Irreducible polynomial over $\mathbb{Q}$ implies polynomial is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$ Let $f(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ be a polynomial of degree $\geq 2$. Then choose correct
a) if $f(x)$ is irreducible in $ \mathbb{Z}[x] $ then it is irreducible in $ \mathbb{Q}[x] $.
b) if $f(x)$ is irreducible in $ \mathbb{Q}[x] $ then it is irreducible in $ \mathbb{Z}[x] $.
(1) is definitely true, for (2) $f(x)=2(x^2+2)$ clearly irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$
But I am confused about whether $f(x)$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ or not? According to Gallian, as 2 is non unit in $\mathbb{Z}$, $f(x)$ is reducible over $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, (2) is false.
But definition of irreducible polynomial on Wikipedia says a polynomial is reducible if it can be written as product of non constant polynomials hence $f(x)$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ accordingly (2) is true .

You are totally correct, (1) is true and (2) is false. The statement you quote from Wikipedia is only true, if the coefficients come from a field.
