Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month True or False Mutations rarely involve base substitutions CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT True CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 52 Terms in this set 52 True or False Mutations rarely involve base substitutions True A frameshift mutation in a gene encoding a protein usually _____ results in the production of a nonfunctional peptide True or False In translation each amino acid is coded for by a single codon True The chemical 5bromouracil is a mutagen because it _____ is similar to thymine in structure but not basepairing ability Assume a cell is grown in a culture medium containing radioactively labeled thymidine After three cell divisions what percentage of the cells would contain the radioactive label 100 Both transcription and DNA replication involve _____ synthesis using a DNA template Auxotrophs _____________ will not grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor but will grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor The Ames test is used _____ to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic The following process is involved in the production of diphtheria toxin by C diphtheria or erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes specialized transduction To begin transcription the RNA polymerase binds a region on DNA known as the __________ promoter Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G how will this affect the polypeptide There will be no change in the polypeptide In prokaryotes translation of an mRNA molecule can begin before transcription of the mRNA molecule is completed True or False True True or False Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand True Most amino acids are encoded by several different codons This is referred to as the __________ of the genetic code degeneracy True or false Codons of mRNA temporarily bond to anticodons of tRNA during translation True Genes whose products are produced constantly are known as __________ genes constitutive True or false In E coli the presence of lactose is necessary and sufficient for induction of the lactoseutilization genes False Small stretches of DNA that can move within a genome are referred to as __________ trqansposons The transfer of genetic information between organisms through processes such as transduction or conjugation is called __________ gene transfer horizontal True or false Hfr cells transfer genes to recipient cells in a particular order True Are plasmids essential for the survival of the organism yes In transduction a virus is required for transfer of genetic material True or false True Conjugation does NOT require celltocell contact True or False False When a Hfr cell transfers to F cell it will yield a recombinant cell after mating True The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms upon which natural selection operates is __________ Mutation A bacterial plasmid carrying genes that determine resistance to antibiotics is called resistance R factor One of several human ironbinding proteisn that reduce iron available to a pathogen transferrin A sequence of three nucleotide in mRNA that specifies the insertion of an amino acid into a polypeptide codon One complete copy of the genetic information in a cell Genome A protein that binds to the operator site to prevent transcription repressor A short strand of RNA used to start synthesis fo the lagging strand of DNA and to start the polymerase chain reaction RNA primer The three nucleotides by which a tRNA recognizes an mRNA codon anticodon A molecule that binds to a repressor protein enabling the repressor to bind to an operator corepressor The process of joining pieces of DNA from different sources genetic recombination A mutation caused by the addition or deletion of one or more bases in DNA frameshift mutation A plasmid containing genes encoding production of enzymes that trigger the catabolism of certain unusual sugars and hydrocarbons dissimilation plasmid The transfer of bacterial chromosome fragments from one cell to another by a bacteriophage generalized transduction The process that turns on the transcription of a gene induction The process of identifying mutations by selecting cells that do no grow using replica plating negative selection A region in a eukaryotic gene that does not code for a protein or mRNA intron A mutant microorganism with a nutrional requirement that is absent in the parent auxotroph A mutation that results in the substitution of an amino acid in a protein missense Mutation Reduncancy of the genetic code that is most amino acids are encoded by several codon degeneracy During DNA replication the daughter strand that is synthesized continuously leading strand The process of transferring a piece of cell DNA adjacent to a prophage to another cell specialized transduction A codon that codes for an amino acid sense codon A method of inoculation a number of solid minimal culture media from an orginal plate to produce the same pattern of colonies on each plate replica plating An enzyme that attaches methyl groups to a molecule methylated cytosine is protected from digestion by restriction enzymes methylase A region of a eukaryotic chromosome that encodes a protein exon A bacterial cellin which the F factor has become integrated into the chromosome Hfr cell An antimicrobial peptide produced by bacteria that kills other bacteria bacteriocin A procedure for picking out mutant cells by growing them positive selection YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 62 terms Chapter 8 Genetics Test 3 189 terms Microbial Genetics Chapter 8 microbiology exam III 55 terms THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 230 terms Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics 76 terms Microbiology 210 Exam 3 Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics Microbiology Chapter 8 9 Microbial Genetics 34 terms Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O B I O O O O B I O O O O B I


M and F chapter 4 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month throughout their entire lives CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT According to the text human beings are sexual beings ______ CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 20 Terms in this set 20 throughout their entire lives According to the text human beings are sexual beings ______ a natural form of sexual expression Pediatric researchers have observed children between the ages of 2 and 5 engaging in rhythmic manipulation of their own genitals They consider this behavior risen A the age of puberty has declined the age of marriage has ______ sexual identity Jacob has partner of the opposite sex This behavior involves Jacobs heterosexual Jean is attracted only to opposite sex partners Jean is homosexual Richard is attracted to samesex partners Richard is bisexual Pauline is attracted to persons of either sex Pauline is pansexual ______ is an identity of someone who is attracted to various gender expressions including those outside the genderconforming binary childhood A sense of ones sexual identity begins is _____ conscious choice Asexuality differs from abstinence in that the latter is a _______ patriarchal In an ______ society sexuality is characterized by activities and beliefs developed to protect the male line of descent expressive Within the scope of _____ sexuality orgasm is important for women as well as for men and sex is not only or even primarily for reproduction but is an important mean of enhancing human intimacy true TF From childhood to old age people are sexual beings true TF More people selfidentify as gay or lesbian than have taken part in sexual behavior with someone of the same sex ignoring ones values The text highlights four sexual responsibilities which of the following is NOT one of these responsibilities not scientifically accurate The evidence indicates that abstinence only sex education programs are _____ sexual reproduction One of the most striking changes over the past several decades has been the emergence of ________ issues as political controversies false TF Sexual identity and gender identity are basically the same false TF Americans view gay couples as more loving than both heterosexual and lesbian couples true TF Making a stement such as Thats so gay is an example of micro aggression YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 33 terms 51 terms Chapter 4 Sociology Chapter 6 22 terms Sociology OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR CSD 201 chapter 12 quiz 27 terms CSD 201 chapter 11 quiz 19 terms CSD 201 Chapter 8 Quiz 29 terms CSD 201 chapter 9 quiz

B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


