62-year-old woman has postmenopausal bleeding after 13 years of menopause. She has hypeension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?: (A) Chemotherapy, (B) Cone biopsy, (C) A Dilatation and Curretage, (D) Hysterectomy
Answer is D. The patient has been diagnosed endometrial adenocarcinoma on biopsy The next step is to perform a staging laparotomy which involves the following Total abdominal hysterctomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Peritoneal cytology Omentectomy + appendicectomy + peritoneal biopsy: for non endometroid cancer Selective pelvic and para aoic lymphadenectomy