$⊢p \land q \to (p\to q)$ - Natural deduction proof confusion I have the following:
$$⊢p \land q \to (p\to q)$$
I'm having a difficult time trying to figure out where to begin. I believe that I am supposed to assume p and q and then somehow use the copy rule to construct the equation, however I am not quite sure.
Can someone help me out?
Attempt taken from a comment: "...this is my attempt... first assume p, assume q, copy p, copy q, introduce →, introduce ∧, then introduce → between both... in that order"

Assuming the conjunction operator has higher precedence than the conditional operator, what needs to be proved is the same as this:
$$⊢(p∧q)→(p→q)$$
Here is a proof:

The OP made the following attempt:

this is my attempt... first assume p, assume q, copy p, copy q, introduce →, introduce ∧, then introduce → between both... in that order

The above proof uses these steps:


*

*Assume $P∧Q$ as the antecedent of the desired conditional.

*Assume $P$ as the antecedent of the conditional in the conclusion.

*Derive $Q$ from the first assumption using conjunction elimination.

*Discharge the assumption on line 2 by rewriting the subproof in lines 2-3 as $P→Q$ on line 5 with conditional introduction as the justification.

*Discharge the assumption on line 1 by rewriting the subproof in lines 1-4 as $(P∧Q)→(P→Q)$ on line 5 with conditional introduction as the justification.


That completes the proof.

Kevin Klement's JavaScript/PHP Fitch-style natural deduction proof editor and checker http://proofs.openlogicproject.org/
"Operator Precedence" Introduction to Logic http://intrologic.stanford.edu/glossary/operator_precedence.html
