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[ { "content": "The daily requirement of Vitamin C is- \nSelect and explain. \nA. 40mg., B. Ming, C. 200 mg, D. 500 mg", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., 40 mgo The daily requirement for vitamin C --> 40 mg.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Diseases caused by coxsackievirus are all except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Herpangina, B. Hand foot and mouth disease, C. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis, D. Herpes", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: In oral cavity CV causes:\n\nHerpangina\nHand foot and mouth disease\nAcute lymphonodular pharyngitis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True about Wilsons disease is? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Increased serum ceruloplasmin, B. Decreased liver copper, C. Increased urinary copper excretion, D. Decreased urine copper excretion", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased urinary copper excretion", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The chyle from intestine is rich with chylomicrons. Which of the following form the protein core of chylomicrons? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Triglyceride only, B. Triglyceride + cholesterol, C. Triglyceride + cholesterol + phospholipid, D. Only cholesterol", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The triacylglycerol, cholesterol ester and phospholipid molecules along with apoproteins B48, and apo-A are incorporated into chylomicrons. Four major groups of lipoproteins: Chylomicrons, derived from intestinal absorption of triacylglycerol and other lipids. Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL, or pre--lipoproteins), derived from the liver for the expo of triacylglycerol. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL, or -lipoproteins), representing a final stage in the catabolism of VLDL. High-density lipoproteins (HDL, or -lipoproteins), involved in cholesterol transpo and also in VLDL and chylomicron metabolism. Triacylglycerol is the predominant lipid in chylomicrons and VLDL, whereas cholesterol and phospholipid are the predominant lipids in LDL and HDL, respectively. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is known as monkey fever - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Plague, B. KFD, C. Yellow fever, D. Trench fever", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., KFDo White disease- AIDSo Poverty disease - Cholerao Hundred day cough: Pertussis (Whooping cough)o 5 day fever: Trench fevero 8th day disease: Tetanuso Black sickness: Kala azaro Black death: Plagueo Cerebrospinal fever: Meningococcal meningitiso Kochs phenomenon: Tuberculosiso Hansen s disease: Leprosyo Break-bone fever: Dengueo Slim disease: AIDSo Monkey fever: KFDo First disease/ Rubeolla: Measleso Second disease: Scarlet fevero Third disease/ German Measles: Rubellao Fourth disease: Duke's diseaseo Fifth disease: Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus)o Sixth disease/Baby Measles/3-day fever: Exanthem subitum/ Roseola infantumo Barometer of Social Welfare (India): Tuberculosiso Father of Public Health: Cholerao River Blindness: Onchocerciasis", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The shortest root on a maxillary first molar is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Mesio-buccal, B. Disto-buccal, C. Lingual, D. All are of equal length", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Antiparkinsonian drug activating D2 receptors directly \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pramipixole, B. Entacapone, C. Benserazide, D. Selegiline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Direct D2 activators are bromcriptine , pergolide,pramipexole,ropinirole. ENtcapone and tolcapone are COMT inhibitors and selegiline is a MAO inbibitor used in PD.In PD there is decrease of dopamine in the substansia nigra. Ref:KDT 6/e p419", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Treatment of atropine toxicity - \nSelect and explain. \nA. 2-pralidoxime, B. Naloxone, C. Flumazenil, D. Physostigmine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Physostigmine o Atropine blocks cholinergic receptors. So, for atropine overdose, we require a drug that increases cholinergic action. o Physostigmine increases the concentration of Ach. Physostigmine counteracts central (because it crosses BBB) as well as peripheral symptoms of atropine toxicity (other anticholinesterases like neostigmine and pyridostigmine counteract only peripheral symptoms as they cannot cross BBB) --> Physostigmine is the DOC.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "76 year old man presents with lytic lesion in the vebrae. X-Ray skull showed multiple punched out lesions. The diagnosis is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Metastasis, B. Multiple myeloma, C. Osteomalacia, D. Hyperparathyroidism", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: B i.e. Multiple Myeloma Old age, male sex & veebral involvement (lytic lesion) indicate towards diagnosis of Metastasis & Multiple myeloma. But Absence of primary and characterestic multiple punched out lesions on X-Ray skull is diagnostic of Multiple myelomaQ. Osteomalacia: - Looser's zoned or PseudofractureQ (Hallmark) Mnemonic - \"Losse Pencilin Fish\" - Pencilling-in- of veebral bodies - Cod - fish (marked biconvex) veebraeQ Hyper parathyroidism : - Brown tumorQ Mnemonic - - Sub periosteal ErosionQ \"Brown Erosed Salt Basket\" - Salt & Pepper or Pepper - Pot skullQ - Basket work appearanceQ of coex Renal Osteodystrophy(d/t CRF): - It combines findings of ostemalacia, hyperparathyroidism and bone sclerosis - Osteomalacia lit Looser's zone - Hyper PTH 1/t Subperiosteal Erosion of bone - Osteosclerosis Vt Rugger Jersey spineQ (End plate sclerosis with alternating bands of radiolucency) In children with CRF, the combination of rickets & hyperparathyroidism leads to Rotting Fence Post appearance.Q Multiple Myeloma: Two cardinal features are: Generalized reduction of bone density (Osteopenia) Localized areas of radiolucency (Punched outQ/Rain drop lesionsQ) in red marrow areas i.e. axial skeletal - spine & skull. In multiple Myeloma lytic lesions of spine are usually associated with some collapse & soft tissue extension i.e. paraveebral soft tissue shadows (differentiation from Metastasis). Differentiation from inflamatory lesions can be made as the interveebral disc space & aicular surfaces are not affected.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All the following increase insulin release except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Rosiglitazone, B. Nateglinide, C. Glipizide, D. Exenatide", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Glitazones -insulin sensitizers.they will not produce insulin from beta cells.a cells of pancreas There are insulin sensitizers and insulin secretogogues. insulin secretogogues increase the insulin secretion from the beta cells of pancreas.where as insulin sensitizres help in secsitizing the tissue to already present insulin. which include GLP 1 analogue,glinides,sulfonylureas. Ref: Katzung 12th ed.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Observe the following curves. What will happen to Sensitivity and Specificity if curve changes from Blue to Red? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Both Sensitivity & Specificity increase, B. Both Sensitivity & Specificity decrease, C. Sensitivity increase & Specificity decrease, D. Sensitivity decrease & Specificity increase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: (a) Both Sensitivity & Specificity increase* If Blue color curve changes to Red color curve (see Photograph in Question), then- FN will reduce, Sensitivity will increase (see Photograph given in Answer)- FP will reduce, Specificity will increase (see Photograph given in Answer).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Vegetable fat differs from animal oil in being – \nSelect and explain. \nA. More saturated, B. More stable, C. More atherosclerotic, D. Contains less fat soluble vitamin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Vegetable fats are more unsaturated than animal fats, PUFA is found mostly in vegetable fats.\n\nHowever, there are exceptions, as for example coconut and palm oils although vegetable oils, have an extremely high percentage of saturated fatty acids. On the other hand , fish oil contain good percentage of PUFA\n\nVegetable fats are less stable.\n\nThey contain high no. of unsaturated bonds which undergo spontaneous oxidation at the double bond forming aldehydes,ketones and resins.\n\nVegetable fats are less atherosclerotic;\n\nIn fact PUFA have a favorable effect on serum lipid profile. They decrease LDL and increase HDL ( good cholesterol ).Essential fatty acids ( high percentage in vegetable fat) decrease the platelet adhesiveness.\n\nVegetable fat contains less fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E & K vitamin).