I can't figure out whether my answer is correct or not. Consider part c of the following question -

I understand why $p \land (q \lor r)$ is correct. Am I correct in saying $(p \land q) \lor r$ is a correct answer as well?

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*A way to answer the question is to make the truth table can help you answer that question. You can construct the truth table for the formulation $p\wedge (q\vee r)$ and then construct the truth table for the formulation $(p\wedge q)\vee r$ and see if the table are the same (i,e., logically equivalent).

*On other hand, the distributive laws says $p\wedge (q\vee r)\equiv(p\wedge q)\vee (p\wedge r)$ and $p\vee(q\wedge r)\equiv (p\vee q)\wedge (p\vee r)$ and the associative laws says $(p\wedge q)\wedge r\equiv p\wedge (q\wedge r)$ and $p\vee (q\vee r)\equiv (p\vee q)\vee r$.

