|Peace upon those who follow the straight
In the Bible, Jesus is called the son of man
over 80 times.
God sent the Qur'an to correct what humans
changed in the Bible.
It is logical to say that the scribes of the
Bible changed the word (Mary) into(man) throughout the Bible.
With women having such a low status through
out the Bible, it is likely that the Bible writers referred to Jesus
as son of a MAN rather than son of a WOMAN
The Greek word for woman in the Bible is "oudemia
" while the word for man cuts out the (mia) to leave only "oudeis"
so we can see how the word woman could have, and is, cut to man,
rather than wo-man.;
Although because we are considered equal in
the Qur'an, and male pride or ego had no part in the creation of the
Jesus was and is correctly named as "son of
Mary" while the Bible still labels him as son of _man_.
If the Bible was free of alterations and
changes, than it too would have *Properly* called Jesus "son of
Mary" as the Qur'an does, because like Adam, Jesus has no father, so
it is simply illogical (as many other changes in the Bible) to call
Jesus a son of _man_.
Were the Bible writers ashamed to label
Christ's origin from a woman?
What ever their political or personal
motivations, they are absent from the Qur'an, thank God.