\n\nFor this reason Vanaspati Ghee is fortified with vit. A *& D by government regulation (DALDA)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Sympathetic stimulation increases blood flow except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Skin, B. Coronary circulation, C. Cerebral, D. Renal", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. a. Skin Sympathetic stimulation decreases blood flow in skin. Sympathetic Stimulation Stimulation of sympathetic fibers causes vasoconstriction but it is not impoant, as the vasocontricor system is not well developed in cerebral vascular bed. Sympathetic stimulation increases myocardial blood flow through an increased metabolic demand and a predominance of beta-receptor activation.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Amount of blood loss in class II circulatory failure/Haemorrhagic shock? \nSelect and explain. \nA. <15%, B. 15-30%, C. 30-40%, D. >40%", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: -Hemorrhagic shock has been divided into 4 classes according to ATLS course. Class 1 Class2 Class 3 Class 4 Blood volume lost as % of total < 15 % 15-30% 30-40% >40% Four Classes of Hemorrhagic Shock (According to the ATLS course) Parameter I II III IV Blood loss (%) 0-15% 15-30 30-40 >40 CNS Slightly anxious Mildly anxious Anxious or confused Confused or lethargic Pulse (beats/ min) <100 >100 >120 >140 Blood pressure Normal Normal Decreased Decreased Pulse pressure Normal Decreased Decreased Decreased Respiratory rate 14-20/min 20-30/min 30-40/min >35/min Urine (mL/hr) >30 20-30 5-15 Negligible Fluid Crystalloid Crystalloid Crystalloid + blood Crystalloid + blood Base deficit 0 to -2 mEq/L -2 to 6 mEq/L -6 to -10 mEq/L -10 mEq/L or less -Please refer to the above table as many such questions are asked from the table.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "An adult hypeensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache and vomiting. On examination, there is marked neck rigidity and no focal neurological deficit was found. The symptoms are most likely due to: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage, B. Ischemic stroke, C. Meningitis, D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Most likely diagnosis in an adult hypeensive male with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting with marked neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit would be subarachnoid hemorrhage.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Down's syndrome is due to: \nSelect and explain. \nA. 5/12 translocation, B. 18 trisomy, C. 21trisomy, D. 14/21 trisomy", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans: c (21 trisomy)Ref: Nelson Pediatrics, 19th ed., Pg. 384Trisomy 21, Down's syndrome seen in 1/600-800 births. Please note the clinical features which are often asked Hypotonia Dysplasia of the pelvis Flat face, cardiac malformations Speckled irises Simian crease (Brushfield spots) Varying degrees of mental Short, broad hands and growth retardation Hypoplasia of middle Upward slanted palpebral phalanx of 5th finger fissures and epicanthic folds Intestinal atresia, and high arched palate", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Man is the only reservoir for \nSelect and explain. \nA. Salmonella, B. Campylobacter jejuni, C. E. histolytica, D. Y. enterocolitica", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Entamoeba histolytica is predominantly found in primates (including humans) and occasionally in dogs, cats, cattle and pigs. \nThe parasite has a worldwide distribution and is prevalent in tropical and subtropical countries.\nSalmonella - The most common are animal reservoirs are chickens, turkeys, pigs, and cows; dozens of other domestic and wild animals also harbor these organisms.\nCampylobacter jejuni - C. jejuni is carried by most of these animal reservoirs and is the predominant species isolated from chickens and cattle.\nY. Enterocolitica - dogs, sheep, wild rodents, and environmental water may also be a reservoir of pathogenic Y. enterocolitica strains.\nRef : http://parasite.org.au/para-site/text/entamoeba-text.html#:~:text=Host%20range%3A%20Entamoeba%20histolytica%20is,in%20tropical%20and%20subtropical%20countries", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All of the following effects can occur if vagus is stimulated, except: March 2009 \nSelect and explain. \nA. Reduction in blood pressure, B. Increase in secretions of the intestine, C. Intestinal musculature constriction, D. Bronchial musculature relaxation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. D: Bronchial musculature relaxation", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Denosumab is used in:- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Osteomalacia, B. Osteoahritis, C. Osteoporosis, D. Osteosarcoma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANK - ligand which inhibits binding to RANK receptor and inhibits the activation of osteoclasts and inhibits bone resorption so it is used in treatment of Osteoporosis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "When information memorized afterward is interfered by the information learned earlier, it is called : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Retroactive inhibition, B. Proactive inhibition, C. Simple inhibition, D. Inhibition", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Earlier learning interferes with retrieval of new information →  proactive interference.\nNewly acquired information interferes with the retrieval of previously learnt information → retroactive inhibition.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Viral Conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by \nSelect and explain. \nA. Herpes simplex, B. Enterovirus, C. Adenovirus, D. Coxackie A Virus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Viral Conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by Adenovirus.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True for Hodgkin's stage IA is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Chemotherapy is best, B. Radiotherapy is best, C. Total radiation therapy is best treatment, D. Fever and wt loss is always present", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "About retinitis pigmentosa all are true, EXCEPT: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Night blindness, B. Waxy disc, C. Early loss of central vision, D. Attenuation of retinal vessels is seen", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: In retinitis pigmentosa rods are involved first followed by cones. As the disease progresses there is loss of night vision and peripheral field of vision. Only in the later stages of the disese there is loss of central vision. Retinitis Pigmentosa is a group of hereditary retinal degenerative disorder characterized by progressive dysfunction of photoreceptors, associated with progressive cell loss and atrophy of several retinal layers. Hallmark symptoms are: night blindness, progressive loss of peripheral field of vision and coalescing ring scotomas. Characteristic fundoscopic findings are: attenuated retinal aerioles, waxy pale optic disc, mottling of retinal pigment epithelium, and peripheral retinal pigment clumping (bone spicule formation). ERG shows reduced/absent retinal function. EOG lacks usual light rise.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Common peroneal nerve is related to which of the following structures \nSelect and explain. \nA. Shaft of tibia, B. Neck of fibula, C. Lower tibio-fibular joint, D. Shaft of fibula", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: B i.e., Neck of fibula Common peroneal nerve winds around neck of fibula to enter peroneus longus muscle. Because of its subcutaneous position it can be easily palpated here & is very prone to injury. So fracture neck of fibula may cause foot drop.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Chromosomal mutation can be identified by all except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Single strand polymorphism, B. Agarose gel electrophoresis, C. Denaturating Gradient gel electrophoresis, D. Dideoxynucleotide trail sequencing", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Chromosomal mutation can't be identified by Agarose gel electrophoresis Agarose Gel electrophoresis Used to separate the DNA by charge or by size. The smaller the fragment, the more rapid the migration. Overall rate of migration and optimal range of size for separation are determined by the chemical nature of the gel and by the degree of its crosslinking. Highly cross-linked gels optimize the separation of small DNA fragments. The dye ethidium bromide forms a brightly fluorescent color as it binds to DNA, and so small amounts of separated DNA fragments can be photographed on gels. Specific DNA fragments can be recognized by probes containing complementary sequences. Usually performed to visualize the amplified DNA after PCR, but may be used as a preparative technique prior to use of other Just a method of visualizing the DNA after separating by size. So it is always used as a pa of any molecular method to visualize the DNA. But alone it cannot be used to detect any mutations.