Chapter 12 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month atria CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT upper chambers of the heart that receive the blood from veins that comes into the heart CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 74 Terms in this set 74 atria upper chambers of the heart that receive the blood from veins that comes into the heart ventricles the two lower chambers of the heart that pump the blood out to the lungs and body tricuspid valve controls the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle bicuspid valve connects the left atrium to the left ventricle chordae tendinae fibers attatched to the tricuspid valve which pull it closed when papillary muscles contract preventing backwash of blood semilunar Resembling a crescent or halfmoon parietal pericardium the tough outermost layer of the pericardium that is attached to the diaphragm and the sternum myocardium thick middle muscle layer of the heart pumps blood through the circulatory system endocardium the membrane that lines the cavities of the heart and forms part of the heart valves systole the contraction of the chambers of the heart especially the ventricles to drive blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery diastole The stage of the heart cycle in which the heart muscle is relaxed allowing the chambers to fill with blood cardiac cycle A complete heartbeat consisting of contraction and relaxation of both atria and both ventricles stroke volume the volume of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each heartbeat cardiac output the volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle of the heart sinotrial node or SA node Located in the upper wall of the right atrium just below the opening of the superior vena cava Often called the pacemaker of the heart purkinje fibers fibers in the ventricles that transmit impulses to the right and left ventricles causing them to contract QRS complex a wave on the cardiac cycle that indicates ventricular contraction T wave a wave on the cardiac cycle that indicates ventricular relaxation apex blunt point of lower edge of the heart it lies on the diaphragm pointing toward the left pericardium membranous sac enclosing the heart pericarditis inflammation of the pericardium epicardium or visceral inner layer of the pericardium epi on or upon endo inside or within semilunar valves two valves located between the two ventricular chambers that carry blood away from the heart when it contracts pulmonary semilunar valve located at the beginning of the pulmonary artery and allows blood going to the lungs to flow out of the right ventricle but prevents it from flowing back into the ventricle aortic semilunar valves located at the beginning of the aorta and allows blood to flow out of the left ventricle up into the aorta but prevents it from flowing back into the ventricle lub dup two distinct sounds of the heart atrioventricular valves AV Two valves that separate the atrial chambers above from the ventricles below superior vena cava a large vein that carries oxygenpoor blood to the right atrium pulmonary artery an artery that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs pulmonary veins carry the oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart pulmonary circulation involves movement of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs systemic circulation involves movement of the blood from the left ventricle throughout the body coronary circulation delivery of oxygen and removal of waste product from the myocardium myocardial infarction MI heart attack cells deprived of oxygen become damaged or die angina pectoralis severe chest pain resulting when the myocardium is deprived of sufficient oxygen coronary bypass surgery Surgery to provide an alternate route for blood to reach the heart cardiac veins any vein that carries blood from the myocardial capillary to the coronary sinus coronary sinus area that receives deoxygenated blood from the coronary veins and empties into the right atrium artificial pacemaker electrical device that causes ventricular contractions at a rate fast enough to maintain an adequate circulation of blood electrocardiograph medical instrument that records electric currents associated with contractions of the heart electrocardiogram ECG graphic record of the hearts electrical activity atrioventricular node AV node small mass of specialized cardiac muscle tissue av bundle or bundle of HIS fibers in the heart that relaya nerve impulse from the AV node to the ventricles p wave depolarization of the atria depolarization electrical activity that triggers contraction of the heart muscle repolarization occurs just before the relaxation phase of cardiac muscle activity arteries Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart arterioles the smallest arteries that connect with the capillaries capillaries tiny vessels that join arterioles and venules venules small vessels that gather blood from the capillaries into the veins veins vessels carrying blood toward the heart have a thicker tunica media tunica externa or tunica adventitia the outer layer of connective tissue fibers that reinforce the wall of the vesicles so it will not burst under pressure outer layer of blood vessel fibrous connective tissue tunica media middle layer of arteries and veins tunica intima inner layer of endothelial cells that line arteries and veins endothelium lines the inner surface of the entire circulatory system precapillary sphincters smooth muscles that guard capillary entrances and regulate blood distribution in capillary pathways systemic circulation blood flow from the left ventricle to all parts of the body except lungs and back to the right atrium pulmonary circulation blood flow from the right atrium to the lungs and returning to the left atrium hepatic portal circulation the system of blood movement through the digestive tract and liver glucose is absorbed placenta Organ that provides food and oxygen to and removes waste from developing baby umbilical cord structure containing veins and arteries that connects the developing child to the placenta umbilical arteries two small arteries that carry oxygenpoor blood from the developing baby to the placenta umbilical vein large vein carrying oxygenrich blood from the placenta to the developing baby ductus venous a continuation of the umbilical vein that shunts blood returning from the placenta past the fetus developing liver directly into the inferior vena cava foramen ovale an opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart that is normally present only in the fetus ductus arteriosus A blood vessel in a fetus that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta hypertension High blood pressure peripheral resistance Resistance to blood flow due to friction between blood and blood vessel walls vasomotor mechanism factors that control changes in the diameter of arterioles by changing the tension of smooth muscles in the vessel walls central venous pressure the blood pressure in the right atrium pulse felt in arteries artery expanding blood pressure gradient the difference between two blood pressures in the body Arteries are higher than veins YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 55 terms Ch 11 IRCH Thibodeau Patton Ch 12 heart 42 terms Anatomy Physiology Chapter 12 Cardiovascular System 53 terms Chapter 11 Cardiovascular System OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 11 terms statistics final exam 6 terms Stats 34 terms Sound alike quiz 2 125 terms Abbreviations MQ THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 13 terms Heart Vocabulary 10 terms Cardiology Circulation 45 terms EKG Chpt 4 Final Exam 77 terms AHS 145 ch 2

