Is this induction question wrong or am I going insane? Here's a question that I've come across: Prove by induction that for every integer $n$ greater than or equal to $1$,
$${\sum_{i=1}^{2^n}} \frac{1}{i} \ge 1 +\frac{n}{2}.$$
Now I know how to prove by induction, but wouldn't this fail $p(1)$ since
$$\frac{1}{1} \ge 1 +\frac{1}{2}$$ is not true?

Neither: the question is not wrong and you are also not going insane ... You just made a little mistake. :)
