VAT and duties payable when importing personal goods from Switzerland and the Channel Islands to the EU?
"http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/customs/tax-and-duty.htm#3 explains the Import VAT situation quite well.  As for who enforces and collects it, if you're talking about buying online and having it shipped to you then you'll notice on the parcel a Customs sticker declaring the contents and value. It is the responsibility of the courier company to collect any duty due from you and pass it on to HMRC.  In practice what this means is that you receive a card or note from the courier saying ""we're impounding your package until you pay the import duty"" and they usually charge a fee on top of the duty itself.  Of course you can always go out there yourself and bring something back, but then it is your responsibility to declare it at the customs checkpoint when you enter the country."
If an item costs £10 excluding VAT, and you buy it from a VAT registered company, you will have to pay £12. You sell it for any price you like, and you don't add VAT.  Let's say you set the price at £15 and sell 1000 items for £15. You take £15,000, you spent £12,000, you make £3,000 profit in your pocket and you'll pay taxes according to your profits (£3,000). It doesn't really matter that VAT was involved, it just affects the price that you pay.  If you mostly trade with private customers and not with companies, being not VAT registered is a good idea, since by not having to add VAT you can keep your prices lower. It's different if you trade mostly with VAT-registered companies. In that example, if private customers are willing to pay £15 but not more, if you were VAT registered, you couldn't just charge £15 + VAT = £18, because your customers would stop buying. So you'd have to charge £12.50 + VAT = £15 and make less money.  But if you sell to a company, it doesn't make a difference to them if they pay £15 without VAT or £15 + VAT = £18. You have to send the VAT to HMRC, but you can subtract the £2,000 that you paid yourself, so you make £2,000 more profit. It's not quite clear what you are asking, so I'll answer a few possible interpretations. Businesses pay taxes on their profits. So if your business took a million pounds in revenue (e.g. sold a million pounds worth of stuff) then you would subtract (roughly speaking) everything the business spent on making and selling that stuff, and pay taxes only on the profit. VAT however is a different matter, and you would have to pay VAT on all of that income (technically the VAT portion isn't even income - it's tax you are forced to collect on behalf of the government). If your business made a million pounds pounds profit, it would pay tax on all of that million (subject to what a tax accountant can do to reduce that, which ought to be considerable).  You can't subtract your personal living expenses like that. However the company can pay you a salary, which counts as an expense and the company doesn't pay tax on that. You might also take some money from the company as dividends. Both salary and dividends count as personal income to yourself, and you will need to pay personal income tax on them.  As for the Ferrari, it depends on whether you can justify it as a business expense. A lot of companies provide cars for their employees so that they can use them for business - however you have to be able to show that IS for business, otherwise they are taxed like salary. The rules for company cars are quite complicated, and you would need an accountant. If this is a real rather than hypothetical situation, definitely get a tax accountant involved. Yeah, the VAT adds more fairness between who gets the taxes, but is only offset by it being more complicated and needing more bureaucracy. I think it's an interesting idea. If I were a policy analyst I'd like to see what costs are vs. benefit. Now i want to get this money in my new UK bank account, does this mean that gov will take taxes from this money as well. Yes that is income and you have to pay tax on that. But it might be a bit complicated than that, so I would ask you to call up HMRC or visit an accountant or maybe ask the finance people of your employer. Also one of my family members send us money every few months and will send to this bank from now on, does taxes also apply on this? See the HMRC page about capital gains tax on gifts: You won't have to pay Capital Gains Tax when you give a gift to your   husband, wife or civil partner - as long as both of the following   apply: It's useful to keep a note of what the asset cost you. Your spouse or   civil partner may need this to work out their Capital Gains Tax when   they dispose of the asset. Example: Mr B lives with his wife and gives her an antique table that   he bought for £12,000 in 2003. Mrs B spends £500 restoring the table,   eventually selling it for £20,000.  Her total costs are £12,500 (£500 plus Mr B's original cost £12,000). Mrs B's   gain is £7,500 (£20,000 less £12,500). When you make a gift to a family member or other person you're   connected with, you'll need to work out the gain or loss. This doesn't   apply to gifts you make to your spouse or civil partner. This also applies if you dispose of an asset to them in any other way   - for example, you sell it to them for a low price. A 'connected person' in this context is someone such as your brother,   sister, child, parent, grandparent, mother-in-law or business partner.   Follow the link below for more information about connected people and   Capital Gains Tax. You must get a valuation of the asset at the time you made the gift.   