Assuming for argument's sake your characterization of the development of the teaching on abortion is accurate (it seems to overlook the express prohibitions on abortion, for example, in the Didache), is it your view that the teaching is any less applicable because it has developed? To take another example perhaps more amenable to your politics, it is clear that the Church's teaching on the permissibility of the death penalty has undergone serious development in the last 20 years or so, moving toward outright prohibition. By your logic, because it has only recently developed, presumably the application of the teaching as it currently stands is compromised? Or lessened? In other words, from your view, a conservative Catholic could claim not to be bound by the current teaching on the death penalty by pointing to the fact that the teaching has only recently developed into its current form?