Suggest a tricky method for this problem Find the value of:
$$ 1+ \biggl(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^2 + \frac{1 \cdot 3}{1 \cdot 2} \biggl(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^4 + \frac{1\cdot 3 \cdot 5}{1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3} \biggl(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^6 + \cdots  $$

Note that we can rewrite the series as 
$$ \displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!}{2^n(n!)^2} \cdot \bigg(\frac{1}{10}\bigg)^{2n}$$
which is exactly
$$ \displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!}{2^n(n!)^2} \cdot x^{2n}$$
evaluated at $x = \frac{1}{10}$. It is easy to see that this sum has radius of convergence $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$, and so converges absolutely for $x = \frac{1}{10}$.
Also note that this sum is exactly the Taylor series for $\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-2x^2}}$ centered at $x = 0$. Thus
$$ \displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!}{2^n(n!)^2} \cdot \bigg(\frac{1}{10}\bigg)^{2n} = \frac{10}{7\sqrt{2}}$$
