This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
An 18 years old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. On evaluation, she was having a karyotype of 45X0 and infantile uterus. What should he done next? 
Select and explain. 
A. H to induce pubey, B. Vaginoplasty, C. Clitoroplasty, D. Bilateral gonadectomy
D: Bilateral gonadectomy
Answer: D: Bilateral gonadectomy 
Explanation: Ans. d. Bilateral gonadectomyHistory of primary amenorrhea, karyotype of 45X0 & infantile uterus is suggestive of Turner's syndrome. Approximately 5% of women with Turner's syndrome have a karyotype with Y chromosome (45X/46XY). It is impoant to identify' a Y chromosome because affected individuals are at significant risk of gonadoblastoma (20 to 30%). Therefore, prophylactic gonadectomy should be performed.