Chapter 28 Protists Test Bank 1 According to the endosymbiotic theory why was it adaptive for the larger host cell to keep the engulfed cell alive rather than digesting it as food A The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate ATP B The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide C The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose D The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Answer A CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 58 1 According to the endosymbiotic theory why was it adaptive for the larger host cell to keep the engulfed cell alive rather than digesting it as food A The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate ATP B The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide C The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose D The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive Answer A 2 The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence A cyanobacteria green algae land plants B cyanobacteria green algae fungi land plants C red algae brown algae green algae land plants D cyanobacteria red algae green algae land plants Answer A 3 A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis You know this because the chloroplasts _____ A have nuclear and cyanobacterial genes B are exceptionally small C have three or four membranes D have only a single pigment Answer C 4 All protists are _____ A unicellular B eukaryotic C symbionts D mixotrophic Answer B 5 An individual mixotroph loses its plastids yet continues to survive Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival A It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol B It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids C It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption D It has an endospore Answer C 6 Which of the following have chloroplasts or structures since evolved from chloroplasts thought to be derived from ancestral green algae A stramenopiles B apicomplexans C dinoflagellates D chlorarachniophytes Answer D Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated chromatophores The chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell and each is derived from a cyanobacterium though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants 7 The closest living relative of P chromatophora is the heterotroph P ovalis P ovalis uses threadlike pseudopods to capture its prey which it digests internally Which of the following if observed would be the best reason for relabeling P chromatophora as a mixotroph instead of an autotroph A a pigmented central vacuole surrounded by a tonoplast B a vacuole with food inside C a secretory vesicle D a contractile vacuole B a vacuole with food inside 8 Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced without the net loss of any genetic information A conjugation B horizontal gene transfer C phagocytosis D meiosis Answer B Giardia intestinalis is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal ailments in most people who ingest the cysts Upon ingestion each cyst releases two motile cells called trophozoites These attach to the small intestines lining via a ventral adhesive disk The trophozoites anaerobically metabolize glucose from the hosts intestinal contents to produce ATP Reproduction is completely asexual occurring by longitudinal binary fission of trophozoites with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei n 5 A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by secreting around itself a case that is resistant to 9 The cysts of Giardia function most like the _____ A mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads B nuclei of archaeans C endospores of bacteria D capsids of viruses C endospores of bacteria 10 Consider the following data a Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular b All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton c Most ancient eukaryotes lack a cell wall Which of the following conclusions could reasonably follow the data presented The first eukaryote may have been _____ A very similar to a plant cell B anaerobic C capable of phagocytosis D photosynthetic Answer C Giardia intestinalis is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal ailments in most people who ingest the cysts Upon ingestion each cyst releases two motile cells called trophozoites These attach to the small intestines lining via a ventral adhesive disk The trophozoites anaerobically metabolize glucose from the hosts intestinal contents to produce ATP Reproduction is completely asexual occurring by longitudinal binary fission of trophozoites with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei n 5 A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by secreting around itself a case that is resistant to 11 Giardias mitosome can be said to be doubly degenerate because it is a degenerate type of ________ an organelle that is itself a degenerate form of ________ A nucleus archaean B nucleus bacterium C mitochondria proteobacterium D mitochondria spirochete C mitochondria proteobacterium 12 The mitosome of Giardia has no DNA within it If it did contain DNA then what predictions should we be able to make about its DNA 1 It is linear 2 It is circular 3 It has many introns 4 It has few introns 5 It is not associated with histone proteins 6 It is complexed with histone proteins A 1 3 and 5 B 1 4 and 5 C 2 3 and 6 D 2 4 and 5 Answer D 13 Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures which of the following should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle A separation segregation of daughter chromosomes B crossing over C meiosis Answer A 14 If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA yet are descendants of what were once free living organisms then where are we likely to find the genes that encode their structures and what accounts for their current location there A plasmids conjugation B plasmids transformation C nucleus horizontal gene transfer D nucleus S phase C nucleus horizontal gene transfer 3 Which of the following is responsible for nearly 100000 human deaths worldwide every year A Entamoeba histolytica B Amoeba proteus C plasmodial slime molds D Dictyostelium discoideum A Entamoeba histolytica 15 When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human the Plasmodium _____ A gametes fuse forming an oocyst B cells infect the human liver cells C cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells D oocyst undergoes meiosis B cells infect the human liver cells 16 Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins 1 Plasmodium 2 Trichomonas 3 Paramecium 4 Trypanosoma 5 Entamoeba A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 4 and 5 Answer A 17 Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics is mismatched A apicomplexans internal parasites B euglenozoans unicellular flagellates C ciliates red tide organisms D entamoebas ingestive heterotrophs Answer C 18 Dinoflagellates _____ A possess two flagella B are all autotrophic C lack mitochondria D include species that cause malaria Answer A 19 You are