A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:-: (A) Antipsychotics and antidepressants, (B) Antidepressants and mood stabilizers, (C) Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers, (D) Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
Answer is B. The patient had a manic episode in past and currently he is in severe depression. The complete diagnosis would be bipolar disorder. hence, this patient should receive both mood stabilizers and antidepressants.