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Upper limb deformity in Erb's palsy - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Adduction and lateral rotation of arm, B. Adduction and medial rotation of arm, C. Abduction and lateral rotation of arm, D. Abduction and medial rotation of arm", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Adduction and medial rotation of arm Clinical features of Erb's palsy A) Muscles paralyzed: Mainly biceps brachii, deltoid, brachialis and brachioradialis. Partly supraspinatus, infraspinatus and supinator. B) Deformity (position of the limb) i) Arm : Hangs by the side; it is adducted and medially rotated. ii) Forearm : Extended and pronated. The deformity is known as 'policeman's tip hand' or 'porter's tip hand'. C) Disability: The following movements are lost. o Abduction and lateral rotation of the arm (shoulder). o Flexion and supination of the forearm. o Biceps and supinator jerks are lost. o Sensations are lost over a small area over the lower part of the deltoid.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow of aqueous humour mainly due to the involvement of: September 2007 \nSelect and explain. \nA. Canal of schlemm, B. Trabecular meshwork, C. Iris, D. Scleral venous plexus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. C: Iris", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which one of the following bacteria ois oxidase positive? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Vibrio, B. Pseudomonas, C. Clostridium, D. E.coli", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Oxidase test: The test is used to identifying bacteria containing cytochrome oxidase. I t is useful in differentiating the oxidase negative Enterobacteriaceae from the oxidase positive Pseudomonas organisms and the oxidase positive group of vibrios and related bacterias (Aeromonas, Plesiomonas). Neisseria organisms also test positive. the presence of cytochrome oxidase can is detected through the use of an oxidase disc which acts as an electron donor to cytochrome oxidase. if the test bacterium oxidizes the disc, the disk turns pin indicating a positive test. If there is no change in color the test is negative for the bacterium REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th Edition pg no: 675", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Dose of rifampicin in RNTCP is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. 600 mg, B. 450 mg, C. 300 mg, D. 100 mg", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., 450 mg TREATMENT REGIMEN SPUTUM EXAMINATIONS FOR PULMON ARY TBCategory of treatmentType of patientRegimentPre treatment sputumTest at monthIf result isTHEN -Start continuation phase, test sputum 6 monthsNew casesNew sputum smear-positive2(HRZE)3+-2 Category 1New sputum semar-negative+ +Continue intesive phase for one more montfRed BoxNew extra-pulmonaryNew others4 (HR)3 Complete the treatment in 7 monthsPreviouslySputum smear-positive Relapse2(HRZES}3 -Start continuation phase, test sputum again 6 months, completion of treatmentTreatedSputum smear-positive Fa ilure+ Category IISputum smear-positive1 (HRZE)3+3+Continue intensive phase for one more monthBlue Boxtreatment after default Others+5 (HRE)3 again at 4 months if sputum is positive sene sputum for culture and drug sensitivity as might be a case of MDR-TBo The number before the letters refers to the number of months of treatment. The subscript after the letters refers to the number of doses per week- H : Isomazid (600 mg), R : Rifampicin (450 mg), Z : Pyrazinamide (1500 mg), E : Ethambuiol (1200 mg), S : Streptomycin (750 mg). Patients who weight more than 60 kg receive additional Rifampicin 150 mg. Patients more than 50 years old receive streptomycin 500 mg- Patient in categories I and 11, Who have a positive sputum smear at the end of the initial intensive phase, receive an additional month of intensive phase treatment.o Examples of seriously ill extra-pulmonary TB cases are meningitis, disseminated TB, tuberculous pericarditis, peritonitis, bilateral or extensive pleurisy, spinal TB with neurological complications and intestinal and genito-urinary TB.o In rare and exeptional cases, patients who are sputum smear-negative or who have extra-pulmonary disease can have relapse or failure. This diagnosis in all such cases should always be made by an MO and should be supported by culture or histological evidence of current, active tuberculosis. In these cases, the patient should be categorized as 'other' and given category II treatment.o Any patient treated writb category I who has a positive smear at 5 months of treatment should be considered a Failure and started on category II treatment, afresh. If category I sputum smear-ve case fails to improve or if patient develops pulmonary signs and positive smear at the end of intensive phase, it is considered treatment failure. Start category II treatment and confirm failure by culture and perform DST.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Fasciculations are caused by \nSelect and explain. \nA. Scoline, B. Ketamine, C. Halothane, D. Atracurium", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. a (Scoline). (Ref. KD Tripathi, Pharamacology, 6th ed., 150)SUXAMETHONIUM CHLORIDE OR SUCCINYL CHOLINE (SCOLINE)Introduction- It is a short acting muscle relaxant.- It is a phase II blocker.- Depolarising muscle i.e. depolarising block at motor end-plate.- It is dichlor ester of succinic acid.- The action lasts for 3-5 minutes.- Action is prolonged in liver disease.- Metabolised by pseudocholinesterase.- It gives good intubating condition in shortest time (less than one minute).Uses- Endotracheal intubation in dose of 1 to 2 mg/kg body weight.- To modify electroconvulsive therapy.- For procedures requiring short duration relaxation.- Excellent for operative abet and caesaerian section.Side effects(Mnemonic=ABRHAM on FTV)- Apnoea (Prolonged),- Bradycardia,- Raised intraocular pressure- Hyperkalemia- Ache (Myalgia/ Post-operative muscle ache)- Malignant hyperpyrexia- Fasciculation,- Tachyphylaxis- Ventricular fibrillationIts S/E can be prevented by- Self-taming with 10 mg suxamethonium given a minute before induction of an anaesthesia.PrecurarizationAlso remember:# Malignant hyperpyrexia:- It is due to release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum in sensitive person- It can be caused also bya) Halothane,b) Methoxyflurane andc) Isoflurane- Rx- dantrolene.- Dantrolene is muscle relaxant acting directly on muscle. {MH 2006)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following conditions cause congestive hea failure in neonates ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Bicuspid aoic valve, B. Tetralogy of Fallot, C. ASD, D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: In TAPVR can produce CHF in neonate. Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:397", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following statements is true about diaphragm? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Left side pushed down by hea, B. Left side lower than right side, C. Right side lower than left side, D. Hernia common on right side", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The Diaphragm This thin fibromuscular paition between thoracic and abdominal cavities is an impoant muscle of respiration.When it contracts,it increases the veical extend of thoracic cavity by paially flatenning its dome and displacingthe abdominal contents downwards.The firous,central pa of the diapgragm(central tendon)is slightly depressed by the hea and thus it has right and left domes.The right dome,suppoed by the liver,lies at slightly at a higher level(a little inferior to the nipple in the male)than the left. REF.Cunningham's manual of practical anatomy,Vol.2,PG.172", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "What is the S.I. unit of effective dose? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Becquerel, B. Sievert, C. Gray, D. Roentgen", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: The effective dose (E) is used to estimate the risk in humans. It is hard to compare the risk from a dental exposure with, for example, the risk from a radiographic chest examination because different tissues with different radiosensitivities are exposed. \nThe unit of effective dose is the Sv.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Type II Respiratory failure is characterised by (Davidson) \nSelect and explain. \nA. Low PaO2 /Low PaCO2, B. Normal PaCO2 / Low PaO2, C. Low PaO2 /High PaCO2, D. High PaO2 / Low PaCO2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: (Low PaO2/High PaCO2) (1684 -H17th)Respiratory failure - PaO2 <8.0 kPa (60mmHg) and PaCO2 > 6.5 kPa (50 mmHg)Type 1 - PaO2 low, PaCO2 normal or lowType II - PaCO2 raised, PaO2 low - Ventilatory failure* Most important - cause in chronic type II respiratory failure is - chronic bronchitis", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In post-hepatic jaundice, the concentation of conjugatedbilirubin in the blood is higher than that ofunconjugated bilirubin because : \nSelect and explain. \nA. There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells., B. The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by the bile stone produced in the bile duct., C. The conjugation process of bilirubin in liver remains operative without any interference., D. The UDP- glulcuronoyltransferase activity is in creased manifold in obstructive jaundice.