$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{\tan^2 x}{1+x^2}\text{d}x$ on 2015 MIT Integration Bee So one of the question on the MIT Integration Bee has baffled me all day today $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{\tan^2 x}{1+x^2}\text{d}x$$ I have tried a variety of things to do this, starting with
Integration By Parts Part 1
$$\frac{\tan x-x}{1+x^2}\bigg\rvert_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{-2x(\tan x -x)}{\left (1+x^2 \right )^2}\text{d}x$$ which that second integral is not promising, so then we try
Integration By Parts Part 2
$$\tan^{-1} x\tan^2 x\bigg\rvert_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}2\tan^{-1} x\tan x\sec^2 x\text{d}x$$ which also does not seem promising
Trig Substitution
$x=\tan\theta$ which results $$\int_{0}^{\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}{4}}\tan^2 \left (\tan\theta\right )\text{d}\theta$$ which I think too simple to do anything with (which may or may not be a valid reason for stopping here) I had some ideas following this like power reducing $\tan^2 x=\frac{1-\cos 2x}{1+\cos 2x}$ which didn't spawn any new ideas. Then I thought maybe something could be done with differentiation under the integral but I could not figure out how to incorporate that. I also considered something with symmetry somehow which availed no results. I'm also fairly certain no indefinite integral exists. Now the answer MIT gave was $\frac{1}{3}$ but wolfram alpha gave $\approx$ .156503. Note
The integral I gave was a simplified version of the original here is the original in case someone can do something with it $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{1-x^2+x^4-x^6...}{\cos^2 x+\cos^4 x+\cos^6 x...}\text{d}x$$ My simplification is verifiably correct, I'd prefer no complex analysis and this is from this Youtube Video close to the end.

Let $f(x)=\tan x-x=\sum_{n=2}^\infty a_nx^{2n-1}$ where $a_n=\frac{(-1)^{n-1}2^{2n}(2^{2n}-1)B_{2n}}{(2n)!}$ and $B_{2n}$ is the $2n$-th Bernoulli number. Then $f'(x)=\tan^2 x=\sum_{n=2}^\infty (2n-1)a_nx^{2n-2}$. Hence,
$$\int_0^{\pi/4}\frac{\tan^2x}{x^2+1}dx=\sum_{n=2}^\infty (2n-1)a_nb_n$$
where
$$b_n=\int_0^{\pi/4}\frac{x^{2n-2}}{x^2+1}dx.$$
