Does this Fermat's Last Theorem's "Proof" employ circular reasoning? I happened to find this link which contains a "Simple Proof of Fermat's Last Theorem":  http://www.oakton.edu/user/4/pboisver/fermat.html
I don't believe in the "proof" because we can just change III) to be any statement -- even a contradiction -- and still be able derive it. I'm still unsure where a problem with it is. It seems that the system is circular in assuming the truth or falsity of I) in II). Is a problem with this "proof" about circular logic or something else?
Thanks.

Given the note, the proof seems to be a joke. The proof fails because of the circular (impredicative) phrasing of I and II.
