Proving $ \neg ( \neg \alpha \wedge \neg \neg \alpha )$ I'm training to prove this statement , but first I need to know if this statement can be proved in : 
1 -  both in classical and Intuitionistic logic ( in this case i need to provide demonstration in Intuitionistic logic )
2 -  classical logic but not Intuitionistic logic ( in this case i need to provide a Kripke Counter-Models ) 
3 - not provable in either classic and Intuitionistic logic ( in this case i need to provide a classic Counter-Models )
My question is how to distinguish if a statement is provable in one of this cases ? 
PS :  I know the Intuitionistic logic doesn't allow the elimination of double negation 

$ \neg ( \neg \alpha \wedge \neg \neg \alpha ) $


Hint: Assume $\neg\alpha \wedge \neg\neg \alpha$, derive a contradiction. Does the resulting proof requires some use of the double negation elimation rule?
