A 23-year old patient diagnosed with stage IA malignant ovarian germ cell tumor. Which of the following would be the standard treatment-: (A) Unilateral oophorectomy, (B) Bilateral oophorectomy and hysterectomy, (C) Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy, (D) Ovarian biopsy followed by chemotherapy
Answer is C. Approximately 50% to 70% of Germ cell malignancies are stage 1. Since she is a young patient, Feility-sparing surgery ( USO ) is done Almost All germ cell malignancies require Postoperative Chemotherapy.