If [math]\lim\limits_{x→a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1,[/math] does it necessarily mean that [math]\lim\limits_{x→a} f(x) = \lim\limits_{x→a} g(x)[/math]
Does [math] f(x) \times g(x)=(f \circ g)(x)[/math]?
אם [math]\lim\limits_{x→a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1,[/math] האם זה בהכרח אומר ש-[math]\lim\limits_{x→a } f(x) = \lim\limits_{x→a} g(x)[/math]
האם [מתמטיקה] f(x) \times g(x)=(f \circ g)(x)[/math]?