given an unknown organism to identify It is unicellular and heterotrophic It is motile using many short extensions of the cytoplasm each featuring the 9 2 filament pattern It has welldeveloped organelles and two nuclei one large and one small This organism is most likely to be a _____ A foraminiferan B radiolarian C ciliate D kinetoplastid Answer C 20 Which of the following is characteristic of ciliates A They use pseudopods as feeding structures B They are often multinucleate C They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis D Most live as solitary autotrophs in fresh water Answer B 21 Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9 2 pattern They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts and each diatom is encased within two porous glasslike valves Which question would be most important for one interested in the daytoday survival of individual diatoms A How do diatoms get transported from one location on the waters surface layers to another location on the surface B How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters C How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves D How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells B How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters 22 A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following A thalli B bladders C holdfasts D gelforming polysaccharides Answer C 23 Reinforced threadlike pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of _____ A forams B water molds C dinoflagellates D oomycetes Answer A 24 A snaillike coiled porous test shell of calcium carbonate is characteristic of _____ A diatoms B foraminiferans C ciliates D water molds Answer B 25 You are given the task of designing an aquatic protist that is a primary producer It can not swim on its own yet must stay in welllit surface waters It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action It should be most similar to an _____ A diatom B dinoflagellate C apicomplexan D red alga Answer A 26 A gelatinous seaweed that grows in shallow cold water and undergoes heteromorphic alternation of generations is most probably what type of alga A red B green C brown D yellow Answer C You are given four test tubes each containing an unknown protist and your task is to read the following description and match these four protists to the correct test tube When light especially red and blue light is shone on the tubes oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 1 and 2 Chemical analysis of test tube 1 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tubes 1 3 and 4 reveals the presence of permanent membranebounded sacs just under the plasma membrane Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tube 3 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each Microscopic analysis of the 27 Test tube 3 contains _____ A Paramecium B Pfiesteria dinoflagellate C Entamoeba D Plasmodium Answer D 28 Test tube 4 contains _____ A Paramecium B Pfiesteria dinoflagellate C Entamoeba D Plasmodium Answer A Diatoms are encased in petriplatelike cases valves made of translucent hydrated silica whose thickness can be varied The material used to store excess calories can also be varied At certain times diatoms store excess calories in the form of the liquid polysaccharide laminarin and at other times as oil The following are data concerning the density specific gravity of various components of diatoms and of their environment Specific Gravities of Materials Relevant to Diatoms Material Specific Gravity kgm3 Pure water 1000 Seawater 1026 Hydrated silica 2250 Liquid laminarin 1500 Diatom oil 910 29 Waters density and consequently its buoyancy decrease at warmer temperatures Based on this consideration and using data from the table above at which time of year should one expect diatoms to be storing excess calories mostly as oil A midwinter B early spring C late summer D late fall C late summer 30 Waters density and consequently its buoyancy decrease at warmer temperatures Considering the impact of temperature and the table above in which environment should diatoms sinking be slowest A cold fresh water B warm fresh water C cold seawater D warm seawater Answer C Use the following information to answer the questions below Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella When within their hosts the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae In aquaria with light coming from only one side P bursaria gather at the welllit side whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the opposite side The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen and P bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection and motility P bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways 1 if kept in darkness the algae will die and 2 if prey items mostly bacteria are absent from its habitat P 31 Which term best describes the symbiotic relationship of wellfed P bursaria to their zoochlorellae A mutualistic B parasitic C predatory D pathogenic Answer A 32 The motility that permits P bursaria to move toward a light source is provided by _____ A pseudopods B a single flagellum featuring the 9 2 pattern C many cilia D contractile vacuoles C many cilia 33 A P bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is said to be aposymbiotic It might be able to replenish its contingent of zoochlorellae by ingesting them without subsequently digesting them Which of the following situations would be most favorable to the reestablishment of resident zoochlorellae assuming compatible Chlorella are present in P bursarias habitat A abundant light no bacterial prey B abundant light abundant bacterial prey C no light no bacterial prey D no light abundant bacterial prey Answer B 34 A P bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is aposymbiotic If aposymbiotic cells have population growth rates the same as those of healthy zoochlorellacontaining P bursaria in well lit environments with plenty of prey items then such an observation would be consistent with which type of relationship A parasitic B commensalistic C toxic D mutualistic Answer B 35 Theoretically P bursaria can obtain zoochlorella either vertically via the asexual reproduction of its mother cell or horizontally by ingesting freeliving Chlorella from its habitat Consider a P bursaria cell containing zoochlorellae but whose habitat lacks freeliving Chlorella If this cell subsequently undergoes many generations of asexual reproduction if all of its daughter cells contain roughly the same number of zoochlorellae as it had originally contained and if the zoochlorellae are all haploid and identical in appearance then what is true The zoochlorellae _____ A also reproduced asexually at an increasing rate over time B also reproduced asexually at a decreasing rate over time C also reproduced asexually at a fairly constant rate over time D reproduced sexually undergoing heteromorphic alternation of generations Answer C 36 Which process in Paramecium results in genetic recombination but no increase in population size A budding B meiotic