A previously healthy 45 yrs old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain and weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is TRUE?: (A) Immediate treatment should include analgesics muscle relaxants and back strengthening exercises, (B) The appearance of the foot drop indicate early surgical intervention, (C) If the neurological sign resolve within 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected Lumbar veebra, (D) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, Lumbar laminectomy and exscision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done
Answer is B. This seems to be a case of interveebral disk prolapse at L4 - L5 level involving L5 root. Here since there is muscular weakness, surgical intervention is indicated. Ref: Schwaz Pretest Surgery, Q. 720