Datasets:

daze-unlv

/

medmcqa-alignment

like 0

[ { "content": "Mirena (LNG IUCD) has to be replaced after : \nSelect and explain. \nA. 1 year, B. 5 years, C. 3 years, D. 6 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Mirena (LNG IUD) contains a total of 52 mg levonorgestrel (LNG) LNG is released into the uterine cavity at a rate of approximately 20 microgram/day. Act mainly by local progestogenic effects Effective for up to 5 years.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "5 year old Boy with something coming out of the anus with pedicle attached to rectal/ anal wall and bright red bleeding- most common diagnosis - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Juvenile rectal Polyp, B. Pedicle pile, C. Fissure, D. CA Colon", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Juvenile rectal Polyp * Juvenile polyps are the most common type of childhood polyp, occurring in up to 1% of preschool children. They are usually solitary polyps found in the rectum which most commonly present with rectal bleeding.* These are hamartomatous polyps, which are usually pedunculated but can be sessile.* \"The typical child with a juvenile polyp is 4 to 6 years of age, presents with intermittent painless rectal bleeding with bowel movements.\"- Rudolph's Pediatrics* Juvenile polyps are usually are not premalignant.* Because the gross appearance of these polyps is identical to adenomatous polyps, these lesions should also be treated by polypectomy.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Vitamin E, B. Niacin, C. Vitamin C, D. Vitamin A", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Niacin o Option a, c & d are themselves antioxidants, but glutatbion requires niacin as NADPH.o NADPH is necessary tor the maintenance of a reducing environment in the cell.o NADPH plays a key role in antioxidant defences by converting the oxidized glutathione into the reduced glutathione, which is protective.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Prophylactic Chemotherapy is indicated after evacuation of H.Mole in all, Except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Initial level of urine HCG is 40000 IU after 6 week of evacuation, B. Increase in HCG titre 24000 IU after 10 week of evacuation, C. Metastasis, D. Nulliparous lady", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Oral contraceptive pills decrease incidence of all of the following conditions except : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Salpingitis, B. Hepatic adenoma, C. Ovary CA, D. Fibroadenosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Hepatic adenoma", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 14 year old boy with difficulty in walking and behavioural disturbance, recovered from prolonged jaundice recently, has bluish pigmentation over lunula. The next investigation to be done: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Nail fold cappillaroscopy, B. Slit lamp examination, C. Biopsy of the pigmented area, D. Ankle-brachial pressure index", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Neurological involvement + Jaundice + Azure Nails (Bluish discoloration of nails) = Wilson's disease Dx: Slit lamp examination and 24 hrs urinary copper Rx: for Neurological feature - Tetrathiomolybdate", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion is used in the management of burns caused by \nSelect and explain. \nA. Nitric acid, B. Hydrofluoric acid, C. Formic acid, D. Hydrochloric acid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Hydrofluoric acid causes Hypocalcemia. Calcium based therapies are main stay of treating Hydrofluoric acid burns. Topical application of calcium gluconate onto wounds and IV administration of calcium gluconate for systemic symptoms. Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion provides effective treatment of progressive tissue injury and intense pain.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg, and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Very severe disease, B. Severe Pneumonia, C. Pneumonia, D. No Pneumonia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: The child is unable to drink water for 12hrs & weight of the child is 5kg which is less than expected (12kg), which shows severe malnutrition. Inability to drink constitutes a danger sign amongst the clinical manifestations and classifies the pneumonia as very severe disease. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 146; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 142, 143", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Familial amylodotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of \nSelect and explain. \nA. Amyloid associated protein, B. Mutant calcitonin, C. Mutant transthyretin, D. Normal transthyretin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ref Robbins 9/e p259 Familial (Hereditary) Amyloidosis A variety of familial forms of amyloidosis have been described; most are rare and occur in limited geographic areas. The best-characterized is an autosomal recessive condition called familial Mediterranean fever. This is a febrile disorder characterized by attacks of fever ccompanied by inflammation of serosal surfaces, includ- ing peritoneum, pleura, and synol membrane. This dis- order is encountered largely in persons of Armenian, Sephardic Jewish, and Arabic origins. It is associated with widespread tissue involvement indistinguishable from reactive systemic amyloidosis. The amyloid fibril proteins are made up of AA proteins, suggesting that this form of amyloidosis is related to the recurrent bouts of inflamma- tion that characterize this disease. The gene for familial Mediterranean fever is called pyrin and encodes a protein that is a component of the inflammasome (Chapter 2). Patients have gain-of-function mutations in pyrin that result in constitutive overproduction of the pro- inflammatory cytokine IL-1 and persistent inflammation. In contrast with familial Mediterranean fever, a group of autosomal dominant familial disorders is characterized by deposition of amyloid predominantly in the peripheral and autonomic nerves. These familial amyloidotic poly- neuropathies have been described in kindreds in different pas of the world--for example, in Pougal, Japan, Sweden, and the United States. As mentioned previously, the fibrils in these familial polyneuropathies are made up of mutant forms of transthyretin (ATTRs).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Jacquemier's sign, B. Dalrymple sign, C. Hegar's sign, D. Palmer's sign", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dalrymple's sign o The following are presumptive signs for diagnosis of pregnancy:# Breast changes: Enlargement with vascular changes with delicate veins visible under the skin.# Jacquemier's sign/Chadwick's sign: Dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall, due to local congestion.# Osiander's sign: Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fomices at 8th week.# GoodelVs sign : Cervix becomes soft as early as 6th week.# Piskacek's sign : Assymetrical enlargement of the uterus if there is lateral implantation.# Hegar's sign: Approximationo of fingers placed on the abdomen and in the anterior fornix.