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Psychology Study Guide Quiz 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Within an estimate of give or take 10 billion cells the number of neural cells in the brain can be estimated accurately FALSE CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 139 Terms in this set 139 Within an estimate of give or take 10 billion cells the number of neural cells in the brain can be estimated accurately FALSE Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the major functions of the brain Thinking The CNS is comprised of the Brain and spinal cord Which of the following is NOT part of the three main divisions of the brain Midbrain The cerebral hemispheres are most closely identified as The left and right sides of the brain Which of the following answers has nothing to do with the blood brain barrier Cerebral cortex Which of the following is myelinated brain matter White matter Myelin is the same thing as _____ Glia Although there are exceptions synaptic connections are most likely between Axon to dendrite Which part of the neuron sends axon potentials to other cells Axon Neurons are the basic building blocks of the nervous system TRUE This section of the cell houses the nucleus soma How many chromosomes to humans have 46 Which of the following bring information into a cell dendrite Which of the following send information away to other cells axon The gap between cells is called synapse Chemical messengers released from the presynaptic axonic terminal neurotransmitters What is the name for the part of a neuron in which the action potential is converted to a chemical signal Terminal button Which of the following helps make action potentials move more quickly through a neuron Myelin sheath Which of the following is true about action potentials Action potentials are Created by changing a voltage across a permeable membrane The main role of the dendrite is to bring electricity into a neuron The allornone law states that each action potential from a particular cell has the same strength and speed What happens to vesicles when a cell fires they merge with the cell wall All nervous system activity has two basic components What are they sensory input and motor output Most of the cells inside the brain are classified as internerons Sensory input and motor output generally follow which type of pathway Pointtopoint connections Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the brain to modify itself Which are the two main branches of the nervous system the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system Drugs can influence your behavior because they have similar molecular shapes to naturally occurring substances in your brain TRUE Which of the following is not a typical neurotransmitter system used to understand psychological processes Steroids Which of the following is the resting state of a neuron 70 mV Which of the following send action potentials toward the brain Sensory neurons Which of the following voltages reflects an active action potential 40 mV The All or none law refers to our understanding that Cells fire with the same strength each time they fire Relative to the inside of the neural cell the outside of the cell is charged Positively Which of the following ions crosses the cell membrane first an initiates the action potential Na Which of the following is a presynaptic neuron Axon Which of the following is a postsynaptic neuron Dendrite Which of the following send action potentials away the brain Motor neurons Neurotransmitters transfer information from one neuron to another In general where do they perform this function Synaptic cleft Where are neurotransmitter receptors located Dendrite After neurotransmitters contact their receptors they go through the process of Reuptake The venom of the black widow spider is to ________ as botulin is to ________ convulsions paralysis There are naturally occurring morphinelike and THClike substances in your brain TRUE Which of the following neurons accounts for most of the cells in the brain Interneurons The hand withdrawal reflex elicited by exposure to a hot stimulus to your fingertips does NOT require any connection to the brain TRUE The hand withdrawal reflex elicited by exposure to a hot stimulus to your fingertips can be modified by its connection to the brain TRUE Which of the following brain areas protects the brain from external shocks Cerebrospinal fluid Neurotransmitters that affect their receptors can do so in which of the following ways By producing Excitatory or inhibitory effects The effects of a drug are generally specific to one neurotransmitter Which of the following is a drug unlikely to do Change the chemical structure of a neurotransmitter Drugs might mimic the effect of a neurotransmitter because The drug has a similar chemical structure as the neurotransmitter If a drug blocks the reuptake of an EXCITATORY neurotransmitter then The response system will increase in activity If a drug blocks the reuptake of an INHIBITORY neurotransmitter then The response system will decrease in activity The place that acetylcholine is primarily associated with is the Neuromuscular junctions Botulinum toxin and Black Widow spider venom both influence which of the following systems Neuromuscular junctions Which of the following substances does NOT work at the neuromuscular junctions Caffeine Which of the following substances is most closely related to adrenalin Epinephrine Which of the following researchers developed the experimental ablation technique Flourens Which of the following researchers did clinical studies on people with head injuries and stroke Broca The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord The difference between the Autonomic and Skeletal nervous systems is the difference between Heart and bicep The peripheral nervous system is made up of Everything that is not the central nervous system Which section of the nervous system activates the fight or flight reflex sympathetic Some reflexes will work without a connection to the brain TRUE Hormones are controlled through which system endocrine When is it ethical to use a brain slicing technique on a human subject After the subject dies and the family gives their consent Which of the following techniques is NOT a form of brain scan Transcranial magnetic stimulation Which of the following techniques requires the subject to be injected with radioactive glucose PET Which of the following techniques takes a three dimensional xray CT Which of the following techniques works by reading the weak magnetic fields produced by the neurons in the brain MEG In order to monitor the electrical activity in the brain researchers would use an EEG Which of the following is a technique to manipulate the brain without using electrodes or surgery TMS Which process uses radioactive glucose PET scans Currently available brain scanning techniques are variously sensitive to one of the following answers EXCEPT FOR Gamma radiation Which process uses very strong magnets to realign the molecules in your soft tissue MRI Which process is the formation of a 3dimensional xray image CT scans Which of the following brain scan techniques is considered a static snapshot measure CT Which of the following brain scan techniques produces a threedimensional xray CT scan Which of the following brain scan techniques reads electrical activity from the brain across time EEG Which of the following brain scan techniques reads very weak magnetic waves from the body MEG Which of the following brain scan techniques takes readings of magnetic waves multiple times per second over an extended period fMRI Which of the following brain scan techniques takes a single image at a time with a strong magnetic wave in combination with a radio wave MRI This brain scan technique uses radioactive glucose PET Which of the following brain scan techniques is considered a functional measure that uses radioactive glucose PET This is a functional measure of