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Long-term, low-dose prophylaxis against urinary tract infections in young children | 5. Which one of the following statements is true? a. Antibiotic treatment increases the risk of recurrent UTI b. Bacteria in the urine should always be eradicated regardless of symptoms c. Cranberries have been proven to protect from UTI in children d. There is no correlation between bladder and bowel dysfunction and UTI | a |
Management of proteinuria in the transplanted patient | 1. How frequent is proteinuria in children after renal transplantation: a. 5–10 % b. 10–20 % c. 20–40 % d. 40–80 % | d |
Management of proteinuria in the transplanted patient | 2. What is the recommended method for assessment of proteinuria in transplanted children? a. Albuminuria alone b. Total proteinuria and alpha-1-microglobulinuria c. Alpha-1-microglobulinuria alone d. Total proteinuria and albuminuria | d |
Management of proteinuria in the transplanted patient | 3. The main causes of persistent post-transplant proteinuria are: a. Proteinuria from the diseased native kidneys b. mTOR inhibitors and calcineurin inhibitors c. Recurrence of FSGS, hypertension and rejection d. Older donor age and delayed graft function | c |
Management of proteinuria in the transplanted patient | 4. The consequences of proteinuria after transplantation are: a. Hyperfiltration b. Impaired graft function and survival c. Edema and hypertension d. Hypotension | b |
Management of proteinuria in the transplanted patient | 5. Angiotensin receptor blockers can further decrease proteinuria in children already treated with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors by: a. 10–20 % b. 20–30 % c. 30–40 % d. 40–60 % | c |
New Onset Diabetes After Transplant | 1. Which of the following is NOT a possible risk factor for development of NODAT in children? a) African American race b) Obesity c) Peritoneal dialysis therapy d) Family history of diabetes e) Cystinosis as an underlying disease | c |
New Onset Diabetes After Transplant | 2. What is the reported incidence of NODAT in children? a) 3–13 % b) 25 % c) 30 % d) 30–50 % | a |
New Onset Diabetes After Transplant | 3. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a) FPG is a sensitive test to detect pre- and post-transplant hyperglycemia b) HCV infection is a risk factor for development of NODAT in untreated adults c) Early post-transplant hyperglycemia can predict NODAT d) NODAT is associated with an increase in cardiovascular events and death in children e) b, c and d | e |
New Onset Diabetes After Transplant | 4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the pathogenesis of NODAT? a) Glucocorticoids increase gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance by reducing peripheral glucose uptake and tissue sensitivity to insulin b) Obesity increases peripheral insulin resistance c) The diabetogenic effect of TAC is through direct islet cell toxicity d) CsA is more diabetogenic than TAC e) The diabetogenic effects of glucocorticoids and CNIs is dose- and duration-dependent | d |
New Onset Diabetes After Transplant | 5. The best approach to prevent NODAT is: a) Aggressive life style modification in overweight patients b) Early screening for glucose metabolic abnormalities pre-transplant to allow early intervention c) Implement steroid-free immunosuppressant protocol in low immunologic risk patients d) Avoid CNI and use sirolimus instead for immunosuppression post-transplantation e) a, b and c | e |
Nocturnal intermittent hemodialysis | 1. The term intensified dialysis refers to: A. Increasing blood flow B. Increasing dialysate flow C. More visits of the patients by staff D. Increasing time on dialysis | D |
Nocturnal intermittent hemodialysis | 2. Average single pool Kt/V in intensified programs is: A. 1.8–4.3 B. 4.5–9.0 C. never higher than 6.0 D. 3.5–5.8 | B |
Nocturnal intermittent hemodialysis | 3. In intensified HD programs, phosphate control is on average: A. better than on conventional HD B. unchanged compared to conventional HD because of the increased nutritional status C. dramatically improved, if HDF is added D. age dependent | A |
Nocturnal intermittent hemodialysis | 4. To optimize HD the most promising approach is: A. double time on dialysis B. add HDF C. optimizing blood flow D. using high flux filters and increasing dialysate flow | A |
Nocturnal intermittent hemodialysis | 5. In adult patients complications of vascular access on SDHD are: A. reduced in comparison to conventional HD B. increased in comparison to conventional HD C. unchanged in comparison to conventional HD D. have not been investigated | B |
Peri-operative kidney injury and long-term chronic kidney disease following orthotopic heart transplantation in children | 1. The following statements regarding measurement of renal function are false EXCEPT: a) Serum creatinine is a reliable screening tool. b) eGFR estimation by Schwartz formula is accurate in infants. c) eGFR overestimates the degree of renal dysfunction in transplant patients. d) Serum creatinine may be normal despite renal insufficiency in the pre-transplant period. e) Micro-albuminuria is not used as a screening test for chronic kidney disease. | d |
