U.S. stock sales- tax on sale for NR Canadian
If you're a non resident then you owe no capital gains tax to Canada. Most banks won't let you make trades if you're a non-resident.  They may not have your correct address on file so they don't realize this.  This is not tax law but just OSC (or equivalent) regulations. You do have to fill out paperwork for withholding tax on OAS/CPP payments.  This is something you probably already do but here's a link .  It's complicated and depends on the country you live in. Of course you may owe tax in Thailand, I don't know their laws.
Here's an article on it that might help: http://thefinancebuff.com/restricted-stock-units-rsu-sales-and.html One of the tricky things is that you probably have the value of the vested shares and withheld taxes already on your W-2. This confuses everyone including the IRS (they sent me one of those audits-by-mail one year, where the issue was they wanted to double-count stock compensation that was on both 1099-B and W-2; a quick letter explaining this and they were happy). The general idea is that when you first irrevocably own the stock (it vests) then that's income, because you're receiving something of value. So this goes on a W-2 and is taxed as income, not capital gains. Conceptually you've just spent however many dollars in income to buy stock, so that's your basis on the stock. For tax paid, if your employer withheld taxes, it should be included in your W-2. In that case you would not separately list it elsewhere. "As mentioned in other answers, you find out by reading the Rulebook for that commodity and exchange.  I'll quote a couple of random passages to show how they vary: For CME (Chicago Mercantile Exchange) Random Length Lumber Futures, the delivery is ornate: Seller shall give his Notice of Intent to Deliver to the Clearing   House prior to 12:00 noon (on any Business Day after termination of   trading in the contract month. 20103.D. Seller's Duties If the buyer's designated destination is east of the western boundaries of North Dakota, South Dakota, Nebraska,   Kansas, Texas and Oklahoma, and the western boundary of Manitoba,   Canada, the seller shall follow the buyer's shipping instructions   within seven (7) Business Days after receipt of such instructions. In   addition, the seller shall prepay the actual freight charges and bill   the buyer, through the Clearing House, the lowest published freight   rate for 73-foot railcars from Prince George, British Columbia to the   buyer's destination. If the lowest published freight rate from Prince   George, British Columbia to buyer's destination is a rate per one   hundred pounds, the seller shall bill the buyer on the weight basis of   1,650 pounds per thousand board feet. The term ""lowest published   freight rate"" refers only to the lowest published ""general through   rate"" and not to rates published in any other rate class. If, however, the buyer’s destination is outside of the aforementioned   area, the seller shall follow the same procedures except that the   seller shall have the right to change the point of origin and/or   originating carrier within 2 Business Days after receipt of buyer’s   original shipping instructions. If a change of origin and/or   originating carrier is made, the seller shall then follow the buyer's   revised instructions within seven (7) Business Days after receipt of   such instructions. If the freight rate to the buyer's destination is not published, the   freight charge shall be negotiated between the buyer and seller in   accordance with industry practice. Any additional freight charges resulting from diversion by the buyer   in excess of the actual charges for shipment to the destination   specified in the shipping instructions submitted to the Clearing House   are the responsibility of the buyer. Any reduction in freight charges   that may result from a diversion is not subject to billing adjustment   through the Clearing House. Any applicable surcharges noted by the   rail carrier shall be considered as part of the freight rate and can   be billed to the buyer through the CME Clearing House. If within two (2) Business Days of the receipt of the Notice of Intent   the buyer has not designated a destination, or if during that time the   buyer and seller fail to agree on a negotiated freight charge, the   seller shall treat the destination as Chicago, Illinois. If the buyer   does not designate a carrier or routing, the seller shall select same   according to normal trade practices. To complete delivery, the seller   must deposit with the Clearing House a Delivery Notice, a uniform   straight bill of lading (or a copy thereof) and written information   specifying grade, a tally of pieces of each length, board feet by   sizes and total board feet. The foregoing documents must be received   by the Clearing House postmarked within fourteen (14) Business Days of   the date of receipt of shipping instructions. In addition, within one (1) Business Day after acceptance by the   railroad, the Clearing House must receive information (via a telephone   call, facsimile or electronic transmission) from the seller giving the   car number, piece count by length, unit size, total board footage and   date of acceptance. The ￼date of acceptance by the railroad is the   date of the bill of lading, signed and/or stamped by the originating   carrier, except when determined otherwise by the Clearing House. For some commodities you can't get physical delivery (for instance, Cheese futures won't deliver piles of cheese to your door, for reasons that may be obvious) 6003.A. Final Settlement There shall be no delivery of cheese in settlement of this contract.   