magnetic activity from your brain fMRI This brain scan technique reads the electrical activity from the surface of your scalp EEG This brain scan technique is essentially a three dimensional xray CT This technique takes a static measure of your brain and uses strong magnetic waves MRI What is neurogenesis The growth of new neurons This brain scan technique is a functional measure of magnetic activity in your brain fMRI The use of a targeted mutation is also known as a Knockout gene Which of the following pairs of brain scan techniques show two functional measures fMRI EEG Which of the following techniques allows scientists to temporarily disrupt the activity of the cerebral cortex in specific locations without causing harm to the subject TMS Which of the following pairs of brain scan techniques show two static measures MRI CT Which area or function is associated with the central fissure Somatosenses Which area or function is associated with the lateral fissure Hearing Which function is associated with the frontal cortex Motor activity Which function is associated with the parietal cortex Touch Which function is associated with the occipital cortex Vision Light that enters the side of your eye closest to your nose is always processed contralaterally TRUE Which function is associated with the temporal cortex Hearing Light that enters into the left side of your left eye is analyzed in the left hemisphere TRUE Light that enters into the right side of your right eye is analyzed in the left hemisphere FALSE Most brain areas control functioning on the ipsilateral side of the body FALSE Which lobe of the brain is associated with the control of motor behavior Frontal lobe All sensory input will run through this section of the brain Thalamus Which lobe of the brain is associated with the ability to remember physical sensations Parietal lobe Which of the following brain areas results in the inability to understand speech Wernickes area The majority of brain areas in the right hemisphere are also on the left hemisphere TRUE Which of the following brain regions connects the right and left hemispheres Corpus callosum Which of the following brain areas is associated with balance Cerebellum Which of the following brain areas is associated with emotional behavior Limbic system Which of the following brain areas is associated with fear and aggression Amygdala Which of the following brain areas is NOT in the brain stem Thalamus Which of the following brain areas is associated with the endocrine system ThalamusHypothalamus The limbic system controls emotions Which of the following areas of the nervous system is involved in controlling motor behavior Somatic nervous system Which of the following areas of the nervous system is involved in controlling the internal organs Autonomic nervous system Hormones sexual behavior feeding emotions and memory are located very near the same area in the brain TRUE Which of the following areas of the nervous system is involved in controlling the internal organs during times of stress Sympathetic nervous system Which of the following areas of the nervous system is involved in controlling the internal organs during times of relaxation Parasympathetic nervous system Which of the following is the lowest brain area medulla That a brain can LESS easily adjust to damage later in life than earlier in life indicates a reduction in Plasticity Which of the following areas of the nervous system is involved in learning memory and thinking Central nervous system A splitbrain patient has which part of their brain destroyed corpus callosum Memories are located in one area of the brain called the hippocampus FALSE The primary role of the limbic system is to control Emotion Which of the following is not a lobe from your cortex Cerebellar If the reward system were damaged a person would feel Unmotivated to do anything Ninety percent of all people have their language center located in the Left hemisphere Neurotransmitter pathways generally develop because Neurons with similar neurotransmitters are more likely to connect than neurons with dissimilar neurotransmitters Which set of characteristics below best shows the natural correlation with respect to neurotransmitter pathways Brain area sensorymotor processing neurotransmitter type Which area of the brain connects the two hemispheres Corpus callosum A splitbrain patient who sees something in their right field of vision can comment on it TRUE Natural selection describes the process by which the traits most frequently passed across generations become the prevalent characteristics of that species Which of the following is NOT a lobe from your cortex Cerebellar Which chemical signal may travel the furthest Hormones Which function is associated with the frontal cortex YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Psych Notes Chapter 2FAU 60 terms Psych 111 set 4 70 terms AP Psych Unit 3 Missed Questions 21 terms Chapter 2 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 21 terms ch8 VIR 23 terms 143 terms VIR Midterm 189 terms Bio Bases Ex2 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 98 terms Chapter 3 Psych FAU 138 terms schwabie 150 terms Psychology Ch 1 118 terms Psychology Ch 2

B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


chem 111 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The freezing point of water at 1 atm pressure is ________ 0c CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 242 Terms in this set 242 The freezing point of water at 1 atm pressure is ________ 0c In the following list only ________ is not an example of matter Heat The law of constant composition applies to ________ Compounds The correct answer reported to the proper number of significant figures to the following is ________ 63 325 ________ 20 Absolute zero refers to ________ 0 kelvin Gases and liquids share the property of ________ indefinite shape Which one of the following is the highest temperature 302 K 96 F 38 C none of the above the freezing point of water Which one of the following has the element name and symbol correctly matched N nickel S silicon Li lithium C copper None of the symbols are correctly matched to the element name Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation 229613 2296 102 In which one of the following numbers are none of the zeros significant 16100 901 0006 10000 000050 The quantity 10 mgcm2 is the same as 10 ________ kgm2 102 The density of a 1674 g sample of magnesium having a volume of 9632 mL is ________ gcm3 1738 Precision refers to ________ how close a measured number is to other measured numbers Of the following ________ is the largest mass 2847 Tg A common English set of units for expressing velocity is mileshour The SI unit for velocity is ________ ms An element can not ________ be separated into other substances by chemical means A temperature of 300 K is the same as ________ F 81 The output of a plant is 4335 pounds of ball bearings per week five days If each ball bearing weighs 00113 g how many ball bearings does the plant make in a single day Indicate the number in proper scientific notation with the appropriate number of significant figures 348 x 107 The volume of a regular cylinder is V πr2h Using the value 31416 for the constant π the volume cm3 of a cylinder of radius 234 cm and height 1991 cm expressed to the correct number of significant figures is ________ 342 Which calculation clearly shows a conversion between temperatures in degrees Celsius C and temperature in Kelvins K K C 27315 How many protons are there in one atom of 88Sr 38 Cathode rays are ________ electrons Aluminum forms an ion with a charge of ________ 3 Elements in Group 2A are known as the ________ alkaline earth metals Which one of the following compounds is copperI chloride CuCl The atomic number of an atom of 130Xe is ________ 54 Which of the following compounds