Peri-operative kidney injury and long-term chronic kidney disease following orthotopic heart transplantation in children | 2. The following statements regarding CRI post-transplant are true EXCEPT: a) Peri-operative renal dysfunction has an impact on post-transplant CRI and mortality. b) Peri-operative AKI may get better in certain HT patients with better haemodynamics. c) Chronic calcineurin inhibitor exposure is the most common cause for progressive CRI after transplant. d) Hypertension and hyperlipidaemia need to be controlled to minimise progression of CKD. e) Risk of CRI decreases with increasing post-transplant survival. | e |
Peri-operative kidney injury and long-term chronic kidney disease following orthotopic heart transplantation in children | 3. The following statements regarding risk factors for later renal dysfunction for thoracic transplant recipients are true EXCEPT: a) ISHLT Report 2012 did not find any association with type of CNI and later renal dysfunction. b) Earlier era of transplantation has been shown to have a higher risk. c) Certain subgroups such as those with congenital heart disease are at higher risk. d) Prolonged need for Dialysis pre- or post-transplant has been reported to be a significant risk factor for mortality after HT. e) The number of rejection episodes in recipient has no influence on long-term CRI if appropriately managed. | e |
Peri-operative kidney injury and long-term chronic kidney disease following orthotopic heart transplantation in children | 4. The following statements regarding CNI are true EXCEPT: a) CNI cause direct nephrotoxicity. b) CNI nephrotoxicity is dose dependent, but the effect modified by individual genetic susceptibility. c) CNI nephrotoxicity decreases with duration of exposure. d) CNI toxicity has limited potential for reversibility. e) Early high exposure leads to progressive decline in renal function. | c |
Peri-operative kidney injury and long-term chronic kidney disease following orthotopic heart transplantation in children | 5. Strategies to facilitate renal recovery include the following EXCEPT: a) Minimization of CNI dosage. b) Aggressive management of hyperlipidaemia. c) Aggressive management of hypertension. d) Vigilance for adverse drug interactions. e) Aggressive diuresis and chronic effective volume contraction. | e |
Primary hyperoxalurias: diagnosis and treatment | 1. Which of the following is an indication for metabolic screening of lithogenic risk factors, including hyperoxaluria? a) A single renal stone in a 3-year-old boy b) Four episodes of renal colic in a 25-year-old woman c) Renal failure with severely hyperechoic kidneys in a 4-month-old baby d) All of the above | d |
Primary hyperoxalurias: diagnosis and treatment | 2. What is the recommended approach to treating early-stage hyperoxaluria? a) Sodium restriction and urine alkalinization b) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy c) Hyperhydration and citrate supplements d) Restriction of oxalate-rich food | c |
Primary hyperoxalurias: diagnosis and treatment | 3. A 7 year-old boy is referred after having passed two kidney stones. Two older sisters suffered a few episodes of renal colic at a young age, but repeated US scans are negative for stones or nephrocalcinosis. All three siblings have elevated urinary oxalate levels. Family history of ESRD is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) PH1 b) PH2 c) PH3 d) Secondary hyperoxaluria | c |
Primary hyperoxalurias: diagnosis and treatment | 4. Which of the following is not recommended for treating a child with advanced renal failure due to PH? a) Early start of peritoneal dialysis b) Preemptive liver transplantation c) Combined liver and kidney transplantation d) Daily hemodialysis | a |
Viral-associated glomerulopathies in children | 1. Which laboratory method alone is MOST indicative of a direct viral infection of the kidney? A. Elution of viral-specific antibodies from kidney tissue B. Viral culture of urine C. Immunostaining for viral antigen in kidney tissue D. Viral inclusion bodies on electron microscopy of kidney tissue E. PCR of kidney tissue for viral nucleic acid sequences | E |
Viral-associated glomerulopathies in children | 2. What is the most common histopathology seen in patients with nephropathy associated with hepatitis B virus? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis D. Pauci-immune glomerulonephritis E. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis | A |
Viral-associated glomerulopathies in children | 3. Based on the only viral surveillance study that tested the proportion of nephrotic syndrome relapses occurring within days of a viral infection (performed in the early 1980s), how commonly do viral syndromes induce relapse? A. 100 % of the time B. >50 % of the time C. only some of the time D. never | B |
