operating income
Sedar is I guess the Canadian equivalent of EDGAR. You can find the company's filings there.  Here's a picture from their filings. Can't post the link, if you go and find the filing through Sedar you'll know why (it's not as nice a site as EDGAR). The 4.8 million is from unrealized gain on biological assets. So that's what it is. The reason, I think, as to why Operating Income is a positive 2.67 even though Operating Expense and Gross Profit are both negative is because Google Finance backed into Operating Expense. Operating Income is the same between the two sources, it's just the unrealized gain that moves. Judgement, settlement, insurance proceeds, etc etc. These would probably be recorded as a negative expense in the same category where the original expense was recorded.
Unless you are a tax-exempt entity and running this server is clearly within your mission statement: YES, it's taxable income. Sorry. You first compute your Ordinary Income (which includes Dividends, since they are taxed as OI), then you apply the standard tax bracket function to it, which is a piecewise linear function f() such that TAX = f(INCOME). It can be found at About.com. You can transform this into NET_INCOME = g(INCOME) = INCOME - TAX = INCOME - f(INCOME). Presumably g() is what you want to graph. I've actually graphed it before:  Not too interesting, even on a LogLog scale. More interesting is the marginal tax rate, which is the derivative of f(), or the negative of the derivative of g():  ST (straight tax) shows what the marginal tax rate would look like if f() was just f(x)=kx or f(x)=kx+c, i.e. a straight/flat tax. The net tax rate (f(x)/x) actually gets more interesting if you also include [federal subsidies/deductions](Src: http://fbheron.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/03/fedassistance_ft.jpg) as a negative tax:  Capital Gains are taxed separately and have (almost) nothing to do with this function. Corporate tax is not payed by you (although the burden of the tax [technical term] may fall upon you). Sorry I couldn't simplify; taxes are just complicated. Stock price = Earning per share * P/E Ratio. Most of the time you will see in a listing the Stock price and the P/E ration. The calculation of the EPS is left as an exercise for the student Investor. "P/E is price to earnings, or the price of the company divided by annual earnings. Earnings, as reported, are reported on accrual basis. Accrual basis accounting is...without going too deep, like taking a timeline, chopping it up and throwing different bits and pieces of every year into different piles.  Costs from 2008 might show up in 2011, or the company might take costs in 2011 that aren't necessarily costs until 2012.  Examples would include one-time charges for specific investments, like new shipping centers, servers for their hosting services, etc.    Free cash flow is the amount of cash Amazon is generating from its operations. Free cash flow is almost always different from earnings because it's the amount of Earnings + adjustments for non-cash activities - capital expenditures (long-term investments.)  Earnings is one thing.  Cash generation is a completely different animal.  There are plenty of companies that ""earn"" billions, but only have a few hundred million in cash to show for it because their earnings have to be reinvested into new stuff to grow/maintain the business.  To have a free cash flow yield of 2.5% is to have a company valued at $40 for each $1 of free cash flow that the company generates each year.  $1/$40 = 2.5%.  SGA = Selling, General, &amp; Administrative expenses.  These are the costs of running the company - paying salaries, advertising, etc.  This cost is second only to COGS, which is Cost of Goods Sold.    Currently, Amazon pays $.774 for every $1 product it sells.  Its operations add another ~$.20 to that total.  After taxes, Amazon keeps about 2 cents of every dollar's worth of product it sells.  This 2 cents is Amazon's net margin of 2%.  Net margin is (net income)/(sales).  If Amazon earned $3 for every $100 in sales it would have a net margin of 3%.     Let me know if this makes no sense.  If there's anything in particular that is especially confusing, definitely reply and I'll better clarify on specific items.  Fire away with any questions, also.  I love to discuss finance and accounting." "EPS is often earnings/diluted shares. That is counting shares as if all convertible securities (employee stock options for example) were converted. Looking at page 3 of Q4 2015 Reissued Earnings Press Release we find both basic ($1.13) and diluted EPS ($1.11). Dividends are not paid on diluted shares, but only actual shares. If we pull put this chart @ Yahoo finance, and hovering our mouse over the blue diamond with a ""D"", we find that Pfizer paid dividends of $0.28, $0.28, $0.28, $0.30 in 2015. Or $1.14 per share. Very close to the $1.13, non-diluted EPS. A wrinkle is that one can think of the dividend payment as being from last quarter, so the first one in 2015 is from 2014. Leaving us with $0.28, $0.28, $0.30, and unknown. Returning to page three of Q4 2015 Reissued Earnings Press Release, Pfizer last $0.03 per share. So they paid more in dividends that quarter than they made. And from the other view, the $0.30 cents