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: . The conjugation process of bilirubin in liver remains operative without any interference.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Zone of HOHL refers to: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cell-free zone., B. Cell rich zone., C. Pulp proper., D. None.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: 1. Cell-free zone (Zone of weil)\n\nWidth approx. 40 µm\nNot always present\nAbsent in young pulp (Active secretion of primary dentine) and older pulp (tertiary dentine)\n\nCONTENTS\n\nCapillaries\nUnmyelinated nerve fibers\nCytoplasmic process of fibroblasts\n\n2. Cell Rich Zone (Zone of HOHL)\n\nMost numerous cells are fibroblasts\nFibroblasts secrete Type I and Type III collagen\nAlso contains undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells.\nVascular supply is extensive and more than cell free zone and odontoblast zone.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Hernia into pouch of Douglas is __________ hernia : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Beclard's, B. Bochdaleks, C. Blandin's, D. Berger's", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Beclard's hernia → is the femoral hernia through the opening of the saphenous vein (named after Pierre Augustin Beclard).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True about primary aldosteronism \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pedal oedema, B. Increased rennin, C. Increased Na+, D. All", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Answer is C (Increased Na+) Primary Aldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) is associated with Hypeension, Hypernatremia ( tNa+) and Hypokalemia (iK+)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A patient is found to have a duodenal ulcer by upper endoscopy. The likelihood of this patient having H. pylori in the gastric antrum is? \nSelect and explain. \nA. 5%, B. 20%, C. 60%, D. 95%", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: .", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A community has a population of 10,000 and a bih rate of 36 per 1000. 6 maternal deaths were repoed in the current year. The Maternal Moality Rate (MMR) is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. 14.5, B. 16.6, C. 20, D. 5", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Total no.of female deaths due to complication of pregnancy, childbih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- x 1000 Total no. of live bihs in the same area and year. 6/360 x 1000= 0.0166 x 1000 = 16.6 Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Page 479.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Acute infectious purpura fulminans is caused by \nSelect and explain. \nA. Neisseria meningitidis and varicella, B. Gonococi, C. E. coli, D. Proteus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Purpura fulminans is an acute, often fatal, thrombotic disorder which manifests as blood spots, bruising and discolouration of the skin resulting from coagulation in small blood vessels within the skin and rapidly leads to skin necrosis and disseminated intravascular coagulation caused by Neisseria meningitidis and varicella Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Not a component of Brain stem \nSelect and explain. \nA. Mid brain, B. Pons, C. Medulla, D. Spinal cord", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Brainstem\n1. Medulla:responsible for regulating and/ or coordination of:\n- Blood pressure.\n- Breathing.\n- Swallowing.\n- Coughing.\n- Vomiting.\n2. Pons : participates in respiratory regulation and the relay of information from cerebral hemispheres to the cerebellum.\n3. Midbrain : participates in coordination of visual and auditory systems.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Urinary tract infection exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml. of midstream specimen of urine is ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. 100, B. 1000, C. 104, D. 105 or over", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., 105 or over", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Both APTT and PT are prolonged in which conditions? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Factor II deficiency, B. Factor XIII deficiency, C. Heparin administration, D. Thrombocytopenia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: ANSWER: (A) Factor II deficiencyREF: Mastery of Surgery by Josef E. Fischer, K. I. Bland, 5th edition Part I page 90, Saint-Frances guide: clinical clerkship in outpatient medicine. Page 434 8; 235, Harrison 17th ed table 59-4See APPENDIX-50 below for \"BLE EDIN G/C O AG U L ATI ON DISORDERS\" and APPROACH TO A PATIENT WITH BLEEDING DISORDER APPENDIX - 50BLEEDING/COAGULATION DISORDERSTable from Mastery of Surgery by Josef E. Fischer, K. I. Bland, 5th edition Part I page 90, http://en.uikipedia.org/wiki/ Bleeding_diathesisConditionProthrombinTimePartialThromboplastinTimeBleedingTimePlateletCountAspirinNormalNormalProlongedNormalCongenital afibrinogenemiaProlongedprolongedProlongedNormalDisseminated intravascular coagulationProlongedprolongedprolongedDecreasedEarly Liver failureProlongedNormalNormalNormalEnd-stage Liver failureProlongedprolongedprolongedDecreasedHaemophilia A (Factor 8}NormalProlongedNormalNormalHaemophilia B (Factor 9) Christmas diseaseNormalProlongedNormalNormalParahemophelia (factor 2,5,10)ProlongedProlongedNormalNormalFactor 7 deficiencyProlongedNormalNormalNormal! ThrombocytopeniaNormalNormalProlongedDecreasedBernard-Soulier syndromeNormalNormalProlongedDecreasedGlanzmann s thrombastheniaNormalNormalProlongedNormalUremiaNormalNormalProlongedNormalVitamin K deficiency or warfarinProlongedProlongedNormalNormalVon Willebrand diseaseNormalNormalProlongedNormalAPPROACH TO A PATIENT WITH BLEEDING DISORDER Obtain PT/ PTT and Platelet count Increased PT, Normal PTTNormal PT,Both PT &Both PT & PTT normalIncreased PTTPTT increasedPlatelet count* Early DIC* Liver disease* Warfarin therapy* Mild Vitamin K deficiency* Factor 7 deficiency* Coagulation factor deficiency* Coagulation factor inhibitor* Antiphospholipid antibody* Heparin therapy* Severe DIC* Severe liver disease* Warfarin overdose* Severe vitamin K deficiency* Factor 2, 5,10 deficiency* Heparin therapy> 90,000/pL Do Bleeding time< 90,000/uL ThrombocytopeniaSee extension of table below Do bleeding timeNormal bleeding timeIncreased bleeding time* Deficiency of inhibitors of fibrinolysis* Dysfibrinogenemia* Factor 13 deficiencyPlatelet dysfunctionAcquiredInherited* Severe renal disease* Severe liver disease* Myeloploreferative disorder* Autoantibodies* Paraprotenemia* DIC* vWD* Bernard Soulier disease* Glanzmann thrombasthenia", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The greatest volume of gastric secretion occurs during: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cephalic phase, B. Gastric phase, C. Intestinal phase, D. Deglutition", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: B: The gastric phase is the period of greatest gastric secretion. This phase is responsible for the greatest volume of gastric secretions, and it is activated by the presence of food in the stomach.\nA: The cephalic phase of stomach secretion is anticipatory and prepares the stomach to receive food. In the cephalic phase, sensations of taste, the smell of food, stimulation of tactile receptors during the process of chewing and swallowing, and pleasant thoughts of food stimulate centers within the medulla oblongata that influence gastric secretions.\nC: The intestinal phase of gastric secretion primarily inhibits gastric secretions. It is controlled by the entrance of acidic chyme into the duodenum. The presence of chyme in the duodenum initiates both neural and hormonal mechanisms.\nD: Deglutition the action or process of swallowing.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 38-year-old gentleman repos of decreased hearing in the right ear for the last two years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork, the Rinne&;s test without masking is negative in the right ear and positive on the left ear. With Weber&;s test, the tone is perceived as louder in the right ear. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Right conductive hearing loss, B. Right sensorineural hearing loss, C. Left sensorineural hearing loss, D. Left conductive hearing loss", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: The characteristics of conductive hearing loss are: 1. Negative Rinne test, i.e. BC > AC. 2. Weber lateralized to poorer ear. 3. Normal absolute bone conduction. 4. Low frequencies affected more. 5. Audiometry shows bone conduction better than air conduction with air-bone gap. Greater the air-bone gap, more is the conductive loss 6. Loss is not more than 60 dB. 7. Speech discrimination is good. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 31.