Squaring a trigonometric inequality A very, very basic question.
We know
$$-1 \leq \cos x \leq 1$$
However, if we square all sides we obtain
$$1 \leq \cos^2(x) \leq 1$$
which is only true for some $x$.
The result desired is
$$0 \leq \cos^2(x) \leq 1$$
Which is quite easily obvious anyway. 
So, what rule of inequalities am I forgetting?

Squaring does not preserve inequality since it is a 2-to-1 function over $\mathbb{R}$, hence nonmonotone. Mind you a monotone decreasing function would reverse the inequality there would still be a valid inequality pointing the opposite way.