would you expect to be ionic KCl The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes The masses amu and abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu isotope abund mass 221x 7422 2209 220x 1278 2200 218x 1300 2181 2204 ________ and ________ reside in the atomic nucleus Protons neutrons The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes The masses amu and abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu Isotope abund mass 221x 82900 22090 220x 13200 22000 218x 39000 21810 22067 Magnesium and sulfur form an ionic compound with the formula ________ MgS Fluorine forms an ion with a charge of ________ 1 Which pair of atoms constitutes a pair of isotopes of the same element 146 X 126 In the symbol below x is ________ x6C mass number Potassium is a ________ and chlorine is a ________ metal nonmetal What is the molecular formula for heptane C7H16 The formula of a salt is XCl2 The Xion in this salt has 26 electrons The metal X is ________ Ni The proper formula for the hydronium ion is ________ H3O Which species has 48 electrons 11850 Sn2 What is the molecular formula for octane c8h18 Which of these changes are physical and which are chemical Physical water vapor in the air forms frost A goldsmith melts gold and pulls into wire Chemical plants make sure from Co2 and h2o Which statement describes a physical change Liquid water evaporates students determine the percentage of lead in a sample as a laboratory exercise The true percentage is 2252 The students results for three determinations are as follows 1 2252 2248 2254 2 2264 2258 2262 Calculate the average percentage for the first set of data 2251 Calculate the average percentage for the second set of data 2261 Tell which set is the more accurate based on the average first Precision can be judged by examining the average of the deviations from the average value for that data set Calculate the average value of the absolute deviations of each measurement from the average for the first set 2x1010 Calculate the average value of the absolute deviations of each measurement from the average for the second set 2x102 Which set is more precise both How many milliliters of coconut oil weigh 471 grams if the density of coconut oil is 0925 gcm3 509 mL Perform the following calculation and choose the answer with the correct significant figures 1642 40530098 21 103 An automobiles luggage compartment has a volume of 155 105 cm3 What is its volume in ft3 547 ft3 Physical properties can be classified as either intensive properties or extensive properties An intensive property is independent of the amount of the sample An extensive property varies with the amount of the sample intensive matte grey begins to melt at has density of 23834 Extensive has volume of 328 Ml Has mass of 4489 g You are given a sample resembling silver Which of the following properties could be used to help determine whether the sample is really silver melting and density point A metal object has a mass of 16 106 mg What is this mass expressed in pounds 35 lb A gas is sold for approximately 055 cents per milligram What is its price in dollars per kilogram 55 103kg To identify a liquid substance a student determined its density Using a graduated cylinder she measured out a 45mL sample of the substance She then measured the mass of the sample finding that it weighed 385 g She knew that the substance had to be either isopropyl alcohol density 0785 gmL or toluene density 0866 gmL What is the calculated density of the substance ρ 086 gmL What is the probable identity of the substance toluene An experiment requires 460 g of ethylene glycol a liquid whose density is 1114 gmL Rather than weigh the sample on a balance a chemist chooses to dispense the liquid using a graduated cylinder What volume of the liquid should he use V 413 mL A cubic piece of metal measures 300 cm on each edge If the metal is nickel whose density is 890 gcm3 what is the mass of the cube 240 g Water has a density of 0997 gcm3 at 25 C ice has a density of 0917 gcm3 at 10 C If a softdrink bottle whose volume is 130 L is completely filled with water and then frozen to 10 C what volume does the ice occupy 141 l Can the ice be contained within the bottle no Classify each of the following as a pure substance or a mixture pure substance magnesium crushed ice Mixture rice pudding seawater For a mixture indicate whether it is homogeneous or heterogeneous Homo seawater herero rice pudding 601 kg Express your answer as an integer 3 sigfigs 0054 s Express your answer as an integer 2 sigfigs 63050 cm Express your answer as an integer 5 sigfigs 00105 L Express your answer as an integer 3 sig figs 7050010 3m3 Express your answer as an integer 5 sig figs 400 g 1 sig fig A bumblebee flies with a ground speed of 153 ms Calculate its speed in kmh Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units 551 kmh The lung capacity of the blue whale is 4900 L Convert this volume into gallons 1300 gal The Statue of Liberty is 151 ft tall Calculate its height in meters Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units 460 m Bamboo can grow up to 600 cmday Convert this growth rate into inches per hour Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units 0984 inh Which number has four significant figures 5000625 2500 11 103 00001 The accompanying sketches suggest four observations made on a small block of plastic material When analyzing Figure 4 it is helpful to keep in mind that the apparent mass of an object in fluid is equal to its mass in air minus the mass of the fluid displaced mapparentmairmdisplaced fluid Based on the experiments shown in the first two sketches Figure 1 and Figure 2 which of the following are valid conclusions mass is 50g insoluble in ethanol density of block greater than 7896 liquid level of beaker is now greater Based on the first and third sketches Figure 3 what is the density of the block Assume that the block is 400 submerged 116 gcm3 Based on the first and fourth sketches Figure 4 what is the density of the block 112 gcm3 Which of the following reactions is possible according to Daltons atomic theory N2O22NO reaction This can be gleaned from the third postulate in Daltons series Magnesium oxide decomposes into magnesium and oxygen If 1612 g of magnesium oxide decomposes to form 972 g of magnesium what mass of oxygen gas is also released in the reaction 640g Compound A contains 1333 g of oxygen per gram of carbon whereas compound B contains 2666 g of oxygen per gram of carbon What chemical law do these data illustrate law of multiple proportions If compound A has an equal number of oxygen and carbon atoms what can we conclude about the composition of compound B It has twice as many oxygen than carbon atoms There are two different compounds of sulfur and fluorine In SF6 the mass of fluorine per gram of sulfur is 355 g Fg S In the other compound SFX the mass of fluorine per gram of sulfur is 118 g Fg S What is the value of X for the second compound x 2 Compound Mass N Mass O A 56 32 B 35 80 C 14 40 If you were John Dalton and had never heard of a mole which of the following would you think were possible sets of formulas for the compounds A B and C respectively N2O N2O4 N2O5 Millikans oildrop experiment to measure the charge of the electron Small drops of oil are allowed to fall between electrically charged plates The drops pick up extra electrons as a result of irradiation by Xrays and so became negatively charged Millikan measured how varying the voltage between the plates affected the rate of fall From these data he calculated the negative charge on the drops Because the charge on any drop was always some integral multiple of 16021019C Millikan deduced this value to be the charge of a single electron Would the masses of the oil drops be changed significantly by any electrons that accumulate on them The masses of the oil drops can not be