International Business chapter 9 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Silk Road CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The land and water trade routes that covered more than four thousand miles and connected the Mediterranean with Asia CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 36 Terms in this set 36 Silk Road The land and water trade routes that covered more than four thousand miles and connected the Mediterranean with Asia exporting The sale of products and services in foreign countries that are sourced or made in the home country importing Buying goods and services from foreign sources and bringing them back into the home country Importing is also known as global sourcing distributors Export intermediaries who represent the company in the foreign market export management company EMC An independent company that performs for a fee or commission the duties a firms own export department would execute such as handling the necessary documentation finding buyers for the export and taking title of the goods for direct export franchising Granting rights on an intangible property like technology or a brand name to a foreign company for a specified period of time and receiving a royalty in return equity joint venture A contractual strategic partnership between two or more separate business entities to pursue a business opportunity together each partner contributes capital and resources in exchange for an equity stake and share in any resulting profits tax haven A country that has very advantageous low corporate income taxes countertrade The situation in which companies trade goods and services for other goods and services actual monies are only involved to a lesser degree if at all barter The direct exchange of one good for another with no money involved counterpurchase The situation in which the seller receives cash contingent on the seller buying local products or services in the amount of or a percentage of the cash global sourcing Buying raw materials components or services from companies outside the home country carbon footprint A measure of the impact that activities like transportation and manufacturing have on the environment especially on climate change Includes daily activities such as using electricity or driving because of the greenhouse gases produced through burning fossil fuels for electricity heating transportation and so on The higher the carbon footprint the worse the impact on the environment outsourcing The company delegates an entire process eg accounts payable to the outsource vendor The vendor takes control of the operations and runs the operations as they see fit The company pays the outsource vendor for the end result how the vendor achieves the end result is up to the vendor contract manufacturing The outsourcing of manufacturing servicelevel agreement SLA A contract that specifies the service levels that an outsourcer must meet when performing the service to ensure quality and performance when outsourcing services documentation The official forms that must be presented to satisfy the import and export regulations of countries and for payment to be processed carrier The entity handling the physical transportation of the goods such as UPS FedEx and DHL customs A governmental agency that monitors imports and collects import duties on goods coming into the country freight forwarder Entity that typically prepares the documentation suggests shipping methods navigates trade regulations and assists with details like packing and labeling bill of lading The contract between the exporter and the carrier authorizing the carrier to transport the goods to the buyers destination acts as proof that the shipment was made and that the goods have been received commercial or customs invoice The bill for the goods shipped from the exporter to the importer or buyer export declaration Documentation that provides the contact information of both the exporter and the importer ie buyer as well as a full description declared value and destination of the products being shipped certificate of origin Documentaion that declares the country from which the product originates insurance certificate Documentation that shows the amount of insurance coverage on the goods and identifies the merchandise letter of credit A legal document issued by a bank at the importers or buyers request in which the importer promises to pay a specified amount of money when the bank receives documents about the shipment draft or bill of exchange The document by which the exporter tells the importer to pay a specified amount at a specified time It is a written order for a certain amount of money to be transferred on a certain date from the person who owes the money or agrees to make the payment sight draft A bill that is due to be paid upon receipt ie when it is seen time draft A bill that is payable 30 60 90 or 120 days in the future factoring The situation in which an exporter sells a time draft at a discount to an intermediary often a bank that will pay the exporter immediately and then collect the full amount from the importer at the later date cash in advance An arrangement in which the exporter requires payment from the importer before shipping the goods open account An arrangement in which the exporter ships the goods and then bills the importer secured financing Financing granted against collateral which can be the importedexported goods Japan External Trade Organization JETRO An organization that assists foreign companies in exporting their products to Japan by providing freemarket entry information and businesspartner matching as well as some subsidies Also works to attract foreign direct investment into Japan Overseas Private Investment Corporation OPIC An organization that helps US businesses invest overseas particularly in developing countries by providing direct loans and loan guarantees to projects that meet its guidelines OPIC also provides exporters insurance ExportImport Bank of the United States ExIm Bank An organization that helps exporters who have found a buyer yet the buyer is unable to get financing for the purchase in their own country Can provide credit support ie loans guarantees and insurance for small businesses that cover up to 85 percent of the transactions export value

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Geology 1100 chapter 3 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month What type of chemical bond occurs when atoms share electrons as shown in this diagram Metallic Covalent Ionic Covalent CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 27 Terms in this set 27 What type of chemical bond occurs when atoms share electrons as shown in this diagram Metallic Covalent Ionic Covalent Which if the following is a mineral Sugar Salt Amber Glass Salt Which of the following is NOT a mineral Oil because its a liquid not a solid A gold nugget because its a native metal An oyster shell because its not crystalline Pyrite because its a chemical compound Oil because its a liquid not a solid Which if the following is FALSE Formation of table salt Is in mineralogic terms formation of the halide mineral halite Results in cubic crystals Takes place when a solution has become saturated Is an example of a solidification if a melt Is an example of a solidification of a melt Calcite and aragonite minerals that constitute clam shells are examples of which method of mineral formation Biomineralization Solidstate diffusion Precipitation from a solution Solidification if a melt Biomineralization Which if the following statements is FALSE Crystals Are formed by the hightemperature extremely rapid process known as solidstate diffusion Display symmetry Have an orderly internal arrangement of atoms arranged in a lattice pattern Grow outward from a seed Are formed by the hightemperature extremely rapid process known as solidstate diffusion Graphite is The polymorph of galena The lead in the pencil you write with Harder than glass Pure silicon The lead in the pencil you write with Identify the FALSE statement Crystals can be a variety of geometric shapes including cubes trapezoid pyramids octahedrons hexagons columns blades and needles Theres an angle of 120 degrees between each crystal face of the hexagonal column of a quartz crystal The faces of a crystal need to be the same size throughout the crystal but the angle of intersection between comparable faces is the same throughout Polymorphs of the same mineral have the same crystal shape because they contain the same basic atoms bonded in the same way Polymorphs of the same mineral have the same crystal shape because they contain the same basic atoms bonded in the same way The tendency of a mineral