This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Mood Disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry
A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:- 
Select and explain. 
A. Antipsychotics and antidepressants, B. Antidepressants and mood stabilizers, C. Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers, D. Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
B: Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
Answer: B: Antidepressants and mood stabilizers 
Explanation: The patient had a manic episode in past and currently he is in severe depression. The complete diagnosis would be bipolar disorder. hence, this patient should receive both mood stabilizers and antidepressants.