Rank of second ace after first ace is drawn I have a probability problem with cards and the expected value of a card rank.
I have a deck of 52 cards. I draw cards without replacement. While drawing cards from the deck, a first ace is drawn at rank $k$ (that is the $k^{th}$ card drawn is an ace, all previous were not). We want to find the expected number of additional draws until we get an ace.
My idea is to follow this route:
If I call $X$ the random variable of the rank of the second ace, $N=52$ the total number of cards, $p = N -k$ the remaining number of cards after the first ace is drawn, the idea is to plug the expectation value of $X$ $$E[X] = \sum_{i=1}^{p-3}i  P(X=i)$$
But the formula doesn't seem to simplify.  What would be your take at this?

We have $3$ Aces left, and $52-k$ cards left.  We will find the expected number of additional draws until we get an Ace.
We change the notation, and solve a more general problem.  There are $b$ boys and $g$ girls.  People are chosen, without replacement, until we get a boy.  Let $X$ be the number of draws.  We want to find $E(X)$.  In our card problem, we have $b=3$ and $g=52-k-3$.
Label the girls $G_1, G_2, \dots, G_g$.  For $i=1$ to $g$, define the random variable $Y_i$ by
$$Y_i=1 \quad\text{if $G_i$ is drawn before a boy},\quad \text{$Y_i=0$ otherwise}.$$
Then
$$X=1 +(Y_1+Y_2+\cdots +Y_g),$$
since $\sum E(Y_i)$ is the mean number of girls before the first boy.
We will be finished if we can find the $E(Y_i)$.  These are all the same, so we find $E(Y_1)$.  
But note that 
$$E(Y_1)=P(Y_1=1)=\frac{1}{b+1}.$$
This is because in the group of $b+1$ people consisting of $G_1$ and the $b$ boys, $G_1$ must be chosen first, and all possible orders among these $b+1$ people are equally likely.  To see this, it is necessary to think of the selections going on until everybody is chosen.  
Thus 
$$E(X)=1+\frac{g}{b+1}=\frac{b+g+1}{b+1}.$$
Comment:
There are less pleasant, but more combinatorial ways to solve the problem. We can without much difficulty find an expression for the probability that the first boy is chosen on the $i$-th choice, and use the ordinary expression for expectation. It is a bit of a mess, and simplifying it is tricky.  But it is easier now that we know, from the simpler calculation above, what the answer should be!
