This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine
[{'content': 'Young women with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. MRI shows a tumor of < 10mm diameter in the pituitary fossa. Treatment is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Hormonal therapy for withdrawal bleeding, B. Radiotherapy, C. Chemotherapy, D. Bromocriptine', 'role': 'user'}, {'content': 'Answer: D \nExplanation: A young woman with Amenorrhoea-galactorrhoea syndrome demonstrating a tumour of <10 mm in diameter in pituitary fossa confirms the diagnosis of prolactinoma.\nPituitary adenoma\n\n< 10 mm in diameter→ Microadenome\n> 10\xa0mm in diameter.→\xa0Macroadenoma\nREMEMBER\n\xa0\nMass effects of pituitary adenoma can only be seen when they are greater than 10 mm.\nT/T of prolactinoma.\nThe t/t of choice for prolactinomas is bromocriptine.\n\nBromocriptine is a dopamine agonists which inhibits the secretion and synthesis of prolactin.\nUnder the influence of Bromocriptine, the tumours decreases in size within days, the prolactin level falls, and the visual field defect improves.\nThe surgical tit is\n\nTransphenoidal microsurgical approach with an attempt at total removal of the tumours.\nIndications for surgery in case of prolactinoma. \n\nDopamine resistance or intolerance.\nPresence of invasive macroadenoma with compromised vision that fails to improve rapidly after drug treatment. Prolactin, normalization is seen in 70% microadenomas after resection, but only 30% of macroderma can be successfully resected.', 'role': 'assistant'}]