This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Large intestine, Subject name: Surgery
What is the treatment of choice for 70 years old male patient who presented with peritonitis secondary to ruptured diveiculitis ? 
Select and explain. 
A. Conservative, B. Primary resection and anastomosis, C. Hamann's procedure, D. Whipple procedure
C: Hamann's procedure
Answer: C: Hamann's procedure 
Explanation: TOC in elderly patient is Hamann's procedure Procedure: sigmoid resection with formation of left iliac fossa colostomy and closure of the rectal stump Resection with colonic washout and anastomosis can be considered in young fit patient without gross contamination or overwhelming sepsis