41 terms dklein25 Melody Rhythm Meter Harmony Texture Form Tempo Dynamics Chaptera 123567 114 CHAP 12 1529 CHAP 35 3053 CHAP 67 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month sound CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT generated by voicesinstruments aspects tone color timbre range and dynamics CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE tone color timbre quality of sound that distinguishes one instrument or voice from another Terms in this set 41 sound generated by voicesinstruments aspects tone color timbre range and dynamics tone color timbre quality of sound that distinguishes one instrument or voice from another melody a succession of notes and rhythmic patterns perceived by the listener as a complete idea horizontal dimension of music rhythm the interrelationship between time and sound aspects beat meter syncopation and tempo beat the basic unit of rhythm meter how beats are grouped syncopation accenting of a note at an unexpected time harmony two or more notes sounding together involves the way chords are constructed and how they follow each other vertical dimension of music chord three of more notes sounded together tonic the note that is regarded as the most important and the one that the scale should come back to dissonance tone combination that is unstable and tense consonance tone combination that is stable and restful texture the layering of sound monophonic texture one melody without accompaniment polyphonic texture two or more melodies of relatively equal interest sounding together homophonic texture one main melody accompanied by chords form the organization of musical elements theme melody that serves as the starting point for an extended piece of music movement independent peice in a large scale pice tempo basic pace of the music dynamics degrees of loudness or softness in music pitch relative highness or lowness of a sound interval distance in pitch between two tones tone sound that has a definite pitch or frequency range distance between the highest and lowest tones that a voiceinstrument can make ternary form ABA form that can be represented as the statement A the contrast B and the return of the statement A rondo a multisection form where the main melody theme returns several times alternating with other themes PATTERNS ABACA ABACABA ABACADA minuet trio an example of ternary ABA form the standard dance movement in fourmovement works such as symphonies and string quartets outline A a ba B c dc A a bc theme variations a form where the main melody theme is followed by a series of an altered version by rhythm harmony tone color etc A A A A etc sonata form a multisection form made up of three or four main sections exposition development and recapitulation and occasionally a CODA or concluding section exposition part of a sonata form that has four subsections first theme transition second theme and conclusion development part of a sonata form that has one or more of the previous themes presented in different ways recapitulation part of a sonata form that serves as a review of the exposition material which may be modified in several ways CODA an occasional part of a sonata form that concludes the movement chamber music music intended to be played in intimate surroundings by a small group of musicians string quartet a multimovement type of chamber music for two violins one viola and one cello typically 4 movements long sonata NOT SONATA FORM a multimovement type of chamber music for a solo instrument OR instruments with OR without piano accompaniment usually 3 or 4 movements long orchestral music music played by a relatively large group of musicians orchestra usually consisting of several sections strings woodwinds brass and percussion symphony a multimovement type of orchestral music for the orchestra typically 4 movements long concerto a multimovement type of orchestral music for one or more solo instruments AND the orchestra typically 3 movements long classical style time period 17501820