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Structure superficial to mylohyoid in anterior digastric triangle are: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Deep pa of submandibular gland, B. Hypoglossal nerve, C. Pa of parotid gland, D. Mylohyoid aery & nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Deep pa of submandibular gland & hypoglossal neve are deep to mylohyoid muscle.Structures passing superficial to mylohyoid in anterior pa of digastric triangle are submandibular gland (superficial pa), facial vein, facial aery, mylohyoid nerve & vessels, hypoglossal nerve & submandibular nodes.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Treatment of Acute pancreatitis includes all except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Calcium, B. Feeding through ryles tube, C. Cholestyramine, D. None of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Oral administration of food and TPN is not recommended.\nPatient is fed via NGT to jeyunum.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 78-year-old woman has an acute anterior wall MI with hypotension and pulmonary congestion. Her blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, JVP at 8 cm, and the heart sounds are normal. The lungs have bibasilar crackles, and her extremities are cool and diaphoretic. What would central hemodynamic monitoring reveal?For the above patient, select the hemodynamic parameters that are most likely to apply. \nSelect and explain. \nA. decreased right atrial pressure (RAP), low cardiac output (CO), and increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), B. increased RAP, decreased CO, increased SVR, C. increased RAP, decreased CO, decreased SVR, D. decreased RAP, increased CO, decreased SVR", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Cardiogenic shock is characterized by high right atrial pressure (although it can be normal at times), high PA wedge pressure, high systemic vascular resistance, and low cardiac output.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following physiological change take place by Bainbridge reflex? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Increase in HR, B. Decrease in HR, C. Increase in BP, D. Distension of large somatic veins", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Atrial A and B receptors are located at the venoatrial junctions and have distinct functions. Type A receptors react primarily to hea rate but adapt to long-term changes in atrial volume. Type B receptors increase their discharge during atrial distension. C fibers arise from receptors scattered through the atria; these discharge with a low frequency and respond with increased discharge to increase in atrial pressure. The A and B receptors are thought to mediate the increase in hea rate associated with atrial distension (such as can occur with intravenous infusions) known as the Bainbridge reflex. In contrast, activation of atrial C fibers generally produces a vasodepressor effect (bradycardia and peripheral vasodilation). Ref: Hoit B.D., Walsh R.A. (2011). Chapter 5. Normal Physiology of the Cardiovascular System. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Goiter that appears along with toxic symptoms is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Primary thyrotoxicosis., B. Secondary thyrotoxicosis., C. Toxic nodule., D. None.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Porphyrin ring with a molecule of Fe in the center, B. A polypeptide chain containing Fe, C. A pyrole ring with four molecules of Fe in the center, D. Four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Structurally, porphyrin consists of four pyrrole rings (five-membered closed structures containing one nitrogen and four carbon atoms) linked to each other by methine groups (−CH=).\nThe iron atom is kept in the centre of the porphyrin ring by interaction with the four nitrogen atoms.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Thrombocytopenia, B. Small-vessel vasculitis, C. Disseminated gonococcal infection, D. Acute meningococcemia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Answer is A (Thrombocytopenia) Thrombocytopenia is associated with non palpable purpura'. Causes of Non palpable pupura: Primary cutaneous disorders Systemic diseases Clotting disturbance Vascular fragility Thrombosis 1 Emboli Possible immune complex Trauma Thrombocytopenia Amyloidosis Disseminated Cholesterol Gardner-Diamond syndrome Solar purpura (including ITP) Ehlers-Danlos intravascular Fat Waldenstrom's Steroid purpura Abnormal platelet syndome coagulation hypergammaglobulinemic Capillaritis Livedoid vasculitis function Clotting factor defects . Scurvy Monoclonal cryoglobulinemia Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura purpura Warfarin reaction", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The maneuver shown below helps specifically in \nSelect and explain. \nA. Identification of fetal lie, B. Determination of Fetal orientation, C. Confirmation of fetal presentation, D. Determining the degree of descent", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: The image shows 4th leopold maneuverThe first maneuver assesses the uterine fundus. It permits identification of fetal lie and determination of which fetal pole--that is, cephalic or podalic--occupies the fundus. The second maneuver is accomplished as the palms are placed on either side of the maternal abdomen, and gentle but deep pressure is exeed.. By noting whether the back is directed anteriorly, transversely, or posteriorly, fetal orientation can be determined.The third maneuver aids confirmation of fetal presentation. The thumb and fingers of one hand grasp the lower poion of the maternal abdomen just above the symphysis pubis. If the presenting pa is not engaged, a movable mass will be felt, usually the head. The fouh maneuver helps determine the degree of descent.Reference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 22; Normal Labor", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Carpal tunnel contains all except - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Median nerve, B. FDS tendon, C. FPL tendon, D. FCU tendon", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans-D", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Age of closure of spheno-occipital synchondrosis: \nSelect and explain. \nA. 6 years, B. 12 years, C. 18 years, D. 25 years", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Postnatally, the posterior cranial base becomes longer primarily due to growth at the spheno-occipital synchondrosis. Histologic studies have shown that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis fuses at approximately 16 to 17 years in females and 18 to 19 years in males.\nRef: Graber LW, Vanarsdall RL, Vig KW, Huang GJ. Orthodontics: current principles and techniques. Edition 6 page no 10", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Disulphiram acts by competitive inhibition of which enzyme? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Alcohol dehydrogenase, B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase, C. Alcohol carboxylase, D. Aldyhyde carboxylase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. (b) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseRef KDT 6th ed. / 386EthanolAlcohol Dehydrogenase-------------------Acetaldehyde Aldehyde Dehydrogenase---------------------Acetate* Disulfiram is an anti-craving agent for alcoholics. It has been used as an aversion technique in alcoholics.* Disulfiram acts by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase. If a person still takes alcohol while on disulfiram treatment, alcohol is metabolized as usual, but acetaldehyde accumulates.* This accumulation of acetaldehyde gives some distressing symptoms like flushing, burning sensation, throbbing headache, perspiration, dizziness, vomiting, confusion and circulatory collapse.* Therefore, it is recommended only for those alcoholics who are motivated and sincerely desire to leave the habit.* Drugs causing Disulfiram like reaction:# Metronidazole# Chlorpropamide# Cefoperazone# Cefotetan# Trimethorprim* Other drugs that decrease craving for alcohol and smoking: (remembered as NATO)# NALTREXONE# ACAMPROSATE# TOPIRAMATE# ONDANSETRONAlso Know* Drug which inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase - FOMEPIZOLE* Antidote for methanol poisoning: FOMEPIZOLE > ETHANOL* Antidote for ethelene glycol poisoning: FOMEPIZOLE", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Fast breathing in a 6-month old infant is taken as \nSelect and explain. \nA. >60 breaths/ min, B. >50 breaths/ min, C. >40 breaths/ min, D. >30 breaths/ min", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Criteria for fast breathing AGE Respiratory Rate <2 months >60/minute 2-12 months >50/minute 12 months-5 years >40/minute", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Shivering\" is observed in the early pa of postoperative period due to \nSelect and explain. \nA. Chloroform, B. Halothane, C. Trichloroethylene, D. Ether", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Postoperative shivering (halothane shakes) and hypothermia is maximum with halothane among inhalational anesthetics. It can be used to sta or maintain anaesthesia. One of its benefits is that it does not increase the production of saliva, which can be paicularly useful in those who are difficult to intubate", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Malignant glaucoma is seen in –a) Anterior chamber normalb) Misdirected aqueous flowc) Pilocarpine is the drug of choiced) Management is medical onlye) Atropine is also given \nSelect and explain. \nA. ab, B. be, C. bc, D. ce", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: In malignant glaucoma there is misdirection of aqueous posteriorly into the vitreous. It is characterized by markedly raised IOP and shallow or absent anterior chamber.