If 'a' is divisible by 'b^2' then 'a' is divisible by 'b'. It's something that I've never really thought about before but it makes sense nonetheless. Bearing in mind that 'a' and 'b' are both positive integers, what would be the best way to go about proving this statement? Which method of proof , for example, would be the best way to solve this problem? I'm just looking for a starting block to set me going :)

By the definition of divisibility you have $$b^2|a\Rightarrow a=mb^2=(mb)b=nb$$ for an $m \in \mathbb{Z}$ which means that $$b|a$$