O O O B B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 17 Digestive System FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Functions CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Ingestion mechanical digestion chemical digestion propulsion absorption defecation CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 79 Terms in this set 79 Functions Ingestion mechanical digestion chemical digestion propulsion absorption defecation Major Organs Mouth Pharynx Esophagus Stomach Small Intestine Large Intestine Rectum Anus Accessory Organs Salivary Glands Liver Gallbladder Pancreas Mouth description mechanical breakdown of food begins chemical digestion of carbohydrateS Pharynx description connects mouth with esophagus Esophagus peristalsis pushes food into stomach Stomach secretes acid and enzymes mixes food with secretions to begin enzymatic digestion of proteins Small Intestine mixes food with bile and pancreatic juice final enzymatic breakdown of food molecules main site of nutrient absorption Large Intestine absorbs water and electrolytes to form feces Rectum regulates elimination of feces Salivary Glands secrete saliva which contains enzymes that initiates breakdown of carbohydrates Liver description produces bile which emulsifies fat Gallbladder stores bile and introduces it into small intestine Pancreas produces and secretes pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions into small intestine Layers of Alimentary Canal Organs mucosa submucosa muscularis externa serosa Movements of the tube mixing movements peristalisis propelling longitudinal contraction circular contraction receptive relaxation Submucosal Plexus controls secretions Myenteric Plexus controls gastrointestinal mobility Parasympathetic Impulses increases activities of digestive system relaxed condition Sympathetic Impulses inhibit certain digestive actions stress response fight or flight response constriction of sphincters constipation Mouth ingestion mechanical digestion mastication chewing prepares food for chemical digestion Tongue see notes for picture Palate roof of oral cavity hard palate soft palate uvula palative tonsils lingual tonsil pharyngeal tonsils Primary Teeth 10 on each jaw 4 molars 2 cuspids 2 incisors Secondary Teeth 32 total 16 on each jaw incisors cuspid bicuspids molars Section of a tooth Secretion of the Parotid Glands clear water serous fluid rich in amylase Secretion of the Sublingual Glands primarily mucus most viscous Secretion of the Submandibular Glands primarily serous fluid some mucus Regulation of Salivary Glands parasympathetic saliva sympathetic saliva smell sight taste thought Pharynx 3 parts nasopharynx passage for air oropharynx passage for food laryngopharynx passage for both Swallowing Mechanism tongue balls food up and pushes it to the back of the throat soft palate and uvula raise hyoid bone and larynx elevate epiglottis closes off top of trachea longitudinal muscles of pharynx contract inferior constrictor muscles relax and esophagus opens peristaltic waves push food through pharynx Stomach esophageal sphincter closes so that food does not flow back up to the esophagus cardia fundus body pylorus antrum canal and sphincter rugae Pepsinogen from chief cells inactive form of pepsin Pepsin from pepsinogen in presence of HCl protein splitting enzyme proteolytic Hydrochloric Acid from parietal cells needed to convert pepsinogen to pepsin Mucus from goblet cells and mucous glands protective to stomach wall basic alkaline Intrinsic factor from parietal cells required for vitamin B12 absorption pernicious anemia secrete little or no intrinsic factor Cephalic Phase Triggered by smell taste sight or thought of food Parasympathetic impulses trigger gastric juice secretion FUNCTION prepares stomach for arrival of food DURATION short minutes MECHANISM Neural preganglionic fibers in vagus nerve and synapses in submucosal plexus ACTIONS Primary stimulation of mucus enzyme and acid production leading to increased volume of gastric juice Secondary stimulation of gastrin release by G cells Gastric Phase Triggered by presence of food in stomach Gastrin released Gastric juice secreted FUNCTION enhances secretion started in cephalic stage homogenizes and acidifies chyme initiates digestion of proteins by pepsin DURATION long 34 hours MECHANISM Neural short reflexes triggered by stretch receptors and chemoreceptors Hormonal stimulation of gastrin release by G cells Local release of histamine by mast cells as stomach fills ACTIONS increased acid and pepsinogen production increased motility and initiation of mixing waves Intestinal Phase Triggered by movement of food into small intestine Intestinal cells release intestinal gastrin Secretion of gastric juice FUNCTION controls rate of chyme entry into duodenum DURATION long hours MECHANISM Neural short reflexes triggered by distension of duodenum Hormonal Primary stimulation of CCK GIP and secretin by acids carbohydrates and lipids Secondary release of gastrin in response to presence of undigested proteins ACTIONS feedback inhibition of gastric acid and pepsinogen production reduction in gastric mobility Gastrin released from pyloric region stimulated from parasympathetic impulses produced when stomach is stretched increases gastric juice production Cholecystokinin CCK released from the intestinal wall stimulated from sympathetic impulses produced when protein and fat contact intestinal wall decreases stomach motility Intestinal Somatostatin produced when fat contacts intestinal wall inhibits gastric juice production Regulation of Gastric Secretions parasympathetic preganglionic nerve fiber in vagus nerve parasympathetic postganglionic impulses stimulate the release of gastric juice from gastric glands impulses stimulate the release of gastrin gastrin stimulates glands to release more gastric juice Gastric Absorption some water certain salts certain lipidsoluble drugs alcohol stomach wall too thick harsh environment makes it difficult for absorption to happen Mixing and Emptying Actions chyme food covered in gastric juices pastelike peristalsis starts pressure on sphincter increases causes sphincter to relax chyme enters small intestines begins intestinal phase of gastric secretion rate of emptying dependent on how solid initial food was takes longer to produce chyme Enterogastric Reflex regulates the rate at which chyme leaves the stomach duodenum fills with chyme sensory stretch receptors are stimulated sensory nerve impulses travel to central nervous system nerve impulses inhibit peristalsis in stomach wall Pancreatic amylase splits glycogen into disaccharides Pancreatic lipase breaks down triglycerides Trypsin Chymotrypsin and Carboxypeptisdase digest proteins Nucleases digest nucleic acids Bicarbonate ions make pancreatic juice alkaline Regulation of Pancreatic Secretions acidic chyme enters duodenum intestinal mucosa releases secretin into bloodstream secretin stimulates pancreas pancreas secretes pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions bicarbonate ions neutralize acidic chyme Liver 4 lobes right lobe left lobe quadrate lobe caudate lobe Liver Function produces glycogen and glucose breaks down glycogen into glucose converts noncarbohydrates to glucose oxidizes fatty acids synthesizes lipoproteins phospholipids and cholesterol converts carbohydrates and proteins into fats deaminates amino acids forms urea synthesizes plasma proteins stores glycogen vitamins A D B12 iron and blood phagocytosis of worn out RBCs and foreign substances removes toxins from blood stores and mobilizes iron through actions of ferratin Digestive Liver Function the major digestive role is to produce bile and bile components Composition of Bile water bile salts emulsification of fats absorption of fatty acids cholesterol and fatsoluble vitamins bile pigments biliverdin and bilirubin from the breakdown and recycling of hemoglobin cholesterol used to derive bile salts doesnt aid in digestion itself electrolytes Gallstone solidified cholesterol Regulation of Bile Release fatty chyme entering duodenum stimulate gallbladder to release bile stimulated from CCK Three Parts of Small Intestine duodenum jujunum ileum Mesentary suspends portions of the small intestine from the posterior abdominal wall membrane projections from body cavity wall peritoneum omentum is large projects against infection in case of perforation Intestinal Villus site of nutrient absorption highest concentration in duodenum and jejunum Cell Renewal in the Gastrointestinal Tract The epithelial cells of the entire gastrointestinal tract are constantly being cast off and replaced with new ones formed through mitosis of stem cells These stem cells are located in the basal layer of the esophageal epithelium the neck of gastric glands the lower half of the intestinal glands and the bottom third of the crypts of the large intestine From this proliferative zone in each region cells move to the maturation area where they undergo structural and enzymatic maturation providing the functional cell population of each region In the small intestine the cells die by apoptosis in the lip of the villi or are sloughed off by mechanical action during function Peptidase breaks down peptides into amino acids Sucrase maltase lactase breaks down disaccharides into monosaccharides Lipase breaks down fats into fatty acids Enterokinase converts trypsinogen to trypsin Somatostatin hormone that inhibits acid secretion by stomach Cholecytokinin hormone that inhibits gastric glands stimulates pancreas to release enzymes in pancreatic juice stimulates gallbladder to release bile Secretin stimulates pancreas to release bicarbonate ions in pancreatic juice Alkaline Mucus neutralize gastric acid Regulation of Small Intestine Secretions Mucus secretion stimulated by presence of chyme in small intestine Distension of intestinal wall activates nerve plexuses in wall of small intestine Parasympathetics trigger release of intestinal enzymes Triglyceride Degradation triglycerides are degraded by lipases to form free fatty acids and glycerol Absorption in the Small Intestine monosaccharides and amino acids through facilitated diffusion and active transport absorbed into blood free fatty acids are reassembled into chylomicrons and pushed into lacteals electrolytes and water through diffusion osmosis and active transport absorbed into blood cholesterol and bile salts reabsorbed and brought back to liver fatty acids and glycerol fatty acids resulting from fat digestion enter epithelial cell fatty acids are used to synthesize fats in endoplasmic reticulum fats collect in clusters encased in protein to form chylomicrons chylomicrons leave epithelial cell and enter lacteal lymph in lacteal transports chlomicrons away from intestine Movements of the Small Intestine mixing movements peristalsis pushing movements segmentation ringlike contractions overdistended wall triggers peristalic rush resulting in diarrhea 310 hours to move through Functions of the Large Intestine little or no digestive function absorbs water and electrolytes 90 that enters is absorbed secretes mucus houses intestinal flora aid in cellulose digestions provide vitamins K B12 thiamin and riboflavin forms feces carries out defecation Movement of Large Intestine slower and less frequent than those of small intestine better for water absorption 23 times daily mixing movements break feces into pieces peristalsis mass movements usually follow meals gastrocolic reflex defecation reflex increases pressure on wall of colon initiates contraction Feces water electrolytes mucus bacteria bile pigments altered by bacteria provide color smell produced by bacterial compounds LifeSpan Changes teeth become sensitive gums recede teeth may loosen or fall out heartburn more frequent constipation more frequent nutrient absorption decreases accessory organs age but the effects are less noticeable YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 80 terms 151 unit 3 90 terms Chapter 16 Digestive System 154 terms Chapter 24 The Digestive System 176 terms ch25 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 33 terms Size and Volume Equivalents 126 terms 33 terms Life Span Endterm Exam 70 terms Lifespan Development Midterm THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 64 terms Chapter 17 Digestive system 58 terms Chapter 3 Cells and Their Functions 69 terms Chapter 2 Chemistry Matter and Life 62 terms Chapter 1 Human Body Organization Human Body

