In treating First Nations as a 'nation' the participants, Supreme Court of Canada included, seem to mean as a separate country rather than just as an ethnic group of our domestic population with special rights due to their heredity. How can a Court then have jurisdiction over someone else's country? It seems logically impossible. Does the Supreme Court of Russia, of the USA, of China, of India or of Burundi etcetera have jurisdiction over Canada - at least without their country either conquering us or absorbing us first as the USA did with the Loiusiana and Alaska purchases? Something is very wrong in their thinking. Treaties may be a special case of absorption - but what then of BC that generally doesn't have them?