Is this true? $f(g(x))=g(f(x))\iff f^{-1}(g^{-1}(x))=g^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))$. 
Is this true?
Given $f,g\colon\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$. $f(g(x))=g(f(x))\iff f^{-1}(g^{-1}(x))=g^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))$.

I met this problem when dealing with a coding method, but I'm really not familiar with functions. Please help.
Thank you.

Of course that is only true if $f^{-1}$ and $g^{-1}$ exist. But then, it's easy to show:
Be $y=f^{-1}(g^{-1}(x))$. Then obviously $g(f(y))=g(f(f^{-1}(g^{-1}(x)))) = g(g^{-1}(x)) = x$.
On the other hand, by assumption $f(g(y))=g(f(y))=x$. Therefore $g^{-1}(f^{-1}(x)) = g^{-1}(f^{-1}(f(g(y)))) = g^{-1}(g(y)) = y = f^{-1}(g^{-1}(x))$
