How do we conclude using De Morgan's laws that these two are equal? Question: (p∧q)→(p∨q)≡¬(p∧q)∨(p∨q)
Which steps should I take to derive the equation to the right from the equation to the left? In the book, it just shows this equation but doesn't answer how did they actually get it. Since this example in the book shows up under the De Morgan's laws section, I rightfully considered De Morgan's laws could help us to solve this problem. 
If you need the full question just tell me.

If both $p$ and $q$ are true, then at least one of either $p$ or $q$ will be true.

Since this example in the book shows up under the De Morgan's laws section, I rightfully considered De Morgan's laws could help us to solve this problem. 

Yes, but it is too soon.   The step you have applies Material Implication.


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*$\qquad(p\wedge q)\to (p\vee q)~~\equiv~~\neg (p\wedge q)\vee (p\vee q)$


This sets it up to apply deMorgan's Rule next.


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*$\qquad\phantom{(p\wedge q)\to (p\vee q)} ~~\equiv~~(\neg p\vee \neg q)\vee (p\vee q)$


Finish with association and commutation, contradiction, and then annihlation.


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*$\qquad\phantom{(p\wedge q)\to (p\vee q)}~~\equiv~~\top$