# Palmer's sign: Regular, rhythmic uterine contraction during bimanual examination", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "False about Hyperophic gastropathy is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Seen in menetriers disease and ZES, B. It is associated with malignancy, C. It shows cerebriform rugacity on stomach, D. Produce MALTomas", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: It is seen in menetriers disease&ZES &it associated with malignancies & it form cribriform rugacitu on stomach. The condition needs to be differentiated from other forms of hyperophic gastropathy such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, hyperophic hypersecretory gastropathy, lymphocytic gastritis, or gastric carcinoma MALTomas are the tumors referred to as lymphomas of mucosa- associated lymphoid tissue. REFERANCE. menetrier's disease", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Body temperature regulation centre is located at \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pituitary, B. Thalamus, C. Hypothalamus, D. Basal ganglia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Anterior hypothalamus, responds to heat;Posterior hypothalamus, responds to cold. Ref: Ganongs Review of medical physiology;25 th edition ; pg :309; table 17-1.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "High Air velocity is measured by - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Psychrometer, B. Anemometer, C. Kata thermometer, D. Hygrameter", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Anemometer", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Fouchet, B. Rothera, C. Hays, D. Benedicts", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Women in the question stem with altered sensorium and dehydration is suffering from ketoacidosis. Absence of sugar exclude the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. So ketosis could be due to starvation which can be detected by Rotheras test. During starvation acetylCoA takes alternate fate to form ketone bodies. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 131, 440 ; Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By Chatterjee, 4th Edition, Pages 677- 679", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A sixteen year old boy receives a superficial cut on the thumb side of his forearm. The superficial vein most likely affected is the? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Basilic, B. Cephalic, C. Median antebrachial, D. Median cubital", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: There are two large cutaneous veins running up the arm. Both veins take origin from the dorsal venous arch of the hand and run up the lateral and medial sides of the arm. On the medial side (near the 5th digit) there is the basilic vein. On the lateral side (by the thumb), there is the cephalic vein. Since the infection is on the thumb side of the forearm, the correct answer is the cephalic vein. The median antebrachial vein runs down the center of the anterior forearm. The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein to the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Defect in Snurps causes- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Sickle cell anemia, B. Thalassemia, C. Marfan syndrome, D. EDS", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thalassemiao Defective splicing (defect in snurps) is the most common mutation causing thalassemia,o Molecular defect in pathogens is of thalassemia:-b-Thalassemiao Most common type of genetic abnormality in b-thalassemia is point mutation i.e., nonsense.o Some may also occur due to deletion or insertion i.e., frame shift mutations,o Defect may occur at different steps of b-chain synthesis:i) Splicing mutationso Mutations leading to aberrant splicing are the most common cause of b-thalassemia.ii) Chain terminator mutationso This cause premature termination of mRNA translation.iii) Promoter region mutationso This results in transcription defect.a-Thalassemiao The most common cause of reduced a-chain synthesis is deletion of a-globin genes,o Rarely nonsense mutation may also cause a-thalassemia.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Not true about Red degeneration of myomas is- \nSelect and explain. \nA. It occurs commonly during pregnancy, B. Immediate surgical intervention is needed, C. Due to interference with blood supply, D. Treated with analgesics", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' ie immediate surgical intervention needed Red degenerationis the most frequent* complication of myomas during pregnancy.The tumour assumes a peculiar purple red colour.It usually occurs due to thrombosis of large veins in the tumour.it has a peculiar fishy odour*Clinical featuresAcute onset of pain over the tumour*Malaise or even rise of temperature*Tenderness or rigidity over the tumourBlood count shows Leucocytosis*Rapid pulseConstipationTreatmentMainly conservative*Analgesics & sedativesAmpicillinThe symptoms usually clear off within 10 days.Surgery is not required even when laparotomy is done with mistaken diagnosis, abdomen is to be closed without doing anything.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is not supplied by C8 T1 - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Abductor pollicis brevis, B. Extensor indicis, C. Palmar interossei, D. 3rd & 4th lumbricals", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Small muscles of hand include- Thenar, Hypothenar, interossei and lumbricals. They are supplied by C8-T1. Extensor indicis is supplied by C7, C8", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All the following enzymes activity is increased in fasting state except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Acetyl CoA carboxylase, B. Carnitine acyl transferase, C. Phospho enol pyruvate carboxykinase, D. Pyruvate carboxylase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: MetabolismRegulatory enzymesLipid metabolism Fatty acid oxidation Carnitine acyltransferase 1KetogenesisHMG CoA synthaseLipolysis Hormone-sensitive lipaseCarbohydrate metabolism Glycogenolysis Glycogen phosphorylase Gluconeogenesis Pyruvate carboxylase Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)Fructose1,6 bisphosphataseGlucose-6-phosphatase(Refer: DM Vasudevan, Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, pg no: 102-103)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Anaesthetic agent not metabolized by body is? \nSelect and explain. \nA. N20, B. Gallamine, C. Sevofluorane, D. Halothane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. (a) N20Ref: Miller's 7thedch: 24", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is not true about hydroquinone? \nSelect and explain. \nA. It is a weak hypopigmenting agent, B. It inhibits tyrosinase, C. Response is incomplete and pigmentation may recur, D. It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is'd'i.e., It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy .Ref: KDT Vhle p. 8921Hydroquinone:It is a weak hypopigmentation agent.Inhibits tyrosinase and other melanin forming enzymes, decreases formation of and increases degradation of melanosomes.Regular application (as 2-6% lotion or cream) for months is required in melasma, chloasma of pregnancy, etc.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Gynecoid, B. Android, C. Anthropoid, D. Platypelloid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. C. AnthropoidBy tradition, pelvis are classified as belonging to one of four major groups. The gynecoid pelvis is the classic female pelvis with a posterior sagittal diameter of the inlet only slightly shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter. In the android pelvis, the posterior sagittal diameter at the inlet is much shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter, limiting the use of the posterior space by the fetal head. In the anthropoid pelvis, the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the inlet is greater than the transverse diameter, resulting in an oval with large sacrosciatic notches and convergent side walls. Ischial spines are likely to be prominent. The platypelloid pelvis is flattened with a short AP and wide transverse diameter. Wide sacrosciatic notches are common. The pelves of most women do not fall into a pure type and are blends of one or more of the above types.