A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of-: (A) Antipsychotics and antidepressants, (B) Antidepressants and mood stabilizers, (C) Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers, (D) Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
Answer is B. This is acute bipolar depression (depressive episode of bipolar disorder). Treatment include mood stabilizer along with antidepressants.