This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Orthopaedics
[{'content': 'A 6-year old child has an accident and had # elbow, after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness in the ulnar side of the finger, the fracture is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Supracondylar # humerus, B. Lateral condylar # humerus, C. Olecranon #, D. Dislocation of elbow', 'role': 'user'}, {'content': "Answer: B \nExplanation: This child has : -\n\n\nFracture around elbow\nTingling and numbness in ulnar nerve distribution after 4 years.\n\n\nThat means the child has developed tardy ulnar nerve palsy (late onset ulnar nerve palsy).\nNow you must be thinking option 'a, b & d' all can cause tardy ulnar nerve palsy, then why the answer is '13'.\nHere the age of the child, at the time of fracture, is 6 years.\nElbow dislocation occurs usually in adults and uncommon in children.\nThe age matches with both supracondylar fracture (5-7 years) and fracture lateral condyle (5-10 years).\nHowever, Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is more common in malunited fracture lateral condyle (cubitus valgus) and occurs only occasionally in malunited supracondylar fracture (cubitus varus).\nTherefore, answer of choice here is fracture lateral condyle humerus.", 'role': 'assistant'}]