What is the optimal horn shape for efficient heat radiation while still being effective at protecting the skull in headbutts?

Question: To preface, my creatures have 4 horns, and they behave very similar to rams (at least ancestrally) in that they headbutt to resolve conflict/create dominance hierarchies. Two smaller horns are above their brows, and the other two larger ones are placed on the back of the head. I assume the best arrangement would involve increased surface area in the form of curling and ridged horns, but horns that still form a cage around the head, like dual ram horns.
Answer: Curling the horns won't help any more then having straight horns would. The horn would still need to radiate from the base of the horn to the tips (via the horn) and curling them would reduce the airflow inside the curl as there is less space for it to travel. So Straight horns would help you radiate more heat, because you could essentially wave them around to increase airflow and the amount of heat you remove (like fanning yourself).
Essentially, as long as your horn remains a single solid round horn, the shape won't help much in reducing the heat. Instead, you want thicker or flatter horns which would increase the surface area more compared to the most efficient surface to area shape of a circle. This of course, would weaken the horns in certain directions as the forces wouldn't be uniformly distributed across the shape.
However, in terms of radiation, Horns aren't going to help much. They won't contain as many sensitive blood vessels to help distribute heat as skin would and their constant battering would damage any delicate blood vessels in them. Having smaller horns would be more beneficial as it would increase the surface area of your skin which would let you radiate more heat.
Aka, your Horns ( or our hairs ) are going to be better at insulating than radiating away heat.
Comment: @Tardigreat Basically Horns do not help them lose or retain a significant amount of heat. Body hair has a far greater impact so the shape of your horns shouldn't be designed to be optimal for heat radiation. They should be optimal for bashing into other horns. Think of it like Finger or Toe nails. They might lose a bit of heat, but the rest of the skin on your finger is far more important in that aspect.
Comment: Yet mountain goats that live in very cold climates have small, straight horns. If big, curly horns helped with heat retention, why would mountain goats evolve this way and an animal like an impala (that lives in hot climates) have exactly the opposite type of horn? Not trying to insult you at all, I legitimately don't understand.
Comment: Perhaps not significant in some animals, but I've heard that goats rely at least somewhat on their horns for shedding heat; their horns feel noticeably warm to the touch and when goats are disbudded they are reported to have issues with heat regulation.
Comment: Besides that, I'd like to have the horns be at least ancestrally useful in fighting and retrofitted for thermoregulation, as my animal is large brained and would benefit greatly from heat radiators on the head. (Noting as well that this animal does not have mammalian ears nor any fleshy part of their face other than their lips and a turkey like  'snood' to fulfill this purpose)
Comment: @Tardigreat Being Warm to touch at room temperature indicates it is a poor heat regulator. The Material likely is a bad thermal conductor because it isn't transferring the heat around. Compare this with metals which will feel cold to touch at room temperature, because they are great heat conductors.
Answer: You want antlers.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antler

Antlers are specific to the deer family.  Unlike horns, antlers are bone and so have blood flow thru them.  This will allow heat transfer up from the body.  Antlers also occur in ramified, spatulate shapes (like the Irish elk antlers depicted) with large surface areas to emit heat.  Of course antlers are also weapons and used in heat butting contests against conspecifics, as well as to deter predators.
Comment: @Tardigreat - do not deter bruising.  This is fighting!  If you are worried about getting bruised you should stick to composing love poems.  If you fight and hit hard enough to break off a vascularized antler spike it will hurt and it will bleed and then it will stop.  That does not mean you have lost the fight.
Comment: Isn't that only during the velvet/growing stages of the antler. Once that stage is over and you have your traditional antler, it is effectively the same thing as a horn. It even falls off once the season is over.
Comment: What could you do to deter bruising during intraspecific fighting if the horns have a large supply of blood in them? I'm sure there is a way to have a happy middle between not damaging the blood vessels in regular collisions and still being able to radiate a sizable amount of heat.
Answer: Different body functions are usually handled by different organs or structures. Heat radiation requires large surfaces, while horns and other weaponry requires strength and the ability to concentrate or dissipate force (concentrate for damage, dissipate for protection).
Elephants, for example, have large ears for heat dissipation and separate tusks for use as weapons Stegosaurus had heat dissipating fins on the back and protected itself using spikes on the tail

Reconstruction of two Stegosaurus species
So the creature is most likely going to evolve a separate structure for dealing with heat, either external radiator surfaces or possibly some sort of internal mechanism like the air spaces in birds to radiate and dump heat into. A more exotic alien biology might have evolved something like a heat sink, requiring the creature to retire to a safe place after exertion to allow heat to flow out of the heat sink organ, or perhaps might carry some sort of expendable coolant, drinking a large amount of water prior to exertion and ejecting the hot water afterwards (sweating is not an exact analogy of how humans do this, but it is possible to amplify the idea, perhaps the creature spits or urinates the hot fluid).
Look at how this is done in nature for ideas.


Why does wikipedia say port forwarding is an application of NAT

Question:
From https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Port_forwarding

In computer networking, port forwarding or port mapping is an
  application of network address translation (NAT) that redirects a
  communication request from one address and port number combination to
  another while the packets are traversing a network gateway, such as a
  router or firewall.

I think that network address translation (what a NAT device does)
isn't   necessarily involved in port forwarding (e.g SSH port
forwarding), by their definitions.   So   why does wikipedia say
port forwarding is an application of NAT? Can you explain from their
definitions?
Is it correct that what is said for "port forwarding" in a
commercial router (commercial in the sense of including NAT) so that a computer outside a LAN can access a
service inside the LAN isn't actually "port forwarding", but NAT?
Answer: Without NAT, port forwarding doesn't exist. Port forwarding is a function of NAT that allows traffic addressed to the outside interface, on a particular port, to be forwarded to a host on the inside network.
For instance, if I have a web server on an inside network with private addressing, and I would like to let people on the public Internet use the web server, I would need to set up port forwarding on the NAT router to let the public use the public, outside address to get to the private, inside address of the web server.
NAT translates an inside address to an outside address. Traffic destined for an inside private address cannot be routed on the internet. The public, outside address belongs to the NAT router. In the example above, traffic sent to the outside, public address of the router on port 80 (HTTP) would be dropped by the NAT router since it is not running a web server. When you configure port forwarding on the NAT router, then it knows to forward that traffic to a particular private, inside address.
Answer: I think this is a case of the same pair of words being used for two different things in two different contexts.
"port forwarding" in the context of NAT routers is a rule added to the NAT implementation such that incoming connections on a given external IP and port are mapped to a given internal IP and port (often but not always external and internal ports are the same).
"port forwarding" in the context of ssh is a system that forwards application-data from a TCP connection on the client side to a TCP connection on the server side over the ssh connection.
Unfortunately rather than making a clear distinction between the two meanings the wikipedia article you linked to confusingly mixes them up.


How can I identify a zero beta portfolio?

Question: Suppose that there is no risk free asset whatsoever. In addition I have a market portfolio which consists of 4 stocks. How can I identify a zero beta portfolio? Shouldn't it actually have  expected return which is equivalent to the risk free asset? I am a bit confused.
Answer: Suppose you construct a portfolio $P$ using the 4 stocks with some weights $w_1$, $w_2$, $w_3$ and  $w_4$. Then :

Compute your portfolio's PnL:  $P(t)$,
Regress $P(t)$ on $M(t)$ (where $M(t)$ is the market return) on a specified time-horizon that you must choose. You obtain a coefficient $b$.
Then consider the new portfolio $P'$ defined as $P'(t)=P(t)-bM(t)$.

$P'$ is then a zero-beta portfolio. However you must frequently compute the regression to adjust the coefficient $b$.
Answer: There is a graphical method of solving this problem. Any portfolio say P, Q, M has a counterpart on the frontier that has zero covariance with it (with one exception).
From the given portfolio say M draw a tangent to the frontier that intersects the y axis at a point $R_M$. This point plays a role similar to the risk free rate. From this point draw a horizontal line until it intersect the frontier at $Z(M)$. This portfolio has zero covariance with M and therefore when M is the market portfolio $Z(M)$ is the zero-beta portfolio. It is on the inefficient side of the frontier.
See diagram here
http://images.slideplayer.com/6/1619405/slides/slide_42.jpg
Note: the concept of the zero-beta portfolio was invented by Fischer Black to deal with the situation where there is no risk free asset. In this situation the zero beta portfolio plays a role similar (but not exactly the same) as the risk free asset if the risk free asset existed.
Answer: How to build a 0-$\beta$ portfolio was addressed by the two other answers.
Regarding the second part of your question:

Shouldn't it actually have expected return which is equivalent to the
  risk free asset?

Under the CAPM:
$$\mathbb{E}(r_a - r_f) = \beta(r_m-r_f) \Longleftrightarrow \mathbb{E}(r_a) = r_f+\beta(r_m-r_f)$$
In this case, indeed $\beta=0 \Longrightarrow \mathbb{E}(r_a) = r_f$.
Nevertheless, a lot of people either do not believe in the CAPM or at least want to exploit small arbitrage opportunities around it. These people would expect to have another return on top of the risk-free rate. A typical example of people doing this for living are market-neutral hedge-funds.


Why use "-las" in "esperándolas"?