Viral-associated glomerulopathies in children | 4. Besides HIV, there is evidence sufficient to warrant investigation for which viral infection in children with collapsing glomerulopathy? A. Influenza virus B. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Human herpes virus 7 D. Enterovirus E. Cytomegalovirus | E |
Viral-associated glomerulopathies in children | 5. Immunization with heat killed virus or recombinant viral proteins might trigger glomerulopathies via which mechanism? A. Reactivation of latent viral infection B. Lymphoproliferation and cryoglobulinemia C. Non-specific activation of auto-antibody producing cells D. Induction of glomerular giant syncytia-like cells E. Direct toxicity of the adjuvant | C |
Vasculitis: do we know more to classify better? | 1. Which classification criteria were updated by the Chapel Hill Consensus Conference (CHCC) 2012? A. ACR 1990 B. EULAR 2008 C. CHCC 1994 D. DCVAS 2010 E. None of the above | C |
Vasculitis: do we know more to classify better? | 2. Which ANCA-associated vasculitis was not classified as a separate entity prior to CHCC 2012? A. GPA B. MPA C. EGPA D. PAN E. TAK | B |
Vasculitis: do we know more to classify better? | 3. What is a significant distinguishing feature added to the definition of polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) in CHCC 2012? A. Positive ANCA B. Negative ANCA C. Granulomatous inflammation D. Eosinophil-rich inflammation E. None of the above | B |
Vasculitis: do we know more to classify better? | 4. Which of the following vasculitides is most commonly associated with the mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome? A. IgA vasculitis B. Takayasu arteritis C. Kawasaki disease D. Microscopic polyangiitis E. Giant cell arteritis | C |
Vasculitis: do we know more to classify better? | 5. What type of vessels are primarily affected in large-vessel vasculitis (LVV)? A. Capillaries B. Arterioles C. Venules D. Aorta and its branches E. Medium-sized arteries | D |
The long-term management and outcomes of cloacal anomalies | 1. In embryology: a) the cloaca is separated into the urogenital and anorectum between 4 and 6 weeks of gestation; b) the allantois is not related to the primitive cloaca; c) the ureters drain separately from the primitive hindgut; d) in the female the urethra is derived from both the urogenital groove and the urogenital canal. | a |
The long-term management and outcomes of cloacal anomalies | 2. Cloacal anomalies are not associated with the following: a) duplication, including bicornuate and didelphic uterus b) fibular agenesis; c) sacral and spinal anomalies; d) trachea–oesophageal anomalies. | b |
The long-term management and outcomes of cloacal anomalies | 3. Which following statements are true: a) vaginal delivery is not possible with a cloacal anomaly; b) a shorter common channel has been shown to lead to less sexual dysfunction; c) continence rates for both urine and stool fall by 50 % if the channel length is >3 cm; d) following good surgery in infancy, revision rates are<2. | c |
Transplantation in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease: liver and/or kidney? | 1. Liver disease in ARPKD occurs because of: a) Abnormalities in the hepatic diverticulum b) Defective formation of hepatocytes c) Abnormalities in the development of the hepatic arteries d) Ductal plate malformations e) Poor development of the pancreatic bud | d |
Transplantation in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease: liver and/or kidney? | 2. In a patient with ARPKD and advanced kidney failure, combined liver kidney transplant may be considered in association with which one of these conditions? a) ESKD b) Cerebral aneurysms c) Caroli’s disease d) Recurrent UTI e) Uremic cardiomyopathy | c |
Transplantation in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease: liver and/or kidney? | 3. A 4-year-old male with ARPKD has been called for a combined liver kidney transplant. The nephrology team has been requested to do intra-operative CRRT. The purpose of CRRT in this situation would be to: a) Correct coagulation disturbances b) Treat cardiac arrhythmias c) Prevent blood loss d) Maintain lower serum potassium e) Lower serum creatinine | d |
Transplantation in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease: liver and/or kidney? | 4. What percent of children with ARPKD will have both severe kidney and liver disease? a) 90 % b) 80 % c) 10 % d) 2 % e) 40 % | e |
