Why can't we separate fraction powers in euler's formula? I am sure there is something wrong i am doing but i just want someone to point it to me.
Why can't we say that $e^{\frac {\pi i}{3}} = \left(e^{\pi i}\right)^{\frac {1}{3}} = (-1)^{\frac {1}{3}} = -1$
Why do we have to calculate it by the formula as it is (which produces different value)
Another question is why can't we say that $ (-1)^{\frac {1}{2}} = \left(\left (-1\right)^{2}\right)^{\frac {1}{4}} = 1^{\frac {1}{4}} = 1$
Again i have to say that i know this is all wrong i just want to know why it is wrong

It is simply the case that $(a^b)^c$ is not always equal to $a^{bc}$ if $a$ is not positive or if $b$ and/or $c$ are complex.
The problems here are that
$$x=(-1)^{1/2}\implies x^2=-1\implies x^4=1$$
However, when you say that $1^{1/4}=1$, you cause a misconception.  Usually, this is perfectly fine, but when you think about it, why not $1^{1/4}=-1$?  Indeed, both values are solutions to the equation $x^4=1$, but neither are equal to $(-1)^{1/2}$.  However, upon factoring, you could see that
$$x^4=1\implies x^4-1=0\implies(x+1)(x-1)(x+i)(x-i)=0$$
One of these is the correct solution in our context, though you happen to choose the wrong one.
Similarly, you state that $(-1)^{1/3}=-1$, but
$$x^3=-1\implies x^3+1=0\implies(x+1)(x^2-x+1)=0$$
And $x=e^{\pi i/3}$ is one such possible solution.  If you want more information, please see the link above.