HES 2823 final FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The amount of a nutrient that should meet the needs of half of the healthy people in a particular group is the a EAREstimated Average Requirement b RDA Recommended Dietary Allowance c AIAdequate Intake d UL Tolerable Upper Intake Level CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a EAREstimated Average Requirement CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 143 The amount of a nutrient that should meet the needs of half of the healthy people in a particular group is the a EAREstimated Average Requirement b RDA Recommended Dietary Allowance c AIAdequate Intake d UL Tolerable Upper Intake Level a EAREstimated Average Requirement Which of the following statements is false a RDAs are standards for daily intakes of certain nutrients b RDAs meet the nutrient needs of nearly all Healthy people c RDAs contain a margin of safety d RDAs are required for nutrients d RDAs are required for nutrients The Estimated Energy Requirement a has a margin of safety b does not account for a persons height weight or physical activity level c is based on the average daily energy needs of a healthy person d reflects a persons actually daily energy needs c is based on the average daily energy needs of a healthy person A diet is likely to be safe and nutritionally adequate if a Average daily intakes for nutrients meet RDA or AI values b Intakes of various nutrients are consistently less than EAR amounts c Nutrient intakes are consistently above ULs d Vitamin supplements are included a Average daily intakes for nutrients meet RDA or AI values Nutritional standards such as RDAs are a used to develop formula food products b the basis for establishing DVs c used to evaluate the nutritional adequacy of diets d All of the above d All of the above Protein Rich food sources that also contain saturated fat and cholesterol include a peanut butter b dry beans c nuts d beef d beef Fruit is generally a good source of all of the following substances except a Fiber b Vitamin C c Phytochemicals d Protein d Protein Which of the following information is not provided by the nutrition facts table a percentage of calories from fat b amount of carbohydrate per serving c serving size d amount of trans fat per serving a percentage of calories from fat Daily values are a for people who consume 12001500 calorie diets b based on the lowest RDA or AI for each nutrient c Dietary standards developed for food labelling purposes d Used to evaluate the nutritional adequacy of a populations diet c Dietary standards developed for food labelling purposes according to MY plate which of the following foods is grouped with dairy products a eggs b yogurt c butter d sour cream b yogurt the new nutrition facts panel on a package of food must display amount of vitamin __ in a serving of food a D b C c A d E a D when consumed which of the following dietary supplements isnt likely to cause serious side effects a Pennyroyal b Flaxseed oil c Lobelia d Ma huang b Flaxseed Oil Tiny finger like projections of the small intestine that absorb nutrients are called a lumen b villi c duodenum d calculi b villi A Lacteal is a a lymph vessel within each villus b form of carbohydrate milk c muscular structure that regulates digestion in the large intestine d lymph vessel in a villus a lymph vessel within each villus Peristalsis a is a common intestinal infection b interferes with lipid absorption in the small intestine c stimulates red blood cell formation in bone marrows d helps move foodchyme through the digestive tract d helps move foodchyme through the digestive tract A ___ is a group of similar cells that perform similar functions a ribosome b tissue c cytoplasm d system b tissue which of the following organs isnt an accessory organ of the digestive system a stomach b pancreas c liver d gallbladder a stomach hydrochloric acid production occurs in the a mouth b stomach c small intestine d liver b stomach chemicals that help break down or make substances are called a enzymes b cells c capillaries d hormones a enzymes glands in the mouth secrete a saliva b hydrochloric acid c bile d hormones a saliva your cells use ___ as a source of direct energy a ATP b bile c amino acids d GERD a ATP which of the following practices increases the risk of peptic ulcers a chewing gum b smoking cigarettes c drinking milk d eating prebiotics b smoking cigarettes Which of the following substances is a disaccharide a fructose b glucose c galactose d lactose d lactose ___ is a primary fuel for muscles and other cells a glucose b glycerol c fructose d mannitoll a glucose which of the following substances is a polysaccharide a glucagon b starch c lactose d aspartame b starch dietary fiber a is a source of energy for bacteria in the large intestine b is digested by enzymes produced by the human intestinal tract c promotes tooth decay d is only in animal sources of food a is a source of energy for bacteria in the large intestine dietary fiber is a in beef and pork b the primary carbohydrate in dairy foods c needed for good bowel health d an essential nutrient c needed for good bowel health which of the following substances is the hormone that enables glucose to enter cells a glucagon b adrenaline c glycerol d insulin d insulin the primary sources of added sugars in the typical american diet are a candies b sugar sweetened soft drinks c refined cereals d baked beans b sugar sweetened soft drinks type 1 diabetes is a a disease the primarily affects elderly people b characterized by severe hypoglycemia c often associated with excess body weight d an autoimmune disease d an autoimmune disease which of the following signs is associated with metabolic syndrome a high blood pressure b hypoglycemia c low hemoglobin d high fasting HDL cholesterol a high blood pressure which of the following substance is an enzyme that breaks down lactose a galactose b hydrochloric acid c lactase d lactic acid c lactase fats in foods a contribute to 7kcal per gram b are digested and absorbed in the stomach c help the body absorb fatsoluble vitamins d need to be limited to less than 20 of total kcal to have a healthful diet c help the body absorb fatsoluble vitamins liquid fats generally have a high proportion of __ fatty acids a unsaturated b saturated c trans d partially hydrogenated a unsaturated a monounsaturated fatty acid has a one double bond within the carbon chain b two double bonds within the carbon chain c no double bond within the carbon chain d three double bond within the carbon chain a one double bond within the carbon chain which of the following statements is true a walnuts are a rich source of PHOs b omega 3 fatty acids decrease the risk of cardiovascular disease c trans fats are rich sources of omega 3 fatty acids d the human body converts dietary fiber into omega 3 fatty acids b omega 3 fatty acids decrease the risk of cardiovascular disease fatty fish a contain too much methylmercury to be eaten b should be eaten daily according to the Dietary Guidelines c are not sources of cholesterol d are sources of omega 3 fatty acids d are sources of omega 3 fatty acids cholesterol is a metabolized for energy b found only in animal foods c not made by the human body d harmful to health b found only in animal foods the primary site of fat digestion and absorption is the a stomach b liver c small intestine d gallbladder c small intestine lipoproteins a are made in the kidneys b transport fat and cholesterol in the bloodstream c contain oxidized glucose d are toxic to cells b transport fat and cholesterol in the bloodstream major risk factors for atherosclerosis include a educational background b occupation c income d physical inactivity d physical inactivity atherosclerosis contributes to a dental decay b type 2 diabetes c gallbladder disease d cardiovascular disease d cardiovascular disease which of the following nutrients has nitrogen in its chemical structure a protein b cholesterol c glucose d glycogen a protein which of the following statements is false a proteins are the building blocks of triglycerides b nearly all enzymes are proteins c cells use amino acids to make proteins d the body uses amino acids to make antibodies a proteins are the building blocks of triglycerides which of the following foods generally provides the least amount of protein per serving a sunflower seeds b fat free milk c almonds d apples d apples which of the following foods is not a source of complete protein a milk b broccoli c fish d eggs b broccoli whats the RDA for protein of a healthy adult woman who weights 71kg a 368 g b 468 g c 568 g d 668 g c 568 g which of the following foods isnt a source of complementary protein a red beans and rice b macaroni and cheese c soy nut butter on a bagel d split pea soup with noodles b macaroni and cheese a person following a lactoovovegetarian diet wouldnt eat a eggs b cheese c nuts d fish d fish which of the following nutrients is most likely to be lack in vegans diet a magnesium b folate c calcium d vitamin C c calcium people with celiac disease should a take amino acid supplements b limit their protein intake to 20 g per day c avoid food that contain gluten d eliminate protein from plant sources c avoid food that contain gluten which of the following substances is needed to digest proteins a bile b pepsin c sucrase d alanine b pepsin amino acids can bind together to form a polypeptides b triglycerides c ketones d starches a polypeptides Annie experiences diarrhea and abdominal discomfort a few hours after she wheat bread barley cereal and rye cracked based on this information she should obtain medical testing that can diagnose a lactose intolerance b gallstones c PEM d celiac disease d celiac disease vitamin toxicities generally occur as a