This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine
A 45 year old man had a Subarachnoid hemorrhage from a intracranial aneurysm 6 years ago . He also had progressive renal impairment associated with hematuria  diagnosis is 
Select and explain. 
A. PCKD, B. Medullary Sponge kidney, C. Liddle syndrome, D. Fanconi syndrome
A: PCKD
Answer: A: PCKD 
Explanation: ADPCKD is associated with berry aneurysm.