Transplantation in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease: liver and/or kidney? | 5. Diagnostic testing in a child with ARPKD being considered for transplantation will include all except: a) Magnetic resonance pancreatico-cholangiogram b) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy c) Doppler ultrasound of the kidney d) Doppler ultrasound of the portal venous system e) Chest X-ray | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex: the past and the future | 1. Mutational analysis of TSC1 and TSC2 is negative in a patient with a shagreen patch and multiple renal angiomyolipomas measuring 3 cm in diameter. a) The diagnosis of TSC is excluded. b) The diagnosis of TSC is suspected. c) The diagnosis of TSC is definite. d) Mutational analysis should be repeated. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex: the past and the future | 2. Abdominal MRI shows a renal fat-poor lesion measuring 4 cm that has been stable in growth for 2 years. What action do you take? a) Plan kidney-sparing surgery. b) Perform a needle biopsy. c) Plan an abdominal MRI in 6 months’ time. d) Plan an abdominal ultrasound in 6 months’ time. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex: the past and the future | 3. A patient with TSC presents to the emergency unit with a bleeding angiomyolipoma. What action do you take? a) Perform kidney-sparing surgery. b) Perform a total nephrectomy. c) Perform embolization followed by corticosteroid therapy. d) Treat the patient with an mTORi. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex: the past and the future | 4. What are the new recommendations for the preferred surveillance of renal lesions in TSC? a) Renal ultrasound every 1 to 3 years b) CT of the abdomen every 1 to 3 years c) MRI of the abdomen every 1 to 3 years d) Blood pressure and renal function assessment every 1 to 3 years. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex: the past and the future | 5. Everolimus is a potential target treatment for TSC because it a) Inhibits the activation of mTOR b) Inhibits the overactivation of mTOR c) Inhibits the cell cycle d) Inhibits the formation of blood vessels | b |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 1. On which of the following structure(s) do nicotine receptors exist: a. Mesangial cells b. Basement membrane c. Collecting tubules d. Loop of Henle e. None of the above | a |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 2. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective tobacco counseling reported by pediatric nephrologists: a. Lack of training b. Lack of time c. Poor reimbursement d. Parental resistance e. Unfamiliarity with billing | d |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 3. The earliest period of initiating tobacco use among adolescents with CKD reported in the literature is: a. 11th grade b. 6th grade c. 8th grade d. 10th grade e. 9th grade | b |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 4. Second-hand smoke exposure has been associated with which of the following: a. Normal levels of C-reactive protein b. Insignificant cognitive impairment c. Decreased aortic distensibility d. Increased bone mineral density e. Normal blood pressure load | c |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 5. Which of the following is true about the using cotinine measurement as an objective measure of tobacco use: a. It has a long half-life, >36 h b. Metabolism is dependent on renal function c. Cotinine can only be measured in body fluids d. It is recommend for routine clinical use, especially in detecting low levels of exposure e. Cotinine clearance from the body is independent of gender and age | b |
Tobacco and the pediatric chronic kidney disease population | 6. Effective tobacco cessation and avoidance counseling involves which of the following: a. Assessing intention to use tobacco as often as possible b. Participation of all members of the pediatric nephrology team c. Encouraging smoke-free homes and cars for parents who are not interested in quitting d. Conspicuous display in each patient’s medical record of tobacco status e. All of the above | e |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 1. Which answer is wrong? Therapeutic drug-monitoring is reasonable when: A) There is an association of drug concentration and pharmacological effect B) There are drug–drug interactions C) The therapeutic window is wide D) There is no or inadequate response to standard dose E) Side-effects appear | C |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 2. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Pharmacokinetic monitoring stands for a concentration–time relationship B) Pharmacodynamic monitoring stands for a concentration–time relationship C) Pharmacogenetic monitoring is highly variable over a patient’s life D) The area under the concentration–time curve (AUC) can be exactly calculated by simply adding trough level and peak concentration E) C0 values are sometimes higher than Cmax values | A |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 3. Which of the following is correct? A) Glucocorticoids are well suited for pharmacokinetic drug monitoring B) Absorption, distribution, metabolism and clearance of a drug do not change with a child’s development C) Inter-individual variability of plasma concentrations is not an argument for TDM D) Generic formulations of a drug may not have identical PK as the original formulation E) Trough levels are not a surrogate marker for AUC | D |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Clearance of tacrolimus depends on age, time after transplant and liver function B) Tacrolimus is extensively bound to erythrocytes C) Despite limitations in C2 monitoring of CsA may be helpful to detect overexposed patients D) There is a PK/PD relationship of MPA AUC values and the risk of acute rejection episodes in the initial period after renal transplantation E) MPA exposure hardly shows any inter-patient variability | E |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 5. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Antacids do influence MPA exposure B) TDM of everolimus is not recommended because it has no potential to improve efficacy and to reduce toxicity C) For TDM using pharmacokinetic parameters it is important to know whether the drug has been taken after a meal or in a fasting state D) When TDM is conducted using pharmacokinetic parameters the drug’s concentration is measured in the desired biological matrix E) Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase may serve as a biomarker for MPA efficacy | B |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 1. Which answer is wrong? Therapeutic drug-monitoring is reasonable when: A) There is an association of drug concentration and pharmacological effect B) There are drug–drug interactions C) The therapeutic window is wide D) There is no or inadequate response to standard dose E) Side-effects appear | C |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 2. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Pharmacokinetic monitoring stands for a concentration–time relationship B) Pharmacodynamic monitoring stands for a concentration–time relationship C) Pharmacogenetic monitoring is highly variable over a patient’s life D) The area under the concentration–time curve (AUC) can be exactly calculated by simply adding trough level and peak concentration E) C0 values are sometimes higher than Cmax values | A |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 3. Which of the following is correct? A) Glucocorticoids are well suited for pharmacokinetic drug monitoring B) Absorption, distribution, metabolism and clearance of a drug do not change with a child’s development C) Inter-individual variability of plasma concentrations is not an argument for TDM D) Generic formulations of a drug may not have identical PK as the original formulation E) Trough levels are not a surrogate marker for AUC | D |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Clearance of tacrolimus depends on age, time after transplant and liver function B) Tacrolimus is extensively bound to erythrocytes C) Despite limitations in C2 monitoring of CsA may be helpful to detect overexposed patients D) There is a PK/PD relationship of MPA AUC values and the risk of acute rejection episodes in the initial period after renal transplantation E) MPA exposure hardly shows any inter-patient variability | E |
Therapeutic drug monitoring in pediatric renal transplantation | 5. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Antacids do influence MPA exposure B) TDM of everolimus is not recommended because it has no potential to improve efficacy and to reduce toxicity C) For TDM using pharmacokinetic parameters it is important to know whether the drug has been taken after a meal or in a fasting state D) When TDM is conducted using pharmacokinetic parameters the drug’s concentration is measured in the desired biological matrix E) Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase may serve as a biomarker for MPA efficacy | B |
Tuberous sclerosis complex the past and the future | 1. Mutational analysis of TSC1 and TSC2 is negative in a patient with a shagreen patch and multiple renal angiomyolipomas measuring 3 cm in diameter. a) The diagnosis of TSC is excluded. b) The diagnosis of TSC is suspected. c) The diagnosis of TSC is definite. d) Mutational analysis should be repeated. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex the past and the future | 2. Abdominal MRI shows a renal fat-poor lesion measuring 4 cm that has been stable in growth for 2 years. What action do you take? a) Plan kidney-sparing surgery. b) Perform a needle biopsy. c) Plan an abdominal MRI in 6 months’ time. d) Plan an abdominal ultrasound in 6 months’ time. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex the past and the future | 3. A patient with TSC presents to the emergency unit with a bleeding angiomyolipoma. What action do you take? a) Perform kidney-sparing surgery. b) Perform a total nephrectomy. c) Perform embolization followed by corticosteroid therapy. d) Treat the patient with an mTORi. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex the past and the future | 4. What are the new recommendations for the preferred surveillance of renal lesions in TSC? a) Renal ultrasound every 1 to 3 years b) CT of the abdomen every 1 to 3 years c) MRI of the abdomen every 1 to 3 years d) Blood pressure and renal function assessment every 1 to 3 years. | c |
