angiliquem Instrumentation Test 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Accuracy CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT How close a measurement corresponds to its true value CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE Terms in this set 116 Accuracy How close a measurement corresponds to its true value Algorithms Preset mathematical functions calculated in a controller that can be mechanical analog or digital The three most common output functions deal with proportional P integral I Derivative D tuning Basic control functions Sensing measuring comparing calculating correcting and manipulating Closed control loop Automatic Comparator A component of a controller that compares the measurement to a predetermined set point Comparing calculating and correcting element The control loop component receives the appropriate signal from the transmitter and compares the signal to a desired value set point if there is a difference then the output of the comparison causes the calculation to be performed to cause a corrective response by the controller output signal to the final control element Controlled variable A process variable that is sensed to initiate the control signal Controller An instrument receives a signal from the transmitter and compares it to a set point and produces an output to a final control element Converting and transmitting element The control loop component that converts the sensed process variable and transmits the measured signal Converting device A device that receives information in one form of an instrument signal and changes it into another form of an instrument signal Device error The accuracy of the instrument full scale Digital signal Characterized by data that is represented as coded information in the form of binary numbers Used to transmit data to and from field transmitters on a twisted pair of wires May also be between computers and computer components Electronic signal Either an analog or digital signal Current or voltage signal Feedback loop The most common type of control loop where the change caused by the output of the controller is fed back to the process providing selfregulating action Final Control Element The last active device in an instrument control loop Directly controls the manipulated variable Control valve louver or an electric motor Live Zero Instead of reading zero the reading is 3 psig or 4 mA Loop Error The accumulated error of each device in the loop Calculated as the square root of the sum of the squares of individual device accuracy Manipulating Element The final control element control valve etc is manipulated by the corrective response of the controller output so that the process variable is maintained at the appropriate set point value Measured variable A process variable that is measured Mechanical link A way of mechanically transmitting the motion of a primary sensor to a controlling mechanism Conveys linear or rotary motion by using a pivoting crank Open control loop Manual Parallel data communication One wire per bit or 64 wires for a 64bit binary word Used primarily in short distances a few feet Pneumatic Signal An instrument communication with a range of 315 psig Must have an air supply Has a lag time associated with the signal Relatively short transmission distances Precision How close repeated measurements are to each other Process Control The act of regulating one or more process variables so that a product of a desired quality can be produced Process error The difference between set point and process variable SPPV Sensing The act of detecting Sensing element The control loop component that detects or senses the process variable Serial data communication Two data wires The most common means of communication used between plant equipment Set point The desired process value Transmitter A device that transmits a signal from one device to another Process variable PV Usually a quantity that is measured or controlled such as pressure temperature level flow and pH The feedback loop is the most common control loop A small amount of process error is always present in a feedback control loop since an error must exist before the error can be eliminated All closed control loops contain sensor transmitter controller and final control element A sensing element is the first device in a control loop The process variable is transduced changed into a standard instrument signal 315 psi 420 mA or digital The most common converting device is the currenttopneumatic converter IP Pneumatictocurrent converter PI Pneumatictovoltage converter PE VoltagetoPneumatic converter EP Analogtodigital converter AD Digitaltoanalog converter DA Pneumatic signal has a range of 315 psig Discrete Sensing Element A sensing element that can stand alone or is individually distinct Connected to a transmitter by sensor wires Impulse Tubing A tube that is usually made of stainless steal and allows the process variable to be sensed by the sensor located in the transmitter Instrument scale A range of ordered marks that indicate numerical values of the process variable Integrally mounted sensing element The sensing element is physically part of the transmitter Linear scaling A linear relationship between two scales input versus output Lower range value LRV The number at the bottom of the scale Operating range The set of values that exist between the LRV and the URV of a scale Two numbers between Scaling The act of equating the numerical value of one scale to its mathematically proportional value on another scale Sensor Detects the process variable Can be part of the transmitter Signal converter transducer Part of a transmitter that converts the process variable into a standard instrument signal Converts one energy form into another Span URVLRV that is one number Against Standard Signal The language that instruments use to communicate with each other 420mA 315 psig or digital Upper Range Value The number at the top of the scale A sensor must be accurate precise and quick for good sensing control Since the output of the transmitter is also the input to the next instrument in the loop then a meaningful and recognizable standard signal is an absolute necessity Transducer A device that converts one energy form into another A signal converter transducer is a necessity to convert the electrical signal into a pneumatic signal Automanual switch A switch that allows a process technician to select either automatic or manual control from the front of the controller Bump A process upset occurring when a controller is switched from auto to manual mode Bumpless transfer The act of changing the controller from manual to auto or vise versa without a significant change in controller output Cascade control loop The control loop is characterized by the output of one controller becoming the set point of another Control valve The most common final control element in the processing industry Has an actuating device mounted to it Drives the flow controlling mechanism the plug or disc in a valve Control Mode The control action or the control algorithm response such as PID or a programmed function Derivative Action A controller output response that is proportional to the rate at which the controlled variable deviates from the set point Faillast fail in place The condition of the valve seat upon loss of instrument air or power failure Gain Change in the output divided by the change in input Integral Action Reset A controller output response that is proportional to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point Local Controller When the controller is physically mounted in the process area near the other instruments in the loop Louvers dampers Devices used to control airflow Primary Controller Perceives the secondary loop as a separate entity Responds to one process variable while the secondary responds to another Proportional Band proportional gain The amount of deviation of the controlled variable from the set point required to move the output of the controller through its entire range expressed as a percent of span Rate Action The faster the rate of change of the process variable the greater the output response Derivative action Remote controller Any controller that is not located in the processing area with the transmitter and control valve Remote Set point RSP A set point received from an external source Splitrange controller Where the output signal is divided between two final control elements Tuning Adjusting the control action settings so that they produce an appropriate dynamic response to the process resulting in good control Uncontrolled FLow Flow in a process line where there is no control valve Side panel Directreverse acting Proportional gain Integral action Derivative action A controller selected for direct action responds to an increasing input by producing a corresponding increasing output Actuator A device that provides motion to valve for controlling purposes Backpressure regulator A device used to regulate and or control the pressure of a process fluid upstream of the device location Body The housing component of a valve Bonnet The top portion of a valve that connects the valve to the actuator Usually contains the packing box and stem mechanism Disc or plug The only movable component in the valve that is actuated to open or close the flow path through the valve Handwheel An actuator accessory used to manually override the actuator or to limit its motion IP Transducer A device that converts a mA signal into a pneumatic pressure Pressurereducing regulating A device used to regulate and or control the pressure of a process fluid downstream of the device location Regulator A selfcontained and selfactuating controlling device used to regulate variables such a pressure flow level and temperature in a process Seat The stationary part of the valve trim connected to the body that comes in contact with the valve plug When the valve plug is fully seated the flow through the valve ceases Spring The device that provides the energy to move a valve in the opposite direction of the diaphragm loading motion so that the valve can be opened and closed proportionally with the instrument signal Stem The pushing rod that transfers the motion of the actuating to the valve plug Valve positioner A device used to make the valve position match the controller output signal by positioning the moving parts of valve in accordance to a predetermined relationship with the instrument signal received from the loop controller May also be used to adjust the position of the valve according to the specific needs or change the amount of a signal needed to fully stroke the valve as in a split range application Four possible combinations of an actuator and valve action DirectDirect DirectReverse ReverseDirect ReverseReverse The uses of a valve positioner Position the valve Reverse the action Mimic a valve trim type Provide splitrange control The most common type of valve used in the processing industry The globestyle valve Balloon The basic instrumentation symbol Basic equipment style Common equipment such as pumps towers furnaces etc are basic pieces of equipment for most processing facilities and have commonly recognizable or basic equipment symbols Block Flow Diagram BFD A flow scheme in a simple sequential block form International Society of Automation ISA A global nonprofit technical society that develops standards for automation instrumentation control and measurement Legand An explanation of what the symbols and codes on a drawing represent Usually located on an individual drawing in a framed area or on a page within a set of drawings Line Symbols Connectors between the basic pieces of equipment without which process streams could not be moved Piping and Instrumentation Diagram PID Contains more detail than a PFD to include piping and instrumentation details and the entire control system Process Flow Diagram PFD A pictorial description of an actual process including the major equipment while providing process information including the heat and material balances Usually developed when initiating the design of a new plant Symbology Various graphical representations used to identify equipment lines instrumentation or process configurations Loop diagrams Close up of a part PID Calibration The act of applying a known input span to an instrument and adjusting the device so that it provides an indication or output corresponding to the known values Smart instruments Instruments that have more than one microprocessors or smart chips included in their electronic circuitry so they may be programmed and have diagnostic capability Troubleshooting The process of systematically examining localizing and diagnosing equipment malfunction or anomalies Troubleshooting methods Interpret and analyze Evaluate and infer Recognize Repair Reevaluate Document Proportional Band proportional gain Proportional Band proportional gain Louvers dampers YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 73 terms Chapters 10Instrumentation Symbology 1Process Control Methods 12Instrument Calibration And Controller Tuning 48 terms Instrumentation Glossary 33 terms CM 2103 Instrumentation 38 terms Chapter 10 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 69 terms PT Systems Final Ch 1518 135 terms Final Review GEO Exam 13 18 terms GEO exam 3 ch 157 45 terms Systems Test 3 Ch 11 12 13 14 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 92 terms Fundamentals Process Control 22 terms P IDS 29 terms Process Controls Test 2 54 terms PID Symbols Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


