This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
G1 P0 patient presents with blood pressure of 160 / 102 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and right upper quadrant discomfort at 36 weeks gestation. Following induction of labor, she delivers vaginally. She had blood loss 1500mL. Her serum creatinine rises from 0.98mg / dL predelivery to  1.42  mg / dL diagnosis 
Select and explain. 
A. Severe preeclampsia, B. Post partum hemorrhage, C. Subcapsular liver hematoma, D. Acute tubular necrosis
D: Acute tubular necrosis
Answer: D: Acute tubular necrosis 
Explanation: Preeclampsia causes acute tubulas necrosis. This is usually caused by severe obstetrical hemorrhage (HELLP syndrome).