Tuberous sclerosis complex the past and the future | 5. Everolimus is a potential target treatment for TSC because it a) Inhibits the activation of mTOR b) Inhibits the overactivation of mTOR c) Inhibits the cell cycle d) Inhibits the formation of blood vessels | b |
A systems-based approach to managing blood pressure in children following kidney transplantation | 2. Nonphysician providers can play important roles in BP management including: a. Recognizing abnormal BP b. Managing medications according to protocol c. Providing self-management support to patients d. Coordinating close follow-up e. All of the above | e |
A systems-based approach to managing blood pressure in children following kidney transplantation | 3. Which one of the following is the most frequent pattern of abnormal BP in children with kidney transplantation? a. Diurnal hypertension b. Nocturnal hypertension c. White-coat hypertension d. Combined diurnal and nocturnal hypertension | b |
A systems-based approach to managing blood pressure in children following kidney transplantation | 4. Self-management of BP is most effective if it includes: a. Education b. Frequent interaction with nonphysician providers for BP follow-up c. Behavior modification strategies d. Protocol-based medication management e. All of the above | e |
A systems-based approach to managing blood pressure in children following kidney transplantation | 5. Which of the following statements is true? a. Controlling BP is more important than the selection of any specific agent b. ACE inhibitors are preferable in the presence of proteinuria c. Minimizing steroids is shown to improve BP control d. Evidence-based standardized treatment protocols improve BP control e. All of the above | e |
Abnormalities of vascular structure and function in pediatric hypertension | 1. Which vascular parameter predicted future CV events in the Framingham Heart Study? a) cIMT b) PWV c) AIx d) FMD e) Venous plethysmography | b |
Abnormalities of vascular structure and function in pediatric hypertension | 2. Adolescents with chronic renal insufficiency have a thinner carotid artery than patients requiring dialysis. a) True b) False | a |
Abnormalities of vascular structure and function in pediatric hypertension | 3. Brachial flow-mediated dilation is a robust measure of arterial stiffness. a) True b) False | b |
Abnormalities of vascular structure and function in pediatric hypertension | 4. Which measure of arterial stiffness can be calculated from 24-h ambulatory BP recordings? a) AIx b) FMD c) AASI d) LFD | c |
Abnormalities of vascular structure and function in pediatric hypertension | 5. Renal transplant has led to improvement in which of the following vascular parameters? a) cIMT b) LFD c) AIx d) FMD e) Venous plethysmography | a |
Acute pyelonephritis in children | 1. Which children are at major risk of UTIs and pyelonephritis? a) Children undergoing immunosuppressive therapy b) No risk factors can be associated with fUTI in children c) Children with urinary tract abnormalities d) Neonates | c |
Acute pyelonephritis in children | 2. Which are the best predictors of complications in infants (<90 days) with AP? a) The presence of fever b) High fever and normal C-reactive protein value c) No markers d) Bad clinical condition, an increase in C-reactive protein, creatinine, and procalcitonin levels but no fever | d |
Acute pyelonephritis in children | 3. Which diagnostic approach do the recent guidelines suggest after a first fUTI? a) Top-down approach b) Performing a US, while VCUG and DMSA scanning for selected at-risk children c) Complete imaging work-up (US, DMSA scan, and VCUG) in all children d) No imaging | b |
Acute pyelonephritis in children | 4. What is the risk of chronic kidney damage in children following a fUTI? a) < 0.5 % b) 5 % c) 10 % d) >20 % | a |
Acute pyelonephritis in children | 5. What is the best treatment of a well-appearing infant >2 months of age with AP, according to the most recent guidelines? a) Parental antibiotic treatment and hospitalization b) Oral antibiotic treatment for 10–14 days c) Initial oral antibiotic followed by parenteral treatment d) Initial parenteral antibiotic followed by oral treatment | b |
Assessment of kidney function in preterm infants lifelong implications | 1. The human kidney forms from which sequential developmental stages? a. Pronephros, metanephros, mesonephros b. Antinephros, neonephros, humanonephros c. Metanephros, mesonephros, pronephros d. Pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros | d |
Assessment of kidney function in preterm infants lifelong implications | 2. What is considered the gold standard for measurement of GFR in infants? a. Iohexol b. Inulin c. Creatinine clearance d. Para-aminohippurate clearance | b |
Assessment of kidney function in preterm infants lifelong implications | 3. An endogenous marker of GFR must fulfill all of the following criteria except it: a. Must be freely filtered by the glomerular barrier b. Must be secreted and reabsorbed by the renal tubule at an equal rate c. Must be produced at a constant rate d. Must not be protein bound | b |
