Why is $p \land (p \lor q)$ equivalent to $p$? How can you prove with equivalence laws that $p \land  (p\lor q)$ is equivalent to $p$?
I know you have to get rid of $q$, but I'm not sure how.
Thanks in advance

We have:
\begin{align*}
p \wedge (p \vee q) &= (p \vee F) \wedge (p \vee q) & \text{identity for } \vee \\
&= p \vee (F \wedge q) & \text{distributivity of } \vee \text{ over } \wedge \\
&= p \vee F & \text{annihilator for } \wedge \\
&= p & \text{identity for } \vee.
\end{align*}
