Non-degenerate bilinear forms and invertible matrices I have the following question: 

Show that a symmetric bilinear form is nondegenerate if and only if its matrix in a basis is invertible

Ok so both directions "if non-degenerate then the matrix is invertible" and "if matrix is invertible then the form is nondegenerate" have to be proven for this. 
For the first direction. If the bilinear form is non-degenerate its null space is $\left\{0\right\}$, so for every $v \neq 0$ there exists a $v'$ such that $\langle v, v' \rangle \neq 0$ and so there are no zero eigenvalues, I'm pretty sure this somehow implies the determinant of the matrix is also non-zero, as it is the product of the eigenvalues and hence invertible (but not sure how to show this). 
For the other direction, if the matrix is invertible, then the determinant is non-zero and, if my previous assumption is correct, this implies there are no zero eigenvectors, which implies the null space is $\left\{0\right\}$ and hence non-degenerate? 
Thanks for any guidance, the notes I have on this topic are pretty poor so I'm having a hard time fully understanding everything. Thanks again.

Here is one more, a simple one.
Non-degeneracy of the bilinear form f(x,y) in a finite dimensional vector space V is for $ x,y \in V $ defined by the condition
$ \big( f(x,y)=0 \; \forall \, x \big) \; \Leftrightarrow \; y=\mathit{0} $.
Let M be the matrix representing the symmetric bilinear form f, i.e. $ f(x,y) = x^T M y \, \big( = y^T M x \big) $.
Obviously, we have $ \big( x^T M y = 0 \; \forall \, x \big) \; \Leftrightarrow \; My=\mathit{0} $.
"$ \; \Rightarrow \; $" : Let f be non-degenerate. Then
$ My=\mathit{0} \; \Leftrightarrow \; y=\mathit{0} $,
and in particular, the implication $ \, My=\mathit{0} \; \Rightarrow \; y=\mathit{0} \, $ means that M is invertible.
"$ \; \Leftarrow \; $" : On the contrary, let M be invertible. Then from the above we have
$ \big( f(x,y)=0 \; \forall \, x \big) \; \Rightarrow \; y=\mathit{0} $.
Obviously, $ y=\mathit{0} \; \Rightarrow \; My=\mathit{0} $, so we also get
$ \big( f(x,y)=0 \; \forall \, x \big) \; \Leftarrow \; y=\mathit{0} $.
Thus, f is non-degenerate.
