Finite Sum $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{m-1}\frac{1}{\sin^2\frac{k\pi}{m}}$ 
Question : Is the following true for any $m\in\mathbb N$?
  $$\begin{align}\sum_{k=1}^{m-1}\frac{1}{\sin^2\frac{k\pi}{m}}=\frac{m^2-1}{3}\qquad(\star)\end{align}$$

Motivation : I reached $(\star)$ by using computer. It seems true, but I can't prove it. Can anyone help?
By the way, I've been able to prove $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{{\pi}^2}{6}$ by using $(\star)$.
Proof : Let 
$$f(x)=\frac{1}{\sin^2x}-\frac{1}{x^2}=\frac{(x-\sin x)(x+\sin x)}{x^2\sin^2 x}.$$
We know that $f(x)\gt0$ if $0\lt x\le {\pi}/{2}$, and that $\lim_{x\to 0}f(x)=1/3$. Hence, letting $f(0)=1/3$, we know that $f(x)$ is continuous and positive at $x=0$. Hence, since $f(x)\ (0\le x\le {\pi}/2)$ is bounded, there exists a constant $C$ such that $0\lt f(x)\lt C$. Hence, substituting $x={(k\pi)}/{(2n+1)}$ for this, we get
$$0\lt \frac{1}{\frac{2n+1}{{\pi}^2}\sin^2\frac{k\pi}{2n+1}}-\frac{1}{k^2}\lt\frac{{\pi}^2C}{(2n+1)^2}.$$
Then, the sum of these from $1$ to $n$ satisfies 
$$0\lt\frac{{\pi}^2\cdot 2n(n+1)}{(2n+1)^2\cdot 3}-\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{k^2}\lt\frac{{\pi}^2Cn}{(2n+1)^2}.$$
Here, we used $(\star)$. Then, considering $n\to\infty$ leads what we desired.

Note that
$$\frac{1}{\sin^2(x)}=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac{1}{(x+n\pi)^2}$$
using this identity we can write
$$\begin{align}\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{x+k\pi}{m})}&=\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac{1}{(\frac{x+k\pi}{m}+n\pi)^2}\\
&=\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac{1}{\frac{(x+k\pi+mn\pi)^2}{m^2}}\\
&=m^2\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac{1}{(x+k\pi+mn\pi)^2}\\
&=m^2\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\frac{1}{(x+(k+mn)\pi)^2}=\frac{m^2}{\sin^2(x)}\end{align}$$
and
$$\sum_{k=1}^{m-1}\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{x+k\pi}{m})}=\frac{m^2}{\sin^2(x)}-\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{x}{m})}$$
Hence,
$$\sum_{k=1}^{m-1}\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{k\pi}{m})}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{m^2}{\sin^2(x)}-\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{x}{m})}=\frac{m^2-1}{3}.$$
