Understanding summary of brokerage account value, cash balance, buying power?
Here you go: I'll leave the last question as an exercise to the reader.
"In summary: In long form: Spreads and shorts are not allowed in cash accounts, except for covered options. Brokers will allow clients to roll option positions in a single transaction, which look like spreads, but these are not actually ""sell to open"" transactions. ""Sell to open"" is forbidden in cash accounts. Short positions from closing the long half of a covered trade are verboten. Day-trading is allowed in both margin and cash accounts. However, ""pattern day-trading"" only applies to margin accounts, and requires a minimum account balance of $25,000. Cash accounts are free to buy and sell the same security on the same day over and over, provided that there is sufficient buying power to pay for opening a new position. Since proceeds are held for both stock and option sales in a cash account, that means buying power available at the start of the day will drop with each purchase and not rise again until settlement. Unsettled funds are available immediately within margin accounts, without restriction. In cash accounts, using unsettled funds to purchase securities will require you to hold the new position until funds settle -- otherwise your account will be blocked for ""free-riding"". Legally, you can buy securities in a cash account without available cash on deposit with the broker, but most brokers don't allow this, and some will aggressively liquidate any position that you are somehow able to enter for which you didn't have available cash already on deposit. In a margin account, margin can help gloss over the few days between purchase and deposit, allowing you to be somewhat more aggressive in investing funds. A margin account will allow you to make an investment if you feel the opportunity is right before requiring you to deposit the funds. See a great opportunity? With sufficient margin, you can open the trade immediately and then run to the bank to deposit funds, rather than being stuck waiting for funds to be credited to your account. Margin accounts might show up on your credit report. The possibility of losing more than you invested, having positions liquidated when you least expect it, your broker doing possibly stupid things in order to close out an over-margined account, and other consequences are all very serious risks of margin accounts. Although you mentioned awareness of this issue, any answer is not complete with mentioning those risks." "When I have stock at my brokerage account, the title is in street name - the brokerage's name and the quantity I own is on the books of the brokerage (insured by SIPC, etc).  The brokerage loans ""my"" shares to a short seller and is happy to facilitate trades in both directions for commissions (it's a nice trick to get other parties to hold the inventory while you reap income from the churn); by selecting the account I have I don't get to choose to not loan out the shares." "My Broker and probably many Brokers provide this information in a table format under ""Course of Sale"". It provides the time, price and volume of each trade on that day. You could also view this data on a chart in some charting programs. Just set the interval to ""Tick by Tick"" and look at the volume. ""Tick by Tick"" will basically place a mark for every trade that is taken and then the volume will tell you the size of that trade." "Probably the most significant difference is the Damocles Sword hanging over your head, the Margin Call. In a nutshell, the lender (your broker) is going to require you to have a certain amount of assets in your account relative to your outstanding loan balance. The minimum ratio of liquid funds in the account to the loan is regulated in the US at 50% for the initial margin and 25% for maintenance margins. So here's where it gets sticky. If this ratio gets on the wrong side of the limits, the broker will force you to either add more assets/cash to your account t or immediately liquidate some of your holdings to remedy the situation. Assuming you don't have any/enough cash to fix the problem it can effectively force you to sell while your investments are in the tank and lock in a big loss. In fact, most margin agreements give the brokerage the right to sell your investments without your express consent in these situations. In this situation you might not even have the chance to pick which stock they sell. Source: Investopedia article, ""The Dreaded Margin Call"" Here's an example from the article: Let's say you   purchase $20,000 worth of securities   by borrowing $10,000 from your   brokerage and paying $10,000 yourself.   If the market value of the securities   drops to $15,000, the equity in your   account falls to $5,000 ($15,000 -   $10,000 = $5,000). Assuming a   maintenance requirement of 25%, you   must have $3,750 in equity in your   account (25% of $15,000 = $3,750).   