MGMT 309 Chapter 6 The process by which a firms managers evaluate the future prospects of the firm and decide on appropriate strategies to achieve longterm objectives is called ________ strategic planning CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 90 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 90 The process by which a firms managers evaluate the future prospects of the firm and decide on appropriate strategies to achieve longterm objectives is called ________ strategic planning Which of the following terms refers to the basic means by which a company competes strategy A companys choice to operate in a business or businesses and the ways in which it differentiates itself from its competitors is called its ________ strategy Which of the following is the most common reactive reason for a firm to extend its operations overseas globalization of competitors Restrictive trade barriers most likely influence the globalization of businesses by encouraging firms to ________ switch from exporting to overseas manufacturing Roch a Swiss chocolate company recently opened a manufacturing unit in Spain The purpose of this move was that Roch wanted to avoid Spains high import tariffs Which of the following reasons prompted Roch to open the manufacturing unit in Spain trade barriers Which of the following is the most likely result of regulations and restrictions enforced by a firms home government that prove to be expensive for the firms operations the firm searches for less restrictive operating environments overseas Due to the high demand for its handmade soaps in Canada Fragrance Exotica an Indian Soap manufacturer has decided to open a new manufacturing unit in Canada thereby expanding overseas In this scenario which of the following reasons prompted Fragrance Exotica to set up a manufacturing unit overseas customer demands Which of the following is the proactive reason that prompts firms to expand overseas seeking economies of scale Which of the following is a reactive reason that prompts a firm to expand overseas customer demands A country seeks new infusions of capital technology and knowhow It announces that it shall exempt taxes and grant concessions for foreign investors Which of the following measures is the country employing providing incentives When Disney decided to build a park in Paris the French government gave Disney prime farmland just outside the city limits This is most likely an example of a firm expanding overseas due to ________ provision of incentives Which of the following statements is true of the strategic formulation process The strategic formulation process is part of the strategic management process in which most firms engage either formally or informally Jamie decides to plan his strategies for starting an electric equipment manufacturing company His main aim is to ensure that it runs efficiently He decides to do this in two phases the planning phase and the implementation phase Which of the following processes is Jamie employing strategic management Which of the following is the first step of the planning phase of a strategic management process establishment of the companys mission The second part of the strategic management process involves the ________ implementation phase Which of the following would most likely be categorized as a global financial objective of an international firm foreignexchange management Which of the following charts the direction of the company and provides a basis for strategic decisionmaking organizational mission Goals for market volume and profitability are usually set higher for international than domestic operations due to the ________ involvement of greater risks ________ includes environmental scanning and continuous monitoring to keep abreast of variables around the world that are pertinent to the firm Environmental assessment Which of the following terms refers to the continuous process of gathering and evaluating information about variables and events around the world that may pose threats or opportunities to the firm environmental assessment Which of the following is a global risk with regard to strategic entry scanning economic and financial risk Which of the following is a regional risk with regard to strategic entry scanning financial and currency instability Which of the following is a national risk with regard to strategic entry scanning legal protection The process of gathering information and forecasting relevant trends competitive actions and circumstances that will affect operations in geographic areas of potential interest is called ________ environmental scanning At which three levels should firms ideally perform global environmental analysis multinational regional and local The first broad scan of all potential world markets should result in the firm being able to ________ eliminate markets with unreasonable entry conditions Which of the following is a way in which formal institutions affect international competition enforcing antidumping laws Which of the following is the most preferred source of environmental information for environmental scanning purposes in a firm internal sources An ________ determines which areas of a firms operations represent strengths or weaknesses currently or potentially compared to competitors internal analysis An internal analysis focuses on the companys ________ resources and operations ________ reveal an inefficient use of assets that restricts profitability Financial ratios ________ are usually difficult for competitors to imitate and represent a major focus for strategic development at the corporate level Distinctive competencies A ________ is an assessment of a firms capabilities relative to those of its competitors as pertinent to the opportunities and threats in the environment for those firms SWOT analysis FuturaCore Technologies an electronics manufacturing firm has advantages in financial capability and sustainability but a disadvantage in speed of innovation It is also at a disadvantage relative to CoreDynamix Technologies another electronics manufacturing firm in important factors such as manufacturing capability and adaptability to market conditions Which of the following terms best describes FuturaCores abilities in comparison to CoreDynamix comparative advantage ________ refers to the establishment of worldwide operations and the development of standardized products and marketing Globalization Which of the following is the quickest and cheapest way to develop a global strategy strategic alliances Regional strategies are more appropriate than global strategies for firms that operate in ________ multidomestic industries Which of the following most likely encourages firms to localize providing domestic subsidies Dell is an American corporation that deals with computer technology With its worldwide sourcing and fully merged production and marketing system Dell is considered to be a ________ globally integrated company According to Ghemawat which of the following offers room for crossborder strategy to have content distinct from singlecountry strategy semiglobalization Which of the following terms best describes a company that has operations in various countries follows policies to develop local RD to tailor products to markets lets plants set their own rules and aims at being a good corporate citizen in every country GLOCAL ________ are companies that start out with a global reach typically by using their Internet capabilities and also through hiring people with international experience and contacts around the world Born globals Which of the following entry strategies requires little investment and enables quick and easy market withdrawal exporting Which of the following grants the rights to a firm in the host country to either produce or sell a product or both international licensing agreement Which of the following can be regarded as a pressure to globalize information technology expansion Licensing is especially suitable for ________ the mature phase of a products life cycle when production is relatively standardized Which of the following is the most critical aspect of a franchising strategy quality control ________ is an ideal strategy for small businesses with few financial and managerial resources for direct investment abroad Licensing The primary motive in the contract manufacturing strategy is ________ utilizing inexpensive overseas labor Panera Bread is a chain of cafes serving sandwiches soups and freshly baked breads The company began in 1981 with stores primarily located along the east coast of the US Since then the firm has expanded to over 1300 locations throughout the US and Canada The firm has strong earnings and has been designated by Business Week as a Significant Growth Company Panera Bread executives are considering the idea of expanding globally by opening cafes in Asia through a