Proving logical equivalences The question is to prove
$\neg (p \wedge q) \to (p \vee r)$ equivalent to $p \vee r$
So far, I got


*

*$¬[¬(p \wedge q)] \vee (p \vee r)$    - implication

*$(p \wedge q) \vee (p \vee r)$        - double negation


Now, is this question logically not equivalent?
Or is there some way I can prove this is logically equivalent?

To prove the conditional statement: $\neg$ (p $\wedge$ q) $\to$ (p $\vee$ r)
you assume the first part and then you could try using De Morgan's Laws, they are listed below.
$\neg$ (p $\wedge$ q) = ($\neg$ p) $\vee$ ($\neg$q)
$\neg$ (p $\vee$ q) = ($\neg$ p) $\wedge$ ($\neg$q)
