Implicit Differentiation of $x+y= \arctan(y)$? I'm trying to verify that $x+y = \arctan(y)$ satisfies this differential equation: $1+(y^2)+(y^2)y'= 0$. To do so, I tried to differentiate $x+y = \arctan(y)$ to get $y'$, but only got so far:
$$1 = \left(\frac{1}{1+y^2}y' -1 \right) y'.$$
Now I'm not sure how I can isolate $y'$, or whether I am even taking the right first steps to solving the problem. Any hints/help about what direction I should take?

You had differentiated correctly, but made an error when you re-arranged your equation:
$$   [ \ x \ + \ y \ ] \ ' \ \  = \ \   [ \ \arctan(y) \ ] \ ' \ \ \Rightarrow \ \ 1 \ + \ y' \ \ = \ \ \frac{1}{1 \ + \ y^2} · y'  $$
$$ \Rightarrow \ \ 1  \ \ = \ \ \frac{1}{1 \ + \ y^2} · y' \ - \ y' \ \ \Rightarrow \ \ 1 \ \ = \ \ \left(\frac{1}{1+y^2} \ - \ 1 \right) · y' \ \ . $$
rather than $ \ \left(\frac{1}{1+y^2}y' -1 \right) y' \ \ . $  You will indeed verify the solution of the differential equation once you have the correct expression:
$$ 1 \ \ = \ \ \left(\frac{1}{1+y^2} \ - \ 1 \right) · y' \ \ \Rightarrow \ \ 1 \ - \ \left(\frac{1}{1+y^2} \ - \ 1 \right) · y' \ \ = \ \ 1 \ - \ \left(\frac{-y^2}{1+y^2}  \right) · y' \ \ = \ \ 0  $$
[since $ \ 1 + y^2 \ \neq \ 0 \ \ , $ it is "safe" to multiply the equation through by it]
$$ \Rightarrow \ \ 1·(1+y^2) \ - \ (-y^2) · y' \ \  =  \ \  1 \ +  \ y^2 \ +  \ (y^2) · y'\ \ = \ \ 0 \ \ .  $$
