This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: AIIMS 2018, Subject name: Medicine
A 50 year male presented with high BP of 160/100 mm Hg and hea rate of 120/min. CECT is shown below. Which is best management of this condition? 
Select and explain. 
A. Surgical repair, B. LMW heparin, C. Beta blocker, D. Vitamin K inhibitors
A: Surgical repair
Answer: A: Surgical repair 
Explanation: Tennis ball appearance of ascending aoa is feature of Aoic dissection. - Type A Rx- Surgical Repair Extra - mile Type B Aoic dissection Type B aoic dissections involve transverse and/or descending aoa. For uncomplicated/ stable distal lesions and intramural type B hematomas medical therapy is preferred. For complicated type B surgical correction is indicated.