Why $\mathbb{Q} [x]/(x^{4}+1) \simeq \mathbb{Q}(i,\sqrt{2})$? 
I do not understand why $\mathbb{Q} [x]/(x^{4}+1) \simeq \mathbb{Q}(i,\sqrt{2})$. 

I know that $x^{4}+1$ is irreducible $(f(x + 1) = (x + 1)^4 + 1$ is Eisenstein at $2$) and it has the roots: $\pm \frac{1\pm i}{\sqrt{2}}$. But I do not understand that isomorphism. Any theorem I am missing? A good explanation will help, I am kind of lost with this Galois theory
Thanks

Since you know that $x^4+1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb Q$ it follows that  $K=\mathbb{Q} [x]/(x^{4}+1)$ is a field. Moreover, it contains at least a root of $x^4+1$, say $a=x\bmod(x^4+1)$, and $K=\mathbb Q(a)$. Another root is obviously $-a$ and this also belongs to $K$. But it is not hard to see that $\pm a^3$ are the other two roots and thus $K$ is a splitting field of $x^4+1$. 
On the other hand, by computing the roots of $x^4+1$ we find these are $\pm\frac{1\pm i}{\sqrt{2}}$, so the splitting field of $x^4+1$ over $\mathbb Q$ is $\mathbb Q(\pm\frac{1\pm i}{\sqrt{2}}) $ which is easily seen equal to $\mathbb Q(i,\sqrt2)$.
Now use the uniqueness of the splitting field. (Maybe this is the theorem you missed!)