to break and produce smooth curving shellshaped surfaces is termed Cleavage Streak Luster Conchoidal fracture Conchoidal fracture There are 2 physical properties of minerals that both result in smooth flat surfaces with specific angles between them The first property is externally visible and is the result of how the mineral forms the second is inherently internal and is the result of breaking a sample of the mineral These properties are called Crystal habit and cleavage Hardness and cleavage Cleavage and hardness Cleavage and crystal habit Crystal habit and cleavage An unknown mineral scratches glass has only average specific gravity and shows no cleavage but does show conchoidal fracture Which of the following could it be Quartz Talc Mica Halite Quartz When you scrape a mineral along a ceramic plate to observe the color of its powder you are checking the physical property known as Streak Specific gravity Cleavage Luster Streak Which is NOT a physical property commonly used in the field to identify minerals Color Xray diffraction Luster Specific gravity Xray diffraction Which if the following statements about hardness is TRUE calcite will scratch fluorite A copper penny will scratch gypsum Apatite is harder than orthoclase Diamond has a Mohs hardness of 10 because its 10x harder than talc hardness of 1 A copper penny will scratch gypsum Identify the FALSE statement Silicates Have the siliconoxygen tetrahedron as their structural unit Are classified on the basis of how the tetrahedrons join and share oxygen atoms Are a large category of minerals and include the common minerals and calcite dolomite Are a major component of continental crust Are a large category of minerals and include the common minerals and calcite dolomite Which if the following groups of silicate minerals exhibits a single strong cleavage in one direction Independent tetrahedra silicates Sheet silicates Singlechain silicates Framework silicates Sheet silicates Which if the following statements about gemstones is FALSE In order to be considered precious or semiprecious a gemstone must be transparent Many gemstones come from pegmatites which are particularly coarsegrained igneous rocks A gemstone is a mineral that has value because of its rarity and beauty Ruby is a gemstone variety of the common mineral conundrum In order to be considered precious or semiprecious a gemstone must be transparent Which if the following statements is FALSE Diamonds That have weathered out of ore bodies can end up in stream gravels Are brought from the mantle to the surface in magma that hardens into kimberlite Are found in carrotshaped structures called pegmatites Of industrial quality are used as abrasives Are found in carrotshaped structures called pegmatites Chemical bonding is responsible for many of the physical properties we observe in minerals The following figure shows one such bond type Please choose the correct name for the chemical bonds shown Metallic Ionic Covalent Hydrogen Ionic Cleavage is the tendency of a mineral to break in a predictable manner when subjected to a force The image below shows a calcite fragment Which statement about calcites cleavage is true Calcite has 1 plane of cleavage Calcite has 3 planes of cleavage on of which is inclined Calcite has 2 perpendicular planes of cleavage Calcite has 2 inclined planes of cleavage Calcite has 3 planes of cleavage on of which is inclined Mineral crystals come in many different shapes The image below shows a halite Crystal Which of the following statements regarding the minerals characteristics is false Halite has cubic crystal habit The atoms with Halite molecules are held together by chemical binds Halite has one strong plane of cleavage Halite has sodium and chlorine ions in its chemical formula Halite has one strong plane of cleavage The classes of silicate minerals differ from one another based on how the capital SiO molecules are linked to each other The image below shows many of the different arrangements What shape is the best siliconoxygen molecule that makes up these different arrangements Tetrahedron Hexahedron Octahedron Decahedron Tetrahedron The following figure shows a sample of pyrite FeS2 Which of the following statements can you verify by visual inspection of this sample Pyrite has one plane of cleavage and is magnetic Pyrite has a golden streak and a cubic crystal habit Pyrite has metallic luster and a cubic crystal habit Pyrite has nonmetallic luster and 2 planes of cleavage Pyrite has metallic luster and cubic crystal habit The image below shows the atomic structure of a graphite Crystal The hexagons are made by strong covalent bonds while the sheets are held together by much weaker Van Der Waal forces Based on this information and the shape of the structure how many planes of cleavage could graphite be expected to have 1 2 3 None 1 The quartz in this figure shows a very specific typeof breakage Its not cleavage What is this type of break called Concave fracture Irregular fracture iilnternal fracture Conchoidal fracture Conchoidal fracture The size of mineral crystals could be influenced by the speed of cooling The picture below shows an amethyst geode Match the letter with the appropriate term for crystal shape Aeuhedral Bsubhedral Canhedral Acubic Btetrahedral Ceuhedral Aanhedral Bcovalent Cmetallic Asubhedral Banhedral Ceuhedral Aeuhedral Bsubhedral Canhedral To correctly identify a mineral geologist run several tests to gather information about the minerals physical and chemical properties Which test method is being demonstrated in the following figure Luster Streak Crystal habit Cleavage Streak YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 40 terms geography ch 3 quiz 34 terms Planet Earth Chapter 5 39 terms GEO Ch 3 34 terms geology ch 5 quiz OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 18 terms Chapter 11 Test 2 terms Solubility rules in H2O 43 terms Accounting 1010 vocabulary ratios 56 terms Elements

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Gateways to Democracy CH 4 A state in which people do as they please without regard to others is Anarchy Which amendment guarantees that the government will provide just compensation for private property that it takes 5th In Barron v Baltimore the Supreme Court decided that the Bill of Rights applied to The national government only What test does the Supreme Court commonly use to determine whether a particular limitation of a constitutional right is acceptable The compelling interest test During World War I Congress passed the Act which made it a crime to obstruct military recruiting Espionage US Senator Joseph McCarthy indiscriminately accused certain American citizens of being cardcarrying Communists Prisoners of war must be treated in accordance with the an international treaty that protects prisoners of war Geneva conventions _______ such as racial epithets attack individuals whereas _______ demeans a group Fighting words hate speech Which of the following is an example of symbolic speech Burning the flag The publishing of false and damaging statements about a person is referred to as Libel For published material to be considered obscene it must pass the test Miller States are generally free to pass laws that restrict religious practices as long as such laws have a valid secular purpose Which clause prevents Congress from recognizing one church as the nations official church The establishment clause The Supreme Court test for determining whether laws violate the establishment clause is known as the Lemon test Opponents of the individual right to keep and bear arms view the as limiting this right to those in organized militias Well regulated militia clause Which best describes the Supreme Courts 2008 majority opinion on whether the District of Columbia could restrict private possession of firearms It reaffirmed an individuals right to keep and bear arms indicating that the right could be regulated but not denied of the following resulted in the aftermath of the Sandy Hook Elementary murders in Newtown CT Congress has been inactive in restricting access to guns but the states have varied in restricting and expanding gun rights Generally warrants that allow searches and seizures must be backed by Probably cause Which of the following is LEAST likely to have the protected expectation of privacy Something that is in plain view According to illegally seized evidence may NOT be used in trial Exclusionary rule Which 1966 Supreme Court decision protected the rights of individuals in custody and mandated that police inform them of their rights Miranda vs Arizona Which of the following is true regarding use of the death penalty as punishment States may impose the death penalty if they provide specific guidelines to jurors to consider Which Supreme Court case established a right to privacy Griswold vs Connecticut Which Supreme Court case established a national right to abortion Roe v Wade Which Supreme Court case protected consensual homosexual relationships Lawrence vs Texas

