A distribution $D$ on $\{0,1\}^n$ is $k$-wise independent if any $k$ of the underlying $n$ random variables are independent and each is uniformly distributed.To me this looks similar in spirit to $D$ having $\textit{min-entropy}$ $k$.Is there any formal relation between $k$-wise independence of a distribution and its min-entropy?
k-wise Independence vs. Min-entropy
cc.complexity theory;pseudorandomness