Use this value in place of any amount you received for the asset to   work out your gain or loss. If you gave the asset away, then of course   the amount you received for it will be nothing. If you make a loss you can only deduct the loss from gains you make on   gifts or other disposals to the same person. https://www.ato.gov.au/Business/GST/ Some of the costs are indeed related to the conversion rate, which, as we all know,changes daily. You don't say whether you're using a credit card. If so, some cards do charge foreign transaction fees; some do not. However, Australia, like many European countries, does use a VAT system. Therefore your charges will be increased. Please be aware that these taxes are built into the economic system. In many cases, you van apply for and receive a waiver to be reimbursed if the purchase is made through a duty free store. The VAT number should be equivalent from the point of view of your client. The fact that you are a sole trader and not a limited liability doesn't matter when it comes down to pay VAT. They should pay the VAT to you and you will pay it to the government. I'll guess that their issue is with tax breaks, it is a bit more tricky to receive a tax break on paid taxes if you buy something abroad (at least it is here in Finland). If they won't pay you because of that, you could open a LTD or contract the services of a 'management company' which will do the job of invoicing, receiving the money and passing it back to you, for a fee. I am an Israeli based citizen who represents and Indian company who sells its products in Israel. As an agent I am entitled to commission on sales on behalf the Indian company who advised that. Any commission paid to you will be applicable to TDS at 20.9% of the commission amount, the tax will be paid and a Tax paid certificate will be given to you.   According to a Bilateral Double tax avoidance treaty if the tax has been deducted in India you will get credit for this tax in Israel. You can do that, you aren't missing anything. It is supposed to be punishment, but as you are moving to a European country your non-penalized income would likely be taxed higher as is. I don't have info on whether you will be taxed a second time by the European country. "They did not do a corporate inversion. They mostly avoid paying taxes to European countries through setups that use two Irish companies, one Dutch (or Swiss, or Luxembourgian) and a Cayman Islands ""European"" headquarters office.  They are still domiciled in the US and pay US taxes." The PAYE tax and NI will be deducted as usual. Send HMRC a P85 form to tell them you're emigrating, and they will refund the tax. I can't comment about your tax liability in Greece. You will have to pay tax on interest in the UK. If you are earning massive amounts of interest, unlikely with the current interest policies from Merv, then you might be bumped up a tier. The receiving bank may ask for proof of the source of the funds, particularly if it is a fair chunk of change. If you're a Canadian resident then yes, it is taxable to you. The islands don't have income taxes on income earned there, but your country does. If you lose your Canadian residency and move to live in these islands, then the answer may change. "11 / 111 / 11111 looks like the (old) tax number: it is used by the tax office to know who you are, it isn't good at all for the spanish company. It would even change when you move inside Germany.  VAT IDs are not exclusive to GmbHs (but a GmbH always has one). As freelancers you can get at VAT ID but you don't always have to.  The tax office offers a ""small business"" treatment (§ 19 UStG) for freelancers, kind of an opt-out for the VAT ID. As you do not have a VAT ID, this is probably your case. It means So what to do? If I were you, I'd write them that according to §19 UStG and the European Council Directive 2006/112/EC of 28 November 2006 on the common system of value added tax, TITLE XII CHAPTER 1 ""Special scheme for small enterprises"" you were not assigned a VAT ID, and VAT is not applicable to your bill. The fact that VAT is not applicable in this case does not mean that they are allowed to refuse payment.  I heard a rumour (but don't really know) that a number similar to the VAT ID is planned also for freelancers (Wirtschafts-IDNr.). You could go to your tax office and ask them about. Maybe that yields a number that satisfies spanish burocracy. AFAIK, you can go to your tax office and ask them to give you a real VAT number.  But careful: that has the serious drawback that you have to do do an advance VAT estimate and pay that to the tax office at least quarterly (for bigger business monthly). And (AFAIK) you are not allowed to change back to the small business treatment for several years." But why can't two companies exchange goods directly without paying VAT? This would make the famous carousel fraud scam impossible and businesses won't have to deal with complicated refunds. Sales tax in the United States works as you describe.  Sales tax is charged only to end customers, not to businesses that themselves charge sales tax.  But this means that a criminal business can charge tax and just pocket it unless someone else reports it.  They can also evade income tax the same way.  Not to mention other issues like cross jurisdiction taxes (e.g. internet sales often evade sales tax).   The whole point of a Value Added Tax (VAT) is that they charge at each level.  This creates a system where each buyer reports the tax paid to the seller so as to be able to deduct it.  So the seller has to pay the VAT that they charged.  Or the tax authorities know and can revoke their VAT license.   If only the end user is charged tax, then fraud is easier than under a VAT.  So easy, I doubt they have a special name for it.  The fraudulent business just collects tax from end users and disappears.  Or simply fails to record those transactions.  You could call it missing transaction record fraud, but why bother?  It's just straight up tax fraud.  The complexity of the carousel fraud arises from the difficulty of evading a VAT. Companies, especially big ones, find in Switzerland a business-friendly environment and often benefit from a special tax regime. Don't mix the companies interests with yours.