Question: In the sentence "estamos esperándolas a ellas" (we're waiting for them) why do we  use "esperando" followed by "las" when " a ellas" is already there? Isn't "las" superfluous?
Answer: Yes, it is superflous, but it's also necessary. "Esperándolas a ellas" features what is known as duplicación pronominal. When you have a personal pronoun introduced by "a" posponed to the verb, you need to duplicate the pronoun. Some exceptions are:

With verbs of direction, such as "se acercó a mí", "se adelantó a ustedes" or "se abrazó a él"
With past participles: "la ofensa hecha a nosotros" is correct, but not "la ofensa que hicieron a nosotros"

With other pronouns ("nadie", "todos") or nouns, the pronoun isn't always necessary. You can say "eso no interesa a nadie" or "eso no le interesa a nadie". You can also say "vi a Juana" or "la vi a Juana". Sometimes, some version may sound more natural than another but both are grammatical. This is especially relevant with certain verbs for which the duplication isn't strictly necessary, but heavily favoured:

Le duele la muela al niño. (better than *duele la muela al niño)
  Esto le gusta a Cristina. (better than *esto gusta a Cristina)

In your case, you need the pronoun "les" — what is superflous and omissible is "a ellas".
For more, see Duplicación de los pronombres átonos (only in Spanish), and section 5 on Diccionario panhispánico de dudas (also in Spanish, but easier to understand). There's also a really good and thorough article in Hispanoteca (I highly recommend that page), but it is also in Spanish.
Comment: @MikMik It is necessary for the sentence to be grammatical, but it is semantically superflous. Language is full of redundancy that helps reduce ambiguity in some cases but not so in others. In this case, "estábamos esperándolas" and "estábamos esperando a ellas" could potentially convey the same information, so arguably both are mutually superflous, so to speak, which doesn't mean they can be omitted. Edited for clarification.
Comment: Great answer and correct. Note: in other romance languages (Italian, at least), you can use either of the two pronouns, but not both... so the duplication is kind of idiomatic to Spanish... As you say, you MUST duplicate in Spanish if you want to use the prepositional phrase (e.g., a él, a ella, a usted) for emphasis.
Comment: @DanRosenstark Good point. Being speculative, I guess that's partly because in Italian a DO wouldn't be introduced by "a", which makes it harder to tell a DO from a subject. If Italian allowed pronoun duplication, in sentences like "l'ha visto lui" there would be no way to tell who saw who. "Ha visto lui" makes it clear. In Spanish, the same ambiguity doesn't arise because you would say either "lo ha visto a él" or "lo ha visto él", and the meaning is transparent in both cases.
Comment: "Yes, it is superflous, but it's also necessary". If it's necessary, it's not superfluous. It's a duplication, but it's not superfluous. Otherwise, right answer. As you say, what's superfluous is "a ellas".
Comment: @Yay that's a good point. I never thought of that. In fact, I've never thought of ANY positive outcomes of the confusing use of 'a' for indirect and direct "personal" pronouns. Very interesting, thanks!
Comment: @Yay sorry, actually... in Italian "Ha visto lui"... you're definitely emphasizing one of the two pronouns -- either the subject or the object -- but it's not clear which. Sometimes you get a hint with the gender since the past participle changes, but that doesn't happen in every tense, and sometimes it's all one gender-number. So... you get different ambiguity depending on which rule-set you have. Which is not to say anything, except that natural languages are not logically constructed ;)
Comment: @DanRosenstark Mi Italian is rusty so I may be wrong but in "Ha visto lui" isn't the subject a third person? If "lui" was the subject, wouldn't there be a DO missing?
Comment: @Yay I'm assuming you mean ANOTHER third person aside from "lui." Yes. However, I think it could fly as a sentence without the DO, especially if you add an adverb, e.g., "Ha visto chiaramente" ;)  And then you have the same ambiguity all over again. Since the order doesn't matter much, "ha visto lui chiaramente" could be someone else or lui doing the veder-ing. At least that's my thought...
Comment: @DanRosenstark That could be it too. Language definitely isn't logically constructed ;)
Comment: Great stuff, again. I always felt that Spanish was way more ambiguous due to the deep confusion between le-la-lo but now I see that the comparison would come down to counting cases. Thanks again
Answer: Si es una oración con objeto directo.
Sujeto.  + verbo/s. +objeto directo.
(Nosotros)Estamos esperando a María y a Luisa.
Sustituimos los objetos directos por pronombres directos.
Pronombres directos:
Lo/los/la/las
Por lo general el objeto directo corresponde a cosas. Pasa con los verbos transitivos.
María y Laura. (personas femeninas y plural) por eso usamos el pronombre directo las.
Estamos usando una oración progresiva.
Podemos decir:-- Las estamos esperando. Estamos esperandolas.
Comment: Hola Isa y bienvenida a [spanish.se]. Intenta [edit]ar tu respuesta utilizando formato (mira en [editing help](http://spanish.stackexchange.com/editing-help) si quieres), para que así se entienda mejor. Actualmente cuesta seguirla. ¡Gracias por tu tiempo!

Why use "-las" in "esperándolas"?


Layout has changed. How to undo it?

Question: Is it possible to use the old layout of TGO? Everything is bright as the sun, I think I need some sunglasses here (at night!).
Comment: In a word, *no* :)
Answer: I hadn't realised there had been a change, but as Liam stated, with every styling change across the Stack Exchange network, there are complaints from many people - but it doesn't change the outcome:

Someone will always hate the new layout
Someone will always love it
Comment: *"...but it doesn't change the outcome."*  ← That's not true. The CSS refactoring was only recently released, so problems inevitably get by the designers and they are addressed. Sometimes visual anomalies are highly device-specific, so I can't guarantee every report can or will be accommodated... but they ***are*** heard, and the users' feedback here drives more features and changes than anything we come up with!
Comment: Oh, it is always possible to change it locally through CSS tweaks. Meta.se has many posts on this topic.
Comment: Important to  note that Rory has been around for _quite_ a long time on _quite_ a few sites, and while these sorts of things have (yes) _always_ been heard, we didn't always communicate that very well through response. That _is_ getting quite a bit better, as Robert points out.
Comment: Ah - I realise my post could have come across quite negatively. It was more a tongue in cheek dig at the fact that no matter what the layout, someone will hate it and others will love it.
Comment: @Rory I am sure you are right on that. And I know it for myself, sometimes it just *needs* some time to get used to something new. Still that isn't answering my question, if it is possible to change it locally. I guess (well I am pretty sure) this isn't possible, like Liam said.

Layout has changed. How to undo it?


Can one still be a Muslim if he/she denies some verses that he/she found outdated or illogical?

Question: Can a person be a good Muslim if he/she rejects some verse of the Quran, as he/she found them illogical or outdated?
Answer: Anyone who rejects even a single word of the Quran becomes a Kafir by consensus. A Kafir is the opposite of a Muslim.

وما يجحد بآياتنا إلا الكافرون
And none reject Our verses except the disbelievers.
— Quran 29:47

Condemnation of similar stances can be found in other verses such as:

أفتؤمنون ببعض الكتاب وتكفرون ببعض فما جزاء من يفعل ذلك منكم إلا خزي في الحياة الدنيا ويوم القيامة يردون إلى أشد العذاب
So do you believe in part of the Scripture and disbelieve in part? Then what is the recompense for those who do that among you except disgrace in worldly life; and on the Day of Resurrection they will be sent back to the severest of punishment.
— Quran 2:85

ويقولون نؤمن ببعض ونكفر ببعض ويريدون أن يتخذوا بين ذلك سبيلا أولئك هم الكافرون حقا
They say, "We believe in some and disbelieve in others," and wish to adopt a way in between - Those are the disbelievers, truly.
— Quran 4:150-151

Jurists have recorded rejection of any part of the Quran among the nullifiers of Islam,  and have narrated consensus on it.

ويكفر من جحد القرآن كله أو بعضه ، ولو كلمة. وقال البعض: بل يحصل الكفر بجحد حرف واحد
And he is a disbeliever who rejects the Quran in whole or in part, even a word. And some have said: disbelief is attained by rejecting even one letter.
— الموسوعة الفقهية

The explanation below is tangential to this question, but I am covering it since all the other answers seem to be so much focused on it:
These are times when the ruling derived from a verse is not applicable as there is another text which overrides it. Among such cases are:

Naskh (abrogation) is when one verse is abrogated by another.
The gradual prohibition of wine has already been covered in another answer.
Another example of abrogation are the verses regarding war. It is well known that it was initially forbidden, and the Muslims were commanded to forgive:

قل للذين آمنوا يغفروا للذين لا يرجون أيام الله
Say to those who have believed that they [should] forgive those who expect not the days of Allah
— Quran 45:14

But later permission was given to fight back:

أذن للذين يقاتلون بأنهم ظلموا
Permission [to fight] has been given to those who are being fought, because they were wronged.
— Quran 22:39

قيل لهم كفوا أيديكم وأقيموا الصلاة وآتوا الزكاة فلما كتب عليهم القتال
Those who were told, "Restrain your hands [from fighting] and establish prayer and give zakah"? But then when fighting was ordained for them ...
— Quran 4:77

Takhsis (specification) is when one verse makes a specific exception to the general command of another.
For example the Quran says that the waiting period after divorce is three menstrual cycles:

والمطلقات يتربصن بأنفسهن ثلاثة قروء
Divorced women remain in waiting for three periods
— Quran 2:228

But in another place there is mention of a special case, for a pregnant women the waiting period is equal to the length of the pregnancy:

وأولات الأحمال أجلهن أن يضعن حملهن
for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth.
— Quran 65:4

Here:
Firstly there is no rejection of the verse rather only the derivation of law from it is affected.
Secondly it is dependent on the existence of firm evidence from revelation and based on principles. One can not discard a verse based on personal whims or because they dislike it - that IMO is what the question is asking about.

قال الذين لا يرجون لقاءنا ائت بقرآن غير هذا أو بدله قل ما يكون لي أن أبدله من تلقاء نفسي إن أتبع إلا ما يوحى إلي
They say, "Bring us a Quran other than this or change it." Say, "It is not for me to change it on my own accord. I only follow what is revealed to me ..."
— Quran 10:15
Answer: I fully go along with the prior answers of UmH and Wassem Khan, but I would like to add an aspect:
In fact, you have mentioned two criteria: «illogical» and «outdated»
For sure, we cannot reject the Word of God because we find it illogical. We can try to understand it or give up and live with not understanding it.
The term «outdated» implies that some verses may not apply to our time. This aspect is not completely lacking a point because some verses in the Holy Quran are not a general advice but linked to the situation. A well-known example is At-Tawba 9:5

When the Sacred Months have passed, kill the polytheists wherever you
find them. And capture them, and besiege them, and lie in wait for
them at every ambush. But if they repent, and perform the prayers, and
pay the alms, then let them go their way. God is Most Forgiving, Most
Merciful.

If you take this verse out of its context and take it as a genral rule, you are for sure misguided. Because this verse refers to the specific context when the Prophet ﷺ and the Umma was in war with the polytheists. Reading the whole Quran, we read a verse that refers to the same historical context but has a more general importance about war and peace; Al-Baqarah 2:190-193

And fight in the cause of God those who fight you, but do not commit
aggression; God does not love the aggressors. And kill them wherever
you overtake them, and expel them from where they had expelled you.
Oppression is more serious than murder. But do not fight them at the
Sacred Mosque, unless they fight you there. If they fight you, then
kill them. Such is the retribution of the disbelievers. But if they
cease, then God is Forgiving and Merciful. And fight them until there
is no oppression, and worship becomes devoted to God alone. But if
they cease, then let there be no hostility except against the
oppressors.