2 Familia VHL Central Chapter 3 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month My cuñada Christine es francesa CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT mi CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 8 OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR Ch 3 Prepositional Phrases Spanish Vistas HW 1 De Quién Es 10 terms Lesson 3 Estructura 32 Possessive adjectives Review NG 11 terms Lesson 3 Estructura 31 Descriptive adjectives Audio THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH Vistas HW 4 Posesiones Vistas HW 1 De Quién Es 19 terms Present Tense of er and ir verbs 10 terms 4 Origen y nacionalidad Read the names and origins of the people below Then create sentences indicating the city they are from and which nationality they are

O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Anatomy Skeletal muscle structure Worksheet FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month transverse tubule CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT membranous channel extending inward from muscle fiber membrane CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 36

B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chapter 18 art history FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Nicolas Poussin CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT This artist reconciled the divergent styles of harsh classical and the vibrant broke CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 30 Terms in this set 30 Nicolas Poussin This artist reconciled the divergent styles of harsh classical and the vibrant broke French Elisabeth vigee lebrun an __________ artist was a success during her lifetime and was the portrait painter for Marie antoinette Italian Carvaggio an _________ Artist demonstrated theatrical drama and passion and his paintings Flemish Peter Paul Rubens _________ artist created canvases imbued with the dynamic energy and unleashed passions we link to the Baroque era Artemisia gentileschi This artist painted many pictures of Judith and holofernes and some violence as graphic Spain Diego Velasquez had contempt for idealized images and preferred to use common folk and his paintings like caravaggio Velasquez painted in _______ Francesco borromini Which architect Incorporated the Baroque elements of motion space and light in buildings France The palace at Versailles is built in a classical style and is in ___________ Impressionism Diego valazquezs method of creating dissolved forms and recreating the play of light on the surface of objects is the foundation for __________ Holland Because ________ was Protestant Rembrandt painted primarily secular subjects French Nicolas poussin was an ________ Artist who spent much of his early years in the rome painting Baroque Tenebrism was created during the _________ period Baroque The piazza of st Peters is an example of _________ style of architecture Baroque Church of San Carlo alle quattro fontane is rome is a _______ style church Caravaggio The Italian baroque artist who acquired a lengthy police record for such things as attacking a man with a sword carrying weapons without a permit and breaking windows was ___________ Michelangelo Rubens style combined the sculptural qualities of _________ figures with the painterliness and coloration of the venetians Classical Louis XIV preferred a _______ style of art Bernini Saint peters in Rome brings together work of the finest artist of all the renaissance and the baroque Michelangelo and __________ Leisure class In jean honore fragonards happy accidents of the swing we are offered a glimpse of the love games of the _______ Vermeer If there is a single artist who typifies the Dutch interest in paintings of scenes of daily life it is _________ Academies Louis XIV guaranteed Adherence to his favorite style by forming _________ of arts that perpetuated this style While the typical Renaissance ceiling painting was stableorganized by compartments or framesduring the baroque artists such as Baciccio attempted to create the illusion of a ceiling vault ________ to the heavens 1600 to 1750 The Baroque period spans roughly the years from _________ Irregularly shaped pearl The word baroque probably derives from the Portuguese or Barroco meaning Motion space time and light and theatricality The characteristics of baroque art are _______ True TF during the Baroque period Spain was one of the wealthiest countries in Europe and supported the arts True TF when one analyzes the composition of a Vermeer painting and notes the placement of objects within the scene one is left with the conclusion that the position of a detail could not be moved even a fraction of an inch with at disturbing or weakening the composition True TF while art with the religious subject matter flourished in Catholic European countries a much more secular subject matter prevailed in protestant Europe False TF in comparison to the French baroque the French rococo is more somber and characterized by penitence remorse and contrition False TF by the end of his life rembrandt was a wealthy man and proof of the excellence of the free market system that had developed for art in Holland

O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Hw Ch 14 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The economic forces that amplify shocks by spreading them across time and sectors of the economy are called CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT transmission mechanisms CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 13 Terms in this set 13

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Ch 5 Part 3 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month African American English CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Some speak a form of English heavily influenced by their distinctive heritage of forced migration from Africa Slaves preserved a distinctive dialect to communicate in code not understood by white masters Many migrated Northern when slavery was abolished in racially segregated neighborhoods Ebonics CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 25

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


ch 11 review questions FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Using something unpleasant to stop performance is a tactic of CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT reinforcement theory CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 10