\nTreatment includes :- i) Medical :- Atropine (DOC), phenylephrine, osmotic agents, (β-blockers, α-agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors; ii) YAG laser hyaloidotomy; iii) Surgery :- pars plana vitrectomy.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Staph, epidermis has become important due to \nSelect and explain. \nA. Biofilm formation, B. Virulence, C. Wide spectrum antibiotics, D. Novobiocin resistance", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: * S. epidermis is a pathogenic organism which affects interventions like catheter, canula.* It is an organism which can form biofilm.* It is novobiocin sensitive.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "CRF is associated with? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Respiratory acidosis, B. Respiratory alkalosis, C. Metabolic acidosis, D. Metabolic alkalosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: ANSWER: (C) Metabolic acidosisREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 274, Essentials of Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States by Carol Mattson Forth page 200Chronic kidney disease is the most common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis. The kidneys normally conserve HCO3-- and secrete H+ ions into the urine as a means of regulating acid-base balance. In chronic kidney disease, there is loss of both glomerular and tubular function with retention of nitrogenous waste and metabolic acids. In condition called renal tubular acidosis, glomerular function is normal, but tubular secretion of H+ or reabsorption of HC03~ is abnormal.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All are dopaminergic agonists used for parkinsonism EXCEPT \nSelect and explain. \nA. Bromocriptine, B. Ropinerole, C. Pramipexole, D. Selegiline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Selegiline REF: KDT 6th Ed p. 415 DRUGS USED FOR PARKINSONISM Drugs affecting dopaminergic system Dopamine precursor Levodopa Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors Carbidopa , benzaseride Dopaminergic agonists Bromocriptine , ropinerole , pramipexole MAO-B inhibitor Selegiline COMT inhibitor Entacapone , tolcapone Dopamine facilitator Amantadine Drugs affecting brain cholinergic system Central anticholinergics Trihexyphenidyl , procyclidine , biperidin Antihistamines Orphenadrine , promethazine", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Incestuous relationship between mother and son is called as? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Oedipus complex, B. Electra complex, C. Family incest, D. None", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oedipus complex * In psychoanalysis, the Oedipus complex is a child's desire, that the mind keeps in the unconscious via dynamic repression, to have sexual relations with the parent of the opposite sex (i.e. males attracted to their mothers, and females attracted to their fathers)* The Oedipus complex occurs in the third -- phallic stage (ages 3-6) of the psychosexual development.* Sigmund Freud coined the term \"Oedipus complex\"* Boys and girls experience the complex differently: boys in a form of castration anxiety & girls in a form of penis envy (Electra complex).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Suspensory ligament of Lockwood encloses which pair of muscles \nSelect and explain. \nA. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique, B. Superior rectus and superior oblique, C. Medial rectus and lateral rectus, D. Inferior rectus and lateral rectus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Suspensory ligament of Lockwood: A specialized lower pa of the fascial sheath of the eyeball is the suspensory ligament, which suppos the eyeball. This sling-like structure is made up of fascial sheath of the eyeball. It has contribution from these muscles : Inferior oblique & Inferior rectus. In an event of orbital floor fracture it protects drop down of eyeball .", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The major constituents in agar are \nSelect and explain. \nA. Fats, B. Aminoacids, C. Polysaccharides, D. Polypeptides", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Agar, a polysaccharide extract of a marine alga, is uniquely suitable for microbial cultivation because it is resistant to microbial action and becauseit dissolves at 100degC but does not gel until cooled below 45degC; cells can be suspended in the medium at 45degC and the medium quickly cooled to a gel without harming them.Ref: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 5; Cultivation of Microorganisms", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors should follow the _____. \nSelect and explain. \nA. Lower lips during smiling, B. Upper lips during smiling, C. Lower lips when relaxed, D. Upper lips when relaxed", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Maxillary teeth should contact the wet dry lip line when fricative sounds f, v, and ph are made. These sounds help to determine the position of the incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All are true about polio vaccines except \nSelect and explain. \nA. OPV is live attenuated vaccine, B. IPV Provides Intestinal immunity, C. IPV is killed formalised vaccine, D. OPV is effective than IPV during Epidemics", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Osteosclerotic metastasis is common in cancer of: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Prostate, B. Lungs, C. Malignant melanoma, D. Renal cell carcinoma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. A. Prostate cancerProstate cancer leads to osteosclerotic metastasis because of release of PTH like proteinsa. Prostate carcinoma cells secrete factors that directly and indirectly alter the osteoblastic function and express factors critical for normal bone development and remodeling, including bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), TGF-b, platelet- derived growth factor, adrenomedullin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1), fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).b. The osteolytic factor, PTHrP, is also abundantly expressed in Prostate carcinoma metastases, despite the fact that these lesions are primarily blastic. It has been demonstrated that PTHrP increases osteoblastic progenitor cell proliferation and induces early Osteoblastic differentiation.c. Another study says that Wants (a large family of proteins that promote bone growth) contribute to prostate cancer- mediated osteoblastic activity. Prostate cancer bone metastases have both an osteolytic and osteoblastic component, there is a shift in the balance from osteolytic to osteoblastic activity as prostate cancer progresses, which results in osteosclerotic (Osteoblastic) metastasis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True statements about alpha -1 - anti-trypsin deficiency-a) Autosomal dominant diseaseb) Emphysemac) Fibrosis of Portal tractd) Diastase resistant positive hepatocytese) Orcein positive granules \nSelect and explain. \nA. abc, B. acd, C. bcd, D. bd", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Fibrosis of portal tract develop when there is cirrhosis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The age at which a child can make a tower of 9 cubes and draw a circle is \nSelect and explain. \nA. 24 months, B. 30 months, C. 36 months, D. 42 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Key fine motor developmental milestones4mo - Bidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with both hands)6mo - Unidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with one hand); transfers objects9mo - Immature pincer grasp; probes with a forefinger12mo - Pincer grasp mature15mo- Imitates scribbling; tower of 2 blocks18 mo- Scribbles; tower of 3 blocks2 yr - Tower of 6 blocks; veical and circular stroke3 yr - Tower of 9 blocks; copies circle4 yr - Copies cross; bridge with blocks5 yr- Copies triangle; gate with blocks Ref:Ghai 8e pg:50", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In chronic inflammation confined to poal tract with intact limiting membrane and normal lobular parenchyma, the histoapathological diagnosis would be - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Active hepatitis, B. Chronic active hepatitis, C. Chronic persistent hepatitis, D. Acoholic heaptitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chronic persistent hepatitiso Intact limiting membrae with inflammation confined to poal area is seen in chronic persistent hepatitis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The minimum period required for post exposure chemo prophylaxis for HIV is- \nSelect and explain. \nA. 4 weeks, B. 6 weeks, C. 8 weeks, D. 12 weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Most common site of hypospadias: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Proximal to Glans, B. Scrotum, C. Perineum, D. Mid penis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. (a) Proximal to GlansRef Page 1478, Bailey and Love 27th editionHypospadias:* Incidence- 1 in 200* MC congenital anomaly of urethra* External meatus opens on under side (Ventral surface)* Dorsal Hood and ventral chordee seen.