Proving that $\int_0^\pi\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=3\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx$ 
Prove without evaluating the integrals that:$$2\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=\int_\frac{\pi}{2}^\pi\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx\label{*}\tag{*}$$

Or equivalently:
$$\boxed{\int_0^\pi\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=3\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx}$$
In contrast we have:
$$\boxed{\int_0^\pi\frac{\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=2\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx}$$
This is of course easily provable by splitting the integral as $\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}+\int_\frac{\pi}{2}^\pi$ and letting $x\to \pi-x$ in the second part, unfortunately this method doesn't work for the other one.

I am already aware how to evaluate the integrals as we have:
$$\mathcal I= \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x} dx\overset{\tan \frac{x}{2}\to x}=-2\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan x}{x}\ln\left(\frac{1+x^2}{(1-x)^2}\right)dx=-\frac{\pi^3}{8}$$
And the latter integral is evaluated in many ways here, so if you have other approaches please add them there. 
Here's how I came up with $\eqref{*}$:
I knew from here that:
$$I\left(\frac{3\pi}{2}\right)=\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=-\frac{3\pi^2}{8}$$
And since this result is very similar to the one from above, I tried to show that $\mathcal I=\frac{\pi}{3} I\left(\frac{3\pi}{2}\right)$, equivalent to:
$$\boxed{\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{3}-x\right)\frac{\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=0}$$
I also noticed that we have:
$$\mathcal J=\int_\frac{\pi}{2}^\pi\frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx\overset{x\to \pi-x}=\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{(\pi-x)\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=\pi I\left(\frac{3\pi}{2}\right)-\mathcal I$$
$$\Rightarrow \mathcal I+\mathcal J=\int_0^\pi \frac{x\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx=\pi I\left(\frac{3\pi}{2}\right)=-\frac{3\pi^3}{8}$$
Of course now it's trivial to deduce that $2\mathcal I=\mathcal J$ as we know the result for $\mathcal I$, but I'm interested to show that relationship without making use of the result or by calculating any of the integrals. If possible showing $\eqref{*}$ using only integral manipulation (elementary tools such as substitution/integration by parts etc). 
I hope there's a nice slick way to do it as it will give an easy evaluation of the main integral.

It suffices to show the vanishing integral below
\begin{align}I=& \int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0\frac{(3x-\pi)\ln(1-\sin x)}{\sin x}dx\\
 =& \int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0\int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0 \frac{(\pi-3x)\cos y}{1-\sin y \sin x}dy\>dx\\
 =& \int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0\int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0 (\pi-3x)\frac{d}{dx}
\left(2\tan^{-1}\frac{\sin\frac{x-y}2}{\cos\frac{x+y}2} \right)
\overset{ibp}{dx}\> dy\\
 =& \int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0\int^\frac{\pi}{2}_0 6\tan^{-1}\frac{\sin\frac{x-y}2}{\cos\frac{x+y}2}\>\overset{x \leftrightarrows y}{dxdy}=-I=0
\end{align}