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 37 Learning curve FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Vertebrate smooth muscle cells are activated when Ca binds to CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT calmodulin CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 29 Terms in this set 29 Vertebrate smooth muscle cells are activated when Ca binds to calmodulin The basic contractile unit of a muscle is called the sarcomere When muscles combine to produce similar motions at a joint they are called agonists Imagine that you travel back in time 600 million years and are looking at marine organisms What types of skeletons would you observe in these creatures only hydrostatic skeletons and exoskeletons Torque is best defined as the strength of rotational movement about a joint axis The force generated by a muscle contraction depends on all of these Which of the following is an example of a ballandsocket joint in the human body shoulder and hip joints The power stroke describes the pivoting of the myosin head which causes actin and myosin to slide relative to each other All of the following would lead to an increase in the force generated by a muscle contraction except increasing the rate at which calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Which of the following types of contractions generate the greatest force lengthening contractions Which of the following statements about hydrostatic skeletons is false Longitudinal muscle contractions increase the length of the body cavity Which of the following cell types would you expect to find in bone marrow all of these Which of the following is not a correct pairing of structure and function motor endplate region of the motor neuron axon that releases acetylcholine What functions as the supportive component of the skeleton in an animal with a hydrostatic skeleton a fluidfilled body cavity The formation of limb bones involves the formation of bones from a cartilage model Which of the following statements about muscle contraction is false Actin and myosin filaments shorten during muscle contraction Which of the following would result in tetanus stimulating the muscle fiber so frequently that it can not relax at all A researcher is staining young mouse embryonic sections for Sox9 a marker of chondroblasts and the earliest stage of cartilage precursor of future bones Where will the researcher observe Sox9 staining in these sections all of these Which of the following statements about muscle proteins is false Actin filaments have globular heads A sample of muscle tissue shows largediameter fibers that are white in color Which of the following characteristics would also be associated with this tissue high rates of ATP hydrolysis Striated muscles include cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle The exoskeleton of insects is composed mainly of chitin Which of the following statements about the differences between exoskeletons and endoskeletons is correct An exoskeleton lies external to the bodys soft tissues whereas an endoskeleton lies internal to most of the bodys soft tissues A researcher is comparing the size of sarcomeres in mice to those in elephants What will he find Sarcomere size is relatively constant in vertebrates As a result mouse and elephant sarcomeres will likely be equal in size Muscle fibers generate maximum force at intermediate lengths A movie director asks his computer animation team to create a dragon with an exoskeleton as such a skeleton will make it impervious to any attacks Is this statement correct none of these Smooth muscles can be activated by all of the following except the somatic nervous system Why is calcium necessary for muscle contraction Calcium is needed to activate troponin so that tropomyosin can be moved to expose the myosinbinding sites on the actin filament Which of the following statements is true regarding the axial skeleton It is thought to have evolved before the appendicular skeleton

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Art in Humanities test 3 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month c The supervision by one individual or group over the artistic expression of another individual or group is known as a editorial photography b political arena c censorship d afterimage e collodion process CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 85 c The supervision by one individual or group over the artistic expression of another individual or group is known as a editorial photography b political arena c censorship d afterimage e collodion process c The use by artists of the camera obscura literally dark room began in a classical Greece b the court of Louis XVI c the Italian Renaissance d the Industrial Revolution e the mid19th century a Artists primarily used the camera obscura to a produce naturalistic drawings of the world b develop photographic film in total darkness c spy on their neighbors d protect their unexposed photographic plates from the sun e None of these answers is correct c Andy Warhols film Empire a is noted for its epic battle scenes b cast thousands of actors from Italy c is a film about watching time pass d is an ingenious comic dialogue e is the seminal film in the use of models and special effects b A daguerreotype was an early photographic method created using a a carte de visite b copper plate covered with silver iodine c rayogram d plate of glass e gelatin silver print d Dada collage artist Hannah Höch used found photographs to express a artistic composition b the overwhelming experience of the mechanized city c disgust with a civilization that allowed the slaughter of World War I d All of these e None of these answers is correct c ________ was a photographer who became dissatisfied with pictorialism and promoted the idea that photography should be true to its own nature rather than trying to imitate painting a Henry Peach Robinson b Joseph Nicéphore Niépce c Alfred Steiglitz d Julia Margaret Cameron e Thomas Ruff b The Lumière brothers a originated the concept of the auteur in filmmaking b invented the first workable film projector c invented the first recorded film soundtrack d collaborated with Thomas Edison in making short films e None of these answers is correct b Despite an enthusiastic public acceptance the success of the daguerreotype was limited by a a strict international patent b the inability to make multiple images from one negative c painters who believed photography was not art d the invention of the motion picture e the cost of silver a In 1888 the Kodak camera changed the history of photography a by making photography easily accessible to the general public b when George Eastman invented color film c with the invention of the daguerreotype d when the snapshot replaced art photography e All these answers are correct e Man Ray created mysterious images called _________ that looked like ordinary photographs but did not require a camera to record them a Albumen print b chromogenic color print c collage photography d silver gelatins e Rayograms c Nam Jun Pak is best known for a Internet art b Pop art c video art d photojournalism e stop motion photography b In 1878 Eadweard Muybridge photographed a galloping horse and discovered that a racing horses keep at least one hoof on the ground at all times b galloping horses occasionally have all four hooves off the ground c racing horses resemble hobbyhorses with legs stretched forward and backward d offtrack betting is an easy way to make a living e lightsensitive materials of that day could not stop action b Artists like Peter Campus became interested in video because a of its emphasis on narrative content b video signals could be electronically manipulated into interesting images c it was an easier medium to master d it allowed them to develop their animatedfilm technique e it enabled them to use commercials to finance their art b The creation of a photographic body of work around an event place or culture is known as a solarization b photojournalism c editorial photography d Dada and surrealism e abstraction c A major difference between the work of a pure or straight photographer such as Alfred Stieglitz and the work of a documentary photographer such as Dorothea Lange is a the choice of subject matter b the era in which the photographers worked c the different intentions of each photographer d the invention of the digital