A 40 yr old female patient present with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surrounjdings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient:: (A) No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss, (B) SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs LI, (C) Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs, (D) Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs
Answer is C. C i.e. Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs