How much is my position worth after 5-1 stock split?
The average price would be $125 which would be used to compute your basis. You paid $12,500 for the stock that is now worth $4,500 which is a loss of $8,000 overall if you sell at this point.
Since the 2 existing answers addressed the question as asked. Let me offer a warning. You have 10,000 options at $1. You've worked four years and the options are vested. The stock is worth $101 when you get a job offer (at another company) which you accept. So you put up $10k and buy the shares. At this moment, you put up $10K for stock worth $1.01M, a $1M profit and ordinary income.  You got out of the company just in time. For whatever reason, the stock drops to $21 and at tax time you realize the $1M gain was ordinary income, but now the $800k loss is a capital loss, limited to $3000/yr above capital gains. In other words you have $210k worth of stock but a tax bill on $1M.  This is not a contrived story, but a common one from the dotcon bubble. It's a warning that 'buy and hold' has the potential to blow up in your face, even if the shares you buy retain some value. Thank you for replying. I'm not sure I totally follow though, aren't you totally at mercy of the liquidity in the stock? I guess I'm havinga hard time visualizing the value a human can add as opposed to say vwapping it or something. I can accept that you're right, just having a difficult time picturing it "I don't have anything definitive, but in general positions in a company are not affected materially by what is called a corporate action. ""Corp Actions"" can really be anything that affects the details of a stock. Common examples are a ticker change, or exchange change, IPO (ie a new ticker), doing a split, or merging with another ticker. All of these events do not change the total value of people's positions. If a stock splits, you might have more shares, but they are worth less per share. A merger is quite similar to a split. The old company's stock is converted two the new companies stock at some ratio (ie 10 shares become 1 share) and then converted 1-to-1 to the new symbol. Shorting a stock that splits is no different. You shorted 10 shares, but after the split those are now 100 shares, when you exit the position you have to deliver back 100 ""new"" shares, though dollar-for-dollar they are the same total value. I don't see why a merger would affect your short position. The only difference is you are now shorting a different company, so when you exit the position you'll have to deliver shares of the new company back to the brokerage where you ""borrowed"" the shares you shorted." "Edited: Pub 550 says 30 days before or after so the example is ok - but still a gain by average share basis.  On sale your basis is likely defaulted to ""average price"" (in the example 9.67 so there was a gain selling at 10), but can be named shares at your election to your brokerage,  and supported by record keeping. A Pub 550 wash might be buy 2000 @ 10 with basis 20000, sell 1000 @9 (nominally a loss of 1000 for now and remaining basis 10000), buy 1000 @ 8 within 30 days.   Because of the wash sale rule the basis is 10000+8000 paid + 1000 disallowed loss from wash sale with a final position of 2000 shares at 19000 basis.  I think I have the link at the example:  http://www.irs.gov/publications/p550/ch04.html#en_US_2014_publink100010601" Stock splits are typically done to increase the liquidity of stock merely by converting every stock of the company into multiple stocks of lower face value. For example, if the initial face value of the stock was $10 and the stock got split 10:1, the new face value of the stock would be $1 each. This has a proportional effect on the market value of the stock also. If the stock was trading at $50, after the split the stock should ideally adjust to $5. This is to ensure that despite the stock split, the market capitalization of the company should remain the same. Number of Shares * Stock Price = Market Capitalization = CONSTANT "The share price on its own has little relevance without looking at variations. In your case, if the stock went from 2.80 to 0.33, you should care only about the 88% drop in value, not what it means in pre-split dollar values. You are correct that you can ""un-split"" to give you an idea of what would have been the dollar value but that should not give you any more information than the variation of 88% would. As for your title question, you should read the chart as if no split occurred as for most intents and purposes it should not affect stock price other than the obvious split." The reason to do a stock split is to get the price of the stock down to an affordable range. If your stock costs $100,000 per share, you are seriously cutting in to the number of people who can afford to buy it. I can think of two reasons NOT to do a stock split. The biggest is, Why bother? If your stock is trading at a reasonable price, why change anything? It takes time and effort, which equals money, to do a stock split. If this serves no purpose, you're just wasting that effort. The other reason is that you don't want to drive your stock price down too low. Low prices are normally associated with highly speculative start-up companies, and so can give a wrong impression of your company. Also, low prices make it difficult for the price to reflect small changes. If your stock is trading at $10.00, a 1/2 of 1% change is 5 cents. But if it's trading at $1.50, a 1/2 of 1% change is a fraction of a penny. Does it go up by that penny or not? You've turned a smooth scale into a series of hurdles. How can they reduce the number of shares I hold? They may have purchased them.  You don't say what stock it is, so we can only speculate.  Let's say that the stock is called PENNY.  So they may have taken your 1600 PENNY shares and renamed them to 1600 PENNYOLD shares.  Then they created a new $5 PENNY share and gave you .2357 shares of that in exchange for your 1600 PENNYOLD shares.  This suggests that your old shares were worth $1.1785 or less than a tenth of a cent each.   As an example, MYLAN did this in 2015 as part of their tax inversion (moved official headquarters from the US to Europe).  They did not change the number of shares at that time, but MYLAN is not a penny stock.   