Assessment of kidney function in preterm infants lifelong implications | 4. The nephron endowment is determined by which of the following: a. Intra-uterine environment b. Genetic polymorphisms of intra-uterine drivers of nephrogenesis c. Prematurity and post-natal completion of nephrogenesis d. All of the above | d |
Assessment of kidney function in preterm infants lifelong implications | 5. Which of the following subjects does not have oligonephronia? a. Six-year-old born 36 weeks preterm with a serum creatinine of 0.4 mg/dl and a TKV/m2=160 ml/m2 b. Fifteen-year-old obese male with unilateral renal agenesis with a TKVof 135 ml and a BSA=2.00 m2 c. Three-year-old born extremely preterm and low birth weight with serum creatinine of 0.6 mg/dl and a TKV/m2=85 ml/m2 d. Six-year-old born at term with IUGR who is growing well along the 15th percentile for length and the 50th percentile for weight. | a |
Autophagy in renal diseases | 1. Which of the following compounds does NOT induce autophagy: a. mTOR inhibitor b. Metformin c. Curcumin d. Chloroquine e. Caspase inhibitor f. Cyclin-dependant kinase inhibitors g. Triptolide | e |
Autophagy in renal diseases | 2. One of the following sentences is incorrect: a. Macroautophagy is a degradation system for long-lived cytoplasmic proteins and dysfunctional organelles b. Microautophagy is a selective degradative process. It involves engulfment of cytoplasmic cargo by direct invagination of the lysosomal membranes into autophagic tubes c. The unique features of chaperone-mediated autophagy are the selectivity on the degraded proteins and the direct translocation of substrate proteins across the lysosomal membrane without the requirement for the formation of additional vesicles d. Autophagy is a major protective mechanism allowing cell survival in response to multiple stressors and helping organisms to defend against degenerative, inflammatory, infectious, and neoplastic diseases | b |
Autophagy in renal diseases | 3. What is the significance of increased LC3-II in a sample? a. Autophagy stimulation b. Autophagy suppression c. Suppressed autophagic flux d. Enhanced autophagic flux e. Either autophagy stimulation or suppressed autophagic flux f. Either autophagy stimulation or enhanced autophagic flux | e |
Autophagy in renal diseases | 4. How do podocytes and tubular cells differ in autophagy dynamics? a. Podocytes are more dependent on CMA than tubular cells b. Podocytes show no sign of macroautophagy in normal physiological conditions c. Tubular cells are more dependent on CMA than podocytes d. Tubular cells show no signs of macroautophagy in starved conditions | c |
Autophagy in renal diseases | 5. How do autophagy and apoptosis interconnect? (2 answers are correct) a. Autophagy degrades the pro-apoptotic caspases b. Caspases cleave and inactivate different autophagy proteins c. Autophagy degrades damaged mitochondria, a source of apoptosis initiation via the intrinsic pathway d. Pro-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2 family proteins Bax and Bak bind and inhibit Beclin1, thereby preventing autophagy | b |
Blood pressure assessment from BP level to BP variability | 1. Oscillometric BP device: a) Measures both SBP and DBP directly b) Only SBP is measured directly, DBP is calculated c) MAP and DBP are measured; SBP is calculated by the BP device d) Only MAP is measured directly, whereas SBP and DBP are calculated | d |
Blood pressure assessment from BP level to BP variability | 2. There is evidence that left ventricular hypertrophy and subclinical arterial injury are significantly correlated with BP values assessed by: a) Office measurements b) Home BP measurements and office measurements c) Both office and ambulatory BP monitoring d) ABPM only | d |
Blood pressure assessment from BP level to BP variability | 3. Long-term BP variability can be assessed using: a) Electrocardiogram tracing b) ABPM monitoring (performed only once) c) Clinic-to-clinic or home BP monitoring d) Beat-to-beat BP variability | c |
Blood pressure assessment from BP level to BP variability | 4. SD SBP assessed by ABPM: a) Indicates amplitude of BP b) SD >10 mmHg indicates physiological nocturnal dipping c) Is a marker of BP variability d) Is a measure of acrophase | c |
Blood pressure assessment from BP level to BP variability | 5. Acrophase is: a) The height of the amplitude of BP circadian rhythm b) Time from midnight to the highest value of BP in BP rhythm c) The measure of nocturnal dipping d) Measured from home BP readings | b |
Diuretics in the treatment of hypertension | 1. In children and adults with hypertension, which of the following antihypertensive agents are considered appropriate for first-line pharmacologic therapy? a) ACE inhibitors b) ARBs c) Calcium channel blockers d) Thiazide diuretics e) All of the above | e |
Diuretics in the treatment of hypertension | 2. Which of the following thiazide diuretics is associated with a greater improvement in the 24-h blood pressure profile? a) Chlorthalidone b) Hydrochlorothiazide c) Chlorothiazide d) Metolazone | a |