$\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x)^{1/x}$ where $f(x)=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}\cfrac{x^{a_k}}{a_k!}$. Does the following limit exist? What is the value of it if it exists?
$$\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x)^{1/x}$$
where $f(x)=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}\cfrac{x^{a_k}}{a_k!}$ and $\{a_k\}\subset\mathbb{N}$ satisfies $a_k<a_{k+1},k=0,1,\cdots$
$\bf{EDIT:}$ I'll show that $f(x)^{1/x}$ is not necessarily monotonically increasing for $x>0$.
Since $\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}\big(x+2\big)^{1/x}=1$, for any $M>0$, we can find some $L > M$ such that $\big(2+L\big)^{1/L}<\sqrt{3}$.
It is easy to see that:
$$\sum_{k=N}^\infty \frac{x^k}{k!} = \frac{e^{\theta x}}{N!}x^N\leq \frac{x^N}{N!}e^x,\quad \theta\in(0,1)$$
Hence we can choose $N$ big enough such that for any $x\in[0,L]$
$$\sum_{k=N}^\infty \frac{x^k}{k!} \leq 1$$
Now, we let
$$a_k=\begin{cases}k,& k=0,1\\ 0,& 2\leq k <N\\ k,& k\geq N\end{cases}$$
Then $f(x)= 1+x+\sum\limits_{k=N}^\infty\frac{x^k}{k!}$ and 
$$f(2)^{1/2} \geq \sqrt{3} > (2+L)^{1/L} \geq f(L)^{1/L}$$
which shows that $f(x)^{1/x}$ is not monotonically increasing on $[2,L]$.

This limit does not exist in general. First observe that for any polynomial $P$ with non-negative coefficients we have
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} P(x)^{1/x} = 1$$
and
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} (e^x - P(x))^{1/x} = \lim_{x\to\infty} e (1-e^{-x}P(x))^{1/x} = e.$$
For ease of notation let
$$ e_n(x) = \sum_{k=n}^\infty \frac{x^k}{k!} = e^x - \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{x^k}{k!}.$$
Note that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} e_n(x) = 0$ for every fixed $x$.
Now define a power series of the form
$$ f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \sum_{k=m_i}^{n_i} \frac{x^k}{k!}, $$
along with partial sums
$$ P_j(x) = \sum_{i=1}^j \sum_{k=m_i}^{n_i} \frac{x^k}{k!}, $$
where $1 \le m_1 \le n_1 < m_2 \le n_2 < \ldots$ are chosen inductively below. We want to find increasing sequences $(x_i)$ and $(y_i)$ with $x_i \to \infty$, $y_i \to \infty$, and $f(x_i)^{1/x_i} \le \frac32$ and $f(y_i)^{1/y_i} \ge 2$, which obviously implies non-existence of $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty} f(x)^{1/x}$.
Having already defined $m_i$, $n_i$, $x_i$, $y_i$ for $i < j$, we know that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty} P_{j-1}(x)^{1/x} = 1$, so there exists $x_{j}>j+x_{j-1}$ such that $P_{j-1}(x_j)^{1/x_j} \le \frac54$. Then there exists $m_{j}>n_{j-1}$ such that 
$$(P_{j-1}(x_j)+e_{m_{j}}(x_{j}))^{1/x_j} \le \frac32,$$
which implies that whatever choices we make for $n_j$, $m_{j+1}$, etc., we always get
$$f(x_j)^{1/x_j} \le (P_{j-1}(x_j)+e_{m_{j}}(x_{j}))^{1/x_j} \le \frac32.$$
We also know that 
$$\lim\limits_{x\to\infty} (P_{j-1}(x) + e_{m_j}(x))^{1/x} = e>2,$$
so there exists $y_j > x_j$ with
$$ (P_{j-1}(y_j) + e_{m_j}(y_j))^{1/y_j} >2. $$
Furthermore, there exists $n_j > m_j$ with
$$ (P_{j-1}(y_j) + e_{m_j}(y_j)- e_{n_j+1}(y_j))^{1/y_j} >2.$$
Lastly, this implies
$$ f(y_j)^{1/y_j} \ge P_j (y_j)^{1/y_j} = (P_{j-1}(y_j) + e_{m_j}(y_j)- e_{n_j+1}(y_j))^{1/y_j} >2.$$
By pushing this idea a little further, one can achieve $\liminf\limits_{x\to\infty} f(x)^{1/x} = 1$ and $\limsup\limits_{x\to\infty} f(x)^{1/x} = e$.
