This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics
A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next best step in management is: 
Select and explain. 
A. Hysterectomy, B. Colposcopy and LEEP, C. Colposcopy and Cryotherapy, D. Conization
B: Colposcopy and LEEP
Answer: B: Colposcopy and LEEP 
Explanation: According to FIGO classification, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3 (CIN 3) belong to stage 0. Loop electrocautery excision procedure done under colposcopic visualization is the mode of treatment for CIN II and CIN III lesions. Ref: Novak's, 14th Edition, Page 582, 583; William's Gynoecology, 1st Edition, Page 635; COGDT, 10th Edition, Pages 841, 837; Dewhurst's, 6th Edition, Pages 575, 574.