Anatomy and Physiology MAP Chapter 1 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Which of the following options best describes anatomy A the study of internal body structures B the study of external body structures C the oldest medical science D all of the listed responses are correct CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT D all of the listed responses are correct CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 55 Which of the following options best describes anatomy A the study of internal body structures B the study of external body structures C the oldest medical science D all of the listed responses are correct D all of the listed responses are correct The study of tissues with a microscope is called ____ A cell physiology B gross anatomy C histology D surface anatomy C histology Anatomy is to ____ as physiology is to ____ A growth form B structure function C form structure D function form E structure form B structure function Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions A physiology B genetics C cytology D embryology E anatomy A physiology Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the simplest to the most complex A cellular tissue molecular organ system organ organism B molecular cellular tissue organ organ system organism C organ organism molecular cellular tissue organ system D tissue cellular molecular organ organ system organism B molecular cellular tissue organ organ system organism During wind sprints for field hockey practice Sarah noticed that her face felt very hot and looked red Of the choices below which would be considered the receptors for the homeostatic response to Sarahs running A Sarahs lungs B Sarahs skeletal muscles and blood vessels C Sarahs cardiac muscle D Sarahs brain B Sarahs skeletal muscles and blood vessels The central idea for understanding the general stability of body function is the principle of ____ A homeostasis B nutrition C equilibrium D metabolism A homeostasis The central principle of physiology is A temperature regulation B homeostasis C reflexes D nutrition E stimulation B homeostasis With regard to maintaining homeostasis in a positive feedback situation the stimulus is ____ A reinforced B automatically adjusted without a control center C consistently the same D eliminated A reinforced In blood clotting the platelets _____ to initiate the clotting process A dilate B aggregate C deliver oxygen D constrict B aggregate Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior parts A proximal B transverse C sagittal D frontal B transverse ____ feedback control reduces variations away from a desired physiological state A positive B depressive C negative D neutral C negative If a response decreases a disturbance the control system is classified as a ____ feedback A deficit B positive C negative D polarized E neutral C negative If a response increases a disturbance the control system is classified as a _____ feedback system A polarized B neutral C deficit D positive E negative D positive Identify the quadrant that contains most of the stomach A left upper quadrant B left lower quadrant C right lower quadrant D right upper quadrant A left upper quadrant The spleen is located in the ____ quadrant A right lower B left upper C left lower D right upper B left upper The lungs are ____ to the heart A medial B proximal C lateral D posterior C lateral The heart is ____ to the lungs A distal B proximal C posterior D medial E lateral D medial The wrist is ____ to the elbow A lateral B proximal C medial D horizontal E distal E distal The chin is ____ to the nose A Anterior B inferior C posterior D medial E superior B inferior The ventral body cavity is subdivided into the abdominopelvic and ____ A thoracic cavity B pelvic cavity C pericardial cavity D peritoneal cavity A thoracic cavity The ____ attaches to the surface of the heart A visceral peritoneum B parietal pericardium C visceral pericardium D visceral pleura C visceral pericardium The diaphragm muscle separates the ____ from the ____ A abdominal cavity pelvic cavity B pleural cavity mediastinum C pericardial cavity pleural cavity D pericardial sac pericardial cavity E thoracic cavity abdominopelvic cavity E thoracic cavity abdominopelvic cavity Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal A spleen B urinary bladder C stomach D large intestine E kidney E kidney The right pleural cavity contains A the heart B the trachea C the right lung D the left lung E both lungs C the right lung The membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the _____ A peritoneum B mediastinum C pericardium D pleura A peritoneum Which of these organs is retroperitoneal in location A large intestine B urinary bladder C stomach D kidney D kidney Visceral pericardium covers the _____ A pleural cavity B heart C peritoneal cavity D lung B heart In which quadrant would you find the liver A right upper B left lower C left upper D right lower A right upper When a person is lying face up in anatomical position the individual is said to be _____ supine Moving along the surface of the skin from the wrist toward the elbow is an example of moving in a ____ direction proximal The skin is ____ to the muscles superficial The heart is ____ to the arms medial The term medial surface refers to the area _____ A away from the long axis of the body B away from the attached base C close to the long axis of the body D towards an attached base C close to the long axis of the body In descriptions of the superficial anatomy of the human body the arm is the ____ A brachium B manus C crus D carpus A brachium The spinal cord is _____ to the esophagus A distal B posterior C proximal D anterior B posterior The knee is proximal to the _____ A thigh B elbow C hip D foot D foot A patient placed face down is in the _____ position prone When standing moving towards the cranium is moving in an _____ direction A medial B upward C downward D lateral B upward What is the name of the serous membrane that covers the surface of the heart A visceral pericardium B visceral pleura C parietal peritoneum D parietal pericardium A visceral pericardium A person in anatomical position is standing erect feet facing forward and ____ A arms in a raised position with palms of hands facing dorsally and the thumbs to the inside B arms hanging to sides with palms of hands facing forward and with the thumbs to the outside C arms in a raised position with palms of hands facing forward and with the thumbs to the outside D arms handing to sides with palms of hands facing anteriorly and the thumbs located medially B arms hanging to sides with palms of hands facing forward and with the thumbs to the outside The two subdivisions of the ventral body cavity are the ______ A pericardial and pleural cavities B thoracic and abdominal cavities C abdominal and pelvic cavities D thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities D thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities Another term for anterior would be ______ A cranial B ventral C caudal D dorsal B ventral he subdivisions of the thoracic body cavity are the __________ A thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities B cranial and spinal cavities C pelvic and abdominal cavities D pleural and pericardial cavities D pleural and pericardial cavities You are a pathology intern at a prestigious medical school Your instructor presents you with a box of leg bones and asks you to place them on the table in the correct anatomical position You recall that anatomical position is determined __________ A in reference to your left and right B in reference to the sagittal plane C in reference to the superior and inferior ends D in reference to the subjects right and left D in reference to the subjects right and left Which of the choices contains the sequence of anatomical directions equivalent to ventral posterior superior inferior A cephalic caudal posterior anterior B dorsal anterior caudal cephalic C caudal cephalic anterior posterior D anterior dorsal cephalic caudal D anterior dorsal cephalic caudal Which of the following is NOT true of anatomical position A palms face backward B feet are together C arms and hands are at the sides D palms face forward A palms face backward In anatomical position the head is ______ to the chest A disal B superior C medial D inferior B superior The heart and the lungs are located in the ______ cavity A abdominal B thoracic C plural D pericardial B thoracic The ventral body cavity is divided by a flat muscular sheet called the ____ A mediastinum B peritoneum C pericardium D diaphragm D diaphragm The thoracic cavity is _____ to the abdominopelvic cavity A superior B anterior C posterior D inferior A superior In which body cavity are the female reproductive organs located A pleural cavity B abdominal cavity C pelvic cavity D mediastinum C pelvic cavity The stomach is located in the _____ cavity A abdominal B pericardial C pelvic D pleural A abdominal Which of these organs is in the thoracic cavity A esophagus B trachea C thymus D all of these organs are in the thoracic cavity D all of these organs are in the thoracic cavity During lab you notice that the kidneys are not directly associated with the other organs in the abdominal cavity Upon closer inspection you observe that they are located outside of the peritoneal lining Which response best describes the position of the kidneys A the kidneys are infraperitoneal with respect to the abdominal cavity B the kidneys lie within the visceral peritoneum C the kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity D the kidneys lie within the parietal peritoneum C the kidneys are retroperitoneal to the abdominal cavity

