If I have an ambiguous grammar G and its disambiguated version D.Then which one is true  L(D)  L(G) , L(G)  L(D) or L(G)=L(D)?As I tried with some examples to transform a grammar to it unambiguous version but i found that both are equivalent. I mean is there a specific set relation between both. Please help me and provide an example if possible.
Do an ambiguous grammar and its corresponding unambiguous version generate the same language?
formal languages;context free;formal grammars
When you disambiguate a grammar, you usually want at least to keep the language the same. So the answer is that you want  $\mathcal L(G)=\mathcal L(D)$.If you accepted that $\mathcal L(G)\subset \mathcal L(D)$ then you could simply choose $\mathcal L(D)=\Sigma^*$, since $\Sigma^*$ has an unambiguous grammar. Of course $\Sigma$ is the terminal alphabet.If you accepted that $\mathcal L(D)\subset \mathcal L(G)$ then you could simply choose $\mathcal L(D)=\emptyset$ since $\emptyset$ has an unambiguous grammar.I assume you were considering context-free (CF) languages. You should have said so.And you should remember some facts that will not help:Some CF languages are inherently ambiguous, so that you cannot find an unambiguous grammar for them. Furthermore, it is undecidable whether a CF language is inherently ambiguous,It is  undecidable to know whether a grammar is ambiguous, hence it is not clear when a disambiguating transformation is needed.See also wikipedia page on ambiguous grammars.