Chapter 4 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Which of the following is not a monosaccharide A Galactose B Fructose C Lactose D Glucose C Lactose CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 116 Which of the following is not a monosaccharide A Galactose B Fructose C Lactose D Glucose C Lactose Major fructose sources include A milk and cheese B fruits and honey C fruits and vegetables D breads and cereals B fruits and honey Simple sugars in large quantities have been shown to A cause obesity B promote tooth decay C cause diabetes mellitus D cause hyperactivity B promote tooth decay The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the suns heat and light is called A biosynthesis B anabolism C photosynthesis D glycogenesis C photosynthesis What is the major monosaccharide found in the body A Glucose B Fructose C Galactose D Sucrose A Glucose Glucose also is known as A levulose B ribose C maltose D dextrose D dextrose Which of the following is not a Metabolic Syndrome risk indicator A High blood pressure B High HDL cholesterol C Elevated glucose D Elevated triglycerides B High HDL cholesterol Of the following which is a major source of sucrose A Alcohol B Fruits C Grains D Sugar cane D sugar cane Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion A Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking which softens tough skins B Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach C Chewing food does not assist in carbohydrate digestion D Saliva production does not influence starch digestion A Carb digestion is assisted by cooking which softens tough skins What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine A Salivary amylase B Bicarbonate C Pancreatic proteases D Pancreatic amylase D Pancreatic amylase Amylase is A an enzyme that digests protein B a branched chain of glucose units C an enzyme that digests starch D a straight chain of glucose units C an enzyme that digests starch Which of the following shows the process of starch digestion A Starch to lactose to galactose B Starch to maltose to glucose C Starch to glycogen to glucose D Starch to sucrose to fructose B starch to maltose to glucose Glucose is absorbed via ______ absorption A passive B facilitated C active D participatory C active Lactose intolerance is caused by A a milk allergy B lactase deficiency C milk bacteria D intestinal bacteria B lactase deficiency The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are A gas abdominal pain and distention B a rash sneezing and stuffy nose C a headache and chest pain D nausea and vomiting A gas abdominal pain distention The main function of glucose is to A serve as raw material to build tissue B work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions C repair tissue D supply energy D supply energy Which organ will first receive sugars after they are absorbed into the blood A Kidney B Heart C Liver D Pancreas C liver Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state A Insulin B Epinephrine C Cortisol D Glucagon A insulin When insulin is released it causes A the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood B muscle and fat cells to increase glucose uptake C fat breakdown in fat tissue D the liver to make glycogen from protein B muscle and fat cells to increase glucose uptake Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state A Insulin B Testosterone C Estrogen D Glucagon D Glucagon Which of the following hormones is released during stressful times to increase blood glucose levels making more energy available for use A Insulin B Epinephrine C Glycogen D Progesterone B Epinephrine The glycemic load takes into account the glycemic index of the food and the amount of A carbohydrate consumed B glucose absorbed C insulin released from the pancreas D glycogen stored A carbohydrate consumed For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source A Muscles B Brain C Liver D Heart B Brain Amylose is A a long straight glucose chain B branched glucose chains C a long straight fatty acid chain D branched amino acid chains A long straight glucose chain The major storage sites for glycogen are A muscles and liver B kidney and muscles C liver and kidney D liver and pancreas A muscles and liver Dietary fibers primarily are A polysaccharides B polypeptides C disaccharides D monosaccharides A polysaccharides Which of the following is not true of dietary fibers A They are mostly polysaccharides B The bonds between sugar units can not be broken by human digestive enzymes C They can not be absorbed by the small intestine D They are absorbed in the large intestine D They are absorbed in the large intestine Which of the following is not a viscous soluble fiber A Lignin B Gums C Pectin D Mucilages A Lignin Viscous soluble fibers A increase stool size significantly B are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria C do not dissolve in water D can lower blood cholesterol D can lower blood cholesterol A reasonable and recommended goal for daily dietary fiber intake is how many grams A 10 to 12 B 15 to 30 C 20 to 34 D 25 to 38 D 25 to 38 John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this A Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies and Saltines B Increasing his meat intake C Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled wheat flour D Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels D eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels Which of the following foods would have the most fiber A Kidney beans B English muffins made with enriched flour C Orange juice D Corn flakes A kidney beans When eating a highfiber diet one should A restrict fluid intake B not be concerned about consuming large amounts C avoid foods that are not whole grain D increase fluid intake D increase fluid intake How many grams of carbohydrate per day must humans consume to avoid ketosis A 75 B 100 C 130 D 250 C 130 The World Health Organization recommends limiting added sugar intake to ______ percent of our total kcalories A 10 B 15 C 20 D 25 A 10 Which of the following breakfasts would be highest in carbohydrate A Grapefruit half 2 fried eggs 3 bacon slices 1 slice of toast with butter coffee B 8 ounces orange juice 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar English muffin with jelly 1 cup whole milk C 8 ounces orange juice 2 bran muffins 8 ounces nonfat yogurt coffee D 1 cup whole milk 2 ounces sausage 2 fried eggs 1 slice of toast with butter B Medical conditions related to metabolic syndrome are A Type 1 diabetes coronary artery disease and cancer B Type 1 diabetes coronary artery disease and stroke C Type 2 diabetes coronary artery disease and stroke D Type 2 diabetes coronary artery disease and cancer C Type 2 diabetes coronary artery disease and stroke All of the following are characteristic of Type 2 diabetes mellitus except A arises most commonly in adulthood B caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin C often associated with obesity D the least common form of diabetes D the least common form of diabetes The most important dietary approach for the treatment of Type 2 diabetes mellitus is to A lose body fat B eat regular meals C maintain a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day D avoid sugar A lose body fat A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of A two monosaccharides B two polysaccharides C one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide D two oligosaccharides A 2 monosaccharides Low blood glucose that follows a meal high in simple sugars Reactive hypoglycemia Fibers that either dissolve or swell in water and are fermented by bacteria in the large intestine Viscous soluble fibers Low blood glucose that follows a day or so of fasting Fasting hypoglycemia A form of diabetes prone to ketosis Type 1 High blood glucose above 125 mg100 ml blood Hyperglycemia Known as complex carbohydrates Polysaccharide A simple sugar Monosaccharide Class of sugars formed by chemically linking two monosaccharides Disaccharide A form of diabetes in which ketosis is not commonly seen Type 2 Fibers that mostly do not dissolve in water and are not fermented by intestinal bacteria Nonfermentable insoluble fibers The blood glucose response of a given food compared to a standard Glycemic Index A simple carbohydrate with the chemical composition CH2On Sugar Low blood glucose below 4050 mg100 ml blood Hypoglycemia A viscous fiber containing chains of galacturonic acid and other monosaccharides characteristically found in between plant cell walls pectin A viscous fiber consisting of chains of galactose monnose and other monosaccharides characteristically found in seaweed mucilages a nonfermentable fiber made up of a multiringer alcohol structure lignins A fiber that is not easily metabolized by intestinal bacteria nonfermentable or insoluble fiber a fiber that is readily fermented by bacteria in the large intestine viscous or soluble fiber fiber added to foods that has been shown to provide health benefits functional fiber alcohol derivative of glucose that yields about 3 kcalg but is slowly absorbed from the small intestine used in some sugarless gum and dietetic foods sorbitol