A 30-year-old male presents to OPD with erectile dysfunction. Basic screening evaluation is unremarkable. The next step in evaluation/management should be:: (A) Oral sildenafil titrate trial, (B) Cavernosometry, (C) Doppler study, (D) Neurological testing
Answer is A. In a young patient with negative screening, the most likely cause of erectile dysfunction is psychogenic erectile dysfunction. He should be given a trial of oral sildenafil. Alternatively, other drugs can also be used like Oral Phentolamine ,Alprostadil (intraurethral/ injectable) Psychotherapy can also be given specifically Dual Sex therapy ( Masters and johnson technique): In this couple is treated as a unit.