Prove that $C\exp(x)$ is the only set of functions for which $f(x) = f'(x)$ I was wondering on the following and I probably know the answer already: NO.
Is there another number with similar properties as $e$? So that the derivative of $\exp(x)$ is the same as the function itself.
I can guess that it's probably not, because otherwise $e$ wouldn't be that special, but is there any proof of it?
Of course $C e^x$ has the same property for any $C$ (including $C = 0$). But these are the only ones.

Proposition: Let $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be a differentiable function such that $f(0) = 1$ and $f&#39;(x) = f(x)$. Then it must be the case that $f = e^x$.

Proof. Let $g(x) = f(x) e^{-x}$. Then 

$$g&#39;(x) = -f(x) e^{-x} + f&#39;(x) e^{-x} = (f&#39;(x) - f(x)) e^{-x} = 0$$

by assumption, so $g$ is constant. But $g(0) = 1$, so $g(x) = 1$ identically. 

N.B. Note that it is also true that $e^{x+c}$ has the same property for any $c$. Thus there exists a function $g(c)$ such that $e^{x+c} = g(c) e^x = e^c g(x)$, and setting $c = 0$, then $x = 0$, we conclude that $g(c) = e^c$, hence $e^{x+c} = e^x e^c$. 

This observation generalizes to any differential equation with translation symmetry. Apply it to the differential equation $f&#39;&#39;(x) + f(x) = 0$ and you get the angle addition formulas for sine and cosine.
Note that $e$ is defined by the following Limit: $e=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1+ \frac{1}{n})^n$. Then: $e^x=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1+ \frac{1}{n})^{nx}$. Applying the Definition of the derivative $f'(x) = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ one obtains: $(e^x)'=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}((1+ \frac{1}{n})^{n(x+h)}-(1+ \frac{1}{n})^{nx})}{h} = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0}(  \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1+\frac{1}{n})^{nx} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{(1+\frac{1}{n})^{nh}-1}{h}))$ 

$= e^x \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{(1+\frac{1}{n})^{nh}-1}{h})$.

Now one can replace $h$ by $n$ by the relation $h= \frac{C}{n}$ with a finite constant $C$, because if $n \rightarrow \infty$ then $h$ tends to Zero. Hence:

$\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{(1+\frac{1}{n})^{nh}-1}{h}) = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} (\frac{(1+\frac{h}{C})^{C}-1}{h}) = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} (\frac{(1+C \frac{h}{C} + \frac{C(C-1)}{2}(\frac{h}{C})^2+O(h^3)-1}{h}) = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} (1 + \frac{C(C-1)}{2}\frac{h}{C^2}+O(h^2)) = 1$

Therefore $(Ce^x)'=C(e^x)'=Ce^x$. 

q.e.d.