camera e the cost of hiring models e Early examples of art photography often imitated a the brush strokes of Renaissance painters b the Dada photographic collages of Hannah Höch c film stills from gradeB Hollywood movies d Leonardo da Vincis painting of The Last Supper e the narrative form of painting e The Farm Security Administration of the US Department of Agriculture a hired filmmaker Alfred Hitchcock to make a film about crop dusting b encouraged Future Farmers of America to photograph activities related to dairy farming and everyday rural life c owned controlling shares of the Eastman Kodak Company in 1929 d sponsored photography classes in high schools across the country e paid photographers to document the Great Depression d The Dada movement was formed as a reaction to a pictorialism and photography of the American West b television and video art c the American Civil War d World War I e engineering and machinery c ________ is closely associated with Alfred Stieglitzs assertion that for photography to be an art it should be true to its own nature a Sand Springs Nevada b Fading Away c The Steerage d Migrant Mother e Substratum 12 III c Julia Margaret Cameron is renowned for her a surrealist photographs b popart films c portraits d photojournalism e video art a The works of Henry Peach Robinson and Andreas Gursky exemplify the photographers a manipulation and combination of different photographic images in one work b editorial approach to photography c commitment to unmanipulated straight photography d intention to make the viewer become part of the photograph as he or she moves through it e None of these answers is correct a An _________ is a director whose films are marked by a consistent individual style and is closely involved in conceiving the idea for the films story and writing the script a auteur b photojournalist c videographer d Dadaist e filmmaker a One of the most celebrated 19thcentury artists Henri de ToulouseLautrec created posters for the famous dance hall called a the Moulin Rouge b the Unvanquished c La Goulue d Valentin e the Odeon d Although symbols convey information and embody ideas a those ideas may change radically with time b they have no meaning in themselves c their meaning is invented by cultural use d All of these e None of these answers is correct c According to the author graphic design as we know it today has its roots in two developments They are a the discovery of the Rosetta Stone and the invention of the camera obscura b motion pictures and television c the printing press and the Industrial Revolution d the discovery of the Rosetta Stone and the printing press e the printing press and motion pictures b A ________ is often the first and key element in creating a complete corporate identity a layout b logo c composite d broadside e title c A designers blueprint for books and magazines and other works in print is called a a lithograph b a logo c a layout d an illustration e a collection a Graphic design used to be known as ________ art a commercial b guild c trade d conceptual e studio b One of the most effective and easiest ways for a company to change its image is a to roll out an expensive advertising campaign b to redesign its logo c to change its name d to change from print to television advertisements e None of these answers is correct b Designing for the Web adds the potential for ________ reactions to choices made by a visitor to the site a research and technology b motion and interactivity c surfing and chatting d composing and editing e None of these answers is correct d W Bradford Paleys TextArc program uses an entire text of a book and a creates illustrations based on its characters and narratives b translates it c helps graphic designers to choose the most appropriate typeface for it d displays all of the text on screen allowing users to explore relationships between its words e bases fractal patterns on its structure d The ________ first made it possible to devise a notice that could be reproduced in large numbers and distributed widely a camera obscura b Rosetta Stone c computer d printing press e feudal system b The ancient symbol from Chinese philosophy that embodies a worldview of mutual interdependence is the ________ symbol a swastika b yinyang c sansserif d Shiseido e Sanskrit d Which graphic design team developed the familiar set of symbols used today to communicate information across language barriers to international travelers a Holley and Barnett b Carson and Cuffaro c Vladimir and Georgii Stenberg d Cook and Shanosky e Spiekermann and Schwartz e An image created to accompany words is called a an icon b a serif c a hieroglyph d a logo e an illustration d Cassidy Curtiss Graffiti Archaeology is organized by ________ to effectively display its subject a artist and style b location and style c style and time d location and time e location and style b The development of ________ in the 19th century introduced the widespread use of color in posters a broadsides b color lithography c the printing press d water color e All these answers are correct d In 1525 with the advent of moveable type ________ created a unified alphabet that could be massproduced a Paul Rand b Henri de ToulouseLautrec c Norman Rockwell d Albrecht Dürer e David Carson c The American graphic designer who created some of the most memorable logos for IBM UPS and ABC is a David Carson b Milton Glaser c Paul Rand d Norman Rockwell e Joan Dobkin a Graphic design has as its goal the communication of some __________ message to a group of people a specific b underlying c composite d artistic e title d The carving method a is more aggressive than modeling b is more direct than casting c is a subtractive process d All of these e None of these answers is correct c Four basic methods for making a sculpture are a modeling firing lashing and casting b casting stacking rolling and carving c modeling casting carving and assembling d casting turning rolling and modeling e None of these answers is correct d Andy Goldsworthy uses ________ materials to create sculptures that are ________ a artificial ephemeral b natural permanent c artificial permanent d natural ephemeral e imaginary conceptual d Relief sculpture is a not meant to be viewed in the round b not finished on all sides c often used to decorate architecture d All of these e None of these answers is correct e Fired clay is sometimes called 3192013 a pewter b haut relief c rococo d ceramic e terra cotta c The ________ process dates back to the 3rd millennium BCE a gilding b subtractive c lostwax d basrelief e None of these answers is correct b Sculptors will often create a sketch out of ________ to test ideas before proceeding to their medium of choice a fresco b clay c bronze d gilding e All of these answers are correct e ________ is a sculptural process of bringing together individual pieces segments or objects to form a sculpture a Contrapposto b Cire perdue c Collage d Intheround e Assemblage d Minimalists a did not believe in trying to influence people through images b favored industrial and construction materials c attempted to offer a pure experience by letting the materials they used speak for themselves d All of these are the case e None of these answers is correct e The artworks of Christo and JeanneClaude are intended a to be temporary and transitory b as selffinancing works c as works that have as the subject matter the entire process of the project d to bring together a temporary community of people focused on a particular idea e All of these answers are correct a The sculpture The Scraper is an idealized figure from which civilization a Greek b Roman c Indian d Chinese e Mesoamerican d Carved in a broad style of plain surfaces and subtle modeling Colossal Head is thought to represent ________ rulers a Egyptian b Greek c Italian d Olmec e Indian b The Indian sculpture Durga Fighting the Buffalo Demon is an example of a lowrelief sculpture b highrelief sculpture c bronze casting d assemblage e collage e The additive process of sculpture includes a carving b assembling c modeling d both carving and modeling e both assembling and modeling a The subtractive process involves a carving b assembling c welding d modeling e None of these answers is correct b In sculpture what is the most popular modeling material a Gold b Clay c Marble d Leather e Wood c Which of the following concepts conceives of a space and everything in it as a work of art a Basrelief b Popart c Installation art d Contrapposto e High relief c Casting is known as ________ method a a subtractive b an additive c an indirect d an assemblage e a modeling e What is the key difference between the process of lostwax casting as practiced in ancient