MKT 495 Exam 4 Chapter 14 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Sales promotions are marketing activities designed to stimulate consumer and marketing channel demand for a product or service CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 102 Terms in this set 102 Sales promotions are marketing activities designed to stimulate consumer and marketing channel demand for a product or service consumer promotions trade promotions Sales promotions take what two major forms Consumer promotions This kind of sales promotion is directed at retail customers They include coupons sweepstakes refunds and rebates premiums bonus packs priceoff programs and samples Trade promotions This kind of sales promotion is aimed at intermediates most notably wholesalers and retail outlets They consist of trade allowances trade contests trade shows and pointofpurchase materials Social media can be aimed at both consumer and trade groups International sales promotion efforts focus on stimulating demand across national or cultural boundaries Some of these efforts concentrate on shortterm goals especially when sales promotions are aimed at stimulating the immediate purchase of products or services also work to achieve longerterm objectives such as building brand loyalty and strengthening the companys image cultural differences International marketers take _____________ into account when designing sales promotion programs push strategy occurs when a marketer promotes a product to intermediaries wholesalers A push strategy is aimed at ________ first who then promote the product to retailers who promote the product to consumers trade promotions _______ represent push strategy techniques They focus specifically on establishing intermediary demand and support pull strategy focuses on stimulating product demand at the consumer level When a consumer expresses interest in a product at the retail store retailers are encouraged to carry the item The product will be ordered from wholesalers who purchase the product from the manufacturer Demand for the product is pulled through the marketing channel by the consumer from the intermediary and then the manufacturer consumer promotions __________ support pull strategies because the individual buyer receives the incentive personal connection Many international consumers have either tuned out mass media advertising or have cynical attitudes about advertising Making a ___________ has become more important highly effective International marketers often find that consumer promotion techniques that are ineffective in one market or country are __________ in another market or country Obtaining initial trial usage of a product by consumers Increasing consumption of an existing brand Building brand loyalty Maintaining or building market share in mature markets Preempting competitive efforts including competitor consumer promotions Supplementing advertising and personal selling activities International marketers often use these consumer promotions with one or more of the following goals in mind Coupons are certificates that allow consumers to save on the cost of specific products or services They are popular with many consumer groups and marketers have used them for many years ______ can help stimulate product trials especially when a new product is being marketed print media direct mail in or onpackage instore display instore scanner delivered at checkout Response offer Internet delivered electronic coupon What are some examples of types of coupons Premium is an item offered as a reward for purchasing another item The reward item is usually given free of charge but it can sometimes be priced modestly sometimes under the guise of a shipping and handling fee They take the form of gifts or prizes They represent an additional incentive for a consumer to buy a product They incur the costs associated with developing the prize or reward Hong Kong Consumer acceptance of premiums tends to vary by culture A recent study of grocery shoppers in ___________ revealed that premium programs were more effective than either contests or sweepstakes Bonus pack offers additional merchandise in a package for the same price such as a buy three get one free package of bar soap may also take the form of a bottle that is larger than the products standard size and is marked 25 more free They are often used when the goal is to entice consumers to stock up on a given item This decreases the chance that the consumer will switch to a competitor and can be a proactive way to protect a products market share They incur the additional expense of providing extra merchandise at the standard price Also shipping costs become greater when items are sent greater distances and they will be bulkier and heavier Such costs may be more dramatic when products are shipped long distances or across international borders contests are promotions with gamelike qualities that rely on a consumers skill at some activity The winner of the ________ receives a prize in the form of a product or money sweepstakes rely on chance drawings of consumer names in order to select the winner of a promotion longterm sales Although contests and sweepstakes often lead to immediate consumer responses they may not have an impact on ___________ Consumers sometimes quickly lose interest in a product or brand after the contest or sweepstakes has ended At that point a new form of promotion should be designed to sustain consumer involvement Participation and interest in contests and sweepstakes are strongly influenced by cultural norms as well as by local political and legal systems Rebates require consumers to mail a form along with a receipt or proof of purchase in order to receive money back from the manufacturer or retail outlet This type of sales promotion tends to work well at generating consumer interest Not every consumer will take the time or expend the effort necessary to receive a ________ which can increase profit priceoff promotions presents the consumer with an immediate price break expressed as a percentage of the price or an absolute amount The manufacturer can push this type of promotion by printing the price on a products package or a retailer might offer the price on a shelf tag signage Consumer responses to these promotions tend to be generally favorable Marketers run the risk of teaching consumers to wait for special pricing deals before buying the products if they use this technique too often Priceoff reductions also reduce revenues and can cut into bottomline profits Only when additional volume offsets the price cut is the program cost effective Priceoffs may help to fend off competitive offers thereby sacrificing shortterm revenues for longerrange customer loyalty What are the risks of priceoff promotions sampling A consumer is able to try a product free of charge helps to stimulate consumer interest in a product as it reduces purchase risk The consumer can take advantage of testing the product without paying any money are often mailed to consumers or are given out in retail outlets Retailers throughout the world often offer these to consumers in order to entice them to make purchases shortterm sales Sampling can be particularly effective at boosting ________ because the vast majority of consumers who try a product will buy the product at least once social networking sites ___________ also offers consumers an efficient method of requesting a product sample Once a free sample has been given the consumer may be presented with a coupon redeemable at the first purchase How can sampling programs be coupled with other consumer promotions social networking sites The majority of international Internet users visit ________ regularly International marketers employ these sites for advertising and send promotional materials such as coupons and contest entries directly to consumers Consumers are able to register for contests and to print coupons directly from these sites