Is it usual for a tradesperson not to charge VAT?
Assuming this to be in the UK, and I suspect  the rules are similar elsewhere, this indeed may be true. There is a threshold beneath which a business does not have to register for VAT - currently a turnover of £81,000. A non VAT registered business does not charge VAT but also cannot reclaim the VAT on their business expenses. For some businesses below the threshold it is worthwhile registering because the amount they can reclaim is significant. However, there are also many small businesses that do a lot of cash only jobs so as to not put the money through the books and therefore avoid any tax liability. There are also many who will get the the customer to buy materials direct to avoid including these in their turnover.  Like every type of tax rule there is a grey area between people trying to avoid paying more tax than is needed and dodgy deals to avoid paying their fair share of tax.
Assuming you buy the services and products beforehand and then provide them to your clients. Should the cost of these products and services be deducted from my declared income or do I include them and then claim them as allowable expenses? You arrive at your final income after accounting for your incomings and outgoings ?  regularly buys products and services on behalf of clients These are your expenses. invoice them for these costs after These are your earnings. These are not exactly allowable expenses, but more as the cost of doing your business, so it will be deducted from your earnings. There will be other business expenses which you need to deduct from your earnings and then you arrive at your income/profit. So before you arrive at your income all allowable expenses have been deducted. include on my invoices to clients  VAT if you charge VAT. Any charges you require them to pay i.e. credit card charges etc. You don't need to inform clients about any costs you incur for doing your business unless required by law. If you are unsure about something browse the gov.uk website or obtain the services of an accountant. Accounting issues might be costly on your pocket if mistakes are committed. No, as a director normally you can't. As a director of a Limited company, all those payments should be accounted for as directors' remuneration and have been subject to PAYE and NIC, even if you are self-employed. Currently there is no legislation which prevents a director from receiving self-employment income from a company in which he is a director, however the default position of HMRC's is that all the payments derived from the directorship are subject to PAYE. In other words, it's possible only invoice from an unconnected business or in a consultancy role that's not directly related to the trade of business. But it really depends on the circumstances and the contracts in place. Sources: Monsoon at AAT forum, David Griffiths at UKBF, Paula Sparrow and Abutalib at AW  More sources: If a person does other work that’s not related to being a director, they may have an employment contract and get employment rights. Source: Employment status as director at Gov.uk In principle, it is possible for an employee or office holder to tender for work with their employer outside their normal duties, in circumstances where that individual will not be providing service as an employee or office holder but as a self-employed contractor. Where there is any doubt about whether service is provided constitutes employment or self-employment, see the Employment Status Manual (ESM). Source: Section 62 ITEPA 2003 at HMRC In principle, when you are the sole owner of a limited company, and also the sole employee, then it is much easier to assume that someone else is the employee. Let's say your twin brother John Adler.  John Adler receives a salary from David Adler's company. Of course John has to pay income tax on his salary. Absolutely in the UK, and in Estonia as well if they have any sensible tax laws at all (which I assume but don't know for sure).  Then there is the company. It's profit equals revenue, minus cost. You said £4000 revenue, and John Adler's salary, plus anything the company has to pay on top of the salary, is cost, which is subtracted from the revenue to calculate profit. In the UK, the company pays 20% corporation tax on those profits, and the rest stays in its bank account (or may be in goods that the company purchased).  Where does David Adler come in? He owns the company, but doesn't work for it and gets no salary. He owns the company, but he does not own the company's money. He can't just help himself to the money. He can get a loan from the company, and is personally responsible for repaying that loan. If it's not repaid, HMRC will be very angry which will hurt. Or he can pay himself a dividend, and pays dividend tax on it. Or of course he can leave the money in the company.  That's exactly how it works in the UK, and I would assume Estonia to be similar. And of course if it's not the twin brother who is the employee, but the OP himself, then the situation is exactly the same. It looks like businesses selling services (like software downloads) from outside the EU to the UK have to register for VAT if the amount of such sales goes over the UK VAT registration threshold: [If] the value of the taxable supplies you make is over a specified   threshold [then] you must register for VAT So it seems plausible that this business does have some requirement to charge VAT on its sales, but clearly it should have done so at the time of sale, not months later. As you say, UK and EU law require that prices are displayed including relevant taxes. Since this business is in the US, they might be able to claim that those rules don't apply to them. But I'm not aware of even US businesses being able to claim sales tax from a US customer months after originally making a sale, and it goes against all reasonable principles of law if they would be able to do it. So the business should really just accept that they screwed up and they'll now have to take the hit and pay the tax themselves. They can work