This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown
A 38-year-old woman presents with painless post-coital bleeding. She had a cone biopsy for carcinoma in situ five years ago. Her last smear was three months ago, following this. Her last period was six weeks ago.Mostproable diagnosis is: 
Select and explain. 
A. Carcinoma of cervix, B. Ectopic pregnancy, C. Endometrial carcinoma., D. Uterine fibroids.
A: Carcinoma of cervix
Answer: A: Carcinoma of cervix 
Explanation: The recurrence of abnormal vaginal bleeding in a patient with a previous history of a cone biopsy would raise concerns of carcinoma of the cervix.
Her last smear was nearly five years ago,indicating she defaulted from follow-up after her cone biopsy.
Six weeks amenorrhoeamight raise concerns about an ectopic pregnancy but the absence of pain makes this unlikely.
It would always be wise to perform a pregnancy test and scan if in any about.