Is OTHER wrong in the post ? POST : We've been together 3 years, married 1 month. In this time he's never had a coldsore before. I am not worried at all that this is a cheating situation. My husband has/had the habit of sharing everything with people (friends and acquaintances). Trying a new beer? Why not offer it around the table for everyone to sample. I warned him before that that's not really a good practice, but here we are.

The new husband part is important because since we got married he's been in a bit of a honeymoon phase, extra cuddling, extra affection etc, and this has put a damper on that.

**His side:** It is cruel and unfair of me to turn down his affection because of a condition that is incurable. He feels that it is inevitable that over our next 50+ years of marriage I will get it, so I am being unreasonable now in not letting him kiss me. 

In my defense I am still being affectionate, I will kiss his face and cheeks etc, snuggle with him, and we are still having sex with our typical bc (condoms) etc.

**My side:** I don't agree that it is inevitable that I catch coldsores from him and I think I am entitled to try to avoid infection for as long as possible. If that means that for the next 50 years if he gets an outbreak = we don't kiss, then I accept that condition if it means avoiding an uncomfortable and unpleasant infection.

Also, it's not like I'm saying 'Ew gross' to him or being rude or a jerk about it. If he tries to kiss me I turn as gently as I can or pull away. He finds this very rude. 

TLDR; Husband recently started getting coldsores and I am refusing to make lip contact with him during outbreaks. He says my infection in inevitable and that I'm being unfair. AITA?

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