result of a taking a megadose of dietary supplements b consuming a wide variety of foods c eating enriched breads and cereal products d having diseases that interfere with intestinal absorption a taking a megadose of dietary supplements vitamins a dont provide any calories b occur in gram amounts in food c arent organic molecules d are macronutrients a dont provide any calories people who are unable to absorb fat are likely to develop a ___ deficiency a b12 b folate c vitamin D d riboflavin c vitamin D enriched grain products have specific amounts of ___ aded during processing a pantothenic acid b riboflavin c biotin d vitamin D b riboflavin which of the following foods is not a rich source of provitamin A a green beans b carrots c chicken d sweet potato c chicken during pregnancy excess ___ intake is known to be teratogenic a pantothenic acid b vitamin A c vitamin K d choline b vitamin A vitamin K can be produced by a skin exposure to ultraviolet radiation b hydrolysis of seawater c red blood cells synthesis d intestinal bacteria d intestinal bacteria to reduce the likelihood of giving birth to babies with neural tube defects women of childbearing age should obtain adequate a vitamin K b boitin c folic acid d niacin c folic acid major food sources of vitamin b12 include a enriched grain products b meat and dairy products c fruit and vegetables d nuts and seeds b meat and dairy products which of the following statements is true a the stomach can easily absorb b12 b b12 deficiency is common among older adults c patients with pernicious anemia are treated with a high dose of folic acid d vitamin b12 is absorbed in the lower segments of the large intestine b b12 deficiency is common among older adults which of the following foods is a rich source of Vitamin C a whole milk b egg white c guava d egg yolk c guava which of the following practices may reduce your risk of cancer a consuming salted fish b eating grilled meats regularly c smoking no more than 10 cigarettes daily d eating fruits and vegetables d eating fruits and vegetables If the extracellular fluid has an excess of sodium ions a sodium ions move into cells b the intracellular fluid moves to the outside of cells c phosphate and calcium ions are eliminated in feces d blood levels or arsenic and oxalate increase c phosphate and calcium ions are eliminated in feces Which of the following statements is false a lean tissue contains more water than fat tissue b water is a major solvent c generally young women have more body water than young men d water does not provide energy b water is a major solvent Which of the following has the lowest percentage of water a tomato b orange c whole grain bread d vegetable oil d vegetable oil In the US table salt is fortified with a iron b selenium c potassium d iodide d iodide Which of the following foods is not a good source of calcium a butter b cheddar cheese c canned sardines d kale a butter Henry is concerned about his risk of osteoporosis Which of the following characteristics is a known risk factor for this chronic condition a occupation b racialethnic background c vitamin b12 intake d iron exposure b racialethnic background The primary source of sodium in the typical Americans diet is a bottles water b processed foods c fresh fruit d milk b processed foods Which of the following populations has the highest risk of hypertension a people with African ancestry b young physically active Asian men c Hispanic women who do not drink alcohol d young adults who consume high amounts of fruit a people with African ancestry Sources of heme iron include a fortified grain products b beef c spinach d castiron cookware b beef in the US the most common nutrient deficiency disorder is ___ deficiency a iodide b cobalt c iron d calcium c iron cretinism is caused by a deficiency of ___ during pregnancy a iron b sodium c copper d iodine d iodine which of the following statements is true a safety standards for bottles water are similar to those of tap water b most brands of water bottles in the US contain unsafe amount of arsenic and lead c the EPA inspects and certifies water bottling facilities at least three times a year d the majority of americans should drink bottled water because water from municipal systems is unsafe a safety standards for bottles water are similar to those of tap water many americans have low intakes of a potassium b chloride c phosphorus d manganese a potassium ____ fat is in a layer under the skin a subcutaneous b visceral c cellulite d metabolic a subcutaneous basal metabolism includes energy needs for a breathing and circulating blood b performing physical activity c digesting food d absorbing nutrients a breathing and circulating blood which of the following statements is true a women generally have higher metabolic rates than men b thyroid hormone levels influence the metabolic rate c a person who has more muscle mass will have a lower metabolic rate than someone with less muscle tissue d when your thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone your metabolic rate drops below normal b thyroid hormone levels influence the metabolic rate a negative energy state occurs when a your body needs more calories than the diet supplies b fat storage in your body increases c your energy intake is high than your energy output d the thermic effect of your body equals NEAT a your body needs more calories than the diet supplies ___is a hormone that reduces hunger and inhibits fat storage in your body a glucosamine b leptin c ghrelin d creatine b leptin members of the national weight control registry tend to a weight themselves once a month b follow low carb high protein diets c exercise 23 times a week d eat breakfast d eat breakfast Josephs BMI is 23 when hes under a lot of stress he eats a large amount of cookies and ice cream soon after eating these foods he goes to the bathroom and makes himself vomit Joseph probably has a glycogen storage disease b anorexia nervosa c cystic fibrosis d bulimia nervosa d bulimia nervosa miranda is physically fit based on this she has a an increased risk of osteoporosis b the strength endurance and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living c a greater need for vitamins and minerals than other women d more muscle and less bone tissue than other women who are her age b the strength endurance and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living aerobic activities a enables muscles to use less oxygen than normal b do not requires voluntary muscle contractions c force muscle cells to use more vitamins and minerals for energy d involve sustained rhythmic contractions of certain large skeletal muscles d involve sustained rhythmic contractions of certain large skeletal muscles which of the following statements is true a resistance exercises dont help build bone mass b sedentary activities dont require much energy to perform c healthy adults should obtain at lease one hour of vigorous intensity activity daily d older adults can reduce their metabolic rates by exercising regularly b sedentary activities dont require much energy to perform amy is studying quietly under these conditions her muscles are using primarily ___ for energy a fat b glucose c amino acids d ketone bodies a fat which of the following beverages is a common source of caffeine a mineral water b iced tea c lite beer d orange drink b iced tea under aerobic condition cells break down glucose to form a carbon dioxide and water b nitrogen and DNA c betacarotene and vitamin b6 d sodium and ATP a carbon dioxide and water ____ is an immediate and direct source of energy for cells a DNA b Glycogen c ATP d phospholipid c ATP the embryofetus develops most of its organs during the a preconception period b first trimester c second trimester d third trimester b first trimester preeclampsia is a form of ___ than can develop during pregnancy a hypertension b diabetes c hypertriglyceridemia d anemia a hypertension a healthy infant who weighs 65 pounds at birth can be expected to weight ___ pounds by her first birthday a 13 b 165 c 195 d 235 c 195 breastfed infants are ___ than babes who are fed infant formula a more likely to have diarrhea b less likely to have sickle cell disease c more likely to have respiratory infections d less likely to have ear infections d less likely to have ear infections which of the following factors can influence an older adults nutritional status a illnesses b medications c income level d all the above are correct d all the above are correct food borne illnesses are usually characterized by a flu like signs and symptoms b coughing sneezing and respiratory inflammation c megaloblastic anemia and nervous system defects d abdominal cramps diarrhea vomiting d abdominal cramps diarrhea vomiting which of the following practices doesnt help reduce the growth of food borne pathogens a washing hands before preparing foods b keeping cold foods cold and hot foods hot c cooking foods to proper internal temperatures d storing cooked meat at room temperature d storing cooked meat at room temperature which os the following temperatures is recommended for storing chilled foods in a refrigerator a 40 F b 50 F c 60 F d 70 F a 40 F the ___ program enables eligible low income participants to use a special