they paid came from the prior quarter, then if they pay Q1 2016 from Q4 2015, then they are paying more in that view also." "$500, this is called ""cash basis"" accounting. A large company might handle it otherwise, counting shipments/billings as revenue. Not you. Yet." I look at the following ratios and how these ratios developed over time, for instance how did valuation come down in a recession, what was the trough multiple during the Lehman crisis in 2008, how did a recession or good economy affect profitability of the company. Valuation metrics: Enterprise value / EBIT (EBIT = operating income) Enterprise value / sales (for fast growing companies as their operating profit is expected to be realized later in time) and P/E Profitability: Operating margin, which is EBIT / sales Cashflow / sales Business model stability and news flow "Thanks for the response.   I am using WRDS database and we are currently filtering through various variables like operating income, free cash flow etc.  Main issue right now is that the database seems to only go up to 2015...is there a similar database that has 2016 info?  filtering out the ""recent equity issuance or M&amp;A activity exceeding 10% of total assets"" is another story, namely, how can I identify M&amp;A activity? I suppose we can filter it with algorithm stating if company's equity suddenly jumps 10% or more, it get's flagged" 20% is almost certainly too high. I agree with 2%, as a very rough rule. It will vary significantly depending on the industry. I generally calculate an average of the previous 2-3 years working capital, and deduct that from cash. Working capital is Current Assets less Current Liabilities. Current Assets is comprised of cash, prepaid expenses, and significantly, accounts receivable. This means that CA is likely to be much higher than just cash, which leaves more excess cash after liabilities are deducted. Which reduces EV, which makes the EV/EBITDA ratio look even more pricey, as Dimitri noted. But a balance sheet is just a snapshot of the final day of the quarter. As such, and because of seasonal effects, it's critical to smooth this by averaging several periods. After calculating this for a few companies, compare to revenue. Is it close to 2%? I think the most concise way to understand EV is the value of the *operating assets* of the firm. It's most generally used when using income statement or cash flow ratios that are unlevered - before applying interest expense (which if the firm is optimally financed, in theory should only impact the equity). Examples include revenue, EBIT, EBITDA, unlevered FCF, etc.  In your hypothetical scenario, you would expect the equity value of the firm to increase linearly as cash builds up. In other words, in some implausible, ceteris paribus formulation of the firm, the enterprise value should remain constant. &gt; Operations includes dividends and interest from investing  The graph included dividends as operations income.  I hope there is a written story that justifies this nonsense, because Buffet has long praised the dividend paying stock.  It is an investment strategy. There are several questions to answer before help can be given. How much revenue did you have this year? What is expected revenue growth for next few years? Are you operating as a sole proprietor, partnership or corporation? If a corporation did you maintain your books on the cash basis or accrual? I recommend you seek a CPA not a bookkeeper. And, don't wait until end of year to fund one. IESC has a one-time, non-repeatable event in its operating income stream.  It magnifies operating income by about a factor of five.  It impacts both the numerator and the denominator.  Without knowing exactly how the adjustments are made it would take too much work for me to calculate it exactly, but I did get close to their number using a relatively crude adjustment rule. Basically, Yahoo is excluding one-time events from its definitions since, although they are classified as operating events, they distort the financial record.  I teach securities analysis and have done it as a profession.  If I had to choose between Yahoo and Marketwatch, at least for this security, I would clearly choose Yahoo. I would suggest that you try ClearCheckbook.  It is kind of like Mint, but you can add and remove things (graphs, features, modules) to make it as simple or diverse as you need it to be.  It should be a workable solution for simply tracking both income and expenses, yet it will also provide extra features as needed. There is a free option as well as a paid option with added features.  I have not used ClearCheckbook before, but according to their features page it looks like you may have to upgrade to the paid option if you want to have complete tagging/custom field flexibility. "The way the post is worded, coca cola wouldn't count towards either, although it's not entirely clear. If the dividends are considered under capital gains (which isn't technically an appropriate term) he's earning only 500Million a year from his stake in coca cola. If he sold his shares, he'd receive capital gains of ~15Billion, which would probably outpace his operations business.   The best graph would probably be something like ""net worth of operations vs net worth of equity in other companies"""