A 40-year-old man is seen for an insurance assessment. He has no past medical history and feels well. His compete physical examination is normal. His biochemistry, complete blood count (CBC), ECG, and urinalysis are also normal. His CXR is abnormal and presented in Figure given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) hamartoma of the lung, (B) tuberculous granuloma of the left apex, (C) osteochondroma of the left 4th rib, (D) bronchogenic carcinoma
Answer is B. There is a calcified nodule in the left apex. Obviously, a calcified tuberculous granuloma is the most common lesion. This may be from reinfection tuberculosis, where its preference for the apicoposterior segment is well-known. It is also possible that it may be a calcified Ghon's lesion.