This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Orthopaedics
A 30 year old man involved in a fisticuff, injured his middle finger and noticed slight flexion of DIP joint. X-ray were normal. The most appropriate management at this stage is : 
Select and explain. 
A. Ignore, B. Splint the finger in hyperextension, C. Surgical repair of the flexor tendon, D. Buddy strapping
B: Splint the finger in hyperextension
Answer: B: Splint the finger in hyperextension 
Explanation: An acute mallet finger should be splinted with the DIP joint in hyper extension for 8 weeks.