Evaluate $\frac{0!}{4!}+\frac{1!}{5!}+\frac{2!}{6!}+\frac{3!}{7!}+\frac{4!}{8!}+\cdots$ $$\frac{0!}{4!}+\frac{1!}{5!}+\frac{2!}{6!}+\frac{3!}{7!}+\frac{4!}{8!}+\frac{5!}{9!}+\frac{6!}{10!}+\cdots$$
This goes up to infinity. Trying finite cases may help.
My Attempt:It seems that it is going to be $\frac{1}{18}$. My calculations show that its going near $\frac{1}{18}$.

An alternative approach to Behrouz' fine one through Euler's beta function. We have:
$$\begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{n!}{(n+4)!}=\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{\Gamma(n+1)}{\Gamma(n+5)}&=&\frac{1}{\Gamma(4)}\sum_{n\geq 0}B(4,n+1)\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}\sum_{n\geq 0}x^{n}(1-x)^3\,dx\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^2\,dx\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}x^2\,dx = \frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{1}{3}=\color{red}{\frac{1}{18}}.\end{eqnarray*}$$

With the same approach it is straightforward to check that:
  $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{n!}{(n+k)!} = \color{red}{\frac{1}{(k-1)\cdot(k-1)!}}$$
  for any $k\in\mathbb{N}^+$.

The same can be achieved by recognizing in the LHS a multiple of a telescopic series.
