why $ 1 - \cos^2x = \sin^2x $? I'm trying to prove this result $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{1 - \cos(x)}{x} = 0$$ In this process I have come across an identity $1-\cos^2x=\sin^2x$. Why should this hold ? Here are a few steps of my working:
\begin{array}\\
 \lim_{x\to 0} \dfrac{1 - \cos(x)}{x}\\ = \lim_{x\to 0} \left[\dfrac{1 - \cos(x)}{x} \times    \dfrac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 + \cos(x)}\right] \\
=\lim_{x\to 0} \left[\dfrac{1 - \cos^2(x)}{x(1+\cos(x))}\right]  \\
=\lim_{x\to 0} \left[\dfrac{\sin^2(x)}{x(1+\cos(x))}\right]
\end{array}

Here is another simple way to prove the trig. identity, we know $i^2=-1$ so we have 
$$\sin^2 x+\cos^2x$$$$=\cos^2x-i^2\sin^2x$$ $$=(\cos x+i\sin x)(\cos x-i\sin x)$$
using Euler's theorem, $$=(e^{ix})(e^{-ix})=e^{0}=1$$
