This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: GIT, Subject name: Surgery
A 40 years old male underwent Billroth-II gastrectomy for gastric ulcer. After 3 weeks of surgery, when patient was having dinner, patient collapsed within 20 minutes of meals. What is the most probable reason? 
Select and explain. 
A. Hypovolemia, B. Reactive hypoglycemia, C. Reactive hyperglycemia, D. Hypervolemia
A: Hypovolemia
Answer: A: Hypovolemia 
Explanation: Dumping syndrome:- Complication of loop gastrojunostomy / Billroth - II gastrectomy.- Due to dumping of hyperosmotic & hyperosmolar content into proximal pa of jejunum Early dumping Late dumping - 15-30 minutes after meals -Hyperosmotic content | Fluid secretion | Third space loss | Vasomotor symptoms hypovolemia - 2-3 hours after meals - Hyperglycemic content | | release of insulin | Reactive hypoglycaemia Dumping is easy to prevent but difficult to manage Prevention of dumping syndrome: 1. Dietary modification- Small frequent meals- | carbohydrate, | protein, | fat - Avoid liquids during meals- Avoid high calorie drinks2. Octreotide intake3. Sx 1. (B-II - B-I)2. Interposition of anti-peristaltic segment of jejunum.