Can the logic associative law be applied here? $\big(p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)\big)$ is logically equivalent to $\big(q \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)\big)$ 
I am a little confused when dealing with the 'implies' operator $\rightarrow$ and the logic laws. 
To prove that these are logically equivalent, can I just apply associative law and be done with it? Or do I need to apply more laws?


$\big(p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)\big)$ is logically equivalent to $\big(q \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)\big)$ 

Hint for alternative proof suggestion:
'$\to$'


*

*$p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)$ (Premise)

*$q$ (Premise)

*$p$ (Premise)

*$q \rightarrow r$ (Detachment, 1, 3)
etc.