changed significantly by any electrons that accumulate on them Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of the atom protons neutrons The atomic number of fluorine is 9 What is the mass number of a fluorine atom with 8 neutrons Express your answer as an integer 17 An atom has a mass number of 27 and 14 neutrons What is the atomic number of this atom 13 An atom of iron is represented by 5726Fe How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this atom neutrons in 5726Fe 31 Give the nuclear symbol for the isotope of argon for which A38 3818Ar Specify the number of protons neutrons and electrons in the neutral atom copper64 293529 protons neutrons electrons The ion O2 has _____ protons and _____ electrons 8 10 What isotope has 18 protons and 22 neutrons argon40 Which element does X represent in the following expression 4120X Ca What is the correct name for the compound NH4ClO4 ammonium perchlorate What is the name of the covalent compound CCl4 carbon tetrachloride What is the name of the covalent compound N2O5 dinitrogen pentoxide What is the systematic name of MgNO32 magnesium nitrate What is the systematic name of NH4ClO3 ammonium chlorate What is the systematic name of PbO leadII oxide How many protons electrons and neutrons are in an 266Sg atom p e n 106106160 Atoms of Sg are very unstable and it is therefore difficult to study this elements properties Based on the position of Sg in the periodic table what element should it most closely resemble in its chemical properties W What is the formula for pentane C5H12 If no magnetic field were applied would you expect the electron beam to be deflected upward or downward by the electric field downward Which two of the following are isotopes of the same element3116X3115X3216X 3116 3216 What is the identity of the element whose isotopes you have selected S Rutherfords αscattering experiment When α particles pass through a gold foil most pass through undeflected but some are scattered a few at very large angles According to the plumpudding model of the atom the particles should experience only very minor deflections The nuclear model of the atom explains why a few α particles are deflected at large angles For clarity the nuclear atom is shown here as a colored sphere but most of the space around the nucleus is empty except for the tiny electrons moving around 2 If F is a reactive nonmetal which other element or elements shown here do you expect to also be a reactive nonmetal Cl Which of the following is a molecular compound SF4 Which compound contains the largest amount of anions CrF4 NiO nickelII oxide MnO2 manganeseIV oxide Cr2O3 chromiumIII oxide MoO3 molybdenumVI oxide Assuming that the compounds are ionic what charge is associated with the metallic element in each case Express your answers as signed integers separated by commas For example 123 2436 The atomic weight of copper Cu is listed as 63546 Which of the following statements are untrue Not all neutral atoms of copper have the same number of electrons The dominant isotopes of Cu must be 63Cu and 64Cu Notice that SO4 appears in two different places in this chemical equation SO 24 is a polyatomic ion called sulfate What number should be placed in front of CaSO4 to give the same total number of sulfate ions on each side of the equation CaSO4AlCl3CaCl2Al2SO43 3 Now that we have put a coefficient of 3 in front of CaSO4 what coefficient should go in front of CaCl2 to balance calcium Ca 3CaSO4AlCl3CaCl2Al2SO43 3 Now that we have put coefficients of 3 in front of CaSO4 and CaCl2 what coefficient should go in front of AlCl3 to balance both the Cl atoms and the Al atoms 3CaSO4AlCl33CaCl2Al2SO43 2 When a compound containing C H and O is completely combusted in air what reactant besides the hydrocarbon is involved in the reaction O2 g What products form in this reaction CO2H2O What is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced chemical equation for the combustion of acetone C3H6Ol in air 11 Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when Mgs reacts with Cl2g MgsCl2gMgCl2s Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when barium carbonate decomposes into barium oxide and carbon dioxide gas when heated BaCO3sBaOsCO2g Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when the hydrocarbon styrene C8H8l is combusted in air C8H8l10O2g8CO2g4H2Og Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when dimethylether CH3OCH3g is combusted in air C2H6Og3O2g2CO2g3H2Og What is the correct formula weight of ironIII hydroxide 1068 amu What is the percentage of oxygen by mass in calcium phosphate 413 What number would you use to convert moles of CH4 to grams of CH4 The molar mass 160 gmol What number would you use to convert number of molecules of CH4 to moles of CH4 Avogadros number 60210231 mol A compound is 400 C 670 H and 533 O by mass Assume that we have a 100g sample of this compound What are the subscripts in the empirical formula of this compoundEnter the subscripts for C H and O 121 The molecular formula mass of this compound is 240 amu What are the subscripts in the actual molecular formula Enter the subscripts for C H and O 8168 What is the empirical formula for valproic acid C4H8O If the molar mass is 144 gmol what is the molecular formula C8H16O2 Which of the following stoichiometric factors would be used to convert from moles of NH3 to moles of H2O for the reaction 4NH3 5O2 4NO 6H2O 6 mol H2O4 mol NH3 203 g of C4H10 reacts with 728 g of O2 to form 616 g of CO2 Using only addition and subtraction calculate the amount of H2O produced 315 g Could the empirical formula determined from chemical analysis be used to tell the difference between acetylene C2H2 and benzene C6H6 no How many nitrogen atoms are in 102 g of copperII nitrate 656 1022 atoms Calcium hydride reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide aqueous and hydrogen gas Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction Express your answer as a balanced chemical equation CaH2s2H2OlCaOH2aq2H2g How many grams of calcium hydride are needed to form 4650 g of hydrogen gas m 4894 g What is the maximum number of moles H2 that can be produced by the reaction of 300 mol of Ni with 450 mol of HCl according to the equation Ni 2HCl NiCl2 H2 225 mol Nitrogen N2 and hydrogen H2 react to form ammonia NH3 Consider the mixture of N2 and H2 shown in the accompanying diagram The blue spheres represent N and the white ones represent H Figure 1 limiting reactant H2 A bottling plant has 126349105 bottles with a capacity of 355 mL 108565105 caps and 48750104 L of beverage How many bottles can be filled and capped 108565105 bottles How many bottles are left over 2x104 How much beverage is left over 1104 L How many caps are left over 0 Which component limits the production caps YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE CHEMISTRY CUMULATIVE 87 terms General Chemistry 160162 Review Chapters 15 150 terms Chem Final Review Packet 2 150 terms Chem Final Review Packet OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 77 terms Exam 3 21 terms Exam 3 92 terms Exam 2 109 terms EXAM 1 test and measurements THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 45 terms Atomic Structure 94 terms Chemistry Practice II 65 terms Chem 121 Test 3 CHM113 Chapter 7 MasteringChemistry Homework

