If $f_k \to f$ a.e. and the $L^p$ norms converge, then $f_k \to f$ in $L^p$ Let $1\leq p < \infty$. Suppose that 


*

*$\{f_k\} \subset L^p$ (the domain here does not necessarily have to be finite), 

*$f_k \to f$ almost everywhere, and 

*$\|f_k\|_{L^p} \to \|f\|_{L^p}$. 


Why is it the case that $$\|f_k - f\|_{L^p} \to 0?$$ 
A statement in the other direction (i.e. $\|f_k - f\|_{L^p} \to 0 \Rightarrow \|f_k\|_{L^p} \to \|f\|_{L^p}$ ) follows pretty easily and is the one that I've seen most of the time. I'm not how to show the result above though. 

This is a theorem by Riesz.
Observe that
$$|f_k - f|^p \leq 2^p (|f_k|^p + |f|^p),$$
Now we can apply Fatou's lemma to
$$2^p (|f_k|^p + |f|^p) - |f_k - f|^p \geq 0.$$
If you look well enough you will notice that this implies that
$$\limsup_{k \to \infty} \int |f_k - f|^p \, d\mu = 0.$$
Hence you can conclude the same for the normal limit.
