Is NOBODY wrong in the post ? POST : Last weekend I went out to meet a few friends at a bar. Needless to say, by night's end I ended getting a little inebriated. I also ended up forgetting to close out my tab and forgot my card at the bar, which didn't reopen until five days later. Despite my condition, I remember what I drank and in what order I drank them. All the drinks I knowingly purchased don't even come close to the amount that was posted on my credit statement. Additionally, I paid gratuity in cash as I ordered each drink, even though I had a tab open.

For several days, the charge pending on my credit statement was an amount that I thought was a little high, but well within the realm of what I ordered that night. However, today on the day when the bar reopened, the final charge posted. The thing is, this charge was a little over 70% higher than what was pending and seems far in excess of what I ordered and put on my tab. Today, I went to the bar at open to recover my card. I asked for a receipt, but they were unable to provide one (something about another company processing the transactions) and told me to return tomorrow. I ended up signing no receipt to authorize any charge to my card, despite a final charge being posted. I also looked at the signage around the bar and there was no documentation posted suggesting there is an additional charge for cards left overnight or unclosed tabs.

Tomorrow I plan on returning to get a receipt, which I expect to be itemized. I know for a \*fact\* I did not spend as much as the amount posted to my credit statement. Would I be out of line to refuse to pay for drinks (or additional gratuity) added to my bill that I did not order? Since the final charge was posted and I'd presume a signature is no longer required by the merchant, would I be the asshole if I disputed the portion of the charge in question with my credit card company? or in the event they are unable to provide an itemized receipt, the entire charge?