` :::::::::::::The wording was a direct quote from the textbook. I only removed the section about improved sexual satisfaction due to phimosis solely because that is circumcision for a medical reason, and is therefore not non-therapeutic. How does this not represent the source accurately? I'm not even pushing my point of view here. How much more NPOV can you get than ``[no] consensus exists regarding the role of the foreskin in sexual performance and satisfaction``? Additionally, one of those secondary sources was the AAP 2012 report, with which I pointed out the methodology errors observed by other medical professionals. But I'll withhold further comments until we get the 2013 edition. )  `