This shows at the same time the importance to accept the entire Quran and not only a part of it, and that some verses are not valid in our situation. I wished that mankind would come into a state where the verses I cited before were really outdated but I this will probably not be until the Last Day.
Comment: I am from the a different faith and I dont mean to offend anybody. But, I see this everywhere(in the christian community too), people cherrypicking the things that they like or those points that align with whatever they want to believe. Maybe god really meant those things, to kill the disbelievers, how do you know for sure? Maybe it was meant literally. [Just one of the many reasons I find it hard to take any holy texts seriously]
Comment: @wizzwizz4 I beg to differ, I havent read the quran but I have read the bible(Please dont tell me I dont get a say in this just because I havent read the quran, those are the things which I hear people say when they dont have any valid points to defend their arguments) and there are verses that are similar to these in the bible and its funny how different people infer different meanings from the exact same text(its almost comical tbh). To make it simple, there are people who believe in allah who take those texts literally and there are people who dont, both have read the exact same texts.
Comment: @AhmedTawfik , Thanks for your insights, but you guys are missing my point, my whole point is: there are people who read the exact same book and infer completly different meanings from them, each believes their interpretation is right and strongly believe every other interpretation is wrong, just like you guys are doing(believing this text is only relevant for when muslims were under persecution). And I am not suggesting there might be people who take these texts literally, I am telling you there are people who take this literally, today, right now.
Comment: @lordvcs Ah, got it. Guidance and correct understanding requires reflection, and this is repeatedly mentioned in the Qur'an. Additionally, guidance and correct understanding itself is a reward and blessing, for only those who are sincere in their pursuit of Truth. The beauty about Islam is that God has made it clear to us (all of humanity) that we just need to apply sincerity in the pursuit of Truth and effort in trying to reach it; the outcome is not the metric of success. So it is inevitable that some will misinterpret, either accidentally or intentionally.
Comment: @lordvcs In the Bible you have even different prophets, authors, times and the question while reading is always what this means to our lives. And our lives are different, too. It is natural that the answer can be different from one person to another.  There's nothing wrong with it.
Comment: @Jeschu So you are saying the people who take the texts literally are right too(meaing, in the above context kill people who dont believe in allah)?. Which in turn means I can infer it to mean whatever I what it to mean too? Again I don't mean to offend anyone, but to me it looks like these religious texts were written by delusional humans no different from you and me, just trying to make sense of the world and put some meaning into their existence.
Comment: @lordvcs Taking it literally, that was the instruction given to those people at that time. A later instruction of "don't kill people any more", or an earlier instruction of "only kill in wartime", would change the literal interpretation – you see? And that's not even getting into [anything specific to Islam](https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/65661/14483).
Comment: @lordvcs There's cherry-picking, and there's _actually reading the text_. Without reading the text, an outsider can't tell which is which, but I'd expect most Muslims to be able to.
Comment: @lordvcs In the same way that taking a single paragraph out of a book of secular law won't make sense on its own, taking a verse out of the Qur'an on its own won't make sense either. For both scenarios, there is context, conditions, specific meaning and alternative meaning of the words, and so on. Additionally, the Qur'an is not meant to be interpreted to fit into the world view of the individual, but rather the individual should change their world view to fit the Qur'an, which means presuppositions and biases cannot be used in the interpretation of the Qur'an.
Comment: Directly responding to your question, you've skipped the following verse: "And tell My servants to say that which is best. Satan certainly seeks to sow discord among them. Satan is indeed a sworn enemy to humankind." [Al-Isrā', 17:53]. This verse came down as Muslims were being tortured and killed in Makkah. And despite this, they were told to speak good speech. How can this turn into killing indiscriminately? Finally, take a look at this authentic website (ignore many others in Google, seriously) if you are sincerely askingto learn the context: https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askmufti/45514
Comment: @lordvcs Also very relevant: https://yaqeeninstitute.org/nazir-khan/misquoting-the-quran-kill-them-wherever-you-find-them-animated-video
Comment: Another good example is how people defend slavery and oppose slavery using the exact same bible(if this is not delusional I dont know what is). I just dont understand why these texts are useful. And each religion believes their religion/holy text, is the absolute truth, and people willing to kill and die for it, I just dont understand this madness.
Answer: The classic manual of Islamic law Umdat al-Salik by al Misri, translated into English by Keller lists in section o8.7 "Acts that entail leaving Islam" including "(7) to deny any verse of the Koran or anything that by scholarly consensus (def: b7) belongs to it, or to add a verse that does not belong to it." However, this version of "denying" is talking about whether a verse is or is not part of the Koran. This is not the same as "denying" that a verse is obligatory, or moral, or that it should be interpreted in a particular way.
Islamic law is extremely complex. Some verses of the Koran are 'abrogated' (naskh) by others that were revealed later. Some describe practices that are conditional, that apply only in certain (unstated) circumstances, and that depend for their interpretation on the customs of the time. As circumstances have arisen in modern times that simply did not apply under the customs and culture of the time, some practices have to be reinterpreted through ijtihad, scholarly reasoning from principles and generalisations abstracted from precedent. It is dangerous for a non-scholar to pick out individual verses of the Koran and apply their own interpretation to them, in isolation from the context of the rest of the Koran and law.
For example, consider Q4.43 (Pickthall):
"O ye who believe! Draw not near unto prayer when ye are drunken, till ye know that which ye utter, nor when ye are polluted, save when journeying upon the road, till ye have bathed. And if ye be ill, or on a journey, or one of you cometh from the closet, or ye have touched women, and ye find not water, then go to high clean soil and rub your faces and your hands (therewith). Lo! Allah is Benign, Forgiving."
Does this verse imply that drunkenness is permitted?! It is unbelief to deny that this is a genuine verse in the Koran. It is not unbelief to deny that this implies getting drunk is permitted except during prayer.
As a rule, you should always find out what the consensus of mujtahid (if there is one) says the proper interpretation of a verse is, and if you still doubt it, become a qualified scholar and check their proofs for yourself.
Comment: 4:43 is an example of a verse counted among the «abrogated» verses. This does not mean that it is not valid or false. However, the first message 2:219, saying «sinfulness outweighs benefit» of drinking, then 4:43 saying at least not for prayer,  finally 5:90 forbidding it. It reminds me to my own education mwthods as a father (in general, I'm not referring to drinking here) to discuss and explain, to say, «at least not in my house», finally to forbid.
Answer: So I come from a Christian background, so please feel free to take what I say with a grain of salt.
When we have a holy/elevated/sacred scripture they often come with a "My way or the highway" verse. That is well and good. But we still need to interpret that and other verses. Every thing we read we have to interpret through the lens of our own knowledge understanding and wisdom (which we can only build up over time).
For example: We all know that 2 + 2 = 4 right? How do we know that? There is nothing inherent in the symbol + which means addition. It could equally mean multiplication and that statement would still be true! Now you could write more math equations to prove or define the meaning of + ( and 2 and 4 and = and the word and and the word word etc. etc.) However you may be able to see that no matter how hard you try to define something it is either unproveable/undefinable or is ambiguous (Ironical this has been mathematically proven).
Ok back to 'scripture'. Now like I said I came from a Christian background, but it is my understanding that the Quran has a verse similar to "Do on to other as you would have them do on to you" and it also elsewhere says "...kill the polytheists...". These two verses are logically inconsistent! Or are they? This is where interpretation comes in. I am not going to make that interpretation! 1. That is not OP's question.  2. I do not have the knowledge understanding or wisdom of the Quran to be able to do that. 3. It would start a flame war. (Although please read Jeschu's answer for an illustration of this).
So what now? Well we need to be wary of taking verses out of context (again see Jeschu's answer). We also need to be cogniscient of, whether we are projecting our own strong feelings/fears/desires/neurosis ( or those of others) on to our interpretation*; therefor clouding our interpretation of them.  We also need to take a look at 'illogical' verses and 'in good faith' try and interpret them.  Sometimes this will take more than one pass! You may need to gain more knowledge, understanding, and wisdom. Putting a verse aside, to have time to give it a second pass, is not the same as rejecting it. (Well that is my interpretation of things at least haha, again take it with a grain of salt).
If we cannot do this, then if we find even the smallest logical inconsistency or contradiction then we would be forced to reject the whole < Whatever Holy scripture, you follow > Other wise that would mean almost everyone is either a ignorant fool or living a lie. (Which I do not believe to be so).
That is my understanding of life the universe and everything, I hope it helps, even though I do not have much authority on this topic.

* Yes this is somewhat contradictory. It takes time, wisdom, and a lot of self reflection to achieve this well.
Comment: So does denying part of the Qur'an nullify a person's Islam or not?
Answer: It's taken that some verses abrogate earlier verses, this has been stated in the Qu'ran. For example:

Whatever verse do we abrogate or cause to be forgotten, we bring a better one or similar to it. Know you not that Allah is able to do all things?

Al-Baqarah, 2:106-107

It's not a question of rejecting the verses of the Qu'ran but understanding what they mean, then and now. This is the science of tafseer, or Qu'ranic interpretation.


Buck converter or LDO with multiple voltage levels

Question: I'm designing a project at the moment that will be powered by USB-C. There's more information about that in this previous question of mine.
The project can be easily split into two parts:

Control/logic side which requires 3.3V/500mA
LED side which requires 5V/6A

What makes this slightly more complicated is how the power is supplied from the USB-C. On connection, the power adapter will provide 5V (current can depend on a few factors) on the VBUS pins. A USB-C controller can then negotiate with the power adapter to provide up to 20V/5A on the VBUS pins. For my particular project, I'll be using a power adapter than can provide 20V/3A.
At the moment my thoughts are:

Use the power from the VBUS pins to power a wide-range LDO that takes 5V upto 20V and has a fixed output of 3.3V. This can control the logic side of things.
Provide VBUS to a buck converter, which is only enabled once the VBUS voltage reaches 20V, to provide 5V to the LEDs.