franchising strategy Which of the following if true supports the argument that Panera Bread should expand into Asia through franchising Panera Bread executives want fast access to the Asian market without a significant investment of capital Panera Bread is a chain of cafes serving sandwiches soups and freshly baked breads The company began in 1981 with stores primarily located along the east coast of the US Since then the firm has expanded to over 1300 locations throughout the US and Canada The firm has strong earnings and has been designated by Business Week as a Significant Growth Company Panera Bread executives are considering the idea of expanding globally by opening cafes in Asia through a franchising strategy Which of the following if true undermines the argument that Panera Bread should expand into Asia through franchising Quality control is a high priority for Panera Bread Offshoring provides the company with access to foreign markets while avoiding ________ trade barriers Which of the following terms refers to operating in concentrations of related interdependent companies within an industry that uses the same suppliers specialized labor and distribution channels clustering Which of the following statements is true of clustering It helps a firm gain an increase in efficiencies The use of professional or skilled workers located in countries other than that of the home country is referred to as ________ outsourcing A company designs and constructs a facility abroad trains local personnel and then transfers the facility to local management for a fee Which of the following entry strategies is being implemented by the company turnkey operation A ________ gives a foreign company the rights to oversee the daily operations of a business but not to make decisions regarding ownership financing or strategic and policy changes management contract Which of the following entry strategies is most likely to serve as a shortterm strategy and to provide limited income management contract Which of the following strategies would most likely be used by a nonEuropean company wanting to gain quick entry inside the European community international joint venture Meryl Software Inc an American MNC wishing total control of its operations wants to acquire an existing firm Graphiti Animations in Canada If acquired Graphiti Animations would be a ________ fullyowned subsidiary Which of the following is an advantage of establishing a new fullyowned foreign manufacturing full control over decision making Which of the following is generally viewed as the most risky entry strategy new fullyowned subsidiaries Which of the following environmental factors would most likely increase the risk for a firm that has established a fully owned subsidiary in a country expropriation threats Which of the following is a critical success factor for exporting choice of distributor Which of the following is the primary advantage of using ebusiness as a locallevel entry strategy rapid entry and exit from markets Which of the following is an internal factor that affects the choice of international entry mode for a company global experience of firm and managers Which of the following is an external factor that affects the choice of international entry mode for a company industry growth rate Which of the following is a venturespecific factor that affects the choice of international entry mode for a company ability to protect proprietary technology According to Gupta and Govindarajan an alliancebased entry strategy is most suitable when ________ the risk of asymmetric learning by the partner is low The process by which a firms managers evaluate the future prospects of the firm and decide on appropriate strategies to achieve longterm objectives is called strategic planning TRUE Globalization of competitors is one of the proactive reasons that prompt a company to operate overseas FALSE Companies seek out less restrictive foreign operating environments when the regulations and restrictions enforced by the firms home government become expensive TRUE Operations in foreign countries frequently start as a response to customer demands TRUE One pressing reason for many large firms to expand overseas is to seek economies of scale TRUE It is impossible for small businesses such as those with fewer than 500 workers to do business overseas FALSE The availability of raw materials and other resources offers both greater control over inputs and lower transportation costs TRUE Tax exemptions subsidies and loans decrease risk and increase profits Hence they are attractive to foreign companies TRUE The strategic management process invariably follows a linear format FALSE The strategic management process consists of independent and discontinuous steps FALSE The mission of an organization provides a basis for strategic decision making TRUE Production one of the five global corporate objectives deals with development of new products with global patents FALSE After clarifying the corporate mission and objectives the first major step in weighing international strategic options is the environmental assessment TRUE Environmental scanning should be conducted on the national level exclusively FALSE Antidumping laws enable formal institutions to affect international competition TRUE In environmental scanning the first broad scan of all potential world markets results in the firm being able to eliminate from its list those markets that are closed or insignificant or do not have reasonable entry conditions TRUE Internal analysis is carried out to assess a firms capabilities and critical success factors compared to those of its competitors FALSE Core competencies are typically easy for competitors to imitate FALSE The term globalization refers to the establishment of worldwide operations and the development of standardized products and marketing TRUE Offshoring is when a company moves one or all of its factories from the host country to the home country FALSE YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE MAN4600 FINAL 26 terms MGT 405 Exam 2 Final Chapter 6 89 terms Bus 321 Test 2 Part 2 89 terms Bus 321 Test 2 Part 2 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 90 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 11 90 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 10 90 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 9 90 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 5 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 79 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 2 90 terms MGMT 309 Chapter 4 BUAD 308 Chapter 4 88 terms International Management 8e Deresky CH 3

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Psych Ch5 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Terms in this set 79 consciousness awareness of internal and external stimuli flow William Jones 1902 stream of consciousness attention consciousness mind wandering refers to peoples experience of taskunrelated thoughts controlled processes judgementsthoughts we exert some control over that we intended to occur automatic processes happen without intentional effort unconsciousness thought without attention EEG a device that monitors the electrical activity of the brain over time by means of recording electrodes attached to the surface of the scalp measures brain waves beta waves problem solving alpha waves rest and relaxation delta waves deep dreamless sleep theta waves light sleep biological rhythms periodic fluctuations in physiological functioning internal biological clocks circadian rhythms the 24 hour biological cycles found in humans and other species affiliated with blood pressure urine production hormone secretion alertness short term memory how are circadian rhythms related to biological clocks ___ are readjusted by exposure to light jet lag caused by getting out of sync with your circadian rhythms how do rotating work shifts tend to affect sleep less total sleep poor quality of sleep when you do sleep affects mental and physical health pros and cons of giving melatonin as a sleep aid purpose to realign circadian rhythms timing of dose is crucial therefore hard to calculate correctly can also expose ppl to bright light to realign circadian rhythms EMG electromyrograph records muscular activity and tension EOG electrooculograph records eye movements slow wave sleep sleep stages 3 and 4 during which high amplitude low frequency delta waves become prominent in EEG recordings REM sleep characteristics occurs in stage 5 what should be stage 1 again rapid eye movements hard to wake up during irregular breathing pulse rate relaxed muscle tone practically paralyzed REM sleep definition a relatively deep stage of sleep marked by rapid eye movements high frequency low amplitude brainwaves and vivid dreaming nonREM sleep NREM sleep stages 14 marked by absence of rapid eye movements