This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
32 year old nulliparous comes to gynecology OPD, due to inability to conceive. On general examination, she is otherwise healthy. She has undergone uterine dilatation and curettage for menorrhagia not controlled medically, around 4 years ago. Which of the following investigation would be more appropriate in this patient? 
Select and explain. 
A. Laparoscopy, B. Hysterosalpingography, C. CT-scan abdomen and pelvis, D. X-ray pelvis
B: Hysterosalpingography
Answer: B: Hysterosalpingography 
Explanation: Asherman syndrome can be suspected from the history. Hysterosalpingographyis best among choices to analyse intrauterine cavity contour, adhesions, tubal status. Laparocopy being invasive is not advocated in place of HSG for initial infertility evaluation.