alcohol derivative of the fivecarbon monosaccharide xylose xylitol Estimate of the amount of a sweetener that an individual can safely consume daily over a lifetime Acceptable daily intake alternative sweetener that yields no energy to the body 300 times sweeter than sucrose saccharin alternative sweetener made of two amino acids and methanol about 200 time sweeter than sucrose aspartame Disease caused by a defect in the livers ability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine into the amino acid tyrosine untreated toxic byproducts of phenylalanine build up in the body and cause mental retardation phenylketonuria Alternative sweetener that has chlorines in place of three hydroxyl groups on sucrose 600 times sweeter than sucrose sucralose generalpurpose nonnutritive sweetener that is approximately 7000 to 13000 times sweeter than table sugar It has a chemical structure similar to aspartames neotame Alternative sweetener that yields no energy to the body 200 time sweeter than sucrose acesulfame K Alternative sweetener derived from South American shrub 100 to 300 times sweeter than sucrose stevia starchdigesting enzyme from the salivary glands or pancreas amylase An enzyme made by absorptive cells of the small intestine this enzyme digests maltose to two glucoses maltase an enzyme made by absorptive cells of the small intestine this enzyme digests sucrose to glucose and fuctose sucrase an enzyme made by absorptive cells of the small intestine this enzyme digests lactose to glucose and galactose lactase Primary lactose maldigestion occurs when production of the enzyme lactase declines for no apparent reason Secondary lactose maldigestion occurs when a specific cause such as longstanding diarrhea results in a decline in lactase production When significant symptoms develop after lactase intake it is then called lactose intolerance lactose maldigestion a condition in which symptoms such as abdominal gas and bloating appear as a result of severe lactose maldigestion lactose intolerance pouches that protrude through the exterior wall of the large intestine diverticula a pronounced swelling of a large vein particularly veins found in the anal region hemorrhoid the condition of having many diverticula in the large instestine diverticulosis an inflammation of the diverticula caused by acids produced by bacterial metabolism inside the diverticula diverticulitis partial breakdown products of fat that contain three or four carbons ketone bodies the condition of having a high concentration of ketone bodies and related breakdown products in the bloodstream ketosis a hormone produced by the pancreas Among other processes insulin increases the synthesis of glycogen in the liver and the movement of glucose from the bloodstream into body cells insulin a hormone made by the pancreas that stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the lover to glucose this ends up increasing blood glucose Glucagon A hormone also known as adreneline it is released by the adrenal glands located in each kidney and various nerve endings in the body It acts to increase glycogen breakdown in the liver among other functions epinepherine low blood glucose above 125 mg 100mL of blood for nondiabetics hypoglycemia the blood glucose response of a given food compared to a standard typically glucose or white bread Glycemic index is influenced by starch structure fiber content food processing physical structure and micronutrients in the meal such as fat Glycemic index GI What kind of GI raises blood sugar the most high What kinds of foods have a higher GI Highly processed Adequate intake for fiber 25g day for women and 38g day for men Average fiber intakes in North America 13g day for women and 17gday for men Upper limit of calories from added sugars 25 The World Health organization suggests that added sugars provide no more than _________ of daily calorie intake 10 or 50g On average Americans eat _____ of added sugar contributing to ______ of their daily calorie intake 83g 15 erosions in the surface of a tooth caused by acids made by bacteria as they metabolize sugars dental caries causes hyperactivity in children high sugar intake a form on diabetes prone to ketosis and that requires insulin therapy type 1 a form of diabetes characterized by insulin resistance and often associated with obesity Insulin therapy can be use but is often not required type 2 primary treatment goal for type 2 diabetes weight loss a condition in which a person has poor blood glucose regulation hypertension increased blood triglycerides and other health problems This condition is usually accompanied by obesity lack of physical activity and a diet high in refine carbohydrates Also called syndrome X Metabolic syndrome People with this disease are 5 times more likely to develop diabetes and 2 times more likely to develop cardiovascular disease metabolic syndrome when the pancreas produces plenty of insulin but the cells in the body do not react to it insulin resistance Dietary fiber a raises blood cholesterol levels b speeds up transit time for food through the digestive system c causes diverticulosis d causes constipation b When the pancreas detects excess glucose it releases the a enzyme amylase b monosaccharide glucose c hormone insulin d hormone glucagon c cellulose in an a indigestible fiber b simple carbohydrate c energyyielding nutrient d animal polysaccharide a Digested white sugar is broke down into _____ and _____ a glucose lactose b glucose fructose c sucrose maltose d fructose sucrose b Starch is a a complex carbohydrate b fiber c simple carbohydrate d gluten a Fiber content of the diet can be increased by adding a fresh fruits b fish and poultry c eggs d whole grains and cereals e both a and d e Which form of diabetes is most common a type 1 b type 2 c type 3 d gestational b The recommended daily intake of fiber is approximately ______g a 5 b 30 c 100 d 450 b lactose intolerance is the result of a drinking highfat milk b eating a large amount of yogurt c low lactase activity d a highfiber diet c One of the components of metabolic syndrome is a high body weight b high waist circumference c low blood sugar d low blood pressure b Insulin directs the _____ to store ____ as ______ liver glucose glycogen Directs muscles adipose and other cells to remove glucose from the bloodstream by taking it into those cells insulin When blood sugars falls ______ is released by the pancreas glucagon produced by bacteria fermentation of soluble fibers in the large intestine flatulence Type of fiber that supplies mass to feces insoluble or nonfermentable YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 57 terms Nutrition Chapter 4 Quiz Nutrition Chapter 46 53 terms Chapter 4 Chapter 4 TB OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 33 terms Theory Test VIX 29 terms Theory Test VIX 123 terms Spanish Music Terms 144 terms Nutrition Exam 4 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 35 terms Chapter 1 Overview 45 terms Chapter 2 Balance Variety Moderation 193 terms FSHN exam 1 80 terms Ch 1

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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Italian and German Unification FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month How did nationalism help unify Italy and Germany CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Nationalism allowed Italians and Germans to unite together as a common group of people with pride for their country CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 34 Terms in this set 34 How did nationalism help unify Italy and Germany Nationalism allowed Italians and Germans to unite together as a common group of people with pride for their country What tactics did Bismarck use to unify Germany realpolitik took out Austrias control over Germany militarism created a common enemy What was Bismarcks overall goal increase the power of Prussia What caused the FrancoPrussian War What was the result Bismarck wanted to eliminate French influence over Germany Treaty of Versailles of 1871 Describe 3 examples of Bismarck using realpolitik strengthened the army with collected from other places allied with Austria then turned on them he manipulated William I so that Napoleon III would declare war How did Germany become an industrial giant in the 1880s iron coal resources railroads factories social welfare program Why did Bismarck institute Kulturkampf saw the Church as a threat to his empire Why did he change his policies against the socialists the socialist party had more seats in the Reichstag than any other political party Who were the 3 main unifiers of Italy Mazzini Cavour Garibaldi Compare the goals and methods of Cavour in Italy and Bismarck in Germany How were they similar and how were they different Similarities prime ministers used realpolitik aggressive militarism promoted nationalism went to war with Austria exploited Napoleon III Differences Bismarck lone ranger Italy was divided between North and South How did Cavour use realpolitik made a deal with Napoleon III supported Garibaldi allied with Prussia to get Venetia allied with France What challenges did Italy face with the Catholic