Hard inequality $ (xy+yz+zx)\left(\frac{1}{(x+y)^2}+\frac{1}{(y+z)^2}+\frac{1}{(z+x)^2}\right)\ge\frac{9}{4} $ I need to prove or disprove the following inequality:
$$
(xy+yz+zx)\left(\frac{1}{(x+y)^2}+\frac{1}{(y+z)^2}+\frac{1}{(z+x)^2}\right)\ge\frac{9}{4}
$$
For $x,y,z \in \mathbb R^+$. I found no counter examples, so I think it should be true. I tried Cauchy-Schwarz, but I didn't get anything useful. Is it possible to prove this inequality without using brute force methods like Bunching and Schur?
This inequality was in the Iran MO in 1996.

Pursuing a link from a comment above, here's the Iran 1996 solution attributed to Ji Chen. 
Reproduced here to save click- & scrolling ...
The difference
$$4(xy+yz+zx)\cdot\left[\sum_\text{cyc}{(x+y)^2(y+z)^2}\right]-9\prod_\text{cyc}{(x+y)^2}$$
which is equivalent to the given inequality, is
presented as the sum of squares
$$=\;\sum_{\text{cyc}}{xy(x-y)^2\left(4x^2 + 7xy + 4y^2\right)} 
\:+\:\frac{xyz}{x+y+z}\sum_{\text{cyc}}{(y-z)^2\left(2yz + (y+z-x)^2\right)}$$
whence non-negativity is clear.
