Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need 'was there' that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
Þerfor if perfeccioun was bi þe preesthood of Leuy, for vndur hym þe puple took þe lawe, what yit was it nedeful, anoþer preest to rise, bi þe ordre of Melchisedech, and not to be seid bi þe ordre of Aaron?