Church church needed power money gov gave the pope limited rights needed separation of church n state What other challenges did Italy face during unification no tradition of unity Italians didnt feel loyal to the new nation region rivalry between north south hostility between Italy the church How did nationalism affect the Austrian Hapsburg Empire rivalries between different nationalities every nationality wanted their own independence Why was the Dual Monarchy formed so Hungary Austria could be ruled by the same monarch have a combined military but be selfgoverning benefited both countries How did Balkan nationalism lead to the decline of the Ottoman Empire revolted against Ottomans so that they could establish their independent states Otto von Bismarck Prime Minister of Prussia master of Realpolitik Kaiser Wilhelm I King of Prussia set up by Bismarck to ignited a war with Napoleon III Kaiser Wilhelm II Emperor of Germany 1890 asked Bismarck to resign advanced Germany Victor Emmanuel II King of Sardinia gave Cavour power Count Camillo Cavour Chief Minister brains wanted to expand Sardinia help unite Italy Giuseppe Garibaldi Leader of nationalistic movement sword captured Sicily Naples Giuseppe Mazzini heart formed Young Italy Movement seized control of Rome Francis Joseph Emperor of Austria Francis Deak Hungarian nationalist led revolution against Austria blood and iron speech by Bismarck about the unification of German territories Kulturkampf battle for civilization threat of Catholic Church Realpolitik realistic politics based on the needs of the state power more important than principles Social Welfare built homes rrs factories brought electricity to everyday german worker Annex take control of Reich Empire RedShirts volunteers who followed Garibaldi in southern Italy PanSlavism all Slavic people should unite towards independence Balkan powderkeg caused World War I Peace of major world powers

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Ch 6 Health Care Systems and coming more FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 85 What is the central role of health services financing in the US Fund health insurance What is the primary mechanism that enables people to obtain health services health insurance the phenomenon called moral hazard results directly from health insurance coverage liberal reimbursement for a given technology will ____ innovationdiffusion of that technology increase controlling total health care expenditures by restricting financing for health insurance Demand side rationing in national health care systems total expenditures are controlled mainly by supply side rationing national health expenditures E E P x Q in general sense what is primary purpose of insurance protection against risk private health insurance is also called voluntary insurance under community rating both high and low risk people are charged the same premium which method of risk assessment is required by ACA for individual and small group health insurance adjusted community rating under experience rating favorable risk groups pay a lower premium than high risk what is the main advantage of group insurance risk is spread out among a large number of insured self insurance was spurred by government policy the employee retirement income security act exempts self insured plans from certain mandatory benefits cost is shifted from people in poor health to the healthy when premiums are based on community rating health insurance pays for medical care after insured pays first 1000 deductible copayment is generally paied each time the insured revives health care services what was the main conclusion of the rand health insurance experiment cost sharing lowered health care utilization without any significant health consequences medical policies are sold by private insurance companies the ACA specifies that ____ can be covered under parents insurance plans children under 26 how are preexisting medical conditions covered under the ACA private insurance plans have to cover them starting 2014 under ACA what purpose do the exchanges serve they allow individuals and small businesses to purchase health plans in general how do bronze silver and gold health plans differ they differ according to cost sharing what criterion does ACA use to classify an employer as a large employer 50 or more full time employees to purchase private insurance through an exchange premium subsidies are made available to people with incomes up to 400 federal poverty line majority of beneficiaries reviving health care through medicare are elderly main function of Medicare payment advisory commission MedPAC advise the US congress on carious issues affecting the medicare program to finance medicare part A all income earned by a working person is subject to medicare tax skilled nursing care is covered under _____ of medicare part A the HI portion of medicare is financed through payroll taxes for medicare beneficiaries the max stay in an SNF during a benefit period can not exceed 100 days for hospitalizations medicare beneficiaries must pay a deductible once per benefit period Medicare part B premiums are incomebased SMI provides physicians services Part C of medicare specifially covers NONE OF THE FOLLOWING rehab services preventative care prescription drugs why was medicare part C created to channel beneficiaries into managed care programs the donut hole in medicare prescription drug coverage provides no benefits until the beneficiary qualifies for the catastrophic level the SMI trust fund is for parts B an D the primary criterion to become eligible for medicaid financial status by law federal matching funds to the states for medicaid can not be less than 50 the insurance arm of military health care is called tricare to receive payment for services delivered providers must file a ___ with third party payers claim the use of fee for service reimbursement has been greatly reduced _____ reimbursement is based on the assumption that health care is provided in a set of identifiable and individually distinct units of service fee for servce what is the incentive under fee for service reimbursement providers have an incentive to deliver nonessential services in general prospective payment systems establish reimbursement for bundled services RVUs reflect resource inputs preferred providers are paid negotiated discounted fees when a fixed monthly fee per enrollee is paid to a provider its called capitation capitation removes the incentive to provide unnecessary services under retrospective reimbursement a health care organization is paid according to the costs incurred in operating the institution wheat perverse incentive is present in retrospective reimbursement providers can increase their profits by increasing costs the amount of reimbursement is determined before the services are delivered prospective reimbursement what is not a type of prospective reimbursement methodology costplus a DRG represents a group of principal diagnoses an MSDRG method of reimbursement an acute care hospital is paied a fixed amount for a particular DRG classification under the DRG method of reimbursement a psychiatric hospital is paid a per diem rate based on psychiatric DRGs how is case mix determined for an inpatient facility a comprehensive assessment of each patient is done what is the minimum data set MDS a patient assessment instrument for skilled nursing facilities if national health expenditures amount to 18 of the GDP health care consumes 18 of the total economic production the largest share of national health expenditures is attributed to personal health care publicgovernment share of the total health care spending in the US is approximately 45 adverse selection makes health insurance less affordable for those in good health Medicaid recipients are classified as medically uninsured tf FALSE Health insurance increases the demand for heath care services tf true tax policy in the us provides an incentive to obtain employer based health insurance tf true people in older age groups represent a higher risk than those in lower age groups tf true under community rating people are charged in the same regardless of health risk tf true today the majority of health insurance exists in the form of managed care plans tf true by law a health insurance plan must cover work related injuries tf false the government plays a significant role in financing health care services in the united states tf true it is illegal for an insurance company to sell a medical plan to someone who is covered by medicaid tf true under the ACA private health insurance will no longer be the main source of coverage tf false the ACA requires that employers provide health insurance to part time workers if the employer has 50 woerks false health insurance plans are prohibited from having lifetime dollar limits on medical benefits tf true health insurance plans are allowed to have annual dollar limits on a persons medical benefit tf false undr medicare program eligibility criteria and benefits are consistent throughout the US tf true part D of medicare does not require the payment of a premium tf false long term care services for the elderly are covered under medicare false under the medicaid program eligibility criteria and benefits are consistent throughout the us tf false state governments are required to partially finance the medicaid program tf true according to a US supreme court decision individual states can decide whether or not to expand their medicaid programs to comply with ACA true research shows that prospectively set bundled payment methods are effective in reducing health care tf true

