why is $\forall x (p(x) \implies q(x)) \not\equiv (\forall x p(x)) \implies (\forall x q(x))$ I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around why $\forall x (p(x) \implies q(x)) \not\equiv (\forall x p(x)) \implies (\forall x q(x))$

Let $p(x)$ be $x<a$ and $cue(x)$ be $x<b$. LHS is equivalent to $a<b$ . but RHS is false independent of $a, b$.  