Consumers can become fans of companies and brands by joining their social networking pages Facebook and Twitter _____________ are often targets of international marketing efforts but firms also pay attention to foreign sites because the popularity of these media varies by country While social media sites tend to appeal to younger segments the use of the media cuts across demographics In some countries Internet access is limited to those with higher incomes European Many countries regulate what is a standard price and how often prices can be reduced through techniques such as priceoff programs Offers such as three for the price of two are illegal in some _________ countries distributed Sampling programs can face legal restrictions as to where they can be ________ or require a permit to give them in various parts of a city Canada In _________ a contest can not offer money solely as a prize and the contest must test some type of skill promotionprone consumers _________ take advantage of promotions They are not loyal to any given brand and look for the best deal pricesensitive consumers __________ use price as the only purchase criterion They take advantage of consumer promotions that reduce the price or increase a purchase value such as a bonus pack offer brandloyal consumers ________ purchase a favored brand regardless of substitutes Promotions targeted at this group should work toward maintaining loyalty and increasing consumption preferredbrand consumer _______ select from a set of brands they favor most The right consumer promotion can make the difference in a purchase decision bottomofthepyramid consumers __________ may be targeted with consumer promotions that are based on price Couponing and bonus packs as well as special priceoff promotions can all be effective methods of promoting items to these consumers Many of these consumers do not live close to any traditional retail outlets so in many cases products are transported to remote areas or villages where many of these consumers live This can be expensive for the international marketer but the goodwill associated with the effort can outweigh the shortterm monetary costs The concern is that these consumers may wait for the next promotion instead of transitioning to buying the product at a higher price Promotions that cause a loss may be ineffective to penetrate this market Trade shows Trade Allowances Cooperative advertising trade contests training programs pointofpurchase materials What are the 6 types of international trade promotions trade show gathers industry representatives to examine products and services presented to prospective buyers buyer interest Trade shows generally focus on generating ________ Shows are also useful for making contacts with industry representatives One advantage is that a product can be demonstrated at the show Europe In general a greater percentage of promotional expenditures are allocated to trade shows in ______ than in other regions of the world trade allowance allowance is a price reduction or other consideration paid by a company to intermediaries as an incentive to purchase or promote a specific product Many types are available to international marketers offinvoice allowances billback programs slotting fees and slotting allowances display allowances What are the 4 types of trade allowances offinvoice allowances are price reductions taken off orders based on agreements between the manufacturer and the retailer These invoices identify a predetermined purchase quantity that triggers the discount An example of this occurs when an international marketer such as Samsung grants a price break to wholesalers who distribute a certain volume of Samsung products internationally billback allowances allowance takes the form of a monetary allowance presented to the retailer or intermediary at the end of a promotional period In order to qualify for the allowance the intermediary must perform one or more promotional activities such as putting up displays providing free samples redeeming consumer coupons or offering price cuts These programs often help create positive relationships between manufacturers and intermediaries which will be crucial to the success of international marketing campaigns Pepsi and CocaCola Large international beverage marketers including _____________ utilize these allowances for retailers The retailer initially pays for the activity and then submits an invoice to the manufacturer for the cost thus leading to the term bill back slotting fee or slotting allowance is a payment made by a manufacturer to a retailer in order to secure shelf space Retailers set fees based on the amount of space allotted to a product such as a twelveinch space on an eyelevel shelf or an eighteeninch space on a groundlevel shelf these help to spread the risk of new product introductions between the retailer and manufacturer European Slotting allowances are common in _____________ countries where they are generally referred to as listing fees They are also prevalent in the United States and in all parts of the world display allowance promotion involves a retailer contracting with a manufacturer to place a product display in a prominent location in the retail outlet for a predetermined amount of time When the retailer agrees to the terms of the allowance and performs the activities as agreed the company earns an incentive in the form of a rebate at the end of the promotional period grocery Display allowances are common in the ________ market where large manufacturers encourage retailers to help promote products Proctor Gamble pays Nucare a British pharmacy display allowances to receive key shelf locations and prominent displays Cooperative advertising or coop advertising results from an agreement between a manufacturer and an intermediary Under this type of advertising arrangement a manufacturer agrees to pay for part of the advertising expenses of a retailer when the retailer promotes a product in a local market trade contests Manufacturers develop _________ to provide a reward or incentive for intermediaries that either reach certain sales goals or outsell other intermediaries These contests have proven to be effective in some international markets training programs Manufacturers often offer _________ to marketing intermediaries as part of a trade promotions effort Although this does not necessarily apply to every industry it can be an important form of trade promotion for complex products Pointofpurchase materials This takes a variety of forms but the goal is the same to encourage the immediate sale of the product by the end user trade promotions Pointofpurchase materials can be classified as ________ because they assist intermediaries most generally retailers in promoting a product to the end user These materials are effective because many items that are purchased in retail stores are chosen on impulse with little or no preplanning Marketers understand that making contact with consumers at the point of purchase increases the probability of a product being chosen Trade allowances __________ are often provided by manufacturers in exchange for the placement of pointofpurchase materials Retailers understand the value of display space on retail floors and often charge for the use of the space the most popular and symbolic colors proper language other local circumstances In many countries few bigbox stores are present making space more of a premium When designing pointofpurchase displays to be sent to an international customer the marketing team first examines the amount of retail space available for displays Cultural factors need to be considered including what Varying levels of access to new technologies technologies What continues to present a major challenge in the area of international sales promotions In lesserdeveloped regions of the world sales promotions such as sampling take on additional importance Europe Couponing and instore promotions are