division C conjugation D binary fission Answer C The mechanism of cell crawling in protist species is not well defined Pseudopodia extension involves interactions between actin and myosin the same molecules that are involved in vertebrate muscle contraction However prior to the study described below no one had provided convincing data that actin and myosin were actually involved in cell crawling in protists Anatomical studies had identified the cytoskeletal protein actin just below the surface of the cell membrane in several species of protist but physiological studies had failed to show a functional link between actin myosin and cell crawling In a study by N Poulsen et al 37 Refer to the study by Poulsen et al and the figure above Latrunculin A is a reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers A culture of a particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer while another culture was treated only with the buffer no toxin control The motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells that were moving during a defined period of time Which of the following conclusions is reasonable based on the above figure A Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of diatom B The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom C In this species of diatom fully formed actin fibers are necessary for movement Answer C 38 Refer to the study by Poulsen et al and the figure above The data graphed in the figure could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms that is that may be why the cells are not moving Which of the following would be the best evidence that latrunculin A is NOT killing the cells A When the toxin was washed off the culture the cells began to move again B There were still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with the toxin C Most of the cells in the control were moving indicating that they were alive D When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom 25 of them continued to move Answer A 39 Refer to the study by Poulsen et al and the figure above Cultures of a species of diatom were treated with BDM a reversible inhibitor of myosin function Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actinmyosin interaction is necessary for motility A BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture B BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture C BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture Answer A Use the following information to answer the questions below Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated chromatophores The chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell and each is derived from a cyanobacterium though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants 40 P chromatophora secretes around itself a test or case of plates made of silica Which of the following is another rhizarian that would be in competition with P chromatophora for the silica needed to make these plates assuming limited quantities of silica in the environment A radiolarians B foraminiferans C dinoflagellates D diatoms Answer A 41 Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle how many phospholipid NOT lipopolysaccharide bilayers should be found around each P chromatophoras chromatophore and which one of these bilayers should have photosystems embedded in it A two innermost B two outermost C three innermost D threeoutermost Answer A 42 If true which of the following would be most important in determining whether P chromatophoras chromatophore is still an endosymbiont or is an organelle as the term chromatophore implies A if P chromatophora is less fit without its chromatophore than with it B if the chromatophore is less fit without the host cercozoan than with it C if there is ongoing metabolic cooperation between the chromatophore and the host cercozoan D if there has been movement of genes from the chromatophore genome to the nuclear genome such that these genes are no longer present in the chromatophore genome Answer D 43 The genome of modern chloroplasts is roughly 50 the size of the genome of the cyanobacterium from which it is thought to have been derived In comparison the genome of P chromatophoras chromatophore is only slightly reduced relative to the size of the genome of the cyanobacterium from which it is thought to have been derived What is a valid hypothesis that can be drawn from this comparison A Lytic phage infections have targeted the chloroplast genome more often than the P chromatophora genome B P chromatophoras chromatophore is the result of an evolutionarily recent endosymbiosis C The genome of the chloroplast ancestor contained many more introns that could be lost without harm compared to the chromatophores genome D The genome of the cyanobacteria was smaller than the genome of P chromatophora Answer B 44 A biologist discovers an alga that is marine multicellular and lives at a depth reached only by blue light This alga is most likely a type of _____ A red algae B brown algae C green algae D golden algae Answer A 45 Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae _____ A are unicellular B have plastids C have alternation of generations D have cell walls containing cellulose Answer A 46 You are given the task of designing an aerobic mixotrophic protist that can perform photosynthesis in fairly deep water for example 250 meters deep and can also crawl about and engulf small particles With which two of the following structures would you provide your protist 1 hydrogenosome 2 apicoplast 3 pseudopods 4 chloroplast from red alga 5 chloroplast from green alga A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 4 and 5 Answer C 47 Similar to most amoebozoans the forams and the radiolarians also have pseudopods as do some of the white blood cells of animals monocytes If one were to erect a taxon that included all organisms that have cells with pseudopods the taxon would _____ A be polyphyletic B be paraphyletic C be monophyletic D include all eukaryotes Answer A 48 Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature A foraminifera siliconrich tests B dinoflagellata holdfast C diatoms tests made of cellulose D phaeophyta brown algae blade Answer D 49 Unikonta is a supergroup that includes all of the following except _____ A fungi B protists C animals D plants Answer D 50 Previously understood similarities that seemed to connect slime molds and fungi are now considered to be _____ A homologies B examples of convergent evolution C variations of common ancestral traits D adaptations for much different functions Answer B 51 Branching points at the root of the eukaryotic phylogenetic tree A reveal that unikonts are derived from the SAR clade B suggest that Archaeplastids were the first eukaryotes C strongly suggest that fungi are more closely related to plants than animals D are presently unclear Answer D 52 Super cells characteristic of plasmodial slime molds result when which one of the following common cellular processes does not occur A mitosis B cytokinesis C aerobic metabolism D endocytosis Answer B 54 Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish They gain the ability to live in the fish gut absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food Over time which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists A loss of motility B loss of chloroplasts C gain of a rigid cell wall D gain of meiosis B loss of chloroplasts Use the following information to answer the questions below Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella When within their hosts the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae In aquaria with light coming from only one side P bursaria gather at the welllit side whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the opposite side The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen and P bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection and motility P bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways 1 if kept in darkness the algae will die and 2 if prey items mostly bacteria are absent from its habitat P 55 Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P bursaria A photoautotroph B photoheterotroph C chemoautotroph D mixotroph Answer D 56 Living diatoms contain brownish plastids If global warming causes blooms of diatoms in the surface waters of Earths oceans how might this be harmful to the animals that build coral reefs A The coral animals which capture planktonic organisms may be outcompeted by the diatoms B The coral animals endosymbiotic dinoflagellates may get shaded out by the diatoms C The coral animals may die from overeating the plentiful diatoms with their cases of silica D The diatoms photosynthetic output may overoxygenate the water Answer B 57 Which of the following is a producer A kinetoplastid B apicomplexan C diatom D ciliates Answer C 58 If we were to apply the most recent technique used to fight potato late blight to the fight against the malarial infection of humans then we would _____ A increase the dosage of the leastexpensive antimalarial drug administered to humans B introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans C use a cocktail of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles mosquitoes D insert genes from a Plasmodiumresistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles mosquitoes Answer D YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 80 terms Biology Quiz 3 Chapter 28 69 terms 36 terms ch 25 exam 2 70 terms Protist OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 52 terms Chapter 38 Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology 60 terms Chapter 30 Plant Diversity II The Evolution of Seed Plants 60 terms Chapter 17 Gene Expression From Gene to Protein 60 terms Chapter 31 Fungi Test Bank THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 71 terms Ch 28 campbell 8th edition 39 terms BIO II Chapter 28 52 terms Chapter 29 Practice 59 terms Chapter 30 Practice

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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 15 The Autonomic Nervous System FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Somatic Nervous System CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT includes both sensory and motor neurons CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 87 Terms in this set 87 Somatic Nervous System includes both sensory and motor neurons Autonomic Sensory Neurons this is the main input to the ANS Sensory input in the SNS from somatic senses and special senses Sensory input in ANS mainly from interoceptors some from somatic senses and special senses Control of motor output in SNS Voulntary control from cerebral cortex with contributions from basal ganglia cerebellum brain stem and spinal cord Control of motor output in ANS Involuntary control from hypothalamus limbic system brain stem and spinal cord limited control from cerebral cortex Motor neuron pathway in SNS One neuron pathwaySomatic motor neurons extending from CNS synapse directly with effector Motor neuron pathway in ANS Usually twoneuron pathway Preganglionic neurons extending from CNS synapse with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglion and postganglonic neurons extending from ganglion synapse with visceral effector Alternatively preganglionic neurons may extend from CNS to synapse with chromaffin cell of adrenal medullae Neurotransmitters and hormones in SNS All somatic motor neurons release only acetylcholine ACh Neurotransmitters and hormones in ANS All sympathetic and parasympathetic perganglionic neurons release ACh Most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release NE thise to most sweat gland release ACh All parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release ACh Chromaffin cells of adrenal medullae release epinephrine and norepinehrine Effectors in SNS Skeletal muscle Effectors in ANS Smooth muscle cardiac muscle and glands Responses in SNS Contraction of skeletal muscle Responses in ANS Contraction or relaxation of smooth muscle increased or decreased rate and force of contraction of cardiac muscle increased or decreased secretions of glands Autonomic Ganglia Two groups include sympathetic ganglia and parasympathetic ganglia Sympathetic Ganglia the sites of synapses between sympathetic preganglionic and postganglionic neurons The two major types of Sympathetic Ganglia Sympathetic trunk ganglia also called vertebral chain ganglia or paravertebral ganglia and prevertebral ganglia Sympathetic trunk ganglia Lie in a vertical row on either side of the vertebral column they extend from thr base of the skull to the coccyx Postganglonic axons from symapthetic trunk ganglia these primarly innervate organs above the diaphragm such as the head neck shoulders and heart Specific names of symapthetic trunk ganglia in the neck Superior Middle and Inferior cervical ganglia Prevertebral ganglia lies anterior to the vertebral column close to the large abdominal arteries Postganglonic axons from preverterbral ganglia these primarly innervate the organs below the diaphragm Five major preverterbral ganglia 1 Celiac ganglion on either side of the trunk and artery that is just inferior to the diaphragn 2 Superior mesenteric ganglion near the beginning of the superior mesenteric artery in the upper abdomen 3 Inferior mesenteric ganglion near the beginning of the inferior mesenteric artery in the middle of the abdomem 4 Aorticorenal ganglion 5 Renal ganglion these are near the renal artery of each kidney Terminal ganglia This is where preganglionic axons of the parasympatheic division synapse with postganglionic neurons Terminal ganglia of the head cilairy ganglion pterygoplatine ganglion submandibular ganglion and otic ganglion Parasympathetic preganglionic axons are long Parasympathetic postganglionic axons are short Oculomotor nerve III synapse at ciliary ganglion to the eyes smooth muscle and glands Facial nerve VII synapse at pterygopalatine goes to lacrmial gland and mucosus membrane of nose and palate smooth muscle and glands Facial nerve VII synapse at submandibular goes to parotid gland smooth muscle and gland Glossopharyngeal