My primary concerns are:

The efficiency and heat dissipation of an LDO that has a 20V input and outputs 3.3V (even only with 500mA maximum current).
The stability of the output from the buck converter when supplying the LEDs. These LEDs are similar to the WS2812B
The heat from the buck converter running with the relatively high current.

Is there a better way of doing this, or is the buck converter for the LEDs and the LDO for the logic the best way around this? In particular are there any issues that might occur that I haven't mentioned above?
Comment: why not borrow 500ma from the 5v line to get 3.3? a lot les heat...
Comment: @dandavis That's another viable solution if the two supplies are always enabled at the same time.  If the 3.3V logic has to switch the 5V on and off it might need an extra high current load switch.
Comment: The USB supply will only supply 5V until the MCU (which requires the 3.3V) negotiates 20V from the USB power supply. So once the MCU has negotiated 20V and confirmed that is present, it'll enable the 20V -> 5V buck converter.
Answer: Your concern #1 is valid.  You have 16.7V at 500mA meaning over 8W of dissipation in your LDO.  Not a realistic option.
Use a buck converter for both applications. There's no concern about output stability in a properly designed converter.  You can get efficiency of high 80's low 90's meaning you have to deal with a few watts of dissipation with a 30W load.
Proper thermal design should handle that without an issue.


Send mails to 5-10 users when a Discussion is created

Question: i need to send an email when a discussion is created .
I have added a "assigned to " field where i specify the users wh wil take part in discussion .
I need to send email to these users and also the person who created the discussion .hw is it possible in sp 2010 ?
Answer: Using a workflow in Sharepoint Designer, on creation, send an email.  In the To section, add the Assigned To field and CC the Created by person.  Add whatever you want into the message body.


How to improve the quality of an image of the planets when taken through the eyepiece of a telescope with a dlsr camera

Question: I have a reflector telescope with a 114mm aperture and 1000mm focal length.  I find that to get the clearest image I can use a 4mm eyepiece, or with my 5x barlow a 20mm however, seeing that I am very interested in astro photography when I try to photograph Jupiter for instance, through the telescope eyepiece, being the size of about a green pea seen through the scope, there is not enough pixel data for my canon eos t2i rebel dlsr to capture a clear photo. Is there some way to enlarge the photo for the camera without blurring the planet's details from over magnification?
Answer: If you were using both a camera lens and an eyepiece (afocal method), try eyepiece projection.
In this method, the eyepiece is the only optical element between the prime focus and the detector.
You would need an eyepiece projection adapter tube to connect the camera body to the telescope's focuser.
A longer tube will increase magnification but also increase exposure time.
Any tube length which reasonably balances those concerns should be OK.
It's also possible to use a Barlow lens and no eyepiece to extend the effective focal length of the telescope.
If your adapter tube is wide enough to accommodate the Barlow, you may be able to use it this way too.
Astronomy Source has an article with more details about eyepiece projection.
Tele Vue has an overview of that and other methods, plugging their own products of course.
Comment: I have used the camera with its lens and without. I have different diy tube lengths to accommodate various eyepieces.  Though the explination was a bit confusing I am under the belief that eyepiece projection requires that a 2" gap is left between the eyepiece and front of the camera. Is that 2" gap a fixed value or does it use a formula to accommodate the telescope' s focal length?  I'm sorry I struggled to understand the formulas in the article? Also when I googled the method further some say using a barlow is better, how would this technique differ as well be implemented?  Thanks for helpi
Comment: @Bre I have expanded this answer.


Web Form implementation in SDL web8 + DXA 1.6

Question: Is there any useful links that can explain different options to achieve the Web Form implementation for a website build on SDL web8 + DXA 1.6 framework.
Comment: Can you clarify what you mean exactly with "the Web Form implementation"?
Comment: Hi Rick; its for that very common feature for a website where the end user can enter his basic details (first name ; last name ; email id; address ; Enquiry etc) and then records will be stored in some non cms external database; Some CMS like sitecore do have inbuilt feature to support webforms for a website to capture records; view; generate report for all the capture records  in CMS itself. Using SDL we are looking to achieve at least we can create a webform to capture and store the user details in external business database. please suggest what should be ideal approach for this in SDL.
Comment: This is probably a good reference for you: http://hem-kant.blogspot.in/2016/10/formbuilder-module-in-dxa-CDsetting.html
Answer: DXA 1.6 provides basic support for HTML Forms. See http://docs.sdl.com/LiveContent/content/en-US/SDL%20DXA-v6/GUID-2C331449-7CF4-4031-8080-85B3F478F700
This support includes:

Support for managing form text (labels, validation messages) in CM
Support for doing server-side validation and View Model mapping of form fields
Support for preventing CSRF attacks

It does not include support for processing the form data. That is: you are expected to do that yourself in your implementation.
An example of HTML Form processing can be found in the Audience Manager module (see docs link above).


Workbench settings to do only queries

Question: I need workbench connected app to be configured to use only for queries and disable the option to edit single/multiple records
Answer: Workbench authenticates to Salesforce as a user and has the same rights and privileges that are permissioned to that user. If you wish to restrict Workbench operation, you'll need to limit the permissions offered to users who connect through Workbench by, for example, placing them on a Read-Only profile. Running queries and modifying records both fall under the REST API and aren't permissioned separately as such for connected apps.
Alternately, since Workbench is open source, you could fork it and run your own copy for your organization with certain capabilities disabled. You'd need a PHP developer to do so.

Workbench settings to do only queries


Mirrored Development Environment

Question: I'd like to setup a mirrored development environment between my work computer and my computer at home somehow.  We have SVN setup, so mirroring files isn't a big deal.  I'm thinking more like virtual host configurations and database files.  I could always setup replication, is that the best solution when working with local/remote?
Answer: i would recommend that you have a script that run the deployment automatically. it should pull data from a source that is accessible from both ends.
replication is a good option but what do you do if you make a mistake and is mirrored - you can do something else - enable binary logs at work then you mirror the logs home and insert them manually or via a script only when you are sure that the deployment is successful.
a good choice to keep all the configuration files is a version control system (svn has a web access from cli so it's easy but you may have already a system in place)
so the procedure will be:

push to version control your config files
adapt them to the environment (change ip addresses, dns names etc)
push them to the server
test

at this point one site is done all you have to do is redo it at home.
Answer: in addition the @silviud
if your machines can connect dropbox or similar service you can copy your config files, data files or other not svn'ed files there. Maybe your code base too.
Also, if your test server can connect dropbox too, you can deploy your application in dropbox folder too, with that way all the changes are automaticly push to all machines.
i use this setup in my Work Machine, Test VM, Home machine , Test VM in home machine (same as work test vm), this way i am not copiying all the vm files or svn repository all the time. all the changes comes through dropbox service.
By the way, Dropbox has revision history too, so you can easily return previos versions of file any time.

Mirrored Development Environment


Could information be transmitted from inside a black hole using gravitational waves?

Question: Could you use gravitational waves to communicate from inside the event horizon of a black hole to someone who was outside?
Comment: Possible answer in [this physics question](http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/937/how-does-gravity-escape-a-black-hole) though you have to read between the lines a bit.
Comment: @joseph.hainline It is no "information". Light just happens to be a form of information. And when two black holes merge, that energy in the form of gravitational waves isn't escaping from inside the black holes themselves. It is escaping from their orbital energy.
Comment: The event horizon is defined as the point where no information can escape - in other words, nothing within an event horizon can affect the rest of the Universe. So no communication is possible. Not to mention, how could we communicate with anyone using gravitational waves? They're just how gravity propogates.
Comment: Is it no information? Or no light? Seems like significant energy is escaping a black hole when two are merging. Why couldn't that be a mechanism for sending information?
Comment: @SirCumference **how could we communicate with anyone using gravitational waves? They're just how gravity propogates.** How could we communication with anyone using electromagnetic waves? They're just how electric and magnetic fields propagates.
Comment: I think this is still an unresolved question, regarding the information paraddox by Hawking.
Comment: @Andy I think your comment should be the answer to this post.
Answer: A black hole is defined as a region of spacetime where the gravitational effects are so strong that the escape velocity within the event horizon is greater than the speed of light.  According to relativity, nothing can propagate faster than the speed of light, so at most gravitational waves would propagate at this speed.  According to particle physics, mediation of gravity would be controlled by massless particles called gravitons, which, by virtue of being massless, would travel at the same speed as photons, i.e. the speed of light.  Suffice to say gravitational waves (analogous to electromagnetic waves) would not be able to escape from inside the event horizon.
The question of information, in regards to black holes is open however. The No-Hair Theorem would seem to imply the destruction of information as the black hole consumes matter.  However, the holographic principle, if correct would imply that information regarding the matter that formed the black hole would be encoded on the 2-dimensional boundary of the event horizon.  This information could very well be exhausted by Hawking radiation or gravitational waves.  Since this information was outside of the event horizon this would be fully consistent with the formulation of black holes.
Comment: What would it mean for gravitons to not be able to escape the black hole? If that were true then what would cause gravity to be felt by things outside the black hole, if the mediating particle couldn't mediate because it couldn't escape the black hole?


How to get NCR Ranger armor/gear in Fallout New Vegas?

Question: Iv'e been playing Fallout New Vegas and iv'e gotten quite far into the game. I'm planning on joining the NCR (which I know how to do) but I was wondering if after joining, is there anyway to get NCR Ranger armor/gear or become a NCR Ranger. I don't want to kill any of the NCR members. If there is a way to become one or get the armor/gear, how do I do that without killing any NCR members. I haven't made it to New Vegas, but I would like to be prepared for the future.
Answer: As seen on the wiki, there are a few ways to get NCR armor:

With a "liked" or higher reputation with the NCR, Colonel James Hsu will give the Courier a key to the NCR Ranger Safehouse. Inside are a set of NCR salvaged power armor, NCR Ranger patrol armor, and the NCR Ranger combat armor. There is also a reloading bench and some empty foot lockers, alongside a hunting revolver, assault carbine, and trail carbine. Note that all armors are in poor condition.
This armor can be found on NCR Veteran Rangers throughout the game in areas occupied by the NCR (e.g. Camp Golf, the NCR Ranger Safehouse, Ranger Station Bravo, Camp Forlorn Hope, etc.) or if the Courier is labeled a terrorist by the NCR, as there will be ranger kill-squads sent to eliminate them.
There are several dead NCR troopers wearing this armor at the Long 15 if you choose to nuke the NCR upon completion of The Apocalypse. (Lonesome Road)

Although I'm assuming #3 doesn't apply to you so much.
Comment: No problem. Glad I could help :)
Comment: Also noteworthy is you can get forgiveness from the NCR about halfway through the game. You can kill an NCR Ranger if you're a high enough level to encounter one and then meet Mr. House.


