A 32-year-old female with diabetes visits antenatal clinic at 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She has not been on any treatment. What is the first step in the management?: (A) Start Insulin, (B) Start diet modification, (C) Perform HbA1c, (D) Perform PPBs
Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Perform HbA1cThe first step is to do HbA1c to check her glucose status and assess the risk of fetal congenital malformations.