`    SamEV , the spanish territories goberned by spanish kings count actually as spanish possesion(at least those of Philip II),Charles I was the king of Spain and he ruled mostly of Europe being the emperor of Spain and the HRE,the spanish empire have the same sense under Charles V & Phillip II. It doesn't have sense to add the territories of Phillip II and not to add those of Charles I, since they had the same ``emprise``, and both were kings of Spain. And the most important thing,SPAIN BECAME A POWERFUL EMPIRE UNDER CHARLES I , not under his son.    `