This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine
A 21-year-old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Her height is 153 cms, weight is 51 kg. She has well-developed breasts. She has no public or axillary hair and no hirsutism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis- 
Select and explain. 
A. Turner's syndrome, B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome, C. Premature ovarian failure, D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
D: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Answer: D: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome 
Explanation: Turner's Syndrome : (Gonadal dysgenesis)

A phenotypic female presents with primary amenorrhea. Public and axillary hairs remain sparse and breasts are infantile (patient in question has mature breasts)

Stein Leventhal syndrome : (Polycystic ovarian disease)

This is characterized by Hirsuitism (patient in question has no hirsutism) along with amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea, obesity and infertility.

Premature ovarian failure: Presents with secondary amenorrhea and not primary amenorrhea.