DTK1407:
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If your hypothesis is correct, then the countries with no IP laws, or weak IP laws, should be more successful than those with secure patent, copyright, and trade mark laws.
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Yet this is demonstrably not so:  The most successful economies are, without exception, the ones with the most advanced and most easily accessible intellectual property systems.
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Why is that?
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If your theory doesn't fit the easily observed facts, maybe your theory is wrong.
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Is it possible that the inter-relationship of intellectual property law and economic success is not as simple as you think?