$f$ convex $\iff f(y)\geq f'(x)(y-x)+f(x).$ I want to prove that $f$ is convex $\iff f(y)\geq f'(x)(y-x)+f(x)$.
The implication is fine, but I have difficulties with the converse implication. I tried to prove that $f'$ is increasing, but still, it doesn't work : Let $y>x$, then $$\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}\geq f'(x),$$
but taking $x\to y$ we get $f'(y)\geq \lim_{x\to y}f'(x).$ So if $f$ is $\mathcal C^1$ we don't get better than $f'(y)\geq f'(y)$... any idea ? 

Graphically, this means that the tangent at any point of a convex function lies below the graph. 
Convexity implies $ f(y)\geq f'(x)(y-x)+f(x)$

Now, take $0 < \theta < 1$, we know that for $x,y \in \operatorname{dom}(f)$, we also have that $x + \theta(y-x) \in  \operatorname{dom}(f)$. Using the definition of convexity, we can say
  $$f(x + \theta(y-x)) \leq (1-\theta)f(x) + \theta f(y)$$
  which implies
  $$f(y) \geq f(x) + \frac{f(x + \theta(y-x)) -f(x)}{\theta}$$
  Taking $\theta \rightarrow 0$, we get the desired result. Now, to show the other way around, 

$ f(y)\geq f'(x)(y-x)+f(x)$ implies convexity

Choose any $x \neq y$, and $0 < \theta < 1$, let $z = \theta x + (1-\theta) y$. Applying the equation twice we have
  $$ f(x)\geq f'(z)(x-z)+f(z) \tag{1}$$
  and
  $$ f(y)\geq f'(z)(y-z)+f(z) \tag{2}$$
  Now, multiplying $(1)$ by $\theta$ and $(2)$ by $1 - \theta$, we get
  $\theta f(x) + (1-\theta)f(y) \geq f(z)$
  which means we have convexity.

