This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
A 36 years old woman has absence of menses for the last 4 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Serum levels of LH & FSH are raised. Serum estradiol level is low. These findings suggest: 
Select and explain. 
A. Bilateral tubal obstruction, B. PCOD, C. Premature menopause, D. Exogenous estrogen administration
C: Premature menopause
Answer: C: Premature menopause 
Explanation: Premature menopause Ovarian failure occurring 2 SD in years before the mean menopausal age in a population. It is clinically defined as secondary amenorrhoea for at least 3 months with | FSH level | FSH/LH ratio Low E2 level In a woman under 40 years of age. Average age of attaining menopause World = 51 years India = 47 years