This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Non Hodgkin Iymphoma, Subject name: Pathology
A 55-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain. Upper GI endoscopy and gastric biopsy reveal a neoplastic, lymphocytic infiltrate invading glandular tissue. Giemsa staining is positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? 
Select and explain. 
A. Burkitt lymphoma, B. Marginal zone lymphoma, C. Follicular lymphoma, D. Mantle cell lymphoma
B: Marginal zone lymphoma
Answer: B: Marginal zone lymphoma 
Explanation: Diagnosis: Marginal zone lymphoma, MALT lymphoma Marginal Zone Lymphoma is an indolent tumor develop due to chronic B cell stimulation either by H.pylori or Auto immune disorders Translocation (11:18) involved