O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Potter Ch 8 Media Content and Reality FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Magic Window CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Young children view tv as truth of whats happening in the real world CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 10 Terms in this set 10 Magic Window Young children view tv as truth of whats happening in the real world Adult Discount Shift away from magic window belief in literal reality of media Develop skepticism of literal reality media messages Most by age 12 But no change in perceptions of reality of socalled reality programs Children base perceptions of reality not on accuracy but on probability of it occurring in their lives By 12 still dont realize news is a construction by journalists Multiple Dimensions of Reality Dont just judge on actualities whether actually occurred but also consider possibilities 1 Magic Window 2 Social Utility Whether believe can use information in portrayal in their own lives 3 Identity Judgment Closer a viewer feels to a character the more real perceived 4 Factuality What actually happened 5 Plausability What could happen 6 Typicality What usually happens 7 Emotional Involvement Degree to which a persons feelings and sense of identity are pulled into a message 8 Narrative Consistency Refers to plot of a story and how well it makes people feel that sequence actions are believable 9 Perceptual Persuasiveness Refers to how real the images look 10 Plausability Most often used to determine degree of reality Differences Across Individuals Judgments of reality vary widely Reality and fantasy arent mutually exclusive but are on 2 ends of a continuum Many adults overestimate degree of reality on realitytv NextStep Reality Organizing Principle Exposure decisions and programmers are influenced by nextstep reality principle Idea that media messages must be based on realworld elements recognizable characters situations etc so that audiences can relate to what happens in those messages but then those messages must also take a step away from pure reality by adding fantasy elements to capture and hold the audiences attention Audiences Perspective Ppl expose themselves to media messages to find messages they cant get in real life Reasons to go to Media 1 Impossible to get messages in real life Eg Seeing space seeing Jesus life experiencing the Civil War 2 Costs of getting messages are much lower than in real life Easier to watch people do it than do yourself Characteristics Ppl Look For 1 Must appear real Close enough to resonate strongly with viewers experience of everday reality At least plausibleprobable If not then wont trust info useful enough to bring into everyday lives 2 Must present a little more than everyday reality Not so real that same in everyday lives but also dont want so far removed that they dont have immediate relevance Want messages that show whats easily possible and make it seem probable and even actual Programmers Perspective Take ordinary everyday situation then stepbystep take away from that reality Realistic and interesting Use in persuasive messages Overcome ordinary problem like bad breathe and invite to take step of faith into solution Use in info messages news what journalists select to report eg violent crimes and other weird shit that gets peoples attention One step removed from reality Reality Programming as a Genre Appealed to audiences voyeuristic interest Programmers like cause inexpensive to produce Reality tv grown a shit ton Take real people and put in competition scenario Audience identifies or roots for certain characters Importance of Media Literature Border between real world and media world is harder to discern bombarded with media irl all the time Must avoid trap of debating which shows are real and which is fantasy Shouldnt be about how real are media messages but instead nextstep reality says its all a mix of fantasy and reality so it should be about which elements in this message reflect reality and which are removed from reality in some way Analysis helps develop sensitivity to how big a step tolerated in 1 step removal of message Key to being media lit be flexible and aware 1 Flexible Willing to traverse entire spectrum of messages and enjoy full range of messages 2 Aware Thinking about where you are in spectrum and knowing different standards of appreciation to apply to different places on spectrum of reality Better enjoy variety of messages in media and also control effects of media messages to avoid negative ones that come from auto exposure and enjoy positive effects from others Consider degree you trust info and experiences from media world Media messages not always what they seem layers of meaning unrealistic interlaced with realistic elements Control selection of meanings you want and better appreciate media content Summary Degrees of reality more than one dimension Not a huge gap between childrens and adults ability to perceive reality accurately False sense of security in adults cause think protected by adult discount and dont need to think carefully about reality of media messages Think about reality w nextstep reality organizing principle Degree messages both real and fantasy Which elements do I regard as real and howd I arrive at that perception Which elements are fantasy What extent attracted to that fantasy and willing to make my reality

O O O B I O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O B O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B


Geography Exam 2 Form B FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Evidence that the Jamestown Colony likely suffered from drought is based on CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT tree rings CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 58 Evidence that the Jamestown Colony likely suffered from drought is based on tree rings the major drought period of the 20th century in terms of duration and spatial extent is considered to be the 1930s The popular name for this drought in the US during the 1930s is The Dust Bowl What region of North America was most profoundly affected by the Dust Bowl The Great Plains The Dust Bowl effect was caused by drought as well as poor land management practices The drought in Mexico in 178586 known as El Año del Hambre was caused by drought as well as early fall frost The Aztecs identified an apparent pattern of drought that they felt was connected to The Year One Rabbit Drought is likely to be caused by persistent high pressure persisten offshore breeze change in the direction of an ocean current What is occurring in the Snake River Plain of southern Idaho Water from rivers soaks into the ground causing the rivers to disappear A large amount of water flows underground Huge springs result where groundwater flows onto the surface What water storesreservoirs contains most of the Earths freshwater Glaciers and ice sheets What water storesreservoirs contains the least amount of Earths water atmosphere What is an event that is most like the formation of a cloud water forming on a cold object on a hot humid summer day What energy source drives the hydrologic cycle solar energy The residence time refers to the average length of time that drop of water remains in its store reservoir What two uses consume the most freshwater in the US irrigation and thermoelectric power What accompanies urbanization runoff occurs more quickly and produces a higher peak flow What was the cause of flooding in the 1993 upper Mississippi River Flood persistent thunderstorms caused large amounts of rainfall over a severalstate region The temperature pressure and moisture characteristics of the atmosphere arise in large part from the continuous exchange of energy and ________ near the surface water vapor If a gas cools under constant pressure the molecules within it have ______ kinetic energy and therefore gas volume will be_____ less less What is the relationship between air pressure and altitude as one moves up in the atmosphere pressure decreases as one moves closer to the earths surface pressure increases What is true regarding high or low pressure for a parcel of air at the surface higher temperature higher density warmer air rises lower pressure at surface What is greater near the ground surface Friction The exacerbation of seasonal temperature extremes experienced by continental interiors is best described by the term Continentality What contributes to destructive wildfires promoted by Santa Ana winds drought canyons to funnel wind and high pressure To create a sea breeze warm air over land _____ which creates ____ pressure _____ air over water _____ creating _____ pressure rises low cool sinks high What is the important zonal wind belts that blow from east to west in the tropics Trade Winds Along the thermal equator strong solar heating causes air to rise convection What is the name of the zone of low pressure and associated bands of convective cloudsrainfalll ITCZ In the summer one of the most well developed high pressure cells is situated of the Atlantic Ocean its called the Bermuda High Regarding pressure latitude and water vs land air pressure is high over oceans at 30 degrees because descending air warms less over the relatively cooler oceans The Coriolis effect is the apparent deflection in the path of a moving object due to the rotation of the earth The Northern Hemisphere objects are deflected to the right irrespective of which way it is moving What describes the low pressure cell centered for most of the year over the equator consistent insolation warm temperatures abundant rainfall The Hadley cell is characterized by low pressure rising air over the equator low pressure sinking air at 30 degrees N and 30 degrees S What properly describes surface winds within the Tropics winds blowing from northeast to southwest in the northern hemisphere winds blowing southeast to northwest in the southern hemishphere In the Northern Hemisphere the westerlies are created by the Coriolis Effect acting on air from the subtropical high flowing north to the subpolar low Subtropical Deserts are usually under the influence of Semipermanent high pressure Characteristics of a cyclone or low pressure in the hemisphere air flowing inward clockwise What term describes a seasonal reversal of wind due to seasonal thermal differences between landmasses and large water bodies monsoon an important property of water is its ability to act as a good solvent This could best be explained by waters polarity What term relates to the amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum possible at the current temperature relative humidity What term refers to the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere humidity If you add 110 calories of heat to 1g of water whose temp is 100C the resultant temperature of the water will be around 100 A parcel of saturated air at 10C with 10g water vapor of air is heated to 20C What is true the air has 10 g water vapor and is now unsaturated Dew point measures the temperature at which air is saturated with water vapor January dew point temperature are extremely low in northern areas of the US because there is little insolation to drive the evaporation Compared to air temperature the dew point temperature is always equal or less Why is the saturated adiabatic lapse rate less than the unsaturated adiabatic lapse rate release of latent heat warms the local environment The dry adiabatic lapse rate changed to the wet adiabatic lapse rate when condensation is greater than evaporation A parcel of air at 5km and an initial temperature of 10C altitude descends to 3km altitude at the unsaturated adiabatic lapse rate What is the temperature at 3km 30C if a parcel of air rises high enough and cools sufficiently expansion lowers its temperature to the dew point and condensation occurs The altitude at which this occurs is knowns as the lifting condensation level What is the environmental Lapse Rate the rate at which the atmosphere in a given location at a specific time cools with elevation If you go outside with wet hair it will likely dry faster if the dew point is 40F If you spray something from a spraycan the can usually gets cold Why is that adiabatic cooling the pressure decreases the density decreases What are some ways fog can form increasing the moisture content until vapor pressure reaches the watervapor capactity by cooling the air until it reaches the dew point temperature a combination of cooling and increasing humidity What is the best cooling condition to create a radiation fog clear skies light winds humid air at the surface For precipitation to occur buoyant forces keeping water droplets and ice crystals suspended must be less than the force of gravity The formation of freezing rain involved snow passing through a fairly thick layer of above freezing air before passing through a thin layer of subfreezing temperatures near the surface The formation of sleet involved snow passing through a layer of above freezing air melting and then refreezing forming a pellet that bounces when reaching the surface YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE GY 101 Final Therell Part 2 62 terms Geography exam 2 62 terms Cambridge International ASLevel Geography Atmosphere and Weather Geo 102 Exam 1

B O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O


Chapter 23 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Which of the following is an accurate description of the tax system in France in the years preceding the French Revolution CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The members of theThird Estate paid almosst all of the taxes CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 10

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 8 Diseases of the Immune System FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month 1 Which one of the following is a nonimmune defense mechanism A Complement reactions C Anaphylactic reaction B Cytotoxic reaction D Immune complex reaction Anaphylactic CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 92 Terms in this set 92 1 Which one of the following is a nonimmune defense mechanism A Complement reactions C Anaphylactic reaction B Cytotoxic reaction D Immune complex reaction Anaphylactic 2 Which one of the following is a programmable body defense mechanism A Natural killer cell reactions C Tcell reactions B Lysozyme reactions D Complement reactions TCell Reactions 3 Which one of the following is not a protein A Antibody B Antigen C Immunoglobulin D None of the options is correct Immunoglobulin 4 In which one of the following combinations of hypersensitivity reactions are B cells involved A Type I but not types II III and IV hypersensitivity B Type IV but not types I II and III hypersensitivity C Types I II and III but not type IV hypersensitivity D Types II III and IV but not type I hypersensitivity Types I III and IV hypersensitivity 5 Which one of the following is the hypersensitivity mechanism in rheumatoid arthritis A Type I hypersensitivity C Type III hypersensitivity B Type II hypersensitivity D Type IV hypersensitivity Type III hypersensitivity 6 Which one of the following synthesizes antibody A Plasma cells B Macrophages C T cells D HLA cells Plasma Cells 7 Which one of the following is an example of atopy A Systemic lupus erythematosus B Hay fever C AIDS D Amyloidosis Hay Fever 8 Antinuclear antibodies are characteristic of which one of the following A Systemic lupus erythematosus C Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B Rheumatoid arthritis D Immunodeficiency syndromes Systemic lupus erythematosus 9 After AIDS the most common immunodeficiency syndrome is which one of the following A Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome B Thymic hypoplasia DiGeorge syndrome C Xlinked agammaglobulinemia Bruton disease D Inherited selective IgA deficiency Inherited selective IgA Deficiency 10 Which one of the following is the most common mode of HIV transmission in economically underprivileged nations A Male homosexual sex C Heterosexual sex B IV drug abuse D Blood transfusions Heterosexual sex 11 Which one of the following is a common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients A Pneumocystis jiroveci C Clostridium difficile B Staphylococcus aureus D Streptococcus pneumoniae Pneumocystis jiroveci 12 Which one of the following underlying immune mechanisms is responsible for poststreptococcal rheumatic carditis A Molecular mimicry B Unmasking of hidden antigen C Loss of suppressor Tcell activity D Overexpression of helper Tcell activity Molecular mimicry 13 Which one of the following immune reactions explains the symptoms of ordinary hay fever A Anaphylaxis B Cytotoxicity C Immune complex D Delayed immunity Anaphylaxis 14 Which one of the following is an AIDSdefining condition A CD4 count less than 200 cellscu mm C Any serious infection B Malignancy of any organ D Severe prolonged diarrhea CD4 count less than 200 cellscu mm 15 Which one of the following is a characteristic finding in AIDS A Overactive Tcell function B Kaposi sarcoma C High peripheral blood CD4 lymphocyte counts D Carcinoma of the lung Kaposi sarcoma 16 Cellular abnormalities in AIDS include which one of the following A Lymphocytopenia low lymphocyte count in peripheral blood B Bcell suppression C Macrocytosis D Excessive Tcell activity Lymphocytopenia 17 Which one of the following statements about systemic lupus erythematosus is true A The predominant autoantibodies are antimitochondrial antibodies B Circulating immune complexes are a key part of the pathogenesis C The pathogenetic mechanism is a delayed Tcell hypersensitivity reaction D There may be falsepositive tests for pregnancy Circulating immune complexes are a key part of the pathogenesis 18 Which one of the following is not directly