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Celiac plexus block all the following is true except ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Relieved pain from gastric malignancy, B. Cause hypotention, C. Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery, D. Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach Celiac plexus block can be done by following three approaches : Retrocrural (classic) approach, anterocrural approach and splanchnic nerve block. See explanation- 4 of session- 8 of Anaesthesia of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is used in mixed dentition classification of malocclusion \nSelect and explain. \nA. Angles classification, B. Simon's orbital plane, C. Flush terminal plane, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Induction is slow, B. Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial secretions, C. Cautery cannot be used, D. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ether has high blood solubility (high blood : gas partition coefficient) → induction is slow.\nIt is irritant in nature and increases salivary & respiratory secretions.\nBlood pressure is maintained because of reflex stimulation and high sympathetic tone. It does not sensitizes the heart to arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline\nIt is highly inflammable, cautery should not be used.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Minimum fluid collection required for radiological detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view is: September 2009 \nSelect and explain. \nA. 15 ml, B. 25 ml, C. 35 ml, D. 45 ml", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. Amount of pleural fluid required to cause a blunted costophrenic angle discernible on chest radiography is more than 300 ml. A chest computerized tomography scan is more sensitive than a simple chest x-ray and is often used for assessment of loculated effusions because, in some instances, up to 500 cc of loculated fluid can be obscured behind the dome of the diaphragm", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Pseudopolyps are features of – \nSelect and explain. \nA. Crohn's disease, B. Ulcerative colitis, C. Celiac sprue, D. Whipple's disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ulcerative colitis\n\nUlcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by -\n\n\nInflammation involving only the mucosa and submucosa\nFormation of pseudopolyps\nInvolvement is in a continuous fashion (absent of skip lesions which are characteristic of CD)\n\n\nUlcerative colitis involves the rectum and extends proximally in a retrograde fashion to involve the entire colon (pancolitis) in more severe cases.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Coracoid process of the scapula is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pressure epiphysis, B. Traction epiphysis, C. Atavistic epiphysis, D. Aberrant epiphysis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. C Atavistic epiphysisRef: Clinical Anatomy, Kulkarni 2nd ed. P 73TYPES OF EPIPHYSIS* Pressure: Seen at the end of long bones subjected to pressure. E.g. Femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia and femur.* Traction: Formed due to pull of muscles. E.g. Mastoid process, tibial tuberosity, tubercles, trochanters.* Atavistic: Functional in lower animals. Degenerated in humans e.g. Coracoid process of scapula, os trigonum of talus* Abberant: It is an extra epiphysis. E.g. Proximal end of 1st metacarpal bone.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is the least likely cause of infant moality rate? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Severe infections, B. Prematurity, C. Tetanus, D. Bih asphyxia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The principal causes of infant moality in India are low bih weight (57%), respiratory infections (17%), diarrhoeal diseases(4%), congenital malformations (5%), cord infections (2%), bih injury (3%) Park 23e pg:569", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Mittelschimerz pain is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pain during onset of menstrual cycle, B. Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle, C. Pain during the or at the end of menstrual cycle, D. Pain during menstrual bleeding", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle o Has been explained in previous sessions.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Osteoporosis is seen in all the following except- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Thyrotoxicosis, B. Rheumatoid ahritis, C. Hypoparathyroidism, D. Steroid therapy", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroidism Hyperparathyroidism Diabetes mellitus Hypogonadism Cushing's syndrome Malnutrition Malabsorption Anorexia nervosa Multiple myeloma Mastocytosis Rheumatoid ahritis Marfan's syndrome Ehler-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteoporosis Fig. 9.47 Anticonvulsants Steroids Vitamin A Alcohol Heparin Furosemide Thyroid hormone in excessive doses Lithium GnRH agonist Cyclosporin Cytotoxic drugs 8.Cigarette smoking 9.Glucocoicoid therapy 10.Hypogonadism 11.Alcoholism 12.Renal disease 13.GI/Hepatic disorders. Bone forming agents a.Fluoride--75 mg/day b.Anabolic steroids: Testosterone is used in the treatment of osteoporotic man with gonadal deficiency. R ALAGAPPAN MANUAL OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE FOUH EDITION PAGE NO-690", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All are true about rifampicin except : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Microsomal enzyme inducer, B. Used in treatment of meningiococcal meningitis, C. May cause OCP failure, D. Bactericidal in nature", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All local anesthetic produces vasodilation on local application except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cocaine, B. Lignocaine, C. Bupivacaine, D. Ropivacaine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Cocaine is a vasoconstrictor as it is sympathomimetic. * Cocaine was the first local Anesthetic to be used clinically. IT is only natural local anesthetic. Koller introduced this in the field of ophthalmology. It is the only local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor action. It is sympathomimetic and inhibits metabolism of catecholamine. * Procaine - 1st synthetic local anesthetic. It is used primarily to reduce the pain of intramuscular injection of penicillin. * Chloroprocaine - It is shoest acting local anesthetic used for sho procedures * Benzocaine - Is a common ingredient in topical sprays, can also cause methemeglobinamia. (See complications) * Tetracaine - Also called amethocaine mostly used topically.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which is not elevated in a child presenting with icterus, Pruritus and clay coloured stools \nSelect and explain. \nA. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, B. Alkaline phosphatase, C. 5'- nucleotidase, D. Glutamate dehydrogenase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: The child is suffering from obstructive jaundice or Cholestasis Enzymes elevated in Chloestasis ALP 5'-Nucleotidase Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1997", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Radial nerve, B. Median nerve, C. Ulnar nerve, D. Axillary nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ulnar nerve * Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In humans and other primates, as well as in guinea pigs, this vitamin cannot be synthesized, because of the absence of the enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase; the vitamin is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pantothenic acid, B. Nicotinic acid, C. Ascorbic acid, D. Folic acid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Psoriasis is associated with: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Geographic tongue, B. Benign median rhomboid glossitis, C. Lupus erythematosus, D. Lupus vulgaris", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Diagnostic feature of parathyroid carcinoma is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cytology, B. Metastasis, C. Clinical features, D. All", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Parathyroid carcinomas may be circumscribed lesions that are difficult to distinguish from adenomas. Cells are usually uniform and resemble normal parathyroid cells and of enclosed in a capsule. Diagnosis of carcinoma based on cytologic detail is unreliable , and invasion of surrounding tissues and metastasis are the only reliable criteria. Ref: Robbins and cotrans 9e Pg 1102", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "D.I.C. is seen in- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Acute promyelocytic leukemia, B. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia, C. CMC, D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Answwr is option 1 Abstract Malignancy is associated with a \"hypercoagulable\" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threatening bleeding is frequent in acute leukemias, paicularly in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). Laboratory assessments show profound hemostatic imbalance in this condition, with activation of coagulation, fibrinolysis, and nonspecific proteolysis systems. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 455", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Halting a disease at its incipient stages and preventing its complications is known as: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Primordial prevention, B. Primary prevention, C. Secondary prevention, D. Tertiary prevention", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The most common ocular motility defect noted in ocular Graves' disease is due to involvement of: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Inferior rectus, B. Medial rectus, C. Medial rectus, D. Inferior oblique", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. Inferior rectus", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Foreign body aspirated during dental procedures can be retrieved by: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Bronchoscopy, B. Gastroscopy, C. Arthroscopy, D. None of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus \nSelect and explain. \nA. Vasopressin, B. Terlipressin, C. Desmopressin, D. Pralipressin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Desmopressin is used to treat neurogenic diabetes insipidus, bedwetting, hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease it acts as an agonist to vasopressin receptor or ADH receptor- produce antidiuresis- less urine production-used in DI, bedwetting, vasoconstriction - used in esophageal varices and produces vwf- used in von Willebrand disease ref KD Tripathi 8th ed", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A 20 Yr old male presented with repeated episodes of hemetemesis. There is no history of jaundice or liver decompensation. On examination the significant findings include splenomegaly (8cms below costal margin), and presence of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Extra hepatic poal venous obstruction, B. Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis, C. Cirrhosis, D. Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis Condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of liver(mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusoidal) causing wide variation in normal architecture There is no true cirrhosis Etiology Chronic ingestion of arsenic, copper, vinyl chloride Clinical features Youny age patient with features of poal hypeension with conspicuous absence of liver cell failure Patient are usually on 2nd or 3rd decade Onset of symptoms is gradual Most common presenting symptom is GI bleed (90% cases) Splenomegaly Jaundice, Hepatomegaly, ascites and stigmata of liver cell failure are uncommon Diagnosis Site of block is smaller branches (3rd or 4th order branches) Ultrasound shows normal splenopoal axis. Withered tree appearance and peripoal fibrosis is seen in NCPF Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pgno : 1099-1105", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which electrolyte should be replenished in hyperophic pyloric stenosis ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Sodium, B. Hydrogen, C. Chloride, D. Bicarbonate", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis is the classic electrolyte and acid-base imbalance of pyloric stenosis. This prolonged vomiting causes progressive loss of fluids rich in hydrochloric acid, which causes the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions in or of potassium. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Feed forward mechanism is employmed in regulation of: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Temperature, B. Ph, C. Blood pressure, D. Blood volume", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Feed forward control ,in which no stimulus is required but the system still anticipates and makes changes.it is also known as anticipatory control or adaptive control .It is seen in: Temperature regulation Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Role of cerebellum in motor coordination Thinking about exercise Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:7", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Not safe disposal but good for soil building: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Incineration, B. Controlled tipping, C. Composting, D. Dumping", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Perifascicular atrophy is seen in – \nSelect and explain. \nA. Duchenne muscular atroply, B. Wilson disease, C. Beckers's dystrophy, D. Dermatomyositis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Muscle biopsy in dermatomyositis shows myonecrosis, myophagocytosis and perifascicular atrophy.