Connection between ideals in $R$ and those in $R[x]$ 
Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $I\subset R$ an ideal. Then $I[x]$ (all
  polynomials with coefficients in $I$) is an ideal of $R[x]$.
Prove or disprove:
  
  
*
  
*$I$ maximal $\implies I[x]$ maximal;
  
*$I$ prime $\implies I[x]$ prime.
  

Here is a counterexample for the first part: the ideal $(2)$ is maximal in $\mathbb Z$, but the set of all polynomials in $\mathbb Z[x]$ divisible by $2$ is not a maximal ideal since it is contained in $(2)\subset \mathbb Z[x]$. Is this correct?
I think the second implication is true. The way I tried to prove it is this. Let $I$ be prime, let $p\in I[x]$. We need to show that $p\mid fg\implies p\mid f$ or $p\mid g$. Assume the converse: $p$ does not divide both $f$ and $g$. Then $f=pq_1+r_1,\ g=pq_2+r_2,\deg r_i < \deg p, r_i\ne 0$. Need to show $$(pq_1+r_1)(pq_2+r_2)=p^2q_1q_2+pq_2r_1+pq_1r_2+r_1r_2$$ is not divisible by $p$. Write $r_1r_2=pq_3+r_3$ with $\deg r_3 < \deg p$. Then the first display becomes $$(pq_1+r_1)(pq_2+r_2)=p^2q_1q_2+pq_2r_1+pq_1r_2+pq_3+r_3$$  If $r_3\ne 0$, then this is not divisible by $p$ because $\deg r_3 < \deg p$. But I don't know whether $r_3\ne 0$. Moreover, such approach doesn't use that the coefficient of $p$ lie in a prime ideal... Is this a correct way to prove this implication at all?

We want to show that $I[x]$ is prime. For this, you want to show that $R[x]/I[x]$ is an integral domain. But $R[x]/I[x]$ is isomorphic to $(R/I)[x]$ which is an integral domain since $R/I$ is an integral domain. So you are done. 
