It is the same as if at the end of the Second World War the right to vote had had to be granted to certain groups of the occupying forces in France because they were the occupying power in France for four years. ###>En effet, s'il n'en était ainsi, la France aurait dû, après la seconde guerre mondiale, octroyer le droit de vote à certains groupes d'occupants sous prétexte que pendant quatre ans, ils avaient occupé le pays?