This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocrinology, Subject name: Medicine
A 30 year ols woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be - 
Select and explain. 
A. Craniopharyngioma, B. Prolactinoma, C. Meningioma, D. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
B: Prolactinoma
Answer: B: Prolactinoma 
Explanation: prolactinoma stimulate pituitary causing excessive milk secretion and it also inhibit GnRH causing decreased FSH &LH level causing secondary amenorrhea (Harrison 17 pg 2206)