What's wrong in this equation? (Regarding Euler's eqn) I got an idea, but that doesn't match with Euler's theory.. So What's wrong?!
$$e^{jx} = (e^{j 2\pi})^{x/2\pi} = 1^{x/2\pi} = 1$$

You have just proven that $(a^b)^c=a^{bc}$ is only valide when $a$, $b$ and $c$ are reals and not for any complex numbers.
Look at that other one if we assume the identity above for complex numbers:
$$(e^{2i\pi})^{2i\pi}=e^{-4\pi^2}=1^{2i\pi}=1$$
Absurd!!