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


General Psych Quiz 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month people with severe cases of epilepsy have splitbrain operations in which much of the _________ is severed CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT corpus callosum CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 20 Terms in this set 20 people with severe cases of epilepsy have splitbrain operations in which much of the _________ is severed corpus callosum The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system are parts of the autonomic nervous system The white fatty substance that wraps around the axon is called ________ this substance insulates the axon myelin Being lefthanded has been associated with an above average probability of having _____ dyslexia _________ remove dead neurons and waste products from the nervous system nourish and insulate neurons and form myelin Glial cells Which of the following refers to a time when a neuron is insensitive to messages from other neurons and does not fire A refractory period ___________ carry messages from the brain to the body Efferent Neurons In the context of behavioral genetics identify the correct statement Heredity is apparently involved in psychological disorders ranging from anxiety and depression to personality disorders Some researchers consider the _________ to be the executive center of the brain where decisions are made to keep information in working memory and to solve problems prefrontal cortex Which of the following structures in the brain is responsible for vigilance and rage the amygdala Which of the following is a likely consequence of low thyroxin secretion in adults they feel tired and sluggish and may begin to put on weight _________ is an inability to comprehend language this is caused by damage to a part of the temporal lobe Wernickes aphasia A neuron relays its message to another neuron across a junction called aan _________ synapse The__________is responsible for releasing several hormones including oxytocin vasopressin and growth hormone pituitary gland The hippocampus is important for _________ forming new memories Nicotine alcohol and many other drugs are pleasurable because they increase levels of _____ dopamine The somatosensory cortex is located in the _________ lobe and the motor cortex is located in the _______ lobe parietal frontal Paul is a fiftyfiveyearold man who has been having some difficulty recalling important details On visiting a doctor he was told that he was in the early stages of Alzheimers disease The deficiency of _________ is most likely to be linked to Pauls condition acetylcholine _________ is a method of brain imaging that passes a narrow Xray beam through the head and measures the structures that reflect the beams from various angles enabling a computer to generate a threedimensional image Computerized axial tomography Which of these is a function of the medulla of the brain It plays roles in sleeping sneezing and coughing

B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


TRVM 2301 chapter 11 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The primary source of hotel revenue is CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Sleeping room revenue CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 15 Terms in this set 15 The primary source of hotel revenue is Sleeping room revenue Which of these agreements must legally be in writing All of the above Which of the following does not need to be contained in a valid written contract The mailing addresses of the parties What is parol evidence Evidence of an oral agreement The Americans with Disabilities Act applies to all of the following except The elderly The Federal Copyright Act states that when music is performed royalties must be given to those who own the copyright of that music The exception to this rule is If the music is being played over a single homestyle radio or TV For an offer to be accepted the acceptance must be unequivocal and in the same terms as the offer True It is acceptable to sign a contract in which major items are left to future negotiations False The text gives the advice not to accept something just because it is preprinted on the contract or the proposal is given to you by the other party True The text gives the advice to never sign a contract in which major items like room rates are left to future negotiation True Catered food and beverage generates the major share of hotel revenue so this is often the biggest concern to hotels False Many hoteliers particularly those who have been in the industry for many years sum up meeting negotiations with this simple maxim Dates Rates and Space You Can Only Have Two True Attrition clauses sometimes referred to as performance or slippage clauses provide for the payment of damages to the hotel when a meeting organizer fails to fully utilize the room block specified in the contract True A force majeure or Act of God clause permits either party to terminate the contract without damages if fulfillment of the obligations imposed in the agreement is rendered impossible by occurrences outside of the control of either party True The stages of risk management are Preparedness mitigation risk recovery True False