nerve IX synapse at otic ganglion goes to ear smooth muscle and gland Pelvic splanchnic nerves goes to ureter urinary bladder external genitals uterus smooth muscle and glands Axons leave the sympathetic trunk ganglion to visceral receptors in these four ways 1 they enter spinal nerves 2 they can form cephalic periarterial nerves 3 they can form sympathetic nerves 4 they can form splanchnic nerves Gray rami communicantes these are structures containing sympathetic postganglionic axons that connect the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerves Gray matter contains unmyelinated axons Cephalic Periaterial Nerves these nerves extend to the head by wrapping around and following the course of various arteries that pass from the neck to the head Sympathetic Nerves These nerves extend from the viscreal effectors in thoracic cavitythey provide innervation to the lungs and heart Splanchnic Nerves these nerves extend to the outlying prevertebral ganglia Greater splanchic nerve Preganglionic axons from the 5th to the 9th or 10th thoracic ganglia These are the splanchnic nerves to the abdominopelvic organs 1 Greater splanchic nerve 2 lesser splanchic nerve 3 least splanchic nerve 4 lumbar splanchic nerve Lesser splanchic nerve 1oth and 11th thoracic ganglia least splanchic nerve 12th thoracic ganglia not always present lumbar splanchic nerve 1st thru 4th lumbar ganglai These are the splanchnic nerves to the adrenal medulla chromaffin cells which release 80 epinephrine and 20 norepinephrine and trace amounts of doapmine The carinal parasympathetic outflow consists of preganglionic axons that extend from the brain stem in four crainal nerves The sacral parasympathetic outflow consists of preganglionic axons in anterior roots of the second through fourth sacral spinal nerves The four pairs of ganglia and the ganglia associated with the vagus X nerve are The ciliary ganglia the pterygopalatine ganglia the submandibular ganglia and the otic ganglia The cilary ganglia lies lateral to each optic II nerve near the posterior aspect of the orbit The ptergopalatine ganglia are located lateral to the sphenopalatine foramen between the sphenoid and palatine bones The submandibular ganglia are found near the ducts of the submandibular salivary glands The otic ganglia are situated just inferior to each foramen ovale Cholinergic neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine In the ANS the cholinergic neurons include 1 all symapthetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons 2 sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate most sweat glands 3 all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons Two types of cholinergic receptors are Nicotinic receptors and Muscarinic receptors Nicotinic receptors are present in plasma membrane of dendrites and cell bodies of both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons Muscarinic receptors are present in the plasma membranes of all effectors smooth muscles cardiac muscle and glands innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic axons Depolarization excitation Hyperpolarization inhibition Actylcholinesterase this quickly inactivates acetycholine causing effecst triggered by cholinergic neurons to be brief Adrenergic Neurons release norepinephrine NE also called noradrenalin Adrenergic receptors bind both norepinephrine and epinephrine alpha a receptors and beta B receptors two main types of adrenergic receptors alpha and beta receptors are found on visceral effectors innervated by most sympathetic postganglionic axons Activation of a1 and B1 receptors generally produces excitation Activation of a2 and B2 receptors cause inhibition of effector tissues B3 receptors are present only on cells of brown adipose tissue where activation causes thermogenesis CatecholOmethyltransferase COMT or monoamine oxidase this is when the activity of norepinephrine at synapse is terminated either when the NE is taken up by the axon that is released or when the NE is enzymatically inactivated adernergic neurons are longer lasting then those triggered by cholinergic neurons An agonist is a substance that binds to and activates to a receptor in the process of mimicking the effect of a natural neurotransmitter or hormone An antagonist ia a substance that binds to and blocks a receptor thereby preventing a natural neuortransmitter or hormone from exerting its effect atropine blocks Muscarinic ACh receptors dilates the pupils reduces glandular secretions and relaxes smooth muscle in the gastrointestional tract propranolol is a noselective beta blockerblocks actuvation by epinephrine and norepinephrine metopranolol is a specific beta blocker Autonomic tone is the balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic activity It is regulated by the hypothalamus The hypothalamus typically turns up symapthetic tone at the same time it turns down parasympathetic tone and vice versa During situations of stress the sympathetic division dominates the parasympathetic division E situations sympathetic responses exercise emergency excitement embarrassment Fight orflight response Activation of the sympathetic division and release of hormones by the adrenal medullae set in motion a collective series of physiological responses Fightorflight effects 1 pupils diated 2 heart rate force of heart contraction and blood pressure increases 3 airway dilate allowing faster movement of air into and out of the lungs 4 blood vessels constrict 5 liver cells perform glycogenolysis and adisope tissue cells perform lipolysis 6 increased glucose levels 7 things that are not helpful to the situation are inhibited effects of sympathetic stimulation are long lasting and more widespread than the effects of the parasympathetic stimulation Sympathetic stimulation is longing lasting and more widespread that parasympathetic stimulation because 1 sympathetic postganglionic axons diverge more extensively as a result many tissues are activated simultaneously 2 Acetylcholinesterase quickly inactivates acetylcholine but norepinephrine lingers in the synaptic cleft for a longer period 3 Epinephrine and norepinephrine secreted into the blood from the adrenal medullae intensify and prolong the responses caused by NE liberated from sympathetic postganglionic axons The parasympathetic division enhances restanddigest activities SLUDD salivation lacrimation urination digestion and defecation Three decreases of the parasympathetic division decrease heart rate decreased diameter of airway decreased diameter of pupils The major control and integration center of the ANS hypothalamus The hypothalamus receives sensory input related to visceral functions olfactions smell and gustation taste as well as changes in temperature osmolarity and levels of various substances in blood Anatomically the hypothalamus is connected to both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS by axons of neurons with dentrites snd cell bodies in various hypothalamic nuclei YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE A and P ch 14 93 terms Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 14 Anatomy 77 terms Chapter 15 Autonomic Nervous System THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 41 terms Chapter 15 AP 102 Chapter 1415 AP 102 44 terms Ch 15 Wiley Plus 41 terms Chapter 15 AP

