How come $\left(\frac{n+1}{n-1}\right)^n = \left(1+\frac{2}{n-1}\right)^n$? I'm looking at one of my professor's calculus slides and in one of his proofs he uses the identity:
$\left(\frac{n+1}{n-1}\right)^n = \left(1+\frac{2}{n-1}\right)^n$
Except I don't see why that's the case.
I tried different algebraic tricks and couldn't get it to that form.
What am I missing?
Thanks.
Edit: Thanks to everyone who answered. Is there an "I feel stupid" badge? I really should have seen this a mile a way.

Just write
$$
\left(\frac{n+1}{n-1}\right)^n = \left(\frac{n-1+2}{n-1}\right)^n =\left(1+\frac{2}{n-1}\right)^n
$$