relatively little dreaming varied EEG activity who developed REM sleep Nathaniel Kleitman 1953 William Dement how do sleep stages evolve over the course of a nights sleep sleep cycle repeated about 4 times per night first REM period is short subsequent get longer REM sleep tends to pile up in the second half of the sleep cycle how does age affect patterns of sleeping 1524 group has greatest sleep time 3544 group has least sleep time patterns of sleeping in babies only have 2 sleep types REM and NREM will sleep 68 times in a 24 hr period spend more time in REM than adults slowwave sleep declines dramatically in adulthood which aspects of sleep are influenced by culture sleeping arrangements napping customs cosleeping discouraged in Western cultures accepted in Japan which brain centres and neurotransmitters are involved in the modulation of sleep reticular formation in brainstem pons midbrain ascending reticular activating system ARAS consists of the afferent fibres running through the reticular formation that influence physiological arousal effects of sleep deprivation severity depends on disruption to circadian cycle affects attention reaction time cognitive speed REM deprivation has little impact on day to day but does affect sleeping patterns shift to REM more quickly neurogenesis making new neurons linked to REM sleep and memory consolidation insomnia chronic problems in getting adequate sleep insomnia occurs in 3 basic patterns problems falling asleep young ppl difficulty remaining asleep old ppl persistent early morning awakening old ppl prevalence of insomnia surveys depend on subjective subjects everyone suffers occasional sleep difficulties prevalence increases with age 50 more common in women cause of insomnia many ex excessive anxiety and tension depression stress pain asthma drug use stimulants hyperarousal by hormones treatment of insomnia many dont pursue treatment sleepaids are questionable drugs benzodiazepine and nonbenzodiazepine sedatives sedatives may have carryover effects narcolepsy a disease marked by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods directly from wakefulness to REM sleep for a short time victims fall asleep instantly dangerous sleep apnea involves frequent reflexive gasping for air that awakens a person and disrupts sleep person stops breathing daytime sleepiness increases vulnerability to hypertension heart disease stroke nightmares anxietyarousing dreams that wake you up usually from REM sleep difficulty going back to sleep remember dream well most common in children night terrors abrupts awakenings from NREM sleep accompanied by intense autonomic arousal and panic accelerated heart rate usually in stage 4 sleep early in the night victims usually cry dont remember the dream but may recall a frightening image not indicative of emotional disturbance temporary problem somnambulism sleepwalking occurs when a person arises and wanders about while remaining asleep occurs during first 2 hrs of sleep slowwave sleep parts of brain are awake and asleep not a manifestation of underlying emotionalpsychological problems sleep walkers are prone to accidents it is safe to wake people up from sleepwalking REM sleep behaviour disorder RBD marked by potentially troubling dream enactments during REM periods ppl may speak yell etc during dreams most common in men age 5060 virtually paralyzed in REM sleep dreams mental experiences during that are like stories include vivid visual imagery often bizarre but are treated real by the dreamer usually from first person POV REM dreams are more vivid than nonREM dreams selfcentered about internal conflicts influenced by whats going on in that persons life lucid dreams dreams in which people can think clearly about the circumstances of waking life and the fact that they are dreaming yet they remain asleep in the midst of a vivid dream how does culture affect dream recall and content western society real world awake imaginary when dreaming dreams are considered insignificantmeaningless nonwestern society dreams are important sources of info about oneself the future the spiritual world Freud model of dreams believed main purpose of dreams is wish fulfillment people fulfill ungratified needs in waking hours through wishful thinking in dreams wishful thinking may not be apparent because the unconscious attempts to censor and disguise the true meaning of dreams manifest content consists of the plot of a dream at the surface level latent content the hidden or disguised meaning of the events in the plot Freud felt that uncovering the latent content required knowledge of the dreamers current issues and childhood conflicts cognitive model Rosalind Cartwright 1977 continuity between waking and sleeping thought dreams are not restrained by logic or realism so ppl engage in creative thinking about problems in sleep activationsynthesis dreams are the byproduct of bursts of activity emanating from subcortical areas in the brain Hobson and McCarley proposed that dreams are side effects of the neural activation that produces wideawake brain waves during REM sleep neurons send signals to the cortex which creates a dream to make sense of these signals hypnosis a systematic procedure that typically produces a heightened state of suggestibility leads to passive relaxation narrowed attention fantasy hypnotist tells subject they are relaxinggetting tired then describes what body sensations should be occurring what are some hypnotic phenomena anesthesia sensory distortions and hallucinations disinhibition posthypnotic suggestions and amnesia hypnotic trance hypnotic effects occur because participants are in an altered state of consciousness no physical brain changes associated with hypnosis socialcognitive theory of hypnosis role playing Theodore Barber 1979 hypnosis is a normal mental state where hypnotized people act as they think they are supposed to expectations ppl make upelaborate memories from the past brain imaging hypnotized participants experience changes in brain activity that are consistent with hypnotic halluncinations dissociation Ernest Hilgard a splitting off of mental processes into two separate simultaneous streams of awareness Hilgard suggested that hypnosis splits consciousness into two streams external world and the hidden observer meditation a family of practices that train attention to heighten awareness and bring mental processes under voluntary control ex yoga zen mindfulness meditation meditative state more alpha and theta waves in EEG recording heart rate respiration rate oxygen consumption skin conductance decline positive changes in brain activity relaxation psychoactive drugs chemical substances that modify mental emotional or behavioural functioning used mostly recreationally ex alcohol cannabis narcotics opiates drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain ex heroin morphine also codeine oxycodone was supposed to be a better analgesic but people are grinding it up to snort it for a quick high sedatives sleepinducing drugs that tend to decrease CNS activation and behavioural drug activity consume large doses euphoric intoxication stimulants drugs that tend to increase CNS activation and behavioural activity ex caffeine nicotine cocaine cocaine and amphetamines cocaine produces a briefer high energetic euphoria crack cocaine chips of pure cocaine smoked amphetamines are sold as crystalline powder crank to be snorted or injected crystal meth is a smokable form hallucinogens a diverse group of drugs that have powerful effects on mental and emotional functioning marked most prominently by distortions in sensory and perceptual experience ex LSD cannabis the hemp plant from which marijuana hashish and THC are derived marijuana and hash are usually smoked immediate effects relaxed euphoria enhanced sensory awareness impaired memory anxiety alcohol encompasses a variety of beverages containing ethyl alcohol ex beers wines relaxed euphoria problems fade away mental and motor impairment mood swings MDMA ecstasy a compound related to both amphetamines and hallucinogens especially mescaline shortlived high warm friendly increased blood pressure muscle tension sweating what factors influence drug experiences frequency of use quantity of dose expectations tolerance a progressive decrease in a persons responsiveness to a drug leads to ppl consuming even more where do drugs exert their effects in the brain psychoactive drugs work primarily by altering neurotransmitter activity in the brain amphetamines norepinephrine dopamine mesolimbic dopamine pathway most abused drugs eventually increase activity in a particular neural pathway physical dependence when a person must continue to take a drug to avoid withdrawl illness ex narcotics sedatives alcohol psychological dependence when a person must continue to take a drug to satisfy intense mental and emotional craving for the drug ex cocaine rare for hallucinogens dysregulation in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway appears to be the main factor underlying drug craving and addiction what are 3 ways in which abused drugs can harm health overdose direct effects physiological damage indirect effects health impairing behaviour YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 93 terms Psychology Chapter 5 Consciousness Sleep Dreams 50 terms psychology chapter 4 120 terms Psychology 101 Ch 5 Consciousness 51 terms Psychology Unit 4 States of Consciousness OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 27 terms Psych 3723 Ch 6 22 terms Psych 3723 Ch 7 31 terms Psych 3723 Ch 8 27 terms Psych 3723 Ch 9