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Technology in Action FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Which is NOT a technology that has been used to deliver assistance during times of crisis CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT QR codes CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 60 Terms in this set 60 Which is NOT a technology that has been used to deliver assistance during times of crisis QR codes Artists interface with technology often but can not yet Use software to suggest plot endings People who do not read emotion easily in others hope for new progress in the field of Affective Computing Studies reveal that human motivation is fostered by All of the above Collaborative consumption is when people get together to Increase the use of a single product by sharing access to it Social Networking tools played a part in revolutions in 2011 Computer forensics uses computer systems and technology to Gather potential legal evidence IT is the abbreviation for Information Technology Which allows retailers to respond to consumer buying patterns Data Mining The crisis of a growing digital divide is being addressed by The next Einstein project Researchers believe that microchips may one day restore sight to the blind True QR codes let companies track your past purchases and customize offers for you False Supercomputers can accurately forecast tornadoes within minutes False Criminal investigators may find evidence on a computer but the evidence can not be used in court False Many modern museums offer WiFi networks and multimedia downloads to their patrons to enrich their experience True What is a Gigabyte One billion bytes The type of computer that might help run your refrigerator or car is An embedded computer What enables your computer to connect with other computers Network Interface Card Which is NOT a builtininput device for a notebook Optical Mouse To add additional ports to your computer what do you need An expansion cord Which holds the instructions the computer needs to start up ROM Which is TRUE about mainframe computers They support hundreds of users simultaneously Which is NOT important to consider when buying a printer Paper What type of microphone is best for recording a single voice Unidirectional What type of storage device can you use to transfer digital data between your computer and devices such as digital cameras Flash Memory Card Data and information are interchangeable terms False The hard drive is an example of a nonvolatile storage device True Ergonomics is important only with desktop computers not mobile devices False LED and LCD monitors are considered Legacy Technology False they are still being used today The clock speed of the CPU is the only measure of a processors expected performance False Which is NOT true about the internet It was developed as an additional means of commerce What do you need to read send and organize email from any computer A webbased email account Which is NOT an example of social networking Email Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a blog Blogs are private and require password access Which of the following is true about plugins Plugins are necessary for viewing most web graphics What feature is a list of pages youve visited within a Web site Breadcrumb trail Which is NOT part of a search engine Subject Directory When using the Internet for research you Should evaluate sites for bias and relevance Which of the following is not an Internet protocol ARPANET eBay and Craigslist are examples of what kind of electronic commerce C2C The information in email is no more private than a postcard True A search engine that searches other search engines is called a SuperSearch engine False A green shaded address bar on a Web site indicates that the Web site is secure True Each time you connect to the Internet your computer is assigned the same IP address False In the Web address wwwfacebookcom Facebook is the toplevel domain False The minimum set of recommended standards for a program is known as the System Requirements Software that is available ondemand via the Internet is called Webbased software What type of software enables you to create dynamic slide shows Presentation Which is NOT an advantage of using software suite The programs integrate easily with programs from other software suites Image video and audio editing software belong in the category of what kind of software Multimedia Software What kind of software is responsible for back office operations such as billing and inventory Enterprise resource planning Which of the following is true about open source software The program can be changed and freely distributed A small program that groups a series of commands so they will run as a single command is called a Macro Which program can you use when you are taking notes in class All of the above SoundNote EverNote and OneNote What is another name for Software as a Service SaaS Webbased application A macro is a small program that groups a series of commands so that they run as a single command True When you need help with software you should use the programs help features or manufacturer FAQs not online help like podcasts or YouTube videos False System Software include the operating system and utility programs True A Software suite is a group of programs bundled as a package True When you buy software you then own it and can do anything youd like with it including giving it to a friends to install on their machine False YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 60 terms Technology in Action 122 terms Computers 202 terms CH 15 69 terms CIS 150 MIDTERM OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 41 terms Technology in Action Chapters 14 44 terms Identity 44 terms Identity 44 terms Identity THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 60 terms Chapter 1 17 terms Office Fundamentals 91 terms 15 terms End of Quiz Chapter 2