debit card to purchase food at authorized stores a nutritious food purchase b supplemental nutrition assistance c healthy diets for all d eat better for less b supplemental nutrition assistance which of the following actions is not a solution to the problems created by conventional agricultural methods a cut down tropical forest to make way for farmland b improve crop yields through biotechnological advancements c use integrated pest management methods d eat less red meat a cut down tropical forest to make way for farmland Kevin was a participant in a clinical study to determine how much niacin cures pellagra the niacin deficiency disease During the study he consumed only a formula diet that was deficient in niacin After developing pellagra he was given 2 mg of niacin a day for 2 weeks but he still suffered from the disease so the scientists added 2 mg of the vitamin to Kevins formula By the beginning of the 5th week of the study the researchers noticed that Kevins signs and symptoms were greatly improved At the end of the 5th week he was feeling fine The a Kevins niacin requirement was about 4 mg a day b the RDA for niacin should be 4 mg c the AI for niacin should be 4 mg plus 60 mg as a margin of safety d Kevins daily value for niacin was 4 mg a day A Kevins niacin requirement was about 4 mg a day Which of the following groups of foods is not a major food group of MyPlate a dairy b grains c oils d protein foods c oils According to MyPlate Felicia should consume 2 cups of fruit daily How much 100 orange juice should consume to replace 1 cup of applesauce a cup b 1 cup c 2 cups d 2 cups b 1 cup Which of the following dietary supplements is an herbal product that is highly toxic or contains cancercausing material a ma huang b fish oil c garlic d green tea a ma huang The _____ is an accessory organ that stores bile a appendix b jejunum c liver d gallbladder d gallbladder Which of the following statements is true a Acid reflux often results when the gastroesophageal sphincter fails to close properly b A thin layer of chyme protects the lining of the digestive tract from being broken down by enzymes c Hydrochloric acid HCl begins the partial digestion of fats in the small intestine d The body needs more time to digest a highcarbohydrate meal than a highfat meal a Acid reflux often results when the gastroesophageal sphincter fails to close properly Which of the following statements is true a Your cells require sunlight to produce optimal amounts of ATP b When oxygen is not available your cells rely on anaerobic metabolic pathways to make ATP c As a result of aerobic metabolic pathways your cells release oxygen and carbon monoxide d Your cells make more ATP under anaerobic than aerobic conditions b When oxygen is not available your cells rely on anaerobic metabolic pathways to make ATP The three most important dietary monosaccharides for humans are a glucose galactose and sucrose b fructose lactose and levulose c galactose glucose and fructose d maltose lactose and galactose c galactose glucose and fructose Which of the following statements is true a Sucrose supplies more energy gram per gram than starch b Sucrose causes hyperactivity in children c Sucrose is comprised of glucose and fructose d Sucrose is a direct source of energy for cells c Sucrose is comprised of glucose and fructose Duncans diet contains high amounts of protein and fat but it is very low in carbohydrate As a result of following this diet Duncans body forms more than normal amounts of a ketone bodies b glycogen stores c muscle fibers d beta cells a ketone bodies Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index 70 or more a corn flakes cereal b raw carrots c fatfree milk d raw apple a corn flakes cereal A scientist has isolated a fatty acid that has 26 carbons bonded together All of the carbon atoms in the chain are connected by single bonds Based on this information the compound is a an _____ fatty acid a polyunsaturated b monounsaturated c saturated d essential c saturated When she prepares food Felicia wants to use a product that is a rich source of unsaturated fat Based on this information which of the following fats should she select a unsalted butter b cream cheese c olive oil d coconut oil c olive oil Which of the following foods naturally contains cholesterol a broccoli b peanuts c oranges d chicken d chicken Which of the following substances carries cholesterol away from tissues a LDL b HDL c insoluble fiber d trans fat b HDL Proteins a are comprised of glucose molecules b have nitrogen in their chemical structures c provide about 7 kcalgram d are essential nutrients that have a variety of functions b have nitrogen in their chemical structures Which of the following substances participates in the digestion of proteins a amylase b lipase c pepsin d bile c pepsin Which of the following foods is a legume a soybeans b broccoli c apples d quinoa a soybeans _____ are watersoluble vitamins a Niacin riboflavin and thiamin b Vitamins K D and E c Pantothenic acid vitamin A and choline d Vitamins B12 B6 and E a Niacin riboflavin and thiamin In the body vitamin A helps a reduce collagen synthesis b insulin enter cells c maintain epithelial cells d the small intestine absorb calcium and phosphorus c maintain epithelial cells In the United States newborns receive an injection of _____ to prevent _____ a vitamin K bleeding b vitamin C collagen breakdown c niacin pellagra d thiamin beriberi a vitamin K bleeding Which of the following groups of minerals are major minerals a sodium potassium and phosphorus b calcium zinc and sodium c sodium copper and potassium d selenium calcium and phosphorus a sodium potassium and phosphorus Which of the following substances is a mild diuretic a iron b phenylalanine c caffeine d vitamin A c caffeine Yesterday Jenny ran in a marathon race While she ran she drank several large cups of water at water stations along the race course At the end of the race she experienced difficulty making it to the finish line She was confused and she complained of having a headache and feeling dizzy Based on this information Jenny was probably suffering from a brain cancer b water intoxication c heat cramps d kidney failure b water intoxication Which of the following minerals is necessary for proper muscle contraction a aluminum b cesium c selenium d calcium d calcium Osteoporosis is characterized by a defective collagen production b destruction of epithelial cells c loss of bone mass d immature red blood cells that lack hemoglobin c loss of bone mass ______ helps the body maintain normal fluid balance a Potassium b Iron c Fluoride d Copper a Potassium For the past 4 years 23yearold Maggie has been losing a lot of blood during her menstrual periods Based on this information which of the following conditions is she most likely to develop a osteoporosis b cretinism c goiter d iron deficiency d iron deficiency Which of the following groups of people has the highest risk of magnesium deficiency a teenage boys b older adults c female athletes d vegetarians b older adults Which of the following foods contains the most copper per serving a liver b sunflower seeds c baked beans d cashews liver Women who are trying to become pregnant or are pregnant should a limit their alcohol consumption to beer b mix distilled alcohol with fruit juice before consuming it c avoid all forms of alcohol d drink alcohol only with meals c avoid all forms of alcohol Tamara is a 19yearold female college student Her percentage of body fat is 8 Which of the following statements about Tamara is true a Tamara is lean and has a healthy percentage of body fat for a young woman b Tamaras body has too much fat c Tamaras percentage of body fat is acceptable if her body water content is higher than average d Tamaras percentage of body fat is too low d Tamaras percentage of body fat is too low People with centralbody obesity are more likely to develop _____ than people who do not have excess fat in the midsection of their bodies a irondeficiency anemia b type 2 diabetes c elevated HDL cholesterol d beriberi b type 2 diabetes Freds BMI is 324 his waist circumference is 44 inches and his hip circumference is 40 inches Based on this information his body fat distribution is associated with a high risk of a pernicious anemia b elevated HDL cholesterol c cardiovascular disease d ulcerative colitis cardiovascular disease Lesters BMI is 323 According to his food records he consumes an average of 3600 kcalday He would like to lose 8 pounds in 4 weeks by reducing his caloric intake Based on this information Lester should consume an average of _____ kcalday a 1600 b 2600 c 3600 d 4600 b 2600 In their efforts to avoid regaining the weight they have lost members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to a eat breakfast regularly b exercise for at least 30 minutes daily c weigh themselves only once a month d eat a highprotein lowcarbohydrate diet a eat breakfast regularly During a dental examination the dentist notices that the enamel on the back sides of Andrews teeth has eroded and some of the teeth are decaying Based on this information the dentist suspects that Andrew a has a vitamin D deficiency disorder b frequently makes himself vomit after purging c is not brushing his teeth regularly d eats foods that contain too much dietary fiber b frequently makes himself vomit after purging Which of the following substances can be metabolized for ATP production a glucose b vitamin C c iron d insulin a glucose An athlete who wants to replenish his or her glycogen stores quickly after performing vigorous physical activity should consume a raw eggs b protein supplements c frozen yogurt d sports drinks d sports drinks A core characteristic of all eating disorders is a binging b selfstarvation c it is a coping mechanism d dramatic weight loss c it is a coping mechanism YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Nutrition NASM FNS 213 terms FSHN Final Exam IPHY 2420 Final OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 123 terms MKT nath exam 3 49 terms HR Dr Long midterm 28 terms MUNM final 149 terms B C final THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 258 terms HES 2823 final exam 21 terms Lipids 140 terms HES 2823 Final Exam Preparation CHOs Fats Lipids 49 terms Nutrition Unit 9