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TrueFalse Chapter 8 Biz Law FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month A person charged with a crime in the United States is presumed guilty until proven innocent CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT False CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 15

O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Econ ch 7 questions FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The aggregate demand curve shows the A Inverse relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP purchased B Direct relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP produced C Inverse relationship between interest rates and the quantity of real GDP produced D Direct relationship between realbalances and the quantity of real GDP purchased A CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 52 Terms in this set 52 The aggregate demand curve shows the A Inverse relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP purchased B Direct relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP produced C Inverse relationship between interest rates and the quantity of real GDP produced D Direct relationship between realbalances and the quantity of real GDP purchased A The labels for the axes of the aggregate demand graph should be A Quantity of a product on the vertical axis and the price of a product on the horizontal axis B Price of a product on the vertical axis and quantity of a product on the horizontal axis C Real domestic output on the vertical axis and the price level on the horizontal axis D Real domestic output on the horizontal axis and the price level on the vertical axis D The aggregate demand curve or schedule shows the relationship between the total demand for output and the A Income level B Interest rate C Price level D Real GDP C When the general price level in our economy increases the following effects occur except A The purchasing power of peoples savings will increase B The interest rate will also tend to increase C Foreign buyers will buy less of our output and we tend to import more D Our net exports will tend to decrease A The foreign purchases effect on aggregate demand suggests that a A Fall in our domestic price level will increase our imports and reduce our exports thereby reducing the net exports component of aggregate demand B Fall in our domestic price level will decrease our imports and increase our exports thereby reducing the net exports component of aggregate demand C Rise in our domestic price level will increase our imports and reduce our exports thereby reducing the net exports component of aggregate demand D Rise in our domestic price level will decrease our imports and increase our exports thereby reducing the net exports component of aggregate demand C The interest rate effect on aggregate demand indicates that an A Decrease in the price level will increase the demand for money increase interest rates and decrease consumption and investment spending B Decrease in the price level will decrease the demand for money decrease interest rates and increase consumption and investment spending C Increase in the price level will increase the demand for money reduce interest rates and decrease consumption and investment spending D Increase in the supply of money will increase interest rates and decrease interestsensitive consumption and investment spending D The realbalances effect on aggregate demand suggests that a A Lower price level will decrease the demand for money decrease interest rates and increase consumption and investment spending B Lower price level will decrease the real value of many financial assets and therefore cause an increase in spending C Lower price level will increase the real value of many financial assets and therefore cause an increase in spending D Higher price level will increase the real value of many financial assets and therefore cause an increase in spending C The foreign purchases interest rate and realbalances effects explain why the A Aggregate demand curve is downwardsloping B Aggregate demand curve may shift to the left or right C Economy will adjust towards equilibrium D Aggregate expenditures schedule may shift up or down A A decrease in interest rates caused by a change in the price level would cause an A Decrease or shift left in aggregate demand B Increase or shift right in aggregate demand C Decrease in the quantity of real output demanded or movement up along AD D Increase in the quantity of real output demanded or movement down along AD A An increase in personal income tax rates will cause an A Decrease or shift left in aggregate demand B Increase or shift right in aggregate demand C Decrease in the quantity of real output demanded or movement up along AD D Increase in the quantity of real output demanded or movement down along AD A An expected increase in the prices of consumer goods in the near future will A Decrease or shift left in aggregate demand now B Increase or shift right in aggregate demand now C Decrease in the quantity of real output demanded or movement up along AD D Increase in the quantity of real output demanded or movement down along AD B A decrease in expected returns on investment will most likely shift the AD curve to the A Right because C will increase B Left because C will decrease C Right because Ig will increase D Left because Ig will decrease A An increase in expected future income will A Increase aggregate demand and aggregate supply B Decrease aggregate demand and aggregate supply C Increase aggregate supply D Increase aggregate demand D In the Great Recession of 20072009 the stock market values shrank causing a reverse A Wealth effect B Realbalances effect C Interestrate effect D Expectations effect A decrease in government spending will cause an A Increase in the quantity of real output demanded B Decrease in the quantity of real output demanded C Decrease in aggregate demand D Increase in aggregate demand C If the dollar appreciates in value relative to foreign currencies A Aggregate demand decreases because C decreases B Aggregate demand increases because C increases C Aggregate demand decreases because net exports decrease D Aggregate demand increases because net exports increase C If the national incomes of our trading partners increase then our A Aggregate demand decreases because C decreases B Aggregate demand increases because C increases C Aggregate demand decreases because net exports decrease D Aggregate demand increases because net exports increase B An aggregate supply curve represents the relationship between the A Price level and the buying of real domestic output B Price level and the production of real domestic output C Real domestic output bought and the real domestic output sold D Price level that producers are willing to accept and the price level buyers are willing to pay B The slope of the immediateshortrun aggregate supply curve is based on the assumption that A Both input and output prices are fixed B Neither input nor output prices are fixed C Input prices are flexible but output prices are fixed D Input prices are fixed but output prices are flexible C The immediateshortrun aggregate supply curve is A Vertical B Horizontal C Upwardsloping D Downwardsloping B The upward slope of the shortrun aggregate supply curve is based on the assumption that A Wages and other resource prices do not respond to price level changes B Wages and other resource prices do respond to price level changes C Prices of output do not respond to price level changes D Prices of inputs flexible while prices of outputs are fixed B The shortrun aggregate supply curve shows the A Inverse relationship between the price level and real GDP purchased B Inverse relationship between the price level and real GDP produced C Direct relationship between the price level and real GDP produced D Direct relationship between the price level and real GDP purchased The shortrun aggregate supply curve A Becomes flatter at output levels above the fullemployment output B Becomes steep at output levels above the fullemployment output C Is upwardsloping with a constant slope D Is horizontal The longrun aggregate supply curve is A Upwardsloping and becomes steeper at output levels above the fullemployment output B Upwardsloping and becomes flatter at output levels above the fullemployment