Read the following excerpt from a US court opinion:
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the magistrate judge’s finding. Instead, the Millers argue that they are entitled to a less stringent standard because they are not attacking the validity of the foreclosure sale but, rather, are seeking only compensatory damages arising from the sale. The Millers are correct that the above three-part standard — in particular the requirement to show a grossly inadequate selling price — does not apply to all wrongful foreclosure claims* under Texas law. However, the cases on which the Millers rely establish only a particularized exception whereby the plaintiff-mortgagor may avoid showing a grossly inadequate selling price if he or she alleges that the defendant-mortgagee (lender) deliberately “chilled” the bidding at the foreclosure sale. See, e.g., Charter Nat’l Bank, 781 S.W.2d at 371 . The cases do not stand for the Millers’
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What is the most suitable continuation to the opinion? Your options are:
A. holding that a mortgagor is not required to prove a grossly inadequate selling price in a situation where the bidding at a nonjudicial foreclosure sale was deliberately chilled by the affirmative acts of a mortgagee and the injured mortgagor seeks a recovery of damages rather than a setting aside of the sale itself emphasis omitted
B. holding that a nonstatutory postponement  does not constitute an irregularity in the foreclosure proceeding itself that could justify setting aside a foreclosure sale
C. holding that plaintiffmortgagor lacked standing to enforce the terms of a foreclosure sale since there was no statutory authority allowing a mortgagor to enforce the provisions of a sale agreement when a foreclosure purchaser is in default
D. holding that an insurers defenses against the mortgagor could not be asserted against the mortgagee
E. holding that a mortgagor in possession is not a fiduciary of the mortgagee within the meaning of the bankruptcy act even though the mortgagor has obligated himself to keep the security intact
Reply with [A, B, C, D, E] only.