B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Organizational Behavior Test 1 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 107 Communication The ___ competency requires the application of all six other foundation competencies in its implementation Constant learning adaptation and innovation all the above 8 New technologies are increasing the need for ____ by individuals groups and entire organizations Teams The ____ competency includes the knowledge skills and abilities to develop support and lead groups to achieve goal Influencing skill The communication competency is linked to effective performance of all but which of the following skills Global mindset ____ refers to viewing the environment from a worldwide perspective always looking for unexpected trends that may create threats or opportunities for a unit or an entire organization think globally act locally The global mindset is also referred to as the ability to across cultures The ____ competency includes the knowledge skills and abilities to recognize and embrace similarities and differences among nations and cultures and then approach key organizational and strategic issues with an open and curious mind understanding how workrelated values such as individualism and collectivism influence the decisions made by individuals and groups Which of the following is not one of the key KSAs of the diversity competency self Developing the ____ competency can be considered a prerequisite to the development of all of the other foundation competencies it includes the dimension of career management Which of the following statements about the self competency is false Self competency includes the knowledge skills and abilities to assess your own strengths and weaknesses set and pursue professional and personal goals balance work and personal life and engage in new learningincluding new or modified changed skills behaviors and attitudes To make sure that your friends are responsible Which of the following is not one of the key KSAs of the self competency To perceive appraise and interpret accurately yourself others and the immediate environmen Which of the following is one of the key KSAs of the self competency all of these are among the key KSAs of the ethics competency Which of the following is not one of the key KSAs of the ethics competency values and principle Ethics are considered to be the ____ that distinguish right from wrong Authority responsibility accountability Effective managers in organizations usually accept what key functions in their roles anticipate manage respond to The longterm effectiveness of an organization is determined by its ability to ____ changes in its environment both individuals and groups within an organizational context and internal processes and practices as they influence the effectiveness of individuals teams and organization Organizational behavior is the study of ___ family members of employees of the organization The framework for learning about organizational behavior and improving the effectiveness of employees teams and organizations consists of all of the following components except Leadership _____ is the process of developing ideas and a vision living by values that support those ideas and that vision influencing others to embrace them in their own behaviors and making hard decisions about human and other resources ethical intensity decisionmaking procedures and rules affected individuals benefits and costs and determination of rights The key foundations of ethical decision making are Ethics is defined in terms of the legality or illegality of the decisions and behaviors of individuals and the organizations of which they are a part All of the following statements about ethical decision are true except Ethical Intensity ____ refers to the degree of importance given to an issuerelated moral imperative probability of effect The likelihood that if a decision is implemented it will lead to the harm or benefit predicted is referred to as_____ Social consensus ____ is the amount of public agreement that a proposed decision is bad or good balancing interests principles Which of the following is a general category of ethical principles used to justify decisions and actions hedonist The ____ principle is used to justify selfserving decisions as opposed to those that require a careful consideration of others rights and costs organization interest principle The ____ principle is used to promote what is good for the organization concern for others The disclosure distributive justice and golden rule principles are all examples of ____ principles that may be used to provide an ethical justification for a persons decisions and behaviors utilitarian Under the ____ principle you act on the basis of whether the harm from the decision is outweighed by the good in it involve employees in the identification of ethical problems All of the following actions have been suggested for integrating ethical decision making into the daytoday life of the organization except Organization interest principle _____suggests that leaders should consider desires or demands of different stakeholders for the good of the organization Organizational culture _____reflects the shared and learned values beliefs and attitudes of its members gender race nationality and ethnicity Organizations have become increasingly diverse in terms of_____ ethical foundation Diversity must be accompanied by an_____to be meaningful Sexual harassment _____generally refers to unwelcome sexual advances requests for sexual favors and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature quid pro quo hostile environment In the United States sexual harassment includes the following comments of sexual nature offensive sexual material unwelcome physical contact in the work environment A hostile work environment occurs when an employee is subjected to Sustainable development ____is a pattern of resource use that strives to maintain human needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs ethical reasoning used to justify choices in decision making The personal phases of moral development focus on_____ individual differences Personality theory is a general theory of what sets people apart Definitions of personality describe Personality The term ____ represents the overall profile or combination of stable characteristics that capture the unique nature of a person All of these represent the current thinking Which of the following statements is not true concerning personality gender Aspects of the environment that influence personality formation include all of the following except There is no evidence to indicate that culture plays a significant role in personality development Which of the following statements about culture as a source of personality differences is false The culture emphasizes individual initiative decisionmaking and achievement Which of the following statements relating to the cultural value of individualism is true There is a tendency for people to emphasize their belonging to groups and to look after each other in exchange for loyalty Which of the following statements relating to the cultural value of collectivism is true Power distance The extent to which people in a society accept status and power inequalities as a normal and functional aspect of life is known as Individual differences In organizational behavior the term ____ is used to refer to personal attributes that vary in many ways from one person to another Extraversion Jordan enjoys being with people is full of positive energy and often experiences positive emotions It is likely that Jordan is high on Extraversion Aislyn tends to be low key quiet and deliberate It is likely that Aislyn is low on Agreeableness Carl is comfortable talking with others and speaking up in a group It is likely that Carl is high on high selfesteem A parent who hoped that his or her child would grow up to work successfully in a high status occupation such as physician or college professor should try to ensure that the childs personality development results in locus of control The trait ____ refers to the extent to which individuals believe that they can control events affecting them external locus of control The trait ____ refers to individuals who believe that chance fate or other people primarily determine what happens to them in life internal locus of control The trait ____ refers to the extent to which individuals believe that their own actions primarily but not necessarily totally determine many of the events in their lives I prefer to work alone rather than have a group influence my performance rating An individual with an external locus of control would be most likely to say self awareness social empathy self motivation social skills The attributes of emotional intelligence include all of the following being results oriented and pursuing goals beyond what is required Selfmotivation refers to the ability of a person to influence others Social skills refers to how well an individual handles themselves and others Emotional intelligence refers to cognitive The concept of attitude consists of three components which are affective behavioral and organizational commitment The strength of an employees involvement in and identification with the organization is referred to as it includes a willingness to consider job opportunities at other organizations All of the following statements are true about the concept of organizational commitment except send twice as many positive communications as negative Managers can create positive emotions in their organizations through all of the following except interpret respond to The process by which people select organize ____ and ____ information from the world around them is referred to as perception All true All of the following statements about the perceptual process are true except observation selection organization interpretation response The correct sequence of the basic elements in the perceptual process is intensity An example of an external factor that influences perceptual selection is personality All of the following are external factors stated as principles of perception except size Which of the following factors explains why a person is likely to notice an elephant walking down the street intensity An email message from a manager to an employee that reads please stop by my office at your convenience is likely to be perceived differently than a message that reads report to my office immediately This is based on the external factor of intensity Which of the following principles influencing perceptual selection is being used in an attempt to catch the attention of viewers when a television commercial is presented in a higher volume ie louder than the volume of the ongoing program familiarity Which of the following is not an internal factor that influences perceptual selection contrast Cece finds that she can immediately pick out her friends from her sorority when paging through her college yearbook This is most likely an example of the influence of ____ on perceptual selection personality An internal factor that influences perceptual selection is intensity All of the following are internal factors that influence perceptual selection except projection Tom Brown who has just presented a new marketing plan to his boss Michael Scott tells his friends about all the positive feedback he received while ignoring the negative comments This is an example of the ____ principle perceptual selection Pollyanna principle The ____ states that people process pleasant stimuli more efficiently and accurately than they do unpleasant stimuli closure All of the following are among the factors identified as influencing person perception except selffulfilling prophecy The _______ is the tendency for someones expectations about another to cause that individual to behave in a manner consistent with those expectations impression management When individuals attempt to manipulate or control the impression that others form about them they are engaging in watching the employee more closely to make sure they dont make mistakes Recommendations for creating positive performance expectations include all of the following except Attribution process ____ refers to the ways in which people come to understand the causes of their own and others behavior internal and external According to the basic model of the attribution process based on information beliefs and motives the perceiver will make what types of attributions consensus In the attribution process the extent to which others faced with the same situation behave in a manner similar to the person perceived is referred to as external causes Under conditions of low consensus low distinctiveness and high consistency the perceiver will tend to attribute the behavior of the perceived to talk negatively about your former employer If you get fired from a job and then get an interview for a new job what should you not do at the interview changing the consequences of those behaviors Operant behaviors can be influenced by consequence A ____ is the result of a behavior which can be either positive or negative in terms of goal or task accomplishment decrease increase 3 The purpose of positive reinforcement is to ____ the frequency of desired employee behavior and the purpose of negative reinforcement is to ____ the frequency of desired employee behavior decrease The purpose of punishment is to ____ the frequency of employee behavior involve money andor praise To qualify as a reinforcer a reward must employee indifference toward Susan Susan would like to stop employees from taking long lunches She decides the best way to do so is to punish those who come back from lunch late Which of the following is not a potential negative effect of Susans plan insider trading According to the Ethics Competency Time off for bad behavior Samuel Waksal former CEO of the biotech firm ImClone was serving time in a federal prison for ____ contingent reinforcement When using positive reinforcement the principle of ____ states that the reinforcer must be administered only if the desired behavior is performed immediate reinforcement When using positive reinforcement the principle of ____ states that the reinforcer will be most effective if administered immediately after the desired behavior has occurred unpleasant removed Negative reinforcement refers to an ____ event that is ____ contingent upon the proper behavior the size of the punisher should be related to how long the employee has worked for the company For maximum effectiveness all of the following is true about punishment except The learner must be able to recreate the behavior For vicarious learning to occur several conditions must be met Which of these is NOT one of the conditions they will succeed based on luck Employees with high selfefficacy believe all of the following except It affects the rate at which a person cognitively processes new information All of the following are ways in which selfefficacy has an impact on learning except provide negative consequences to employees who do not perform as desired Guidelines for improving behavior in organizations through social learning theory include all of the following except SelfControl Julie Brown an administrative assistant at Virginia Tech had a new software package for graphics on her desk for a month She knew that she had to learn how to use it even though her supervisor hadnt put any pressure on her to do so She worked at home during the evenings so that she could master the new software Julie learned how to use this new software through ____ Empowerment When a manager engages in ____ employees are given the authority skills and selfcontrol to perform their tasks Selfefficacy An individuals estimate of his or her own ability to perform a specific task in a particular situation is that individuals YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 117 terms Exam II 219 terms Organization quiz 100 terms Management exam 90 terms Management OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR Bio Exam 4 19 terms Lab Test 4 55 terms Bio Exam 3 27 terms Lab Exam 2