All contracts open as of the termination of trading shall be cash   settled based upon the USDA monthly weighted average price in the U.S.   for cheese. The reported USDA monthly weighted average price for   cheese uses both 40 pound cheddar block and 500 pound barrel prices. CME gold futures will deliver to a licensed depository, so you would have to arrange for delivery from the depository (they'll issue you a warrant), assuming you really want a 100 troy oz. bar of gold: CONTRACT SPECIFICATIONS The contract for delivery on futures contracts shall be one hundred   (100) troy ounces of gold with a weight tolerance of 5% either higher   or lower. Gold delivered under this contract shall assay to a minimum   of 995 fineness and must be a brand approved by the Exchange. Gold meeting all of the following specifications shall be deliverable   in satisfaction of futures contract delivery obligations under this   rule: Either one (1) 100 troy ounce bar, or three (3) one (1) kilo bars. Gold must consist of one or more of the Exchange’s Brand marks, as provided in Chapter 7, current at the date of the delivery of   contract. Each bar of Eligible gold must have the weight, fineness, bar number, and brand mark clearly incised on the bar. The weight may be   in troy ounces or grams. If the weight is in grams, it must be   converted to troy ounces for documentation purposes by dividing the   weight in grams by 31.1035 and rounding to the nearest one hundredth   of a troy ounce. All documentation must illustrate the weight in troy   ounces. Each Warrant issued by a Depository shall reference the serial number and name of the Producer of each bar. Each assay certificate issued by an Assayer shall certify that each bar of gold in the lot assays no less than 995 fineness and weight of   each bar and the name of the Producer that produced each bar. Gold must be delivered to a Depository by a Carrier as follows: a. directly from a Producer; b. directly from an Assayer, provided that such gold is accompanied by   an assay certificate of such Assayer; or c. directly from another Depository; provided, that such gold was   placed in such other Depository pursuant to paragraphs (a) or (b)   above." Let me restate question for clarity. Facts: Question: Are there any taxes for this transaction? Answer: (Added improvements provided by Eric) Generally No. Generally, it is not considered income until you sell and the sale price is greater than the purchase price. But with currency differences, there is an additional complication, section 988 rules apply. It could result in ordinary income or loss. It is not a dump question because it concerns your most important invisible financial partner:the taxman. The answer depends of the legal status of this account. If your account is 401(k) in USA or RRSP in Canada, the answer is no. No capital gain taxes if your money is registered for retirement. You'll pay later on, as taxes are like death, unavoidable. Yes capital gain if your money is not in an retirement account. As soon as you realize a capital gain, it becomes taxable in that fiscal year. For Canada No distinction is made in the regulation between “naked” or “covered” short sales. However, the practice of “naked” short selling, while not specifically enumerated or proscribed as such, may violate other provisions of securities legislation or self-regulatory organization rules where the transaction fails to settle. Specifically, section 126.1 of the Securities Act prohibits activities that result or contribute “to a misleading appearance of trading activity in, or an artificial price for, a security or derivative of a security” or that perpetrate a fraud on any person or company. Part 3 of National Instrument 23-101 Trading Rules contains similar prohibitions against manipulation and fraud, although a person or company that complies with similar requirements established by a recognized exchange, quotation and trade reporting system or regulation services provider is exempt from their application. Under section 127(1) of the Securities Act, the OSC also has a “public interest jurisdiction” to make a wide range of orders that, in its opinion, are in the public interest in light of the purposes of the Securities Act (notwithstanding that the subject activity is not specifically proscribed by legislation). The TSX Rule Book also imposes certain obligations on its “participating organizations” in connection with trades that fail to settle (see, for example, Rule 5-301 Buy-Ins).  In other words, shares must be located by the broker before they can be sold short. A share may not be locatable because there are none available in the broker's inventory, that it cannot lend more than what it has on the books for trade.  A share may not be available because the interest rate that brokers are charging to borrow the share is considered too high by that broker, usually if it doesn't pass on borrowing costs to the customer.  There could be other reasons as well. If one broker doesn't have inventory, another might.  I recommend checking in on IB's list.  If they can't get it, my guess would be that no one can since IB passes on the cost to finance short sales. "The wash sale rule only applies when the sale in question is at a loss.  So the rule does not apply at all to your cases 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12, 15, and 16, which all start with a gain.  You get a capital gain at the first sale and then a separately computed gain / loss at the second sale, depending on the case, BUT any gain or loss in the IRA is not a taxable event due to the usual tax-advantaged rules for the IRA. The wash sale does not apply to ""first"" sales in your IRA because there is no taxable gain or loss in that case.  