If $\sum{a_n}$ converges does that imply that $\sum{\frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges? I know if $\sum{a_n}$ converges absolutely then $\sum{\frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges since $0\le \frac{|a_n|}{n} \le |a_n| $ for all $n$ so it converges absolutely by the basic comparison test and therefore converges. However, I cannot prove the convergence of $\sum \frac{a_n}{n}$ if $\sum{a_n}$ converges but not absolutely even though I suspect it to be true. Can you give me a proof or a counterexample for this?

Yes;
A theorem found in "Baby'' Rudin's book: If $\sum a_{n}$} converges and $\lbrace{ b_{n} \rbrace}$ monotonic and bounded then $\sum a_{n}b_{n}$ converges. See:
Prob. 8, Chap. 3 in Baby Rudin: If $\sum a_n$ converges and $\left\{b_n\right\}$ is monotonic and bounded, then $\sum a_n b_n$ converges.
Here, we take $b_{n} = \frac{1}{n}.$
