This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sexually Transmitted Disease in the Female, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
A 35 year old female complains of clear mucoid non offensive vaginal discharge without pruritus. She is infected due to tubal damage. The cervix appears inflamed on per speculum examination. What is the most likely cause? 
Select and explain. 
A. Bacterial vaginosis, B. Chlamydia, C. Gonorrhea, D. Trichomonas
B: Chlamydia
Answer: B: Chlamydia 
Explanation: Ans. is b, i.e. chlamydiaIn the question patient is complaining of vaginal discharge without pruritus. The cervix is also inflamed, i.e. cervicitis is also present and she has a tubal cause of infertility, which means the organism is leading to PID (i.e. rules out Trichomonas and Bacterial Vaginosis).Now we have 2 options - Gonorrhea and chlamydia.In Gonorrhea, the discharge is purulent. Clear mucoid non offensive discharge means it is chlamydia.