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O O O B O O O


Medical Insurance Ch 5 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month CPT Current Procedural Terminology contains the standardized classification system for reporting medical procedures and services CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 95 Terms in this set 95 CPT Current Procedural Terminology contains the standardized classification system for reporting medical procedures and services Mandated Code Set CPT is the mandated code set for physician procedures and services under HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Sets Mandated use of current Codes Codes must be current as of the date of service Category I codes procedure codes found in the main body of CPT most numerous have 5 digits with no decimals descriptor narrative part of a CPT code brief explanation of the procedure Category II codes optional CPT codes that track performance measures Category III codes temporary codes for emerging technology services and procedures Types of CPT Codes three categories of CPT codes Category I codes Category II codes Category III codes CPT is a proprietary code set NOT available for free to the public must be purchased in either electronic or print form Updating Vaccine Codes and Category III Codes Vaccine product codes and Category III codes updates twice a year and have a sixmonth period for implementation CPT makeup Main Text 6 sections of codes Appendixes Index Main Text section Evaluation and Management Anesthesia Surgery Radiology Pathology and Laboratory Medicine Main Term for CPT index printed in bold type in index may be followed by subterm 5 types 1 name of procedureservice 2 name of organ or anatomical site 3 name of condition ie abscess wound postpartum care 4 synonym or aponym for the term 5 abbreviation for the term CAT scan Code Ranges range is shown when more than one code applies to an entry 2 codes are separated by a comma 2 by hyphen Crossreference ie See in italics mandatory instruction to refer to the term following the code Typographic Conventions To save space some words are left out and assumed by reader CPT contains the main text which has six sections of Category I codes 1 Evaluation and Management 2 Surgery 3 Anesthesia 4 Radiology 5 Patholgoy and Laboratory 6 Medicine Category II and Category III codes have 14 appendixes and an index Section Guidelines Usage notes at the beninnings of CPT sections Correct Coding Procedure never select a code based on only the index entry because the main text may have additional entries and important guidelines that alter the selection Unlisted procedure service not listed in CPT those services not completely described by any code in the section These codes are used for new services or procedures that have not yet been assigned either Category I or III codes in CPT Special Report note explaining the reasons for a new variable or unlisted procedure or service for a rare or new procedure They permit payers to assess the medical appropriateness of the procedures The Appendixes 14 appendixes in the American medical Association publication of CPT contain informaion helpful to the coding process Unlisted Procedure Codes require special reports that delay claims because they must be processed manually Seven symbols used in CPT 1 Bullet indicates a nuew procedure code 2 Triangle indicates the codes descriptor has changed 3 facing triangles enclose new or revised text other than the codes descriptor 4 plus sign before a code indicates an addon code thats used only along with other codes for primary procedures 5 bullet in a circle next to a code conscious sedeation is a part of the procedure the surgeon performs 6 A lightning bot used for codes for vaccions that are pending FDA approval 7 indicates a resequenced code Format used in CPT Semicolon and indentions when a common part of a main entry applies to entries that follow Indented see or use entries in parentheses follow code to refer the coder to other codes Descriptors often contain clarifying examples in parentheses eg Resequenced code CPT procedure codes that have been reassigned to another sequence Symbols for CHANGED CODES Bullet new procedure code Triangle codes descriptor has changed Facing Triangle enclose new or revised text other than codes descriptor Symbol for AddOn Codes Plus sign next to a code in the main text indicates a secondary procedure performed in addition to a primary procedure Addon code procedure performed and reported in addition to a primary procedure secondary procedure Secondary procedure addtional procdure performed primary procdure most resourceintensive CPT procedure during an encounter Symbol for Conscious Sedation Bullet within a circle next to a code conscious sedation is a part of the procedure surgeon performs conscious sedation mederate druginduced depression of consciousness Symbol for FDA Approval pending Lightening bolt next to code used with vaccine codes that are pending FDA approval Resequenced CPT procecdure codes that have been reassigned to another sequence Symbol for Resequenced Codes sign indicates CPT procedure codes that have been reassigned to another sequence modifier twodigit number attached to most fivedigit procedure codes indicate special circumstances involved with procedures A procedure has two parts 1 Technical compnent TC 2 Professional Compnent PC Technical component TC reflects the technicians work and the equipment and supplies used in performing it Professional component PC represents a physicians skill time and expertise used in performing it Professional Component Modifier 26 tells the payer that the physician did not perform all work just the professional part so only part of the fee is due the other part of the fee associated with the modifier is paid to the technician When to use Modifiers a service or procedure has been performed more than once by more than one physician in 1 locations serviceprocedure been increased or reduced only part of a procdure has been done bilateral or multiple procedure has been performed unusual difficulties occured during procedure Multiple Modifiers 99 two or more modifiers used with one code to give the most accurate description possible Coding Steps 6 1 Review complete medical documentation 2 Abstract the medical procedure from the visit documentation 3 Identify the main term for each procedure 4 Locate the main terms in the CPT index 5 Verify the code in the CPT main text 6 Determine the need for modifiers EM codes evaluation management codes cover physicians services performed to determine the optimum course for patient care Listed first in CPT because they are used so often EM codes often call the cognitive codes cover the complex process physician useds to gather analyze info about a patients illness make decisions about treatment Key component factor documented for vaious levels of evaluation and management services service in which a physician advises a requestion physician about a patients condition and care Consults the 3 Rs Request opinion Render service Report back Medicare does not pay consult codes due to fraudulent use by some physicians 8 steps to select correct EM code 1 Determine category subcategory of service 2 Determine extent of history documented 3 Determine extent of examination documented 4 Determine complexity of decision making documented 5 Analyze requirements to report the service level 6 Verify service level 7 Verify Documentation is complete 8 Assign the code Key components for selecting EM codes The extent of the history documented The extent of the examination documented The complexity of the medical decision making HPI History of Present Illness ROS Review of Systems an inventory of body systems PMH Past Medical History FH Family History SH Social History facts gathered which depend on patients age maritus status employment etc PFSH Past Family Social History 99203 code for NEW patient Office or outpatient visit Requires 3 key components detailed history detailed exam medical decision making of low complexity 99213 code for ESTABLISHED patient Office or outpatient visit