times and that same process today a The lostwax process did not exist in ancient times b The modern method no longer uses wax c There is no difference between the modern and the ancient methods d Todays sculptors do not use the lostwax method e Today multiples can be created from the process d Highrelief sculpture is different from lowrelief sculpture in that a highrelief projects boldly from the background b highrelief is installed high upon the wall of a building c elements of highrelief may be in the round unattached to the background d highrelief projects boldly from the background and elements of highrelief may be in the round unattached to the background e All these answers are correct a Contrapposto meaning counter poise or counterbalance was developed by ________ as a pose for sculptures of the human figure a ancient Greeks b ancient Egyptians c 18thcentury artists of the Ivory Coast d 12thcentury Japanese artists e artists of the Renaissance d Serpent Mound and Spiral Jetty are known as a installations b sculptures in the round c lostwax moldings d earthworks e highrelief sculptures b The sculpture The Dying Slave employing the contrapposto stance was created by which artist a Kiki Smith b Michelangelo c Rodin d Martin Puryear e Petah Coyne d What separates the art object from the craft object a Art requires more talent than craft b Craft requires more talent than art c Artists use traditional materials d There is no definite line e None of these answers is correct a The Tree of Jesse is a work from a the golden age of stained glass b the Pueblo people of San Ildefonso c the 15th century d the first wave of feminist art e American exslaves of the 19th century a Although the chemical composition of ________ changes when exposed to extreme heat ________ doesnt change chemically when its pliability is altered by heat a clay glass b glass metal c metal clay d glass clay e None of these answers is correct d The work One Shot by Patrick Jouin for Materialise MGX is a a clay vase b flowered box c glass table d plastic stool e None of these answers is correct c Islamic cultures have focused a great deal of aesthetic attention on a tapestries b stained glass c carpets and rugs d jade and lacquer e blurring the boundaries between art and craft b In weaving the set of fibers that is held taut on a loom or frame is called the a woof b warp c weft d walp e weave c Which of the following is made from the sap of a tree a Glaze b Jade c Lacquer d Lattene e Porcelain b Forging a happens when metal is melted into a liquid b is when metal is shaped by hammer blows c can only happen if the metal is cold d is a relatively new method of metalworking e None of these answers is correct b The chair of Hetepheres a is the throne of a famous Roman king b was well preserved by Egypts dry climate c is the throne of a famous Roman king and was initially well preserved by Egypts dry climate but now only exists in a picture as the chairs wood rotted d All of these e None of these answers is correct c By far the fastest method of creating a hollow rounded clay form is by means of the a woof b coiling system c potters wheel d loom e None of these a One artist who displays the legacies of the Arts and Crafts movement employing the techniques of glassblowing is a Toots Zynsky b Gustav Stickley c Josiah McElheny d Patrick Jouin e Betty Woodman d Wood is not very durable because a cold and heat distort it b water rots it c insects can eat it away d All of these are the case e None of these answers is correct d The principal ingredient of glass is a resin b lead c kaolin d sand e cloisonné a The most common way to shape a hollow glass vessel is by a blowing b chasing c staining d forging e lacquering b The Arts and Crafts movement came about as a reaction to a the Renaissance b the Industrial Revolution c the Dark Ages d the fall of the Roman empire e the Sixties d Industrial art as discussed by Gustav Stickley in The Craftsman a encouraged cooperation between artists and manufacturers b set about to design objects that could be machine produced c preceded the field of design d All of these e None of these answers is correct b Wood is a popular craft material because a it is wellsuited to weaving b it is abundant and relatively easy to work c it is not suited for mechanized production d it is extremely durable e All of these answers are correct c The ancient Olmecs of Mesoamerica prized ________ for its translucence which they associated with rainwater a lacquer b glaze c jade d stained glass e silver gilt c An archaeologist asked ________ to reconstruct an entire pot from a broken piece he had found thus launching her career and the revival of Pueblo pottery a Judy Chicago b Faith Ringgold c María Martínez d Betty Woodman e Harriet Powers e The secret of ____________ was discovered and perfected in China and for hundreds of years potters elsewhere failed to duplicate it a terra cotta b lacquer c stained glass d gold leaf e porcelain d The sculptor Olowe of Ise is associated with what culture a Indian b Chinese c Pueblo d Yoruba e Egyptian YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 91011 40 terms Art Exam 4 Art Appreciation Unit 2 100 terms Art chapter 21210 quizzes OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 150 terms Government final 84 terms Art and Humanities test 2 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 42 terms Art and humanities test 1 31 terms Art 100 Exam 3 Chapter 14Ancient Mediterranean art chapter 9 40 terms Art

B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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Methods Measures of Variability FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Measures of Variability CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Extent to which scores differ from one another spread out or clustered together over a large distance CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 15

O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


MKTG 409 Chapter 19 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Price is a key element in the marketing mix because it relates directly to the generation of total _____ a elasticity of demand b revenue c market share d profits e price competition CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT b revenue CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 17 Terms in this set 17 Price is a key element in the marketing mix because it relates directly to the generation of total _____ a elasticity of demand b revenue c market share d profits e price competition b revenue Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that influence the assessment of value a motivations to use available information about prices b time constraints c elasticity of demand d perceived quality e price levels c elasticity of demand To compete effectively on a price basis a firm should ____ a be the lowcost seller of the product b have the lowest market share c have the highest quality d have the highest market share e be the highcost seller of the product a be the lowcost seller of the product ACME Corp and Spacely Inc are engaged in intense price competition in order to boost market share of their widgets This is best described as _____ a nonprice competition b a price war c bartering d elasticity of demand e price discrimination b a price war Which of the following is a major advantage of nonprice competition a building market share b fostering a priceconscious mindset c fostering a valueconscious mindset d building customer loyalty toward the brand e exceeding the breakeven point d building customer loyalty toward the brand Which of the following shows the quantity of products a firm expects to sell at various prices if other factors remain constant a marginal analysis b demand line c demand curve d reference price e breakeven point c demand curve ACME Corps widgets have elastic demand If ACME raises the price of widgets what will be the result a an increase in market share b a decrease in total revenue c a decrease in market share d a decrease in product inventory e an increase in total revenue b a decrease in total revenue Spacely Incs sprockets have inelastic demand If Spacely raises the price of sprockets what will be the result a a decrease in product inventory b an increase in market share c a decrease in market share d a decrease in total revenue e an increase in total revenue e an increase in total revenue A businesss rental of production space is an example of a _____ a marginal cost b total cost c breakeven point d fixed cost e variable cost d fixed cost Which of the following is calculated by dividing the variable costs by the number of units produced a average variable