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 11 Development Adolescence Kohlberg Erikson FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Puberty CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Described as the stage at which people become physically capable of reproducing CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 21 Terms in this set 21 Puberty Described as the stage at which people become physically capable of reproducing Secondary sex characteristics Primary sex characteristics Best described as physical characteristics that differentiate men and women but are not directly involved in reproduction whereas the development of are changes in sex organs that are directly involved in reproduction Breast development Which of the following physical changes that occur during puberty is described as a secondary sex characteristic Enlarged uterus Of the following changes Fiona experienced during puberty which is described as a secondary sex characteristic Between twelve and thirteen years of age If Paige is like the average American girl when is she likely to have her first period David Elkind Who identified and termed adolescent egocentrism Imaginary audience Fifteenyearold Mareek believes that other people are as interested in him as he is His belief describes which of the following aspects of adolescent cognitive development Egocentrism Imaginary audience and personal fable are the components that describe which aspect of adolescent thinking Moral Lawrence Kohlberg was interested which aspect of development Asking people to respond to moral dilemmas Kohlberg studied moral development by Three Preconventional conventional postconventional Kohlbergs theory of moral development has levels and they are called preconventional harold says that hitting his siter is wrong because he will be punished if he does Harolds reasoning represents which level of moral development Conventional Suzette explains that she drives the speed limit because its the law her reasoning represents which level of moral development following an underlying set of selfchosen abstract ethical principles the highest level of moral according to johlberg involves Postconventional A medical doctor believes that terminally ill people have the right to control the time and circumstance of their death This thought benfits which moral reasoning preconventional Eddie sees the two boys sitting in front of him in geometry class cheating on the final exam by sharing their results He decides to tell the teacher because he thinks that getting on the teachers good side might mean a better grade This is an example of which level of moral reasoning Erickson the term identity crisis was coined by Heinz would be morally wrong not to steal the drug because it would violate his belief in the absolute value of human life Which of the following answers to the Heinz dilemma best describes postconventional moral reading Identity crisis the stressful time of soul searching and selfexamination role diffusion Paula has recently dropped out of high school She is not sure where she is headed in life but school isnt an option She started hanging around people who drank this is an example of Harriet faces the psychosocial challenge of developing a sense of independence and selfcontrol In Ericksons view

O O O B B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Final for med law FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month EMR CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Electronic medical records CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 81 Terms in this set 81 EMR Electronic medical records Falsification of records Grounds of criminal indicment timelines no late entries on medical chart credible reliable disclosed made known PHI individually identifiable information HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability act of 1996 clearing house a billing service privacy rule all covered entities must be in compliance telemedicine use of information technologies to treat people at a distance Medical record entries should be made as soon as possible When correcting a written medical record one should draw a line through the error write the correction above the error and initial the change The records of all adult patients with the possible exception of Medicare and Medicaid patients should be kept a minimum of 10 years The medical record is legally owned by the physician Medicare and Medicaid records should be retained for 10 years Covered entities include all the following except police departments When patient information is requested via a subpoena you must provide all PHI that is requested in the subpoena A violation of HIPPA is a criminal offense Patients rights under HIPPA include the ability to examine their medical records have a full copy of their medical records complain to the HHS if they believe there is a violation of privacy What is the doctrine of professional discretion physician may determine if a patient should view hes or her medical record if they are mentally or emotionally stable What are some precautions to follow when using electronic medical records Key in all information correctly Make sure a firewall is on the computer Make sure a password is on the computer to lock it Explain the quote from justice Brandeis found in chapter 10 relating to our right to privacy Most fundamental and important right we have as individuals to have rights a patients Discrimination unfair treatment Coroner Public health official who investigates cause of death Public duty report child abuse ADA Americans with Disabilities ACT of 1990 just cause having legal reason Inquest investigation to determine cause of death Schedule III durgs are allowed only five refills during a sixmonth period The best method to waste or destroy a narcotic is to flush it down the toilet only if instructed to do so on the packaging The Controlled Substances Act is also know as the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act An EAP program may help an employee cope with Marital problems alcoholism and drug abuse A coroner does not have to sign a death certificate in the case of death of an elderly person over the age of 90 The Occupational Safety and Health Act OSHA developed standards in 1991 stating that infectious materials include all of the following except amniotic fluid cerebral spinal fluid any unidentified body fluid saliva in dental procedures All of the above are included under OSHA When using a collecion agency to collect outstanding debts unpaid bills from a patient review the delinquent account with the physician or office manager before turning over the account to the angency Title VII of the Civil Tights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination based on color race and national origin What is the potential legal charge for a person who fails to report child abuse Revoked of linceses Violations of laws relating to controlled substances can result in what types of legal action Lose of job and or jail time What can medical office personnel do to assist the physician in maintaining compliance with the Controlled Substances Act They should lock up the controlled substances meds as well as the prescription pad or keep the prescription pad on them at all times As a healthcare worker is it legal for your employer to ask you to provide a urine sample for a drug test Why or why not yes itss legal because of the durg free workplace act of 1988 an employee has to provide a urine sample for being hired rehired and or random Derelection neglect Misfeasance improper doing of a lawful act Beneficence principle of doing good Proximate direct cause of injury Medical ethics moral conduct to regulate behavior of medical professionals Tort law that covers harm to another person subpoena order for a person or documents to appear in court Minor person under 18 years of age Statute of limitations period of time that a patient has to file a lawsuite good Samaritan law law to protect the healthcare professional Implied consent consent granted by inference Reciprocity one state granting a license to a physician in another state Abandonment withdrawing medical care without notice