Does $n!$ divide $ n^n$? Today while I was reading on how to shuffle an array I came across a statement that claims we shall not swap an array entry with the whole array range when shuffling the array otherwise we end up with a biased result. Click here for details.

They demonstrated that by saying that $n!$ does not divide $n^n$ because $(n-1)$ divide $n!$ but at the same time $(n-1)$ does not share any prime factor with $n$, if I understood it right.

However, I did not grasp the "proof" given, so, can you help me figure out how to demonstrate it in a more rigorous approach?
In the comments it is detailed how to find a prime $p$ such that $p \; \mid \; n-1$ but $p \; \nmid \; n^n$.

Suppose it were true now that $(n-1)! \; \mid \; n^n$.
Then we would have
$$
p \mid n -1 \mid (n-1)! \mid n^n
$$
so $p \mid n^n$, which is impossible.
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With Induction, you will use:
$$
{\pars{n + 1}^{n + 1} \over \pars{n + 1}!} = {\pars{n + 1}^{n} \over n!}
={n^{n} \over n!}\,{\pars{n + 1}^{n} \over n^{n}}
={n^{n} \over n!}\
\underbrace{\pars{1 + {1 \over n}}^{n}}
_{\ds{\not\in\ {\mathbb N}_{+}}}
$$
$\imp\quad n!\ \not\vert\ n^{n}$