Does simple convergence imply local uniform convergence Consider $f_\nu:\Omega\subset\Bbb R^n\mapsto \Bbb R,\ \nu\in\Bbb N$ some functions
Local uniform convergence is when $\forall x\in\Omega$ there exists an open neighborhood $U_x\ni x$ of $\Omega$ such that $f$ converges uniformally in $U_x$
And my question is: does pointwise convergence imply local uniform convergence? (I'm pretty sure local uniform $\implies$ pointwise, that would make those two equivalent, but then what's the point of defining the local uniform convergence...)

Consider $f_n(x) = x^n$ on $[0,1]$, which converges pointwise.
However, for any neighborhood of $x=1$, there is another point $x'$ such that $|f_n(x') - 0|$ is close to $1$.