output C Horizontal D Vertical The longrun aggregate supply analysis assumes that A Input prices are fixed while product prices are variable B Input prices are variable while product prices are fixed C Both input and product prices are variable D Both input and product prices are fixed The shortrun version of aggregate supply assumes that product prices are A Fixed while resource prices are flexible B Flexible while resource prices are fixed C Both input and product prices are flexible D Both input and product prices are fixed A fall in the prices of inputs will shift the aggregate A Demand curve leftward B Demand curve rightward C Supply curve rightward D Supply curve leftward Which would most likely shift the aggregate supply curve A change in the prices of A Domestic products B Foreign products C Financial assets D Resources A fall in labor costs will cause aggregate A Supply to increase B Demand to increase C Supply to decrease D Demand to decrease An increase in productivity will A Increase aggregate demand B Increase aggregate supply C Increase aggregate supply and aggregate demand D Decrease aggregate supply and aggregate demand Which would most likely increase aggregate supply A An increase in the prices of imported products B An increase in productivity C A decrease in business subsidies D A decrease in personal income taxes If the price of crude oil decreases then this would most likely A Decrease aggregate supply in the US B Increase aggregate supply in the US C Increase aggregate demand in the US D Decrease aggregate demand in the US If Congress passed new laws significantly increasing the regulation of business this action would tend to A Increase perunit production costs and shift the aggregate supply curve to the left B Increase perunit production costs and shift the aggregate supply curve to the right C Increase perunit production costs and shift the aggregate demand curve to the left D Decrease perunit production costs and shift the aggregate supply curve to the left A decrease in business taxes will tend to A Increase aggregate demand but not change aggregate supply B Increase aggregate supply but not change aggregate demand C Increase aggregate demand and increase aggregate supply D Decrease aggregate supply and decrease aggregate demand The intersection of the aggregate demand and aggregate supply curves determines the A Productivity level in the economy B Shape of the aggregate demand curve C Perunit cost of production in the economy D Equilibrium level of real domestic output and prices A decrease in aggregate demand in the short run will reduce A Both real output and the price level B The price level and increase the real domestic output C The real domestic output and have no effect on the price level D The price level and have no effect on real domestic output Demandpull inflation is illustrated in the short run aggregate supplyaggregate demand model as a shift of the aggregate A Supply to the right B Supply to the left C Demand to the right D Demand to the left A decrease in aggregate supply means A Both the real domestic output and the price level would decrease B The real domestic output would increase and rises in the price level would become smaller C The real domestic output would decrease and the price level would rise D Both the real domestic output and rises in the price level would become greater Costpush inflation is characterized by an A Increase in aggregate supply and a decrease in aggregate demand B Increase in aggregate demand and no change in aggregate supply C Decrease in aggregate supply and no change in aggregate demand D Decrease in both aggregate supply and aggregate demand With costpush inflation in the short run there will be A An increase in real GDP B A leftward shift in the aggregate demand curve C A decrease real GDP D A decrease in unemployment The economy experiences an increase in the price level and a decrease in real domestic output Which of the following is a likely explanation A Productivity has increased B Input prices have increased C There has been an increase in government spending D Government regulations have been reduced The economy experiences an increase in the price level and an increase in real domestic output Which is a likely explanation A Interest rates have increased B Business taxes have increased C Wage rates have fallen D Net exports have increased The economy experiences a decrease in the price level and an increase in real domestic output Which is a likely explanation A Consumer incomes and the quantity of labor have decreased B Business costs and wage rates have decreased C The prices of imported resources have increased D National income abroad has increased The US economy was able to achieve full employment with relative price level stability between 1996 and 2000 because aggregate A Demand increased B Supply decreased C Demand increased and aggregate supply increased D Demand decreased and aggregate supply increased Deflation refers to a situation where A Price level falls and could be caused by a shift of AD to the left B Price level falls and could be caused by a decrease in aggregate supply C The rate of inflation falls and could be caused by a shift of AS to the right D The rate of inflation rises and could be caused by an decrease in aggregate demand Disinflation refers to a situation where A Price level falls but the rate inflation does not B Price level rises but the rate of inflation does not C The rate of inflation falls but the price level does not D The rate of inflation rises but the price level does not Collective bargaining agreements that prohibit wage cuts for the duration of the contract contribute to A A wealth effect B A substitution effect C An increase in aggregate supply D A price level that is inflexible downward Menu costs will A Increase the amount of training of workers B Result in price wars between businesses C Increase the legal minimum wage D Make prices inflexible downward Wage contracts efficiency wages and the minimum wage are explanations for why A Competition results in price wars B Wages tend to be inflexible downward C The aggregate demand curve slopes downward D There is little support for the existence of a realbalances effect In the mid1970s changes in oil prices greatly affected US inflation When oil prices rose the US would experience A Costpush inflation and rising output B Demandpull inflation and rising output C Costpush inflation and falling output D Demandpull inflation and falling output The socalled ratchet effect refers to the characteristic in the economy where product prices wages and perunit production cost are flexible when A AD decreases but not when AD increases B AD increases but not when AD decreases C AS increases but not when AS decreases D AD shifts but not when AS shifts The stimulus package that the government implemented during the Great Recession of 200709 did not have as strong an impact on GDP and unemployment as expected for the following reasons except A Very high debt levels of households B Consumers raised their saving rates C The stimulus package caused prices to fall in many sectors D The effects of the stimulus package were diffuse and spread thinly among many sectors YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 21 terms Chapter 12 Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply 29 terms Chapter 12 HW 53 terms Economics Ch12 practice questions 53 terms Economics Ch29 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 36 terms AP exam 3 23 terms Psych exam 2 23 terms AP exam 2 59 terms Psychology exam 1 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 56 terms Econ Ch 7 questions 55 terms Econ ch 5 questions 61 terms econ ch 2 55 terms Econ ch 3

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O B O O