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 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Principles of Information Security 5th Edition Ch 6 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Access control method by which systems determine whether and how to admit a user into a trusted area of the organization CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 87 Terms in this set 87 Access control method by which systems determine whether and how to admit a user into a trusted area of the organization Mandatory access controls An access control approach whereby the organization specifies use of resources based on the assignment of data classification schemes to resources and clearance levels to users MAC is an example of an LBAC approach Nondiscretionary access controls NDAC strictlyenforced version of MACs that are managed by a central authority in the organization and can be based on an individual users role or a specified set of tasks Discretionary access controls DACs implemented at the discretion or option of the data user Identification an unverified entity that seeks access to a resource provides a label by which they are known to the system Supplicant entity that seeks a resource Identifiers Concatenating elementsdepartment codes random numbers or special characters to make it unique are referring to what Authentication the access control mechanism that requires the validation and verification of a supplicants purported identity Authentication factors something you have something you know something you are Something you know password passphrase Something you have Smart card Synchronous token Asynchronous token Something you are Biometrics retina reader 3 ways of Authorization Authorize each user Authorize by group authorize across multiple systems Accountability auditability ensure that all actions on a system authorized or unauthorized can be attributed to an authenticated identity Firewall Controls access to data Prevents specific types of information from moving between the outside world untrusted network and the inside world trusted network Firewalls may be Separate computer systems Software service running on existing router or server Separate network containing supporting devices Five processing modes by which firewalls can be categorized Packet filtering Applications Gateways Circuit gateways MAC layer firewalls Hybrids Packet filtering firewall Examines the header information of the data packets Packet filtering is based on a combination of what factors IP source and destination addresses Direction inbound or outbound TCP or user UDP source and destination port requests Three subsets of packet filtering firewalls Static filtering Dynamic filtering Stateful inspection Static filtering requires that filtering rules governing how the firewall decides which packets are allowed and which are denied are developed and installed Dynamic filtering allows firewall to react to emergent event and update or create rules to deal with event Stateful filtering firewalls that keep track of each network connection between internal and external systems using a state table Private IP address ranges class A 10000 10255255255 Class B 1721600 17231255255 Class C 19216800 192168255255 A proxy server Frequently installed on a dedicated computer often placed in unsecured area of the network DMZ exposed to higher levels of risk from less trusted networks serves as a gateway to the outside Circuit gateway firewall Controlling traffic between two devices Operates at the transport layer Prevents direct connections between one network and another Circuit gateway firewall Creates tunnels connecting specific processes or systems on each side of the firewall and allow only authorized traffic in the tunnel MAC layer firewall Operates at the media access control layer Considers specific host computers identity in its filtering decisions MAC layer firewall MAC addresses of specific host computers are linked to ACL entries that identify specific types of packets that can be sent to each host all other traffic is blocked Hybrid firewall Combined elements of all types of Firewalls May consist of two separate firewall devices each a separate firewall system but connected to work in tandem Firewalls categorized by 5 generations Static packet filtering firewalls applicationlevel firewalls or proxy servers stateful inspection firewalls dynamic packet filtering firewalls kernel proxies Access Control List A specification of an organizations information asset the users who may access and use it and their rights and privileges for using the asset Attribute A characteristic of a subject user or system that can be used to restrict access to an object AKA a subject attribute Attributebased access controls ABAC An access control approach whereby the organization specifies the use of objects based on some attribute of the user or system Capability Table A specification of an organizations users the information assets that users may access and their rights and privileges for using the assets AKA as user profiles or user policies Latticebased access controls LBAC An access control approach that uses a matrix or lattice of subjects and objects to assign privileges LBAC is an example of a NDAC Role based access controls RBAC An example of a nondiscretionary access control where privileges are tied to the role a user performs in an organization and are inherited when a user is assigned to that role Roles are considered more persistent than tasks RBAC is an example of an LDAC Task based access controls TBAC An example of a nondiscretionary control where privileges are tied to a task a user performs in an organization and are inherited when a user is assigned to that task Tasks are considered more temporary than roles TBAC is an example of an LDAC Access Control Matrix An integration of access control lists focusing on assets and capability tables focusing on users that results in a matrix with organizational assets listed in the column headings and users listed in the row headings The matrix contains ACLs in columns for a particular device or asset and capability tables in rows for a particular user asynchronous token An authentication component in the form of a token a card or key fob that contains a computer chip and a liquid crystal display and shows a computergenerated number used to support remote login authentication This token does not require calibration of the central authentication server instead it uses a challengeresponse system Dumb card An authentication card that contains digital user data such as personal identification number PIN against which user input is compared Passphrase An authentication component that consists of an expression known only to the user from which a virtual password is derived AKA virtual password Password An authentication component that consists of a private word or combination of characters that only the user should know Smart card An authentication component similar to a dumb card that contains a computer chip to verify and validate several pieces of information instead of just a PIN Strong authentication In access control the use of at least two different authentication mechanisms drawn from two different factors of authentication synchronous token An authentication component in the form of a token a card or key fob that contains a computer chip and a liquid crystal display and shows a computer generated number used to support remote login authentication This token must be calibrated with the corresponding software on the central authentication server Virtual password A password composed of a seemingly meaningless series of characters derived from a passphrase Biometric access control An access control approach based on the use of a measureable human characteristic or trait to authenticate the identity of a supplicant Crossover error rate CER In biometric access controls the level at which the number of false rejections equals false acceptances AKA the equal error rate False accept rate The percentage of identification instances in which unauthorized users are allowed access AKA Type II error False reject rate The percentage of identification instances in which authorized users are denied access AKA Type I error Minutiae In biometric access controls unique points of reference that are digitized and stored in an encrypted format when the users system access credentials are created Covert