That means that you wouldn't be seeking a deduction anyway, and there is nothing to get rolled into the repurchase. This means that the rule does not apply to 1-8.  For 5-8, where the second sale is in your brokerage account, you have a ""usual"" capital gain / loss as if the sale in the IRA didn't happen. (For 1-4, again, the second sale is in the IRA, so that sale is not taxable.) What's left are 9-10 (Brokerage -> IRA) and 13-14 (Brokerage -> Brokerage).   The easier two are 13-14.  In this case, you cannot take a capital loss deduction for the first sale at a loss.  The loss gets added to the basis of the repurchase instead.  When you ultimately close the position with the second sale, then you compute your gain or loss based on the modified basis.  Note that this means you need to be careful about what you mean by ""gain"" or ""loss"" at the second sale, because you need to be careful about when you account for the basis adjustment due to the wash sale. Example 1: All buys and sells are in your brokerage account.  You buy initially at $10 and sell at $8, creating a $2 loss.  But you buy again within the wash sale window at $9 and sell that at $12.  You get no deduction after the first sale because it's wash.  You have a $1 capital gain at the second sale because your basis is $11 = $9 + $2 due to the $2 basis adjustment from wash sale. Example 2: Same as Example 1, except that final sale is at $8 instead of at $12.  In this case you appear to have taken a $2 loss on the first buy-sell and another $1 loss on the second buy-sell.  For taxes however, you cannot claim the loss at the first sale due to the wash.  At the second sale, your basis is still $11 (as in Example 1), so your overall capital loss is the $3 dollars that you might expect, computed as the $8 final sale price minus the $11 (wash-adjusted) basis. Now for 9-10 (Brokerage->IRA), things are a little more complicated.  In the IRA, you don't worry about the basis of individual stocks that you hold because of the way that tax advantages of those accounts work.  You do need to worry about the basis of the IRA account as a whole, however, in some cases.  The most common case would be if you have non-deductable contributions to your traditional IRA.  When you eventually withdraw, you don't pay tax on any distributions that are attributable to those nondeductible contributions (because you already paid tax on that part).  There are other cases where basis of your account matters, but that's a whole question in itself - It's enough for now to understand 1. Basis in your IRA as a whole is a well-defined concept with tax implications, and 2. Basis in individual holdings within your account don't matter. So with the brokerage-IRA wash sale, there are two questions:  1. Can you take the capital loss on the brokerage side?  2. If no because of the wash sale, does this increase the basis of your IRA account (as a whole)?  The answer to both is ""no,"" although the reason is not obvious. The IRS actually put out a Special Bulletin to answer the question specifically because it was unclear in the law. Bottom line for 9-10 is that you apparently are losing your tax deduction completely in that case. In addition, if you were counting on an increase in the basis of your IRA to avoid early distribution penalties, you don't get that either, which will result in yet more tax if you actually take the early distribution. In addition to the Special Bulletin noted above, Publication 550, which talks about wash sale rules for individuals, may also help some." "For example, if I have an income of $100,000 from my job and I also   realize a $350,000 in long-term capital gains from a stock sale, will   I pay 20% on the $350K or 15%? You'll pay 20% assuming filing single and no major offsets to taxable income. Capital gains count towards your income for determining tax bracket. They're on line 13 of the 1040 which is in the ""income"" section and aren't adjusted out/excluded from your taxable income, but since they are taxed at a different rate make sure to follow the instructions for line 44 when calculating your tax due." ESPP tax treatment is complicated.  If you received a discount on the purchase of your stock, that discount is taxable as ordinary income when you sell the stock.  Any profit about the market value when the stock was purchased is taxed based upon the holding period of the stock. If you have held the stock less than a year, the profit is taxed at your marginal tax rate (ie taxed as ordinary income). If the stock is held for more than a year, it is taxed at a special capital gains tax rate, which ranges from 0-20% depending on your marginal tax rate (most people pay 15%). "which means the current total is $548,100. Is that correct? Yep Unfortunately the ""current"" GM stock is different than the GM stock of 1989.  GM went bankrupt in 2011.  It's original stock changed to Motors Liquidation Company (MTLQQ) and is essentially worthless today.  There was no conversion from the old stock to the new stock. What do I do with these certificates? Can I bring them to my bank, or do I need to open an account with a stock company like Fidelity? See here for some instructions on cashing them in (or at least registering them electronically).  I've never dealt with physical stocks, but I presume that a broker is going to charge you something for registering them vs. direct registration, though I have no idea how much that would be. I read somewhere that I only have to pay taxes when I cash out these stocks. But are these rules any different because I inherited the stocks? You will pay capital gains tax on the increase in value from the time your father died to the time you sell the shares.  