particularly popular in ________ as are direct mail campaigns United States Direct mail has taken on a smaller role in the ____________ Japan and Korea Mobile couponing is especially popular in ___________ legal differences and restrictions International marketers also consider ______________________ that are placed on sales promotion activities worldwide Language differences also pose a serious challenge for international marketers as does the appropriate selection of social networking sites Big box retailers ____________ carry thousands of products presenting consumers with seemingly endless options Manufacturers are compelled to offer trade promotions to gain favor with retailers and achieve placements in stores trade promotions Many suppliers believe _______________ are the only effective tool available to keep other companies from capturing space on shelves Especially true for international companies attempting to gain shelf space in foreign countries in the face of rapidly growing global competition standardization Company leaders decide whether local offices regional offices or world headquarters will manage the promotions Ultimately the decision may boil down to ______________ versus adaptation Although adaptation offers the advantage of catering to local market needs it can dilute the image of a brand globally due to contradictory messages being delivered technological availability A complicating factor in campaign management is that in many instances sales promotions must change due to the wide variance in _____________________ strategically International marketers should ensure that sales promotions are managed _________________ To ensure continuity of communication and message each promotion should fit within the overall strategic direction set by marketing managers which constitutes a critical part of the success of a promotional campaign Marketing Facial Tissues Example When marketing facial tissue products all of the elements present in the international marketing context should be addressed With regard to culture facial tissue is used in a variety of ways dependent on the country or region where it is sold In Taiwan paper towel products are not widely available Spills are cleaned up with facial tissue In other nations facial tissue is used as toilet paper even though technically the two are different In Western culture facial tissue may be for more than sniffles women employ it to remove makeup Bottomofthepyramid customers may not even be acquainted with the product The language of facial tissue also varies The French call them mouchoirs The Swedish version is ansiksservetter At the same time the term Kleenex remains the same in France or Sweden Governments may regulate the ingredients used to create facial tissue As greater environmental concerns emerge regarding deforestation an impact on harvesting trees to produce facial tissues may occur Some facial tissues carry ingredients such as lotions or perfumes which might subject them to additional regulations Economic conditions influence the patterns of the distribution of facial tissue In developed and Western cultures such products are widely distributed convenience items made available in a variety of packages For bottomofthepyramid markets or for leastdeveloped economies the same product may receive limited distribution support Infrastructure affects the delivery and price of facial tissue The products are light but packages do take up some space Modes of transportation as well as the information technology that might be used to market facial tissue will be tailored to individual countries The goal of the consumer promotion program constitutes the first concern In some countries the first goal would be to create consumer awareness In others countries the goal may be preempting competition or building market share Following the development of marketing objectives for the consumer promotion program individual choices would be made Coupons may be chosen for a variety of reasons including enticing initial purchases matching competitive offers generating brand switching or seeking to create some stockpiling of the product by consumers Premium offers would be limited A creative marketer might find a method to offer a premium based on a series of purchases Bonus packs could be shipped to larger retail stores where more shelf space is available The packs may be tied with a discount given to the retailer for purchasing and displaying the packs Contests andor sweepstakes might be featured in a number of ways A simple drawing for a prize based on entries might entice some customers A contest associated with a products use might also be possible Refunds and rebates are probably the least likely alternatives for facial tissue products The low price of the item would discourage this type of promotion Priceoff programs are logical candidates for tissues especially in developed economies where distribution is widespread If it is not possible to create perceptions of differences in quality then the primary method of competition will be based on price Sampling programs entice people to try products they have never used When entering a region in which facial tissues are not widely available free samples offer a quick and convenient method to encourage initial purchases Samples may be given in order to demonstrate the superiority of a brand in a direct comparison with the competition Trade show participation seems unlikely Very few shows deal with these types of products unless there is a logical tiein such as Disney characters marketed in conjunction with facial tissues Trade allowances offer a great deal of promise Offinvoice allowances would be given for larger bulk purchases Billback programs may be established for any large retailer that could perform a marketing function such as housing a sweepstakes or putting up a display Slotting fees may be paid to large retailers than require such funds to stock products Display allowances provide a further incentive to place a facial tissue brand in a prominent part of a retail store Cooperative advertising programs may be constructed with drugstores grocery stores and other retail outlets They may be held in conjunction with bonuspack offers or priceoff programs The goal would be to establish favorable relationships with retailers over time Trade contest options are limited The type of product once again confines the marketing team The same would be true for training programs Product features do not require an explanation and there would be few actual salespeople to target with such an effort Pointofpurchase materials might be developed either to display new product uses or to highlight the product during the cold and flu season Tieins with cold medications free samples bonus packs and coupons are all possibilities the marketing team could explore Public Relations The public relations function is handled by the department or unit in a firm that manages publicity and other marketing communications programs The public relations team may be part of the marketing department or a standalone unit in the organization Public relations efforts can combine with other promotional efforts to present a more fully integrated image ____________ involves the management of communication with all organizational stakeholders stakeholders Public relations includes developing quality contacts with all publics and ____________ Internal stakeholders __________ are the employees who work in a company External stakeholders ____________ include all others who have contact with the organization unions shareholders government media customers local community financial community special interest groups What are the 8 types of external stakeholders public relations releases correspondence with shareholders company newsletters annual reports the public relations section of the organizations website and special messages and special events What are the standard