Are the graphs of these two functions equal to each other? The functions are: $y=\frac{x^2-4}{x+2}$ and $(x+2)y=x^2-4$.
I've seen this problem some time ago, and the official answer was that they are not.
My question is: Is that really true? 
The functions obviously misbehave when $x = -2$, but aren't both of them indeterminate forms at that point? Why are they different?

In the second equation, when $x=-2$, there is no restriction whatsoever on $y$. The graph of the second equation includes the entire vertical line $x=-2$.
