Playing the same number at loto game A simple question that was already asked but I didn't understand the modelisation.
If I play always the same number at the loto, it does really look like a binomial distribution, like a die that I throw and I want to get at least a  6. In the case of the die, if I bet on a 6 each time, my probability of getting at least a 6 increases at each game. It becomes for instance $1- (\frac {5}{6})^2$
the second time I throw it.
So why shouldn't it increase at the loto game, if I play the same numbers and there is no bias?

The probability in lotto does increase the same way.  As you say, if you roll dice $n$ times trying to get a $6$ your chance of at least one success is $1-(\frac 56)^n$.  If you play a lotto with $10^6$ possible outcomes $n$ times the chance of at least one success is $1-(\frac{999,999}{1,000,000})^n$.  For small $n$ this is about $\frac n{1,000,000}$, so it increases linearly with $n$.
