This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
[{'content': "A 35-year-old mother of two children, aged 5 and 6 years has had amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea for the past 12 months. Her serum prolactin level is 450 ng/ml. The most likely diagnosis is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Menopause, B. Pituitary adenoma, C. Intraductal papilloma of the breasts, D. Sheehan's syndrome", 'role': 'user'}, {'content': "Answer: B \nExplanation: In patients with both galactorrhea and amenorrhea, approximately two-thirds will have hyperprolactinemia; of those, approximately one-third will have a pituitary adenoma. A prolactin level as high as 150-200 ng/mL is almost always due to a pituitary adenoma. Sheehan's syndrome is characterised by amenorrhea and lactation failure (not galactorrhea)", 'role': 'assistant'}]