Does it make sense to ask this about taking a derivative? If $g(x) = f(h(x))$, does it make sense to ask:  what is $(dg/df)(x)$?
I think it makes sense. But I think that expression also needs to equal $1$ for all $x$ since infinitesimal changes on both sides of the equation produced by an infinitesimal changes in $x$ need to be the same.
I think it makes sense. But I think that expression also needs to equal $1$ for all $x$ since infinitesimal changes on both sides of the equation produced by an infinitesimal changes in $x$ need to be the same.