Find the Fourier series for $f(\theta)=\theta^2$ and prove $\Sigma^\infty_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ Find the Fourier series for $f(\theta)=\theta^2$ and use Parseval's identity for $f$ to derive the identity:
$$\sum^\infty_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
In addition, find the expansion for $f$ in terms of the functions $\{1, \cos(2\pi \theta), \sin(2\pi \theta), \cos(4\pi \theta),....\}$
Here is a link explaining Parsevals identity:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parseval%27s_identity

Can somebody help me with this one? There seems to be a lot going on and a lot of these ideas are really new to me. I'm trying to follow a proof we got in class that we can use the fourier expansion $f(x)=\theta$ on $[0,1)$ to show that
$$\sum^\infty_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^4}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
But the proof is sort of confusing, and I don't see how I could adapt it. I'd really appreciate some help on this one! Thanks MSE!!

You don't need Parseval (which will square your coefficients so it will give you something with $n^4$). From this question,
$$
f(x)=\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4 \ \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} \ \cos(nx).
$$
As $f$ is differentiable everywhere, we have pointwise convergence. Then, evaluating at $\pi$, 
$$
\pi^2=f(\pi)=\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4 \ \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} \ \cos(n\pi)
=\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4 \ \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}  .
$$
Then
$$
\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} =\frac14\,\left(\pi^2-\frac{\pi^2}3\right)=\frac{\pi^2}6.
$$
If you were to use Parseval for this function, what you get is 
$$
\frac{2\pi^5}5=\int_{-\pi}^\pi (t^2)^2\,dt=\pi\,\left(2{a_0^2}+\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n^2\right)=\pi\left(\frac{2\pi^4}{9}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{16}{n^4}\right).
$$
Solving, you get
$$
\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^4}=\frac1{16}\left(\frac{2\pi^4}5-\frac{2\pi^4}9\right)=\frac{\pi^4}{90}
$$