MO 4 4post breaker in a home running both 110 and 220 off same breaker

Question: An old house built pre-50s has cloth-wrap wiring.  I cannot find the amps or maker anyplace on any panel or breaker.  There are five panels in the house: one main and 4 sub. There is also a low volt system.  Is any of this still up to code and where can I find info on this type system?
Comment: Can you post photos of this? If you can't get them to upload, upload them to [imgur](https://imgur.com) and post a link so we can then edit them in
Answer: It's called Grandfathered
If you build something, and it's up to code at the time, and they update Code, you usually don't need to tear out the work and retrofit.
There are exceptions, e.g. for earthquake codes for high-value/traffic buildings, or ADA when you're doing a major renovation anyway.)  Wiring isn't one of them.
It's really about quality of work
If the original system was properly wired, it is a great deal safer than newer work that is wired wrong.
So you need to go through the system, with an eye for how it should have been built at the time.  This isn't far off of today, except for the addition of grounds.
You can retrofit additional safety
In 2014 (really!) they amended Code to allow you to retrofit grounds at will. The ground path does not need to follow the other wires, it just needs to be large enough for the load.
If you want to protect against failing electrical wires sparking and arcing and starting fires, you can fit arc-fault circuit interruptor (AFCI) circuit breakers.
If you want to protect house users from electrocution (e.g. hair dryer dropped in bathtub), you can install ground-fault circuit interruptor (GFCI) devices.  These are commonly available as

a circuit breaker
a "blank-face" device you put inline in the wiring
a "live-face" device, same as a blank-face except they give you a couple of convenience outlets

They make dual-mode AFCI and GFCI breakers.  It's cheaper to use an AFCI breaker and a GFCI blank-face or live-face though.
The four sub-panels are very good news.  That means if a subpanel is dangerous (FPE), obsolete (Pushmatic), cheap (Homeline), weird (Q-line), or just expensive to get GFCI/AFCI breakers for (QO/CH) -- you can swap the subpanel easily enough, without any serious danger.
Comment: I wouldn't call the BR *that* cheapie -- it *is* available with copper buss options, and in 3ph (as well as standard split phase).  Homeline, OTOH, is definitely builder-grade in my book, and Q-line *is* a bit of a weirdo...
Comment: @ThreePhaseEel ok :) I like Eaton.  Being available in 3-phase is my litmus test for "not builder grade".
Comment: We all have our favorites but I agree with the grandfather and adding new grounds as a way to make an old system much safer.+
Answer: Let's start with the easy part first. The insulation wiring you are talking about is known as RH or RHW, which was common during pre 50's construction. It is a rubber insulation and is subject to aging and crumbling particularly when it has overheated. Like in boxes connected to ceiling fixtures, use extreme caution handling it.
Now if you have 4 subplanes, the original edison base fuse panel was probably upgraded. Then the need to increase the service size, and additional breakers caused the additional panels. That may mean that your electrical system may have been upgraded during the additions. So you may not have the type RH/RHW insulation throughout the house.
If practical, you should consider replacing this wiring for two main reasons. First pre 50 houses were ungrounded systems (no ground wire). Second the normal life of an electrical system is 60 Years. This was developed by testing systems and they found the first 30 years of an installed system, there should be minimal failure. Then over the next thirty years there will be 50% failure of the system. So after 60 years, maintenance of that system becomes impractical compared to replacement of a new system. Keep in mind this is not for one system it is simply an overall study of multiple systems.
So you might want to get with a reputable electrical contractor and survey what can be done to upgrade your system.
Hope this helps
Comment: A agree with most of this but have also worked on homes that had partial knob and tube left in the walls well over 60 years and working fine with new panels because the in wall is still not required to be removed.
Comment: @EdBeal I agree note I said if practical and get a reputable contractor to survey. Eyes and hands on will give him a better evaluation of what needs to be fixed.


Does a soul being resurrected know what spell is being used?

Question: Specifically, would a soul know that the body they're being invited into was created via Reincarnate? After all, for some souls, changing species might be a big deal, possibly of the 'rather stay dead' kind.
Answer: The soul knows the body before it chooses to enter it
The reincarnate spell states:

You touch a dead humanoid or a piece of a dead humanoid. Provided that the creature has been dead no longer than 10 days, the spell forms a new adult body for it and then calls the soul to enter that body. If the target's soul isn't free or willing to do so, the spell fails. [...]

The "do so" refers to "entering that body" meaning the body created by the spell. Thus, the soul must be willing to enter the specific body created by the spell; this means the soul can decide that it does not like the body and refuse to enter it. The caster could then try again if they so choose, provided they expend another 1000gp of materials.
Comment: Hmm, this raises an odd question: If the spell fails due to an unwilling soul, then what happens to the created body? I suppose it doesn't really matter, mechanically speaking, so the DM could decide based on what is appropriate for the setting. Maybe it dissolves back into nothing, or maybe it sticks around like a corpse.
Comment: This doesn't answer the main question. "Does a soul being resurrected know what spell is being used?"
Comment: @eternal I honestly don't think that's even being asked here given the body of the question. Yes, it's in the title but the question is asking specifically about *reincarnate*
Comment: True, but for a complete answer maybe include an answer for the title question as well? If only for people searching for an answer for whats in the title.
Comment: @eternal I might be more ready to edit this question's title and then open a new question, or, if one already exists, I'd gladly bounty it


Biological term for close species rivalry

Question: Is there any phenomenon/force in biology when two very close species fiercely fight each other (as a sign of a strong tendency to deepen the difference between species)? If there is, what's the name of the phenomenon or any similar phenomenon? (Question from a layman in biology, thanks for an answer.)
Comment: What do you mean by `tendency to deepen the difference between species`? Are you talking about evolutionary process that yield the two species to differ due to competition?
Comment: Oh you are talking about speciation? Not talking about relationships between the two lineages of interest, I answered your question below but I am not sure this is exactly what you were looking for.
Answer: Citing wikipedia

Character displacement refers to the phenomenon where differences among similar species whose distributions overlap geographically are accentuated in regions where the species co-occur, but are minimized or lost where the species' distributions do not overlap. This pattern results from evolutionary change driven by competition among species for a limited resource (e.g. food). The rationale for character displacement stems from the competitive exclusion principle, also called Gause's Law, which contends that to coexist in a stable environment two competing species must differ in their respective ecological niche; without differentiation, one species will eliminate or exclude the other through competition.

In ecology, the competitive exclusion principle, sometimes referred to as Gause's law of competitive exclusion or just Gause's law,[2] is a proposition that states that two species competing for the same resource cannot coexist at constant population values, if other ecological factors remain constant. When one species has even the slightest advantage or edge over another then the one with the advantage will dominate in the long term. One of the two competitors will always overcome the other, leading to either the extinction of this competitor or an evolutionary or behavioral shift toward a different ecological niche. The principle has been paraphrased into the maxim "complete competitors cannot coexist"
Comment: Character displacement is very close to what i'm looking for. When small differences suddenly start to play a big role and result in split. Cheers
Comment: Can you try to explain what is the difference? Maybe you are specifically including a (allopatric/sympatric) speciation event into the story...
Comment: I'll accept your answer, i'm new member, it says to wait for 5 mins. The crucial point you made right - when small differences are accentuated. I was looking for this thing
Comment: Sure take your time. I just wanted to invite you to explain why the answer does not answer if it does not. Make sure to wait to see if others agree with my answer or if they downvote or comment on it.
Comment: For my non-biological purpose it fits well. I was looking at the term that denotes the situation when differences between two very close species get accentuated in their proximity.


(Multinomial) Logistic regression with missing values

Question: I want to do a (multinomial) logistic regression to predict 5 different physical activity classes based on different variables extracted for each subject.
However, I have one variable (i.e., time after disease onset) in my dataset with missing values for some of the subjects, i.e. for the healthy control subjects. These missing values are thus not missing at random, but don't make sense for healthy controls. How would you deal with this variable? I could remove this variable completely from the model, but it does have a strong predicting power. Or would you simply set a to an arbitrary value, e.g. -100?
Answer: First, add another binary variable "healthy", if it is not there already. Then set all missing values of "time" to zero.
The resulting model should do what you want and be interpretable. The coefficient of "healthy" will describe the difference in probability of a healthy person compared with someone who just got infected. Any person with nonzero "time" will be "healthy" equal to zero.
Answer: If you fit an alternative-specific MNL model (also known as McFadden's model), you will estimate a different effect of the predictor for each modality of your dependent variable (minus one as reference/baseline category). Then it will be possible to constrain the effect of "time" to be null for the "healthy" group.


DBMS_REDEFINITION vs EXCHANGE PARTITION in oracle

Question: In order to partition an existing non-partitioned table it is possible to use either the EXCHANGE PARTITION or DBMS_REDEFINITION. How to decide on which of those possibilities to choose for table partitioning. Does this depend on how many data reside in the table? Is one operation safer than the other?
Answer: in both ways you will end up using exchange partition and probably a series of split partitions. If your table does not have many dependencies like constraints and triggers, the route using redefinition can be easier because it buys you a lot of time. You prepare the new table as a copy and exchange the object id's on the end phase. If there are a lot of dependencies, you have to recreate them using different names.
The operation will take some time, depending on the size.
If you go for safe .... in both cases, the operations fail or succeed.
How is the load on the table? Does it receive a lot of updates/inserts/deletes during the migration? Do you have downtime available? I would go for simplicity if possible using downtime and not using redefinition.
Comment: The change will be combined with a major software update, so it will anyhow be done during system downtime. I understand that you suggest using EXCHANGE PARTITION if there is downtime available?
Comment: yes, it is the easiest. Test it. You might underestimate the time required.
Answer: I agree with ik_zelf(+1).  You will probably want to do an Exchange Partition, therefore you should read the SQL Language Reference information about it and the rules it must follow.
The purpose of DBMS_Redefinition is to make changes online rather than offline.  You should read the Administrator's Guide to gain an understanding of the situations in which it can help you.