This is the kind of thing that might happen in a bankruptcy.   A reverse split (where they give you one share in exchange for more than one share) is also possible, although you received an odd amount for a reverse split.  Usually those produce rounder numbers.  A number like .2357 sounds more like a market price, as those can be bizarre. "Note that these used to be a single ""common"" share that has ""split"" (actually a ""special dividend"" but effectively a split). If you owned one share of Google before the split, you had one share giving you X worth of equity in the company and 1 vote. After the split you have two shares giving you the same X worth of equity and 1 vote. In other words, zero change. Buy or sell either depending on how much you value the vote and how much you think others will pay (or not) for that vote in the future.  As Google issues new shares, it'll likely issue more of the new non-voting shares meaning dilution of equity but not dilution of voting power. For most of us, our few votes count for nothing so evaluate this as you will.  Google's founders believe they can do a better job running the company long-term when there are fewer pressures from outside holders who may have only short-term interests in mind. If you disagree, or if you are only interested in the short-term, you probably shouldn't be an owner of Google. As always, evaluate the facts for yourself, your situation, and your beliefs." "I've bought ISO stock over they years -- in NYSE traded companies.  Every time I've done so, they've done what's called ""sell-to-cover"".  And the gubmint treats the difference between FMV and purchase price as if it's part of your salary.  And for me, they've sold some stock extra to pay estimated taxes. So, if I got this right...  20,000 shares at $3 costs you 60,000 to buy them.  In my sell-to-cover at 5 scenario: did I get that right?  Keeping only 4,000 shares out of 20,000 doesn't feel right.  Maybe because I've always sold at a much ratio between strike price and FMV. Note I made some assumptions:  first is that the company will sell some of the stock to pay the taxes for you.  Second is your marginal tax rate.  Before you do anything check these. Is there some reason to exercise immediately?  I'd wait, personally." While my margin is not nearly as good as yours, I sell out early.  I generally think it's a bad idea to hold any single stock, as they can vary wildly in value.  However, as you mention, it's advantageous to hold for one year.  Read more about Capital Gains Taxes here and here. One way that is common is to show the value over time of an initial investment, say $10,000.  The advantage of this is that it doesn't show stock price at all, so handles splits well.  It can also take into account dividend reinvestment.  Fidelity uses this for their mutual funds, as can be seen here.  Another option would be to compute the stock price as if the split didn't happen.  So if a stock does a 2:1 split, you show double the actual price starting at that point. "You should contact the company and the broker about the ownership. Do you remember ever selling your position? When you look back at your tax returns/1099-B forms - can you identify the sale? It should have been reported to you, and you should have reported it to the IRS. If not - then you're probably still the owner. As to K-1 - the income reported doesn't have to be distributed to you. Partnership is a pass-through entity, and cannot ""accumulate"" earnings for tax purposes, everything is deemed distributed. If, however, it is not actually distributed - you're still taxed on the income, but it is added to your basis in the partnership and you get the tax ""back"" when you sell your position. However, you pay income tax on the income based on the kind of the income, and on the sale - at capital gains rates. So the amounts added to your position will reduce your capital gains tax, but may be taxed at ordinary rates. Get a professional advice on the issue and what to do next, talk to a EA/CPA licensed in New York." make assume should be make assumptions*. I feel like there are other reasons that the 5% in year 2 could have cost less than the 5% in year 1 besides a falling stock price (this is what I'm trying to figure out).   In your opinion, how do you think the investment is performing. "I'm going to ignore your numbers to avoid spending the time to understand them.  I'm just going to go over the basic moving parts of trading an upside down car against another financed car because I think you're conflating price and value.  I'm also going to ignore taxes, and fees, and depreciation. The car has an acquisition cost (price) then it has a value.  You pay the price to obtain this thing, then in the future it is worth what someone else will pay you. When you finance a car you agree to your $10,000 price, then you call up Mr. Bank and agree to pay 10% per year for 5 years on that $10,000.  Mr. Banker wires over $10,000 and you drive home in your car.   Say in a year you want a different car.  This new car has a price of $20,000, and wouldn't you know it they'll even buy your current car from you.  They'll give you $7,000 to trade in your current car. Your current car has a value of $7,000.  You've made 12 payments of $188.71.  Of those payments about $460 was interest, you now owe about $8,195 to Mr. Banker. The new dealership needs to send payment to Mr. Banker to get the title for your current car.  They'll send the $7,000 they agreed to pay for your car.  Then they'll loan you the additional $1,195 ($8,195 owed on the car minus $7,000 trade in value).   Your loan on the new car will be for $21,195, $20,000 for the new car and $1,195 for the amount you still owed on the old car after the dealership paid you $7,000 for your old car. It doesn't matter what your down-payment was on the old car, it doesn't matter what your payment was before, it doesn't matter what you bought your old car for.  All that matters is how much you owe on it today and how much the buyer (the dealership) is willing to pay you for it. How much of this is ""loss"" is an extremely vague number to derive primarily because your utility of the car has a value.  But it could be argued that the $1,195 added on to your new car loan to pay for the old car is lost."