cost b marginal cost c average total cost d breakeven point e average fixed cost a average variable cost Which of the following is the point at which the costs of producing a product equals the revenue made from selling the product a fixed cost b marginal revenue c breakeven point d marginal cost e demand curve c breakeven point A price developed in the buyers mind through experience with the product is an _____ a internal reference price b breakeven point c trade discount d experience price e external reference price a internal reference price Maria is concerned about both price and quality of a product Marketers would best describe her as which of the following a utilitysensitive b prestigesensitive c priceobsessed d priceconscious e valueconscious e valueconscious The Federal Trade Commission is investigating ACME Corp for using misleading price tags at its outlet stores to deceive customers into believing they are getting a bargain on Wile E branded items Which of the following does the FTC believe ACME is guilty of a price fixing b nonprice competition c deceptive pricing d price competition e price discrimination c deceptive pricing Which of the following pass on to a business customer the cost savings gained through economies of scale a allowances b cash discounts c trade discounts d seasonal discounts e quantity discounts e quantity discounts Which of the following charges the same price to all customers regardless of geographic location and the price is based on average shipping costs for all customers a zone pricing b uniform geographic pricing c basepoint pricing d FOB destination pricing e freight absorption pricing b uniform geographic pricing ACME Corp offers a price discount to encourage prompt payment Which of the following is it likely to use a quantity discount b cash discount c seasonal discount d trade discount e allowance b cash discount YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 53 terms MKT 381Ch 20 21 56 terms MKTG 321 Ch 20 Final Exam 52 terms CH13 14 Pricing 107 terms Chapter 19 Pricing Concepts OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 84 terms MGMT 309 Exam 4 14 terms ACCT 327 Chapter 4 Review 9 terms ACCT 327 Chapter 3 Review 30 terms ACCT 327 Chapter 2 Review THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 15 terms MKTG 409 Chapter 17 20 terms MKTG 409 Chapter 16 38 terms MKTG 409 Chapter 17 Important Terms 20 terms MKTG 409 Chapter 18

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O B I O O O O B I O O O O O O B I O O


test 2 chapter 6 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month the priniples of internal control include CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT separate bookkeeping from custody of assets CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 12 Terms in this set 12 the priniples of internal control include separate bookkeeping from custody of assets a companys internal control system monitors company and employee performance cash not including cash equivalents includes customer checks cashier checks and money orders basic bank services do not include petty cash managment the bank statement provided by the bank includes the beginning and the ending balane of the depositors account the number of days uncollected is used to evaluate the liquidity of receivables Abbey company had net sales of 21500 and ending accounts receivable of 2700 for the current period Its days sales uncollected equals use 365 days a year 458 days the cash over and short account is used to record the income effects of errors in making change andor processing petty cash transcations At the end of the day the cash registers record shows 2050 but the count of cash in the cash register is 2058 The correct entry to record the cash sales is debit cash 1058 and credit sales 2050 the entry to establish a petty cash fund includes a debit to petty cash and a credit to accounts receivable on a bank reconciliation the amount of an unrecorded bank service charge would be deducted from the book balance of cash Health net maintains a 300 petty cash fund On January 31 the fund is replenished The accumulate receipts on that date represent 80 for office supplies 160 for merchandise inventory and 20 for miscellaneous expenses There is a cash shortage of 8 Based on this information the amount of cash in the fund before the replenishment is 32 YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Accounting Ch 6 28 terms ACCT 1 Ch06 MC Exam 2 Chapter 6 Chapter 8 and 9 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR chapter 5 acg test 2 accounting chapter 1 10 terms chapter 3 science

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


A P Ch 10 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Frontal belly of Epicranius Epicranium Frontalis Raises the eyebrows wrinkles forehead horizontally O galea aponeurotica I skin of eyebrows and root of nose CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 86 Terms in this set 86 Frontal belly of Epicranius Epicranium Frontalis Raises the eyebrows wrinkles forehead horizontally O galea aponeurotica I skin of eyebrows and root of nose Occipital belly of Epicranius Epicranium Occipital Fixes aponeurosis and pulls scalp posteriorly O occipital and temporal bones I galea aponeurotica Obicularis oculi Closes eye blinking squinting draws eyebrows inferiorly O frontal and maxillary bones and ligaments around orbit I tissue of eyelid Zygomaticus major and minor Raises lateral corners of the mouth upward smiling O zygomatic bone I skin and muscle at corner of mouth Levator labii Opens lips raises and furrows the upper lip O zygomatic bone and infraorbital margin of maxilla I skin and muscle of upper lip Depressor labii Draws lower lip inferiorly pouting O body of mandible lateral to its midline I skin and muscle of lower lip Depressor anguli Draws corners of mouth downward and laterally tragedy mask zygomaticus antagonist O body of mandible below incisors I skin and muscle at angle of mouth below insertion of zygomaticus Obicularis oris Closes lips purses and protrudes lips kissingwhistling O maxilla mandible indirectly fibers blended with other lip muscles I muscles and skins at angles of mouth Mentalis Wrinkles chin protrudes lower lip O mandible below incisors I skin of chin Buccinator Compresses cheek whistling sucking holds food between teeth when chewing draws corner of mouth laterally O molar regions of maxilla and mandible I orbicularis oris Platysma Tenses skin of neck shaving helps depress mandible pulls lower lip back and down downward sag of mouth O fascia of chest over pectoral muscles and deltoid I lower margin of mandible skin muscle at corner of mouth Masseter Prime mover of jaw closure elevates mandible O zygomatic arch and zygomatic bone I angle and ramus of mandible Temporalis Closes jaw elevates and retracts mandible maintains position of mandible at rest O temporal fossa I coronoid process of mandible Digastric anterior and posterior bellies Open mouth and depress mandible elevate hyoid and steady it during swallowing and speech O lower margin of mandible mastoid process of temporal bone I hyoid bone via connective tissue loop Suprahyoid Muscles Help form floor of oral cavity anchor tongue elevate hyoid an move larynx superiorly during swallowing Varius origins and insertions Infrahyoid muscles Located inferior to hyoid maybe they depress hyoid Superior and inferior obliques Move eye upwards and downwards with a lateral turn O cranial bones medial to eye I lateral surface of eyeball Superior and inferior recti singular rectus Move eye upwards and downwards O Common tendinous ring behind eye I inferior and superior surface of eyeball Medial and lateral recti singular rectus Move eye laterally and medially O Common tendinous ring behind eye I medial and lateral surface of eyeball Four Major Functional Muscle Groups Prime Movers ex bicep Antagonists working opposite ex __________ Synergists working together ex __________ Fixators immobilize floating bones ex muscles around scapula Seven Patterns of Fascicle Arrangement Circular ex orbicularis oris Convergent ex pectoralis major Parallel ex sartorius Unipennate ex extensor digitorum longus Bipennate ex rectus femoris Fusiform ex biceps brachii Multipennate ex deltoid First Class Lever LoadFulcrumEffort That bum is a firstclass LoaFEr Example atlantooccipital joint Second Class Lever FulcrumLoadEffort This FLEabag hotel is like a second home Example standing on tiptoe Third Class Lever LoadEffortFulcrum In third grade I always felt LEFt out Example biceps brachii flexing the forearm Sternocleidomastoid Flexes and laterally rotates the head O manubrium of sternum medial portion of clavicle I mastoid