This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery
A 60 years old male alcoholic presents with acute upper GI bleeding following bouts of vigrous vomiting. Most probable diagnosis is 
Select and explain. 
A. Acute gastritis, B. Boerhaave's syndrome, C. Mucosal and submucosal tear at cardiac orifice of stomach, D. Esophageal carcinoma
C: Mucosal and submucosal tear at cardiac orifice of stomach
Answer: C: Mucosal and submucosal tear at cardiac orifice of stomach 
Explanation: Answer- C. Mucosal and submucosal tear at cardiac orifice of stomachMallory - Weiss syndromeIs characterized by mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction following a bout of forceful retching (or vomiting, coughing or straining.The clinical picture consists of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding following bouts of retching or vomitting.Other frequent associations with Mallory-Weiss tears areHiatal herniaNSAIDs abuseDisease related bleeding diathesis.