LET ME FINISH BY RETURNING TO THIS QUESTION: WHY ISN'T "NEW MONEY"--EVERY TIME THE FEDERAL RESERVES DECIDES TO INCREASE THE MONEY SUPPLY FOR THE REASONS EXPLAINED ABOVE--NOT SIMPLY GRANTED (GIVEN, FREE OF CHARGE) DIRECTLY TO AMERICAN CITIZENS SO THEY, IN THEIR ROLE AS CONSUMERS, CAN USE IT TO INCREASE THEIR PURCHASING POWER?  

INSTEAD, AS STATED ABOVE, AT LEAST SINCE THE 1950s, THE FED HAS "LOANED" NEW MONEY INTO EXISTENCE TO THE PRIVATE, FOR-PROFIT BANKING INDUSTRY--

AT A LOWER "WHOLESALE" INTEREST RATE, FOR "LENDING" TO CONSUMERS AT A HIGHER RETAIL INTEREST RATE--

RESULTING IN A GUARANTEED AND UNEARNED PROFIT FOR THE PRIVATE BANKING INDUSTRY (IN ALL BUT UNLIKELY WORST-CASE ECONOMIC SCENARIOS). 

IF NEW MONEY WAS SIMPLY GIVEN TO EVERY TAXPAYING CITIZEN, IT IS FAR MORE LIKELY TO BE SPENT ON NEW GOODS AND SERVICES, AND THEREFORE MUCH MORE LIKELY TO RESULT IN THE NEW ECONOMIC GROWTH THE FEDERAL RESERVE, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, AND THE PRIVATE BANKING INDUSTRY ALL DESIRE.--con't below.