tools available to the public relations department 1 addressing negative publicity and events and 2 promoting positive publicity and imageenhancing events What are the two primary activities conducted by the public relations department damage control involves reacting to negative events caused by a companys mistake consumer grievances or unjustified or false claims made by the press or others seeking to injure a company public relations When the company is in the wrong company executives will ask the ___________ team to repair the damage to whatever degree possible crisis management programs and apology strategies Two of the more common methods used to address companycreated problems are ______________ Crisis management involves refuting a false claim in a forceful manner Company leaders will make public statements explaining why the charges are not valid They also can provide evidence proving that the negative publicity is unjustified The next element of crisis management will be promoting the positive aspects of a companys operations that also refute the negative claim First the companys leader offers an expression of guilt embarrassment or regret Second a statement acknowledging the inappropriate activity and accepting any sanctions imposed should be provided Third the companys leader publicly rejects the inappropriate behavior and approves of the proper action Finally the company provides compensation or penance to correct the wrong What are four elements does an apology strategy consist of In international circumstances ceremonies and methods for offering apologies vary excuses explanations or justifications When a company is connected to a negative event and is partially responsible leaders may offer what three things excuse will be a pronouncement that the firm and its leaders can not be held fully responsible for the predicament because it could not be foreseen explanation may be created to explain that the negative publicity has been disproportionate to the act justification involves using logic to diminish the degree of negativity associated with the event such as It wasnt that bad or If we dont pollute we will be out of business and people will lose jobs The other aspect of public relations programs includes all of the actions that support the generation of positive publicity along with programs that enhance an organizations _______ an entitling involves the company taking credit for a positive outcome such as when a pharmaceutical company takes credit for reducing illness and mortality rates by vending its products in a lessdeveloped nation an enhancement emphasizes the value of an outcome sponsorships event marketing causerelated marketing and green marketing and sustainability What marketing programs can be coupled to the goal of creating positive publicity and enhancing a firms image a sponsorship creates an agreement between a marketing organization and an individual team or a landmark A building or sports stadium may be the basis for this These are designed to assist in brand recall and help build brand loyalty Fan allegiance to a participant or team should transfer to the business Stadium sponsors believe naming rights grant an organization greater credibility and enhance brand recall event marketing uses marketing techniques to connect with buyers through specific live events including concerts performances or festivals to promote a product or brand consumers and trade channel members Event marketers use these techniques for connecting with both ________________ causerelated marketing can be an effective activity for a company seeking to promote and publicize its mission and core values cause When the ________ does not fit with the organization or its activities consumers quickly become cynical and may develop negative attitudes toward the company sustainable marketing practices An increasing number of international companies have become engaged in __________________ The opportunity to publicize these efforts creates more favorable consumer attitudes toward the company green programs Other firms undertake ___________________ but do not emphasize them in marketing or public relations activities The reasoning is that consumers may not believe the claim that the company has become more environmentally friendly instead concluding that only a token effort has been made Other consumers think that green products and production methods have higher costs and will lead to price increases social media The international growth of _________ usage presents an additional set of tasks for the public relations team bloggers Large organizations in particular will monitor what _______ and others engaged in social media connections are saying and writing about the company A negative event can quickly go viral and cause the company embarrassment or create a bad impression of the company internet interventions involve identifying false statements about a company and then responding to the allegations A member of the public relations team will identify himself or herself and present the organizations perspective At times the public relations employee can correct false information or present alternative interpretations of an event that has transpired public relations programs In the international arena _________________ have become vital links between companies and various stakeholders They remain vigilant to identify any negative publicity and to respond to it in a culturally appropriate fashion Public relations releases must be tailored to an individual countrys language culture legal and political systems economic conditions and infrastructure YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Chapter 16 87 terms mktg final Chapter 16 B 64 terms Sales Promotion OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 77 terms MGT 400 Exam 2 Part 2 MGT 400 Exam 2 MGT 400 Exam 1 171 terms MKT 444 Test 3

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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Quiz The Legislative Branch FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month the House of Representatives CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Which house of Congress is the incumbency effect stronger for CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 20 Terms in this set 20 the House of Representatives Which house of Congress is the incumbency effect stronger for false TF There are limitations on the number of terms a member of Congress may serve whips These people help floor leaders by directing party members in voting informing members of impending voting keeping track of vote counts and pressuring members to vote with the party US VP Not a Senate member but its presiding officer may not debate and only votes to break a tie true TF President pro tempore is a mostly ceremonial position lacking real power committees Most of the work of Congress is accomplished through 23 vote of each house or by having 23 of state legislatures request a national convention How can Congress propose amendments House of Representatives Who brings impeachment charges Senate Where is an impeachment case tried shares appointment and treatymaking powers with executive branch must approve appointments by majority vote and treaties by 23 vote Describe the executive powers of the Senate reapportionment After a national caucus has been taken changes in population distribution cause the changing of Congressional seats among the states This effect is commonly called Congress is unicameral in nature Which of the following is NOT true of the Congress Each house determines its own leadership and rules Terms of Congress last for 2 years Congress is unicameral in nature Only the president may call special sessions of Congress A session of Congress begins on January 3 of oddnumbered years It is the responsibility of the party whip to keep track of vote counts and pressure members to vote with the party Which of the following