clarity on a question The original question is :
Let $0 < a_{1}<a_{2}<\dots<a_{mn+1}\;\;$ be $\;mn+1\;$ integers. Prove that you can either $\;m+1\;$ of them no one of which divides any other or $\;n+1\;$ of them each dividing the following.
(1966 Putnam Mathematical Competition)
The question has words missing , so could someone tell me what the corrected version of this question is

I think it is this question
Given a set of $(mn + 1)$ unequal positive integers, prove that we can either $(1)$ find $m + 1$ integers $b_i$ in the set such that $b_i$ does not divide $b_j$ for any unequal $i, j,$ or $(2)$ find $n+1$ integers $a_i$ in the set such that $a_i$ divides $a_{i+1}$ for $i = 1, 2, \dots , n$.
27th Putnam 1966