as if the pre-tax price was $12.99/1.2 = $10.825, leaving $2.165 they need to hand over to HMRC. I don't think there's any legal way they can demand money from you now, and certainly for such a low sum of money there's no practical way they could. I can't find anything definitive one way or the other, but I suppose it's possible that HMRC would consider you the importer under these circumstances and so liable for the VAT yourself. But I don't know of any practial way to actually report this to HMRC or pay them the money, and again given the amount there's no realistic chance they'd want to chase you for it. In your shoes I would either ignore the email, or write back and politely tell them that they should have advertised the cost at the time and you're not willing to pay extra now. And you might want to keep an eye on the card you used to pay them to make sure they don't try to just charge it anyway. EDIT: as pointed out in a comment, the company behind this (or at least one with a very similar problem and wording in their emails!) did end up acknowledging that they can't actually do this and that they'll need to pay the tax out of the money they already collected, as I described above. It seems they didn't contact the people they originally emailed to let them know this, though. There's some more discussion here. I love the flat rate VAT scheme. It's where you pay a percentage based on your industry. An example might be Computer repair services, where you'll pay 10.5% of your total revenue to the HMRC. But you'll be invoicing for VAT at 20% still. Would definitely recommend registering for it since you're expecting to cross the threshold anyway. And like DumbCoder said, you also get a first year discount of 1%, so in the example above, you'd end up paying 9.5% VAT on your turnover. I personally found it a pain to invoice without VAT (my clients expected it), so registering made sense regardless of the fact I was over threshold. The tricky bit is keeping under the £150k turnover so you stay eligible for the flat rate. It does get more complex otherwise. You can register a limited company and leave it dormant, that's no problem. You just need to make sure that later on you notify HMRC within 3 months of any trading activity. As pointed out, you can register a company in a few hours now so I wouldn't worry about that. Your confusion about Private Limited Companies is understandable, it's often not made clear but UK formation services standard packages are always Private Limited by Shares companies. Limited by Guarantee is something else, and normally used by charities or non-profits only. See explanations here. Registering for VAT is optional until you reach the £81,000 turnover threshold but it can make your services more attractive to large companies - especially in your field of business. You should really seek professional advice on whether or not this is the best option for you. "I'm thinking about visiting the UK and I'm wondering which things are affected by the VAT and which are not. Most consumer goods are subject to VAT at the standard rate. Most food sold in shops is zero-rated, with the exception of a handful of luxury foods. Food in cafes/restaurants and some takeaway food is subject to VAT at the standard rate. Most paper books are zero rated (IIRC books that come with CDs are an exception).  Some services are exempt, insurance is a notable one, so are some transactions with charities. Some small buisnesses and sole traders may not be VAT registered in which case there is no VAT for you to pay (but they can't reclaim VAT on the goods and services they buy). (there is a distinction between zero-rated and exempt but it's not relavent to you as a customer). Some goods have special rules, notably second hand goods.  Prices are normally given inclusive of VAT. The exception to this is suppliers who mostly deal in business to business transactions. Also as a non-UK resident is there a way to get a rebate/reimbursement on this tax? There is something called the ""retail export scheme"" which can get you a refund but there are a number of catches." Compliance issues vary from country to country and, in the US, state to state as well.  There'll be a number of levels, though: Bear in mind that it is not that these taxes and responsibilities don't apply to sole traders or unregistered businesses, it's just that being registered signals your existence and introduces the bureaucracy to you all at once. Update: Your accountant should manage your company and consumer tax calculations and submissions on your behalf (and a good one will complete all the paperwork on time plus let you know well in advance what your liability is, as well as offer advice on reducing and restructuring these liabilities).  You're probably on your own for local taxes unless your accountant deals with these and is local to even know what they are. "http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/customs/tax-and-duty.htm#3 explains the Import VAT situation quite well.  As for who enforces and collects it, if you're talking about buying online and having it shipped to you then you'll notice on the parcel a Customs sticker declaring the contents and value. It is the responsibility of the courier company to collect any duty due from you and pass it on to HMRC.  In practice what this means is that you receive a card or note from the courier saying ""we're impounding your package until you pay the import duty"" and they usually charge a fee on top of the duty itself.  Of course you can always go out there yourself and bring something back, but then it is your responsibility to declare it at the customs checkpoint when you enter the country." The short Answer is NO, HMRC do not like disguised employment which is what this is as you fall under IR35 you can bill them via an umbrella company and you should be charging the contractor rate not a permie rate.  http://www.contractoruk.com/ Yes, you can deduct from your taxable profits (almost) any expenses incurred in the course of your business. See here for HMRC's detailed advice on the subject. The fact that you have salaried PAYE employment as well makes no difference. But why can't two companies exchange goods directly without paying VAT? This would make the famous carousel fraud scam impossible and businesses won't have to deal with complicated refunds. Sales tax in the United States works as you describe.  