O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Chemistry Exam 2 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month CHAPTER 16 STARTS HERE CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 121 Terms in this set 121 CHAPTER 16 STARTS HERE Arrhenius Aqueous solution that provides hydrogen ions compound Bronsted Compound that provides hydrogen ions Bronsted Acid Proton doner Bronsted Base Proton accepter Lewis Acid Electron pair acceptor Lewis Base Electron pair doner Bronsted Acidbase pairs Bronsted base accepts proton conjugate acid Bronsted acid donates proton conjugate base Conjugate pair Combination of bronsted acid and its conjugate base or vice versa Hydrohalic acids Binary acids 2 elements rules Acid strength increases down a family due to size Acid strength increases right down a row RightDown Increase strength Oxoacids Contains hydrogen oxygen central nonmetal rules Acids strength increases with more oxygens Acid strength increases with highest electronegativity Carboxylic acids Carboxyl group COOH Carboxylate anion RCOO R group any carbon chain Amphoteric Substance that can act as bronsted acid or bronsted base Autoionization of water H20 H OH Equilibrium expression for autoionization of water KwH3OOH PH scale to express the acidity of aqueous solutions POH express the basisity of aqeuous solutions Acid ionization constant Ka Large Ka value strong acid Low Ka value weak base Base ionization constant Kb Large Kb valuestrong base Low Kb value weak base Weak baseacid Ionization incomplete Conjugate Acidbase pair rules Strong acid Weak conjugate Base Weak acid Strong conjugate base Strong Base weak conjugate acid Weak base Strong conjugate acid Strength of an acid is affected by molecular structure Polar and weak bonds to the ionizable hygen lead to a stronger acid Resonance stabilzation of the conjugate base facors the ionization process resulting in a strong acid Pure water undergoes autoionization Concetrations of H and OH are 10 X 107 M KwHOH equilibrium constant for auto ionization of water Ionproduct constant Strongest bases are alkali metals heaviest group alkali earth metals hydroxides strong acids ionize completely in aqueous solution Weak acidbase ionizes only partially Any conjugate acid base pair Ka x Kb Kw Diprotic and polyprotic acids have more than one proton to donate Salts dissolve in water to give neutral acidic or basic solutions depending on their constituent ions Salt hydrolysis reaction of an ion with water to produce hydronium or hydroxide ions Anions of strong conjugate bases like F make solution basic Anions that are conjugate bases of strong acids have no effect on pH Highly charged metal ions hydrolyze to give acidic solutions Oxides of metals are generally basic Oxides of nonmetals generally are acidic metal hydroxides may be basic or amphoteric Lewis acid generally electron poor and need not have a hydrogen atom Lewis base anion or molecule with one or more lone pairs of electrons 1 For a species to act as Bronsted Base an atom in the species must possess a lone pair of electrons Explain A bronsted base is a substance that can accept a proton since a proton has no electrons the atom in the bronsted base must possess a lone pair of electrons in order for a bond to form 10 Predict the relative acid strnegths of the following compounds H20 H2S H2Se H2Se H2SH20 12Which of the following is the stronger acid CH2ClCOOH or CHCl2COOH CHCl2COOH is the stronger acid because it has two electronegative chlorine atoms compared to one drawing the electron density away from the OH group making the OH bond more polar The hydrogen atom in CH2Cl2OOH is more easily ionized compared to the hydrogen atom CH2ClOOH 15 Write an equation relating H and OH in solution at 25C Kw H3OOH 10 x 10 14 16 the equilibrium constant for the autoionization of water is 10 x 1014 at 25C and 38 x 1014 at 40C Is the forward process or exothermic Because temp increased and constant value increases this favors the forward oricess Increase in temp will cause a shift toward the product side for an endothermic reaction accorind to le Chat french 22 Define pOH Write the equation relating pH and pOH The pOH of a solution is defined as the negative base10 logarithm of the hydroxide ion concentration in M Instead of using the hydronium ion concetration which can span an enormous range of 101 to 1014 chemist discuss acidity in terms of pH which generally ranges from 1 to 14 pHpOH 14 at 25C 45 What does the ionization constant tell us about the strength of an acid The magnitude of Ka indiciates how strong a weak acid is A large Ka value indicates a stronger acid whereas a small Ka value indicates a weaker acid 47 Why do we normally not quote Ka valuces for srtong acids such as HCl and HNO3 Strong acids such as HCl and HNO3 have very large Ka values and undergo complete ionization Therefore the concentration of reactants is zero Since equilibrium calculation is not needed for the determination of H3O of strong acids we do not usally quote the Ka values of strong acids 48 Why is it necessary to specify temperature when giving Ka values It is necessary to specify temperature when giving Ka values because temperature affects equilibrium changing the concentrations of reactants and products 64Classify each of the following species as a weak or strong acid AHNO3 bHF cH2SO4 dHSO4 eH2CO3 fHCO3 gHCl hHCN iHNO2 astrong acid b weak acid c Strong acid d weak acid eweak acid fweak acid gstrong acid h weak acid iweak acid 81 Write all the species except water that are present in a phosphoric acid solution Indicate which species can act as a Bronsted Acid which as a bronsted base and which as both a bronsted acid and a bronsted base Bronsted Acids H3PO4 H2PO4 HPO4 2 PO4 3 H30 Bronsted base PO4 3 Both H2PO4 HPO4 2 90 Define salt hydrolysis Categorize salts according to how they affect the pH of a solution Salt hydrolysis is the reaction of an ion with water to produce hydronium or hydroxide ions Salt solutions can be neutral basic or acidic 93 Specify which of the following salts will undergo hydrolysis KF NaNO3 NH4NO2 MGSO4 KCN C6H5COONa RbI Na2CO3 CaCl2 HCOOK KF NH4NO2 MgSO4 KCN C6H5COONa Na2CO3 HCOOK Reasoning Cations that are strong conjugate acids anions that are strong conjugate bases and small highly charged metal ions will undergo hydrolysis 99 Predict whether the following solutions are acidic basic or neutral aNaBr b K2SO3 cNH4NO2 dCrNO33 a Netrual Na cation doesnt hydrolyze Br anion conjugate base no hydrolyze BK no hydrolyze SO3 2 will be basic cAcidic DAcidic IMPORTANT ONE TO LOOK INTO 103 predict the pH 77 o 7 of a NaHCO3 solution Basic LOOK INTO 104 Classify the following oxides as acidic basic amphoteric or neutral a CO2 b K2O c CaO dN2O5 eCO fNO gSnO2 hSO3 iAl2O3 jBaO a Acidic bBasic cBasic dAdidic eneutral fneutral gAmphoteric hAcidic Iamphoteric jbasic 112 What are the lewis definitions of an acid and a base in what way are they more general than the bronsted definitions Lewis acid is a substance that can accept a pair of electrons Lewis base is a substance that can donate a pair of electrons 113 In terms of oribitals and electron arrangements what must be present for a molecule or an ion to act as a lewis acid using H and BF3 What must be present for a molecule or ion to act as a lewis base use OH and NH3 Lewis acid must possess an empty orbital to accept a pair of electrons in case of H there are no electrons therefore empty S orbital The B atom in BF3 has vacant unhydridized 2pz orbital Lewis Base must contain a lone pair of electrons Both OH and NH3 contain a lone pair of electrons 115 describe the following reaction in terms of the leis theroy of acids and bases AlCl3 Cl AlCl4 AlCl3 is lewis acid with an incomplete octet of electrons and cl is the lewis base donating a pair of electrons Chapter 1617pt 1 quiz below Q1 Predict the products in the following reaction and indicate the position of equilbrium by drawing an arrow longer in the direction of the favoted equilbrium Label conj acidbase HClO HCO3 ClO H2CO3 ClO conj base H2CO3 conj acid Look at reasoning for arrow Q2 Circle strongest acid in pairs H2SeO3 or H2SeO4 HCl or HBr H2SO4 or H2TeO4 H2S or HCl H2SeO4 HBr H2SO4 HCL q3Which of the