Polynomial $p(x) = 0$ for all $x$ implies coefficients of polynomial are zero I am curious why the following is true. The text I am reading is "An Introduction to Numerical Analysis" by Atkinson, 2nd edition, page 133, line 4.
$p(x)$ is a polynomial of the form: 
$$ p(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + \cdots + b_n x^n$$
If $p(x) = 0$ for all $x$, then $b_i = 0$ for $i=0,1,\ldots,n$. 
Why is this true? For example, for $n=2$, I can first prove $b_0=0$, then set $x=2$ to get a linear system of two equations. Then I can prove $b_1=b_2 = 0$. Similarly, for $n=3$, I first prove $b_0=0$, then I calculate the rank of the resulting linear system of equations. That shows that $b_1=b_2=b_3=0$. But if $n$ is very large, I cannot keep manually solving systems of equations. Is there some other argument to show all the coefficients must be zero when the polynomial is always zero for all $x$?
Thanks.

Let $n\in \mathbb{N}$, and $$p(x)=b_0+b_1x+\ldots +b_nx^n$$ be a polynomial. If $p(x)=0$ for every $x$, then $b_i=0$ for $i=0,\, 1,\ldots\, n$.
Proof:
By induction on $n$:
If $p(x)=b_0+b_1x=0$ for every $x$, then since $p(0)=p(1)=0$ you get $b_0=b_1=0$.
Suppose that for any $$r(x)=c_0+c_1x+\ldots +c_nx^n,$$ if $r(x)=0$ for every $x$, then $c_i=0$ for $i=0,\, 1,\ldots\, n$. Let $$p(x)=b_0+b_1x+\ldots +b_{n+1}x^{n+1}.$$ Suppose that $p\equiv 0$. Since $p(0)=0$, you get that $b_0=0$. From here, I have two possible arguments. The first, that was my original one, is as follows:
We have
$$p(x)=b_1x+b_2x^2+\ldots+b_{n+1}x^{n+1}=x(b_1+b_2x+\ldots+b_{n+1}x^{n}).$$ Then for all $x$,
$$\begin{align*}
0&= p(x)\\
0&= x(b_1+b_2x+\ldots+b_{n+1}x^{n}).\end{align*}$$
Then for any $x\neq 0$,
$$q(x):=b_1+b_2x+\ldots+b_{n+1}x^{n}=0$$
If $q\not\equiv 0$, then $q$ is a polynomial with infinitely many roots. This can't be, therefore $q(x) = 0$ for every $x$. By the induction hypothesis, $b_i=0$ for $i=1,\,\ldots ,\, n+1$.
The second argument was inspired by @Ragib Zaman's answer. Just differentiate both sides of $p(x)=0$, then $$b_1+2b_2x+\ldots+(n+1)b_{n+1}x^n=0$$ for all $x$. By the induction hypothesis, $kb_k=0$ for $k=1,\,\ldots,\,n+1$, and this implies that $b_k=0$ for $k=1,\,\ldots,\,n+1$
Since $b_0=0$, this proves that $b_i=0$ for $i=0,\, 1,\ldots,\, n+1$.
