find out what type of file you are going to get at the end of a link before downloading the entire thing.


Keyframe between frames

Question: How do I set a key frame between 2 frames? The reason I want to do this is because I want to render in different frame rates without needing to change every time and some objects start and stop between frames. Do I have to scale everything up by increasing the frame distance between key frames, change the output framerate scaling and finding the lowest common denominator?
Comment: If you use *Time Remapping* then I don't think you'll  have possibility to control animation in between old frames; values in new ones will be created as fractions of original values. Either changing some parameters of animation or scaling frames should work
Answer: I don't think that's possible.
What you can do, however, is scale your entire animation to create more frames in between the existing ones.
Enter the graph view and move the time cursor to 0. Then select everything and press . (to scale relative to the cursor) followed by S X 2 to scale by a factor of 2 in the X direction (i.e., along the time axis).
You can then adjust the project's frame rate, modify the frame steps (in this case double it) and etc. to get it playing at the right speed.
Comment: And also finding the common denominator... Awwww.

Keyframe between frames


What happens to switch with 1 Gbps downlinks and 10 Gbps uplink in case of 10 Gbps attack?

Question: What would happen if you have an access layer switch with a 10 Gbps uplink and 1 Gbps downlinks and 1 machine (behind one of the 1 Gbps ports) would be attacked by a 10 Gbps UDP flood type attack? Will the switch accept the whole 10 Gbps of traffic and pass only 1 Gbps to the downlink and have its uplink saturated or only let 1 Gbps pass through, so that the uplink isn't congested (10% used)? I'm trying to find out what would happen in case a 10 Gbps network attack targets one machine connected at 1 Gbps to a switch having a 10 Gbps uplink. Thanks.
Comment: Did any answer help you? if so, you should accept the answer so that the question doesn't keep popping up forever, looking for an answer. Alternatively, you could provide and accept your own answer.
Answer: In a typical scenario, the switch has no way to tell the upstream device to stop sending it so much. So it will receive 10Gbps from upstream. Obviously it can only send 1Gbps downstream. So it will send 1Gbps downstream. Of the remaining 9Gbps, a few packets will probably be buffered and the rest will be dropped by the switch.
Answer: The switch will accept up to the interface speed from an interface*. Switches have very tiny buffers. With 10 Gbps of traffic going to a 1 Gbps interface, 90% of the traffic will be dropped at the 1 Gbps interface.

*There are cases where this may not be possible. For example, a switch with an ASIC that serves an interface, but the ASIC can't handle the full traffic.


Why is Pride's name different from the word "pride"?

Question: When watching FMA Brotherhood, when van Hohenheim is talking to Pride, he refers to him as "プライド (Puraido) when he is talking to him by name, but when he is listing the seven deadly sins, he uses the term "傲慢", which is pronounced "ごうまん" (gouman). Is there any indication of why the character name is different from the term itself? This is probably true for all seven of the Homunculi, but I only noticed it specifically for Pride.
Answer: This is a simple "English is cooler"
As all the homunculi are named with the english seven deadly sins, their names are the hiragana/katagana representation to the english vocalization.
but when referring to the sin itself the correct translation ("傲慢") is used, as it is not a name (that also has to sound cool), but the thing itself.
I verified this is true to the other homunculi too, though not for "Father"
Comment: They do call father "Otou-sama" which is Japanese for "Father".
Comment: @MadaraUchiha glad i wrote "almost", btw. how does he refer to himself?? surely not as the dwarf in the flask...
Comment: @MadaraUchiha "otto" is Japanese for husband. "otou" is Japanese for father.