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Antenatal screening is done using the following except : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cord blood, B. Amniotic fluid, C. Chorionic villi, D. Peripheral lymphocytes", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Peripheral lymphocytes", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:- \nSelect and explain. \nA. 5-8 mm of Hg, B. 10-15 mm of Hg, C. 20-25 mm of Hg, D. 30-35 mm of Hg", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Laparoscopy Needle used for pneumoperitoneum veress needle Most commonly used gas: CO2 Flow of gas: 1L /min Intra-abdominal pressure: 12-15 mm Hg Trocar is inseed at or just below the umbilicus penetrating skin, superficial & deep fascia, fascia transversals & parietal peritoneum", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Cells which surround the oocyte in Graafian follicle are called: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Discus proligerus, B. Cumulus oophorus, C. Luteal cells, D. Villus cells", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Oocyte lies eccentrically in the ovarian (Graafian) follicle surrounded by some granulosa cells called cumulus oophorus. Discus proligerus is the attachment point of the cumulus oophorus to the most peripheral granulosa cells of an antral follicle. Large fluid-filled antrum (A) Cumulus oophorus (CO) Membrane granulose (stratum granulose, SG)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In transtentorial herniation, a pa of the brain is displaced from the supratentorial to the infratentorial compament through the tentorial opening. It results in all of the following, EXCEPT: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cheyne stokes respiration, B. Decerebration, C. Ipsilateral hemiparesis, D. Ipsilateral oculomotor paresis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The uncus (on the medial aspect of the temporal lobe) herniates under the tentorium cerebelli. The uncus can compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III), compromising the parasympathetic fibers and resulting in ipsilateral pupillary dilation with associated ophthalmoplegia (\"down and out\"). Cheyne-Stokes respirations are commonly seen with mesial temporal transtentorial herniation. If the uncus is forced fuher medially, it compresses the cerebral peduncle, producing contralateral hemiparesis. After the brain herniates, the patients are decerebrate and comatose, have fixed and dilated pupils, and eye movements are absent. Ref: Cowan J.A., Thompson B. (2010). Chapter 36. Neurosurgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Infection occuring after man's bite is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Spirochetes, B. Staphylococcus, C. Anaerobic streptococci, D. Candida", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Drug of choice in thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy is : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Carbimazole, B. Lugol's iodine, C. Propranolol, D. Radioactive iodine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Carbimazole", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is the skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver and renal disease ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Mivacurium, B. Atracurium, C. Gallium, D. Vecuronium", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Atracurium is degraded by both pH and temperature dependent Hofmann elimination (autolysis) and by ester hydrolysis; it therefore does not require a dosage adjustment in patients with renal or hepatic failure. However, acidosis and severe hypothermia decrease the rate of drug metabolism and should prompt dose reduction. Mivacurium is a sho-acting benzylisoquinoline with an onset of action comparable to atracurium but with one-third its duration of action, because of rapid hydrolysis by plasma pseudocholinesterase. However, patients with renal or hepatic insufficiency may have depressed pseudocholinesterase activity leading to delayed elimination. Vecuronium is an aminosteroid compound with an intermediate duration of action. It is hepatically metabolized to three active metabolites, all of which are eliminated by the kidney.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Residual bodies are \nSelect and explain. \nA. Mitochondria, B. Nucleus, C. Golgi apparatus, D. Lysosomes", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: lysosomes Residual bodies are nothing but secondary lysosomes with undigested wastes. The digested materials are diffused into the cell cytoplasm through the lysosomal membrane. (Ref: www.sivabio.50web.com)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Measure of communicability of a disease - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Case fatality rate, B. Secondary attack rate, C. Sullivan index, D. Incubation period", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary attect rate Secondary attack rateo SAR is defined as \"the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary caseSAR =No of exposed persons developing disease within the range of the incubation period------------------------------------------Total number of exposed/susceptible contactx 100o The important features of SAR are:-i) The primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator.ii) Denominator is restricted to susceptible contacts of primary case.iii) In denominator, person should be suscetible - Immune person (to disease) are not susceptible to develop the disease, So they are excluded.iv) Disease should develop within the range of incubation period.o SAR is an important measure of communicability. Higher secondary attack rate means, more numbers of susceptible contacts are developing the disease after exposure to primary case. So, higher the SAR higher is the communicability (infectiousness) of disease.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome'? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Optic radiation, B. Optic tract, C. Cerebellum, D. Pulvinar", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Answer is C (Cerebellum) Von Hipple-Lindau Syndrome is associated with haemangioblastomas of cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla or pons.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Signature fracture of skull is seen in \nSelect and explain. \nA. Gutter fracture, B. Depressed fracture, C. Ring fracture, D. Sutural seperation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: DEPRESSED SKULL FRACTURE It is a common neurosurgical problem among the head injuries. It means fracture depression is more than the depth of inner table of the skull. Investigations: CT scan. Problems in depressed fracture Tear in the dura beneath Haematoma in the deeper plane Injury to the cerebrum Injury to the venous sinuses--may cause life-threatening haemorrhage. Fracture should not be elevated in such occasion, as it itself can precipitate bleeding Convulsions Meningitis Treatment Antibiotics, anticonvulsants. Elevation of the depressed fracture: Burr holes are made in the adjacent normal skull. Fracture is elevated. Bony fragments and necrotic materials are removed. Dural tear is closed with interrupted sutures. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1099", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "True about intrauterine fetal death (IUD) : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Gas bubbles in great vessels, B. Amniotic fluid volume, C. Overlapping of skull bone, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Gas bubbles in great vessels; Overlapping of skull bone; and Decreased amniotic fluid volume", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Inhibiting initiation and causing misreading of mRNA, B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA, C. Inhibiting peptidyltransferase activity, D. Inhibiting translocation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl tRNA Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blocking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Adverse effects of losaan are all EXCEPT - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Angioedema, B. Cough, C. Hyperkalemia, D. Headache", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Angioedema", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Muscle's of anterior compament of leg is/ are: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Peroneus teius, B. Peroneus brevis, C. Peroneuslongus, D. Flexordigitorumlongus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. (a) Peroneus teiusThe 4 muscles in the anterior compament of the leg are- the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis(Peroneus) teius", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Albinism is a genetic disease that results in\nincomplete metabolism of: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Histidine, B. Cystine, C. Tyrosine, D. Alanine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "40 years male with spherophakia is at risk for developing \nSelect and explain. \nA. Phacolytic glaucoma, B. Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma, C. Phacomorphic glaucoma, D. Obscuration of disc margins", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 248) Phacomorphic glaucoma is an acute secondary angle-closure glaucoma caused by:Intumescent lens i.e., swollen cataractous lens due to rapid maturation of cataract or sometimes following traumatic rupture of the capsule is the main cause of phacomorphic glaucomaAnterior subluxation or dislocation of the lensSpherophakia (congenital small spherical lens) Phacomorphic glaucoma is the term used for secondary angle-closure glaucoma due to lens intumescence. The increase in lens thickness from an advanced cataract, a rapidly intumescent lens, or a traumatic cataract can lead to pupillary block and angle closure.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Crystalline Lens is derived from (JIPMER May 2019) \nSelect and explain. \nA. Surface ectoderm, B. Neuroectoderm, C. Mesoderm, D. Endoderm", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: - Eye ball have contribution from several structures - Neural plate ectoderm forms Neural tube form - CNS which have diencephalon pa of brain aExtension of diencephalon (optic sulcus) into eyeball form retina (optic cup) & optic nerve (optic stalk) - Neural plate ectoderm also forms - epithelium of ciliary body & iris muscle - Muscles of Iris - Sphincter pupillae, dilator pupillae - Eye ball have some contribution from surface ectoderm as well which gives Surface epithelium of cornea (1st layer) Eye lens - Most of derivatives in eyeball come from neural crest cells which gives Secondary mesoderm of eyeball - Forms sclera, choroid, ciliary body & Iris (not epithelium) - All other layers of cornea except 1st layer develops from N.C.C", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Morbid jealousy is associated with which addiction? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Alcohol, B. Heroin, C. LSD, D. Charas", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcohol Morbid jealousy (Pathological jealousy)* Also referred to as delusional jealously, obsessive jealousy and Othello syndrome. This condition occurs when a person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful.* Morbid jealousy can occur in alcoholism, Schizophrenia, manic phase of bipolar illness, OCD, depression, or anxiety disorder.Also knowAlcoholic paranoia falcohal induced psychotic disorder with delusions)* Alcoholic parania refers to alcohol induced psychotic disorder with delusions. Delusions in alcoholic paranoia are fixed, ie. Alcoholic paranoia is associated with fixed delusions. Patients develop delusion of either persecution or jealousy, accompanied by delusion of reference. Auditary hallucinations may occur but play a minor role.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Tripod fracture is the name given for \nSelect and explain. \nA. Zygomatic fracture, B. Maxillary fracture, C. Mandibular fracture, D. Temporal fracture", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Zygoma fracture is also known as tripod fracture. Clinical features of zygoma fracture Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult. Flattening of malar prominence. Step-deformity of infraorbital margin. Anaesthesia in the distribution of infraorbital nerve. Trismus, due to depression of zygoma on the underlying coronoid process. Oblique palpebral fissure, due to the displacement of lateral palpebral ligament. Restricted ocular movement, due to entrapment of inferior rectus muscle. It may cause diplopia. Periorbital emphysema, due to escape of air from the maxillary sinus on nose-blowing. The mucosa of the maxillary sinus may be lacerated and cause epistaxis on that side. Fracture of the zygoma may or may not be painful to palpation and running a finger along the zygomatic arch may give a feel of a depressed fracture or a small dimple. The cheek may appear flattened compared to symmetry with the opposite side. This may be obvious immediately following trauma or several days later once swelling has subsided.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cabot ring, B. Basophilic strippling, C. Howell_jolly bodies, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ref : PJ Mehta 16/e p372,T. Singh 1/e p34 Ref Robbins 9/e pg 24 Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films,They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophils granules are basophilic and stains blue.hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red. Various modification available are leishman's stain,Wright's stain, Giemsa and and Jenner's stain. Basophilic stripping,Howell jolly bodies and Cabot rings are seen by romanowsky stain", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasis is \nSelect and explain. \nA. 11 β Hydroxylase deficiency, B. 21 Hydroxylase deficiency, C. 17 α Hydroxylase deficiency, D. None of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Kelly's medium is used in the isolation of - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Leptospira, B. Borrelia, C. Bartonella, D. Brucella", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "In all of the found except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Measles, B. Typhoid, C. Hepatitis B, D. Gonorrhea", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. (a) Measles cZef Park 22/e, p 154 In measles and whooping cough only cases are found with no carriers. Chronic carriers seen in: Typhoid Dysentery Hepatitis B Cerebrospinal meningitis Malaria Gonorrhea", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis in pregnancy: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Penicillin, B. Ceftriaxone, C. Rifampicin, D. Ampicillin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: N. meningitidis is dangerous because it can cause Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome & Addisonian crisis So, chemoprophylaxis is recommended Ceftriaxone as a single IM or IV injection is highly effective in carriage eradication and can be used at all ages and in pregnancy", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Regarding pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland true statement (s) is /are \nSelect and explain. \nA. Parotid gland is most commonly involved, B. Malignant transformation does not occur, C. Also called adenolymphoma, D. More commonly found in Men than Women", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Eighty percent salivary neoplasms are in the parotids of which 80% are benign.Pleomorphic adenoma is more common in parotids(80%).It is more common in females in a ratio of 3:1.It is also called as mixed salivary tumour.Malignant transformation can occur in 3-5% in early tumours and 10% in long duration tumours.(15 or more years).Adenolymphoma is Wahin 's tumour. SRB,5th,414", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Least failure in sterilization occurs with : \nSelect and explain. \nA. Falope ring, B. Bipolar cautery, C. Unipolar cauterisation, D. Hulka clip", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: The success rates are best when clips and rings are used and worst with electrocoagulation. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 393", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space, EXCEPT: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Rectouterine pouch, B. Ileocolic recess, C. Paraduodenal recess, D. Omental bursa", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Omental bursa, paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are peritoneal recesses. Peritoneal recesses These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults. Sometimes they persists to form potential sites for internal hernias and strangulation. These are: Lesser or omental bursa Duodenal recesses: includes superior duodenal recess, inferior duodenal recess, paraduodenal recess, retroduodenal recess, Duodenojejunal recess and mesenterico-parietal fossa (of waldeyer) Caecal fossa: Superior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess, Inferior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess and retrocaecal recess. Intersigmoid recess Ref: BDC Vol II, 3/e, Page 204.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "All are true about aspirin poisoning except \nSelect and explain. \nA. Acidosis, B. Hypothermia, C. Dehydration, D. Oliguria", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Low grade Central Nervous System tumour among the following is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Diffuse astrocytoma, B. Anaplastic astrocytoma, C. Glioblastoma multiforme, D. Meningioma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: (D) Meningioma # SPECTRUM OF CNS TUMORS range from Diffuse astrocytoma (grade ll/IV) Anaplastic astrocytoma (grade lll/IV) Glioblastoma (grade IV/IV)> Most meningiomas have a relatively low risk of recurrence or aggressive growth, and so are considered WHO grade l/IV.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is : \nSelect and explain. \nA. 3%, B. 8%, C. 15%, D. 29%", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: WHO classification of Progression to Carcinoma The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is 29% Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; pg no: 248", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "A female presents with 3 cm painless ulcer with raised edges on labia majora. Most common cause is: (E. REPEAT 2013) \nSelect and explain. \nA. Syphilis, B. Gonorrhea, C. Herpes, D. Chlamydia trachomatis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ref: E s sent to Is in Dermatology, 1st editionExplanation:* Presence of 3 cm ulcer with raised edges in the labia majora suggests Syphilis. (See the following table) SyphilisGranuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)Chancroid(Soft sore. Soft Chancre, Ulcus molle)LymphogranulomaVenereumEtiologyTreponema pallidumCalymmatobacteriumdonovaniGram negative Obligate intracellularHemophilus ducreiChlamydia trachomatis (LI, L2 and L3 types)IncubationPeriodPrimary syphilis: 1-3 weeks Secondary syphilis: 6-12 weeks8-12 days(17 days average)3 days - 2 weeks (1-5 days average)3-30 daysClinicalSigns* Painless indurated* Single punched out* Usually non-bleeding* Lymph nodes are rubbery* Dark field microscopy* FTA-ABS - Most sensitive test and Earliest lest to become positive* VDRL* RPR liters* TPT - Most specific* TPH - 2nd most sensitive test* Painless genital ulcer* Soft. Beefy* Clean friable base* Distinct raised rolled margins* Massive scarring* Lymphatic obstruction* Pseudobubos(Subcutaneous granulomas not nodes)* Extremely painful. Suppurative ulcers of genital mucosa* Soft friable, non- indurated, ragged undermined edges* Foul smelling yellow grey exudate* Suppurative inguinal lymph nodes (Bubo)* Ito-Reenstierna test - Intradermal test* Skin or mucosal ulcer followed by ulcerated inguinal lymph nodes* \"Sign of the groove\"* Frei's Test: Intradermal test* Genital elephantiasis (Esthiomene)Pathology Hypertrophic ulcers Donovan Bodies (Safety pin shaped)Pyogenic ulcerationNecrotising granulomatous inflammation with stricture formationTreatmentPenicillin G -Drug of Choice forall stages of syphilisDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeksAzithromycin 1 gsingle oral dose (or)Ceftriaxone 250 mg1M single dose (or)Ciprofloxacin 500 mgbd for 3 daysDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeks", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Regarding stones in gall bladder the following are true except - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Mixed stones are common in the west, B. In Saints Triad diverticulosis of colon and hiatus hernia coexist, C. Is a risk factor in the development of GB carcinoma, D. 90% of GB stones are radioopaque", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Nucleus, B. Microtubules, C. Ribosomes, D. Mitochondria", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Ans. (b) Microtubules(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.39)Microtubules provide structural support that can determine the shape of the cell and resist forces that tend to deform it", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "systematic desensitization was introduced by \nSelect and explain. \nA. seligman, B. joseph wolpe, C. lorenz, D. skinner", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION JOSEPH WOLPE Joseph Wolpe gave the concept of systematic desensitization This is a treatment used in phobia In phobia there is a conditioned fear response to aversive neutral stimulus and avoidance of that response leads to phobia Whenever there is a fear response there is stimulation of sympathetic system In that case stimulation of parasympathetic system by relaxation there is reduction in anxiety First step is to make a step ladder which are arranged based on the severity Then is go step by step and along with doing applied relaxation Slowly the the sympathetic system is reduced The patient will be able to approach stimulus without anxiety Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th editio, pg no. 845", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Haabs striae are seen in- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Buphthalmos, B. Keratoglobus, C. Trachoma, D. Keratoconus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Haabs striae -Tears and breaks in descemets membrane . These occur because Descemt's membrane is less elastic than the corneal stroma. Tears are usually peripheral, concentric with the limbus and appear as lines with double contour. Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:226", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Which of the following is not a minor diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Lytic bone lesions, B. Plasmacytosis greater than 20%, C. Plasmacytoma on biopsy, D. Monoclonal globulin spike on serum electrophoresis of > 2.5 g/dl for IgG, >1.5 g/dl for IgA", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Ans. (c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy(Ref: Wintrobes 12th/pg2377)Durie and Salmon criteria for diagnosis of Multiple myeloma.A minimum of 1 major and 1 minor criterion needed, although (1) + (a) is not sufficient, or 3 minor criteria that must include (a) and (b).However, International myeloma working group 2011 has revised the criteria as mentioned in pretexts.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Frequency polygon is obtained by joining the points of \nSelect and explain. \nA. Bar diagram, B. Complete bar diagram, C. Multiple bar diagram, D. Histogram blocks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. d (Histogram blocks) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/ 788; Methods in Bio-statistics, by B. K. Mahajan 6th/p. 23)Quantitative data is presented by the following graphsQualitative or discrete or enumeration data is presented by the following graphs:# Histogram.