This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Arterial Disorders, Subject name: Surgery
A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, pulseless left lower extremity. He complains of left leg paresthesia and is unable to dorsiflex his toes. Following a successful popliteal embolectomy, with restoration of palpable pedal pulses, the patient is still unable to dorsi- flex his toes. The next step in management should be 
Select and explain. 
A. Electromyography (EMG), B. Measurement of anterior compartment pressure, C. Elevation of the left leg, D. Immediate fasciotomy
D: Immediate fasciotomy
Answer: D: Immediate fasciotomy 
Explanation: This case illustrates two (among many) conditions that lead to the anterior compartment syndrome, namely, acute arterial occlusion without collateral inflow and rapid reperfusion of ischemic muscle. Treatment for a compartment syndrome is prompt fasciotomy Assessing a compartment syndrome and proceeding with fasciotomy are generally based on clinical judgment. Inability to dorsiflex the toes is a grave sign of anterior compartment ischemia. EMG studies and compartment pressure measurements would probably be abnormal but are unnecessary in view of the known findings and would delay treatment. Mere elevation of the leg would be an ineffective means of relieving compartment pressure, although elevation should accompany fasciotomy. Application of a splint has no role in the acute management of this problem.