Thus, you're fine in this situation as   the $5,000 worth of equity in your   account is greater than the   maintenance margin of $3,750. But   let's assume the maintenance   requirement of your brokerage is 40%   instead of 25%. In this case, your   equity of $5,000 is less than the   maintenance margin of $6,000 (40% of   $15,000 = $6,000). As a result, the   brokerage may issue you a margin call. Read more: http://www.investopedia.com/university/margin/margin2.asp#ixzz1RUitwcYg" It is simply an average of what each analyst covering that stock are recommending, and since they usually only recommend Hold or Buy (rarely Sell), the value will float between Hold and Buy. Not very useful IMHO. The Level 2 data is simply showing the depth of the market. If I am trading shares with my broker I have the option of viewing only the top 10 bid/ask prices in the depth or all of the data (which sometimes can be a very long list). With another broker I get the top ten bid and ask prices and how many orders are available for each price level, or I have the option of listing each order separately for each price level (in order of when the order was placed). I get the same kind of data if trading options. I do not know about futures because I don't trade them. Simply this data may be important to a trader because it may give an indication of whether there are more buyers or sellers in the market, which in turn may (but not always) give an indication of which way the market may be moving. As an example the price depth below shows WBC before market open with sellers outweighing the buyers in both numbers and volume.  This gives an indication that prices may drop when the market opens. Of course there could be some good news coming out prior to market open or just after, causing a flood of buyers into the market and sellers to cancel their orders. This would change everything around with more buyers than sellers and indicate that prices may now be going up. The market depth is an important aspect to look at before putting an order in, as it can give an indication of which way the market is moving, especially in a very liquid security or market. "I think the issue you are having is that the option value is not a ""flow"" but rather a liability that changes value over time. It is best to illustrate with a balance sheet. The $33 dollars would be the premium net of expense that you would receive from your brokerage for having shorted the options. This would be your asset. The liability is the right for the option owner (the person you sold it to) to exercise and purchase stock at a fixed price. At the moment you sold it, the ""Marked To Market"" (MTM) value of that option is $40. Hence you are at a net account value of $33-$40= $-7 which is the commission. Over time, as the price of that option changes the value of your account is simply $33 - 2*(option price)*(100) since each option contract is for 100 shares. In your example above, this implies that the option price is 20 cents. So if I were to redo the chart it would look like this If the next day the option value goes to 21 cents, your liability would now be 2*(0.21)*(100) = $42 dollars. In a sense, 2 dollars have been ""debited"" from your account to cover your potential liability. Since you also own the stock there will be a credit from that line item (not shown). At the expiry of your option, since you are selling covered calls, if you were to be exercised on, the loss on the option and the gain on the shares you own will net off. The final cost basis of the shares you sold will be adjusted by the premium you've received. You will simply be selling your shares at strike + premium per share (0.20 cents in this example)" "The margin money you put up to fund a short position ($6000 in the example given) is simply a ""good faith"" deposit that is required by the broker in order to show that you are acting in good faith and fully intend to meet any potential losses that may occur.  This margin is normally called initial margin.  It is not an accounting item, meaning it is not debited from you cash account.  Rather, the broker simply segregates these funds so that you may not use them to fund other trading.  When you settle your position these funds are released from segregation.   In addition, there is a second type of margin, called variation margin, which must be maintained while holding a short position.  The variation margin is simply the running profit or loss being incurred on the short position.  In you example, if you sold 200 shares at $20 and the price went to $21, then your variation margin would be a debit of $200, while if the price went to $19, the variation margin would be a credit of $200.   The variation margin will be netted with the initial margin to give the total margin requirement ($6000 in this example).  Margin requirements are computed at the close of business on each trading day.  If you are showing a loss of $200 on the variation margin, then you will be required to put up an additional $200 of margin money in order to maintain the $6000 margin requirement - ($6000 - $200 = $5800, so you must add $200 to maintain $6000).  If you are showing a profit of $200, then $200 will be released from segregation - ($6000 + $200 = $6200, so $200 will be release from segregation leaving $6000 as required). When you settle your short position by buying back the shares, the margin monies will be release from segregation and the ledger postings to you cash account will be made according to whether you have made a profit or a loss.  So if you made a loss of $200 on the trade, then your account will be debited for $200 plus any applicable commissions.  If you made a profit of $200 on the trade then your account will be credited with $200 and debited with any applicable commissions." "Read again what I said in my original post.  ""Enterprise Value is the sort of ""bare bones"" total firm value. It doesn't include any cash because you'd basically be paying cash for cash. Also, this makes analysis of transaction multiples more streamlined, as some firms may have a ton of excess cash on their balance sheet, skewing multiples.""  