Showing $\exists~$ some $c$ such that $f(z)=cg(z)$ 
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Holomorphic functions and limits of a sequence 

Hi There,
I was looking through an old text of mine, just refreshing myself on some material and I came across an interesting exercise statement that looks promising to understand. It just have been some time and I do not know if I am/even know how to approach the problem correctly. Some guidance of a solution for my thoughts to think on would be appreciated. The question is as stated:
Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are analytic on the disk $A=\{z \text{ such that }|z| \lt 2 \}$ and 
that neither $f(z)$ nor $g(z)$ is ever $0$ for $z \in A.$ If
$$
\frac{f^{\;'}(1/n)}{f(1/n)}=\frac{g'(1/n)}{g(1/n)} \quad {\text{ for }} \quad n=1,2,3,4 \ldots,
$$
could it be shown that there is a constant $c$ such that $f(z)=cg(z)~~\forall ~~ z \in A.$ 

Denote $h(x)=\frac{f^{'}(x)}{f(x)}-\frac{g^{'}(x)}{g(x)}$, which is holomorphic in $A$, since $f,g$ are never zero and analytic on $A$. The statement says that $h(\frac{1}{n})=0,\ \forall n \geq 1$. There is a theorem in complex analysis:

Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $\Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $\Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.

Since this is the case for $h$, we have $h(x)=0,\ \forall x \in A$. This means that $f^{'}(x)g(x)-f(x)g^{'}(x)=0,\ \forall x \in A$, and therefore $(f/g)^\prime(x)=0,\forall x \in A$. Therefore $f/g=c$.
