
What bets are you making that the chance of losing ten bets out of ten is about 1/718? 
I'm pretty sure the law of numbers doesn't actually state what you say it does. (The claim is nevertheless true, though - it's not certain at any finite $n$.)
$P(E)+P(\overline{E})=1$ (where $\overline{E}$ is the complement of $E$, or  'not-$E$'). So if the 1/718 chance of losing it all in ten bets was accurate, then the chance of not losing it all in ten bets is $1-\frac{_1}{^{718}}$. It's a direct consequence of the axioms of probability - see the second item here (the notation there - $\Omega\backslash E$, essentially "everything but $E$" - is the same thing as $\overline E$).


What are the chances of something *not* occurring?
I have a question:
it's been months that I watch movies for improving my listening skill(it was quite awful:-D). now my question. I know that we should use "warlord" instead of "Lord of war" or "landlord" instead of "Lord of land" but I don't know why "The lord of the rings" is correct? isn't it better to use Ringslord ??? I meant how to know when I should use "of" ?