requires 2 of 3 key components below expanded problemfocused history expanded problemfocused exam medical decision making of low complexity Nature of Presenting Problem how severe the patients condition is service in which a physician advises a requesting physician about a patients condition and care Outpatient patient who receives health care in a hospital setting without admission Documentation Guidelines for EM 2 sets of guidlines for documenting EM have been published by CMS and AMA Modifier 25 indicates an additional illness requiring examination is discovered during a routine exam Anesthesia Section codes used to report anesthesia services performed or supervised by a physician 2 Types of Anesthesia Modifiers 1 Physical status modifier 2 Standard modifiers Physical status modifier modifier code used with procedure codes to indicate a patients health status P1P6 modifiers Standard Modifiers commonly used with anesthesia codes 22 23 32 51 53 59 Physical Status Modifiers P1 Normal healthy patient P2 Patient w mild systemic disease P3 Patient w severe systemic disease P4 Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life P5 Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation P6 Declared braindead patient whose organs are being removed for donation purposes Surgery Codes largest procedure code sect used for many hundres of surgical procedures performed by physicians Surgical Package or global surgery rule combination of services included in a single procedure code Complete surgical procedure includes Operation Use of local anesthetic postoperative care All covered under a single code Global Surgery Rule combination of services included in a single procedure code Global period days surrounding a surgical procedure when all services relating to the procedure are considered part of the surgical package Separate procedure descriptor used for a procedure that is usually part of a surgical package but may also be performed separately Surgical Reporting Structure 1organized by body system 2 body site 3 procedures grouped under headings 4 special procedures Reporting Surgical Codes correct way Bundling Bundling of Surgical Codes using a single payment for two or more related procedure codes Unbundling incorrect billing pratice of breaking a panel or package of servicesprocedures into component parts Fragmented billing incorrect billing practice in which procedures are unbundled and separately reported Sesion Exicion choice of correct code depends on pathology report coders should wait for a pathology report before coding lesion excisions from benign or malignant code ranges Radiology Section of CPT Contains codes reported for radiology procedures either performed by or supervised by a physician Radiology code procedures 2 parts Technical component use of equipment to take xrays Professional component actual reading of xrays written physician report Radiology Structure and Modifiers Type diagnostic Ultrasound Body site chest Procedure echography Pathology and Laboratory Codes Procedure Includes Ordering test Taking handling sample Performing actual test Analyzing results Panel single code grouping laboratory tests frequently done together group of related lab tests They are bundled codes to be reported all indicated tests must have been done and any additional test is coded separately Medicine Codes Codes for the many types of evaluative theraputic and diagnostic procedures that physicians perform Ancilliary Services services used to support a diagnosis Reporting Immunization Codes from Medicine section require two codes from Medicine section one for administering immunization another for particular vaccine or toxoid given Category II III codes contain supplemental tracking codes to help collect data regarding services Category II III Codes have five 5 characters each four numbers and a letter Released twice a year Jan 1 and July 1 Category II Codes used for tracking performance measures to improve patients health patient Management History Phys Exam Therapeutic Preventative Screening results etc Category III Codes contains temporary codes for emerging technology services and procedures

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O

medical insurance
current procedural terminology


CH 10 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY C CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT 1What does Islam mean in Arabic a One who has submitted b There is no God but Allah c Submission to the will of Allah d Muhammad is the messenger of Allah CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 19 Terms in this set 19 C 1What does Islam mean in Arabic a One who has submitted b There is no God but Allah c Submission to the will of Allah d Muhammad is the messenger of Allah B 2In what form of art can the greatest cultural blending of the Muslim world be seen a Calligraphy b Architecture c The decorative arts d woodworking A 3What do Muslims believe about Muhammad a He was the last and greatest of the Prophets b He was the son of the one true god Allah c He was the first and only prophet of Allah d He was a combination of god and man C 4How did the Abbasids control their large empire a Through religious persecution b Through military governments c Through a strong bureaucracy d Through an elaborate rewards system D 5Who replaces the last of the rightlyguided caliphs a Sufis b Shia c Abbasids d Umayyads B 6What division of Islam believes that only a relative of Muhammad can become a caliph a Sufi b Shia c Sunni d Fatamid A 7What encouraged Muslim leaders to support places of learning such as the House of wisdom a Muhammads emphasis on study and scholarship b A desire to keep ahead of rival factions within Islam c A desire to know more than the Greeks or Indians d Optical advances that helped a king with bad eyesight C 8What academic scholarship developed by AlKhwarizmi and originally called aljabr is known by what name today a optics b Astronomy c Algebra d Geometry A 9Towards what city do Muslims pray a Mecca b Medina c Jerusalem d Damascus B 10What are the Five Pillars of Islam a The divisions of Islam b The major duties required of all Muslims c The times during the day which Muslims must pray d Muhammad and the four leaders that followed him D 11Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Pillars of Islam aFaith bPrayer cFasting dMilitary duty A 12Why was the Hijrah important aMuhammad was accepted as a political leader in Medina bIt was during the Hijrah that Muhammad first heard the voice of Gabriel cMuhammad sounded the call to prayer from its root in Mecca dIt was the first battle that Muhammad won B 13Why did the muslim way of praying lead to advances in astronomy aThe muslims prayed facing the stars bMuslims wanted to know n the precise direction of mecca cAfter the feast of Ramadan ended muslims prayed outdoors dThe illumination of the stars symbolized the illumination of the divine A 14What system of lay regulates the family life moral conduct and the business and community life of Muslims aSharia bSunna cFive Pillars dUmma B 15Why was Baghdads House of Wisdom Significant aIt was the seat of learning for the Umayyads caliphate bPeople translated scientific and philosophical texts into Arabic cIt was the place where the thousand and one nights was written dIt was where the Quran was translated into ten other languages D 16Which of the following was Not advanced during the Muslim Empire a Optics b Math c Medicine d Portraiture B 17How were conquered peoples treated by the Muslim empire aThey were forced to give up their religions and convert to Islam bTheir religions were tolerated but restrictions and taxes were imposed cThey were treated as equal citizens with Muslims dThey were allowed to become first class citizens upon converting to Islam C 19What is the best Muslim model for proper living a The rightly guided caliphs b The Hijrah to Yathrib c Sunna d House of Wisdom Algebra what academic subject developed by alKhwarizmi and originally called aljabr is known by what name today