channel Unauthorized or unintended methods of communications hidden inside a computer system Reference monitor The piece of the system that mediates all access to objects by subjects Storage channel A covert channel that communicates by modifying a stored object Timing channel A covert channel that transmits information by managing the relative timing of events Trusted computing base TCB According to TCSEC the combination of all hardware firmware and software responsible for enforcing the security policy Configuration rules The instructions a system administrator codes into a server networking device or security device to specify how it operates Content filter A network filter that allows administrators to restrict access to external content from within a network Also known as a reverse firewall Reverse firewall Network filter that allows administrators to restrict access to external content from within a network kerberos A remote authentication system that uses symmetric key encryption based tickets managed in a central database to validate an individual user to various Network Resources Remote authentication dial in user service RADIUS A computer connections system that centralizes the management of user authentication by placing the responsibility for authenticating each user on a central authentication server War dialer And a automatic phone dialing program that dials every number in a configure grange to determine if one of the numbers belongs to a computer connection such as a dial up line Hybrid VPN A combination of trusted and secure VPN implementations secure VPN A VPN implementation that uses security protocols to encrypt traffic transmitted across unsecured public networks Trusted VPN Also known as a legacy VPN a VPN implementation that uses leased circuits from a service provider who gives contractual assurance that no one else is allowed to use the circuits and that they are properly maintained and protected Virtual private network VPN A private and secure network connection between systems that uses the data communication capability of an unsecured and public network Address restrictions Firewall rules designed to prohibit packets with certain addresses or partial addresses from passing through a device Dynamic filtering A firewall type that can react to an adverse event and update or create its configuration rules to deal with that event Firewall In information security the combination of hardware and software filters or prevent specific information are moving between the outside network and the inside network Each organization defines its own firewall Packet filtering firewall Also referred to as a filtering firewall a networking device that examines the header information of data packets that come into the network and determines whether to drop them or forward them to the next network connection based on its configuration rules State table The tabular data base of the state and context of each packet in a conversation between an internal and external user or system A state table is used to expedite firewall filtering Stateful packet inspection A firewall type that keeps track of each network connection between internal and external systems using a state table and that expedites the filtering of those communications Also known as a stateful inspection firewall Static filtering A firewall type that requires the configuration rules to be manually created sequenced and modify the firewall Trusted network The system of networks inside the organization that contains information assets and is under the organizations control untrusted network The system of networks outside the organization of which the organization has no controls The Internet is an example of an untrusted network Application layer firewall A firewall type capable of performing filtering at the application layer of the OSI model most commonly based on the type of service HTTP SMTP FTP Demilitarized zone DMZ An intermediate area between two networks design to provide servers and firewall filtering between a trusted internal network and the outside untrusted network Proxy server A server or firewall device capable of serving as an intermediary by retrieving information from one network segment and providing it to a requesting user on another Reverse proxy A proxy server that most commonly retrieves information from inside an organization and provides to a requesting user outside the organization Unified threat management UTM A security approach that seeks a comprehensive solution for identifying and responding to network based threats from a variety of sources Bastion host A firewall implementation strategy in which the device is connected directly to the untrusted area of the organizations network rather than being placed in a screened area Extranet A segment of the DMZ where an additional authentication and authorization controls are put into place to provide services that are not available to the general public network address translation NAT The method of mapping valid external IP addresses to special ranges of non routable internal IP addresses known as private addresses on a 1 to 1 bases Port address translation PAT A method of mapping a single valid external IP address to special ranges of non routable internal IP addresses known as private addresses on a one to many basis using port addresses to facilitate mapping Screened host firewall A single firewall or system designed to be externally accessible and protected by placement behind a filtering firewall Screened subnet The entire network segment that protects externally accessible systems by placing them in a demilitarized zone behind a filtering firewall and protects the internal networks by limiting how external connections can gain access to them YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 87 terms CH 06 Security Technology Firewalls VPNs 65 terms Security Chapter 6 65 terms chp6 60 terms Access control OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 18 terms NIST 80053 Security Control Families 40 terms Cryptography Chapter 8 40 terms Security Technology Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems and Other Security Tools Chapter 7 Principles of Information Security 5th Ed Chapter 5 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 40 terms Cryptography Chapter 8 34 terms Chapter 6 Study Guide 27 terms Tischler Introduction to Sociology 11th Ed Chapter 1 20 terms Ch 6 test

B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Audit Chapter 6 Responsibilities and Objectives FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month objective on an audit CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT to provide financial statement users with an opinion by the auditor on whether the financial statements are presented fairly in all material respects in accordance with applicable accounting framework CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 37 Terms in this set 37 objective on an audit to provide financial statement users with an opinion by the auditor on whether the financial statements are presented fairly in all material respects in accordance with applicable accounting framework Management Representations Required without regard to materiality Management Representation must contain statement saying no events occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date that require adjustment to or discolsure in the financial statements A scope limitation sufficient to preclude an unqualified opinion will result when management refuses to acknowledge its _______ for the ______ of the financial statements in conformity with ______ responsibility fair representation GAAP The date of the management representation letter should be as of the Auditors Report When considering the use of managements written representations as audit evidence about the completeness