is true about the officers of the H of R It is the responsibility of the party whip to keep track of vote counts and pressure members to vote with the party The presiding officer is the majority leader Minority leaders direct floor debates The major duty of the majority leader is to assign bills to committee The whip serves as the major assistant to the speaker in determining the partys legislative program select committees Temporary committees appointed for the specific purpose of investigating a particular issue are called After listening to constituents members vote based on the opinions of those constituents that is they become the trustee of the constituent Which of the following is NOT true of members of Congress Members of Congress act as policymakers and make public policy through the passage of legislation Members of Congress are constituent servants Members of Congress work to support their political party platform After listening to constituents members vote based on the opinions of those constituents that is they become the trustee of the constituent Members of Congress serve on committees impeachment power Describe a non legislative power of Congress The bill is introduced by a member of the Congress or by a member of the executive department Which of the following would not be a step that a proposed bill would encounter on its journey through Congress The bill is debated The bill is voted on at which time it may pass or be defeated The bill may be assigned to a subcommittee The bill is numbered The bill is introduced by a member of the Congress or by a member of the executive department sign or veto the bill After receiving a bill the president may filibustering Which legislative tactic is most effectively used only in the Senate educational background Which of the following is not considered to be a contributing factor to the incumbency effect name recognition voting record educational background experience in campaigning visibility to constituents

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O

legislative branch
the house of representatives


Combo with Chem 305 Practice Finals Review and 1 other FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month If 750 g of water at 300C absorbs 900 calories the new temperature will be A 420C B 220C C 105C D 180C E 160C CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT A 420C Specific HeatCaloriesGrams x C CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 199 Terms in this set 199 If 750 g of water at 300C absorbs 900 calories the new temperature will be A 420C B 220C C 105C D 180C E 160C A 420C Specific HeatCaloriesGrams x C What is 21 10 written in decimal notation A 210000 B 0000021 C 2100000 D 210 E 000021 B 0000021 negative exponent move left positive exponent move right How many inches are contained in 254 cm A 645 inches B 100 inches C 010 inches D 254 inches E 100 inches E 100 inches What is the mass of 300 mL of a solution with a density of 160 gmL A 188 g B 316 g C 533 g D 480 g E none of the above D 480 g DensityMV Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes A C N B S S C H H D O O C H H One definition of a base is a substance that provides which ion in water solution A OH B Na C H D HO E NH A OH Which element is most likely to be X in the diatomic molecule shown XX A fluorine B helium C nitrogen D hydrogen E oxygen E oxygen Which property is most closely associated with covalent molecules A It conducts electricity when dissolved in water B It has a very high melting point C It is a gas at room temperature D It is composed of a metal and a nonmetal E none of these C It is a gas at room temperature How many grams of fluorine are required to produce 200 grams of FeF from the reaction shown 2 Fe 3F 2 FeF A 449 g B 101 g C 202 g D 505 g E 674 g B 101 g A solid sample at room temperature spontaneously sublimes forming a gas This change in state is accompanied by which of the changes in the sample A Entropy decreases and energy increases B Entropy and energy decrease C Entropy and energy increase D Entropy increases and energy decreases D Entropy increases and energy decreases Which of the following will affect all reaction rates A the presence of a catalyst B the concentrations of the reactants C the temperature of the reactants D All are correct D All are correct Which transformation is evaporation A gas solid B liquid gas C solid gas D solid liquid E liquid solid B liquid gas In a gas mixture of 35 He and 65 O the total pressure is 800 mm Hg What is the partial pressure of O A 65 mm Hg B 35 mm Hg C 520 mm Hg D 280 mm Hg E 100 mm Hg C 520 mm Hg 65 O 65 x 800520 Which statement best explains the meaning of the phrase like dissolves like A The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a nonpolar solute B A solvent and solute with similar intermolecular forces will readily form a solution C A solvent will easily dissolve a solute of similar mass D The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a polar solute E None of these statements is correct B A solvent and solute with similar intermolecular forces will readily form a solution Water can be used to dissolve which type of compounds A nonpolar compounds B polar compounds C ionic compounds D nonpolar and polar compounds E polar and ionic compounds E polar and ionic compounds The term miscible is used to describe which type of solution A liquidliquid B gasliquid C liquidsolid D gasgas E all of the above A liquidliquid In general the solubility of ________ in water decreases as temperature increases A gases B solids C liquids D none of these E all of these A gases How many grams of NaOH are needed to make 750 mL of a 25 wv solution A 39 g B 50 g C 20 g D 75 g E 19 g E 19 g mv mass of solute in gramsVolume of soln in mL x 100 What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 0750 mol CaCl in enough water to make 0500 L of solution A 1665 M B 150 M C 0375 M D 832 M E 0667 M B 150 M MolaritymolL What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 125 mol of AgNO in enough water to make 625 mL of solution A 0340 M B 000200 M C 00118 M D 0500 M E 200 M E 200 M Calculate the concentration in ppm of a pollutant that has been measured at 450 mg per 150 kg of sample A 330 ppm B 3000 ppm C 30 ppm D 60 ppm E none of the above C 30 ppm ppm mass of solute gmass of soln x 10 A 500 mL sample of a 120 M solution of HCl is diluted to 250 mL What is the new concentration A 300 M B 104 M C 120 M D 240 M E 600 M D 240 M McVcMdVdc and d are in subscripts A 500 mL sample of a 60 M solution of HCl is diluted to 200 mL What is the new concentration A 150 M B 200 M C 60 M D 210 M E 240 M A 150 M concentration500mL x 60M200mL According to BrønstedLowry theory acidbase reactions can be described as ________ reactions A electrolytic B gas phase C nuclear transfer D electron transfer E proton transfer E proton transfer An increase in solution pH corresponds to A a decrease in hydroxide ion concentration B no change in hydronium ion concentration C a decrease in hydronium ion concentration D an increase in hydronium ion concentration C a decrease in hydronium ion concentration What is the value of HO in a solution with pH 1082 A 15 10 M B 66 10 M C 318 M D 1082 M E 103 M A 15 10 M pH 10 What is the pH of a solution in which HO 12 10 M A 120 B 1108 C 1280 D 292 E 833 10 D 292 log12 x 10 What is the normality of a solution containing 100 g HNO in 500 mL of solution A 126 N B 317 N C 0630 N D 0500 N E 159 N B 317 N Normality N Eq of acid or baseLiters of soln Which best describes the size and shape of a sample of gas A Its volume is determined by the container but it has a definite shape B Volume and shape can not be described C It has definite volume but shape is determined by the container D It has definite volume and definite shape E Volume and shape are both determined by the container E Volume and shape are both determined by the container What is the chemical symbol for