O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 7 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Define Memory CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The retention of information or experience over time 3 processes encoding storage and retrieval CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 49 Define Memory The retention of information or experience over time 3 processes encoding storage and retrieval Encoding The way in which information is processed for storage in memory Storage When we do something with the information we encode in order to remember it at a later stage Determines how information is represented in memory Retreival Occurs when information that has been retained in loneterm memory is taken out of storage Selective Attention Occurs when we attend only to certain things in the environment Divided Attention Occurs when we have to pay attention to several different things at the same time People are less succesful at encoding information than people giving full attention Sustained Attention The ability to maintain attention to a selected stimulus for a prolonged period of time eg Studying your notes Shallow Level of Processing Occurs when we are paying attention to the physical attribute of a stimulus Intermediate Level of Processing Occurs when we recognize the stimulus and give it a name Deepest Level of Processing Occurs when we think of the stimulus meaning and make associations Elaboration Defines how extensive processing is at any level Atkinson Shriffrin Theory States that there are three systems in memory storage Sensory Memory several seconds ShortTerm Memory up to 30 seconds LongTerm Memory up to a lifetime Sensory Memory Holds information from environmental stimuli Held here only for several seconds Picked up by 5 senses ShortTerm Memory Information is held in shortterm memory for up to 30 seconds Can hold about 7 bits or 2 bits of information MEMORY SPAN Chunking Involves grouping amounts of information larger than 7 bits or 2 memory span into higher order single units Rehearsal Involves repeating information over and over again as a way to remember it LongTerm Memory Relitvely permanent storage base Virtually unlimited amount of space Explicit Memory declarative memory Episodic Memory Semantic Memory Explicit Memory Declarative Memory A type of memory for specific facts or events and information that can be verbally communicated Episodic Memory A type of explicit memory Stores information about where what and when information is occuring Autobiographical pertains specficially to a persons life Semantic Memory A type of explicit memory pertains to information about the world Includes general every day and academic knowledge but not the personal information of episodic memory Implicit Memory NonDeclarative Memory A type of memory in which behavior is affected by prior experience without conscious memory of the xperience eg A person may know how to type on a computer without consciously remembering the past learning process Procedural Memory Subsystem of Implicit Memory A memory for skills Classical Conditioning Subsystem of Implicit Memory Involves the automatic association between two stimuli Priming Subsystem of implicit memory Involves taking information that a person has already learned out of storage in order to learn new information What parts of the brain are involved in explicit memories The hippocampus the temporal lobes in the cerebral cortex and other parts of the limbic system Which frontal lobes are responsible for encoding and retrieval The left front lobe is more active in encoding while the right frontal loabe is more active in retrieval Other adults begin to use the left frontal lobe in retrieval as well which may compensate for memory problems Amygdala Plays a role in emotional memories Cerebellum Involved in the implicit memories required to perform verious skills Serial Position Effect The tendency to remember information that falls at the beginning and the end of a list more easily than information at the middle Primary Effect Better recall for information at the beginning of a list Recency Effect Better recall for information at the end of a list Autobiographical Memories A form of episodic memory of a persons life experiences Lifetime Periods The most abstract level of autobiographical memories General Events The middle level of autobiographical memories EventSpecific Knowledge The most concrete level of autobiographical memories Flashbulb Memories Memories of emtionally significant events that a person may recall with much more accuracy than memories of everyday events Most are of a personal nature rather than a national event Traumatic Events Memory Research has shown that memories of traumatic events are vivid detailed and more accurate and longlasting than memories of everyday events Repressed Memories Forgotten memories of a very traumatizing event The memories are forgotten and then the person forgets the act of forgetting them Motivated Forgetting A memory that is so painful that remembering it is not tolerable Eyewitness Testimony Occurs when people are asking to report exactly what they saw or heard as it relates to a crime Estimated 7500 people in the US are arrested for and wrongly convicted of serious crimes due to false eyewitness testimony Encoding Failure When infromation was never stored into longterm memory in the first place Retrieval Failure Researchers have theories on retrieval failure such as problems with the information in storage the effects of time personal reasons for remembering or forgetting and the brains conditions Interference Occurs because other information gets in the way of the information a person is trying to remember TipoftheTongue Phenomenon TOT state Occurs when we almost remember something are confident we know it but can not retrieve it This occurs when we retrieve some of the information but not all of it Identify 3 Fundamental Process of Memory Encoding Storage and Retrieval Explain How Memories Are Coded We must first pay attention to it Selective Attention Divided Attention and Sustained Attention How Are Memories Stored Sensory Memory ShortTerm memory LongTerm Memory Summarize How Memories Are Retrieved Serial Position Effect Primary Effect Recency Effect Autobiographical Memories Emotional Memories Memory of Traumatic Events Repressed Memories Eyewitness Testimony Describe How the Failure of Encoding and Retrieval are Involved in Forgetting When information was never encoded into LongTerm Memory in the first place Problems with the information in storage the effects of time personal reasons for remembering or forgetting and the brains condition Interference occurs because other information gets in the way of the information a person is trying to remember YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 64 terms PSY 100 CH6 Memory MEMORY 51 terms Chap 6 Memory 63 terms Psych Chapter 6 Memory OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR Chapter 15 Psychological Disorders 21 terms Chapter 13 33 terms Chapter 12 23 terms Chapter 6

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O B B O O B O O O O O O O O B O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Augustine FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month St Augustine dates CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT 354430 AD CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 44 Terms in this set 44 St Augustine dates 354430 AD St Augustine description Bishop of Hippo Doctor of the Church and Early Church Father birthplace of Augustine Thagaste Numidia modern day Algeria in North Africa mother of Augustine St Monica father of Augustine Patricius He was a pagan that later converted faith of Augustine although Augustine was a catechumen as a child and was given a good academic education Augustine did not have a rigorous upbringing with regards to the faith It took many years of searching before he found his faith and converted summary of the Confessions St Augustines account of his wanderings and his eventual discovery of and return to God theme of the Confessions The central theme of the confessions is the return of the soul to God through conversions audience of the Confessions St Augustine addressed the Confessions to God This makes his work both spiritual and autobiographical Manichaeism a religion founded by a man who maintained that there were two forces of principles that battled and opposed each other They were the light and the dark good and evil As they fought the good and evil mixed which they believed was the source of the evil in the world Because of this the founder rejected the Virgin Birth and the Crucifixion as well as other physical acts such as eating St Augustines journey St Augustine went from Christian to Manichaeism to NeoPlatonism to Christianity This journey was not only spiritual but also philosophical founder of Manichaeism Mani He claimed that he was the paraclete He was a Persian mystic the Confessions identity the entirety of the Confessions is a prayer At the time of St Augustine prayer and philosophical inquiry could and did go hand in hand This is because faith and reason together can give modern students and philosophers more accurate insights into existence the soul and God reason for the composition of the Confessions The primary reason for this was for Augustine to defend himself from lingering suspicions over the authenticity of his Catholic conversion and to placate those who disapproved of his bishop Valerius decision to consecrate him as a coadjutor an auxiliary bishop He also did this to provide an account of the Church in North Africa in general and