This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics
[{'content': "A previously healthy infant presents with a recurrent episode of abdominal pain. The mother says that the child has been passing an altered stool after episodes of pain, but gives no history of vomiting or bleeding per diagnosis -rectum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis – \nSelect and explain. \nA. Rectal Polys, B. Intussuception, C. Meckel's Diverticulum, D. Necrotizing Enterocolitis", 'role': 'user'}, {'content': 'Answer: B \nExplanation: The infant in question has:\n\n\nRecurrent episodes of abdominal pain\nPassing of altered stools after episodes of pain\nNo vomiting or bleeding per rectum.\n\n\nMost common presentation of rectal polyps and Meckel\'s diverticulum is painless rectal bleeding (option a & c are ruled out)\nNecrotizing enterocolitis is seen in premature infants and is manifested in neonatal period. Symptoms progress from abdominal distension, vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding to passage of grossly bloody stool and features of shock (option d is excluded)\nNow we are left with intussusception. Most common presentation is recurrent abdominal pain (Paroxysmal clock pain offer severe).\nThe absence of history of bleeding per rectum is creating some confusion here.\nHowever, the altered stool should raise the suspicion of intussusception because intussusception typically presents with "currant jelly- stool" (altered stool) representing a mixture of blood, mucus and stool.\nSo, amongst the given options, best answer is intussusception.', 'role': 'assistant'}]