This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Retina, Subject name: Ophthalmology
A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause? 
Select and explain. 
A. Vitreous haemorrhage, B. Optic atrophy, C. Developmental cataract, D. Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma
A: Vitreous haemorrhage
Answer: A: Vitreous haemorrhage 
Explanation: Ans. (a) Vitreous hemorrhageRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 730Sudden painless loss of vision with absence of fundal glow and a normal anterior chamber, in absence of trauma (spontaneous) is consistent with a diagnosis of spontaneous vitreous hemorrhage.Vitreous hemorrhageSudden painless loss of visionOptic atrophyGradual painless loss of visionDevelopmental cataractGradual painless loss of visionAcute angle closure glaucomaSudden painful loss of vision