A 20 year old primigravida is admitted with-term pregnancy and labour pains. At 4.00 AM she goes into active labor. Membrance rupture during p/v exmination showing clear liquor. A repeat p/v examination after 4 hours of good uretine contractions reveals cervical dilataion of 5 cm. What should be the next step in management :: (A) Reassess after 4 hours, (B) Immediate cesarean section, (C) Oxytocin drip, (D) Reassess for occipitoposterior position and cephalopelvic dispropoion
Answer is D. Reassess for occipitoposterior position and cephalopelvic dispropoion