assertion an auditor should understand that such representations complement but do not replace substantive tests designed to support the assertion Primary purpose of management representation letter describe responsibilities and avoid misunderstandings in future direct effect and indirect illegal acts detection direct reasonable assurance indirect none if information comes to the auditors attention that implies the existence of possible illegal acts that could have material but indirect effect on the financial statements the auditor should apply audit procedures specifically directed to ascertaining an illegal act has occurred 3 broad categories of management assertions 1 classes of transactions 2 about account balances at period end 3 presentation and disclosure PCAOB Management Assertions Existence or occurrence Rights and obligations Completeness Valuation or allocation Presentation and Disclosure Transaction assertions Occurrence Completeness and cutoff accuracy classifications Balance Assertions Existence Rights and obligations completeness accuracy and valuation Presentation and Disclosure Assertions Occurrence and rights and obligations Completeness Classification and understandability Accuracy and Valuation Relationship between Audit Objectives and Management Assertions 1 Identify 2 Develop 3 Obtain sufficient appropriate evidence In confirming with an outside agent such as a financial institution that the agent is holding investment securities in the clients name an auditor most likely gathers evidence in support of managements financial statement assertions of existence and Rights and obligations procedure to test controls relating to managements assertion concerning the completeness of sales transactions inspect the entitys reports of prenumbered shipping documents that have not been recorded in the sales journal Existence or Occurrence assets included in accounts exists and events that give rise to transactions have taken place Rights and obligations entity has legal claim on all assets and revenues reported and has a legal responsibility for all liabilities and expenses completeness all transactions have been recorded valuation or allocation transactions are recorded at the correct amount in the proper period presentation and disclosure All accounts are presented in the appropriate place and all information required has been disclosed in the statements and footnotes In auditing accounts payable an auditors procedures most likely would focus primarily on managements assertion of completeness concerns with liabilities understatements completeness restrictions on retained earnings must be presented presentation and disclosure An auditors purpose in reviewing credit ratings of customers with delinquent accounts receivable most likely is to obtain evidence concerning managements assertions about valuation and allocation The confirmations of customers accounts receivable rarely provides reliable evidence about the completeness assertion because customers may not be inclined to report understatement errors in their accounts an auditor observes that a client mails monthly statements to customers Auditor reviews evidence of followup on errors reported by customers This test supports what assertion Rights and Obligations an auditor selects a sample from the file of shipping documents to determine whether invoices were prepared This test is performed to satisfy the audit objective of completeness what account needs to be analyzed to make sure that all fixed assets have been properly capitalized Repairs and Maintenance Expense What procedures provide the most reliable evidence concerning the entitys assertion of rights and obligations related to inventories inspect agreements to determine whether any inventory is pledged as collateral or subject to any liens Four Stages of FS audit plan and design audit approach perform tests of controls and substantive tests of transactions perform analytical procedures and tests of details of balances complete the audit and issue a report Phase 1 obtain understanding of entity and environment understand internal control and assess control risk assess risk of material misstatement analytics for attention direction and AS reqd Phase II test of controls operating effective substantive tests of transactions Phase III Analytical Procedure Test of details of balances Phase IV Overall conclusion For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards the use of analytical procedures is required to some extent in the planning stage as a substantive test in the review stage

B O O B O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Art history chapter 15 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Classical CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The parthenon in athens is an example of the ____ style of architecture CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 27

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


domestic impact of ww1 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The four Ms of preparedness CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 10 Terms in this set 10 The four Ms of preparedness Voluntary Compliance A system that relies on individual citizens to report their income freely and voluntarily calculate their tax liability correctly and file a tax return on time according to the rules established by the Internal Revenue Service Liberty loans Bonds sold by the Treasury Department largely through propaganda campaigns used to raise two thirds of the cost of the war committee on public Information It was headed by George Creel The purpose of this committee was to mobilize peoples minds for war both in America and abroad Tried to get the entire US public to support US involvement in WWI Creels organization employed some 150000 workers at home and oversees He proved that words were indeed weapons victory Gardens Backyard gardens Americans were encouraged to grow their own vegetables to support the war effort Selective service act This 1917 law provided for the registration of all American men between the ages of 21 and 30 for a military draft By the end of WWI 242 had registered 28 had been inducted into the army Age limit was later changed to 18 to 45 Espionage act This law passed after the United States entered WWI imposed sentences of up to twenty years on anyone found guilty of aiding the enemy obstructing recruitment of soldiers or encouraging disloyalty It allowed the postmaster general to remove from the mail any materials that incited treason or insurrection 1917 act gave the government new ways to combat spying sedition act Made it a crime to criticize the government or government officials Opponents claimed that it violated citizens rights to freedom of speech and freedom of the press gauranteed by the First Amednment eugene debs labor leader arrested during the Pullman Strike 1894 a convert to socialism Debs ran for president five times between 1900 and 1920 In 1920 he campaigned from prison where he was being held for opposition to American involvement in World War I Great Migration WW movement of over 300000 African American from the rural south into Northern cities between 1914 and 1920 YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 25 terms Chapter 6 Section 2 The Home Front 21 terms 304 Preparing for War Economy 17 terms APUSH WWI Review 48 terms 304 preparing for war history unit 3 304 chapter quiz FLVS US History 304 Preparing for War US History Objective 304 Quiz OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 44 terms Chapt 10 30 terms Chapt Confederation and the constitution 15 terms all 6 terms gsd THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 58 terms chapter 68 36 terms chapter 8 13 terms World war 1 15 terms Wilsons fourteen points

B I I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O