process of temporal bone occipital bone Scalenes anterior middle and posterior Elevate first two ribs aid in inspiration flex and rotate neck O transverse processes of cervical vertebrae I first two ribs anterolaterally Splenius capitis and cervicis Extendhyperextend head rotation and lateral bending toward side of muscle contraction O spinous processes of vertebrae C7 T6 I mastoid process of temporal bone occipital bone capitis transverse processes of C2 C4 vertebrae cervicis Trapezius Stabilizes raises retracts and rotates scapula O occipatal bone ligamentum nuchae and spinous processes of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae I acromion and spine of scapula lateral third of clavicle Iliocostalis lumborum thoracis cervicis Extend and laterally flex the vertebral column one of the three pairs of erector spinae columns O iliac crests ribs I angles of ribs transverse processes of cervical vertebrae Longissimus thoracis cervicis capitis Extend and laterally flex the vertebral column capitis extends head and turns face laterally O transverse processes of vertebrae I transverse processes of vertebrae ribs superior to O capitis inserts into mastoid process of temporal bone Spinalis Extends vertebral column O spinous processes of vertebrae lumbarlower thoracic I spinous processes of vertebrae upper thoraciccervical Splenius CapitisCervicis Extend or hyperextend head O ligamentum nuchae spinous processes of vertebrae I mastoid process of temporal bone occipital bone capitis transverse processes of cervical vertebrae cervicis Multifidus and Rotatores Deep Dorsum Movements of the head and trunk O Transverse processes of vertebrae I Spinous processes of vertebrae Quadratus lumborum Flexes vertebral column laterally part of posterior abdominal wall O I Diaphragm Prime mover of inspiration flattens on contraction O I External Intercostals Pull ribs toward one another to elevate rib cage aid in inspiration synergists of diaphragm O I Internal Intercostals Draw ribs together and depress rib cage aid in forced expiration antagonists of external intercostals O I Serratus Anterior Rotates scapula inferior angle moves laterally upward boxers muscle O I Pectoralis Major Prime mover of arm flexion rotates arm medially adducts arm O I Pectoralis Minor Draws scapula forward and downward O I Levator Scapulae Elevatesadducts scapula O I Rhomboids major and minor Stabilize scapula O I Supraspinatus initiates abduction of scapulashoulder joint O I Infraspinatus rotates humerus laterally O I Subscapularis chief medial rotator of humerus O I Teres minor same as infraspinatus rotates humerus laterally O I Teres Major Extends medially rotates and adducts humerus O I Latissimus Dorsi Prime mover of arm extension arm adductor medially rotates arm at shoulder O I Deltoid Prime mover of arm abduction O I Biceps Brachii Flexes elbow and supinates forearm O I Brachialis Flexes forearm prime mover Deep to biceps brachii O I Coracobrachialis Flexion and adduction of humerus synergist of pectoralis major deep to superficial muscles O I Triceps Brachii Action two heads long and short with common insertion O I Brachioradialis Synergist in forearm flexion handshake muscle does not flex or extend wrist or hand O lateral supracondyle ridge of humerus I radius styloid process Pronator teres Pronates forearm O I Supinator Assists biceps brachii to forcibly supinate forearm O I Flexor carpi radialis Powerful flexor of wrist abducts hand O I Flexor carpi ulnaris Powerful flexor of wrist adducts hand O I Flexor digitorum superficialis Flexes wrist and middle phalanges of fingers 25 O I Flexor pollicis longus Flexes first distal phalanx pollux or thumb O anterior radius interosseus membrane I first distal phalanx Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis and Longus Extends wrist and abducts hand brevis is shorter than longer and lies deep to it O I Extensor Carpi Ulnaris Extends wrist and adducts hand O I Extensor Digititorum Prime mover of finger extension and can flare fingers O I Extensor Indicis Extends index finger O I Opponens Pollicis Thenar Opposition moves thumb to touch tip of little finger O I Opponens Digiti Minimi Hypothenar Helps in opposition brings metacarpal 5 toward thumb O I List the Muscles of the Rotator Cuff SITS Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Teres minor Subscapularis List the Handcuff Muscles Teres Major Latissimus Dorsi Anconeus Stabilizes elbow joint during pronation ligamentum nuchae strong elastic ligament extending from occipital bone of the skill along the tips of the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae binds the cervical vertebrae together and inhibits excessive head and neck flexion preventing damage to the spinal cord Palmaris longus Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements Muscles involved in the Valsalva movement Abdominal muscles diaphragm and those that close glottis What does the Valsalva movement dopromote It increases intraabdominal pressure which helps promote Urination Defecation Childbirth Vomiting Coughing Screaming Sneezing Burping Nose blowing Subclavius Helps stabilize and depress pectoral girdle Levator scapulae Elevates adducts scapula deep to trapezius List the anterior arm muscles flexing the forearm and elbow in order of decreasing strength Brachialis Biceps brachii Brachioradialis Where are the thenar muscles Ball of the thumb Where are the hypothenar muscles Ball of the little finger List the prime movers which FLEX and EXTEND the arm humerus at the shoulder Flexors Pectoralis and Deltoid Extensors Latissimus dorsi and Deltoid List the prime movers which ABDUCT and ADDUCT the arm humerus at the shoulder Abduct Deltoid Adduct Pectoralis and Latissimus dorsi List the prime movers which ROTATE the arm humerus at the shoulder Medially Subscapularis Laterally Infraspinatus and Teres minor List the prime movers which FLEX and EXTEND the forearm at the elbow Flexors Brachialis and Biceps brachii Extensor Triceps brachii List the prime movers which PRONATE and SUPINATE the forearm at the elbow Pronation Pronator quadratus Supination no prime mover Biceps brachii is helped by supinator List the prime movers which FLEX and EXTEND the hand at the wrist FLEXORS Flexor carpi radialis Flexor carpi ulnaris Flexor digitorum superficialis EXTENSORS Extensor digitorum Extensor digitorum Prime mover of finger and wrist extension List the prime movers which ABDUCT and ADDUCT the hand at the wrist Abduction FlexorExtensor carpi radialis Adduction FlexorExtensor carpi ulnaris OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 108 terms NCLEXRN 29 terms Summertime Safety 288 terms Pathophysiology 207 terms Microbiology THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 14 terms A P Ch 10 pt 2 55 terms AP Chapter 10 Human Muscular System 29 terms Muscle Anatomy Review 117 terms Skeletal System

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


True False QZ06QZ011 Any time a covered entity discloses PHI it must follow the maximum necessary rule The amount disclosed must be able to satisfy the reason why the information is being used or disclosed and any other pertinent information False As defined by HIPAA the term covered entities means health care providers health care clearinghouses and health plans True Covered entities must keep records of how they disclose a persons PHI Under the Privacy Rule a person has the right to receive an accounting of how the covered entity has used or disclosed the persons PHI True Covered entities must train only their fulltime employees on the Privacy Rule and its privacy policies and procedures False Health care operations are actions that support the covered entitys business True In general a covered entity may disclose PHI to certain governmental entities without consent for certain purposes that include but are not limited to the following to provide vital statistics to control communicable diseases and to report abuse and neglect True Medical identity thieves exclusively consist of computer hackers or members of organized crime rings False The following is an example of an incidental disclosure a customer at a pharmacy hears the pharmacist quietly discussing a medication with another customer True The Privacy Rule forbids a covered entity from requiring a person to sign an authorization in order to receive health care treatment The entity cant condition benefit eligibility on signing an authorization this is so covered entities cant force people to sign authorizations under pressure by withholding needed care True Under the Privacy Rule there are only two situations in which a covered entity must disclose PHI 1 when a person requests access to his or her PHI and 