Are these two eigenvectors equivalent? (Easy Question) I solved this homework question and  when I compared my solution to the textbook solution, the eigenvector is slightly different.
I got $[0,\frac{1}{2},1]$
The book says: $[0,1,2]$
It's basically the same vector multiplied by two. Can you do that? Thanks.

This is a community wiki answer intended to remove this question from the unanswered queue.

As Ahsan noted in the comments, an eigenvector (in a 1-dimensional eigenspace) is only unique up to multiplication by a non-zero constant.
If the eigenspace is more than 1-dimensional, there are even more possible answers. In general every basis of the eigenspace is a possible solution to such a problem. 
