This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pregnancy induced Hypeension, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
After delivery, a 28 year old pre ecclamptic primigra has a soft uterus with moderate-to-heavy bleeding. There is no laceration and there is PPH diagnosed due to uterine atony. Which of the following is the best management option? 
Select and explain. 
A. 0.2-mg intramuscular (IM) ergonovine (Methergine), B. 20 units of IV oxytocin, C. 10 units of oral oxytocin, D. 250 mg prostaglandin F2-alpha orally
B: 20 units of IV oxytocin
Answer: B: 20 units of IV oxytocin 
Explanation: Ergot derivatives should not be given in patients with hypeension since this is classically known to increase blood pressure. A high BP may provoke a post paum ecclampsia Oxytocin is not orally effective . Prostaglandin F2-alpha is given IM.