How to see these two ways of computing expectation are equivalent? Assume 
$$X:=\sum_{i=1}^nX_i,$$
where each $X_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p_i$. (We do not assume $X_1,\dots, X_n$ are independent.) 
Then there are two ways to compute expectation of $X$:


*

*By linearilty of expectation, $EX=\sum_{i=1}^n p_i$.

*By definition, $EX=\sum_{j=0}^nj\cdot P(X=j)$.


I am wondering is there a way to see the second equation is equal to the first one? Especially we do not assume $X_1,\dots,X_n$ are independent, so it seems even computing the second value is difficult?

For equivalence note that 
$$ X = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i = \sum_{j=0}^n j1_{\{X=j\}}$$
where $1_A$ is an indicator function that is 1 if event $A$ is true, and 0 else. Then take expectations of the above and use linearity of expectations (and $E[1_A] = P[A]$) to get
$$ E[X] = \sum_{i=1}^n \underbrace{E[X_i]}_{p_i} = \sum_{j=0}^n j \underbrace{E[1_{\{X=j\}}]}_{P[X=j]} $$
Now, we cannot compute $P[X=j]$ without more information about dependence/independence. This is why linearity of expectations is so useful: It allows a simple answer of $\sum_{i=1}^np_i$ to a difficult question. 
Homework:
Convince yourself the equation $\sum_{i=1}^n p_i = \sum_{j=0}^n j P[X=j]$ is true in these special cases (for which you can compute $P[X=j]$): 
1) $X_i=X_1$, $p_i=p$ for all $i \in \{1, ..., n\}$.  
2) $\{X_i\}$ are i.i.d., $p_i=p$ for all $i \in \{1, ..., n\}$.
Do these cases have different mass functions for $P[X=j]$? Do they still lead to the same answer for $E[X]$? 
