$\forall m \exists n$, $mn = n$ True or False 
Identify if the statement is true or false. If false, give a counterexample.
$\forall m \exists n$, $mn = n$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers.

I said that this statement was false; specifically, that it is false when $m$ is any integer other than $1$
Apparently this is incorrect; honestly though, I can't see how it is.

For any $m$, take $n=0{}{}{}{}{}$.
