Intermediate Value Property Justification I am working on showing the Intermediate Value Property holds for a certain function. I noticed the one page on here talks about this idea, but I can not follow with what they are trying to say. [The problem is posted below - Ed.] . Any guidance would be appreciated. I just am very unsure what the property says. 


So if you believe the intermediate value theorem, then you know that if $x_1, x_2 > 0$ or $x_1, x_2 < 0$, the property follows. So suppose $x_1 \leq 0 < x_2$. It's enough to show that there exists $c \in (0, x_1)$. To do this, consider the sequence $$(t_n)_{n \in \mathbb{n}} = \left( \frac{1}{ 2 \pi n + \arcsin (k) } \right)_{n \in \mathbb{N}} ,$$ along which $f(t_n) = k$. Let $n = \lceil 2 \pi n / x_2 \rceil + 1$. Then $t_n = \frac{1}{ 2 \pi n + \arcsin (k) } \leq \frac{1}{ 2 \pi (n - 1) } \leq x_2$.