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Sociology Chapter 4 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Social structure CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The network of interrelated statuses and roles that guide human interaction CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 54 Terms in this set 54 Social structure The network of interrelated statuses and roles that guide human interaction Status A socially defined position in a group or in a society Role The behavior rights and obligations expected of someone occupying a status Ascribed status Assigned according to qualities beyond a persons control Achieved status Individuals acquire this status by their own direct efforts such as skills knowledge or abilities Master status The status that plays the greatest role in shaping a persons life and determining his or her social identity Reciprocal roles Corresponding roles that define the patterns of interaction between related statuses Role expectations The socially determined behaviors expected of a person performing a role Role performance Their actual role behavior that does not always match the behavior expected by society Role set The different roles attached to a single status Role conflict Occurs when fulfilling the role expectations of one status makes it difficult to fulfill the role expectations of another status Role strain Occurs when a person has difficulty meeting the role expectations of a single status Social institution When statuses and roles are organized to satisfy one or more of the basic needs of society the group is called Exchange Whenever people interact in an effort to receive a reward or a return of their actions Reciprocity the idea that i you do something for someone that person owes you something in return Exchange theory Belief that people are motivated by self interest in their interactions with other people Occurs when two or more people or groups oppose each other to achieve a goal that only one can attain Conflict The deliberate attempt to control a person by force to oppose someone or to harm another person Cooperation Occurs when two or more people or groups work together to achieve a goal that will benefit more than one person Accomodation A state of balance between cooperation and conflict Group is a set of people who interact on the basis of shared expectations and who possess some degree of common identity Subsistence strategies The way a society uses technology to provide for the needs of its members Hunting and gathering societies The main form of food production in preindustrial society the daily collection of wild plants and hunting of wild animals Preindustrial society Carried out through the use of human and animal labor Pastoral society Rely on domesticated herd animals to meet their food needs Division of labor The specialization by individuals or groups in the performance of specific economic activities Horticultural society Fruits and vegetables grown in garden plots have been cleared from the jungle or the forest provide the main source of food in this Agricultural society Animals are used to pull plows to till the fields allows to plant more groups than is possible when only human labor is used Barter exchange of good or service Urbanized The concentration of the population in cities Postindustrial society Much of the economy is involved in providing information and services Mechanical solidarity Preindustrial When people share same values and perform the same tasks they become united in a common whole Organic solidarity Refers to the impersonal social relationships that arise with increased job specialation Aggregate When people gather in the same place at the same time but lack organization or lasting patterns of interaction Social category Simply a means of classifying people according to a shared trait or a common status Dyad The small group possible a group with two members Triad A three person group that takes on a life of its own independent of any individual member Small group One with few enough members that everyone is able to interact on a face to face basis Formal group the structure goals and activities of the group are clearly defined Informal group No official structure or established rules of conduct Primary group a small group of people who interact over a relatively long period of time on a direct and personal basis secondary group a group in which interaction is impersonal and temporary in nature reference group any group with whom individuals identify and whose attitudes and values they adopt Ingroup The group that a person belongs to and identifies with Outgroup Any group that the person does not belong to or identify with Ecommunity People interact with one another regularly on the internet Social network The web of relationships that is formed by the sum total of a persons interactions with other people Leaders people who influence the attitudes and opinions of other Instrumental leaders Task oriented find specific means that will help the group reach its goals Expressive leaders emotion oriented they find ways to keep the group together and to maintain morale Bureaucracy a ranked authority sructure that operates according to specific rules and procedures Rationality subjcting every feature of human behavior to calculation measurement and control Voluntary association typically a nonprofit organization formed to pursue some common interest Iron law of oligarchy The tendency of organizations to become increasingly dominated by small groups of people