Can I spend a tx before it has 6 confirmations?

Question: When I got a transaction (someone transfer some bitcoins to me), can I use it before the transaction has 6 confirmations?
Comment: Not an exact duplicate; that answers why the number 6, not whether you can use it before.
Answer: Yes, you can even spend from transactions which have 0 confirmations (not included in a block yet) if you are willing to. That is the basis for things such as child-pays-for-parent. While it is reasonably low risk to spend from unconfirmed transactions if they are low-value, it is recommended you wait for a few confirmations for larger transactions, because before they are confirmed there is still a risk of a double-spent transaction being included in a block instead, and even after one or two confirmations it is theoretically possible (although very unlikely) for a competing fork to overtake that chain and replace the transaction. See this question for more info about why 6 confirmations is recommended for good safety: Why is 6 the number of confirms that is considered secure?


How many types of modulation are there?

Question: I know a few types of modulation  off the top of my head like common chord modulation and and chromatic modulation,  but I was wondering how many different types of modulation are there and what are some examples of these modulations?
Comment: The "cookbook supplement" to Reger's textbook is online here: https://archive.org/details/supplementtotheo00rege
Comment: There's lots of modulation in the enormous space of music around the world.  Did you mean to qualify your question as pertaining only to "harmonic modulation in tonal western music'?  If you do indeed wish to limit the scope of answers, question quality guidelines suggest that you do that. (But still make sure to downvote anyone who directly answers your actual as-is question from a wider perspective).
Answer: This is just an expansion of BlakeTM's answer, included because StackExchange communities typically discourage answering a question (or in this case, a comment) by referring to a link and nothing more.  Links sometimes die and we hope for the answers here to live on.  That being said, Leinberger lists the following types of modulation:
Diatonic Common Chord:  "The common chord is usually just before the new dominant.  It has a diatonic function in both the old key and the new key."
Deceptive Cadence:  "The dominant in the old key goes to vi or bVI in a major key, or VI in a minor key, which becomes the new tonic."
Enharmonic Modulation using Diminished 7th:  'The dim7 chord is respelled enharmonically so that it has logical function, either diatonic or chromatic, in both the old key and the new key.'

Chromatic Common Chord:  "The common chord is usually just before the new dominant.  It has a chromatic function in the old key or the new key or both."
Enharmonic Modulation using Mm7th:  'The minor 7th of a Mm7th chord is respelled enharmonically to become an augmented 6th.  This chord functions as a German or Italian 6th in one key (either the old key or new key) and a IV7, V7, bVII7, or secondary dominant in the other key.'

Diminished 7th - Mm7th:  'Lowering any chord member of a dim7 chord by a semitone results in a Mm7 chord.  Some enharmonic spelling may be necessary.  This is usually the dominant in the new key.  The dim7 is often functional in both keys.'
Chromatic Mediant:  "A functional chord in the old key moves by chromatic mediant to a functional chord in the new key.  A common chord is not necessary, but one may be present.

Common Tone Modulation:  "One note is sustained.  It is a member of a chord that is functional in the old key and becomes a member of a chord that is functional in the new key.  A chromatic mediant often exists between these two chords.  A common chord is not necessary, but one may be present."
Direct Modulation:  "There is no possible common chord.  There is no chromatic mediant between the last functional chord in the old key and the first functional chord in the new key.  There is no common tone."

Note that these are from a copyrighted document and the page BlakeTM linked.
Comment: @Dom i agree that more detail and examples would be welcome, and clearly stated the answer was really not mine.  i am neither pretending to be a modulation expert, nor do i want any part of your bounty.  i disagree that a link to the page is fine.  if you are familiar with some of the more established se communities, you know users are discouraged from saying 'look here' without adding content to the answer.  we're trying to build a community that people will find useful now *and* years from now : )
Comment: @josiah yea it's not my preferred method either.  in 5+ months, they have not added to their answer, so i was comfortable with that as an indication that they don't plan to.  if anyone can get them to add at least some of this to their answer, i'll happily delete mine.  as long as the information is available here somehow.  and i'd still love to see someone add to what's here.
Comment: Isn't this what community wiki answers are designed for?
Comment: This really isn't much better then just linking it as your answer is really not yours. The page itself is fine, but someone can add so much more detail to the types of modulation and how to use them along with their own examples.
Comment: Agreed that this answer is useful because of the examples (and why recontrive examples?), and that linkrot is an issue, especially hated at SO (and by me, who has followed many dead links). Still, direct copy paste seems a bit...off. Maybe unsportsmanly? I think the citation is clear enough so it's not a problem though.
Comment: @scrowler [sounds reasonable](http://music.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/community-wiki)
Answer: There are 9 types:

Diatonic Common Chord
Altered Common Chord
Enharmonic Modulation using Mm7 Chord
Deceptive Cadence
Enharmonic Modulation using °7 Chord
Diminished7 -> Major-minor7
Chromatic Mediant
Common Tone Modulation
Direct Modulation

Source: Modulation Types for Musical Analysis, by Charles Francis Leinberger, Ph.D.
Comment: I know I didn't ask for an explanation or an example, but it would be great if you could.
Comment: The source I attached at the bottom has the different types of modulation and explanations for all of them! Hope that helps!
Comment: Does anyone know why he called the dominant chords Mm7?
Answer: My answer is there are inifinte types.  The "types" that we currently accept as "types" now may change, as music changes.  Indeed, if you asked the people writing Gregorian Chant for an exhaustive list of the types of modulation, I'm guessing the list would be much shorter than if you asked, say, Franz Liszt.
Here's another type:
Rhythmic Modulation according to Gavin Harrison, from his book Rhythmic Illusions:

Just as you would 'Modulate' from one 'key' to another, if you were playing the piano for instance, 'Rhythmic Modulation' sounds like you've stepped up into a new tempo.  So Modulation is like taking a rhythm that is in a different tempo and superimposing it over the tempo you are currently playing in.
It may appear to sound like a tempo change but it is in fact just a different way of grouping the subdivisions...

There are also other types, even in western music, that are not so formally defined, such as instrumental and timbral modulation.
Also considering that other cultures have completely different approaches to music, you can see that the different ways music can modulate, or change, is quite a large space.
Comment: I guess the scope of this site is limited to tonal western music...pretty stuffy if you ask me, and not explicitly documented anywhere.
Comment: Revisiting this after awhile.  Note the OP still has not updated to limit their question to tonal western music. I know the scope of the site is implicitly limited to this (tonal) music, and I think that's elitist, culturally exclusionary, and dumb.  It's OK if the discussion is explicitly limited to this genre, but assuming it's the only music in the world is ignorant at best.  The down votes are telling, I wear them with pride; consider this my protest.

How many types of modulation are there?


QSqlTableModel - filter not working?

Question: I created a QSqlTableModel, set a filter and used a QTableView to show a table of my filtered data. This works as expected...
model = new QSqlTableModel;
model->setTable("XXX");
model->select();

model->setFilter(filter);

table = new QTableView;
table->setModel(model);

However, when I try to compute the sum of all visible values of a column in the table view...
float sum = 0.0f;
for(int i=0;i<model->rowCount();i++)
    sum += model->record(i).value("amount").toFloat();

... I get the sum of ALL entries in the table model, NOT only of those items visible in the TableView (where the filter is applied).
How can I make my sum()-function to compute the sum of only those values which are visible in the TableView?
Thank you for your answers!
Answer: model = new QSqlTableModel;
model->setTable("XXX");

model->setFilter(filter);

*model->select();//select after set filter*

table = new QTableView;
table->setModel(model);

QSqlTableModel - filter not working?


Translation of "The word he embodied" to Neutral Spanish

Question: What is the best translation for the phrase "The word he embodied" to Neutral Spanish, considering the best to apply? Because, as it's known, if the translation is made literally, sometimes it doesn't turn out fine or it means a different thing.
Comment: Could you please provide the full sentence? Context is required for the translation to be accurate.
Answer:
The word he embodied

Se traduciría como

La palabra que él encarnó

To embody —To give a bodily form to; incarnate—represents the same than the verb encarnar

encarnar
6 dicho de un espíritu o una idea, tomar forma corporal
Comment: Thank you for the answer
Answer: The phrase you're looking to translate has a bit of a religious ring to it, to my ear.  So I tried googling the phrase, along with the word Christianity.  Bingo.  Lots of hits.  Next I put your phrase into linguee.com.  Consistently, through a number of example usage sentences in the religion context, I found
personificar
For example:

The embodied Word of God: La Palabra de Dios personificada

Thus, your phrase, "the word he embodied" would likely be expressed among Spanish-speaking Christians as

La Palabra que Él personificó

I must emphasize that I'm proceeding logically, not by ear, as I have almost zero personal knowledge of Christianity in either language.
Comment: In Christian religion, we say "el Verbo encarnado" to refer to Christ as the embodiment of the word of God. However, "personificar" could work in other contexts.
Comment: @Gustavson please note that the question was about "neutral spanish", in which case this answer makes more sense to me.
Comment: @walen Yes, I have also heard "el Verbo hecho carne", but on the Internet "Verbo encarnado" beats it 594,000 to 80,100. What is much more common is its use as a tensed verb: *El Verbo se hizo carne*, unless you say *El Verbo se encarnó **en** Jesús*.
Comment: Sorry, everyone, I don't have anything in my ear for this.  I just went by what I saw in linguee.  Hopefully someone with a strong connection to this particular religion will be able to give us a definitive answer.

