A 28 year old woman comes to you with complaints of uterine prolapse. She has not completed her family. Which of the following is not a suitable treatment option for her?: (A) Abdominal Cervicopexy, (B) Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation, (C) Le - fo's repair, (D) Khan's abdominal sling operation
Answer is C. Le - fo's repair is used in very elderly postmenopausal patients with high medical risk or high degree of prolapsed. It shouldn't be done in a menstruating woman or a woman with active sexual life. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Page 267.