following are bronsted acidsbases or both HSO3 SO3 2 HS S2 CN NH4 NH3 HSO4 HCO3 HClO4 Acid HClO4 NH4 Base SO3 2 S2 CN Both HS HSO3 NH3 HSO4 HCO3 Q9 Will the following solutions be acidic basic or neutral KCN LiNO3 NH4ClO4 NH4Cl KNO3 LiNO2 KCN basic LiNO2Basic LiNO3 neutral KNO3Neutral NH4ClO4 acidic NH4ClAcidic look into reasoning What do you call CuNH34 2 Complex ion What do you call the NH3 in CuNh34 2 ligand CHAPTER 17 STARTS HERE Common ion effect A compound containing an ion in common with a dissolved substance is added to a solution at equilibrium the equilibrium shifts to the left Hendersonhasselbalch equation pKa log Ka AcidBase indicator usually a weak organic acid or base for which the ionized and unionized forms are different colors Buffer A buffer is a solution which contains a weak acid and its conjugate base Its job is to resist any changes in pH If HCl were added to a buffer solution the conjugate base A would attach to the H ion causing more weak acid to be formed but preventing the H from changing the pH AcidBase indicator a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base The conjugate base and the acid will display different colirs in the presence of an acid or a base End point of a titratation is the point at which the color of the indicator changes Solubility product constant Ksp Molar solubility number of moles of solute in 1 L of a saturated solution molL Solubility number of grams of solute in 1 L of a saturated solution gL Complex ion ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions Transition metals Have a particular tendency to form complex ions Formation constant Kf The measure of the tendency of a metal ion to form a particular complex ion Summary of chapter 17 Presence of a common ion suppresses the ionization of a weak acid or weak base common ion effect A common ion is added to a solution in the form of a salt A solution that contains significant concentrations of both members of a conjugate acidbase pair weak acidconjugate base or weak baseconjugate acid is a buffer solution or buffer Buffer solutions resist pH change upon addition of small amounts of strong acid or strong base The pH of a buffer can be calculated using an equilibrium table or with the HendersonHasselbalch equation The pKa of a weak acid is logKa When the weak acid and conjugate base concentrations in a buffer solution are equal pHpKa We can prepare a buffer with a specific pH by choosing a weak acid with pKa close to the desired pH The titration curve of a strong acid strong base titration has a long steep region near the equivalence point Titration curves for a weak acidstrong base or weak basestrong acid titrations have a significantly shorter steep region The pH at the equivalence point of a strong acidstrong base titration is 7 The pH at trhe equivalence point of a weak acidstrong base titration is above 7 The pH at the equivalence point of a weak basestrong is below 7 Acid base indicators are usually weak organic acids that exhibit two different colors depending on the pH of the solution The endpoint of a titration is the point at which the color of the indicator changes used to estimate the equivalence point of a titration The solubility product constantKsp is the equilibrium constant that indicates to what extent a slightly soluble ionic compound dissociates in water Ksp can be used to determine molar solubility or solubility in gL and vice versa Ksp can also be used to predict whether or not a precipitate will form when two solutions are mixed Solubility is affected by common ions Ph and complex ion formation The formation Constant Kf indicates to what extenet complex ions form A salt that dissociates to give a strong conjugate base such as fluoride ion will be more soluble in acidic solution that in pure water A salt that dissociates to give hydroxide ion will be more soluble at lower pH and less soluble at higher pH The solubility of an ionic compound increases when the formation of a complex ion consumes one of the products of dissociation Ions can be separated using fractional precipation Fractional precipitation schemes can be designed base on Ksp values Group of cations can be identified through the use of selective precipitation this is the basis of qualitative analysis Practice Problems Below for 17 1 Use le Chat principle to explain how the common ion effect affects the ph of a weak acid solution When a compound containg an ion in common with a dissolved substance is added to a solution at equilibrium the equilibrium shifts to the left A decrease in the percent ionization leads to a decrease in hydronim ion concentration and increases the pH 3 Define pKA for a weak acid what is the relationship between the value of the pKA and the strength of the acid pKa log Ka The higher the pKa the weaker the acid 4 The Pkas of two monoprotic acids HA and HB are 59 and 81 respectively which of the two is the stronger acid The higher the pKa the weaker the acid HA has a lower pKA and is therefor the stronger acid 7 what is a buffer solution what must a solution contain to be a buffer A buffer is a solution that resist changes in pH upon addition of small amounts of either an acid or a base A buffer solution must contain significant concentrations of both members of a conjugate acid base pair weak acidconjugate base or weak baseconjugate acid 17 Which of the following solutions can act as a buffer KClHCl KHSO4H2SO4 Na2HPO4NaH2PO4 KNO2HNO2 Na2HPO4NaH2PO4 KNO2HNO2 25 Explain how an acidbase indicator works in a titration What are the criteria for choosing an indicator a particular acidbase titration An acidbase indicator is usually a weak organic acid or base for which the ionized an unionized forms are different colors The color of the indicator changes at the endpoint of a titration We select an indicator whose color changes occurs over a pH range that coincides with the steepest part of the titration curve The Choice of indicator for a particular titration depends on the strength of the acid and base to be titratied 26 The amount of indicator used in an acidbase titration must be small why Since the indicator itself is either a weak acid or base using more than a small amount would affect the pH of the solution and the titration 43Use BaSO4 to distinguish between the terms solubility and solubility product Ksp Ba 2SO4 2 where sp stands for solubility product 47How can we predict whether a precipitate will form when two solutions are mixed We use the reaction quotient Q to predict when a precipitate will form If Q is less than or equal to Ksp no precipitate will form If Q is greater than Ksp a precipitate will form 61 How does the common ion effect influence solubility equilibria Use le Chat principle to explain the decrease in solubility of CaCO3 in an Na2CO3 solution The common ion effect decreases solubility by shifting the equilibrium toward the reactant solid side The increase in concentration of the carbonate ion causes the equilibrium to shift to the left where more solid is present thereby decreasing the solubility of CaCO3 78 Which of the following ionic compounds will be more soluble in acid solution than in water BaSO4 PbCl2 FeOH3 CaCO3 BaSO4 will be slightly more soluble because SO4 2 is a base PbCl2 in acid is unchanged because HCL is a strong acid and therefor Cl is a weak base FeOH3 will be more soluble in acid because OH is a base CaCO3 will be more soluble in acidic solution because CO3 2 ions react with H 87 Describe a simple test that could allow you to distinguish between AgNO3 and CuNO32 Chloride ion will precipiate Ag but not Cu 2 Dissolve some sold in H20 and add HCl If a precipitate forms the salt is AgNO3 A flame test will also work Cu2 gives a green flame YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Chemistry Exam 2 ch 16 17 40 terms AcidBase Equilibria Acids and Bases IB Chemistry HL 8 and 18 Acids and Bases OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 20 terms 6180 Genericblack box 20 terms 6180 genericadminstration 20 terms 6180 generic Indication 20 terms 6180 Drug Class Action THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 42 terms Chem 130 Exam 3 16 terms Strong Acid and Bases 47 terms Chem 130 Multiple Choice Test Questions

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Spanish 2 lesson 8 FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month ElLa camareroa CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Waiter CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 5 Terms in this set 5 ElLa camareroa Waiter La comida Foodgroceries Ella dueñoa Owner El menú La sección de no fumar YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE Restaurante_restaurant 24 terms Vocabualario 73 spanish pg 152153 El Restaurante Spanish 4A P 82 1J OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 106 terms Spanish 2 lesson 10 65 terms Spanish 2 lesson 9 41 terms Spanish 2 lesson 7 Spanish 2 lesson 6

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How Populations Evolve FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month What does it mean to say that pigweed is resistant to herbicide Pigweed plants thrive despite the application of herbicides intended to kill them CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 67 Terms in this set 67 What does it mean to say that pigweed is resistant to herbicide Pigweed plants thrive despite the application of herbicides intended to kill them In the past herbicides were very effective as a pigweed killer but today _____ pigweed is taking over fields of cotton and soybeans The scientists who produced the herbicide warned against overuse saying that over time ____ resistant weeds would increase in number Why is pigweed so difficult to control Select all that apply ANSWER number of inches it grows daily number of seeds it produces its thick woody stem What effects has the proliferation of herbicideresistant pigweed had on southern farmers Select all that apply their large machinery is prone to damage from the pigweed plants they have to hire laborers to cut and remove the weeds by hand they may have to pick their crops by hand If whales evolved from landdwelling mammals one would expect the fossil record to include intermediate forms creatures more whalelike than landdwelling mammals yet still possessing hind limbs and a pelvis lacking in modern whales Such intermediates are termed __________ transitional forms Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organisms fitness the wing of a bat is homologous to the ___ of a whale flipper which is true of the homologous structures They are structurally similar due to inheritance from a common ancestor Even though they may serve different functions they maintain the same underlying structure inherited from a common ancestor All known organisms use genetic information to produce protein molecules via the same genetic code This finding strongly supports the hypothesis that __________ all organisms are descended from one or a few common ancestors A common genetic code provides strong evidence that all life is related An important challenge to traditional pre1860 ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms such as hummingbirds humans and whales have similar skeletal structures This most directly suggested to biologists that __________ these seemingly dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant common ancestor Similarity in characteristics resulting from a common ancestor is known as homology and such anatomical signs of evolution are known as homologous structures Organisms that possess homologous structures probably __________ share a common ancestor that also had this structure most recent common ancestor closest to bottom of diagram The phrase Darwin used to describe his broad theory of evolution is descent with modification All of life is related through common ancestry accounting for the ___ of life unity The _____ of life arises from the adaptation of species to different habitats over long spans of time diversity Darwin proposed a mechanism for how evolution occurs which he called ________ natural selection Two key observations underlying natural selection are that members of a population vary in their ______ and that all species can produce more offspring than the environment can support inherite dtraits Darwin inferred that those organisms with traits best suited to the environment tend to leave more _____ than other members of a population offpsring This unequal reproduction in a population leads to the gradual accumulation of ________ to the environment adaptions The human immune system can not effectively suppress the HIV virus on its own What key feature of HIV makes it so hard to beat The HIV virus has an extremely high rate of mutation Imagine that four people are infected with HIV from a common source an infected blood sample Initially the patients HIV populations are genetically identical By the time they develop fullblown AIDS how would the viral populations of the fourpatients compare Each patients viral population would be unique specifically adapted to deal withand overcomehis or her unique immune system responses As proposed by Darwin what sorts of traits are favored by natural selection Heritable traits that help individuals survive and reproduce more successfully than others in the same population Natural selection is best described as _____ a filtering process that finetunes the traits of populations by sorting among existing randomly produced variations HIV has become an important source of mortality for humans If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future natural selection theory predicts that _____ any heritable traits that help humans survive and reproduce in the presence of AIDS should become more frequent over time In natural selection _____ determine which phenotypes are successful current conditions in the local environment Natural selection occurs through an interaction between the environment and the variability inherent among individual organisms making up a population Which of the following statements would Darwin have disagreed with Descent with modification occurs through inheritance of acquired characteristics During the 1950s a scientist named Lysenko tried to solve the food shortages in the Soviet Union by breeding wheat that could grow in Siberia He theorized that if individual wheat plants were exposed to cold they would develop additional cold tolerance and pass it to their offspring Based on the ideas of artificial and natural selection do you think this project worked as planned No because there was no process of selection based on inherited traits Lysenko assumed that exposure could induce a plant to develop additional cold tolerance and that this tolerance would be passed to the plants offspring Which of the following statements about adaptation is true A population that has an increase in frequency of alleles for thicker fur has become adapted to the cold Researchers came up with numerous hypotheses that could explain why fewer cliff swallows were being killed on roads Their hypotheses included the following Traits that help individuals avoid being hit by cars have evolved through natural selection in the cliff swallow population The population size of cliff swallows living near roads has decreased over time Scavenger population sizes have increased and more roadkilled swallows get eaten before they can be found The number of cars driving on these roads has decreased over time The data suggest that over time ____ resulted in the evolution of shorter wings in the cliff swallow population Shorter wings are an _____ in this population Alleles for shorter wings were ______ in the general population natural selection adaption already present the evolution of populations due to chance is genetic drift If color is an inherited trait in beetles and birds are more likely to eat brown beetles than green beetles the frequency of the green allele will increase If birds are more likely to eat brown beetles than green beetles then green beetles will survive and reproduce more than brown beetles This causes the frequency of the green allele to increase In a population with brown and green alleles for color genetic drift has more effect on the evolution of a small population Genetic drift affects the evolution of small populations more than it affects the evolution of large populations Color is an inherited trait in beetles If brown beetles move into a population from a nearby island which of the following statements is correct Gene flow causes the frequency of the brown allele to increase Gene flow occurs when individuals move into or out of a population changing the allele frequencies in the population In this case new brown beetles in the population cause the frequency of the brown allele to increase Remember that color is an inherited trait in beetles Which of the following is an example of natural selection Green beetles leave more offspring than brown beetles because they are better at finding food Natural selection occurs when organisms with one inherited trait survive and reproduce more than organisms with other traits Sexual recombination occurs when chromosomes are shuffled in _____ and fertilization meiosis Crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes contribute to sexual recombination by producing diverse gamete types The original source of all genetic variation is _____ mutation Mutation is in itself very important to evolution because it is the original source of the genetic variation that serves as the raw material for evolution Of the scenarios below which represents the occurrence of evolution at its smallest scale A pesticide spray is heavily used on a particular farm Initially it kills 98 of the grasshoppers on contact Over several generations the local grasshopper population becomes resistant to the pesticide through inheritance of resistance alleles Other nearby grasshopper populations do not change in any noticeable way There has been evolutionary generationtogeneration genetically based change within a single population the smallest scale of evolution The smallest unit that can evolve is a _____ populations Populations evolve as individuals with different genotypes live and die causing changes in the gene pool What is the term for a change in the relative frequencies of alleles in a population over several generations microevolution Microevolution is a generationtogeneration change in allele frequencies within a population Which condition would disturb the HardyWeinberg equilibrium and cause the gene pool to change Several homozygous recessive individuals leave the population Gene flow can alter allele frequencies in the population Genetic drift is _____ more likely to have an impact on small populations Genetic drift represents chance events and is therefore more likely to have a significant impact on smaller populations The Illinois populations of the Greater Prairie Chicken benefited when managers brought in prairie chickens from other populations This restored genetic variation to the Illinois populations through the process of __________ gene flow Gene flow involves movements of individuals and alleles between populations Desert pupfish live in springs of the American Southwest Today there are about 30 species of pupfish but they all evolved from a common Pleistocene ancestor The southwestern United States was once much wetter than it is now and the Pleistocene pupfish flourished over a wide geographic area Over thousands of years however the Sierra Nevada mountain range was pushed upward by geological forces blocking rainfall from the Pacific Ocean As the large lakes dried up small groups of pupfish remained in springs and pools fed by groundwater seepage Now although many of these small springs still have pupfish each bottleneck effect A population of 1000 birds exists on a small Pacific island Some of the birds are yellow a characteristic determined by a recessive allele The others are green a characteristic determined by a dominant allele A hurricane on the island kills most of the birds from this population Only 10 remain and those birds all have yellow feathers Which of the following statements is true The hurricane has caused a population bottleneck and a loss of genetic diversity Natural selection and evolution are two terms that are sometimes confused even by freshman biology students What is the relation between natural selection and evolution Natural selection is one of several mechanisms of evolution Modern species evolved from ancestral forms and natural selection is the main mechanism for adaptation but other forms of microevolution also contribute to evolutionary change Which of the following most accurately and directly measures an organisms Darwinian fitness compared to other individuals in the same population how many fertile offspring it produces This is a direct measure of Darwinian fitness A news article discussing the evolution of domestic dogs from wolves included this statement On its way from packhunting carnivore to fireside companion dogs learned to loveor at least live onwheat rice barley corn and potatoes What is a more scientifically accurate way to state what happened with dogs Some wolves may have had variants in their digestion that allowed them to eat wheat rice barley corn and potatoes and so were able to survive with humans Where are the Galapagos Islands located 600 miles west of Ecuador near the equator Which of the following sets of animals are likely to be found on the Galapagos Islands tortoises finches bluefooted boobies Which species is threatening the natural wildlife on the Galapagos Islands humans The Galapagos Islands were the first place on Earth to _____ be declared a world heritage site Tourism on the Galapagos Islands is being restricted by requiring tourists to _____ be escorted by trained guides at all times In a species of snail darkshelled individuals are better hidden from bird predators in the shady forest while lightshelled individuals are better hidden in welllit brushy edge areas If there were no areas of intermediate brightness in this habitatwhich type of selection would act on shell color in these snails disruptive selection Disruptive selection causes both extreme phenotypes light and dark shells to be favored over the intermediate phenotype Small lizards have difficulty defending their territory but large lizards are more likely to be preyed upon by owls Which type of selection would act on body size in these lizards under these conditions stablizing selection Stabilizing selection does not change the mean of the population only the extreme phenotypes large and small lizards become less common A large population of mice is isolated on an island There are two varieties of the mice brown and gray Their fur colors closely match the gray rock outcrops and brown soils of the island Hawks are their main predators This situation most likely reflects the outcome of __________ disruptive natural selection The hawks will catch the mice they see best in each environment favoring the maintenance of two different morphs in a patchy environment changing the average color of the population over time directional selection An elk herd is observed over many generations Most of the fullgrown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size The average antler size remains constant over the generations Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation stabilizing selection _______ favors intermediate phenotypes selecting against phenotypes at both ends of a range and reducing variation Stabilizing selection ______ favors phenotypes at both ends of a range over intermediate phenotypes This type of selection may occur when the habitat is varied Disruptive selection ______ favors phenotypes at one end of a range and is common in periods of environmental change Directional selection In sexual selection individuals with certain inherited characteristics are more likely to obtain mates than other individuals This often results in ________ differences between the sexes in size appearance and behavior sexual dismorphism _____ is a type of sexual selection in which individuals of one sex usually males compete directly for mates This may involve ritualized displays or physical combat Intrasexual selection In a type of sexual selection often called _______ individuals of one sex usually females are choosy in selecting their mates This choice is often based on the showy appearance or behavior of the male mate choice Which of the following is a misconception regarding natural selection Natural selection progressively refines organisms adaptations eventually leading to perfection This is a misconception Natural selection is not progressive toward a fixed goal Instead it tracks a changing environment In addition natural selection can not produce perfection partly because adaptations often involve compromises Which of the following statements best describes how the process of natural selection works Betteradapted individuals will leave behind more offspring to carry on their genes producing a dynamic fit between a population and its changing environment Natural selection is differential reproductive success with the more fit individuals contributing disproportionately more offspring to the next generation than do less fit individuals It is contingent on current local conditions YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 63 terms Bio Ch 13 127 terms Evolution Mastering Bio bio ch 8 48 terms BIO 1010 Unit 5 Test OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 12 terms plcy 581 midterm 33 terms anth 318 midterm 80 terms Lab 2 BIOL 252 60 terms Lab 1 BIOL 252 THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH 32 terms BIO Exam 3 40 terms chapter 19 10 terms BSC1011H Exam 1 11 terms Mastering Environmental Science Ch4 Coaching Homework

O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Quiz 3 Clinical questions Ch 12 10 month infant has enlarging head circumference and delayed overall development She has a bulging anterior fontanelle and her CSF pressure is elevated Based on these findings answer the following questions a What are the possible causes of an enlarged head b Which tests might be helful in obtaining info about this infants problem c Assuming the tests conducted showed the cerebra aqueduct to be constricted which ventricles or CSF containing areas would you expect to be enlarged Which would likely not be visible Respond to the same questions based on a finding of obstructed arachnoid villi a Hydrocephalus due to a blockage obstructing its circulation or drainage cerebral spinal fluid accumulates and puts pressure on the brain b CT and MRI scans allow quick identification of most tumors c1st and 2nd and 3rd ventricles might be enlarged due to constriction in cerebra aqueduct dThe subarachnoid space might be enlarged due to obstructed archnoid villi Mrs Jones has had a progressive decline in her mental capabilities in the last 56 years At first her family attributed her occasional memory lapses confusion and agitation to grief over her husbands death six year earlier When examined Mrs Jones was aware of her cognitive problems and was shown to have an IQ score approximately 30 points less than would be predicted by her work history A CT scan showed diffuse cerbral atrophy The physician prescribed an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and Mrs Jones showed slight improvement What is Mrs Jones problem Why did the acetylcholinesterase inhibiitor help She has Alzheimers disease Loss of neurons in the basal forebrain is associated with a shortage of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine By prescribing an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor the acetylcholine that she does have will not be reabsorbed or broken down as quickly and will slightly improve cognitive skills Robert a brilliant computer analyst suffered a blow to his anterior skull from a falling rock while mountain climbing Shortly after it was obvious to his coworkers that his behavior had undergone a dramatic change Although previously a smart dresser he was now unkempt One morning he was observed defecating into the wastebasket Which region of Roberts brain was affected by the cranial blow Prefrontal cortex or Anterior association area It is involved with intellect complex learning abilities recall and personality Mrs Adams is ready to deliver her first baby Unfortunately the baby appears to have a myelomeningocele Would a vaginal or surgical delivery be more appropriate and why Surgical delivery would be best due to the myelomeningocele the saclike cyst protruding dorsally from the childs spine The medical chart of a 68 year old man includes the following notes slight tremor of right hand at rest stony facial expression difficulty in initiating movements a Based on your present knowledge what is the diagnosis b What brain areas are most likely involved in this mans disorder and what is the deficiency c How is this condition currently treated a Parkinsons Disease b midbrain substantia nigra deficient in dopamine releasing neurons c drug Ldopa Cynthia a 16 year old was rushed to the hospital after taking a bad spill off the parallel bars After she had a complete neurolgical workup her family was told that she would be permanently paralyzed from the waist down The neurologist then outlined for Cynthias parents the importance of preventing complications in such cases Common complications include urinary infection bed sores and muscular spasms Using your knowledge of neuroanatomy explain the underlying reasons for these complications Bed sores occur due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlaying tissue from being in one postion for extended periods of time Urinary infections are common due to catheters and diapers which are used to contain urination and feces Bacteria trapped in the catheter or diaper travel back up into the body and cause infection Spasms occur because the injury disconnected the brain from the spinal cord below the injury site Spinal neurons that have been disconnected tend to become hyperexcitable Five year old amy wakes her parents up at 3am crying and complaining of a sore neck severe headache and feeling sick to her stomach She has a temp of 104 degrees F and hides her eyes saying that the lights are too bright The emergency Dr suspects meningitis and performs a lumbar tap Using your knowledge of neuroanatomy explain into which space and at what level of the vertebral column the needle will be inserted to perform this test Which fluid is being obtained and why The subarachnoid space within the meningeal sac inferior to L3 is where a lumbar tap is performed because the spinal cord no longer fills this space and the delicate nerve roots drift away from the point of needle insertion so there is little to no danger of damaging cord or spinal roots Cerebrospinal Fluid is being obtained to test for the virus of the meninge

