This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Psychiatry
A 40 yr old female patient presents with a history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient - 
Select and explain. 
A. No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss, B. SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs, C. Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs, D. Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs
C: Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs
Answer: C: Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs 
Explanation: The patient in question is presenting with persistent classical symptoms of depression and should be managed by antidepressant medications.
There is no ideal antidepressant. The first choice is determined by the side effect profile that is least objectionable to the patient's physical status (patient preference)