Sale of jointly owned stock
"It depends on when she became the shareholder of record. When your wife received the stock, was ownership clearly transferred to her?  If it was, then she should have the right to sell it if she wants.  The gross amount of the sale will be reported to the IRS, and then it will be up to you (and/or your tax advisers) to determine its tax basis so that you pay tax only on the appropriate gain. If she hasn't become the shareholder of record yet, then it can be a bit of a mess.  Your wife's father saying ""Merry Christmas; I'm giving you 500 shares of AAPL"" doesn't transfer ownership to you.  Him calling up the brokerage and transferring them into an account with her name (or her name and his name) does. Is your wife's father's estate settled yet?  If not, then sorting all of this out is part of the fun.  If it is, and this asset was left dangling out there, then that's beyond anything I know about." "They may be confused. The combination of ""my wife received stock when younger"" and ""her father just died"" leaves questions. A completed gift, when she was a kid, means she has a basis (cost) same as the original owner of that stock. This may need to be researched. The other choice is that she gets a price based on the date of dad's death, a stepped up basis, if it was his, but she got it when he passed.  No offense to them, but brokers are not always qualified to offer tax advice.  How/when exactly did she get to own the stock. Upon second reading it appears I answered this from a tax perspective. You seem to have issues of ownership. What exactly does the broker tell you? In whose name is the statement for the account holding these shares? Scott, saw your update. For the accounts I have for my 13 year old, I am custodian, but the tax ID is her social security number. When 21, she doesn't need my permission to sell anything, just valid ID. What exactly does the broker tell her?" "It depends on when, where and how the account was setup.  If the state has an UGMA (Uniform Gift to Minors) law, the account was probably opened under that -- in which case, your wife became the custodian by statute at age 18 or 21. She has always been the account owner. The ""catch"" is that if your wife's father died before she assumed custodianship of the account, it may be subject to taxation. You may be in some sort of oddball situation where due to your wife moving, the broker merging or lost records, the phone reps cannot figure out what is going on. I'd suggest working the phone tree a little harder and searching for old records." The question seems to be from the point of view actual sales and not its impact on one's taxation. In case you just want to sell, why brokers will respond differently each times. Either there may be issues with ownership and/or the company whose shares it is? In case you feel that the issues lies with brok
Regardless of whether a stock is owned by a retail investor or an institutional investor, it is subject to the same rules.  For example, say that as part of the buyout, 1 share of Company B is equivalent to 0.75 shares of Company A and any fractional shares will be paid out in cash.  This rule will apply to both the retail investor who holds 500 shares of Company B, as well as the asset manager or hedge fund holding 5,000,000 shares of Company B. Yes, there is an analogous strategy for selling: it's to sell a fixed number of shares per period of time. "Edited: Pub 550 says 30 days before or after so the example is ok - but still a gain by average share basis.  On sale your basis is likely defaulted to ""average price"" (in the example 9.67 so there was a gain selling at 10), but can be named shares at your election to your brokerage,  and supported by record keeping. A Pub 550 wash might be buy 2000 @ 10 with basis 20000, sell 1000 @9 (nominally a loss of 1000 for now and remaining basis 10000), buy 1000 @ 8 within 30 days.   Because of the wash sale rule the basis is 10000+8000 paid + 1000 disallowed loss from wash sale with a final position of 2000 shares at 19000 basis.  I think I have the link at the example:  http://www.irs.gov/publications/p550/ch04.html#en_US_2014_publink100010601" You have only sold 200 shares for $4.75 from those bought for $3.15. So your profit on those 200 shares is $1.60 per share or $320 or 51%. From that you have 110 shares left that cost you $3.15 and 277 shares that cost you $3.54. So the total cost of your remaining shares is $1,327.08 (110 x $3.15 + 277 x $3.54). So your remaining shares have a average cost of $3.429 per share ($1,327.08/387). We don't know what the current share price is as you haven't provided it, nor do we know what the company is, so lets say that the current price is $5 (or that you sell the remaining 387 shares for $5 per share). Then the profit on these 387 shares would be $1.571 per share or $607.92 or 46%. Your total profit would then be $320 + $ 607.92 = $927.92 or 47% (note that this profit neglects any brokerage or other fees, as you have not provided any). Edit due to new info. provided in question With the current share price at $6.06 then the profit on these 387 shares would be $2.631 per share or $1018.20 or 77%. Your total profit would then be $320 + $1018.20 = $1338.20 or 75% (note that this profit neglects any brokerage or other fees, as you have not provided any). Stocks represent partial ownership of the company. So, if you owned 51% of the stock of the company (and therefore 51% of the company itself), you could decide to liquidate all the  assets of the company, and you would be entitled to 51% of the proceeds from that sale.  