Consistency of definition of weak derivative with classical derivative I know the definitions of both weak and classical derivative. But I am trying to see the classical derivative as a weak derivative. When we have
$\int f' \varphi = -\int f\varphi'$ for all $\varphi\in C^\infty$ with compact support. Is this definition consistent with the one for classical derivative, I mean, if $f\in C^1$ how can we obtain $f'$(classical) from the def. above?

I am guessing Mark's question is that how we know that the classical derivative is the weak derivative as functions. Or, more precisely, if there's a function $g$ (say in $L^p$) such that $\int g \phi = \int f' \phi = - \int f \phi'$ for all test functions $\phi$, is it necessary that $f' = g$ (almost everywhere)?
The question boils down to whether two functions that coincide when viewed as distributions are in fact the same as functions. Being the same as distributions is a priori a weaker notion than pointwise equality as functions. But one might resort to an approximation argument by taking the test function sequence $\{ \phi_n \}$ approaching the Dirac function in some sense. 
Given a test function $\phi$, we can construct a convolution approximate unit $\{ \phi_t\}$ by defining $\phi_t(x) = \frac{1}{t} \phi(\frac{x}{t})$.
Fact: If $|\phi(x)| \leq \frac{C}{(1+|x|)^{1+\epsilon}}$ for some $C, \epsilon >0$, $\int \phi = 1$, and $f \in L^p$ ($1 \leq p \leq \infty$), then $f * \phi_t \rightarrow f$ pointwise on the Lebesgue set of $f$. In particular, we have pointwise convergence almost everywhere and where $f$ is continuous.  
Such a $\phi$ with suitable decay can always be found. So if $f' \in L^p$ for some $p$ then any $g \in L^p$ that acts as the weak derivative of $f$ must be equal to $f'$ almost everywhere.
As for "computation", you can compute $f'$ in the usual way and quote uniqueness above.
Hope this helps.
