Thanks for the clarification--at least of the point you made in your comment.  But were you really only clarifying the definition of "paraphrase"?  If so, I have to disagree with your assertion that JK was merely paraphrasing Churchill--IF "to paraphrase" implies that only the wording, but not the meaning, of a statement is changed.  JK did indeed change the meaning, so perhaps this act would be more accurately described as parody or satire rather than mere paraphrasing.  Do you agree?