I know from several sources that they are equivalent, but couldn't find a reasonable explanation. My first approach was to show their equivalence by using the logical consequence rule and both axioms, but I couldn't figure out a reasonable solution.Here is the exact problem definition:Anybody can give me a hint how to show that both axioms are indeed equivalent?
How to show equivalence of the Hoare assignment axiom vs Floyd assignment axiom?
hoare logic;program verification