marketing test 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month four types of consumer product classes CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT convenience shopping speciality and unsought CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 32 Terms in this set 32 four types of consumer product classes convenience shopping speciality and unsought convenience products staples impulse emergency staple convenience products maximum exposure with widespread lowcost distribution mass selling by producer usually low price impulse convenience products widespread distribution with display at point of purchase emergency convenience products need widespread distribution near probable point of need price sensitivity low homogeneous and heterogeneous homogeneous shopping products need enough exposure to facilitate price comparison price sensitivity high heterogeneous shopping products need distribution near similar products promotion to highlight product advantages less price sensitivity speciality products price sensitivity is likely to be low limited distribution may be acceptable but should be treated as a convenience or shopping product to reach persons not yet sold on its speciality product status unsought products new unsought regularly unsought new unsought products must be available in places where similar or related products are sought needs attention getting promotion regularly unsought products requires very aggressive promotion usually personal selling staples are products that are bought often routinely and without much thoughtlike breakfast cereal canned soup and most other packaged foods used almost every day in almost every household convenience products are products a consumer needs but isnt willing to spend much time or effort shopping for These products are bought often require little service or selling dont cost much and may even be bought by habit A convenience product may be a staple impulse product or emergency product impulse products re products that are bought quicklyas unplanned purchasesbecause of a strongly felt need True impulse products are items that the customer hadnt planned to buy decides to buy on sight may have bought the same way many times before and wants right now If the buyer doesnt see an impulse product at the right time the sale may be lost emergency products are products that are purchased immediately when the need is great The customer doesnt have time to shop around when a traffic accident occurs a thunderstorm begins or an impromptu party starts The price of the ambulance service raincoat or ice cubes wont be important are products that a customer feels are worth the time and effort to compare with competing products Shopping products can be divided into two types homogeneous or heterogeneous depending on what customers are comparing The exact same products can be homogeneous or heterogeneous It just depends on how a particular target market thinks about and shops for the product homogeneous shopping products are items the customer sees as basically the same and wants at the lowest price So for example a target market that believes all gasoline is the same seeks out and buys gas at the station with the lowest prices heterogeneous shopping products are items the customer sees as different and wants to inspect for quality and suitabilityfurniture clothing and membership in a spa are good examples In this situation target consumers seek information from a knowledgeable salesperson or a reputable website speciality products re consumer products that the customer really wants and makes a special effort to find Shopping for a specialty product doesnt mean comparingthe buyer wants that special product and is willing to search for it Its the customers willingness to searchnot the extent of searchingthat makes it a specialty product unsought products re products that potential customers dont yet want or know they can buy So they dont search for them at all In fact consumers probably wont buy these products if they see themunless promotion can show their value new unsought products are products offering really new ideas that potential customers dont know about yet Informative promotion can help convince customers to accept the product ending its unsought status regularly unsought products re productslike gravestones life insurance and nursing homesthat stay unsought but not unbought forever There may be a need but potential customers arent motivated to satisfy it For this kind of product personal selling is very important branding the use of a name term symbol or design to identify a product brand name a word letter or group of words or letters trademark includes only those words symbols or marks that are legally registered for use by a single company service mark the same as a trademark except that is refers to a service offering three types of new products continuous innovations dynamically continuous innovations discontinuous innovation continuous innovations dont require customers to learn new behaviors entail minor variations on existing products dynamically continuous innovations require minor changes in customer behavior discontinuous innovations requires customers to significantly change their behavior usually involves completely new product and completely new product life cycle total quality management the philosophy that everyone in the organization is concerned about quality throughout al of the firms activities to better serve customer needs

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O

consumer product classes
impulse convenience products


Children and Their Development Kail Ch 9 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month A system that relates sounds or gestures to meaning CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Language CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 52 Terms in this set 52 A system that relates sounds or gestures to meaning Language The sounds of a language Phonology The study of words and their meanings Semantics The rules used to describe the structure of a language Grammar The rules that specify how words are combined to form sentences Syntax The study of how people use language to communicate Pragmatics The unique sounds that can be joined to form words that are the basic building blocks of language Phonemes The type of speech in which adults speak slowly with exaggerated changes in pitch and loudness InfantDirected Speech Vowellike sounds that are produced by young babies Cooing Speechlike sounds that have no meaning but consist of a consonant and vowel combined Babbling A pattern of rising or falling pitch Intonation A language learning style in which childrens vocabularies are dominated by the names of objects persons or actions Referential Style A language learning style in which childrens vocabularies include some names but many social phrases that are used like a single word Expressive Style A period of time when children learn new words at a very rapid pace Naming Explosion Childrens ability to make connections between new words and referents so rapidly that they can not be considering all possible meaning for the new word Fast Mapping A common mistake in early word learning in which children define a word too broadly Overextension The ability to remember speech sounds briefly Phonological Memory A common mistake in early word learning in which children define a word too narrowly Underextension Speech that consists only of words that are directly relevant to meaning Telegraphic Speech Words or endings of words that make a sentence grammatical Grammatical Morphemes Applying grammatical rules to words that are exceptions to the rule Overregularization View that children are born knowing that nouns usually refer to people or objects and that verbs are actions they use this knowledge to infer grammatical rules Semantic Bootstrapping Theory The term phonology refers to the sounds of a language The term semantics refers to the study of words and their meanings Grammar refers to the rules used to describe the structure of a language The basic building blocks of language that are used to form words are called phonemes Infants who are younger than 6 months of age do not need to experience speech sounds in their environments to be able to discriminate them When 7to 8montholds hear a word repeatedly in different sentences later they pay more attention to that word than to words they havent heard previously Young infants seem to identify words by paying more attention to stressed syllables rather than unstressed syllables Which of the following is true of infantdirected speech Infantdirected speech seems to attract the infants attention Mario Svirsky and his colleagues studied the impact on language development of cochlear implants in profoundly deaf children They found that children who received cochler implants acquired language at the same rate as children with normal hearing the production of syllables that contain vowels and consonants is called babbling Which of the following statements is true of the development of babbling Intonation is added to later babbling When young children are learning new words they systematically consider all possible hypotheses about the connection between the word and the correct referent According to the rules that young children use to learn the meanings of new words when Ravisha points to a picture of a boy in a blue shirt and says boy her 13montold son will assume that the word boy refers to the boy Which of the following statements is true regarding the influence of the environment on language development Questioning children wile reading to them encourages them to identify meanings of new words Children with expressive languagelearing styles have vocabularies that consist of many social phrases When Utsav is riding in the car with his mother he will point at buses vans bikes and trucks and say car This is an example of an overextension Defining a word too narrowly is known as an underextension Bilingual children are more likely than monolingual children to understand that words are simply arbitrary symbols The production of twoword speech often is called telegraphic speech Childrens use of grammatical morphemes is based primarily on