I said that that is WHY we use enterprise value. Because if you didn't it would skew multiples." "Real target of commisions is providing ""risk shelter"". It is kind of ""insurance"", which is actually last step for external risks to delete all your money. In part it cuts some of risks which you provide, brokers track history of all your actions for you (nobody else does). When brokerage firm fails, all your money is zero. It depends from case to case if whole account goes zero, but I wouldn't count on that." "I kind of understand the ""basics"", and have done a couple (with the assistance of pre-made excel sheets haha), I just don't feel that I'm creating an actual valuable valuation when I do one. While on the topic though, do you know where an individual investor can calculate the cost of debt for the WACC? I've been looking on morningstar and search up that public company and take the average of the coupon on all outstanding bonds. I don't feel like that's very correct though :(" "Just an FYI, this can be a risky move. Unless you have been in the industry for a while, or are extremely well averse in investment management/research, keep it pretty short. In a lot of ways, you might want to think about tailoring it more like a sell-side report. Also, make sure you understand the style of investing the PM/company you are applying to likes.   The reason I say this is because every buy-side shop is different. Some do 1-2 page write-ups with models and walk through's, others will expect 60 page ""decks"" (i.e. Powerpoints). The longer the deck, the more you have that can go wrong. If one tiny thing is wrong, or you have a typo anywhere, it hurts you more than it helps that you wrote something long (I once had the wrong rating on one issuance of a bond ladder I was pitching; it's all the PM's focused on).  The more important aspect is that you understand the shop you are applying to and then tailoring the pitch to them. For example, don't do a growth tech company with an 80x forward P/E if you're applying to a fundamental value shop. It shows you didn't do research on the firm you're applying to and that you won't fit the culture. This is part of why I was saying that this can be a risky move, if the firm is large enough to have an HR department, they likely have a lot of different investment styles in house.  Finally, try to keep it to a small/mid-cap company. Analysts/PMs follow stocks all day long and will most likely have an opinion on 99% of large caps, no matter the sector.  In summary, I'd recommend a 1-2 page sell-side style write-up with a backup model (printed excel file). KISS (keep it simple stupid), have a summary, couple years worth of historical's, 2 years forward, and a few main bullet points of why you like them. In your case, this pitch should be something to pique the interest so that you can NAIL a real pitch in the interview. If you get an interview, know everything about everything in the industry as well as that specific company. For example, lets say you do a smartphone secular theme investment. Do you know what outstanding AAPL/Android cases there are, and more importantly, how would each ruling likely affect the marketplace? This is because I can guarantee if you're pitching to another tech guy, he knows and has an educated opinion on it. Also, in many cases having a great model can mean more than a long write-up, it shows that you're good with numbers and can think about FUTURE earnings, which are all that matter.  Last point, IMO you'd be better off trying to get your foot in the door through networking than HR. HR doesn't really do much on the buy-side with recruiting and won't really understand what to look for in a good pitch (they're HR after-all, not an analyst). Try to meet someone over coffee and then have a pitch READY to bring out/discuss. The buy-side is selective enough that usually when positions open up it's either because they are creating one for you or they already have an idea of who is going to fill it. This mean HR has little to no say in helping you get in. You'll have a lot more success this way than blasting to a bunch of HR emails." I have asked myself this exact same question many times. The analysis would be simple if you invested all your money in a single day, but I did not and therefore I would need to convert your cash transactions into Index fund buys/sells. I got tired of trying to do this using Yahoo's data and excel so I built a website in my spare time. I humbly suggest you try my website out in the hopes that it helps you perform this computation: http://www.amibeatingthemarket.com/ THANK YOU so much! That is exactly what I was looking for.  Unfortunately I'm goign to be really busy for 7 days but I'd love to tear through some of this material and ask you some questions if you don't mind.  What do you do for a living now? Still in real estate? Did you go toward the brokerage side or are you still consulting?  What's the atmosphere/day-to-day like? Ok, so disregarding passivity, could you help me through a simplified example?   Say I only had two assets, SPY and TLT, with a respective weight of 35 and 65% and I want want to leverage this to 4x.  Additionally, say daily return covar is:  * B/B .004% * B/S -.004% * S/S .02%   Now, if I read correctly, I should buy ATM calls xxx days in the future.  Which may look like: Ticker, S, K, Option Price, Delta, Lambda  * TLT  $126.04  $126.00  $4.35  0.50  14.5 * SPY  $134.91  $134.00  $6.26  0.55  11.8  ^ This example is pretty close but some assets are far off.   I feel like I'm on the wrong track so I'll stop here.    I just want to lever up my risk-parity. Margin rates are too high and I'm docked by Reg-T.