Proving logical equivalences The question is to prove
$\neg (p \wedge q) \to (p \vee r)$ equivalent to $p \vee r$
So far, I got


*

*$¬[¬(p \wedge q)] \vee (p \vee r)$    - implication

*$(p \wedge q) \vee (p \vee r)$        - double negation


Now, is this question logically not equivalent?
Or is there some way I can prove this is logically equivalent?

$(p \land q) \lor (p \lor r)$ is logically equivalent to $(p \land q) \lor p \lor r$ (the parentheses can be removed because we have the same $\lor$ sign inside and outside the parentheses. This is in turn logically equivalent to $p \land q \lor r$ which implies $p \lor r$. But the converse is not true, so I don't think the question has specified a valid logical equivalence.