chromium A Ca B Cr C C D Cl E Cu B Cr Which measurement represents the largest quantity A 473 10 g B 473 mg C 4730 ng D 473 10 μg E 473 10 kg B 473 mg Which characteristics correctly describe a proton A approximate mass 1 amu charge 1 inside nucleus B approximate mass 1 amu charge 0 inside nucleus C approximate mass 5 104 amu charge 1 outside nucleus D approximate mass 5 104 amu charge 1 inside nucleus E approximate mass 1 amu charge 1 outside nucleus A approximate mass 1 amu charge 1 inside nucleus An atom with Z 31 and A 69 contains ________ protons and ________ neutrons A 38 31 B 31 100 C 31 38 D 31 69 E 69 31 C 31 38 Hydrogen exists as three isotopes These isotopes differ by the number of ________ contained in the atom A protons B charges C neutrons D electrons C neutrons Which of the following is an alkali metal A Na B Cl C He D Al E O A Na What is the electron configuration of Mg A 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d B 1s 2s 2p 3s C 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p D 1s 2s 2p E none of the above B 1s 2s 2p 3s Which group contains only dblock elements A Kr Xe Rn B Ce Pr Nd C Po Fr Ac D Ni Pd Pt E Si Ge As D Ni Pd Pt Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic A NO B CBr C SrBr D HO C SrBr The name of Cu is ________ ion or ________ ion A copperI cuprous B copper cupric C copperi cupric D copperII cuprous E copperII cupric E copperII cupric Which of the following molecules has a CCH bond angle of 180 A HCCHO B HCCH C HCCH D HCCH E none of them B HCCH D precipitation Which one of the following substances is produced during an acidbase or neutralization reaction A NaOH B CO C H D HO E NaCl D HO The oxidation number of iron in the compound FeBr is ________ A 1 B 2 C 3 D 1 E 2 C 3 C 2 Ag SO AgSO The percentage yield of a reaction can best be described as the ________ times 100 A amount of reactants left over divided by the original amounts B amount of product obtained divided by the maximum possible amount of product C total amount of materials involved in a reaction D amount of desired product divided by the amount of unwanted product E amount of product you could make if the reaction went to completion B amount of product obtained divided by the maximum possible amount of product Entropy can be defined as A the number of chemical bonds which are changed during a reaction B the amount of energy required to rearrange chemical bonds C the state of equilibrium in a system D the amount of disorder in a system E the amount of energy required to initiate a reaction D the amount of disorder in a system In the process of dissolving sugar in water the entropy increases This means that the sign of ΔS is ________ and that the randomness of the system ________ A undetermined increases B positive decreases C negative increases D positive increases E negative decreases D positive increases Which of the following states of matter should have the lowest entropy value A a gas B a liquid C a crystalline solid D Two of these have virtually the same entropy E all of the above C a crystalline solid Activation energy can best be described as A the energy level of the reactants B the difference in energy between reactants and the maximum energy C the difference in energy between reactants and products D the energy level of the products E the maximum energy level of the reaction B the difference in energy between reactants and the maximum energy Which change to this reaction system would cause the equilibrium to shift to the right N g 3 H g 2 NH g heat A lowering the temperature B removal of H g C heating the system D addition of NH g E addition of a catalyst A lowering the temperature If we add a catalyst to the following equation CO HO heat CO H which way will the equilibrium shift A to the right B no effect C to the left D not enough information B no effect Which transformation is evaporation A solid liquid B liquid solid C gas solid D solid gas E liquid gas E liquid gas Which represents the largest pressure A one hundred pascals B one atmosphere C five pounds per square inch D five mm Hg E one millimeter of mercury B one atmosphere What is the total pressure of a mixture of He and H if the partial pressures are 320 mm Hg and 800 mm Hg respectively A 1120 mm Hg B 40 mm Hg C 320 mm Hg D 480 mm Hg E 60 mm Hg A 1120 mm Hg 320 800 In a gas mixture of 35 He and 65 O the total pressure is 800 mm Hg What is the partial pressure of O A 65 mm Hg B 35 mm Hg C 100 mm Hg D 280 mm Hg E 520 mm Hg E 520 mm Hg 065 x 800 The term miscible is used to describe which type of solution A liquidliquid B liquidsolid C gasliquid D gasgas E all of the above A liquidliquid Which of the following compounds is a salt A CHCOH B NHNO C NH D CH E AlOH B NHNO What is the value of H3O in a solution with pH 1082 A 66 10 M B 318 M C 1082 M D 103 M E 15 10 M E 15 10 M 10 A buffer solution A maintains pH at 700 B closely maintains its original pH C is a salt solution D is a strong base E neutralizes only acids B closely maintains its original pH What is the normality of a solution containing 100 g HNO in 500 mL of solution A 317 N B 0500 N C 0630 N D 159 N E 126 N A 317 N If 750 g of water at 300C absorbs 900 calories the new temperature will be A 160C B 420C C 105C D 180C E 220C B 420C 900cal750 g x 100 calg x C 12 300 1242C What temperature is 10C on the Fahrenheit scale A 18F B 6F C 263F D 14F E 26F D 14F One definition of a base is a substance that provides which ion in water solution A OH B H C Na D HO E NH A OH A chemical bond formed between two identical atoms is aan ________ bond A covalent B hydrogen C molecular D atomic E ionic A covalent What is the molecular geometry of PH A trigonal planar B linear C bent D trigonal pyramidal E tetrahedral D trigonal pyramidal A section of the Periodic Table containing main group elements is shown If the elements W X Y and Z have electronegativity values of 10 20 25 and 35 respectively which bond is ionic A XZ B WY C WZ D YZ E XY C WZ in a chemical reaction A there are equal numbers of atoms on each side of the reaction arrow B the number of atoms present in a reaction can vary when the conditions change during the reaction C there are always the same number of products as there are reactants D there are equal numbers of molecules on each side of the reaction arrow E none of the above A there are equal numbers of atoms on each side of the reaction arrow The reaction 2 AgNO aq KSO aq 2 KNO aq AgSO s is an example of aan ________ reaction A precipitation B oxidationreduction C acidbase D combustion E none of the above A precipitation The combination of ions most likely to produce a precipitate is A Mg and CHO B NH and SO C Pb and NO D Li and PO E Fe and OH E Fe and OH Which reaction is not an example of a redox reaction A 2 AlO s 4 Al s 3 O g B 2 NHPO aq 3 BaNO aq BaPO s 6 NHNO aq C CH g 2 O g CO g 2 HO g D 6 HCl aq 2 Al s 2 AlCl aq 3 H g E 2 Hg l O g 2 HgO s B 2 NHPO aq 3 BaNO aq BaPO s 6 NHNO aq How many moles of CO are produced when 25 moles of O react according to the following equation CH 5 O 3 CO 4 HO A 15 B 5 C 18 D 3 E 6 A 15 A solution containing 1450 g AgNO is mixed with a CaCl solution and 984 of AgCl is recovered Calculate the yield of the reaction A 6199 B 1613 C 8044 D 4016 E 6111 C 8044 Which reaction is an example of both a precipitation and a neutralization A HSO aq BaOH aq BaSO s 2 HO l B NHCO s 2 NH g CO g HO l C HPO aq 3 KOH aq KPO aq 3 HO l D 2 C s O g 2 CO g E FeCl aq 3 KOH aq FeOH s 3 KCl aq A HSO aq BaOH aq BaSO s 2 HO l A process which is unfavorable with respect to enthalpy but favorable with respect to entropy A could occur at high temperatures but not at lower temperatures B could occur at low temperatures but not at higher temperatures C could occur at any temperature D could not occur regardless of temperature E none of the above A could occur at high temperatures but not at lower temperatures For the reaction given below what quantity of heat will be