This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sex Intersexuality, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
18-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea having a karyotype of 45X0 presents with infantile uterus. What should be done next? 
Select and explain. 
A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to induce puberty, B. Vaginoplasty, C. Clitoroplasty, D. Bilateral gonadectomy
A: Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to induce puberty
Answer: A: Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to induce puberty 
Explanation: ANS. AThe primary treatments for all girls and women with Turner's syndrome include hormone therapies (growth hormone and estrogen).It is important to identify a Y chromosome because affected individuals are at a risk of gonadoblastoma (20 to 30%). Only in such cases we need to do gonadectomy.Hence, the answer for this question is HRT to induce Puberty.Evaluation of primary amenorrheaSecondary sexual characters|| |Normal* MRKH* AIS* Transverse vaginal septum* Imperforate hymen Absent* Turner's syndrome* Kallman syndrome* Swyer's syndromeAbbreviation: MRKH, Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser; AIS, Androgen insensitivity syndrome