Translation of “The word he embodied” to Neutral Spanish


Pink (or salmon) colored colonies on foam in starter flask

Question: I noticed several small pink colonies  on the foam of a second stage starter that I made from recovered yeast (originally Gigayeast: GY 054) that was mixed with 25% glycerin and frozen. They were not fuzzy as might be expected for a mold or mycelial species. I've done some research on the Web and PubMed in particular and have found two genera of wild yeast that might be responsible:
Rhodotorula and Sporobolomyces. I didn't find any representations that these were feared contaminants in beer and decided to pitch the starter but also decided to attempt making a second batch with similar ingredients using fresh GY 054 to make another 1L starter. I'll keg them both in a few weeks and report back, but in the meantime I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced the same issue?
Answer: I suspect that the source of the infection was glycerin I used, since I perhaps erroneously assumed it should be sterile from a previously unopened container. I found citations that Sporobolomyces in particular had been isolated from "technical glycerin". Will now run my glycerin supply through the pressure cooker "autoclave". (My wife, trained as a microbiologist, is suspicious that the glycerin will all boil over during autoclaving, but I found with a simple search that glycerin boils far above the temperatures you get with a pressure cooker.)
Further note: Also saw an article that colored mutants of Saccharomyces cerevisiae (the species we are usually using for beer making) can occur when they lose certain enzyme capacities, so this may be more common than I realize.
And final note: Was unable to taste any skunky or "off" odors or tastes in the final product. No differences between the recovered yeast batch and the new commercial batch. And no one got sick or died.


Liability insurance for frequent car rentals

Question: I have currently moved to Ohio, US. I was planning to start renting cars month on month since my company would be reimbursing it. But they refused to reimburse for insurance. So I have to pay the CDW and Liability Protection from my own pocket. My Credit card covers CDW but I am losing my brains over what to do with liability protection.
I have started inquiring about non owner auto policy, but GEICO refused me cover since I am renting cars too frequently and for long duration. I would be calling up other insurance providers and check. Should I remain hopeful? If I have to pay $300-400 for liability every month, It would be better to buy or lease a car isn't it?
Comment: Please rephrase this in the form of a question that can be answered - the two questions in here are "should I remain hopeful?" and "would it be better to buy or lease a car?". These are very broad questions ...
Answer: I've been in similar situation, I've talked with GEICO and Progressive as suggested in answer to this question: «California car insurance for rental cars?»
Unfortunately, what I have learned is that you cannot get their insurance unless you own a car. Once you have insurance for your own car, it does cover rentals to some extent. But it's not possible to get an insurance that would cover only rental cars.


How can a Dragon hold a weapon/shield?

Question: My Bronze Wyrmling familiar has taken the Wyrm of War Sovereign Archetype from Dragons of Eberron, which states that it "becomes proficient with all types of armor and shields, as well as all simple and martial weapons."
Okay, great, but how can it even hold those things? Are Dragon paws naturally able to hold and operate items? Do I need to make some alterations to my weapons and shields to allow my familiar to use them? Can it only use them in its humanoid guise (which it doesn't have yet, but that's besides the point?)
Or is there something else that I have, as of yet, overlooked?
Answer: Draconomicon tells us this about dragons on page 7:

Although a dragon's front feet are not truly prehensile, a
  dragon can grasp objects with its front feet, provided they
  are not too small. This grip is not precise enough for tool
  use, writing, or wielding a weapon, but a dragon can hold
  and carry objects. A dragon also is capable of wielding
  magical devices, such as wands, and can complete somatic components required for the spells it can cast.

So a dragon cannot normally wield a weapon. However, a shield is strapped to the forearm, so the dragon could wield that no problem.
A dragon could use a Mouthpick weapon (from Lords of Madness) to wield a sword in its mouth. You can also use something like graft weapon to bypass the whole "can't hold stuff" bit. The dragon could also trigger a dancing weapon which doesn't need to be held to fight. Also see the magic weapon special ability opposable (Masters of the Wild 28) (+1 bonus; 0 lbs.) and the wondrous item gloves of man (Savage Species 57) (42,000 gp; 0 lbs.).
Serpent Kingdoms and Savage Species also give us the Prehensile Tail feat. Creatures with a tail attack and the Two-Weapon Fighting feat can use it to wield a weapon with their tail.
Comment: @Arthaban No. Proficiency only negates the -4 nonproficiency penalty. An awakened snake with a level of Fighter cannot use a sword.
Comment: In that case, wouldn't the proficiency given by the Wyrm of War Sovereign Archetype mean that dragons with said SA are trained to be able to wield these weapons?
Comment: A [bronze wyrmling](http://www.d20srd.org/srd/monsters/dragonTrue.htm#bronzeDragon) can't meet the prerequisite for the feat Prehensile Tail as it lacks even a tail slap until it's at least juvenile (therefore Large, the size category at which dragons get a tail slap). (Further, strictly speaking, from the *Monster Manual*, only the horned and ice devils meet the feat's tail *attack* prerequisite, other creatures (like crocodiles and whales and cloakers) having tail *slaps*, which is dumb yet precise.)
Comment: @BlueFootedBooby That may be the case in real life, but 3.5 begs to differ: Bucklers say "This small metal shield is worn strapped to your forearm" and regular shields say "You strap a shield to your forearm and grip it with your hand." Dragons can grip just fine.
Comment: A minor point, not all shields are strapped to the arm; in the context of this question its an irrelevant point because you just source one that is.
Answer: As a DM I would rule that the dragon requires specialized weapons designed for their physiology.  For example their sword would look like an Indian Patta sword.  it would satisfy both their physiological description and the archetype's ability.

How can a Dragon hold a weapon/shield?


Proving that the clique cover problem is in NPC by reducing from k-coloring

Question: Provided that we have to compare it against the graph coloring problem which is NPC. So far,
I can only think of connecting edges from a vertex in a provided graph to all the other edges it is not connected to then I separate the new graph g2, then I connect all the vertices that are not connected in the g2. And then I count the number of subsets. However it doesnt seem to work with a graph that requires four colors?
Comment: It sounds like you're already on the right track. Making a vertex adjacent to the vertices it was not adjacent to (and not adjacent to those it was adjacent to) is called taking the *complement* in graph theory. It seems to be a good choice for a first step. Can you elaborate on why you think your solution does not work for four colors?
Comment: say suppose i have clique graph g2 where max clique size is 4, Since they are already all connected/complete graph , I cant do the step that I just mentioned. Also it's a clique cover problem that we have to prove is NPC. I think I don't get what a clique cover problem is?
Comment: If your original input is $K_4$, then its complement separates into 4 $K_1$s (single vertices). So you have four cliques that cover the complement and require four colors. If your original input is 4 vertices with no edges, then the complement is a clique, so you can cover the complement with one clique and only need one color.
Answer: In the interests of putting up an explicit answer, your approach is correct. The proof is sketched on the Wikipedia page for Clique Cover.
The reduction itself is fairly straightforward. The reasoning is that if a graph is $k$-colourable, then it can be partitioned into $k$ independent sets (one for each colour class), then we just exploit the normal reduction between Independent Set and Clique by taking the complement graph (we swap edges for non-edges and vice versa), so any independent set becomes a clique. So if $G$ is $k$-colourable, it can be partitioned into $k$ independent sets and hence $\overline{G}$ can be partitioned into (i.e. covered by) $k$ cliques (but not necessarily by $k$-cliques ;) ). Conversely if $\overline{G}$ can be covered by $k$ cliques, $G$ has a partition into $k$ independent sets, and hence is $k$-colourable.


Why are $U$s raised to successive powers of two in quantum phase estimation when we use $n$ register qubits $|0\rangle|0\rangle|0\rangle$?

Question: Why are $U$s raised to successive powers of two in quantum phase estimation circuit diagram when we use $n$ register qubits $|0\rangle|0\rangle|0\rangle$?
Comment: Good question! FYI The same question was asked in on a different thread and answered here: https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/a/15891/14597
Answer: The objective of all those gates is to put the quantum state in a "nice form" to manipulate. Let me explain. Let's note $U |\psi \rangle = e^{2i\pi\theta}|\psi\rangle$ all the variables we are interested in, meaning we want to find $\theta$ here. After applying all the Hadamard gates and the $U^{2^j}$, the state looks like this :
$$ \frac{1}{2^{n/2}}\left( |0\rangle + e^{2i\pi2^{t-1}\theta}|1\rangle \right)\left( |0\rangle + e^{2i\pi2^{t-2}\theta}|1\rangle \right) ... \left( |0\rangle + e^{2i\pi2^{0}\theta}|1\rangle \right) \otimes|\psi\rangle= \frac{1}{2^{n/2}}\sum_{k = 0}^{2^n-1} e^{2i\pi\theta k} |k\rangle \otimes |\psi\rangle $$
Now if you are familiar with the Quantum Fourier Transform (if not you can check this Qiskit tutorial, I believe it is well-explained here), you'll notice that the expression looks a lot like the QFT of the state $|2^n \theta \rangle $. This way, since applying the inverse QFT is easily done, you can "easily" access the phase you are looking for.
I believe this Qiskit tuto (especially the first part, 1. Overview) and this book (page 221) will explain this better than I do, plus with Qiskit you can see an implementation, and in the book notice it is presented as an application of the QFT.
If you need anything else please feel free to ask :)
Answer: The unitary operations of the phase estimation algorithm are mainly controlled phase rotations of an angle that must be specified in the algorithm.
This angle that you specify is the phase that you want to estimate.
So the first counting qubit will make one rotation the second will make two, qubit 3 will make 4 rotations ... up to 2 ^ t-1 rotations on the register.


Domanassa & Dukkha in enlightened beings?

Question: What is the difference between domanassa & dukkha? Does domanassa arise in enlightened beings? Does bodily dukkha arise in enlightened beings?
Answer:
OP: What is the difference between domanassa & dukkha?

There are many classifications of feelings:

Vedanā (Feeling)
According to the 5-fold classification, a distinction is made between mental and physical pain and pleasure.

Vedanā (Feeling)
In this classification, physical pain (Kāyika dukkha) is called simply dukkha and mental pain (cetasika dukkha) is called domanassa. Kāyika dukkha and cetasika dukkha are also dukkha, hence classified as such in 3 fold classification.

Dukkha - General Application, & various views regarding dukkha. As simple sensation (: pain) & related to other terms: (a) principally a vedanā, sensation, in particular belonging to the body (kāyika), or physical pain (opp. cetasika dukkha mental ill: see domanassa).
Domanassa - Domanassa means unpleasant feeling in mind. lit. 'sad-mindedness', grief, i.e. mentally painful feeling (cetasika-vedanā), is one of the 5 feelings (vedanā, q.v.)
OP: Does domanassa arise in enlightened beings?

No. An enlightened person feels Dukkha (Kāyika dukkha) but not Domanassa:

Bhikshus, when the instructed noble disciple is touched by a painful feeling, he does not sorrow,
or grieve, or lament, or beat his breast, or become confused. So he feels (only) one feeling: the bodily, not
the mental.

