Prove that $\lim_{j \to\infty}\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{j+k} = 0$ 
Exercise: Suppose that $a_k \geq 0$ for  $k$ large and that $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{k}$ converges.
Prove that $$\lim_{j \to \infty}\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{j+k} = 0$$

Attempt in proof:
Suppose  $a_k \geq 0$ for any large $k$ and that $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{k}$ converges. .
Then give $\epsilon >0$  there is $N \in N$ such that $\left|\sum_{k = n}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{k}\right| < \epsilon$.
Let $s_n = \frac{a_n}{j+k}$ denote the partial sums.
Then $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{j+k} $ will converge to zero if and only if its partial sum converges to zero as n approaches infinity.
Taking the limit of $$\lim_{j \to \infty}\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{a_k}{j+k} =  \lim_{j \to \infty}\frac{a_1}{j + k} + \cdots+ \frac{a_n}{j + k} + \cdots = \lim_{j \to \infty}\frac{a_1/j}{1 + k/j} + \cdots+ \frac{a_n/j}{1 + k/j} +\cdots $$
Can someone please help me finish?
I don't know if this a right way.
Any help/hint/suggestion will be really appreciate it.
Thank you in advance.

Assume that $a_k\geq 0$ for any $k> N$. Since 
$$ \lim_{j\to +\infty}\frac{a_m}{m+j} = 0, $$
it follows that:
$$ \lim_{j\to +\infty}\left(\frac{a_1}{j+1}+\frac{a_2}{j+2}+\ldots+\frac{a_N}{j+N}\right) = 0,$$
so the first $N$ terms of the sequence do not really matter. Since $\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{a_k}{k}$ is converging, we have:
$$ \lim_{M\to +\infty}\sum_{k\geq M}\frac{a_k}{k}=0.$$
For any $j\geq N^{2\alpha}$, consider that:
$$ \sum_{k>N}\frac{a_k}{k+j} = \sum_{k=N+1}^{N^{\alpha}}\frac{a_k}{k+j}+\sum_{k>N^{\alpha}}\frac{a_k}{k+j}\leq\frac{1}{N^{\alpha}}\sum_{k=N+1}^{N^{\alpha}}\frac{a_k}{k}+\sum_{k>N^{\alpha}}\frac{a_k}{k}, \tag{1}$$
and notice now that, as long as $\alpha\to +\infty$, both terms on the RHS of $(1)$ go to zero.
