This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: ECG and Arrhythmia 3, Subject name: Medicine
A 26-year-old man attends an occupational heath assessment in preparation for new employment. A 12 leads ECG is recorded as shown. He is feeling well and is experiencing no symptoms.He has no significant past medical history. Based on the ECG findings what is the most likely diagnosis? 
Select and explain. 
A. Right Bundle Branch Block, B. Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome, C. Brugada Syndrome, D. Normal Variant
B: Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
Answer: B: Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome 
Explanation: ECG=Broad QRS & characteristic delta wave present | Dx WPW Absent PR interval is due to Rapid conduction of electrical signals from atria to ventricles an aberrant pathway (Bundle of Kent). * As Electrical signals to ventricles doesn't come AV node so signals have to pass through myocytes ,not in the conduction pathways, that's why Wide QRS complex * Definitive Mx of WPW syndrome is Radio frequency Ablation.