This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: FMGE 2019, Subject name: Anatomy
An 85-year-old patient was brought to the ER, BP: 180/100, right hemiparesis was seen. What is the next best step in management? 
Select and explain. 
A. Reduce BP, B. NCCT, C. MRI, D. Aspirin 300mg and anticoagulants
B: NCCT
Answer: B: NCCT 
Explanation: As given clinical features point towards stroke, doing NCCT is the next best step to confirm diagnosis & do appropriate management. If CT Scan shows: Hypodense lesion, point towards Acute ischemic stroke- Hyperdense lesion, point towards Hemorrhagic stroke Causes: Embolic stroke > cerebral thrombosis Causes: Hypeension, trauma, warfarin toxicity, cerebral amyloid angiopathy etc - DOC - Reteplase - Window period < 4.5 hr of symptom onset Brain angiography- window period 4.5-6hr Osmotherapy Ventriculostomy | (If fails) Hemicraniectomy Decompressive For hypeension crisis, Nicardipine/labetalol is used.