This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics
[{'content': 'A 5 year old boy comes with overnight petechial spots. 2 weeks back he had history of abdominal pain and no hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Acute lymphatic leukemia, B. Acute viral infection, C. Aplastic anemia, D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura', 'role': 'user'}, {'content': 'Answer: D \nExplanation: Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is the most common bleeding disorder of childhood. It occurs most frequently in children aged 2-5 years and often follows infection with viruses, such as rubella, varicella, measles, parvovirus, influenza, EBV, or acute and chronic HIV. Onset of ITP is usually acute, with the appearance of multiple petechiae and ecchymoses. No other physical findings are usually present. Ref: Ambruso D.R., Hays T., Goldenberg N.A., Nuss R. (2012). Chapter 30. Hematologic Disorders. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.', 'role': 'assistant'}]