O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Marketing Ch 1517 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Promotion is communication by marketers that informs persuades and reminds potential buyers of a product in order to influence their opinion or elicit a response CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT True CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 49 Promotion is communication by marketers that informs persuades and reminds potential buyers of a product in order to influence their opinion or elicit a response True The promotional mix is the combination of promotional tools used to reach the target market and fulfill the organizations overall goals True Advertising is impersonal oneway mass communication about a product or organization that is paid for by a marketer True AIDA is an acronym for attention interest desire and action True Promotion is communication by marketers that informs persuades and reminds potential buyers of a product in order to influence an opinion or elicit a response True This is the definition of promotion The main function of a promotional strategy is to convince the target customers that a firms products offer competitive advantages over those of its competition RATIONALE The function of a promotional strategy is to convince the target customers that the goods and services offered provide a competitive advantage over the competition A competitive advantage is defined as a unique aspect of an organization that causes target consumers to patronize that firm rather than competitors True RATIONALE This is the definition of competitive advantage The ads for Don Franciscos ground coffee simply state The highest quality coffee doesnt have to be expensive This is an example of how a product communicates its with promotion competitive advantage RATIONALE A competitive advantage is the unique set of features of a company and its products that are perceived by the target market as significant and superior to the competition It may be based on a scientific discovery but the company didnt create it by saying it Communication is the process by which we exchange or share meanings through a common set of symbols People also assign meanings to feelings ideas facts and attitudes True RATIONALE This describes communication The two major categories of communications are mass and interpersonal Communication to large audiences usually through a medium such as television or a newspaper is called MASS communication True This describes mass communication The SENDER is the originator of the message in the communication process True This is the definition of a sender For communication to be effective marketing managers must ensure a proper match between the message to be conveyed and the target markets attitudes and ideas Because marketers do not control consumers comments on social media sites such as Twitter and Facebook there is a chance that comments and postings will be negative What are the four basic tasks of promotion Informing persuading reminding and connecting The goal of persuasive promotion is to stimulate a purchase or an action Social media include all of the following EXCEPT a popup ad on the ESPN Web site RATIONALE A popup ad on a Web site would be classified as an advertisement not as social media The promotional mix consists of advertising public relations sales promotion personal selling and social media The marketing function that evaluates public attitudes identifies areas within the organization that the public may be interested in and executes a program of action to gain public understanding is called public relations SALES PROMOTION consists of all marketing activities that stimulate consumer purchasing such as coupons contests free samples and trade shows RATIONALE Sales promotions include free samples contests premiums trade shows vacation giveaways and coupons INTEGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATIONS is the careful coordination of all promotional activities to produce a consistent unified message that is customer focused PERSONAL SELLING is the most important element of the promotional mix would be most effective for helping highly involved consumers make complex buying decisions Procter Gamble uses centsoff campaigns couponing and free samples to increase sales of Tide detergent In other words it uses a PULL promotional strategy True RATIONALE A manufacturer using the pull strategy focuses its promotional efforts on the consumer The goal of competitive advertising is to influence demand for a specific brand True ADVERTISING is any form of impersonal sponsorpaid oneway mass communication Why do companies with new brands that have a small market share tend to spend proportionately more for advertising and sales promotions compared to those with a large market share for existing products WHY To achieve a certain minimum level of exposure to measurably affect purchase habits Unlike advertising that establishes or maintains a companys identity PRODUCT advertising touts the benefits of a specific good or service True This is the definition of product advertising A series of related advertisements focusing on a common theme slogan and set of advertising appeals is referred to as an advertising campaign An ADVERTISING OBJECTIVE is a specific communication task that a campaign should accomplish for a specified target audience during a specified period Before any creative work can begin on an advertising campaign it is important to determine what goals or objectives the advertising should achieve One method used for setting advertising objectives is the DAGMAR approach RATIONALE According to the DAGMAR approach all advertising objectives should precisely define the target audience the desired percentage change in some specified measure of effectiveness and the time frame in which that change is to occur DAGMAR is an acronym for Defining Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results A feature of a product is called an attribute A UNIQUE SELLING PROPOSITION is a desirable exclusive and believable advertising appeal selected as the theme for a campaign Television is an example of an advertising medium REACH measures the number of target consumers exposed to a commercial at least once during a specific period usually four weeks FREQUENCY is a measure of the number of times an individual is exposed to a brand message It is used to measure the intensity of a specific mediums coverage Advertisers use average frequency to measure the intensity of a specific mediumsCoverage With relationship selling the objective is to build longterm branded relationships with customers not just to sell products True Which of the following professions likely requires an individual to make sales a Salesperson b Chemist c Marketing manager d Engineer e All of