his correspondent Alypus in particular to his friend Paulinus of Nola a bishop purpose of the Confessions books in the Confessions 13 This was determined by Augustine himself However he was not responsible for any other divisions of the work three main works of St Augustine The Confessions The City of God and On the Trinity Augustines reason for interest in Manichaeism Bishop Ambrose baptism of Augustine Holy Saturday April 24 387 Took place in the Milaese Cathedral after a retreat in the countryside He was baptized by Ambrose along with his mother son brother and 5 friends son of Augustine Adeodatus brother of Augustine Navigus Augustine and objective reality Augustine stressed that the only objective reality is the present now while the past only exists congnitively in the memory and the future only exists in the souls anticipation of what will eventually become the present apex of creation The Church is the apex of Gods creation that all else is brought into existence for the sake of unified and collective praisethe Body of Christ constituted by all the faithful all the good angels and all of Gods saints message of the Confessions The Confessions were written to help us see that the life each of us has lived has been perhaps never easy and probably not always enjoyable but it is the very life God uses to convey his singular and unequaled love for each restless heart St Augustine in the Confessions defends Christianity to the schools of philosophy some of which he participated in He points out their flaws He spends a lot of his Confessions refuting the Manicheans He not only accounts his journey to god but also points out the philosophical schools and their drawbacks dualism of Manichaeism Anything earthly or bodily was bad and anything spiritual or immaterial was considered good This was a form of materialism because you wanted light particles in you and to expel all the dark particle Everything was divided into light and dark particles These represented good and evil Two deities fighting Believed immoral things could be done to the body since it was not connected to the soul Referenced Our Lord for appearance with vague terms since they were ultimately a heresy and upheld their doctrine of dualism and There was no necessity of the incarnation similarly to the Platonists early heresies often concerned the Incarnation and were against the idea that Christ is true God and True Man roots of Manichaeism The Manicheans were most prominent in the Eastern areas such as Asia Minor and Persia That was where it was strongest and ideas of dualism roots of government Rome roots of philosophy Greece east the eastern countries did not contribute as much Studies on this portion are mostly secular and deny liberal arts figs were used to expel dark particles from the body to confess primarily to pray an oration between creature and creator only secondarily in the usual sense is it a going to confession praising the Lord Those who seek him will praise him for as they seek they will find him and on finding them they will praise him on being filled with the Lord To what place outside heaven and earth could I travel so that my God could come to me there the God who said I fill heaven and earth Are you not everywhere in your whole being while there is nothing whatever that can hold you entirely Augustine describes God most high excellent supremely merciful and just most hidden but supremely present infinitely beautiful and strong steadfast yes elusive unchanging despite controlling the change in all things who is Augustine to God What indeed am I t you that you should command me to love you and grow angry with me if I do not and threaten me with enormous woes unity and division A constant theme in the early Christian theology was the idea that goodness unifies while evil scatters Consequently diabolical literally means to throw or break apart Augustine seeks to show that a life with God has coherence and integrity while a life of sin is never focused never stable never at rest calling upon God Augustine insists that if we are going to love God properly we must be able to call upon him rightly and the religious language we use therefore is ultimately a matter of worship and praise Christianity More than having the right data and speaking the right words IT is a matter of being transformed by Gods action upon the soul and when the Lord of all Life draws near only then do we begin to act and see differently This is why we hear that Augustines heart is listening as encountering God is always a matter of external senses as well as internal renewal the soul as a house Augustine compares his soul to a house saying The house of my soul is too small for you to enter make it more spacious by your coming It lies in ruins rebuild it CS Lewis also compares the soul to a house that God transforms into a palace the heart The heart is a place for God No one but God can fully see he internal movements of the soul and of ones joy and fear Regardless of how intimately close one might be to his beloved a creature will always be outside of ones heart a space reserved for God alone existence of God You exist before the dawn of the ages before anything that can be called before YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 82 terms Christianity and its Practice Exam 2 pt 2 86 terms Theology 50 terms CHU395 Religion 3rd Quarter Exam Boelte OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 44 terms MEC1 16 terms Presidental Election 8 terms 1964 Presidential election and the Great Society 24 terms Medieval Church THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 12 terms Allegory of the Cave 18 terms Allegory Of the cave 27 terms Conversatio Exam 1 Semester 1 24 terms Morality questions 124

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Human Development Chapter 4 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month An infant expresses _____ at 6 weeks of age and expresses _____ between 2 and 4 months of age a social smile laughter CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 82 Terms in this set 82 An infant expresses _____ at 6 weeks of age and expresses _____ between 2 and 4 months of age a social smile laughter At what age do infants typically begin to express obvious anger 6 months A child who is described by her parents as active social and not shy would be high in which component of temperament exuberance A child with an insecureavoidant attachment to her caregivers is likely to show indifference When 12monthold Nicholas looked at his mother to see her expression as a stranger entered the room he was demonstrating social referencing Highly active exciting play tends to occur more with fathers Freuds first stage of psychosexual development is oral _____ would relate a persons excessive eating drinking or talking to how that persons mother handled his or her urge to suck during infancy Freud What is Eriksons second crisis of life autonomy versus shame and doubt Between now and the year 2021 it is estimated that approximately _____ million babies will be born around the world each year 134 In which country are mothers paid their full work salary for a total of 47 weeks while they stay home to care for their babies followed by statefunded highquality free day care for children older than 1 year of age Norway Your author suggests that separation anxiety in young children is actually a good thing What is the rationale behind this argument It indicates that the childs memory is active and engaged Pretending and using the words I me mine and myself are evidence that the child has developed selfrecognition The MOST critical factor in the synchrony between an infant and his or her caregiver is timing According to _____ a caregivers responses to her infants basic needs determine the infants future emotional health Erikson When an infant looks to another person for information about how to react in an uncertain or ambiguous situation she is engaging in social referencing Satisfying a childs basic needs with care and consistency relates to Eriksons first crisis of life At a trip to the local shopping mall one December young Darius is surprised when he overhears the man dressed as Santa Claus speaking in a harsh tone to his elf helpers He thought that Santa Claus was supposed to be permanently happy and jolly These expectations for Santas behaviors make up Dariuss _____ of the beloved Christmas character working model Which statement is TRUE Good preschool education is beneficial for young children One essential factor for quality infant day care is attention to health and safety Highquality day care during infancy has the following characteristic low turnover rate Which part of the brain was activated in adults who were asked whether certain adjectives did or did not apply to them the medial prefrontal cortex The MOST critical factor in