* MC site of opening- proximal to the normal opening in Glans Penis (MC)* Others: Coronal, penile, Penoscrotal, Perineal.* Most severe type is perineal, luckily it is the rarest also.* Procedure of choice: Tabularized incised plate Urethroplasty for distal hypospadias for proximal hypospadias Foreskin is used.* As per Bailey Surgery done before 18 months (correct answer is 6 months)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Per Rectal palpation of uterus is done in : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Primigravida, B. Virgins, C. Grand multi paras, D. Placenta pre", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Virgins", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All of the followings are true about Sprengel's deformity, except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Associated with congental scoliosis, B. Associated with diastematomyelia, C. High incidence with Klippel-Feil syndrome, D. Associated with dextrocardia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: ANS. DSprengel's deformity: It is congenital elevation of the scapula.Is a complex deformity of the shoulder and the most common congenital shoulder anomaly.Associations of Sprengel's deformity:* Klippel-Feil syndrome* Spina bifida* Diastematomyelia* Torticollis* Kyphoscoliosis# Klippel-Feil syndromeThe most common sign of the disorder is restricted mobility of the neck and upper spine. A short neck and low hairline at the back of the head may occur in some patients.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Carcinoma parathyroid, B. Solitary adenoma of parathyroid, C. Chronic renal failure, D. Hyperplasia of the parathyroid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: solitary adenoma ie a single abnormal gland is the cause in 80% of patients ( Harrison 17 pg 2380)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Aminoglycoside affects ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Outer hair cells in basal area, B. Inner hair cells in basal area, C. Outer hair cells in apical area, D. Inner hair cells in apical area", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Outer hair cells in basal area Cochlear damage with the use of aminoglycosides stas from the base and spreads to the apex; hearing loss affects the high frequency sound first, then progressively encompasses the lower frequencies. Outer hair cells are easily damaged by ototoxic drugs (aminoglycosides) and high intensity noise. Inner hair cells are more resistant.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following statements about Histamine is true: September 2012 \nSelect and explain. \nA. Is found in Mast cells, B. Increases gastric acid secretion, C. Related to arousal and blood pressure, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans: D i.e. All of the above Histamine Histamine is formed by: Decarboxylation of histidine Function of histamine: Mediates triple response", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Accessory renal aery:- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Remnant of degenerated mesonephric aery, B. May encircle around the kidney, C. May lead to hydronephrosis, D. All of above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: The accessory renal aery is the precocious origin of a segmental aery which sometimes arises from the aoa and supplies upper or lower pole of the kidney. The accessory renal aery is the remnant of the degenerated mesonephric aery. The aery for the lower pole usually passes behind the pelvis of ureter and may cause obstruction to urine flow producing hydronephrosis.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Blood pressure in right ventricle \nSelect and explain. \nA. 25 mmHg, B. 80 mmHg, C. 95 mmHg, D. 120 mmHg", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Peak pressures in theright ventricles is about 25 mm HgRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:508", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Tzank smear helps in the diagnosis of : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Herpes viral infection, B. Bullous pemphigoids, C. Carcinoma of cervix, D. None", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: A. i.e. Herpes", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is the most common cataract in the newborn - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Zonular Cataract, B. Morgagnian Cataract, C. Ant. polar Cataract, D. Post, polar Cataract", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Answer: A The commonest cataract in childhood is Blue Dot cataract which presents without visual obstruction. And the commonest congenital cataract which presents with a visual defect is zonular cataract.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Row of tombstone is seen in which skin disorder: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pemphigus vulgaris, B. Pemphigus foliaceous, C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus, D. Bullous pemphigoid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. A. Pemphigus vulgaris* Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by following signs:1. Bulla spread sign2. Perilesional, and distant Nikolsky sign3. Tzanck smear: Acantholytic cell* Histopathology shows suprabasal blister with row of tomb stone appearance of basal cells.* Direct immunofluorescence from perilesional skin demonstrated intra epidermal IgG deposits' in a fishnet pattern.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 25year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis \nSelect and explain. \nA. Retinal detachment, B. Eale's disease, C. Glaucoma, D. Cataract", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans is Eale's disease Both Eale's disease and Retinal detachment are causes of painless sudden loss of vision, however Eale's disease is a much more common cause than RD in a young male. Ocular and systemic examinations in both the conditions may be normal.Eale's diseaseIt is a disease of young adult males, who otherwise are healthy, in developing countries (especially India).It is an idiopathic inflammation of peripheral retinal veins; characterized by recurrent vitreous hemorrhage.(Periphlebitis leads to obliteration of the affected vessels. Hypoxia leads to neovascularization which lead to recurrent vitreous hemorrhage)The etiology is unknown. Hypersensitivity to tuberculin protein has been reported, however no clear relationship to tuberculosis has been found.Usually bilateral.The common presenting symptoms are sudden appearance of floaters or painless loss of vision.The vitreous hemorrhage clears spontaneously, but after a few recurrence the hemorrhage may organize, and may cause fractional retinal detachment or secondary glaucoma.Treatment:systemic steroids in early vasculitis stageLaser photocoagulation for abnormal vessels is used in neovascularization stagevitreoretinal surgery is required for marked vitreous traction threatening the macula.Causes of sudden, painless loss of visionUnilateralBilateralSubluxation or dislocation of lensVitreous hemorrhageRetinal hemorrhageRetinal detachmentRetinal vascular occlusionExudative age-related macular degenerationPosterior uveitis Diabetic retinopathyGrade IV hypertensive retinopathy with macular star Atypical optic neuritis Toxic optic neuropathy Bilateral occipital infarction", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Jumping gene is known as? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Transposon, B. Retroposon, C. Insertion sequence, D. Integron", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: * Transposons, also called jumping genes, are pieces of DNA that move readily from one site to another.* They move either within or between the DNAs of bacteria, plasmids and bacteriophages in a manner, that plasmid genes can become part of the chromosomal complement of genes.* Interestingly, when transposons transfer to a new site, it is usually a copy of the transposon that moves, while the original remains in situ (like photocopying).* Transposons can code for metabolic or drug resistance enzymes and toxins. They may also cause mutations in the gene into which they insert or alter the expression of nearby genes.* In contrast to plasmids or bacterial viruses, transposons cannot replicate independently of the recipient DNA. More than one transposon can be located in the DNA for example, resistance genes. Thus, transposons can jump from:# The host genomic DNA to a plasmid# One plasmid to another# A plasmid to genomic DNA.