the above ANSWER e Relationship selling is also called consultative selling Apple Inc has stores a Web site and a tollfree phone number where consumers can provide valuable information to the company in developing a CRM system All these possible areas of the company where consumers can communicate with the business are called touch points A DATA BASE allows marketers to track customers relationships to the companys products and services Walmart captures pointofsale transactions from thousands of stores in several countries and continuously transmits these data to its massive data warehouse Walmart allows more than 3500 suppliers to access data on their products and perform data analyses These suppliers use the data to identify customer buying patterns at the store level They use this information to manage local store inventory and identify new merchandising opportunities Both Walmart and its suppliers are engaged in data mining Many highend hotel chains award points for every dollar spent in one of their hotels Customers who earn a high number of points are given special privileges that may include upgraded hotel rooms or several free nights This is an example of the leveraging of customer information to retain loyal customers The first step in the selling process is generating leads When salespeople use price as their goto tool for negotiation they may inadvertently decrease the value of the product When a salesperson asks for the sale he or she is closing the sale Salespeople ensure that delivery schedules are met that the good or service performs as promised and that buyers are trained in the use of the product All of these functions are part of the final step in the selling process following up Generally speaking personal selling becomes more important as the number of potential customers _____ and as the value of the product _____ Decreases Grows YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 53 terms Chapter 6 Integrated Marketing Communications 65 terms chapter 14 integrated marketing communications 102 terms Marketing 3023 Chap 1819 20 mktg 409 ch 17 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 16 terms Pro Res Restrictions on Rights to Practice 10 terms Pro Res Chapter 11 35 terms Pro Res Chapter 1 9 terms Pro Res Safekeeping Client Funds and Other Property THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 133 terms Marketing Exam 3 25 terms Chapter 10 TF 20 terms Marketing 3305 Chapter 15 Quiz 18 terms Marketing 3305 Chapter 17 Quiz

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O O


HDFS 3240 Final Exam FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 85 Ageism Prejudice against old people American View of Aging Older Americans Denial Assisted Suicide Brain Research Causes of Older Adult Suicide Cellular Theory of Aging View that aging can be explained largely by changes in structure and function taking place in the cells of an organism Cohort Group Concepts Associated with WellBeing Wellness and Purpose CrossSectional Methodology Looking at more than one cohort at a time but at the same time in history So its like looking at a 8 10 20 and 50 year old all on 4 May 2015 Crystallized Intelligence Cumulative wisdom Current Cohorts of Aging Adults vs Aging Adults in Previous Centuries Today aging adults have more degrees more education and are retiring later They are also living longer than adults from the previous centuries De Beauvoir and Concepts of a Committed Justified Life Continuous activity towards new goals will give us meaning in life Dementia Disease Prevention Diseases Associated with Old Age Arthiritis Erikson Erikson and Kivnick and Recollection Vital Involvement Use old people for their potential and their capacities Fluid Intelligence Actual intelligence measurable perhaps by IQ tests and the sort Functional Age Age based on performance abilities such as strength mobility and mental capacity Gray Market Marketing to elders to that specific age group Life Expectancy How long youre projected to live Life Span How long you actually live Longitudinal ResearchDesign Following a certain group of people over a long period of time to see how theyve progressed MediCARE vs MediCAID Percentage of People in Nursing Homes 5 Productive Aging Are old people still working at the age of 65 Or are they being productive by staying with their job But look at the other side productivity can be generated through other things such as cleaning family care and more Its a matter of what theyre doing Retirement Rites of Passage Role of Religion and Spirituality in Aging People are more involved in personal religion during old age Seattle Longitudinal Study Silver Industries Industry that is projected to grow because of the increasing aging population such as vacation spots or services needed for old people Nice Page 500 Stages of Aging Understanding that were ALL aging Successful Aging Stereotypes of Aging Hayflick Limit Maximum number of cell divisions that normal cells undergo as typically measured in a laboratory dish Disengagement Theory Technology Theory Modernization Theory Continuity Theory Activity Theory When did the concept of aging emerge 1962 16th and 17th century An adult unlike a child is always presumed mentally competent until proven otherwise An adult is smart Complete cessation of sexual activity is most often a result of a decline in physical health among one or both partners Sex stops mostly because physically the parties cant do it anymore Risk factors of elder abuse psychopathology especially alcohol and substance abuse family history of violence social isolation and care giving burdens Elder abuse comes from a myriad of things Older adults make up around 13 of the US population but account for 16 of suicides Suicides amongst older adults 16 of US population Public concerns about assisted dying include the possibility of medical error the potential for abuse the roles played by financial interests in prolonging or shortening life and the possibility of a slippery slope down a path of moral decay Assisted dying is a touchy subject which can be swayed due to medical errors political or financial interests or a lack of morality over time tired of dealing with it States that have passed laws permitting physicianassisted dying OR WA VT and MT Oregon Washington Vermont and Montana permit physicianassisted dying Kass argues that defining categories of euthanizable people is not an easy and straightforward task Kass states that euthanasia is tough Kass argues that from the healthcare providers perspective the duty to make whole and to heal can never be compatible with intentionally killing their patient Kass believes that from a healthcare providers stance the idea to never do harm doesnt match up with killing a patient More than half of older people in the US depend on Social Security for more than 50 of their income 50 of older people depend on SS for 50 of their income Thurow states that reducing government support for older adults so that they must rely on more of their own resources may have result in the young may have