A 23-year old patient diagnosed with stage IA malignant ovarian germ cell tumour. Which of the following would be the standard treatment? NOT RELATED- GYN: (A) Unilateral oophorectomy, (B) Bilateral oophorectomy and hysterectomy, (C) Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy, (D) Ovarian biopsy followed by chemotherapy
Answer is C. Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy