This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
[{'content': "A 35 year old female presented with post coital bleeding. Next step of management is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pap smear and colposcopy, B. Visual inspection with acetowhite, C. Visual inspection with lugol's iodine, D. Colposcopy directed biopsy", 'role': 'user'}, {'content': 'Answer: A \nExplanation: Postcoital bleeding (PCB) has many causes, including vaginitis, cervicitis, cervical dysplasia and malignancy, uterine lesions, and pregnancy. Some women with postcoital bleeding may have pathologic lesions identified at colposcopic evaluation that had been missed by Pap smear screening. Thus, colposcopic examination is considered for women with unexplained postcoital bleeding. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 8. Abnormal Uterine Bleeding. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e.', 'role': 'assistant'}]