How to show $\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1} = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}$? I am able to evaluate the limit $$\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1} = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}$$ for a given $n$ using l'Hôspital's (Bernoulli's) rule.

The problem is I don't quite like the solution, as it depends on such a heavy weaponry. A limit this simple, should easily be evaluable using some clever idea. Here is a list of what I tried:


Substitute $y = x - 1$. This leads nowhere, I think.
Find the Taylor polynomial. Makes no sense, it is a polynomial.
Divide by major term. Dividing by $x$ got me nowhere.
Find the value $f(x)$ at $x = 1$ directly. I cannot as the function is not defined at $x = 1$.
Simplify the expression. I do not see how I could.
Using l'Hôspital's (Bernoulli's) rule. Works, but I do not quite like it.


If somebody sees a simple way, please do let me know.



Added later: The approach proposed by Sami Ben Romdhane is universal as asmeurer pointed out. Examples of another limits that can be easily solved this way:


$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sqrt[m]{1 + ax} - \sqrt[n]{1 + bx}}{x}$ where $m, n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$ are given, or
$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\arctan(1 + x) - \arctan(1 - x)}{x}$.


It sems that all limits in the form $\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x)}{x - a}$ where $a \in \mathbb{R}$, $f(a) = 0$ and for which $\exists f'(a)$, can be evaluated this way, which is as fast as finding $f'$ and calculating $f'(a)$.

This adds a very useful tool into my calculus toolbox: Some limits can be evaluated easily using derivatives if one looks for $f(a) = 0$, without the l'Hôspital's rule. I have not seen this in widespread use; I propose we call this Sami's rule :).
Let
$$f(x)=x+x^2+\cdots+x^n-n$$
then by the definition of the derivative we have

$$\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1}=  \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{f(x)-f(1)}{x - 1}=f'(1)\\[10pt] = \left[ \vphantom{\frac11} 1 + 2x + 3x^2 + \cdots + nx^{n-1} \right]_{x=1} = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}$$
Your objection to using l'Hospital's rule is on the basis that it feels like it's "too powerful" a tool for the problem, right?

Lets go all the way to the other end, then, and prove the limit using just the definition.

$$\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L \iff \forall \varepsilon \gt 0 \ \exists \delta  \gt 0 \ni \left| x-a \right| \le \delta \Rightarrow  \left| f(x)-L \right| \le \varepsilon$$

Now, all we need to do is figure out a way that we can always pick a $\delta$ small enough to keep the function within $\varepsilon$ of $L$.

The particular limit in question:
$$\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1} = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}$$

From that, we can take:
$$\begin{align*}
a&amp;=1\\
f(x)&amp;=\frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1}\\
L&amp;=\frac{n(n + 1)}{2}
\end{align*}$$

So we need to solve
$$\left| \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1} - \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}\right| &lt; \varepsilon$$
for $\left|x-1\right|$.

I really don't feel like doing any of that crunchwork solving that equation.  If someone out there does feel like it, please do so, and edit it into my answer.  For now, though, I am going to skip ahead bunch of steps, assume we solved it, and have our solution of 
$$\left|x-1\right| \ge g(\varepsilon)$$

Now, we know from the definition that $\left| x-1 \right| \le \delta$, so we can conclude that if we pick $\delta = g(\varepsilon)$, we ensure that the value of $f(x)$ is within $\varepsilon$ of $L$, satisfying our definition of the limit, and proving that $$\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x + x^2 + \dots + x^n - n}{x - 1} = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}$$