Let $R, P , Q$ be relations, prove that the following statement is tautology 
Let $P, R, Q$ be relations. Prove that:
$\exists x(R(x) \vee P(x)) \to (\forall y \neg R(y) \to (\exists xQ(x)
 \to \forall x \neg P(x)))$ is a tautology.

How do I do so? please help. 

Drawing the truth table with $2^3$ possible valuations, it turns out there are four columns with the value $0$ which means the statement is not a tautology. 
