Let's say a woman hypothetically was known as a lesbian prior to her transition, like publicly. Then she transitioned and now he is known as he but married to a woman still. That means that we would then be expected to perceive him as straight, and his relationship as heteronormative. Can someone explain to me how this has nothing to do with social pressure against being openly gay/lesbian and totally is not gay erasure whereby those sexist self-hating gays attempt to change their appearance to comply with heterornormative expectations that men cannot be feminine, and women cannot be masculine, when they respectively look like men and women.