to shoulder some of the costs of taking care of their parents and the federal government will raise taxes Reducing govt support means children will have to pitch in more as well as taxes rising According to Peterson population aging is occurring because of advances in medicine aging of the baby boomers and declining fertility rates Peterson believes that aging is due to medicine baby boomers finally reaching that point and less fertility Peterson projects that by the 2030s 50 of the adult population of the nations industrialized countries will have approached the eligibility age for publicly financed retirement Peterson believes that by 2030 half of the adult population will be able to retire with public help New Victim Blaming coined by Minkler leads to the notion that we must cut public resources to older adults to help younger people and avert conflict between generations Minkler coined New Victim Blaming This means that we should cut support for older people to help the younger people to even the scales Poverty rates among people ages 65 have been declining steadily since 1966 but poverty has not been erased among the aged Poverty has been slowly decreasaing since 1966 but its still evident Poverty rate is higher among children than older adults Children Older Adults in poverty stress The average condition of older Americans has improved markedly in recent decades when measured according to income health statusand educational level Income health and education level of older Americans has been getting better High poverty rate among younger generations is caused mainly by family structure unemployment and declining wages In similarity with children being in more poverty than old people the rate is due to family structure unemployment and declining wages Congress recognized that Social Security could no longer operate in the future as a purely payasyougo system in the 1980s Congress realized in the 1980s that SS doesnt work as a payasyougo IDK Y The most recent report from the Trustees of the Social Security System expect it to be able to pay full benefits until 2033 After that itll pay out 75 of benefits even if no change is made SS can pay out 100 until 2033 After that only 75 of benefits will be paid out The age of eligibility for FULL Social Security benefits was 65 but between 2002 and 2007 it rose to age 67 Past 65 Now 67 Sometime between EP32002 and Johns FA52007 was when it rose to 67 to receive full SS benefits Improvements in life expectancy increased earnings in inequality the generosity of benefits to the early beneficiaries contributes to the longterm deficit in Social Security Long term deficits in SS can be due to Longer living Increased earnings in inequality and the people who received more generosity in the beginning of the program To address the effect of earnings inequality on Social Security Diamond and Orszag propose which of the following solutions Raise the maximum taxable earnings base and reduce benefits for relatively high wage earners Diamond and Orszag believe that raising the maximum taxable salaries and reducing benefits for high wage earners can reduce inequality Ponnuru states that the major problem with Social Security is when benefits paid out begin to exceed revenues the government will have to find money to pay off the IOUs in the trust fund Ponnuru believes that the govt will have to find money to pay off IOUs in the SS trust fund or something Social Security was never intended to be the sole source of income for people in retirement SS was never supposed to be the only way old people made money Social Security has an embedded cost of living allowance COLA to counter inflation COLA Cost of Living Allowance This helps counter inflation Even though Social Security benefits are derived from taxation they are subject to taxation SS is subject to be taxed The baby bust generation does not have enough workers to contribute promised benefits to the baby boom generation upon its retirement Our generation doesnt have enough benefits to support the Boomers The Social Security tax is a heavier burden for people at the poverty level versus those earning more money SS tax is greater for people in poverty Ponnuru states that even if economic growth doubled Social Security would still become insolvent if nothing is done to change the programs benefit structure Ponnuru believes that even if our economy doubles SS still needs to change its benefit structure Thompson argues that the age increase from 65 to 67 in the Social Security program will cause more benefits to fall below minimally adequate levels of support Thompson believes that increasing the age from 65 to 67 for SS means more benefits will NOT meet living standards Between the 1950s and the 1990s the average age of retirement decreased Retirement lowered during 50s to 90s Mandatory retirement was abolished by law in 1986 1986 you dont HAVE to retire anymore During the 20th century free time increased in all of the following ways except through increased vacation time later entry into the workforce for the young and earlier retirement for the old Yep Prussian Chancellor Otto von Bismarck introduced age 65 as the basis for retirement pensions Productive Aging as defined by CaroBassChen includes paid employment volunteering and visiting with family and friends Yep Older Americans possess more time than other age groups Elders have more time After the recession in 2008 many people in their 50s and 60s began wondering if they would be able to afford to retire 2008 recession caused Boomers to reevaluate if they CAN retire A majority of workers in the US are NOT covered by pension plans Many workers DONT have pension plans Older workers have less absenteeism lower job turnover and a lower accident rate than younger workers Older workers are less absent stay at one job and have lower accidents than younger workers Retirement is NOT a onetime transition from fulltime work around the age of 65 Yep Research has demonstrated that retirement does not bring on bad health or death soon after leaving the work force Retirement doesnt cause bad health or death Boomers make up about 25 of the US population Boomers 25 of US In 2011 the oldest baby boomers turn age 65 2011 Boomers began retirementish at age of 65 Boomers were the first generation in American history where more than half achieved some level of higher education Half of all Boomers have higher education degrees first time ever When considering any cohort such as the boomers it is important to keep in mind not only age period and cohort effects but the impact of class ethnicity and gender as well in shaping individual experiences Yep Marketing to older consumers will be most successful if it uses models a bit older than the customers they are aiming at offering products that meet genuinely perceived needs Yep OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR HDFS 2100 Seepersad Final Exam 99 terms Combo with HDFS 3319 Final Exam 24 terms HDFS 3319 Final Exam 34 terms SOCI 3421 Final Exam

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