the use of rules Which of the following is an example of overregularization mans The order in which children acquire grammatical morphemes depends on the complexity of the morpheme with the acquisition of simpler morphemes occurring before that of more complex morphemes Which would occur first in language development adding s to a word to form a plural According to the linguistic view which of the following statements reflects how children acquire grammar Humans seem to be innately prepared to process language and learn grammar Turntaking is apparent in preschoolers who expect that a comment will be followed by a response When 4yearolds describe a toy to a 2yearold they use simpler grammar than they do with an adult listener Children who are AfricanAmerican are more likely to use AfricanAmerican English with African American peers In the case of understanding metaphor young children can understand simple metaphors but not ones based on abstract relations Childrens understanding of sarcasm usually occurs when a mocking or overly enthusiastic tone of voice is present According to this theory children are born knowing that nouns usually refer to people or objects and that verbs are actions they use this knowledge to infer grammatical rules semantic bootstrapping theory YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 23 terms Chapter 9 Developmental Psychology 22 terms Psychology Child Development Chapter 9 Psych 350 Ch 9 Language Development OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 56 terms AP Psychology Chapter 8 62 terms Child Dev Test One 6 terms Statistics Exam 1 20 terms Themes of Modern History Quiz THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 36 terms Children and Their Development Chapter 7 40 terms Child Development and Education Chapter 8 38 terms Children and Their Development Chapter 12 59 terms Child Development Chapter 8

B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I I O O O O O O O O


APES Chapter 4 part 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Biomes CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a geographic region categorized by a particular combination of average annual temperature annual precipitation and distinctive plant growth forms on land and a particular combination of salinity depth and water flow in water CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 31 Terms in this set 31 Biomes a geographic region categorized by a particular combination of average annual temperature annual precipitation and distinctive plant growth forms on land and a particular combination of salinity depth and water flow in water Tundra a cold and treeless biome with lowgrowing vegetation Permafrost an impermeable permanently frozen layer of soil Boreal forests A forest made up primarily of coniferous evergreen trees that can tolerate cold winters and short growing seasons Temperate rainforests A coastal biome typified by moderate temperatures and high precipitation Temperate seasonal forests A biome with warmer summers and colder winters than temperate rainforests and dominated by deciduous trees Woodlandshrubland a biome characterized by hot dry summers and mild rainy winters Temperate grasslandcold desert a biome characterized by cold harsh winters and hot dry summers Tropical rainforests A warm and wet biome found between 20 N and 20 S of the equator with little seasonal temperature variation and high precipitation Tropical seasonal forestssavanna a biome marked by warm temperatures distinct wet dry seasons Subtropical deserts A biome prevailing at approximately 30 N and 30 S with hot temperatures extremely dry conditions and sparse vegetation What characteristics are used to identify terrestrial biomes Characteristics include dominant plant growth forms precipitation latitude and longitude climate and temperature What are some of the ways that humans use different terrestrial biomes Humans have adapted to live in different biomes and get different resources from these places What characteristics of a terrestrial biome determine its productivity Its productivity is determined by amount of precipitation and temperature Littoral zone the shallow zone of soil and water in lakes and ponds where most algae and emergent plants grow Limnetic zone A zone of open water in lakes and ponds Phytoplankton floating algae Profundal zone A region of water where sunlight does not reach below the limnetic zone inn very deep lakes Benthic zone the muddy bottom of a lake pond or ocean Freshwater wetlands An aquatic biome that is submerged or saturated by water for at least part of each year but shallow enough to support emergent vegetation Salt marshes A marsh containing nonwoody emergent vegetation found along the coast in temperate climates Mangrove swamps A swamp that occurs along tropical and subtropical coasts and contains salttolerant trees with roots submerged in water Intertidal zone The narrow band of coastline between the levels of high tide and low tide Coral reefs most diverse marine biome on Earth found in warm shallow waters beyond the shoreline Coral bleaching A phenomenon in which algae inside corals die causing the corals to turn white Photic zone the upper layer of water in the ocean that receives enough sunlight for photosynthesis Aphotic zone The layer of ocean water that lacks sufficient sunlight for photosynthesis Chemosynthesis A process used by some bacteria in the ocean to generate energy with methane and hydrogen sulfide How are aquatic biomes categorized Why are they categorized differently than terrestrial biomes They are categorized by salinity depth and water flow They are categorized differently because they deal with aquatic environments vs terrestrial land What are the different zones of lakes and the open ocean and what defines them The different zones include in lakes littoral zoneshallow limnetic zone open water profundal zone water below limnetic zone where sunlight doesnt reach benthic zone muddy bottom of a lake In open oceans photic zoneupper layer with sunlight for photosynthesis aphotic zone deeper insufficient sunlight benthic zone ocean floor How does water depth or flow influence the organisms that live in an aquatic biome Water depth influences the organisms because in deep water there is less sunlight meaning less photosynthesis performing plants This would mean that in this area there are more carnivorous animals In areas with fast flowing water dead terrestrial matter like leaves may create the base of the food web

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 15 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Angulated fracture CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT a fracture where two of the ends of the broken bone causes the extremity to deviate sharply from is normal anatomical position CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 59 Terms in this set 59 Angulated fracture a fracture where two of the ends of the broken bone causes the extremity to deviate sharply from is normal anatomical position Articulating surface the ends of bones that join or connect together loosely via ligament and a joint capsule to allow joint movement Closed fracture a fracture in which skin is intact at the site of fracture also know as a simple fracture Complete fracture a fracture involving the entire width of the bone Compound fracture A fracture in which the bone ends are displaced and pierce through the dermis Crepitus the grating crackling or popping sounds and sensations experienced under the skin and joints The sound can be created when two rough surfaces in the human body come into contact such as two edges of a broken bone Displaced fracture a fracture in which two ends of the broken bone are separated from one another and are no longer in correct anatomic alignment Fracture a break in the continuity of the bone and damage to surrounding tissues Incomplete fracture a fracture that does not extend through the full width of the bone immobilize to render fixed or incapable of moving Nondisplaced fracture a fracture in which the two ends of the broken bone are separated from one another but continue to be in correct anatomic alignment Open fracture The presence of a wound on the skin surface leading down to the site of the fracture Radiolucent relatively penetrable by xrays or other forms of radiation Simple fracture fracture where skin intact at site of fracture Subluxation an incomplete dislocation and chronic instability increasing likelihood of other injuries The open wound is now susceptible to infection so is the bone because the exposure to dirt and other microorganisms shock and other shock and other soft tissues and neurovascular injuries this means that immediate medical attention is required to limit further injury Avulsion Fracture causing a bone fragment to pulled off the bone by forces from a muscle or ligament Comminuted Fracture causing two or more small bone fragments in addition to the upper and lower sections of a broken bone Depressed Fracture with