the synchrony between an infant and his or her caregiver is timing Which attachment pattern involves an infant who both resists and seeks contact when reunited with his or her caregiver insecureresistantambivalent _____ theory examines development by connecting biological and social growth psychoanalytic The cognitive model of development holds that the pivotal factor in a childs life is their interpretation of their own experiences In which of the following countries is centerbased day care for children NOT subsidized by the government Brazil As the country of Australia has attempted to increase its birthrate which of the following is NOT a perk given to parents when they have a child The parents are given a statefunded house that is big enough for their family size At about 9 months of age infants usually begin to demonstrate stranger wariness and separation anxiety According to the text temperament involves inborn differences between babies in emotions activity and selfregulation Infants seek social bonds Which of the following is a social bond social referencing attachment synchrony All of these answers are correct Albert crawls after his father when his father leaves the room In doing so Albert is exhibiting proximityseeking behavior Freud and Erikson were _____ theorists psychoanalytic Which perspective suggests that parents mold an infants emotions and personality as they reinforce or punish their child behaviorism Research by Pilarz and Hill 2014 finds that children with _____ maternal caregiving are more likely to be aggressive by 3 years of age unstable Pretending and using the words I me mine and myself are evidence that the child has developed selfrecognition An infants realization that he or she is a distinct individual whose actions are separate from those of other people is selfawarness A combination of the 7repeat allele of the DRD4 VNTR gene and the 5HTTLPR gene has been found to result in an _____ temperament in 6monthold infants difficult Synchrony between infant and parent becomes _____ frequent and _____ elaborate as the child matures moremore Which attachment pattern involves an infant who continues playing when his or her mother leaves the room and ignores her when she returns insecureavoidant According to Freud an oral _____ could develop if a childs urge to suck is frustrated This could happen for example if a child is weaned too early from breastfeeding or is not allowed to suck her thumb or on a pacifier fixation _____ would relate a persons excessive eating drinking or talking to how that persons mother handled his or her urge to suck during infancy Freud The idea of a working model comes from _____ theory cognitive Two women are talking about being new mothers and they discuss the governmentsubsidized day care that they will be using so that their children can be cared for while they return to work They each share the opinion that providing this service is an obligation of the government just like paving roads and paying police officers In which of these countries would this conversation most likely be taking place Israel Although there is a large range of actual occurrence that differs by culture estimates suggest that approximately _____ percent of infants worldwide receive daily child care by a paid nonrelative provider 15 Lewis and Erika want to have children but they also both value their careers Each wants to be part of caring for their kids when they are born so they are looking into which countries provide the most support for new parents If they want to live in the country that provides the highest amount of partially paid or unpaid paternity leave where would they move Australia A person dressed in an Easter bunny costume approaches 2yearold Robyn to give her candy She begins to cry loudly and clings to her mother Robyn is exhibiting stranger wariness Emotions that require an awareness of other people are pride shame and embarrassment The attachment pattern in which an infant welcomes his mother upon her return and then returns to play after a brief separation is secure A person who is high in their need for control regularity and cleanliness in their life would be described by Freud as having an _____ personality anal Residents of all but which region rarely put their children in day care services because they feel that it would be harmful to an infants wellbeing Eastern Europe At what age would it be normal to see stranger wariness FIRST emerge 9 months An infants social smile normally emerges at about 6 weeks of age How is a childs temperament usually assessed The childs responses to hisher environment are monitored Synchrony attachment and _____ are crucial to the psychosocial development of infants and toddlers social referencing Which attachment pattern involves infants who freeze in place cry hysterically andor pinch themselves disorganized Which of the following seems to predict insecure attachment parents who are highly stressed about things like income other children or their marriage In the model of Erik Erikson a child who is struggling through the terrible twos is attempting to establish a personal sense of autonomy At what age do infants typically begin to express obvious anger 6 months Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of temperament cognitive adaptability In Freudian psychoanalytic theory what is the primary challenge of the anal stage of development toilet training What is Eriksons second crisis of life autonomy versus shame and doubt For which of the following reasons do immigrant parents in the United States prefer that child care be provided by relatives rather than by child care professionals Because relatives will speak the language that is used in the home Selfawareness usually emerges at around what age 18 months Although cultural differences exist most infants worldwide develop special attachments to their caregivers This discovery is attributed to Mary Ainsworth Research measuring infantcaregiver attachment involves parents answering questions about their childrens characteristics All of these answers are correct using the Strange Situation laboratory procedure an extensive interview with parents about their relationships with their own parents In the first year of life most infants in Canada are cared for only by their mothers In which country are mothers paid their full work salary for a total of 47 weeks while they stay home to care for their babies followed by statefunded highquality free day care for children older than 1 year of age Norway A lasting affectionate tie between an infant and a caregiver is called attachment _____ parenting involves close physical contact with a child while _____ parenting involves engaging the child from some distance using toys food and communication instead of physical contact proximaldistal One essential factor for quality infant day care is attention to health and safety The experimental practice in which adults stare at their baby and remain unmoving and expressionless is called the stillface technique When an infant is comfortable and confident in the presence of his or her caregivers the infant would be described as having an _____ attachment secure Research demonstrates that MOST infants are classified as having an _____ attachment to their caregivers secure According to Freud the primary source of gratification during the second year of life is the anus When a toddler begins to walk and talk the social bond with the caregiver changes from _____ to _____ synchronyattachment Which of the following is one of the key aspects of the Strange Situation exploration of the toys When an infant clings and cries when a familiar caregiver is about to leave this is called separation anxiety At what age would it be normal to see stranger wariness FIRST emerge 9 months The term _____ refers to the care of children by people other than their biological parents allocare The importance of synchrony is that infants learn to watch others expressions take turns read others emotions All of these answers are correct What was an outcome of the totalitarian political policies of dictator Nicolae Ceausescu in Romania in the 1980s Illegal abortions became a leading cause of death for women between 15 and 45 years of age YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 36 terms Chapter 4 Chapter 4 Experiencing the Lifespan 3rd Edition Chapter 4 43 terms Chapter 4 Infancy Socioemotional Development PSY 230 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 61 terms Leandras Community Health Promotion Midterm 1 Public Health 60 terms Leandras Community Health Promotion Exam 2 92 terms Midterm terms 18 terms HS 161 Week 1 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 40 terms burger quiz 3 ch3 65 terms Chapter 13 20 terms Psychology Chapter 8 15 terms Chapter 25

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