How can I prove that $\lim _{x\to 0}\left(\frac{1}{f\left(x\right)}\right)=\frac{1}{L}$ using the $ε-δ $ argument I want to know how I can prove that $\lim _{x\to 0}\left(\frac{1}{f\left(x\right)}\right)=\frac{1}{L}$ using the $ε-δ $ argument?

Question:  Suppose $f :\mathbb R \to\mathbb R$ is a function such that:
$\lim _{x\to 0}\left(f\left(x\right)\right)=L$
Prove that:
$\lim _{x\to 0}\left(\frac{1}{f\left(x\right)}\right)=\frac{1}{L}$
using the $ε-δ $ argument

My attempt:
I know that for every $ε>0$, there exist a $δ>0$ such that $|x-a| < δ$ implies that $|f(x) - L| < ε$
Am I allowed to do :
$|x-0| < δ$ implies $ |\frac{1}{f(x)} -$ $\frac{1}{L}| < ε$, so I need to prove this statement using the fact that $|f(x) - L| < ε$
Pick $ε = 1$, then $-1 + L < f(x) < 1 + L$ so then:
$$\frac{1}{L\:-1}>\:\frac{1}{f\left(x\right)}>\:\frac{1}{L+\:1}$$
Looking back:
$$ \left|\frac{1}{f(x)} -\frac{1}{L}\right| = \left|\frac{L - f(x) }{f(x)\times L} \right| < \frac{1}{L\:-1} \times \frac{1}{L} \times ε $$
And then I just don't know what to do, am I even on the right path?

Depending on how much "scaffolding" you want to have. If you just want a rigorous way of verifying your claim is correct with the $\epsilon-\delta$ definition of limit, you can use the limit property (which proofs can be easily found online, such as in Paul's Online Notes)

*

*$$\lim_{x\to a}\left[ \frac{g(x)}{f(x)} \right] = \frac{lim_{x\to a}g(x)}{lim_{x\to a}f(x)}, \text{provided that } lim_{x\to a}f(x) \ne 0$$

*$$\lim_{x \to a} c = c$$
But if you want an efficient proof directly from the definition, you can try the following (credit, still, to Paul's Online Notes "Proof of 4").
Because $\lim_{x \to 0}f(x) = L$, there is a $\delta_1 > 0$ such that
$$\begin{aligned} 0 < |x-0| < \delta_1 && \text{implies} && |f(x)-L| < \frac{|L|}{2} \end{aligned}$$
Then,
$$\begin{aligned} |L| =& |L-f(x)+f(x)| && \text{just adding zero to }L \\
\le& |L-f(x)| + |f(x)|  && \text{using the triangle inequality} \\
=& |f(x)-L|+|f(x)| && |L-f(x)|=|f(x)-L| \\
<& \frac{|L|}{2}+|f(x)| && \text{assuming that } 0 < |x-0| < \delta_1 \end{aligned}$$
Rearranging it gives
$$\begin{aligned}|L| <  \frac{|L|}{2}+|f(x)| &&\Rightarrow&& \frac{|L|}{2} < |f(x)| &&\Rightarrow &&\frac{1}{|f(x)|} < \frac{2}{|L|}\end{aligned}$$
Now, let $\epsilon > 0$. There is also a $\delta_2$ such that,
$$\begin{aligned} 0 < |x-0| < \delta_2 && \text{implies} && |f(x)-L| < \frac{|L|^2}{2} \epsilon \end{aligned}$$
Choose $\delta = \min{(\delta_1, \delta_2)}$. If $0<|x-0|<\delta$ we have,
$$\begin{aligned} \left|\frac{1}{f(x)} - \frac{1}{L}\right| =& \left| \frac{L-f(x)}{Lf(x)} \right| && \text{common denominators} \\
=& \frac{1}{\left|Lf(x)\right|} \left| L-f(x) \right| && \\
=& \frac{1}{|L|}\frac{1}{|f(x)|}|f(x)-L| && \\
<& \frac{1}{|L}\frac{2}{|L|}|f(x)-L| && \text{assuming that } 0<|x-0|<\delta \le \delta_1 \\
<& \frac{2}{|L|^2} \frac{|L|^2}{2} \epsilon && \text{assuming that } 0 < |x-0| < \delta \le \delta_2 \\
=& \epsilon && \end{aligned}$$