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Human Development Chapter 20 senescence a gradual physical decline that is related to aging and during which the body becomes less strong and efficient the aging brain defenitions neurons fire more slowly messages sent from the axon of one neuron are not picked up as quickly by the dendrite of another neuron reaction time lengthens brain size decreases multitasking gets harder processing takes longer complex working memory tasks may become impossible the aging brain causes drug abuse poor circulation viruses and genes physical appearance collagen decreases by about 1 per year by age 30 skin is becoming thinner and less flexible wrinkles become visible by age 60 all faces are wrinkled hair turns gray and gets thinner middleage spread appears sense organs vision and hearing sense organs vision peripheral vision narrows faster than frontal vision color vision shifts from vivid to faded more quickly than does black and white younger adults are usually either nearsighted or farsighted most older adults are both sense organs hearing presbycusis a loss of hearing that is associated with senescence and that usually does not become apparent until after age 60 the sexualreproductive system sexual responsiveness sexual arousal occurs more slowly with age and orgasm takes longer distress at slower responsiveness is more associated with anxiety interpersonal relationships and expectations than with aging itself the sexualreproductive system fertility infertility is most common in nations where medical care is scarce and STIs are common United States 15 of all couples are infertile partly because many postpone childbearing and half of those trying to conceive in their 40s are infertile and the other half risk various complications the sexualreproductive system causes of infertility males multiple factors advanced age fever radiation prescription drugs stress environmental toxins drug abuse alcoholism cigarette smoking can reduce sperm number shape and motility the sexualreproductive system causes of infertility females fertility can be affected by anything that impairs physical functioning advanced age diseases smoking extreme dieting obesity pelvic inflammatory disease can block the fallopian tubes preventing sperm from reaching an ovum the sexualreproductive system fertlity treatments Assisted Reproductive Technology ART advances in medicine have solved about half of all fertility problems overcomes obstacles such as a low sperm count and blocked fallopian tubes the sexualreproductive system women in middle age menopause time in middle age around age 50 when a womans menstrual periods cease completely and the production of estrogen progesterone and testosterone drops considerably dated to one year after a womans last menstrual period the sexualreproductive system men in middle age andropause male menopause coined to signify a drop in testosterone levels in older men resulting in a reduction in sexual desire erections and muscle mass effectiveness of HRT is questionable health habits and age drug abuse Abuse of illegal drugs decreases markedly over adulthood Marijuana use is slowest to decline In the US 8 of 2434 year olds still use it impairing cognition and oral health Abuse of prescribed drugs increases in adulthood health habits and age tobacco Cigarette smoking has declined in the US over the past 50 years Worldwide trends are less encouraging Smoking rates rising in developing nations health habits and age alcohol abuse moderation no more than two drinks a day increases life expectancy alcohol reduces coronary heart disease and strokes increases good cholesterol and reduces bad cholesterol lowers blood pressure health habits and age alcohol abuse excess increases the risk of violent death and is implicated in 60 diseases stark international variations in alcohol abuse binge drinking signals a problem health habits and age overeating many adults choose highcalorie lownutrient foods only 27 of US adults eat three daily servings of vegetables too many highcalorie foods combined with too little activity leads to obesity excess weight increases the risk of every chronic disease ie diabetes health habits and age consequences of obesity highest rates of obesity and diabetes 66 of US adults are overweight Of those 50 are obese and 5 morbidly obese metabolism decreases by onethird between ages 20 and 60 health habits and age inactivity regular physical activity at every stage of life protects against serious illness sitting for long hours correlates with almost every unhealthy condition even a little movement helps more intense exercise eg swimming jogging bicycling is ideal health habits and age accumlating stressors stressor any situation event experience or other stimulus that causes a person to feel stressed problemfocused coping a strategy to deal with stress by dealing with it directly emotionfocused coping a strategy to deal with stress by changing feelings about the stressor measuring health introduction most of the US expenditure on health goes toward preventing death among people who are already sick public health measures that help prevent morbidity mortality and disability in the public at large ie immunization preventive health practices measuring health mortality death usually refers to the number of deaths each year per 1000 members of a given population measuring health morbidity disease refers to the rate of physical and emotional acute sudden chronic ongoing and fatal diseases in a given population measuring health disability and vitality longterm difficulty in performing normal activities of daily life because of some physical emotional or mental condition measuring health disability and vitality Disabilityadjusted life years DALYs a measure of the reduced quality of life caused by disability Qualityadjusted life years QALYs comparing survival without vitality to survival with good health measuring health correlating income and health money and education affect health in every nation welleducated financially secure adults live longer physical appearance muscles weaken height decreases by late middle age many changes occur more slowly in people who exercise sense organs vision nearsightedness increases gradually beginning in ones 20s farsightedness lens of the eye is less elastic and the cornea flattens by middle age the sexualreproductive system sexual responsiveness study findings adults of all ages enjoy very high levels of emotional satisfaction and physical pleasure from sex within their relationships men and women were most likely to be extremely satisfied with sex if in a committed monogamous relationship the sexualreproductive system women in middle age Hormone Replacement Therapy HRT treatment to compensate for hormone reduction at menopause or after removal of the ovaries usually involves estrogen and progesterone minimizes menopausal symptoms and diminishes the risk of osteoporosis in later adulthood involves health risks health habits and age tobacco Smokingrelated cancers increasing throughout the world Variations among nations cohorts and gender indicate smoking is affected by social norms laws and advertising health habits and age alcohol abuse excess about 20 of US adults had five or more drinks on a single occasion in the past year disproportionate burden of harm in poorer countries prevention and treatment strategies have not been fully established health habits and age consequences of obesity genetics two alleles that correlate with both diabetes and weight increase in obesity rates can not be blamed on genes cultural influences are more important health habits and age inactivity connection between exercise and health is causal people who are more fit are likely to resist disease and feel healthier as they age health habits and age accumlating stressors allostatic load the total physiological stress that a person has a high load increases the risk of disease weathering gradual accumulation of stressors over a long period of time wearing down the resilience and resistance of a person measuring health correlating income and health suspected reasons education teaches healthy habits education leads to higher income which allows better housing and medical care education may be a marker for intelligence which is a protective factor measuring health disability and vitality measure of health that refers to how healthy and energeticphysically emotionally and sociallyan individual actually feels the sexualreproductive system fertlity treatments In Vitro Fertilization IVF procedure in which ova egg cells are surgically removed from a woman and fertilized with sperm in a laboratory after the fertilized cells the zygotes have divided several times they are inserted into the womans uterus

B I O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O

human development
gradual physical decline


Chapter 1 What is Health FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The World Health Organizations definition of health CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a state of complete physical mental and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 14

O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 6 Study Guide FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month What happened to the Roman Senate under Augustus CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The Senate was a full and equal partner of the princeps CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 50 Terms in this set 50 What happened to the Roman Senate under Augustus The Senate was a full and equal partner of the princeps Although the Senate granted Octavian the title of Imperator Emperor he preferred to be addressed by what title princeps What resulted from Augustuss absolute monarchical powers as princeps He achieved great popularity because he followed proper legal forms for his power What was a consequence of establishing the Roman military in various parts of the empire draining the imperial treasury of its funds Who were the Roman praetorian guards elite troops iven the task of protecting the emperor How was the Roman Empire run under during the rule of Augustus It turned towards an absolute monarchy with the princeps overshadowing the Senate Which of the following was not a characteristic of Roman provincial and frontier policy under Augustus limitless expansion in Europe What event curtailed Augustuss expansionist policies the defeat of Varus in the Teutoburg Forest Which of the following was among Augustuss key innovations in Roman provincial rule division of Roman provinces into those ruled directly by the princeps and the senatorial provinces administered by the Senate Which of the following statements best describes Romanization in the Roman Empire It occurred quickly in the west Which of the following statements best describes the governing of Roman provinces under Augustus efficient with legates cooperating with the local elites Which of the following statements was true of Augustan society Equestrians gained the upper hand in the political sphere Which of the following statements was true of the social classes during the early Roman Empire Provincials were allowed to hold certain high magisterial positions What was one of Augustuss most important actions in the area of Roman religion Permitting the creation of an imperial cult What was a result of Augustus social legislation to stop the decline of Roman morals It made adultery a criminal offense and outlawed wasteful expenditures for feasts Which city located on the Tiber was Romes chief port Ostia what was Livy most known for in the Augustan Age History of Rome in 142 books Which of the following authors of the golden age is correctly identified with his major work Ovid The founding of Rome What is the subject of the Aeneid the founding of Rome What statement best describes The Art of Love It condemned the loose sexual morals of the Roman upper class For what is the golden age historian Livy best known perceiving history in terms of sharp moral lessons When Augustus died who chose his successor Augustus himself Which of the statements best describes the JulioClaudian emperors They undid all the military reforms of Augustus Which of the following trends developed during the reigns of the JulioClaudian emperors Emperors took more and more ruling power away from the old Senate Who was the first of the Flavian emperors Vespasian What was Hadrians wall built to protect Roman Britain Which of the following did not occur during the reigns of the five good emperors the end of imperial bureaucratic growth What statment best describes the Roman army during the Early Empire 14180 CE It became increasingly supplied with men from provinces conquered by Rome What reulted from the development of trade and commerce in the Early Empire AB and C Who was the greatest historian of the silver age of Latin literature Tacitus What was the subject of prolific silver age writer Senecas works he composed philosophical letters on the theme of Stoicism Which good emperor was highly interested in philosophy Marcus Aurelius In Which area of architecture did Rome achieve the most innovation the use of concrete on a massive scale Which of the following is not true of the Colosseum It was destroyed by Caligula What statement best describes Imperial Romes gladiatorial shows They were limited to fights between slaves and criminals trained at gladiatorial schools Who was Marcus Aurelius cruel son who was strangled by his wrestling partner in 192 CE Commodus Which emperor gave Roman citizenship to every free person in the empire Caracalla Who was one of the famous jurists of the Early Empire responsible for completing the basic natural rights principles vital to the Western world Ulpian What statement best describes the upper classes of the Early Empire Woman had considerable freedom and independence Which of the following statements was not true of Roman society in the early Empire The process of Romanization occurred quickly in the East Which of the following was not a reason for the appeal of the mystery religions of the Hellenistic east Mystery religions were suppressed by the emperors Why did soldiers find the mystery cult of Mithraism so appealing Mystery religions were suppressed by the emperors What did the early values of Christianity as exemplified in Jesus sermon on the mount emphasize devotion to the values of humility charity and brotherly love Who was the most important figure in the spread of early Christianity after Jesus Paul of Tarsus What does the word gospels mean good news Who ordered the last great persecution of Christians Diocletian Which emperor said Live in harmony make the soldiers rich and dont care for anything else Septimius Severus Who was the late third century emperor who reconquered and reestablished order in the east and along the Danube and who was known as the restorer of the world Aurelian Which of the following was not a factor in the crisis of the third century a series of natural disasters What was Pauls contribution to the spread of Christianity he broadened the appeal of the Christian message by preaching to Jews and nonJews alike YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 50 terms History 101 Chapter 6 Chapter 6 History 103 20 terms Chapter 6 western civ exam 2 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 15 terms Chapter 28 Study Guide 55 terms Exam 1 6 terms Leaf Arrangements Quiz 44 terms Mother of all Finals Fall Semester THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 119 terms Mesopotamia and Egypt 40 terms Western History 152 Spielvogel 70 terms AP Euro chapter 18 multiple choice 56 terms Western Civilization Quiz 1