related to Bcell immunity A Anaphylaxis C Immune complex reaction B Cytotoxic immunity D Delayed immunity Delayed immunity 19 Which one of the following is an incompatible transfusion A Type O red blood cells transfused into a type B recipient B Type O red blood cells transfused into a type A recipient C Type A red blood cells transfused into a type A recipient D Type B red blood cells transfused into a type A recipient Type B red blood cells transfused into a type A recipient 20 Systemic lupus erythematosus is best characterized by which one of the following A It is a consequence of streptococcal infection B Most patients have antinuclear antibody present in their blood C It is principally a disease of men D The main immune problem is anaphylactic type I immune reaction Most patients have antinuclear antibody present in their blood 21 Which one of the following is the most common serious immunodeficiency A Xlinked agammaglobulinemia Bruton disease B Thymic hypoplasia DiGeorge syndrome C Isolated immunoglobulin A deficiency D AIDS AIDS 22 Which one of the following is the main effect of HIV infection A Poor helper Tcell function C Poor Bcell function B Poor suppressor Tcell function D Poor natural killer cell function Poor helper Tcell function 23 Which one of the following statements about opportunistic pathogen infection in AIDS is true A Becoming infected with an opportunistic pathogen is one requirement for the diagnosis of AIDS B Opportunistic pathogens often infect previously healthy people C Most infections with opportunistic pathogens are not serious D HIV mainly attacks B cells Becoming infected with an opportunistic pathogen is one requirement for the diagnosis of AIDS 24 Which one of the following statements is true A NonHIV diseases cause almost as much immunodeficiency as HIV B Most AIDS patients are children or elderly C Accidental stick with a needle used on an HIVinfected patient carries little risk of infection D HIV can be transmitted by some insect bites Accidental stick with a needle used on an HIVinfected patient carries little risk of infection 25 Which one of the following statements about amyloidosis is true A Amyloid is synthesized by natural killer cells B Most amyloidosis is hereditary C Amyloidosis may be caused by excessive immunoglobulin production D Most amyloidosis patients live several decades after diagnosis Amyloidosis may be caused by excessive immunoglobulin production 26 Apart from identical twins no two people have exactly the same antigenic makeup True 27 Macrophages require immune programming to be effective False 28 Natural killer cells are not programmable like B and T cells True 29 Only proteins can stimulate an immune reaction False 30 All antibodies are immunoglobulins True 31 Passively transferred antibodies as from mother to child in utero have no significant immune functionality False 32 T lymphocytes are responsible for delayed cellular immunity True 33 B cells produce antibodies T cells do not True 34 The major histocompatibility complex MHC or human lymphocyte antigensHLA holds and presents alien antigens to other elements of the immune system True 35 The mucosal immune paint of the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems contains high concentrations of IgA immunoglobulin True 36 Type I hypersensitivity anaphylaxis is the cause of most allergic reactions True 37 Cytotoxic reaction is responsible for most immune hemolytic anemia True 38 Immune complexes are responsible for most delayed immune reactions False 39 B cells are associated with delayed immunity False 40 Of the four types of immune reactions only delayed immunity is the function of B cells False 41 Loss of Bcell function accounts for autoimmune disease caused by molecular mimicry False 42 Sex hormones are important in the genesis of systemic lupus erythematosus True 43 Most allergic disease is caused by type I anaphylactic immune reaction True 44 Atopy is a hereditary predisposition to develop autoimmune disease False 45 Intense Tcell overactivity is characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus False 46 Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is more debilitating and usually affects larger joints than does classic rheumatoid arthritis True 47 Some microbes are capable of initiating an autoimmune disease True 48 Almost every patient with systemic lupus erythematosus has antinuclear antibodies in blood True 49 In systemic lupus erythematosus vasculitis affects only the kidney False 50 Matching age sex and race are the most important predictors of successful tissue matching in organ transplantation False 51 About 15 of Caucasians and 5 of African Americans are Rh positive False 52 Major transfusion reactions are usually caused by human error True 53 Major transfusion reactions are usually caused by white blood cell incompatibility False 54 In preparing for blood transfusion the Coombs test is designed to detect antibodies on recipient red cells or in recipient plasma True 55 Diagnosis of amyloidosis requires biopsy True 56 Most immunodeficiency diseases first become symptomatic because of the appearance of a lymphoma or Kaposi sarcoma False 57 Isolated deficiency of IgG immunoglobulin is a common immunodeficiency False 58 HIV virus preferentially infects lymphocytes and nerve cells True 59 By definition a patient with HIV infection and CD4 lymphocyte count less than 200 cells per microliter has AIDS True 60 About half of AIDS patients have neurologic symptoms True 61 The most common malignancy of the immune system is multiple myeloma True Use the following to answer questions 6265 Match the following descriptions with the choices below Answers may be used once more than once or not at all A Presents antigen B Makes antibodies C Not part of programmed immunity D Delayed immunity E Releases lysozymes 62 B cell Makes Antibiotics 63 T cell Delayed Immunity 64 Natural killer cell Not part of programmed immunity 65 Macrophage Presents antigen Use the following to answer questions 6669 Match the following choices with the choices below Answers may be used once more than once or not at all A Natural killer cells B Phagocytes C Neutrophils D T cells E B cells 66 Type I anaphylactic B cells 67 Type II cytotoxic B cells 68 Type III immune complex B cells 69 Type IV delayed immunity T cells Use the following to answer questions 7074 Match the genotype with the phenotype Answers may be used once more than once or not at all A Blood phenotype A B Blood phenotype B C Blood phenotype AB D Blood phenotype O 70 Blood genotype BO Blood phenotype B C 71 Blood genotype OO Blood phenotype O 72 Blood genotype AA Blood phenotype A B 73 Blood genotype AB Blood phenotype AB D 74 Blood genotype AO Blood phenotype A B Use the following to answer questions 7578 Match the descriptive phrase with the disease Answers may be used once more than once or not at all A Hepatitis B incidence high B Macrophage deficiency C Raynaud phenomenon common D 90 of cases are in women E Affects large joints 75 Systemic lupus erythematosus 90 of cases are in women 76 Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis Affects large joints 77 Systemic sclerosis Raynaud phenomenon common 78 Polyarteritis nodosa Hepatitis B incidence high Use the following to answer questions 7982 Match the loss of function with the pathologic condition Answers may be used once more than once or not at all A Loss of Tcell function B Loss of Bcell function C Loss of natural killer cell function D Loss of phagocytic function E Loss of complement function 79 AIDS Loss of Tcell function 80 Thymic hypoplasia DiGeorge syndrome Loss of Tcell function 81 Isolated IgA deficiency Loss of Bcell function 82 Xlinked agammaglobulinemia Bruton disease Loss of Bcell function YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 64 terms Chapter 18 Microbiology Chapter 16 76 terms MicroChapter 18 AIDS and Other Immune Disorders 43 terms Chap 19 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 93 terms Chapter 11 Diseases of Blood Cells and Blood Coagulation 61 terms Chapter 10 Disorders of Daily Life and Diet 77 terms Chapter 9 Infectious Disease 53 terms Chapter 7 Developmental Genetic and Pediatric Disease THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 108 terms Patho Chapter 16 Disorders of the Immune Response 43 terms PATHO Practice Questions Chapter 2 30 terms Mastery quiz questions Ch2 28 terms Mastery quiz questions Ch 7

