Confusion with the proof that the Cantor set is closed I have encountered the definition of Cantor set and its property.
Cantor set is constructed by removing the middle third open set of each interval .So each time we get some union of closed sets.
As $F_0=[0,1]$
$F_1=[0,1/3]\cup [2/3,1]$
$F_2=[0,1/9]\cup [2/9,1/3]\cup [2/3,7/9]\cup [8/9,1]$
So on ,
That for $F_n$ we get the Union of $2^n$ closed interval .
I know that finite union of closed interval is closed, but this is not true for arbitarly union.
As I had a counterexample:  $\cup$ {{1/n}|for $n$ $\in N$} as this is not closed as $0$ is not in  that union.
So what is the argument here to say that $F_n$ is closed for any $ n$ .
As we are using this fact to prove the Cantor set to be closed as $F=\cap_{n\to \infty} F_n$ i.e arbitarly intersection of closed set is closed .
Where am I misunderstanding?
Any help will be appreciated.

For any large $n$, $F_n$ is the union of finitely many closed intervals so it is closed.
As you mentioned the intersection of an arbitrary family of closed sets is closed so $F=\cap_{n\to \infty} F_n$ is closed.
Note that for each $n$  we have finitely many closed sets, no matter how large $n$ is, so the union is closed.
Your example of the infinite union of closed sets ${ 1/n } not being closed does not contradict the counter set because you are dealing with an infinite union of closed sets not an infinite intersection of closed sets.