displacement of the bonenormally a flat bone inward Displaced Fracture in which the fragments are separated and are not in alignment Epiphyseal Fracture to the growth plate of a long bone in a child of adolescent Greenstick Incomplete fracture resulting from bending of a bone Impacted Bone fragments driven so firmly together that they become interlocked limiting movement between the fragments Longitudinal Fracture running the length of the shaft Spiral Fracture running at oblique angles creating a helical line in the bone Transverse fracture crossing the bone at a 90 degree angle to the bones axis Oblique Fracture at a 45degree angle to the bones axis identification of mechanism of injury will help determine whether impact forces were direct indirect or rotational and identify point of impact can help determine location type and severity of injury determine athletes condition with factors like Level of consciousness emotional response posture hip dislocation with shortened addicted internally rotated limb and tissue guarding splinting elbow by holding it close to body the assess the ABC During secondary assessment no unnecessary movement of the extremity be calming and reassuring compare extremities bilaterally use DOTS deformity open wound tenderness swelling The signs and symptoms of dislocations skeletal injuries and subluxation are very similar Fractures can be assessed with percussion vibration using a tuning fork compression and distraction First and foremost of management of skeletal injuries prehospital is life before limb never comprise an individuals survival to immobilize an injury treat all life threatening injuries before dealing with any nonlife threatening injuries second thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Reassure the friends and family that you are there to help and demonstrate empathy will comfort the athlete Third thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Immobilize the skeletal injury before transporting the individual to minimize further injury unless there is an immediate threat to life or the scene becomes unsafe the athletic trainer will need to use his or her best judgment as to which moving technique is appropriate In situations where the athlete must be transported immediately consider stabilizing the individuals on a spine board or vacuum mattress Fourth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Expose the injury by removing clothing and protective equipment form the injury site if Clothing or protective equipment is supporting the injury leave the clothing or equipment in place Remember to insure the athletes modesty Remove jewelry watches to prevent constriction of injured underlying soft tissue as the injury begins to swell Fifth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Control any bleeding by applying sterile over any open wounds In situations where there is a fracture open or closed you may opt to control the bleeding and minimize risk of shock by applying indirect pressure around the fracture site using a donut ring Covering any open wounds with a dressing sterile if possible will help to prevent infection Sixth thing to do when managing skeletal injury Complete a thorough secondary assessment using DOTS acronym when completing physical examination Include a thorough assessment of the distal extremitys circulation sensation and movement of CSM Be sure to document all pertinent findings Seventh thing you do when managing a skeletal injury To prevent further damage to the injury site immobilize the extremity above and below the injured area Example a midshaft fracture to the radius or ulna would require you to extend the splint to the joints above and below the fractured bones so you must stabilize the wrist and elbow to prevent any further movement of the joint To immobilize a dislocation or subluxation you must splint the bones above and below the injured site eighth thing you must do when managing a skeletal injury Prevent movement as much as possible an immobilize the injury site in a position that maintains stability and neurovascular function Also splint the injury only if it doesnt cause more pain to the athlete If it does cause more pain considering waiting for additional medical resources and place the individual in a position of comfort ninth thing you do when managing a skeletal injury In using a ridged splint be sure to provide adequate padding to the splint particularly around body prominences and to increase support to the area Commercial rigid splints such as SAM splint and some board splints come prepadded Materials such as gauze pads triangle bandages or tshirts can be used to pad improvised ridged splints Be sure that all hallow spaces and voids are filled and prevent pressure prominences if necessary tenth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Avoid splinting directly over the injured area or over open wounds Securing a bandage directly over an open wound may cause further irritation to the wound therefore bandages should be tied above and below the wound eleventh thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Recheck the distal extremity CSM once the splint has been properly secured This requires you to avoid covering the athletes fingers and toes when possible An compromise to neurovascular status which as tingling numbness discolorationcyanosis or decrease in skin temperature will require you to completely release the securing material and reapply the splint this time with the bandages not quite as tight twelfth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury Elevate the limb and apply ice to the secured splint area if it does not cause any discomfort and is not contraindicated as it would be with a cervical spine injury thirteenth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury DO NOT attempt to reduce dislocations of the spine wrist hip knees or open fractures Fourteenth thing to do when managing a skeletal injury DO NOT attempt to realign a severely deformed extremity without receiving online medical direction and only if you are trained to do so when a skeletal injury is suspected it must be immobilized before any additional care can be provided such as applying ice elevation or even transportation or nearest hospital anatomical soft splint immobilizing one part of the body with another part of the body ex splinting arm to body or fingers together improvised examples are blankets pillows towels they dont limit as much Ridged splints Items such as wood boards tongue depressors cardboard even tree branches can be used as an improvised rigid splint Commercial Ridged splints are such as Vacuum air and ladder and or traction splints The SAM splint Orthoglass splint padded wooden boards and aluminum finger splints are ex of commercial produced splints once applied correctly it will limit any further movement to reduce the risk of additional soft tissue or bony injuries The disadvantages of ridged splints is their inability to conform to injuries involving significant deformities These are often used to manage nondisplaced closed fractures Box splint a ridged splint compromised of three padded rigid boards and a Ushaped foot piece The individuals foot is placed inside the box splint It surrounds the entire foot ankle and distal tibia and fibula These are suitable for ankle fractures and ankle dislocations and distal fractures of the tibia and fibula The athletes shoe should be removed before applying the splint which will be decided based on severity of the injury Air splint easily applied clear inflatable plastic splints When inflated by mouth they provide a uniform compressive force around the injured extremity and are radiolucent Usually included are full leg full arm half arm foot ankle hand and wrist The disadvantage is that they can not be used on displaced or open fractures or on dislocated or deformed extremity The PneuSplint is new and can be conformed to injuries and is puncture resistant Vacuum splint Rapidform and aid in stabilization of injury while providing minimal movement to the injured area or extremity They are strong tough plastic containing Styrofoam beads that immobilize injury without placing excessive pressure on it it can be applied to angulated fractures and used on dislocations without risk of further injury unlike rigid splints because it molds itself around the injury as the trainer draws out the airremoval of air is what gives it its rigidity The beads help reduce lost body heat and are radiolucent and can be used for total body support SAM splint it can bend and become a rigid splint for various extremity injuries It can be made to fid the injury and create a Cshape the reverse Ccurvewhich is stronger and the Tcurvestrongest of all three Orthoglass splint When the splint is passed under cool water a chemical reaction occurs that hardens the padded fiberglass insert This works well in stable environment to stabilize several upper and lower body injuries It is shaped to the body but only to one side which can cause an increase in