2 when a person requests that their PHI be sent directly to a third party True Congress hoped that the SarbanesOxley Act of 2002 SOX reforms would prevent another Enron scandal The main goal of SOX is to protect shareholders and investors from financial fraud SOX increased corporate disclosure requirements True Form 10Q quarterly report is a very detailed disclosure of a companys financial condition False In 1992 COSO issued guidance on internal controls The COSO framework says that internal controls are effective when they give the management of a company reasonable assurance that 1 It understands how the entitys operational objectives are being achieved 2 Its published financial statements are being prepared reliably and 3 Its complying with applicable laws and regulations True One of the main functions of the PCAOB is to set standards for how auditors review public companies It has created standards related to auditing ethics independence and quality control True Public companies are required to file a number of financial disclosure statements with the SEC These forms help investors understand the financial stability of a company The most commonly filed forms are 1 Form 10KAnnual report 2 Form 10QQuarterly report and 3 Form 8KCurrent report True SOX requires companies to report accurate financial data They must do this to protect their CEO and CFO from harm False SOX Section 404 imposes criminal liability for fraudulent certifications Under this section CEOs and CFOs that knowingly certify fraudulent reports may be fined up to 1 million False The COSO Framework specifically states that all organizations should follow the Guide to Assessment of IT Risk GAIT False The Enron scandal proved that selfregulation has only benefits and little to no drawbacks as evidenced by the role of their accounting firm Arthur Andersen False The SEC has five commissioners The US President must appoint them They serve for fiveyear terms All five commissioners can belong to the same political party False An inspector general IG is an official who reviews the actions of a federal agency An IG examines the agencys activities to make sure that its operating efficiently and following good governance practices True FISMA applies to both federal and state agencies False Under the Privacy Act a record is any information about a person that an agency maintains It includes a persons educational financial medical and criminal history information The act requires agencies to keep accurate and complete records It also states that an agency should store only the data that it needs to conduct business It shouldnt store any extra or unnecessary data True FISMA merges a number of different laws All of these laws address different information security issues Because no one law was comprehensive Congress heard many reports that information security efforts at the federal level were not effective Congress intended FISMA to be a strong law to fix this problem True In 1987 Congress passed the Computer Security Act CSA This was the first law to address federal computer security Under the CSA every federal agency had to inventory its IT systems Agencies also had to create security plans for those systems and review their plans every year True In the Federal Information Processing Standards FIPS created by NIST there is one overarching security categoryhighwherein the loss of confidentiality integrity or availability has a severe or catastrophic adverse effect on the agency its information assets or people A high impact event results in major damage to assets False NIST created a FISMA Implementation Project to help it meet its FISMA duties The project helped it create FISMArelated standards and guidelines in a timely manner The project had two phases In the first phase NIST developed standards and guidelines to help agencies meet basic FISMA requirements The documents developed in this phase helped agencies create their information security programs True The term cyberwar specifically refers to conflicts between nations and their militaries This is the main distinction between cyberwar and other types of information system attacks that are reported in the news media True According to California law entities dont need to give notice of a breach if the personal information in their computer system was encrypted thus they are granted safe harbor True Although California law doesnt assess any penalties against an entity that doesnt follow the notification law it does permit a person a private cause of action against those entities People can sue the private entity for any damages they have because they didnt receive notification in a timely manner True Because Congress cant usually interfere in state matters it cant create a uniform federal law in areas legislated by the states unless theres a compelling reason to do so Thus there is no existing federal law on information security True Californias Database Security Breach Notification Act law requires entities to notify California residents whenever a security breach occurs without any delays in notification if they reasonably believe that a breach has occurred False In February 2014 the Obama administration passed a federal breach notification Law which was created in response to the Target Corporation credit card breach in late 2013 False North Carolina law requires that notice be given in a concrete and inconspicuous form which means that it can only be interpreted by legal counsel False Some states require entities doing business within the state to follow basic information security practices while other states are more aggressive and require entities to use specific security practices such as encryption True The ChoicePoint data breach is unique because if it werent for the California breach notification law ChoicePoint might not have notified any consumers at all about the data breach Other states such as Illinois realized that their residents might not be able to protect themselves from identity theft in similar situations without these laws Thirtyfive states considered breach notification laws in 2005 and the ChoicePoint case is widely seen as the reason why other states have these laws True The rules stated in the GrammLeachBliley Act GLBA require that entities engaged in certain kinds of financial transactions need to follow privacy and information security rules that are designed to protect customers personal information True Though it is not a law businesses that wish to accept credit cards for payment must follow the PCI DSS which is enforced by major credit companies like Visa and MasterCard True A patent application contains the following basic parts specifications drawing oath and filing fees True An infringer is a person who owns a patent but doesnt intend to make use or sell the invention The term refers to a person who is overly aggressive and opportunistic False Copyright owners allow others to use their copyrighted material by using a special kind of contract called a license True In the context of property law a person is a real person or other legal entity which includes corporations businesses private organizations and governments True It is not considered copyright infringement to duplicate another persons content on your own Web page as long as you acknowledge their work by posting the URL their Web page False The law states that fair use of a copyrighted work isnt copyright infringement and that fair use is permitted in the following situations in order to promote free speech criticism news reporting and teaching including multiple copies for classroom use True The reason why a trademark must be used in interstate commerce in order to be federally registered is that the federal government can regulate interstate commerce only under its Commerce Clause authority True To establish a trade secret the information thats to be protected must meet the following criteria have value be unknown be unascertainable and be protected True Certain contracts that are not enforceable because of public policy reasons can include contracts that reduce commercial competition and contracts to commit a crime or other wrongdoing True Substantial performance means that a party performs all material contract promises True An oral contract is not as enforceable as a contract that is written down False In certain circumstances courts will enforce illegal contracts False Even if a person is intoxicated as long he or she is over the age of 18 and mentally competent then the person has contractual capacity in all cases False YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 40 terms CH 4 40 terms Drew Exam 5 70 terms Test 3

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