This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous (Obs), Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
[{'content': 'A G2P1L1 lady with previous LSCS comes at 37 weeks, with BP 150/100 mm Hg. CTG is reactive and her P/V findings are os closed, cervix partially effaced, soft, midline, Vx(-2) and pelvis is adequate. Urine protein by dipstick is (1+). What is the management? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Start antihypertensives and follow up after 1 week, B. Induction of labor, C. Cesarean section, D. Do not start antihypertensives but follow up after 1 week', 'role': 'user'}, {'content': 'Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. B. Induction of laborPregnancies complicated by pre-eclampsia should be terminated beyond 37 completed weeks if BP is controlled. This is preferably done by induction of labor, h/o previous cesarean section is not an absolute indication for repeat cesarean in such circumstances.', 'role': 'assistant'}]