joint edema and can only be worn temporarily Traction splint not typically in trainers scope of practice It is to stabilize a femoral fracture the may be used in isolated open and closed fractures of the femoral shaft it is designed to create a pull along the length of the bone to stabilized the fracture reduce blood loss reduce quadriceps muscle spasms and help maintain athletes distal vascular supply Because spasms can destroy blood vessels and nerves Slings Triangular bandage suspended from the neck to support an injured upper extremity clavicle fracture shoulder dislocation or injury to upperlower arm It may be used to stabilize skeletal injury or in conjunction with other immobilization technique to provide further support to injury once immobilized Try to keep hand higher than elbow if possible and fingers exposed Swathes Used in conjunction with a sling to supply further immobilization Particularly to an upper extremity by binding the athletes arm to his or her chest Cravat bandages are the most common but can be improvised from other things Bandages are used to help support limbs that have sustained a variety of injuries including bone fractures and joint dislocations used in conjunction with sterile dressing applied directly over an open wound to control external bleeding A triangle bandage is sometimes folded into a cravat to splint or support extremity Wraps Elastic or cotton wraps of varying sizes are commonly used to secure splints They are applied from distal segment of the extremity to proximal segment in circular or spiral pattern Avoid doing it to tightly Failure to monitor distal neurovascular status can lead to impaired distal perfusion and sensation DO NOT use wire or cord to secure a splint in place because these materials can damage tissue by disrupting blood flow YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 93 terms Chapter 30 Musculoskeletal Injuries 163 terms Chapter 31 Orthopaedic Injuries 26 terms Orthopaedic and Musculoskeletal Injuries 76 terms EMT chapter 28 musculoskeletal trauma OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 25 terms Goal writing PEDS 190 terms Foot and Ankle Overview 58 terms Foot and ankle anatomy 23 terms Hip Case 2 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 48 terms Concussion Mangament position statement 263 terms Fractures 54 terms Chapter 10 145 terms Lifeguarding review

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Intro to Business Chapter 6 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Successful entrepreneurial teams A quickly organize themselves like large corporations B assign only one person to new product innovation C bring a variety of talent to the business venture D outsource most of the details of innovation C bring a variety of talent to the business venture CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 30 Terms in this set 30 Successful entrepreneurial teams A quickly organize themselves like large corporations B assign only one person to new product innovation C bring a variety of talent to the business venture D outsource most of the details of innovation C bring a variety of talent to the business venture A businesss size is measured A in relation to the number of competitors in its industry B in relation to other firms in its industry C in relation to the number of dominant competitors in its sector D as small if it participates in the services sector B in relation to other firms in its industry For prospective entrepreneurs enrolling in an introduction to business or small business management course offered through their community college A is likely to be wasted time since college courses tend to be too theoretical B can be helpful by offering them an opportunity to meet experienced small business owners C serves as supplementary information only after starting their business venture D seldom provides you with information to help make small business decisions B can be helpful by offering them an opportunity to meet experienced small business owners ________ are private individuals who invest their own money in potentially hot new companies before these firms become larger publicly traded companies A Leveraged buyout specialists B Angel investors C Venture investors D Corporate raider investors B Angel investors Enterprise zones are specific geographic areas that A the government has set aside for major corporations that promise to spend at least 10 million to create new jobs B attract business investment by offering lower taxes and government support for development C the government has recognized as having the fastest growth rates in the country D are characterized by government ownership of small businesses B attract business investment by offering lower taxes and government support for development Successful small business owners are A not good sources for information on starting your own B business because they generally do not understand failure C valuable sources for information since you can learn from their experiences D good but risky since their keen sense of sniffingout something with potential will tempt them to steal your ideas C valuable sources for information since you can learn from their experiences A Small Business Investment Company SBIC is an A agency of the federal government that loans money to high tech firms B private investment company that is licensed by the SBA to make loans to small businesses C private firm that offers loans to small businesses in return for a share of ownership in the firm D agency set up by state governments to provide managerial advice and support to small businesses B private investment company that is licensed by the SBA to make loans to small businesses A creative person working within a corporation to launch new products and generate new profits is known as an A arbitrator B micropreneur C macropreneur D intrapreneur D intrapreneur One reason we have seen continued growth in homebased businesses is A the location offers a more secure operational environment B affordable computer and information technology makes it easier to compete C people need something to do while they wait to return to work for a large corporation D it is less risky to start a homebased business than other types of entrepreneurial ventures B affordable computer and information technology makes it easier to compete A new business that sets up an _____________ from the start is saving itself time and grief later A angel investment network B good accounting system C detailed supplier network D vertical marketing system B good accounting system When seeking financial backing from a venture capitalist a small business owner should realize that the venture capitalist will A charge an interest rate that is much higher than any other lender B not be interested in the management of the business C expect an ownership stake in the company in exchange for financial backing D demand that the money be repaid within 90 days or less C expect an ownership stake in the company in exchange for financial backing Similar to how large businesses proceed small businesses make marketing decisions _____________ A after the product or service is developed B before the business is funded C at the same time that they hire employees research for an accountant and prepare the business plan D before a product is developed or store is opened D before a product is developed or store is opened Entrepreneurship is A managing businesses for others B a controlling interest in the ownership of a corporation C managing businesses that operate in multiple countries D accepting the risk of starting and running a business D accepting the risk of starting and running a business When starting a small business its important to remember A an affinity for taking large amounts of risk is the critical factor in achieving small business success B doing things differently from previous entrepreneurs is the real key to success C learning from others and gaining relevant business experience improves the odds for success D to avoid burnout limit the number of hours you work each week as you adapt to the rigors of selfemployment C learning from others and gaining relevant business experience improves the odds for success Enterprise zones are A government owned properties that are available for entrepreneurial ventures at a reduced cost B similar to incubator facilities but strictly run by city and state governments C blighted areas that contained toxic materials making them unsuitable for business operations D specific locations across the US where entrepreneurs can setup shop and receive tax breaks for operating in these areas D specific locations across the US where entrepreneurs can setup shop and receive tax breaks for operating in these areas When comparing small businesses to their larger competitors it is clear that A bigger is always better B small firms can always outperform big firms on a level playing field C small firms often can offer more personalized customer services than big firms