In the example above, it would have to be Common Stock, as preferred stock does not confer ownership. *In a situation where it is not possible to buy 51% or more of the company (for example, it's not for sale), this is not possible, so the value of the stock could be much less. Here is how it should look: 100 shares of restricted stock (RSU) vest. 25 shares sold to pay for taxes. W2 (and probably paycheck) shows your income going up by 100 shares worth and your taxes withheld going up by 25 shares worth. Now you own 75 shares with after-tax money. If you stop here, there would be no stock sale and no tax issues.  You'd have just earned W2 income and withheld taxes through your W2 job. Now, when you sell those 75 shares whether it is the same day or years later, the basis for those 75 shares is adjusted by the amount that went in to your W2.   So if they were bought for $20, your adjusted basis would be 75*$20. In the United States, when key people in a company buy or sell shares there are reporting requirements.  The definition of key people includes people like the CEO, and large shareholders. There are also rules that can lock out their ability to buy and sell shares during periods where their insider knowledge would give them an advantage. These reporting rules are to level the playing field regarding news that will impact the stock price.  These rules are different than the reporting rules that the IRS has to be able to tax capital gains. These are also separate than the registration rules for the shares so that you get all the benefits of owning the stock (dividends, voting at the annual meeting, voting on a merger or acquisition). Here's an article on it that might help: http://thefinancebuff.com/restricted-stock-units-rsu-sales-and.html One of the tricky things is that you probably have the value of the vested shares and withheld taxes already on your W-2. This confuses everyone including the IRS (they sent me one of those audits-by-mail one year, where the issue was they wanted to double-count stock compensation that was on both 1099-B and W-2; a quick letter explaining this and they were happy). The general idea is that when you first irrevocably own the stock (it vests) then that's income, because you're receiving something of value. So this goes on a W-2 and is taxed as income, not capital gains. Conceptually you've just spent however many dollars in income to buy stock, so that's your basis on the stock. For tax paid, if your employer withheld taxes, it should be included in your W-2. In that case you would not separately list it elsewhere. Simple Schwaab does not have actually your securities they have leased them out and have to borrow them back. all assets are linked with derivatives now. They show on the balance sheet but have to be untangled. Thats why the market drops disproportionally fast to the actual number of shares sold. So I want to sell my 100 shares of AAPL to him at a price of 10 or   even 1 US Dollar. Is that legal/allowed? Of course. It's your stocks - do with it what you want. if the two persons are not served by a same broker. You'll have to talk to your broker about the technicalities of the transaction. if the person who sell are US citizen and the person who buy are not, and and vice-versa Since you asked specifically about US citizenship, I'll assume you're in the US or the transaction is taking place in the US. Citizenship has nothing to do with it (except may be for economic sanctions against Russians or Iranians that may come into play). What is important is the tax residency status. Such a transfer is essentially a gift, and if you're a US tax resident (which doesn't correlate to your immigration status necessarily) - you'll have to deal with the gift tax consequences on the discount value. For example - you have 100 shares of AAPL which you sold to your friend for $1 each when the fair market value (FMV) was $501. So essentially, the friend got $50,100 value for $100. I.e.: $50K gift. Since this amount is above the annual $14K exemption - you'll have to deal with the gift tax and file gift tax return. There are also consequences for the capital gains tax for both you and your friend. I suggest you talk to a licensed tax adviser (EA/CPA licensed in your State) about the specifics given your circumstances. If you (or the recipient) are also a foreign citizen/tax resident - then that country's laws also may affect your situation. I think he means that if he liquidated his shares of Amazon, the stock would fall. Depending on how much he actually owns, which I have no idea, it could cause the stock price to plummet.  In a more extreme scenario, a person that owns 40% of a company cannot liquidate their shares without the stock falling to ridiculously low levels. A share of stock is an asset not much different than any other asset.  If the share is being held in a joint account, it's being jointly owned.  If the share is being held by a company with multiple owners then the share is owned by the various owners.  If you're married and in a community property state, then it's technically owned by both parties. "For the first and last questions, I can do this multiple ways.  For the middle question, I'll just make up values.  If you want different ones, you will have to redo the math.   I am going to assume that you participate in the merger exchange, swapping your share for their offer.   If you own one share, it depends how they handle fractional shares.  