Sall'atthena Sutta

OP: Does bodily dukkha arise in enlightened beings?

Yes. An enlightened person feels Dukkha (Kāyika dukkha) but not Domanassa:

Bhikshus, when the instructed noble disciple is touched by a painful feeling, he does not sorrow,
or grieve, or lament, or beat his breast, or become confused. So he feels (only) one feeling: the bodily, not
the mental.

Sall'atthena Sutta
Comment: @user3293056 I updated the answer.
Comment: this seems spot on, and i'm surprised it was downvoted. though i guess a reference for 'Domanassa' would be useful (not a word i recall seeing before)
Answer: From the way you have framed this question, it seems that you already know the difference-- as you are using words dukkha, domanassa and bodily-dukkha. Again, it seems main purpose is to know the different thinking of different minds regarding their presence in enlightened ones. ---:)
Straight answer to the presence of any dukkha whether it's daurmanasya or bodily-dukkha or unsatisfactoriness- NO.
Dukkha is a term that is being used in 1st Noble Truth
Dukkha :: A broader term used by buddha as a base and concrete word to explain that ,"Whatever happens outside this body or inside this body -- if it generates sankharas within this body" is called as dukkha within. It is a very wide term that is being used for all living beings on Earth and every other realms(if one believes in them).
Domanassa or Daurmanasya to be precise :: A term which is a subset of dukkha. This specific word relates to that part of dukkha where perception gives the final approval of pain in various forms such that these forms might persist within even when there is no pained physical sensation, i.e. these forms have their own separate identity other than pain_perception from physical sensation. For it is generally arisen by(but not limited to) 8 worldly concerns and may vary from person to person.
For eg., Childhood friends talking in abusive language will not give them daurmanasya whereas, if I(a stranger) go to them and start abusive language-- it may cause them daurmanasya if they would have been expecting respectable language from me.
Another Eg. :: Two friends who are used to share even same underwears since childhood, now have grown-up and still puts on a punch at each other's head for any small mistake. I go there and saw an unintentional mistake made by one of them causing me little harm in money and now I gift a punch to the same-- it may cause them daurmanasya but not Bodily-Dukkha(as the same is used to even harder punches).
Another eg. :: Two friends••• underwears••• Undertaker(WWE fighter) goes there along with media and saw••• and now gifts a punch to the same-- It shall result in Bodily-Dukkha and Daurmanasya(insult in public) as well.
Most important point to note here is:: One can get rid of daurmanasya and bodily-dukkha by the 5th attainment out of 8 but cannot get rid of dukkha even by the 8th attainment.
Bodily-Dukkha:: This is a restricted version of dukkha as  the ,"final approval of perception part to be as pain for the sensations at physical_body level.". This also gets eradicated by 5th attainment. This also may vary from person to person depending upon their mental strength to endure physical pain.
Here also to notice that, " daurmanasya might also generate bodily-dukkha". For eg., A beautiful wife starts cheating her husband who was too much attached to her. Upon learning of such act, his heart failed.
Again, a point to be noted-- Bodily-Dukkha might also result in daurmanasya. For eg., A person with an uncurable disease due to which person remains trapped under Bodily-Dukkha but with time it breaks down person mentally also, resulting in daurmanasya.
As far as my experience of meditation practice goes, daurmanasya always results in bodily-dukkha.
Above was What is the difference between domanassa & dukkha?
So, now comes the sweet-dish part-- ... :)
Does dukkha or it's parts arise in enlightened beings?
Practical/Experience Answer:: I don't know, I am not an enlightened one.
In Theory::
Simple Conclusive answer:: Daurmanasya and Bodily-Dukkha end with merely 5th attainment and dukkha ends with eradication of sabbasava, with eradication of ignorance, with establishment in equanimity and having awareness of such equanimity as well.
Conclusion :: No, dukkha or it's parts are not there within Enlightened ones.
Reason :: Back to 1st statement with basics, Noble Truths. Buddha said that his path eradicates dukkha(1st noble truth) by eradicating sabbasava, ignorance and establishing in equanimity with awareness of such equanimity.
This doesn't mean that they don't feel sensation but feeling is merely a feeling in itself. It's by the force of the impulse received by brain that they can say that this particular sensation will act as bodily-dukkha or daurmanasya for some other particular person but for them there is no such bodily-dukkha or dukkha itself. Therefore this mind and body might become to them as ,"Earth and stone... reactionless".
References for basic definitions.
See info. regarding Attainments.
If someone wants to check daurmanasya over here and over here too.
Dukkha over here in Noble Truth. Note here as how word 'dukkham' being used for 2 purposes. 1st as generalized and 2nd as bodily-dukkha. Also, this dukkha might be of some interest to you(for me it was) along with this 11 headed dukkha
8 worldly concerns
Be Happy,
Answer: The word 'dukkha' has three different meanings:

'Pain', in relation to painful feelings.
'Unsatisfactoriness', in relation to impermanent things unable to bring lasting happiness.
'Suffering', in relation to how attachment is mental torment.

Enlightened beings experience painful feelings & the unsatisfactoriness of impermanent things but enlightened beings do not experience suffering.
When 'dukkha' means 'suffering, 'domanassa' is an attribute or component of suffering, as follows:

Birth is suffering; old age is suffering; death is suffering; sorrow,
  lamentation, pain, sadness and distress are suffering; not getting
  what you wish for is suffering. In brief, the five grasping aggregates
  are suffering.
Jātipi dukkhā, jarāpi dukkhā, maraṇampi dukkhaṃ,
  sokaparidevadukkhadomanassupāyāsāpi dukkhā, yampicchaṃ na labhati
  tampi dukkhaṃ; saṅkhittena pañcupādānakkhandhā dukkhā.
And what is sadness?
Katamañcāvuso, domanassaṃ?
Mental pain, mental displeasure, the painful, unpleasant feeling
  that's born from mind contact.
Yaṃ kho, āvuso, cetasikaṃ dukkhaṃ cetasikaṃ asātaṃ manosamphassajaṃ
  dukkhaṃ asātaṃ vedayitaṃ,
This is called sadness.
idaṃ vuccatāvuso: 'domanassaṃ'.
MN 141

Birth is a condition for old age and death, sorrow, lamentation, pain,
  sadness and distress to come to be.
jātipaccayā jarāmaraṇaṃ sokaparidevadukkhadomanassupāyāsā sambhavanti.
That is how this entire mass of suffering originates.
Evametassa kevalassa dukkhakkhandhassa samudayo hoti.
SN 12.2


Is there a way to stop enemies from boarding?

Question: While traveling through space I often find myself batteling enemy ships with teleporters in them. Now right at the start of battle they will usually send a boarding party. Is there a way to stop the teleporter before they send enemies to my ship? Because when my weapons are powered up they are already on board.
Comment: Huh, and to think I'm usually *happy* when the enemy boards my ship - they've split their forces in half, so my whole crew can kill the boarders and then **my** boarding crew is more evenly matched.
Comment: possible duplicate of [How can I counter enemy away teams?](http://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/84470/how-can-i-counter-enemy-away-teams)
Comment: It certainly looks a lot like it. The answer of that question does seem to focus more on repelling the boarders. While I looked at the problem more to see if you can prevent them from boarding at all.
Comment: @yx. I know i've seen that question and awnser, it awnsers how to deal with them when they are on board. But if i have not that much crew on my ship I prefer stopping them from boarding in the first place.
Comment: @Colonel Don't edit other people's questions to add your own.  Please make a new question using the Ask Question button.
Answer: There is an augmentation "Weapon Pre-Igniter" that powers your weapons instantly when you come out of the jump. But even with this it is very hard to stop the teleporter. You need to either have sufficient firepower to bring down the shield and teleport station in one go. Or have enough shield bypassing or enough EMP firepower to be able to bring down the teleport station.
You also need to keep it down the whole battle, if it is repaired for a short time it will probably instantly teleport boarders on board. (This I think, I have not tested this).
When I had a ship with the Weapon Pre-Igniter, I never was able to stop the teleporter quick enough to prevent boarding from taking place. I have not tested this very extensively btw.
Taking out the teleport pad does prevent them from returning to their own ship, a blessing and a curse. (They do not teleport away before you can get the EXP. But on the other hand, you still have boarders on your ship)
The enemy can't teleport to a cloaked ship or retreat their troops from a cloaked ship. So you can use Stealth Weapons augmentation and cloaking to blast away the teleport pads of the enemy ship.
And, the Zoltan Shield also prevents ships from teleporting boarders on board. (Events still work).
Comment: The enemy can't teleport to a cloacked ship or retreat their troops from a cloacked ship. If their ship is cloacked, they can still use the teleporter just fine. The same rules apply to the player ship.
Comment: Note that the Stealth ship has built-in Stealth Weapons without using an augmentation slot, so it's relatively effective against boarding attempts right from the start.
Comment: On rebel (or is it federation?) ships, depending on the crew's starting positions, an ion bomb (with the pre-igniter) may be able to neutralize the teleporter before the crew can reach it, it happened to me today. For the smaller mantis ships, though, I think there is no way to disable it in time without cloaking.
Comment: I believe you can also hack the teleporter system on the enemy ship.  Although you'll probably need the Zoltan shield or cloak along with it to buy you enough time to completely prevent boarders.  There's also a super shield drone as another option.
Answer: Cloak to prevent the cloak from targeting your ship.
Weapon pre-igniter to break their teleporter in the first place.
Answer: Another tip.  Weapon Pre-Igniter works wonders with Ion Bombs.  Since Ion Bombs can bypass shields (besides Voltan), you can easily set an Ion Bomb to disable a Teleporter for 4 clock cycles, buying your ship time to prepare.
Answer: Upgrade your doors. It won't prevent boarding but it will definitely slow down the enemies as they have to break down each door before moving between rooms. It's an easy upgrade at the beginning of the game before you can get the more advanced items.


How can I turn off location services system-wide?

Question: I'm trying to locate setting to turn on/off location services system-wide. Is there any way to to achieve that in elementary OS?
Answer: No, there doesn't appear to be a system-wide service to toggle (in /etc/init or /usr/bin), though elementary does have two open tickets for creating one: Add location settings and Create a GeoClue2 "Agent". There are open bounties for both, if you would like to contribute.