O O B O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 4 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Sole proprietorships CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT TAP THE CARD TO FLIP IT A business that is owned and usually operated by one person The simplest form of business ownership and the easiest to start Many large businesses began as a small struggling sole proprietorships The most popular form of business ownership CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE TAP THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Advantages and Disadvantages of Sole Proprietorships ADVANTAGES Ease of startup Pride of ownership Retention of all profits No special taxes Flexibility of being your own boss DISADVANTAGES Unlimited liability Lack of continuity Lack of money Limited management skills Difficulty in hiring employees Nice work You just studied 11 terms 1 11 Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 11 Sole proprietorships A business that is owned and usually operated by one person The simplest form of business ownership and the easiest to start Many large businesses began as a small struggling sole proprietorships The most popular form of business ownership Advantages and Disadvantages of Sole Proprietorships ADVANTAGES Ease of startup Pride of ownership Retention of all profits No special taxes Flexibility of being your own boss DISADVANTAGES Unlimited liability Lack of continuity Lack of money Limited management skills Difficulty in hiring employees Partnership A voluntary association of two or more persons to act as coowners of a business for profit Less common form of ownership than sole proprietorship or corporation No legal limit on the maximum number of partners most have only two Large accounting law and advertising partnerships have multiple partners Partnerships are usually a pooling of special talents or the result of a sole proprietor taking on a partner Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Types of Partners General partner A person who assumes full or shared responsibility for operating a business Limited partner A person who contributes capital to a business but has no management responsibility or liability for losses beyond the amount he or she invested in the partnership Advantages and Disadvantages of Partnerships ADVANTAGES Ease of startup Availability of capital and credit Personal interest Combined business skills and knowledge Retention of profits No special taxes DISADVANTAGES Unlimited liability Management disagreements Lack of continuity Frozen investment Master limited partnership MLP a business partnership that is owned and managed like a corporation but taxed like a partnership Corporation An artificial person created by law with most of the legal rights of a real person including the rights to start and operate a business to buy or sell property to borrow money to sue or be sued and to enter into binding contracts Unlike a real person however a corporation exists only on paper Advantages and Disadvantages of Corporations ADVANTAGES Limited liability Each owners financial liability is limited to the amount of money that he or she has paid for the corporations stock Ease of raising capital Ease of transfer of ownership Perpetual life Specialized management DISADVANTAGES Difficulty and expense of formation Government regulation and increased paperwork Conflict within the corporation Double taxation Lack of secrecy Types of Corporations Domestic corporation A corporation in the state in which it is incorporated Foreign corporation A corporation in any state in which it does business except the one it which it is incorporated Alien corporation A corporation chartered by a foreign government and conducting business in the US Limitedliability company LLC Form of business ownership combining the benefits of a corporation and partnership but avoids some of restrictions and disadvantages Horizontal and Vertical Mergers Horizontal mergers Merger between firms that make and sell similar products Vertical mergers Merger between firms that operate at different but related levels of production and marketing a product

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 11 Law and Due Process acquitted found not guilty in a court of law adversary system the legal system used in Englishspeaking countries in which two contesting parties present opposing views and evidence in a court of law arraignment a prisoners initial appearance before a magistrate in which the charges and basic rights to an attorney and bail are explained bail the security required for release of a suspect awaiting trial change of venue a change in the location of a trial charter the organizing document for a corporation or a municipality civil law nonpenal law dealing with private rights and responsibilities closed shop a workplace in which management hires only labor union employees illegal in Texas common law customs upheld by courts and deriving from British tradition common law marriage a marriage without an official ceremony made legally binding by mutual agreement and legally established conditions community property property acquired during marriage and owned equally by both spouses compulsory process a procedure to subpoena witnesses in court continuance delay of a trial criminal law law prosecuted by the state seeking punishment for violations of public concepts of morality deterrence discouragement of an action especially of criminal acts by threat of punishment docket the schedule of court activity due process the following of proper legal procedures Due process is essential to guaranteeing fairness before the government may deprive a person of life liberty or property The Fourteenth Amendment to the US Constitution requires states to respect these procedures and has been interpreted to command the states to abide by most of the US Bill of Rights eminent domain taking private property for public purposes with compensation examining trial an initial court hearing to determine if there is sufficient evidence to send a case to a grand jury exclusionary rule the requirement that illegally obtained evidence not be used against the accused required of the states by the US Supreme Court as a result of Mapp v Ohio 367 US 643 1961 FBI index crimes crimes used as a barometer of the crime rate murder and nonnegligent manslaughter forcible rape robbery aggravated assault burglary grand theft and motor vehicle theft felony a serious crime homestead an owneroccupied property protected from forced sale under most circumstances Some local governments exempt a portion of its value from property taxation intestate without leaving a will at the time of death liability insurance insurance against negligence claims especially those arising from auto accidents libel published falsehood defaming a persons character misdemeanor a minor crime punishable by a county jail sentence or fine mistrial a trial not completed for legal reasons such as a hung jury a new trial may be possible mores strong beliefs about right and wrong negligence failure to act with the prudence or care that an ordinary person would exercise no fault insurance an insurance plan allowing the insured person to collect from the individuals own insurance company regardless of who is at fault in a vehicular accident parole early release from prison under official supervision plaintiff the private person bringing a civil suit precedents a previously decided legal case used as a guiding principle for a current or future case prima facie case sufficient evidence to convict if unchallenged at trial the amount of evidence necessary to indict a defendant probable cause sufficient information to convince a reasonably cautious person that a search or arrest is justified probate the procedure for proving the validity of a will probation a judges sentence of an offender to serve outside a correctional institution but under specific restrictions and official supervision punitive damages judgments in excess of actual damages intended to punish a defendant in a civil suit real property land and buildings recidivist a criminal who commits another crime after having been incarcerated rehabilitation the effort to correct criminals antisocial attitudes and behavior remedy the means to redress an injury including relief from ongoing injury or compensation for past damages right to work laws laws that prohibit union shop agreements slander spoken falsehood defaming a persons character stare decisis the principle of following precedents in deciding legal cases tort a private or civil injury or wrong other than a breach of contract tort reform efforts to limit liability in civil cases union shop an organization created by interest groups to promote common goals A number of interest groups may choose to coordinate their efforts to influence government when they share the same policy goal The organization may be temporary or permanent victimless crime a crime such as prostitution gambling or drug possession that primarily victimizes oneself rather than society at large voir dire questioning the initial questioning of jurors to determine possible biases white collar crime bribery tax fraud business fraud embezzlement and other nonviolent crimes usually committed by more prosperous individuals than those who commit street crime writ of habeas corpus a court order requiring that a prisoner be presented in person and that legal cause be shown for imprisonment also used in some civil cases writ of injunction a court order to compel or restrain a particular action