Medicare financial assistace for the elderly Medicaid financial assistance for the indigent Discovery rule begins at the time the injury is noticed or should have been noticed Nonfeasance failure to perform a necessary action Informed consent Knowledgeable conset LPN Licences practical nurse NP nurse practiner MD Doctor of Medicine DO Doctor of osteyopathy CMA Certified medical assistant PA physician assistant The three step approach to solving ethical dilemmas is based on asking ourselves if the intended action is legal asking ourselves how our decision would make us feel if we had to explain our action to a loved one asking ourselves if the intended action results in a balanced decision An illegal act is almost always unethical Standard of care refers to the care that is ordinary car a reasonable person would use healthcare professionals in all specialties must practice a prudent person would use The person that brings the action into litigation is called an plaintiff Patients rights to have their personal privacy respected and their medical records handled with confidentiality is covered in the Medical Patients Rights Act The prudent rule refers to the information that a reasonable patient would need Both physicians and employees are operate under a standard of care liable in a lawsuit must be trained to perform a procedure before attempting it This federal legislation provides healthcare for indigent persons and is administered by individual states Medicaid A newspaper reporter seeks information from a receptionist about a prominent personality who has been hospitalized What information can be given o the reporter None The physicians rights include a right to decline to treat a new patient The patients obligations include following treatment recommendations honesty about past medical history payment for medical services Carl Simon a pharmacy technician fills a prescription for Coumadin a blood thinning agent for Beth White He hands Beth the prescription without giving her any instructions Beth has been taking large doses of aspirin for arthritis The aspirin and Coumadin cause excessive bleeding when Beth takes them together What is the legal term to describe a potential liability that Carl may have committed nonfeasance A phlebotomist draws blood from Sam Fords right arm Sam experiences pain and numbness in that arm immediately after the blood is drawn This is an example of what legal doctrine Proximate cause A 4 year old child opens his mouth for the physician to examine his throat In your opinion has the child granted consent No the Child is a minor why does a patient need to know the consequences of NOT having a procedure or treatment It is very important for the patient to know about not having a procedure done The patient also has a right to decline after they get informed from the information for a procedure also for religious reasons as well Explain the purpose of the conscience clause a healthcare professional can withdraw from a procedure for virious reasons including for religious reasons Discuss the difference between comparative negligence and contributory negligence Plaintiff is not fully but partially infvolfed YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Chapter 2 Law and Ethics 92 terms Chapter 2 Law and Ethics 86 terms More Final Exam Study Legal Aspects of Healthcare 328 terms Medical Law and Ethics Chapter 58 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 101 terms Chapter 4 50 terms Medical Law Ethics Test 21414 Patient Confidentiality HIPPA 13 terms Fraud Exam Chapter 14 Multiple Choice

B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Info Sec Ch 4 quiz FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month defense in depth CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT A strategy for the protection of information assets that use multiple layers and different types of controls managerial operational and technical to provide optimal protection CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 10 Terms in this set 10 defense in depth A strategy for the protection of information assets that use multiple layers and different types of controls managerial operational and technical to provide optimal protection EISP The highlevel information security policy that sets the strategic direction scope and tone for all of an organizations security efforts Database shadowing duplicate data in realtime data storage but does not back up the data bases at the remote site False A policy should state that if employees violate a company policy or any law using company technologies the company will protect them and the company is liable for the employees actions True De jure standards Standard maybe published scrutinized and ratified by a group To remain viable security policies must have a responsible individual a schedule of reviews a method for making recommendations for reviews and a policy issuance and planned revision date True The security education training and awareness SETA program Control measure designed to reduce the instances of accidental security breaches by employees Damage assessment The rapid determination of the scope of the breach of the confidentiality integrity and availability of information and information assets during or just following an incident A disaster recovery plan is a plan that shows the organizations intended efforts to restore operations at the original site in the aftermath of a disaster True Alert roster A document containing contact information for the people to be notified in the event of an incident YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Planning for Security Ch 4 Cybersecurity Ch 4 Key Terms 141 terms Chapter 3 4 5 86 terms Ch 4 Set

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


BLAW chapter 38 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month LLC CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a hybrid form that combines the limited liability aspects of the corporation and the tax advantages of a partnership governed by state statutes any unincorporated business with more than one owner is automatically taxed as a partnership unless it indicates otherwise on its tax form CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 16 Terms in this set 16 LLC a hybrid form that combines the limited liability aspects of the corporation and the tax advantages of a partnership governed by state statutes any unincorporated business with more than one owner is automatically taxed as a partnership unless it indicates otherwise on its tax form nature of llc must be formed and operated in compliance with state law owners of LLC are called members if LLC is sued for wrongful discharge its individual members managers and agents can not be held liable based solely on their status in the LLC LLCs are legal entities apart from their owners as a legal person the LLC can sue or be sued enter into contracts and hold title to property formation of the llc articles of organization must be filed with a central state agency typically the articles are required to include 1 the name of the business 2 its principal address 3 the name and address of a registered agent 4 the names of the owners 5 and information on how the LLC will be managed jurisdictional requirements state citizenship of an LLC may come into play when a party sues the LLC based on the diversity of citizenship a federal court can exercise diversity jurisdiction if total diversity of citizenship LLCS are considered to be a resident in the state formed and whoever the members live operating agreement how members of an LLC can decide how to operate the various aspects of the business typically contain provisions relating to management how profits will be divided the transfer of membership interests whether the LLC will be dissolved on the death or departure of a member and other important issues written agreement is preferred but not required partnership law may apply when an issue such as the authority of individual members is not covered by an operating agreement or by an LLC statute the courts often apply principles of partnership law management of LLC LLC members have two options for managing the firm 1 membermanaged 2 managermanaged most states if articles of organization dont specify an LLC is assumed to be member managed membermanaged all of the members participate in management and decisions are made my majority vote managermanaged members designate a group of persons to manage the firm the management group may consist of only members both members and nonmembers or only nonmembers dissolution any member who did not wrongfully dissociate may participate in the winding up special business forms 1 joint venture 2 syndicate 3 joint stock company 4 business trust 5 cooperative joint venture relationship in which two or more persons or business entities combine their efforts or their property for a single transaction or project or a related series of transactions or projects unless otherwise agreed jvs share profits and losses equally and have an equal voice in controlling the project can be large or small SIMILARITIES TO PARTNERSHIPS taxed like a partnership jv owe each other the same fiduciary duties including the duty of loyalty that partners owe