Proving: $\lim_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{\pi ^2}{\sin ^2\pi x}-\frac1{x^2}\right)=\frac{\pi ^2}3$ without L'Hospital Evaluating
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{\pi ^2}{\sin ^2\pi x}-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)$$
with L'Hospital is so tedious. Does anyone know a way to evaluate the limit without using L'Hospital? I have no idea where to start.

Well, you've got your answer, and it's a good one, I'd use series expansions always in such case, but then, the answerer couldn't know you've ever heard of those expansions, and some of your comments show you aren't too familiar with them. That's why SE encourages sharing information about your mathematical background, btw. Most people ignore that. But then, you risk to get an answer like the following, without any l'Hospitals, based only on elementary principles:
"From the elementary identity
$$\frac1{\sin^2x}-\frac1{x^2}=\sum^\infty_{k=1}3^{-2k}\,\frac{\frac83-\frac{16}9\sin^2\frac{x}{3^k}}{\left(1-\frac43\sin^2 \frac{x}{3^k}\right)^2},$$ letting $x\to0,$ we get $$\frac1{\sin^2x}-\frac1{x^2}\to\sum^\infty_{k=1}3^{-2k}\cdot\frac83=\frac13,$$ and the result we're looking for follows after replacing $x\to\pi x.$"
The joke is: that identity is an elementary consequence of the triplication formula $$\sin3y=3\sin y-4\sin^3y$$ and the limit $\sin y/y\to1$ as $y\to0,$ indeed.
Of course, such an answer isn't helpful, not just because it is rather obscure, but also because the method is applicable only in exceptional cases.