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


procedural coding chpt 6 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 50 In procedural coding that portion of a test or procedure that the physician performs eg interpreting an ECG or reading an xray is known as the professional component In procedural coding that portion of a test or procedure pertaining to the use of the equipment and the operator who performs it eg radiography machine or technician is known as the technical component A single procedural code that describes or covers two or more CPT component codes that are bundled together as one unit is known as a comprehensive code When coding surgical procedures a term that refers to both sides of the body is bilateral In procedural coding one fee applied to a procedure code number that includes other services such as the operation local infiltration digital block or topical anesthesia and normal uncomplicated postoperative care is referred to as a surgical package A reference book for identifying proceduresservices that uses a fivedigit numeric coding system and was established by the American Medical Association is called CPT current procedural terminology Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month When using relative value studies the dollars and cents amount that is established for one unit as applied to a procedure or service rendered that is then used to transform procedures into a fee is referred to as conversion factor A list of procedure codes for professional services and procedures that are assigned unit values that indicate the value of one procedure over another is called RVS A Medicare policy relating to surgical procedures in which preoperative and postoperative visits usual intraoperative services and complications not requiring additional trips to the operating room are included in one fee is termed global surgery policy In procedural coding a twodigit addon number placed after the usual procedure code number to indicate a procedure has been altered by a specific circumstance is called aan modifier In CPT a new code shown in a current edition is indicated by a bullet symbol A national uniform coding structure developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services formerly known as the Health Care Financing Administration for reporting physiciansupplier services under the Medicare program is known as HCPCS healthcare common procedure coding system CPT codes created for billing new and emerging technology procedures and services are called Category III codes An organized hospitalbased facility that provides unscheduled medical services to patients who need immediate medical attention is called aan emergency department When billing a medical service if time is to be used to determine the CPT code the counseling or coordination of care must be more than 50 When medication is given to a patient the proper documentation in the patients health record is to list the name amount and strength of the medication and route of administration Treatment by administering an agent that interferes with the bodys immune system to respond to antigenic stimulation by inhibiting cellular and humoral immunity is known as immunosuppressive therapy Charge that is considered fair and equitable if it is deemed acceptable after peer review even though it does not meet the customary or prevailing criteria Reasonable fee Method used by insurance companies to establish their fee schedules Usual customary and reasonable List of charges or established allowances for specific medical services and procedures Fee schedule Amount that a physician usually charges most of his or her patients Customary fee Using numerous procedure codes to identify procedures normally covered by a single code Unbundling Occurs when the coding system used by the physicians office on a claim does not match the coding system used by the insurance company receiving the claim Downcoding To group more than one component service or procedure into one CPT code Bundled codes Deliberate manipulation of procedure codes for increased payment Upcoding If a patient is seen in the emergency department and is subsequently admitted to the hospital it is billed as an emergency visit when done on the same date as the admission False If a complex surgical procedure is billed it is unnecessary to include a copy of the operative report False CPT code 99024 may be listed on an itemized billing statement to let the patient know that aftersurgery office visits have been provided at no charge True When billing for prolonged service time must be documented in the health record True When there is a choice between two or three somewhat similar codes the thirdparty payers claims examiner will choose the highest paying code False you can not bill two Em codes in a day true medicare minor and major wait time 10 days for minor 90 for major when code isnt listen in Cpt code what code you use unlisted code code levels 15 1 being the lowest 5 the highest global for surgery what procedure pays better face 99024 no chargepart of package level 2 HCPCS hospitals physicians and other health care proffesionals modifier 22 increased procedural services can not use Em codes modifier 25 significant separately identifiable evaluation and management service minor surgerysame day visit modifier 26 professional component same office modifier 50 bilateral procedure modifier 51 multiple procedures can not use Em codes modifier 52 reduced services modifier 57 decision for surgery major surgery modifier 58 staged or related procedure Ex big cast to little cast TC technical component 26 different office add on codes to have parent codes ex in addition to True you can not bill if you do not document true never event surgical procedure that is performed on the wrong side wrong site wrong body part or wrong person

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O