This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hemodynamics, Subject name: Pathology
A 67-year-old man presents with sudden left leg pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and a small aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is most likely responsible for development of a cold limb in this patient? 
Select and explain. 
A. Acute myocardial infarction, B. Arterial thromboembolism, C. Cardiogenic shock, D. Deep venous thrombosis
B: Arterial thromboembolism
Answer: B: Arterial thromboembolism 
Explanation: Embolism of an artery of the leg leads to sudden pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. In some cases, the limb must be amputated. None of the other choices would cause this clinical presentation. Ruptured aortic aneurysm (choice E) presents with pain, shock, and a pulsatile mass in the abdomen.Diagnosis: Arterial thromboembolism