How will such a law not be considered an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368?
According to the context provided, such a law will not be considered an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 because it is specifically mentioned in clause (4) that "Any such law as is referred to in this article shall not be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368 notwithstanding that it contains any provision which amends or has the effect of amending this Constitution." This means that despite having provisions that might otherwise be considered an amendment to the Constitution, such a law is not treated as one.