O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Microbiology Chapter 10 Practice FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month _________ reaction capture energy from the organisms energy source CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Catabolic CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 63 Terms in this set 63 _________ reaction capture energy from the organisms energy source Catabolic ________ is the total of all chemical reactions occurring in the cell Metabolism ____________ reactions build new organic molecules from smaller inorganic and organic compounds Anabolic In the thermodynamic studies energy changes are analyzed in collection of matter called a __________ All other matter in the universe is called the _________ system surroundings __________ is the science that analyzes energy changes in a collection of matter Thermodynamics A reaction in which the forward rate is equal to the reverse rate is said to be at ________ equilibrium Cells must efficiently transfer energy from their energytrapping systems to the system actually carrying out work and also use various metabolic processes to replace the energy used in doing work This is called ________ energy cycle Disruption of an enzymes structure with loss of activity by extremes of pH temperature or other factors is called ________ denaturation A molecule that binds to an enzyme at a location other than active site and thereby alters the enzymes shape making it inactive or less active is a________ inhibitor noncompetitive A molecule that binds noncovalently to an enzyme at the active site and thereby prevents a substrate from binding and reacting is a __________ inhibitor competitive The molecules formed by an enzymecatalyzed reaction are called _________ products The reacting molecules in an enzymecatalyzed reaction are called _______ substrates The __________ _________ is the substrate concentration needed for an enzyme to achieve half maximal velocity Michaelis constant Km A complex formed during a reaction that resembles both the substrates and the product is called the ______________ state complex transition RNA molecules that have catalytic activity are known as ________ ribozymes Cells carry out three major areas of work which type of work involves the synthesis of macromolecules as well as the breakdown of substances for their energy chemical work Cells carry out three major types of work which type of work involves nutrient uptake and waste elimination transport work Cells carry out three major types of work which work type involves energy for cell motility and the movement of structures with cells mechanical work The________ law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed first The ___________ law of thermodynamics states that physical and chemical processes occur in such a way that randomness disorder increases to a maximum second The amount of heat energy needed to raise 1 gram of water from 145C to 155C is called a _______ Calorie The numerical value of the free energy change indicates how fast a reaction will reach equilibrium TF False ______ is the total energy change that accompanies a chemical reaction Enthalpy For the reaction ABCD the equilibrium constant is defined as ____________ CDAB The change in _________ is the amount of energy in a system that is available to do work free energy The most commonly used practical form of energy used in cells is adenosine diphosphate TF False A reaction that releases energy is ________ exergonic Some energetic reactions can be made to proceed forward if they are coupes to hydrolysis of one or more of the phosphates of ATP TF True A chemical reaction that requires an input of energy in order to proceed is ___________ endergonic The __________ is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction oxidant The _________ is the electron donor in redox reaction reductant The standard reduction potential of a redox reaction is a measure of the tendency of the __________ to ____________ electrons reductant lose The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential TF True What is usually used as an electron carrier by living organisms NAD NADP Ubiquinone The electron transport chain is based on the principle that redox couples with more positive reduction potentials will donate electrons to couples with more negative potentials TF False One of the components used during photosynthetic electron transport is ferredoxin a noontime iron protein True Electron transport molecules that only transfer electrons include_____________ ferredoxin Each enzyme normally has specific pH and temperature optima at which they function best TF True The Michaelis constant of an enzyme is the substrate concentration that produces maximum velocity TF False enzyme activity can be greatly affected by the pH and the temperature of the environment in which the enzyme must function TF True When the amount of enzyme present is held constant the rate of a reaction will continue to increase as long as the subvert concentration increases TF False Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction but do not alter equilibrium constants TF True Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by increasing molecular motion thereby providing kinetic energy to drive the reaction TF False Enzymes are usually named based on what the substrate they act on and the type of reaction they catalyze The most specific term usually used to describe a substance in a biological system that increases the rate of reaction without being permanently changed by the reaction is an __________ enzyme The substrate of an enzyme binds at the __________ active site A complete enzyme that consists of a protein component and a nonprotein component is called a ____________ holoenzyme A nonprotein component of an enzyme that is loosely attached to the protein component is referred to as a ____________ coenzyme The nonprotein component of an enzyme that is firmly attached to the protein is called a ___________ prosthetic group If an enzyme consists of a protein component and a nonprotein component the protein component is referred as the ___________ apoenzyme Ifa ll available enzyme molecules are binding substrate and converting it to produce as rapidly s possible the reaction is said to be proceeding at __________ velocity maximal A _____________ increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently altered by the reaction catalyst Enzymes function as catalysts by _______________________ bringing the su states together at the active site in effect concentrating them and bringing the substrates together at the active site correctly oriented for the reaction Enzymes catalyze a reaction by_______________ decreasing the activation energy of the reaction The energy required to bring the substrates of a reaction together in the correct way to reach the transition state is called _____________________ activation energy One important ribozyme located in mitochondria is responsible for catalyzing peptide bond information during protein synthesis TF False In metabolic channeling the regulation of a metabolic pathways is controlled by the __________ of metabolites and enzymes involved in the pathway location Metabolic channeling involves the localization of ________ in different part of a cell in order to influence the activity of metabolic pathways substrates and enzymes When the end product of a pathway inhibits catalysis of the first step of the pathway this phenomenon is called ___________ feedback inhibition Enzyme activity can be controlled by _________________ allosteric regulation covalent modification feedback inhibition In allosteric regulation effector molecules usually bind how reversibly and noncovalently In a branched pathway with many end products an abundance of one of the end products ill usually inhibit what the first committed step in the branch of the pathway leading to the production of that particular product Isoenzymes are different that catalyze the same reaction but can be regulated independently of one another TF True YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE 63 terms Microbiology Chapter 10 Practice Microbiology Chapter 10 Chapter 10 Bisc 260 Micro Chapter 8 APBIO OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR 53 terms mahoney final 24 terms CD final 13 terms med emergencies exam 3 50 terms exam 3 CD