If that time is more than one year (and the stock has gone up in value) you will pay a 15% tax on the total increase.  If you have held them less than one year, they will be short-term capital gains which will count as regular income, and you will pay whatever your marginal tax rate is. If you sell the stock at a loss, then you'll be able to deduct some or all of that loss from your income, and may be able to carry forward losses for a few years as well. I did not catch that the stock you mention was GM stock.  GM went bankrupt in 2011, so it's likely that the stock you own is worthless.  I have edited the first answer appropriately but left the other two since they apply more generally.  In your case the best you get is a tax deduction for the loss in value from the date your father died." Is the remaining amount tax free? As in, if the amount shown (which I can sell) on etrade is $5000 then if I sell the entire shares will my bank account be increased by $5000? The stocks they sell are withholding.  So let's say you had $7000 of stock and they sold $2000 for taxes.  That leaves you with $5000.  But the actual taxes paid might be more or less than $2000.  They go in the same bucket as the rest of your withholding.  If too much is withheld, you get a refund.  Too little and you owe them.  Way too little and you have to pay penalties.   At the end of the year, you will show $7000 as income and $2000 as withheld for taxes from that transaction.  You may also have a capital gain if the stock increases in price.  They do not generally withhold on stock sales, as they don't necessarily know what was your gain and what was your loss.  You usually have to handle that yourself.   The main point that I wanted to make is that the sale is not tax free.  It's just that you already had tax withheld.  It may or may not be enough. Is selling Vested RSU is the same as selling a regular stock? Yes. Your basis (to calculate the gain) is what you've been taxed on when the RSUs vested. Check your payslips/W2 for that period, and the employer should probably have sent you detailed information about that. I'm not a US citizen, my account is in ETrade and my stocks are of a   US company, what pre arrangements I need to take to avoid tax issues? You will pay capital gains taxes on the sale in Israel. Depending on where you were when you earned the stocks and what taxes you paid then - it may open additional issues with the Israeli tax authority. Check with an Israeli tax adviser/accountant. "The US withholding tax applies to stocks/ETFs purchased on the NYSE and other US-based exchanges. If you buy Cenovus on the TSE then you will not be charged this tax.  Your last sentence seems like you might be misunderstanding this tax though. If the tax applied, it would not cost you 15% on all your profits, it only applies to dividend yields. So if it pays you a 5% dividend, the tax costs you 0.75%. However, if you buy at $21.19 and sell at $26, then your capital gain is not subject to withholding taxes. It is however, subject to Canadian income tax (at 50% of the gain amount) when it's not sheltered in a TFSA or other registered account. The tax on the gains could easily amount to 16% of your profits, which is a much more significant cost. Therefore, having to pay a 0.75% withholding cost certainly does not ""defeat the purpose of the TFSA"" which is to shelter from Canadian income tax!" You should get a 1099-MISC for the $5000 you got.  And your broker should send you a 1099-B for the $5500 sale of Google stock. These are two totally separate things as far as the US IRS is concerned. 1) You made $5000 in wages. You will pay income tax on this as well as FICA and other state and local taxes. 2) You will report that you paid $5000 for stock, and sold it for $5500 without holding it for one year. Since this was short term, you will pay tax on the $500 in income you made. These numbers will go on different parts of your tax form.  Essentially in your case, you'll have to pay regular income tax rates on the whole $5500, but that's only because short term capital gains are treated as income.  There's always the possibility that could change (unlikely).  It also helps to think of them separately because if you held the stock for a year, you would pay different tax on that $500.  Regardless, you report them in different ways on your taxes. Typically, the discount is taxable at sale time But what about taxes?  When the company   buys the shares for you, you do not   owe any taxes. You are exercising your   rights under the ESPP. You have bought   some stock. So far so good. When you sell the stock, the discount   that you received when you bought the   stock is generally considered   additional compensation to you, so you   have to pay taxes on it as regular   income. Source: Turbotax.   Second source. Your pretax rate of return would be: 17% (100/85) In your scenario where the stock price is fixed at $100. Your tax rate would be your marginal rate.   If the stock stayed at 100, you would still be taxed as income on $15/share (the discount) and would receive no benefit for holding the stock one year. Assuming you are in the 25% tax bracket, your after tax rate of return would be 13% ((15*.75)+85)/85) Credit card merchant fees are $0.15 - $0.40 per transaction plus 1.5-4% of the amount charged. Card issuers are competing to get to be the card in your pocket that you use on a daily basis. If you were a card issuer, wouldn't you like to get 1.5-4% of every transaction I make for the rest of my life? As a side note, ever since I became a business owner and saw how much we are all paying for credit card merchant fees, I've patronized a lot more cash-only businesses. The best ones pass the savings directly on to the consumer.