Proving that the limit of an abstract function with certain properties is zero. Let $$F(x) = \sum_{a \leq x} f(a)$$ where $f: A \subseteq \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} $ such that:


*

*$f(a) \geq 0$ for any $a \in A$ and 

*$\displaystyle\sum_{a \in A} f(a) = 1$
How do I prove that $$\lim_{x\to -\infty} F(x) = 0\text{?}$$ I know how to do delta-epsilon proofs for limits that take $x$ to infinity, but I don't know any theorems that let me exploit the two conditions on the function allowing me to prove the following limit without having to "peak inside" the function to see what it looks like. My real analysis is very rusty.

I use the following fact below, so I thought it would be useful to prove it first.

If $f:A\to\mathbb{R}$ is such that $f(a)\geq 0$ for every $a\in A$ and $\sum_{a\in A}f(a)<\infty$, then $[f>0]$ (notation for $\{a\in A \mid f(a)>0\}$) is countable.

Proof:
For each $x>0$, consider the set $[f>x]$. Note that
$$
\operatorname{card}([f>x])x \leq \sum_{a\in[f>x]}f(a) \leq \sum_{a\in A}f(a) < \infty.
$$
Thus $[f>x]$ is finite. Therefore $[f>0] = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[f>1/n]$ is countable, as it is a countable union of finite sets. $\square$
Now we consider the problem. Since $f(a)\geq0$ for all $a\in A$ and $\sum_{a\in A}f(a)$ converges, it must converge absolutely. Let $A':=\{a\in A \mid f(a)>0\}$. Then $A'$ must be countable, for otherwise $\sum_{a\in A}f(a)$ would diverge. Let's enumerate $A'=\{a_1,a_2,\ldots\}$ [thanks to Adayah for noticing mistake here]. Now we have
$$
\sum_{n=1}^\infty f(a_n) = \sum_{a\in A'}f(a)=\sum_{a\in A}f(a)= 1.
$$
Let $\varepsilon>0$. Since the above sum converges, there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $\sum_{n=N}^\infty f(a_n) < \varepsilon$.
Then whenever $x<\min_{n< N}a_n$, we have
$$
F(x) = \sum_{a\leq x}f(a) \leq \sum_{n=N}^\infty f(a_n) < \varepsilon.
$$
This proves that $\lim_{x\to-\infty}F(x)=0$. $\square$
I want to remark that we didn't actually need $\sum_{a\in A}f(a)=1$. We just needed the sum to converge.

Response to old version of question:
Even with the edits, there still seems to be something wrong. Consider $A=\{0\}$ and $f:A\to\mathbb{R}$ given by $f(0) = 1$. Then indeed $f(a)\geq 0$ for any $a\in A$ and $\sum_{a\in A}f(a)=1$. However, for all $x\geq 0$, we have $F(x)=1$. Therefore $\lim_{x\to\infty}F(x)=1$.