B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B I O O O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O B O O O B O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O


Enlisted PPME Block 4 Carrier Strike Groups FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ___________ CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT Utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 12 Terms in this set 12 The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ___________ Utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world The Navys Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrierbased aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades False Carrier Strike Groups ___________ Are formed and disestablished on an as needed basis Carrier Strike Groups are dependent on Logistical Supply Squadrons LSSs for replenishment of ammunition fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them False The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested False The Fleet Response Plans goal is to _______ Sustain a level of at least six surgecapable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order Carrier Strike Groups CSGs consist solely of surface ships Submarines may provide support to the CSG but are not under the command of the CSG commander False The Virginiaclass submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class It is just as quiet but has greater speed can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class False Carrierbased aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in flight refueling False Because they have no longrange strike capability the Perryclass guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Groups False Which submarine classes are capable of conducting long range strikes using tomahawk missiles All the answers are correct Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys Strike warfare mission the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic antisubmarine warfare capability False

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American Government FLASHCARDS WRITE SPELL TEST MATCH GRAVITY Upgrade to remove ads Only 1month Essay Identify the three types of Independent agencies and give an example of each CLICK THE CARD TO FLIP IT The independent Executive Agencies is one independent agency and and example is NASA The Government Corporations are another one and an example would be the US postal service The Regulatory Commissions are another one and and example is the Federal Communications Commission FCC CLICK THE ARROWS BELOW TO ADVANCE 1 31 Terms in this set 31 Essay Identify the three types of Independent agencies and give an example of each The independent Executive Agencies is one independent agency and and example is NASA The Government Corporations are another one and an example would be the US postal service The Regulatory Commissions are another one and and example is the Federal Communications Commission FCC Essay What makes federal bureaucracy be called the fourth branch of govnt The bureaucracy often increases its independence by taking advantage of the separation of powers of the three major branches of government Another is the growth in the number and size of federal agencies has made the bureaucracy the largest segment of the national governmentThe skills that many agency officials provide also strengthen the independence of the bureaucracy the independence of the federal bureaucracy is further illustrated by the intense struggle for security that agencies exercise over their internal affairs Essay How is the federal bureaucracy quasilegislative quasiexecutive quasijudicial The bureaucracy is quasilegislative because they recommend bills to Congress and to the president usu by OMB They are quasijudicial because they have the ability to draw up an administrative law and they provide due process for individuals or groups involved in disputes with an agency what is the the job of the press secretary channels information represents constituents and aids in administration and communication planning What is the last cabinet position created the Department of Homeland Security What is a civil service commission and what is the office that was created from it The commission was for the new standard for hiring and promotion of civil employees by merit The office of personnel management was created from it Civil service is the civilian employees who carry out the administrative tasks of government What are the original four cabinet departments Department of State Treasury Defense and Justice which branch has the most bureaucracy The Executive Branch What are the jobs of the office of managements and administration Who created the office of faithbased initiatives George W Bush From 1114 jobs of the cabinet Who manages the Food Stamp Program dep of agriculture Who has the largest budget dep of health and human services What department controls immigration dept of homeland security In the two departments that were together and now split up the department of education was linked to what other department dep of health and human services who approves cabinet positions the Senate pendleton act what did it get rid of it established the Civil Service Commision and abolished the old patronage or spoils system what is a bureaucrat is a vivil servant dedicated to the details of administrative procedure what is the grace commission it is an investigation on federal agencies requested by Ronald Reagan and it tried to tackle the problem of wasteful spending what is the sunshineact it has provided greater citizen participation in bureaucratic decisionmaking it allows citizens access to agency officials and a stronger voice in bureaucratic proceedings With this federal agencies need to hold wellannounced public hearings what is the Tennessee Valley Authority it is a government corporation that generates sells and distributes electric power what is the spoils system it is the practice of giving government jobs to friends and supporters What type of agency is the American Postal Office it is an independent agency under government corporation What is the purpose of the National Security Council it was formed during the Cold War to advise the president on military policy and overt operations and to serve as a crisismanagement team Today it serves as the presidents principal arm for coordinating these policies among various government agencies Who started the Spoil System President Andrew Jackson What assassination started the Civil Service Commission President Garfield Whowhat positions works in the white house office chief of staff staff secretary Office of management and Administration presidential personnel director counsel to the president Press Office and Office of Communications his front line staff what is the hatch act this law allowed federal worker to vote in elections but they could not take part in partisan political activities What is the merit system the quality of ones work in the civil service it is the standard for employment what is the first regulatory agency Interstate Commerce Commission where do most defense department employees work most work in the pentagon what percent of the positions that work in the government are approved by the Senate

B I O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O