O O B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Accounting CH 7 8 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month what is not a factor that influences a businesss control environment proofs and security measurers CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 51 Terms in this set 51 what is not a factor that influences a businesss control environment proofs and security measurers what is an element of internal control risk assessment what is a necessary element of internal control information and communication in managements internal control report that is now required of all public companies who does not have a direct effect on a companys internal control system board of trustees what should not be considered cash by an accountant postage stamps the notification accompanying a check that indicates the specific invoice being paid is called a remittance advice the debit balance in cash short and over at the end of an accounting period is reported as an expense on the income statement procedures designed to protect cash from theft and misuse from the time it is received until it can be deposited in a bank are called preventive controls what do you call a special form on which pertinent data is recorded about a liability of its payment voucher following the completion of the bank reconciliation an adjusting entry was made that debited cash and credited interest revenue therefore the bank reconciliation must have included and item that was added to the balance per the companys records a bank reconciliation should be prepared periodically why any differences between the companys records and the banks records should be determined and any errors made by either party should be discovered and corrected the bank reconciliation is part of the internal control system a check drawn by a company in payment of a voucher for 635 was recorded in the journal as 365 this item would be included in the bank reconciliation as a deduction from the balance per the companys records receipts from cash sales of 7500 were recorded incorrectly in the cash receipts journal as 5700 this item would be included on the bank reconciliation as a addition to the balance per companys records accompanying the bank statement was a credit memo for a shortterm note collected by the bank for the company this item is a addition to the balance per companys records accompanying the bank statement was a credit memo for a shortterm note collected by the bank for the customer what entry is required in the companys accounts debit cash credit notes receiveable what item that appeared on the bank reconciliation does not require an adjusting entry a check for 630 recorded in the check register for 360 accompanying the bank statement was a debit memo for an NSF check received from a customer this item would be included on the bank reconciliation as a deduction from the balance per companys records accompanying the bank statement was a debit memo for an NSF check received from a customer what entry is required in the companys accounts debit accounts receivable credit cash what is added to the balance per books on a bank reconciliation notes collected by the bank what is subtracted from the balance per books on a bank reconciliation service charges what is subtracted from the balance per bank on a bank reconciliation outstanding checks in the normal operation of business you receive a check from a customer and deposit it into your checking account with your bank statement you are advised that this check for 425 is NSF the bank also informs you that due to the amount of activity on your business account the monthly service charge is 45 what is done during a bank reconciliation subtract both values from balance according to books a 150 petty cash fund has cash of 28 and receipts of 110 the journal entry to replenish the account would include what debit to cash over and short for 12 15011028 a 135 petty cash fund has cash of 44 and receipts of 93 the journal entry to replenish the account would include what credit to cash over and short for 2 entries are made to the petty cash account when establishing the fund what is the type of account and normal balance of petty cash asset debit a 100 petty cash fund contains 89 in petty cash receipts and 750 in currency and coins the journal entry to record the replenishment of the fund would include debit to cash short and over for 350 10089750 during 2010 Tempo Inc has monthly cash expenses of 120000 on December 31 2010 its cash balance is 1860000 the ratio of cash to monthly cash expenses is 155 1860000120000 a note receivable due in 18 months is listed on the balance sheet under the caption investments notes or accounts receivables that result from sales transactions are often called what trade receivables when does an account become uncollectible there is no general rule for when an account becomes uncollectible the direct writeoff method of accounting for uncollectible accounts is not generally accepted as a basis for estimating bad debts under the direct writeoff method of accounting for uncollectible accounts bad debts expense is debited when an account is determined to be worthless The Lowery Co uses the direct writeoff method of accounting for uncollectible accounts receivable Lowery has a customer whose accounts receivable balance has been determined to likely be uncollectible the entry to write off this account is debit bad debt expense credit accounts receivable on the balance sheet the amount shown for the allowance for doubtful accounts is equal to the what total estimated uncollectible accounts as of the end of the year what is meant by a debit balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts indicates that actual bad debt writeoffs have exceeded previous provisions for bad debts to record estimated uncollectible receivables using the allowance method the adjusting entry would be a debit to bad debts expense and a credit to allowance for doubtful accounts under the allowance method what happens when a yearend adjustment is made for estimated uncollectible accounts total assets decrease an aging of a companys accounts receivables indicates the estimate of uncollectible receivables totals 2000 if allowance for doubtful accounts has a 200 credit balance the adjustment to record the bad debt expense for the period will require a debit to bad debt expense for 1800 2000200 an aging of a companys accounts receivable indicates that estimate of the uncollectible accounts totals 5000 if allowance for doubtful accounts has a 1200 credit balance the adjustment to record the bad debt expense for the period will require a debit to bad debt expense for 3800 50001200 the collection of an account that had been previously written off under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectibles does not affect net income in the period it is collected at the beginning of the year the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts is a credit of 640 during the year 350 of previously writtenoff accounts were reinstated and accounts totaling 410 are writtenoff as uncollectible the end of the year balance before adjustment in the allowance for doubtful accounts should be what 580 640410350 using the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible receivables the entry to reinstate a specific receivable previously written off would include a debit to accounts receivable allowance for doubtful accounts has a debit balance of 1200 at the end of the year before adjustment the company prepares an analysis of customers accounts and estimates the amount of uncollectible accounts to be 13900 what adjusting entries is needed to record the bad debt expense for the year debit bad debt expense 15100 credit allowance for doubtful accounts 15100 139001200 allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of 800 at the end of the year before adjustment and an analysis of accounts in the customer ledger indicates the estimated amount of uncollectible accounts should be 16000 based on the estimate above what entries should be made debit bad debt expense 15200 credit allowance for doubtful accounts 15200 16000800 allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of 500 at the end of year before adjustment and bad debt expense is estimated at 3 of net credit sales if net credit sales are 300000 the amount of the adjusting entry to record the estimated uncollectible accounts receivables is 9000 3000003 under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible receivables writing off an uncollectible account affects affects only balance sheet accounts when a company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible receivables what entry would not be found in the general journal bad debt expense debited 500 accounts receivableBob Smith credited 500 a 60day 10 note for 9000 dated April 15 is received from a customer on account the face value of the note is 9000 if the maker of a promissory note fails to pay the note on the due date the note is said to be what dishonored YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 18 terms Accounting Test 2 50 terms Chapter 8 9 Quizzes 65 terms Chapter 9 Acct Multiple Choice 23 terms ch 9 accounting OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 16 terms Chapter 4 Vocab Firm Production Cost and Revenue Spanish Vocab Chapter 10 76 terms Spanish Vocab Chapter 6 27 terms Spanish Vocab Chapter 3

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