# Bar diagram# Frequency polygon.# Pie or sector diagram# Frequency curve.# Pictogram# Line chart or graph.# Spot map# Cumulative frequency diagram (Ogive). # Scatter or dot diagram.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Wave One is classified as \nSelect and explain. \nA. Sgp31, B. Sgp32, C. Sgp33, D. None of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Following are hepatotoxic anesthetic agents except- \nSelect and explain. \nA. Halothane, B. Chloroform, C. Ether, D. Propofol", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Propofol o Following are the groups of hepatotoxic anesthetic agents:i) Group I: Drugs with well known hepatotoxic potential and containing Chlorine or bromine. Eg: chloroform,ii) Group II: Drugs which contain fluorine Eg: halothane, methoxyflurane. o Desflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, nitrous oxide and carbon tetrachloride are also linked with hepatotoxic ity.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Normal glomerular filtration rate is - \nSelect and explain. \nA. 50 ml/min, B. 125 ml/min, C. 250 ml/min, D. 500 ml/min", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: In man, resting glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml/min (lSOL/day), the renal plasma flow is about 600 ml/min.\n\n\nThus about one-fish (20%) of plasma passing through kidney is filtered„ i.e., a fraction of renal plasma flow that is filtered (filtration fraction)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "An elderly male presents with one episode of gross haematuria. All of the following investigations are recommended for investigating this patient except: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cystoscopy, B. Urine microscopy for malignant cells, C. Urine tumor markers, D. Intravenous Pyelogram", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: Answer is C (Urine tumor markers) Urine tumor markers are the single best answer of exclusion as these are neither sensitive nor specific enough to replace cystoscopy and cytology. 'Individuals older than 40 years of age who develop haematuria , should have a urine specimen for cytology and undergo cystoscopy and imaging of the urinary tract with an intravenous prelozram or CT Recommended investigations in individuals greater than 40 years who develop haematuria include: Devita/H16th Urinary cytologyQ for malignant cells Cvstocopy Imaging of the urinary tract with Intravenous Pyelogram or CT scanQ Other urine assay' (tumor markers) have been used to diagnose disease and follow up patients including flow cytometry, blood group antigens (Lewis x), cytokeratins, nuclear matrix proteins, Fibrin degradation products and telomerose. None is sensitive or specific enough to replace cystoscopy and urine cytology. - Devita", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Cold caloric test stimulates \nSelect and explain. \nA. Cochlea, B. Lateral semicircular canal, C. Posterior semicircular canal, D. All", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Stimulation of semicircular canal produces nystagmus and the direction of nystagmus is determined by the plane of the canal being stimulated. In cold caloric test, the lateral semicircular canal is stimulated. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition)", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Drug resistant in tuberculosis is due to ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Transformation, B. Transduction, C. Conjugation, D. Mutation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Drug resistance in M.tb is by Mutation in Chromosomes Metabolic defects occur as a result of mutation Eg - M.tb is normally catalase +ve INH resistant M.tb are Catalase -ve", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Cells present in Cerebellar coex are all except? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Purkinje, B. Bipolar, C. Granule, D. Golgi", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: There are 5 types of neurons present in cerebellar coex:- Granule cell- Golgi cell- Basket cell - Stellate cell- Purkinje cellBipolar neurons are less common. A single axon and dendrite arise at opposite poles of the cell body. Their cell bodies are located in the retina, the olfactory epithelium, and the cochlear and vestibular ganglia.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Telefono is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Pulling of hair, B. Beating on soles, C. Beating on ears, D. Beating on fingers", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: C \nExplanation: TELEFONO consists of repeated slapping of the sides of the head by open palms of the assailant this may cause rupture of ear drums. Ref : internet sources", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Adipocere is likely to occur in - \nSelect and explain. \nA. Warm humid climate, B. Dry hot climate, C. Burial in sandy soil, D. Extreme cold", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: None", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Rituximab is a targeted antibody against - \nSelect and explain. \nA. CD 20, B. CD 22, C. CD 34, D. CD 55", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 20 * Rituximab is a targeted antibody against cell surface molecule CD-20, i.e. Rituximab is anti CD-20 antibody.* It is used in:i) B-cell lymphomas Low grade lymphomas, mantle cell lymphomas, relapsed aggressive B cell lymphomas, CLLii) SLEiii) Rheumatoid arthritis", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is \nSelect and explain. \nA. Myeloperoxidase, B. Superoxide dismutase, C. MAO, D. Hydroxylase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: B \nExplanation: Superoxide dismutase ref Robbins 7/e p17 , Harrison 17/e p 2572 ,9/e p48.", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ? \nSelect and explain. \nA. Iodides of Na/ K, B. Propylthiuracil, C. Methimazole, D. Nitrates", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iodides of Na Iodine and Iodides Iodine is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor Most impoant action is inhibition of hormone release (thyroid constipation); but all facets of thyroid synthesis may be affected. Excess iodide inhibits its own transpo in thyroid cells and may alter the redox potential of cells, thus interfering iodination - reduced T4/T3 synthesis (Wolff-chaikoff effect).", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "Clinically in the non-injured eye, sympathetic ophthalmitis may manifest as: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Acute plastic iridocyclitis, B. Neuroretinitis, C. Choroiditis, D. All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: D \nExplanation: Ans. All of the above", "role": "assistant" } ]

[ { "content": "An 8 years old child has left sided flank pain and mental retardation. On ultrasound, a hyperechoic lesion in the right kidney and multiple lesions in the liver are noted. CT examination of the abdomen revealed -50 to -80 HU density of these lesions. The most probable diagnosis is: \nSelect and explain. \nA. Tuberous sclerosis, B. Hereditary hemangioblastoma, C. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease, D. von Hippel-Lindau syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "Answer: A \nExplanation: Answer- A (Tuberous sclerosis)AML is a benign clonal neoplasm consisting of varying amounts of mature adipose tissue, smooth muscle and thick-walled vessels.", "role": "assistant" } ]