I can't figure out whether my answer is correct or not. Consider part c of the following question -

I understand why $p \land (q \lor r)$ is correct. Am I correct in saying $(p \land q) \lor r$ is a correct answer as well?

$P=\{x| 0<x\}$, $Q=\{x| x<3\}$ and $R=\{x| x=3\}$, and $p$ is the logic statement "$x\in P$", $q$ is the logic statement "$x\in Q$", $r$ is the logic statement "$x\in R$".
a) "$x\in Q\cup R$" is the logic statement $q\lor r$.
b) "$x\in P\cap Q$" is the logic statement $p\land q$.
c) "$x\in P\cap(Q\cup R)$" is the logic statement $p\land (q\lor r)$.
Since $P\cap(Q\cup R)=(P\cap Q)\cup (P\cap R)=(P\cap Q)\cup R$, here, $p\land (q\lor r)\equiv (p\land q)\lor r$. So, you are correct.