each other a joint venturer can also be held personally liable for the ventures debts have equal rights to manage the activities of the enterprise have authority as agents to enter into contracts for the business that ail bind the joint venture DIFFERENCES FROM PARTNERSHIPS 1 members of a jv have less implied and apparent authority than partners because a jv is typically created for a single project 2 unlike most partnerships jv normally terminates when the project or transaction for which it was formed is completed unless the members have otherwise agreed syndicate investment group several individuals or firms join together to finance a particular project forms of such entities varies considerably may be organized as a corporation or a general or limited partnership joint stock company true hybrid of a partnership and a corporation characteristics of corporation its ownership is represented by transferable shares of stock normally managed by directors and officers of the company or association and can have perpetual existence resembles more a partnership formed by agreement not statute property is held in the names of the members the owners have personal liability however shareholders are not considered to be agents of each other as they would be in a true partnership business trust created by a written trust agreement that sets forth the interest of the beneficiaries and the obligations and powers of the trustees similar to a corporation because beneficiaries are not personally liable for the debts or obligations of the business trust cooperative an association organized to provide an economic service to its members or shareholders without profit can take the form of a corporation or a partnership

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


French 2A Unit 1 Culture FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY What is Zouk CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a type of music popular in La Martinique CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 53 Terms in this set 53 What is Zouk a type of music popular in La Martinique Who wrote Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea Jules Verne a French author from La Picardie What is a traditional food in La Martinique spicy seafood and shellfish On a sunny day you can sea this from the beaches of PasdeCalais the White Cliffs of Dover in England This is how La Martinique is related to France It is a French Department What is Compère Rabbit It is a childrens book about slavery Why was the Eiffel Tower built For the Worlds Fair in 1889 How tall is the Eiffel Tower 986 feet How many pieces of iron is the Eiffel Tower made of 18000 How often is the Eiffel Tower repainted every seven years How many colors is the Eiffel Tower painted with Three darker at the bottom and lighter at the top How many visitors see the Eiffel Tower per year More than 6 million Besides being the trademark of the city of Paris what else is the Eiffel Tower used for Radio broadcasting What is the official language of La Martinique French Who discovered La Martinique Christopher Columbus When did Christopher Columbus discover La Martinique in 1502 When did the French take over La Martinique IN the 17th century What combination of cultures existed in the history of La Martinique French colonials and African slaves What language is spoken on La Martinique in addition to French Creole What is Creole A combination of French and African dialect Which Caribbean island is the most like France La Martinique What is the national dish of La Martinique Courtbouillon fish in a spicy tomato sauce What special national holiday is celebrated in La Martinique Bannzil Kréyol the International Day of Creole What big festival is celebrated in La Martinique Carnaval What celebration is Carnaval part of Mardi Gras What do people wear on Mardi Gras in La Martinique Red What does Mardi Gras mean Fat Tuesday What is the name of the giant puppet that is the symbol of Carnaval Vaval Why is John Calvin well known He was a famous French pastor who created the Calvinism religion during the Protestant Reformation Where did the Battle of the Somme take place in La Picardie What do people in La Martinique wear the day after Mardi Gras Black and white What represents the end of the Carnaval celebration on the evening of Ash Wednesday Vavals bonfire What kind of character is Compère Rabbit A wily trickster What is the name of a famous writer about the life of African descendants on La Martinique Aimé Césaire What kind of music is popular in La Martinique Zouk Name two Zouk bands Kassav and Compagnie Créole What is the traditional dance of La Martinique la biguine What is a city in the North of France Lille What are the two regions of the North of France La Picardie and Le Nord Pas de Calais Where is La Picardie located Between Paris and the English Channel What kinds of activities occurred in La Picardie during both World Wars Battles and invasions Who fought in the wellknown Battle of the Somme in World War I JRR Tolkien Which nationalities fought in the famous Battle of the Somme in World War I the British the Canadians the Scottish and the Australians What writer is La Picardie famous for Jules Verne What are Jules Vernes most famous books 20000 Leagues Under the Sea and Around the World in 80 Days What can you do to have fun in La Picardie Spend a day at the Parc Astérix What happens at the Parc Astérix You will experience a trip back to the past when France was called Gaulle and the famous Astérixand Obélix cartoon characters were fighting the Romans Who are Astérix and Obélix Cartoon characters who fight the Romans in ancient Gaulle What is the Parc Astérix an amusement park with rides and shows What kind of area is le Nord Pas de Calais an industrial region What happened to le Nord Pas de Calais in both World Wars It was destroyed Is le Nord Pas de Calais a tourist attraction No it is an industrial region that was destroyed in both World Wars What is along the coast of le Nord Pas de Calais beautiful sandy beaches

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Windows 7 Chapter 5 Managing File Systems FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The first level of folder in an NTFS partition is the ____ folder CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT root CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 35 Terms in this set 35 The first level of folder in an NTFS partition is the ____ folder root ____ was introduced with Windows 95 OSR2 to support hard disks that were becoming much larger than 2 GB in size FAT32 ____ are used by applications and users as a quick reference to locate files Drive letters The New Technology File System NTFS was first introduced with ____ and is supported by Windows 7 Windows NT ____ allow an empty folder in an NTFSformatted file system to point to another partition or volume in the local computer Volume mount points File systems group sectors into units of storage called a ____ cluster A ____ allows the operating system to store and organize files on a hard disk file system Three different versions of FAT exist FAT12 FAT16 and ____ FAT32 Windows 7 includes a ____ tab when viewing the properties of a file or folder You can use this tab to restore a previous version of a file after it has been modified or deleted Previous Versions NTFS partitions are theoretically limited to ____ Terabytes 256 Disk quotas are set using the ____ console Disk Management It is possible to change the drive letter or assign a new one to a partition or volume using the ____ console Disk Management The ACL is a collection of ____ that identify a specific security identifier that is who can perform a given action that is what to a file or folder Access Control Entries ACE ____ NTFS permissions exist to finetune access and control for files and folders Standard ____ copies are a system in which the computer takes a snapshot of files at a specific point in time and then tracks changes to those files Shadow The ____ is the most important NTFS system file because it is a relational database that provides the starting point for accessing any file on the NTFS partition MFT ____ was developed as a standard to allow file interchange between different operating systems This makes it ideal for storing files on portable CDROM and DVD media UDF An NTFS system file called the ____ keeps a record of all the clusters that are considered unusable by the file system within that volume Bad Cluster File Hard disks store data on a ____ basis sectorbysector The ____ check box indicates that a file has changed since the last backup file is ready for archiving The FAT and NTFS file systems use ____ to describe general information about a file or folder attributes Each file and folder on an NTFS file system has its own list of permissions This list of permissions is known as the _________________________ Access Control List ACL The earliest file system used for hard disks by the MSDOS operating system is the ______________________________ File Allocation Table FAT In NTFS information about files and folders stored on the disk is kept in a special file called the _________________________ Master File Table MFT The 83 DOS name contains a maximum of eight