This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Neuromuscular disorders, Subject name: Orthopaedics
A 40 yr old diabetic man comes with a complaint of inability to bend his ring finger and development small nodules on the palm.What will be not be a pa of your management in this patient? 
Select and explain. 
A. Wait and watch, B. When more than 15 degree flexion deformity involved at PIP :Subtotal fasciectomy, C. When more than 30 degree flexion deformity involved at MCP :Subtotal fasciectomy, D. Collagenase injection
B: When more than 15 degree flexion deformity involved at PIP :Subtotal fasciectomy
Answer: B: When more than 15 degree flexion deformity involved at PIP :Subtotal fasciectomy 
Explanation: This is a condition of Dupuytren's contracture Flexion deformity- because of abnormal fibrosis of palmar aponeurosis leading to cord or nodule formation. M/C cause is Idiopathic MCP>PIP>DIP involved most commonly Ring finger more common than little finger involved Treatment: Conservative by stretching and inj. collagenase When more than 30 degree involved at MCP and more than 15-20 degree at PIP subtotal fasciectomy is done