D small firms are slower to respond to opportunities than are large firms C small firms often can offer more personalized customer services than big firms An entrepreneurial team consists of A managers with similar skills abilities and interests B experienced professionals from different areas of business C a group of wealthy investors who share a vision for a product D representatives from management labor and the government who work together to solve a companys problems in a creative way B experienced professionals from different areas of business The size of the world market is A 500 million B 69 billion C 5 million D 10 trillion B 69 billion Affiliate marketing is a webbased business strategy that A relies on customers that enter the sites of large companies such as GAP and Nike B asks you to offer the names and emails of ten of your friends who may be interested in the products or services the website is selling C is currently illegal but difficult to stop D Rewards individuals who are willing to link a companys website to their blog or social network page D Rewards individuals who are willing to link a companys website to their blog or social network page A market consists of potential buyers of a good or service However for a market to exist A the business requires wholesalers and retailers B one firm must dominate in sales and product development C people must have unsatisfied wants and needs as well as a willingness and ability to buy D the product must be laboratory tested and approved by the Food and Drug Administration FDA C people must have unsatisfied wants and needs as well as a willingness and ability to buy Increased participation in small business exporting owes credit to ________ A political constituents who have made inroads abroad B large events such as the Olympics that have brought attention to the potential in world markets C technological advances such as the Internet and PayPal for safely fulfilling orders D partnerships that small businesses have formed with large businesses C technological advances such as the Internet and PayPal for safely fulfilling orders An ________________ is a group of experienced professionals from different areas of business who join together to develop make and market a new product A entrepreneurial team B joint venture C selfdirected functional team D managerial task force A entrepreneurial team A firm or individual providing financial capital to small businesses in exchange for an ownership stake in the company is called a A corporate raider B takeover specialist C financial capitalist D venture capitalist D venture capitalist The US governments Immigration Act of 1990 A encouraged entrepreneurs to come to the US through investor visas B established a government program to teach American workers displaced by immigration how to start their own businesses C established guidelines to help entrepreneurs recruit legal aliens as a source of low cost labor D proposed an exchange program for American and European entrepreneurs to temporarily live internationally in order to open up foreign branches for their businesses A encouraged entrepreneurs to come to the US through investor visas Which of the following best describes the difference between an intrapreneur and an entrepreneur A Intrapreneurs start nonprofit organizations while entrepreneurs start profitseeking businesses B Intraprenuers are practical while entrepreneurs are creative C Intrapreneurs work within existing corporations while entrepreneurs assume the risks of starting their own business D Intrapreneurs limit their efforts to financial investments while entrepreneurs are involved in the management of all areas of a business C Intrapreneurs work within existing corporations while entrepreneurs assume the risks of starting their own business Business owners who prefer to maintain their businesses at a manageable size are called A macropreneurs B intrapreneurs C micropreneurs D home workers C micropreneurs A ________ refers to people with unsatisfied wants and needs who are willing and able to buy a product or service A market B consumer cooperative C consumer collective D buyers cooperative A market Chris is an angel investor This means that he A invests his money in new businesses with potential for growth hoping for a good return on his investment if they go public B creates business incubators for startup Webbased firms C invests in nonprofits that plan to change their status when they double in size D he comes to the rescue of firms who default on their bank loans A invests his money in new businesses with potential for growth hoping for a good return on his investment if they go public Intrapreneurs make use of __________ to develop and launch new products and generate new profits A their employers existing human financial and physical resources B their own personal financial resources C governmentsupplied physical and financial resources D old ideas abandoned by entrepreneurs A their employers existing human financial and physical resources An ____________ is a valuable source of information regarding techniques to reduce a firms exposure to risk A insurance agent B Accountant C liability assessor D union business agent A insurance agent YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Ch 02 Entrepreneurship and SmallBusiness Ownership 18 terms Chapter 6 Quiz 18 terms 48 terms Chapter 5 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 30 terms Intro to Business Chapter 18 30 terms Intro to Business Chapter 17 30 terms Intro to Business Chapter 15 30 terms Into to Business Chapter 14 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 30 terms Intro to Business Chapter 5 10 terms Ch 17 62 terms Management chapter 16 terms 32 terms Understanding Canadian Business Chapter 1

O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O B O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O


Ch 12 PreTest FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Congress is a _________ legislature with _________ members CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT bicameral 535 CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 24 Terms in this set 24 Congress is a _________ legislature with _________ members bicameral 535 Which part of government is the only one that has always been directly elected by the people House of Representatives Which type of legislation specifies a project or other authorizations to be funded as well as the location of the project within a particular district Pork barrel In general from a sociological representation perspective how representative is the US Congress Congress is not representative at all Real power in the Senate is in the hands of the majority and minority leaders Within each committee hierarchy has usually been based on seniority In a typical congressional session ____________ percent of bills introduced die in committee 95 A presidential veto can be overridden by a twothirds vote in both houses of Congress Conference committees serve to work out a compromise on House and Senate versions of a piece of legislation Which type of committee works to receive proposals for legislation and process them into official bills Standing Committee Which of the following is not grounds for the impeachment and conviction of a president Malfeasance In the House of Representatives the Rules Committee determines what amendments to a bill can be proposed on the floor As an ____________ a member of Congress acts on the express preferences of his or her constituents as an ___________ the member is more loosely tied to constituents and makes the decisions he or she thinks best delegate trustee The rule that allows a threefifths majority of the Senate to set a time limit on debate on a given bill is called cloture After the 2010 census it is determined that Texas will gain four seats in the House of Representatives that Oklahoma will lose one and Ohio will lose two This scenario is an example of apportionment Which group is overrepresented in Congress Whites The constitution gives the power of advice and consent solely to the Senate Can a bill become law without the presidents signature Yes if twothirds of the House and twothirds of the Senate vote to override the veto In recent years the use of the filibuster and cloture in the US Senate has increased to record levels The leader of the majority party in the House of Representatives is the Speaker of the House _____________ isare the effort by Congress through hearings investigations and other techniques to exercise control over the activities of executive agencies Oversight Which type of interest groups have the most influence on members of Congress Those that have some connection to constituents in a particular members district ______________ isare the amount of money approved by Congress in statutes that each unit or agency can spend Appropriations Typically party unity is higher in ____________ than in ____________ the House the Senate

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O