Term loan overpayment options: applied to principal, or…?
It may have been the standard practice for a long time, and indeed it still is the common practice for my credit union to apply all excess payment directly to the principal. At the risk of sounding a little cynical, I will suggest that there is a profit motive in the move to not applying excess payments to principal unless directly instructed to do so. Interest accrued isn't reduced until the principal is reduced, so it benefits the creditor to both have the money in advance and to not apply it to the principal. You should probably move forward with the expectation that all of your creditors are adversarial even if only in a passive-aggressive manner.
No, it means that each year (Annual Payment Rate) you are accruing interest at 29.8%. If your principal is $10,000, that means you are gaining $3,000 of debt per year in addition to this, excluding payments you make/interest on interest. The mortgage I got last year through Wells Fargo explicitly indicates in its terms that excess payment will be considered against future payments (i.e., pay $500 extra in January and you owe $500 less in February) unless indicated otherwise. It goes on to state that with electronic payments you do not get to specify where excess payment goes, so excess payment made electronically always goes toward future payments. If you want to make excess payments toward principal, you must actually send them a check and your payment stub, with the appropriate box ticked.  This won't be very different for other major banks, I wouldn't imagine. "The ""Actual Applied Rate"" of 7.5% is the total amount of interest charged over the life of the loan, $2,204.82, divided by the loan amount divided by three years. This amount is lower than the actual interest rate of 13.69% because interest charges are based on loan principle which reduces over the life of the loan." "So with any debt, be it a loan or a bond or anything else, you have two parts, the principal and the interest. The interest payment is calculated by applying the interest % to the principal. Most bonds are ""bullet bonds"" which means that the principle remains completely outstanding for the life of the bond and thus your interest payments are constant throughout the life of the bond (usually paid semi-annually). Typically part of the purpose of these is to be indefinitely refinanced, so you never really pay the principal back, though it is theoretically due at expiration.  What you are thinking of when you say a loan from a bank is an amortizing loan. With these you pay an increasing amount of the principal each period calculated such that your payments are all exactly the same (including the final payment).  Bonds, just like bank loans, can be bullet, partially amortizing (you pay some of the principle but still have a smaller lump sum at the end) and fully amortizing. One really common bullet structure is ""5 non-call 3,"" which means you aren't allowed to pay the principle down for the first three years even if you want to! This is to protect investors who spend time and resources investing in you!" You may need to specifically state that your extra payments should go towards principal, and should not be considered early payments of future months. Yes, for a credit card, payments in excess of the minimum will go toward principal. This is not always the case with a mortgage, where prepayments of extra principal need to be explicitly stated. Yes. it is possible, I have seen many times banks permitting overdrawing and later charging a high courtesy fees. Of course in many countries this is not permitted. In one of my account, I am running negative balance as the bank has charged its commission which is not due. "Another option would be to not refinance but also not pay any extra each month but to continue as you are making the existing payments and just put the ""extra"" you would have paid aside in an investment of some type (something you are comfortable with)  This as the added benefit of not tying up this extra money in your house should you need it in the next few years for something else. You would then have the option in 2 or 3 years of continuing on this path or closing the investment and paying off the remaining principal in one lump sum.   If nothing else that big payment would be a really fun check to write." "We payed off our Mortgage early...at first in small extra payments to principal, and finally a lump sum.  Each extra payment to principal reduced the balance, and reduced every payment going forward.  I have, somewhere, an excel spreadsheet where I tracked this...  - =CUMIPMT((interestRate/12),term,pymtNumber,balance,balance,0) computed the interest payment due  - =currentPrincipal + CUMIPRINTresultAbove computed the monthly principal payment Occasionally I would update the month-ending Principal balance against what the mortgage company told me.  It was usually off by a little.   My mortgage company required me to specifically contact them for a payoff amount before I wrote the final check.   I've never heard of a mortgage where prepayment of all expected interest following the original schedule is required.  I would guess it is against federal (US) law.  Lets think about that for a moment...  out of ""interest"", I recently computed that for our 30 year loan at 6-5/8% on about 145, we payed a total of 106000 in interest.  That include a refi to 4-7/8 10-years in to a 15-year loan, and paying it off 20 years after the original loan was granted. As far as not paying all the theoretical interest due...  - If they get a fixed dollar amount of service interest back, there's no incentive to me to pay on-time.  I owe the same amount if I pay it today or if I pay it 6 months late, after I gambled the mortgage money and finally won.  (yea, I know they could write the mortgage to penalize me for paying late, but I'm ignoring that)  - if you were requried to pay off all the interest that might accrue, how could you ever sell your home, or refinance, for that matter?  When I refi'd, the new holder payed the old holder 98,000.  If the original holder had required prepayment of all the interest that would be accrued to the original schedule, the new mortgage would've been 200k.  It would just never be a good deal to buy a home if mortgages worked under that term. I have had a car loan that worked differently -- they pre-computed the total interest due and then divided it over the term of the loan equally.  I could pay off early and they stopped collecting interest." "The monthly bill should reduce as required by Loan A no longer requiring payment. This will occur only when Loan A is fully payed off, not before. If you're going to do this, make sure you tell them that any extra money is principal reduction, and not ""prepayment""  Lets say you do pay off loan A, and you continue to pay $11 a month.  If you specify ""principle reduction"" for the $1 extra, they must reduce the loan balance by $1.  If you do not specify, or you specify ""prepayment"", they ""may"" apply $0.20 to principal reduction and $0.80 to interest." Maybe one of my issues is that I have a 5 year model with a terminal value. The repayment of debt principal is outside this time frame so I don't assume any repayment.   If you're valuing a company share price though you don't model all debt repayments. Basically, what you describe exists in many countries - not in the USA though. In Europe, people have checking accounts with allowed overdraft, typically three month net salaries. You can just this money any day as you like, and pay it back - completely or partially - any day as you like. Interest is calculated for each day on the amount used that day; and the collateral is 'future income', predicted / expected from previous income. In the USA, credit cards have taken its place, with stricter different rules and limitations. In addition, many of the extra rules in loans were invented to take advantage of the ignorance or situation of the borrower to make even more money. For example, applying extra payments to future due payments instead of to the principal makes that principal produce more interest while the extra payments just sit around. Simply put, for a mortgage, interest is charged only on the balance as well. Think of it this way - on a $100K 6% loan, on day one, 1/2% is $500, and the payment is just under $600, so barely $100 goes to principal. But the last payment of $600 is nearly all principal.  By the way, you are welcome to make extra principal payments along with the payment due each month. An extra $244 in this example, paid each and every month, will drop the term to just 15 years. Think about that, 40% higher payment, all attacking the principal, and you cut the term by 1/2 the time. So the principle is true.  Assuming that you get paid bi-weekly, you end up getting three paychecks two months during the year.  Typically that is in January and July/August.  So if things were different, and your mortgage was setup so you paid half a monthly payment each paycheck, then you would wind up making one full extra payment per year.  Making that extra payment, most often, reduces the mortgage by 7 years on a 30 year note.   While true, many of these companies charge exorbitant fees for the right for you to do so, so the principal reduction is not commensurate with what you are paying.   You can simply do this yourself without paying fees.  On those extra pay days, pay half a payment to principal only, and no fee, no fuss.  This is pretty easy to do with most mortgage companies as they have online payments and it is just a matter of filling out a web form.  For me this does not even cost a stamp as they pull from my checking account at another bank. I had a car loan through GMAC and extra money was applied to future payments.   At one point, I received a statement telling me I had 15 months until my next payment was due because I had not marked extra payments as going to principal.