Must a certain continuous map have 0 in its image, given that its restriction to the unit sphere is homotopic to the identity? Suppose $f:\mathbb{B}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous (here $\mathbb{B}^n$ refers to the $n$-dimensional unit ball).  Suppose also that its restriction $g := f|_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}$ does not have $0$ in its image, and $g:\mathbb{S}^{n-1} \to \mathbb{R}^n \setminus\{0\}$ is homotopic to the identity map.
Is it necessarily true that $f(x) = 0$ for some $x\in \mathbb{B}^n$?
I have proved it in the affirmative below. I'm hoping there may be a proof that uses only elementary results (i.e. avoids Borsuk-Ulam).  I used this result in the corrected proof of this question about Chebyshev sets.

If, by contradiction, $f$ has no zero, then $f|_{\mathbb S^{n-1}}$ is homotopic to a constant in $\mathbb R^n\setminus\{0\}$ by
$$
H(x,t)=f(tx), \quad x\in S^{n-1}, \ t\in[0,1].
$$
Therefore, by transitivity, the identity map on $\mathbb S^{n-1}$ is homotopic to a constant.  However the inclusion of $\mathbb S^{n-1}$ in $\mathbb R^n\setminus\{0\}$ is easily seen to be a homotopy equivalence so we deduce that $\mathbb S^{n-1}$ is contractible which it obviously isn't.