Sales tax is charged only to end customers, not to businesses that themselves charge sales tax.  But this means that a criminal business can charge tax and just pocket it unless someone else reports it.  They can also evade income tax the same way.  Not to mention other issues like cross jurisdiction taxes (e.g. internet sales often evade sales tax).   The whole point of a Value Added Tax (VAT) is that they charge at each level.  This creates a system where each buyer reports the tax paid to the seller so as to be able to deduct it.  So the seller has to pay the VAT that they charged.  Or the tax authorities know and can revoke their VAT license.   If only the end user is charged tax, then fraud is easier than under a VAT.  So easy, I doubt they have a special name for it.  The fraudulent business just collects tax from end users and disappears.  Or simply fails to record those transactions.  You could call it missing transaction record fraud, but why bother?  It's just straight up tax fraud.  The complexity of the carousel fraud arises from the difficulty of evading a VAT. "Keep in mind that all of the information below assumes: That being said, here are some examples of national tax laws relating to barter transactions. Obviously this isn't an exhaustive list, but based on my grossly non-representative sample, I think it's fairly safe to assume that barter transactions are more likely taxable than not.  You're referring to a barter system; in the United States, the IRS is very specific about this (see the section titled Bartering).  Bartering is an exchange of property or services. The fair market   value of goods and services exchanged is fully taxable and must be   included on Form 1040 in the income of both parties. The IRS also provides more details: Bartering occurs when you exchange goods or services without   exchanging money. An example of bartering is a plumber doing repair   work for a dentist in exchange for dental services. You must include   in gross income in the year of receipt the fair market value of goods   and services received in exchange for goods or services you provide or   may provide under the bartering arrangement. Generally, you report this income on Form 1040, Schedule C (PDF),   Profit or Loss from Business or Form 1040, Schedule C-EZ (PDF), Net   Profit from Business. If you failed to report this income, correct   your return by filing a Form 1040X (PDF). Refer to Topic 308 for   amended return information. So yes, the net value of bartered goods or services is most likely taxable. According to the Australian Tax Office: Barter transactions are assessable and deductible for income tax   purposes to the same extent as other cash or credit transactions. Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs states that: If you supply services or goods (new or second-hand) and receive other   goods or services in payment, there are two separate supplies: You must account for VAT, and so must your customer if they're   VAT-registered. The VAT treatment is the same as for part-exchanges.   You must both account for VAT on the amounts you would each have paid   for the goods or services if there had been no barter and they had   been paid for with money. Searching the website of the Federal Tax Service for the Russian/Cryllic word for barter (бартер) doesn't yield any results, but that might be because even between Google Translate and the rest of the internet, I don't speak Russian. That being said, I did manage to find this (translated from the first full paragraph of the Russian, beginning with ""Налог на доходы..."": The tax on personal income is paid by citizens of the Russian   Federation with all types of income received by them in the calendar   year, either in cash or in kind. Since bartering would probably qualify as an in kind transaction, it would likely be taxable.  The South African Revenue Service includes barter transactions in the supply of goods taxed under the VAT.  The term “supply” is defined very broadly and includes all forms of   supply and any derivative of the term, irrespective of where the   supply is effected. The term includes performance in terms of a sale,   rental agreement, instalment credit agreement or barter transaction. Look for section 3.6, Supply and Taxable Supply, found on p17 of the current version of the linked document." Not optional, but I assumed the premise was that with out having to pay for health care corporations would pay more in wages. In the US that is never going to be true.   In other words they would use the VAT and not having to pay for health care as an excuse to extract more profit. Employee wages wouldn't go up, corporate health care costs would go down, and the VAT would be passed on to the consumer through higher prices. Ethically, you and your landlord should always report both income and expense as there technically exists a service and a rent. So it is subject to taxation. On the other hand, it can be considered an exchange of a simple favour and if it doesn't involve a money exchange or any profits (I am assuming that you are not selling what you or your landlord produce on the market) no value can be calculated thus no taxation can be applied. This changes though if a contract is involved, as a legal value can be estimated. Caution: These subjects can vary on an extreme level of specificity, of what can and cannot be claimed as income and expense, which can vary per country, state, province and even per judge, as well as the nature and sector of the work. Also, if you intend to formalize this relationship, the type of contract and reporting forms do vary per state as well. So it might be best to confirm it with a local legal advisor to avoid unfortunate surprises.