produced if 900 g of CH are consumed in the reaction CH 5 O 3 CO 4 HO 488 kcal A 332 kcal B 996 kcal C 488 kcal D 976 kcal E 239 kcal B 996 kcal Which of the following will affect all reaction rates A the concentrations of the reactants B the presence of a catalyst C the temperature of the reactants D All are correct D All are correct The function of a catalyst in a reaction system is to A decrease the amount of heat produced B increase the yield of product C increase the rate of the reaction D decrease the amount of reactants consumed E decrease the amount of energy consumed in the reaction C increase the rate of the reaction Which description best fits a solid A definite volume shape of container no intermolecular attractions B volume and shape of container no intermolecular attractions C definite volume shape of container moderate intermolecular attractions D definite shape and volume strong intermolecular attractions E volume and shape of container strong intermolecular attractions D definite shape and volume strong intermolecular attractions Which of the following can not have hydrogen bonds A HCl B CHNH C HO D NH E HF A HCl Which of the following can serve as the solvent in a solution A a mixture of commingled liquids B a gas C a liquid D a solid E all of the above E all of the above The solubility of gases in liquids A decreases as temperature increases and decreases as pressure increases B increases as temperature increases and decreases as pressure increases C increases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases D decreases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases E is independent of temperature and increases as pressure increases D decreases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 480 g of NaOH in enough water to make 150 L of solution A 0556 M B 0800 M C 320 M D 00313 M E 128 M B 0800 M Calculate the concentration in ppm of a pollutant that has been measured at 450 mg per 150 kg of sample A 3000 ppm B 30 ppm C 330 ppm D 60 ppm E none of the above B 30 ppm How many grams of FeSO are present in a 200 mL sample of a 0500 M solution A 658 g B 152 g C 608 g D 304 g E 0760 g B 152 g A 500 mL sample of a 60 M solution of HCl is diluted to 200 mL What is the new concentration A 60 M B 150 M C 240 M D 200 M E 210 M B 150 M What is the osmolarity of a 020 M solution of KCl A 040 Osmol B 020 Osmol C 030 Osmol D 010 Osmol E 080 Osmol A 040 Osmol The HO ion is called the ________ ion A hydroxide B hydrogen C water D protium E hydronium E hydronium What is the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution with pH 234 A 219 10 M B 457 10 M C 427 10 M D 117 10 M E 234 10 M B 457 10 M Which statement concerning Arrhenius acidbase theory is not correct A Acidbase reactions must take place in aqueous solution B An Arrhenius acid produces hydrogen ions in water solution C An Arrhenius base produces hydroxide ions in water solution D A neutralization reaction produces water plus a salt E none of the above E none of the above When acids and bases react the product other than water is a A hydroxide ion B hydrogen ion C hydronium ion D salt E metal D salt Which of the following compounds is a salt A NaOH B KNO C CHO D HSO E HBr B KNO Which compound is manufactured in larger quantities in the US than any other industrial chemical A HNO B HSO C HCl D HPO E NaOH B HSO Which pair of compounds is used in the manufacture of fertilizers A HCl and HPO B HNO and NaOH C HSO and HPO D HNO and HCl E HCl and NaOH C HSO and HPO A BronstedLowry acid is a substance which A accepts protons from other substances B produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution C produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution D donates protons to other substances E accepts hydronium ions from other substances D donates protons to other substances A BronstedLowry base is a substance which A produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution B accepts hydronium ions from other substances C accepts protons from other substances D produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution E donates protons to other substances C accepts protons from other substances A necessary requirement for a Bronsted base is A the production of hydronium ion upon reaction with water B the presence of water as a reaction medium C a lone pair of electrons in its Lewis dot structure D the presence of hydroxide in its formula E the presence of a metal ion in its formula C a lone pair of electrons in its Lewis dot structure The base forms a new ________ bond in a BronstedLowry acidbase reaction A hydrogen B aquo C covalent D metallic E ionic C covalent Which of the following is a diprotic acid A nitric acid B acetic acid C phosphoric acid D sulfuric acid E hydrochloric acid D sulfuric acid What is the conjugate base of HSO A OH B HO C HSO D SO E HSO D SO According to BronstedLowry theory acidbase reactions can be described as ________ reactions A proton transfer B nuclear transfer C electrolytic D gas phase E electron transfer A proton transfer CHN HCO CHN HCO In the reaction shown the conjugate acid of CHN is ________ A CHN B HCO C CHN D HO E HCO C CHN CHNH HCl CHNH Cl A conjugate acidbase pair in the reaction shown is ________ and ________ A CHNH and Cl B CHNH and Cl C HCl and HO D HCl and Cl E CHNH and HCl D HCl and Cl Which of the following can not act as a Bronsted base A NH B NH C HCO D CO E NH E NH Which of the following is a triprotic acid A NH B HPO C AlOH D HNO E CHCOOH B HPO Ammonia reacts with acids because A it contains the hydroxide group B it is itself an acid C it is neutral D it contains a lone pair of electrons E it is a salt D it contains a lone pair of electrons Water and HSO can either accept protons or donate protons Such substances are said to be A monoprotic B triprotic C amphoteric D conjugate E diprotic C amphoteric Which statement is correct for pure water A Pure water contains no ions B Pure water contains equal amounts of hydroxide OH and hydronium H3O ions C Pure water is an electrolyte D Pure water contains larger amounts of hydronium H3O ions than hydroxide OH ions E Pure water contains larger amounts of hydroxide OH ions than hydronium H3O ions B Pure water contains equal amounts of hydroxide OH and hydronium H3O ions Acetic acid is a weak acid in water because it is A unable to hold onto its hydrogen ion B completely dissociated into hydronium ions and acetate ions C only slightly dissociated into ions D dilute E only slightly soluble C only slightly dissociated into ions Which example is not basic A shampoo B limewater C window cleaner D vinegar E MgOH used in remedies for upset stomach D vinegar A buffer solution A is a strong base B closely maintains its original pH C neutralizes only acids D maintains pH at 700 E is a salt solution B closely maintains its original pH All of the statements regarding equivalents of acids and bases are true except A The equivalent weight of a base is the weight that produces one mole of hydroxide ions B Equivalents are used to determine normality of solutions C Equivalents are the same as moles D One equivalent of any acid will neutralize one equivalent of any base E Equivalents of acid are based on the number of hydrogen ions produced per formula unit of acid C Equivalents are the same as moles All of the following statements describing solutions are true EXCEPT A Solutions are homogeneous B Making a solution involves a physical change C Solutions are colorless D The particles in a solution are atomic or molecular in size E Solutions are transparent C Solutions are colorless Which homogeneous mixture is opaque and has particles large enough to be filtered A solution B suspension C colloid D both colloids and suspensions E none of the above B suspension Which is not an example of a solution A the mixture of gases in a SCUBA diving tank B antifreeze in a car radiator C spring water purchased at a supermarket D a coin made from