This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ovarian Tumors and Vulvar cancer, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
A 23-year old patient diagnosed with stage IA malignant ovarian germ cell tumor. Which of the following would be the standard treatment- 
Select and explain. 
A. Unilateral oophorectomy, B. Bilateral oophorectomy and hysterectomy, C. Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy, D. Ovarian biopsy followed by chemotherapy
C: Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy
Answer: C: Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy 
Explanation: Approximately 50% to 70% of Germ cell malignancies are stage 1. Since she is a young patient, Feility-sparing surgery ( USO ) is done Almost All germ cell malignancies require Postoperative Chemotherapy.