This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Glaucoma, Subject name: Ophthalmology
A young male presents with painless loss of vision with IOP of 60mm Hg. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis? 
Select and explain. 
A. Angle closure glaucoma, B. Acute anterior uveitis, C. Chronic papilledema, D. Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
D: Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
Answer: D: Glaucomatocyclitic crisis 
Explanation: GLAUCOMATOCYCLITIC CRISIS Clinical features - Recurrent unilateral attacks of acute rise of intraocular pressure (40-50 mm of Hg) without shallowing of anterior chamber associated with. Since there is no pain thus angle closure glaucoma and acute anterior uveitis are ruled out. Loss of visual acuity occurs in papilloedema in very late stages when optic atrophy occurs and not associated with such high intraocular pressure.