nickel and copper E none of the above E none of the above The number of components in a solution is ________ A 3 B at least 2 C 5 D 6 E 4 B at least 2 Which of the following can not serve as the solvent in a solution A a gas B a liquid C a mixture of comingled liquids D a solid E all of the above E all of the above In a mixture of 5 mL water 10 mL alcohol and 50 mL acetone the solvents isare ________ A acetone and alcohol B alcohol and water C water D alcohol E acetone E acetone When a solid dissolves each molecule is removed from the crystal by interaction with the solvent This process of surrounding each ion with solvent molecules is called A dilution B hemolysis C crenation D electrolysis E solvation E solvation Water can be used to dissolve which type of compounds A nonpolar compounds B polar compounds C ionic compounds D both A and B E both B and C E both B and C An ionic compounded that attracts atmospheric water strongly is said to be A soluble B immiscible C miscible D diluted E hygroscopic E hygroscopic Which statement about solubility is not true A A supersaturated solution is unstable B In a solution containing excess solute an equilibrium exists between dissolved and undissolved solute C Solubility of ionic solids increases greatly with temperature D No additional solute will dissolve in a saturated solution E The solubility of substances is measured as g solute100 mL solvent C Solubility of ionic solids increases greatly with temperature Which of the following statements about the solubility of gases in liquids is not correct A A solution stored under an atmosphere of pure nitrogen will contain more dissolved nitrogen than the same solution stored under air because air is only 80 nitrogen B A warm can of soda fizzes more than a cold can of soda when opened because gases are less soluble at higher temperature C An opened can of soda goes ʺflatʺ because the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is lower in the atmosphere than in the unopened can D Fish kills may occur in the summertime because an inadequate amount of oxygen is dissolved in the water E none of the above E none of the above The solubility of gases in liquids A increases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases B increases as temperature increases and decreases as pressure increases C decreases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases D is independent of temperature and increases as pressure increases E decreases as temperature increases and decreases as pressure increases C decreases as temperature increases and increases as pressure increases The solubility of nitrogen in water exposed to the atmosphere where the partial pressure of nitrogen is 593 mm is 53 10 M At the same temperature what would be the solubility of pure nitrogen at a pressure of 760 mm A 2400 M B 1500 M C 41 10 M D 68 10 M E none of the above D 68 10 M All of the statements about molarity are correct except A The molarity of a diluted solution is less than the molarity of the original solution B The abbreviation is M C The interpretation of the symbol is ʺmoles of solute per mole of solventʺ D moles molarity volume E volume molesmolarity C The interpretation of the symbol is ʺmoles of solute per mole of solventʺ Which solution is the most concentrated Each choice refers to the same solute and solvent A 30 g solute in 150 mL solution B 24 g solute in 2 mL solution C 50 g solute in 175 mL solution D 20 g solute in 50 mL solution E 24 g solute in 5 mL solution B 24 g solute in 2 mL solution Which solution is the least concentrated Each choice refers to the same solute and solvent A 20 g solute in 50 mL solution B 24 g solute in 5 mL solution C 30 g solute in 150 mL solution D 24 g solute in 2 mL solution E 50 g solute in 175 mL solution C 30 g solute in 150 mL solution Which information is necessary to determine the molarity of a solution if the chemical formula of the solute is known A the molar mass of both the solute and the solvent used B only the volume of solvent used C the mass of solute dissolved and the final volume of the solution D only the mass of solute dissolved E the mass of solute dissolved and the volume of solvent added C the mass of solute dissolved and the final volume of the solution Which procedure will produce 250 mL of a solution that is 4 by volume alcohol in water A 10 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution B 10 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water C 4 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution D 4 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water E none of the above A 10 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution Which substance is not an electrolyte A KOH B HCl C NHNO D NaCl E CH E CH How many grams are contained in one equivalent of iron III ion Fe A 5585 g B 1676 g C 00537 g D 1862 g E 602 x 10 g D 1862 g Red blood cells are placed in a solution and neither hemolysis nor crenation occurs Therefore the solution is A isotopic B isotonic C hypertonic D concentrated E hypotonic B isotonic Which has the highest boiling point A pure water B 01 M AlNO C 01 M NaSO D 01 M MgCl E 01 M glucose CHO B 01 M AlNO Which has the lowest boiling point A 01 M NaSO B 01 M AlNO C pure water D 01 M glucose CHO E 01 M MgCl C pure water Which elements all belong in the same group A B Si As B Fe Cu Ni C F Cl Br D Al Ge Sb E C N O C F Cl Br The property defined as the energy required to remove one electron from an atom in the gaseous state is A electron affinity B atomic number C electronegativity D ionization energy E none of the above D ionization energy Which of the following pairs will form ionic bonds with one another A Cs Br B N C C Na Ca D S C A Cs Br Which property could describe a covalent compound A It is composed of a nonmetal and a metal B It is a gas at room temperature C It conducts electricity when melted D It conducts electricity when dissolved in water E none of the above E none of the above The combination of ions most likely to produce a precipitate is A NH and SO B Fe and OH C Pb and NO D Mg and CHO E Li and PO B Fe and OH Which reaction is an example of an acidbase reaction AHSO aq CaOH aq CaSO aq 2 HOl B HCO aq HOl CO g C 6 HClaq 2 Als 2 AlCl aq 3 H g D FeCl aq 3 KOHaq FeOH s 3 KClaq E 2 Hgl Og 2 HgOs AHSO aq CaOH aq CaSO aq 2 HOl How many molecules are there in 300 moles of NH A 181 10 B 300 C 1700 D 120 10 E 100 A 181 10 500 g of Cl contains ________ mol Cl A 424 10 B 1775 C 141 D 0705 E 500 D 0705 How many moles of NaHCO are present in a 200 g sample A 238 10mol B 200 mol C 168 mol D 127 10 mol E 850 mol A 238 10mol Which of the following is not soluble in water A ironII bromide B potassium sulfide C ironIIInitrate D ironIII hydroxide E ammonium sulfate D ironIII hydroxide S O2 SO2 708 kcal Based on the reaction shown which statement is true A 708 kcal are consumed when 321 g of sulfur reacts B 708 kcal are produced when 1 g of sulfur reacts C 708 kcal are consumed when 1 g of sulfur reacts D 708 kcal are produced when 321 g of sulfur reacts E 708 kcal are produced when 1 g of sulfur dioxide is produced D 708 kcal are produced when 321 g of sulfur reacts Calculate the volume of 500 mol of helium at 120C and 1520 mm Hg A 00324 liters B 806 liters C 0106 liters D 323 liters E none of the above B 806 liters How much NaOH is present in a 750 mL sample of a 500 wv solution A 150 g B 500 g C 667 g D 750 g E 375 g E 375 g Which solution is basic A OH 10 10 B OH 10 10 C HO 10 10 D HO 10 10 E HO 10 10 E HO 10 10 If the concentration of OH in an aqueous solution is 14 10 M the concentration of HO is ________ A 71 10 M B 13 10 M C 14 10 M D 71 10 M E 10 10 M D 71 10 M If the H of a water sample is 1 10 M the OH is A 1 10 M B 1 10 M C 1 10 M D 1 10 M E none of the above A 1 10 M

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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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