Is distributional Derivative of $\delta^{(2)}(-x)=-\delta^{(2)}(x)$ Is distributional Derivative of 

$\delta^{(2)}(-x)=-\delta^{(2)}(x)$ ??

or 

$\delta^{(2)}(-x)=\delta^{(2)}(x)$ ??

I know that $\delta(-x)= \delta(x)$ and $\delta^{(1)}(-x)=-\delta^{(1)}(x)$. How to show similar property for the second derivative?

Thanks.
With the definition of the derivative $\langle\delta^{(n)},phi\rangle=(-1)^n\langle\delta,\phi^{(n)}\rangle$ and $\langle\delta(-x),\phi\rangle=\langle\delta,\phi(-x)\rangle$ where $\phi$ is a test function we should get $$\delta^{(1)}(-x)=-\delta^{(1)}x)$$ and $$\delta^{(2)}(-x)=\delta^{(2)}(x)$$ and this is consistent with what happens to functions
δ^(1)(−x)=−δ^(1)(x)

δ^(2)(−x)= δ^(1)(−δ^(1)(x)) = -δ^(1)(δ^(1)(x))= −δ^(2)(x)