This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Skin
A 55-year-old woman complains to her physician that the skin of her armpits and groin "keeps getting darker and darker." Physical examination demonstrates velvety brown and way skin in the axilla and groin. Biopsy of these lesions shows a variably hyperplastic epidermis with many sharp peaks and valleys. Aside from cosmetic considerations, which of the following is the primary medical significance of these lesions? 
Select and explain. 
A. They may be a sign of immunosuppression, B. They may be a sign of visceral carcinoma, C. They may be easily superinfected, D. They may be malignant
B: They may be a sign of visceral carcinoma
Answer: B: They may be a sign of visceral carcinoma 
Explanation: The lesions are acanthosis nigricans, which looks somewhat like a mole or wa, but is actually due to epidermal hyperplasia. Acanthosis nigricans can be seen in obesity, diabetes, and in patients with underlying cancers, often adenocarcinomas of the chest or abdomen. The lesions are not characteristic of immunosuppression and are not easily superinfected. They are also neither malignant nor premalignant. Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 5. Miscellaneous Epidermal Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e.