Your original one share of ABC can be worth either one share of XYZ or 1.05 shares of XYZ.  If you get one share, you typically get an additional $.80 cash to make up for the fractional share.   You might ask why you don't just get $20 cash and one share of XYZ.  Consider the case where you own twenty shares of ABC.  Then you'd own twenty-one shares of XYZ and $384.  No need for fractional shares.   Beyond all this though, the share value of XYZ is not set autocratically.  The shares might be worth $16, $40, or $2 after the merger.  If both stocks are perfectly valued and the market is aware of that value, then it will depend partially on the number of shares of each.   For example, if we assume there are 10,000 shares of ABC and 50,000 shares of XYZ (including the shares paid for ABC), then their initial market values are $320,000 for ABC and $800,000 for XYZ.  XYZ is paying $360,000, so its value drops to $440,000.  But it is gaining ABC, which is worth $320,000.  Net value now is $760,000 or $15.20 per share.   This has assumed that the shares transferred from XYZ to the shareholders of ABC were already included in the market value.  This may mean that the stock price was previously $20 or so with almost 40,000 shares in circulation.  Then they issued new shares, diluting the value down to $16.  We could start at 50,000 shares at $16 and end up with 60,000 to 60,050 shares at $13.332 to $13.333 per share.  Then XYZ is really only paying $326,658.31 for ABC.  That's a premium of only $6,658.31 for ABC and gives a final stock value of $13.222 per share.   The problem though is that in reality, there is no equivalent of perfect value.  So I say again that the market value might be $15.20 (the theoretic answer that best fits the question given the example quantities of shares), $13, $20, or something else.  It will depend on how the market perceives the deal.  Is the combined company worth more or less than the sum of its parts?   And beyond this, you will have $19.20 to $20 in cash in addition to your XYZ share (or 1.05 shares).  Assuming 1.05 shares, that would be $15.96 plus the $19.20--that's $35.16 total in theory or anything from $19.20 up in practice.  With the givens, the only thing of which you can be sure is the $19.20 cash.  The value of the stock is up in the air.   If XYZ is only privately traded, this is still true.  The stock is worth the price that someone will pay for it.  The ""someone"" is just more limited with privately traded stocks." "I don't think its a taxable event since no income has been constructively received (talking about the RSU shareholders here). I believe you're right with the IRC 1033, and the basis of the RSU is the basis of the original stock option (probably zero). Edit: see below. However, once the stock becomes vested - then it is a taxable event (not when the cash is received, but when the chance of forfeiture diminishes, even if the employee doesn't sell the stock), and is an ordinary income, not capital. That is my understanding of the situation, do not consider it as a tax advice in any way. I gave it a bit more though and I don't think IRC 1033 is relevant. You're not doing any exchange or conversion here, because you didn't have anything to convert to begin with, and don't have anything after the ""conversion"". Your ISO's are forfeited and no longer available, basically - you treat them as you've never had them. What happened is that you've received RSU's, and you treat them as a regular RSU grant, based on its vesting schedule. The tax consequences are exactly as I described in my original response: you recognize ordinary income on the vested stocks, as they vest. Your basis is zero (i.e.: the whole FMV of the stock at the time of vesting is your ordinary income). It should also be reflected in your W2 accordingly." "Feel free to educate man. Everything I can find says the same thing.  [Investopedia](http://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/100314/what-are-key-factors-cause-market-go-and-down.asp)  &gt;If there are a greater number of buyers than sellers (more demand), the buyers bid up the prices of the stocks to entice sellers to get rid of them. Conversely, a larger number of sellers bids down the price of stocks hoping to entice buyers to purchase.  Yes, if a company is performing well, you might find that more people want to buy then sale.  That would cause it to go up.  But if no one wants to buy, it doesn't matter how well the company is doing.  I mean really, how would that work?  Someone in the company notices they had more sales today then yesterday, email someone on wallstreet and they just mouse wheel the stock price up to something higher?  Say the stock is $1.00 right now.  But the lowest buy order is $.90.  and the highest sale order is $1.10.  (I guess there is some math there making is $1.)  As soon as someone says, yeah.  I'll sale at 90 cents, it'll go down.  If someone says yeah, I'll buy at $1.10 it'll go up.    I'm sure there is more to it than that.  But everything I can find.  It 100% has to have people more people wanting to buy then sale for it to go up.  If more want to sale then buy, it'll go down.   But hey, if this is way off base.  Go ahead and fill me in.  I'm open to CMV.  This was all found after a short amount of time researching [""What makes stock prices go up?""](https://www.google.com/search?q=What+makes+stock+prices+go+up%3F&amp;oq=What+makes+stock+prices+go+up%3F&amp;gs_l=psy-ab.3..0i71k1l4.43421.43421.0.43882.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0..0.0....0...1.1.64.psy-ab..0.0.0....0.6Crfejzb3XY)"