Alternative definition of Gamma function. Show that $ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n! \; n^m}{m \times (m+1) \times \dots \times (m+n)} = (m-1)!$ Alternative definition of Gamma function on Wikipedia has it defined as a limit.
$$ \Gamma(t) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n! \; n^t}{t \times (t+1) \times \dots \times (t+n)}$$ 
How do we recover familiar properties of the Gamma function this way?  Can we show that:
$$ \Gamma(3) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n! \; n^3}{3 \times 4 \times \dots \times (3+n)} \stackrel{?}{=} 2$$ 
I would like to see all integers.  In that case we are showing that $\Gamma(m+1) = m!$
$$ \Gamma(m) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n! \; n^m}{m \times (m+1) \times \dots \times (m+n)} \stackrel{?}{=}  1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \dots \times (m-1)$$ 
What's throwing me off is that the factorial already appears on the bottom and somehow it shifts to the top.

I just love little challenges...
$\Gamma(t)=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{n!n^t}{t(t+1)(t+2)\ldots(t+n)}$
Note the denominator of the fraction is in itself a factorial of sorts.
$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{n!n^t}{t(t+1)(t+2)\ldots(t+n)}=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{n!n^t}{\frac{(t+n)!}{(t-1)!}}=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{(t-1)!n!n^t}{(t+n)!}=\Gamma(t)=(t-1)!$
$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{(t-1)!n!n^t}{(t+n)!}=(t-1)!$
$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}\frac{n!n^t}{(t+n)!}=1$
$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}n!n^t=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}(t+n)!=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \ldots (n-1)(n)(n+1) \ldots (n+t-1)(n+t)$
$=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}n!(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\ldots(n+t-1)(n+t)$
$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}n^t=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\ldots(n+t-1)(n+t)$
$=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}(t+n)(t+(n-1))(t+(n-2))\ldots(t+1)(t)=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty}(t)(t+1)(t+2)\ldots(t+(n-1))(t+n)$
From here, I have no idea.  Whatever methods Euler or Weierstrass used to prove this must have been amazing.
I recall one of the famous things Euler did (The Basel Problem) was proving $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac 1{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$.  It involved taylor series and multiplying a lot of terms out using Newton's Identities or something like that.  I don't know if that is possible here, but I'm not $that$ good at math.
