A necessary condition for a series of rational numbers to be irrational? Suppose $(q_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{Z}_{\gt 0}}$ is a decreasing sequence of positive rational numbers such that $Q:=\displaystyle{\sum_{n>0}q_{n}}$ is finite. Let's denote by $n_{i}$ and $d_{i}$ the numerator and the denominator of $q_{i}$ such that $(n_{i},d_{i})=1$. If $i\ne j\Rightarrow (n_{i}d_{i},n_{j}d_{j})=1$, is $Q$ necessarily irrational?  

No. In fact, every positive real number $Q$ can be written this way. Here is the algorithm: pick $q_1$ to be any positive rational which lies in the interval $\left( \frac{Q}{2}, Q \right)$. Once $q_1, q_2, \dots q_n$ have been picked, pick $q_{n+1}$ to be any positive rational whose numerator and denominator are coprime to the numerators and denominators of $q_1, q_2, \dots q_n$ and which lies in the interval $\left( \frac{Q_{n+1}}{2}, Q_{n+1} \right)$, where
$$Q_{n+1} = Q - q_1 - q_2 - \dots - q_n.$$
The key point is that the set of rational numbers whose numerators and denominators do not contain a fixed finite set of primes is still dense in $\mathbb{R}$. To prove this it suffices to observe that the logarithms of the primes are linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$, so any two such logarithms generate a dense subgroup of $\mathbb{R}$: in fact this shows that the set of rational numbers whose numerators and denominators are divisible by two fixed (arbitrarily large) primes is still dense in $\mathbb{R}$. 