* An insertion sequence is a short DNA sequence that acts as a simple transposable element. Insertion sequences have two major characteristics: they are small relative to other transposable elements (generally around 700 to 2500bp in length) and only code for proteins implicated in the transposition activity (they are thus different from other transposons, which also carry accessory genes such as antibiotic resistance genes.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following X-ray should be advised for age determination between 1-13 years of age \nSelect and explain. \nA. Shoulder, B. Wrist, C. Elbow, D. Iliac bones", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child&;s skeletal system. It&;s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. ... The bone age is measured in years . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of \nSelect and explain. \nA. 18 years, B. 23 years, C. 28 years, D. 30 years", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The last case of plague in India was repoed in 1966 and after that there was a 'silence period' of 28 years till the reappearance of the disease in September 1994, when there was an outbreak of bubonic plague in Beed district of Maharashtra and pneumonic plague in Surat (Gujarat).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Lichen planus, B. Psoriasis, C. Phemphigus, D. Leprosy", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Psoriasis", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Radiation protector drug in clinical use among the following is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Amifostine, B. Cisplatin, C. Mesna, D. Tirapazamine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Amifostine is used therapeutically to reduce the incidence of neutropenia-related fever and infection induced by DNA-binding chemotherapeutic agents including alkylating agents and platinum-containing agents . It is also used to decrease the cumulative nephrotoxicity associated with platinum-containing agents. Amifostine is also indicated to reduce the incidence of xerostomia in patients undergoing radiotherapy for head and neck cancerReference: Perez and Brady&;s textbook of radiation oncology; 6th edition", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer's disease relates to \nSelect and explain. \nA. Serotonin, B. Dopamine, C. Acetylcholine, D. GABA", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Neurotransmitters, which are decreased in Alzheimer's disease:- Acetylcholine (most important), norepinephrine, somatostatin, corticotropin.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Max risk of stroke after TIA: \nSelect and explain. \nA. First 48 hours, B. First week, C. First month, D. First year", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. a. First 48 hoursTransient ischemic attack (TIA) is sudden, transitory loss of neurologic function that comes on without headache and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours (but usually lasts less than 1 hour), leaving no neurologic sequelae.The specific symptoms depend on the area of the brain affected, which is in turn related to the vessels involved. The most common origin is high-grade stenosis (>=70%) of the internal carotid, or ulcerated plaque at the carotid bifurcation.Stroke may be indistinguishable from a TIA at the time of presentation: Duration of symptoms is the determining difference.Symptoms are transient with a TIA because reperfusion occurs, either because of collateral circulation or because of the breaking up of an embolus.The blockage in blood flow does not last long enough to cause permanent infarction.Once a patient has a TIA, there is a high risk of stroke in 10-15% in the first 3 months, with most events occurring in the first 2 days. The risk of a stroke in a patient with a history of TIA is about 10% per year. TIAs carry a 30% 5-year risk of stroke. Therefore, cardiac risk factors should be closely investigated and, if possible, eliminated in a patient who has had a TIA.Cases may present only with transient loss of vision in one eye, known as amaurosis fugax. This happens during a transient ischemic attack because the first branch of the internal carotid artery is the ophthalmic artery.Note:TIAs are never due to hemorrhage; hemorrhages do not resolve in 24 hours.The importance of TIAs is that they are predictors of stroke, and timely elective carotid endarterectomy may prevent or minimize that possibility.Workup starts with.noninvasive Duplex studies.Carotid endarterectomy is indicated if the lesions are found in the location that explains the neurologic symptoms.Angioplasty and stent can be performed in high risk surgical patients", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "'Cloudy cornea' is a feature of? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Hurler's disease, B. Morquio's disease, C. Maroteaux Lamy disease, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. D. All of the above. (Ref Essential Paediatrics by OP Ghai 7th/pg. 637)'Cloudy cornea' is known to be a feature of Hurler's disease/IH, Scheie's disease/IS, Morquio's disease/IV and Maroteaux Lamy disease/VI.C/f of mucopolysaccharidoses:Eponyms/MPS numbersMentalretardationCoarse faciesHepatospleno-megalyDysostosismultiplexCorneal clouding1. Hurler/IH+++++2. Scheie's/IS----+3. Hunter/U++++-4. Sanfilipo/lll+----5. Morquio/IV---++6. Maroteaux-Lamy / VI---++7. Sly/VII--++-Features of Hurler Syndrome:# H: Hepatosplenomegaly# U: Ugly facies# R: Recessive (AR)# L: L-iduronidase deficiency# E: Eyes (Cornea) clouded# R: Retarded mentally# S: Short stubby fingers", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Painful are syndrome is seen in all except - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Complete tear of supraspinatus, B. # greater tuberosity, C. Subacromial bursitis, D. Supraspinatus tendinitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Painful are syndrome is seen in incomplete tear of supraspinatus tendon (not in complete tear).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In Thyrotoxicosis, B-blockers do not control - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Anxiety, B. Termors, C. Tachycardia, D. Oxygen consumption", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Beta blockers ameliorate the symptoms of hypehyroidism that are caused by increased beta-adrenergic tone. These include palpitations, tachycardia, tremulousness, anxiety, and heat intolerance. n many tissues, hypehyroidism is associated with an increased number of beta-adrenergic receptors . The ensuing increase in beta-adrenergic activity is responsible for many of the symptoms associated with this disorder. It also explains the ability of beta blockers to ameliorate rapidly many of the symptoms, including palpitations, tachycardia, tremulousness, anxiety, and heat intolerance. Ref - pubmed.com", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Arousal response is mediated by \nSelect and explain. \nA. Dorsal column, B. Reticular activating system, C. Spinothalamic tract, D. Vestibulo cerebellar tract", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Arousal response in cerebral cortex is activated by stimulation of Reticular activating system.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with \nSelect and explain. \nA. IgG, B. IgM, C. IgA, D. IgE", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. (b) IgM(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 598-602)Lymphoplasmacytic cell proliferation in marrow (Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) with secretion of IgM", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Massive edema in body in a patients of burns is due to \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cardiac dysfunction due to release of cardiac depressants, B. Basement membrane injury causing altered pressure gradient, C. Acute Renal failure, D. Fluid overload", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Massive edema in burns is due to altered pressure gradient because of injury to basement membrane.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True about Fibrolamellar carcinoma of Liver is all,except- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Females do not have increased incidence than males, B. Has good prognosis, C. Not associated with liver cirrhosis, D. Serum AFP levels are usually >1000 mg/ltr", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Fibrolamellar carcinoma -\n\nIt is a distinctive variant of hepatocellular carcinoma\nIt is seen in young adults (20-40 yrs of age)\nIt has equal sex incidence\nIt has a better prognosis\nIt has no association with HBV or cirrhosis\nIt is grossly encapsulated mass.\nAFP elevation is not seen in Fibrolamellar Ca", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Cocospinal tract lesion leads to: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Spaticity, B. Extensor plantar response, C. Exaggerated tendon reflexes, D. All", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: A, B, C i.e. Spaticity, Extensor plantar response, Exaggerated tendon reflexes", "role": "assistant" } ]