convergence in function space Maybe is a silly question, but for some reason I am confused...
If $\mathcal{F}$ is a normed  space of real functions and $\displaystyle{ f \in \mathcal{\bar F } }$ then there exists a sequence of functions $ \displaystyle{ (f_n ) \subset \mathcal{F} }$ such that $\displaystyle{ f_n \to f \quad \text{as} \quad n \to \infty}$ which is equivelant to $\displaystyle{ || f_n -f|| \to 0 \quad \text{as} \quad n \to \infty}$
Here is my question: The convergence $f_n \to f$ is uniform or pointwise ?
Thank's in advance!
edit: $\displaystyle{ f, f_n : A \subset \mathbb R \to \mathbb R }$
Is now more clear my question?
Any ideas?

Convergence $f_n\to f$ here is defined by $\|f_f-f\|\to 0$ (whereas the latter is just convergence in $\mathbb{R}$). This notion can indeed lead to very different notions of convergence of functions.
A simple example is convergence with respect to the supremum norm $\|f\|_\infty=\sup|f(x)|$ and the 1-norm $\|f\|_1 = \int|f(x)|dx$. The former is just uniform convergence, while the latter is a notion of convergence which is usually not treated in calculus courses. In fact the latter allows unbounded sequences of functions which still converge to the zero function (and you should try to find such an example by yourself).
If I remember correctly, "pointwise almost everywhere convergence" is not induced by a norm... 
