This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by: 
Select and explain. 
A. Immediate cesarean section, B. Immediate induction of labor, C. Tocolytic therapy, D. Magnesium sulphate therapy
B: Immediate induction of labor
Answer: B: Immediate induction of labor 
Explanation: The patient here is of Abruption( Accidental hemorrhage) in pregnancy. This is never managed conservatively and the best option is to give Steroids for pulmonary maturity and alongside sta the process of induction of labor. Decreased fetal movements is not an indication for cesarean section but to do more intensive ante paum fetal monitoring. An LSCS is only done if abruption has associated complications like fetal distress etc.