characters followed by a period and a maximum of three characters that act as the ____________________ File Extension The ____________________ commandline utility is used to manage the compress attribute flag and the cipher commandline utility is used to manage the encrypt attribute flag compact used to store and organize files on storage devices File system a valuable form of protection for local file access Encrypting File System EFS shows both the alias and the long filenames for all files in that folder Command dirX a legacy file system for readonly CDROM media CDROM File System CDFS amount of disk space allowed for use by a user Disk quota file system defined by the Optical Storage Technology Association OSTA Universal Disk Format UDF set by the user or the operating system to hide folders and files from the user Hidden attribute flag points to a partition or volume formatted with a file system Drive letter equivalent to 1024 GB Terabyte YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 34 terms Chapter 4 65 terms NOS 110 Chapter 4 Vocab 79 terms carswell__ch 05__file systems 40 terms MidTerm Chapter 4 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 20 terms Chapter 1 20 terms Chapter 2 160 terms Hardware Chapter 4 40 terms Windows 7 Chapter 3 Using System Utilities THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 35 terms Windows 7 Chapter 4 Disk Management 33 terms Windows 7 chapter 1 35 terms win7 chapter9 35 terms Windows 7 chapter 3

O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Finance Exam 2 quiz problems chapters 2 3 7 8 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Tobys Pizza has total sales of 987611 and costs of 724268 Depreciation is 39740 and the tax rate is 34 percent The firm does not have any interest expense What is the operating cash flow CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT 18731798 CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 48 Terms in this set 48 Tobys Pizza has total sales of 987611 and costs of 724268 Depreciation is 39740 and the tax rate is 34 percent The firm does not have any interest expense What is the operating cash flow 18731798 RDJ Manufacturing had 4 million shares of stock outstanding at the end of 2001 During 2001 the company reported net income of 20 million retained earnings of 12 million and 8 million in dividends paid What is RDJs earnings per share 500 At the beginning of the year longterm debt of a firm is 68700 and total debt is 71425 At the end of the year longterm debt is 92460 and total debt is 95505 The interest paid is 5412 What is the amount of the cash flow to creditors 18348 The net total cash flow of a firm which is available for distribution to the firms creditors and stockholders is called the Cash flow from assets Networking Capital is Defined as Current Assets Current Liabilities Which of the following are included in current assets II and IV only b Inventory and Cash Amys Dress Shoppe has sales 421000 with costs of 342000 Interest expense is 18000 and depreciation is 33000 The tax rate is 34 percent What is the net income 18480 Cash flow to stockholders is defined as the Dividend payments less any net equity raised Which term relates to the cash flow which results from a firms ongoing normal business activities Operating cash flow Your ______ tax rate is the amount of tax payable on the next taxable dollar you earn Marginal A firm has 680 in inventory 2320 in fixed assets 280 in accounts receivables 490 in accounts payable and 130 in cash What is the amount of current assets 1090 b 680 280 130 c Inventory Accounts Receivable Cash A firm has total debt of 1850 and debtequity ratio of 64 What is the Value of the total assets 474063 The inventory ratio is measured as Cost of goods sold divided by Inventory Monikas Gift Barn has cash of 316 accounts receivable of 687 accounts payable of 709 and inventory of 2108 What is the Value of the quick ratio 141 Katrinas Fury has 697400 in sales The profit margin is 34 percent and the firm has 12500 shares of stock outstanding The market price per share is 33 What is the priceearnings ratio 174 The markettobook ratio is measured as Market value per share divided by book value per share Gateway Lodging has annual sales of 122 million total debt of 380000 total equity of 750000 and a profit margin of 745 percent What is the return on assets 804 percent Net income divided by sales is known as a firms Profit Margin The three parts of the DU Point Identity can be described as The equity multiplier the profit margin and the total asset turnover The quick ratio is measured as current assets inventory divided by current liabilities Ratios that measure a firms financial leverage are known as _____ ratios Longterm solvency The equity multiplier ratio is measured as Total assets divided by total equity The financial ratio measured as total assets minus total equity divided by total assets is the Total Debt Ratio All else constant a bond will sell at _____ when the coupon rate is ____ the yield to maturity A discount less than Which one of the following bonds has the greatest interest rate risk 7year 4 percent An Indenture is The written agreement between the bond issuer and the bondholders which details the terms of the debt issue You are purchasing a 30year zero coupon bond The Yield to maturity is 91 percent and the face value is 1000 What is the current market price 7333 Westover Ridge offers a 9 percent coupon bond with semiannual payments and a yield to maturity of 1168 percent The Bonds mature in16 years What is the market price per bond if the face value is 1000 80786 An agreement giving the bond issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified price prior to maturity is the ____ provision Call The annual coupon divided by the face value of a bond is called the Coupon Rate A Treasury bond is quoted at a price of 10418 with a 475 percent coupon The bond pays interest semiannually What is the current yield on one of these bonds 454 percent Beach Combers International has 575 percent coupon bonds outstanding with a current market price 68940 The yield to maturity is 1120 percent and the face value is 1000 Interest is paid semiannually How many years is it until these bonds mature 933 years A bond with a 9 percent coupon pays semiannually and is priced at par will have a market price of _____ and interest payments in the amount of ____ each 1000 45 The annual coupon payment divided by the market price of a bond is called the Current yield Culpepper Supply has a bond issue outstanding that pays 75 percent coupon and matures in 14 years The bonds have a par value of 1000 and a market price of 94290 Interest is paid semiannually What is the yield to maturity 819 percent WesleyTownsend bonds have an 825 percent coupon and pay interest annually The face value is 1000 and the current market price is 100460 per bond The bonds mature in 175 years What is the yield to maturity 820 percent The Music Hut just paid an annual dividend of 105 a share The projected dividends for the next five years are 107 110 115 120 125 respectively After that time the dividends will be held constant at 140 per share What is this stock worth today at 125 percent discount rate 1029 Next years annual dividend divided by the current stock price is called the dividend yield Cellular Talk is a new firm in a rapidly growing industry The company is planning on increasing its annual dividend by 25 percent for the next three years and then decreasing the growth rate to 6 percent per year The company just paid its annual dividend in the amount of 080 per share What is the current value of one share of this stock if the required rate of return is 17 percent 1214 In the stock quote above the YLD is 118 The common stock of Ruby Janes pays a constant annual dividend Thus the market price of Ruby Janes stock will Decrease when the market rate of return increases How much are you willing to pay for one share of Delphia stock if the company just paid a 134 annual dividend the dividends increase by 28 percent annually and you require a 14 percent rate of return 1230 A form of equity which receives no preferential treatment in either the payment of dividends or in bankruptcy distributions is called _____ stock Common Preferred Shareholders are granted The right to dividends prior to common shareholders Shares of common stock of the Windy Farms offer an expected total return of 138 percent The dividend is increasing at a constant 42 percent per year What is the dividend yield 960 percent The Good Life offers a common sock that pays an annual dividend of 2 a share The company has promised to maintain a constant dividend How much are you willing to pay for one share of this stock if you want to earn a 9 percent return on your equity investments 2222 Gerolds Travel Service just paid 179 to its shareholders as the annual dividend Simultaneously the company announced that future dividends will be increasing by 32 percent If you require a 105 percent rate of return how much are you willing to pay to purchase one share of this stock 2531 A 7 percent preferred stock pays a total of ____ a year in dividends per share Assume dividends are paid quarterly 700

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O