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Typhoid oral vaccine is given -

1, 3, 5 days

1, 2, 3 days

1, 2, 4 days

1, 7, 14 days

Question: Typhoid oral vaccine is given - Choices: A. 1, 3, 5 days B. 1, 2, 3 days C. 1, 2, 4 days D. 1, 7, 14 days Answer:

Which of the following Px is true for Typhoid carriers?

Ciprofloxacin + azithromycin

Cotrimoxazole

Amoxicillin + probenecid

None

Question: Which of the following Px is true for Typhoid carriers? Choices: A. Ciprofloxacin + azithromycin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Amoxicillin + probenecid D. None Answer:

All of the following statements are about Non Typhoid Salmonella (NTS) are true, EXCEPT:

Humans are the only reservoir

Transmission is most commonly associated with eggs, poultry and undercooked meat

Common in Immunocompromised individuals

Resistance to fluroquinolones has emerged

Question: All of the following statements are about Non Typhoid Salmonella (NTS) are true, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Humans are the only reservoir B. Transmission is most commonly associated with eggs, poultry and undercooked meat C. Common in Immunocompromised individuals D. Resistance to fluroquinolones has emerged Answer:

Typhoid intestinal perforation is usually occurs in which week of typhoid fever?

2nd - 3rd week

4th - 5th week

5th - 7th week

6th - 8th week

Question: Typhoid intestinal perforation is usually occurs in which week of typhoid fever? Choices: A. 2nd - 3rd week B. 4th - 5th week C. 5th - 7th week D. 6th - 8th week Answer:

Which of the following is not true regarding Typhoid carrier?

Convalescent carriers excrete the organism for 6 - 8 weeks

Chronic carriers excrete bacilli for many years

Chronic carrier state is associated with presence of bacilli in gall bladder

Urinary carrier is more common than fecal carrier

Question: Which of the following is not true regarding Typhoid carrier? Choices: A. Convalescent carriers excrete the organism for 6 - 8 weeks B. Chronic carriers excrete bacilli for many years C. Chronic carrier state is associated with presence of bacilli in gall bladder D. Urinary carrier is more common than fecal carrier Answer:

All are complication of Typhoid ulcer except ?

Perforation

Stricture

Haemorrhage

Sepsis

Question: All are complication of Typhoid ulcer except ? Choices: A. Perforation B. Stricture C. Haemorrhage D. Sepsis Answer:

Features of Typhoid Ulcers include all of the following Except:

Bleeding

Perforation

Stricture and obstruction

Longitudinal orientation

Question: Features of Typhoid Ulcers include all of the following Except: Choices: A. Bleeding B. Perforation C. Stricture and obstruction D. Longitudinal orientation Answer:

Which of the following is true regarding Typhoid in children :

Leukochyosis is characteristic

Encephalitis is common

Mild splenomegaly is usual

Urine culture is positive in 4 to 6 days

Question: Which of the following is true regarding Typhoid in children : Choices: A. Leukochyosis is characteristic B. Encephalitis is common C. Mild splenomegaly is usual D. Urine culture is positive in 4 to 6 days Answer:

Typhoid perforation occurs during

Ist week

2nd week

3rd week

4th week

Question: Typhoid perforation occurs during Choices: A. Ist week B. 2nd week C. 3rd week D. 4th week Answer:

Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in: March 2005, March 2013

1 -2 week

2 -3week

3-4 week

4 -5week

Question: Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in: March 2005, March 2013 Choices: A. 1 -2 week B. 2 -3week C. 3-4 week D. 4 -5week Answer:

Most common complication of Typhoid:

Paralytic ileus.

Otitis media.

Oophoritis.

Rheumatic fever.

Question: Most common complication of Typhoid: Choices: A. Paralytic ileus. B. Otitis media. C. Oophoritis. D. Rheumatic fever. Answer:

All are true about Typhoid EXCEPT:

Incubation period 10 to 14 days

Most common among males

Carrier are treated by Ampicillin

Highest incidence occurs in 30-40 years age group

Question: All are true about Typhoid EXCEPT: Choices: A. Incubation period 10 to 14 days B. Most common among males C. Carrier are treated by Ampicillin D. Highest incidence occurs in 30-40 years age group Answer:

Early surgery is indicated in -a) Amoebiasis peritonitisb) Biliary peritonitisc) Typhoid peritonitisd) All

a

bc

ac

ad

Question: Early surgery is indicated in -a) Amoebiasis peritonitisb) Biliary peritonitisc) Typhoid peritonitisd) All Choices: A. a B. bc C. ac D. ad Answer:

Typhoid is treated by all except

Erythromycin

Ceftriaxone

Amikacin

Ciprofloxacin

Question: Typhoid is treated by all except Choices: A. Erythromycin B. Ceftriaxone C. Amikacin D. Ciprofloxacin Answer:

All are complication of Typhoid ulcer EXCEPT -

Perforation

Stricture

Haemorrhage

Endocarditis

Question: All are complication of Typhoid ulcer EXCEPT - Choices: A. Perforation B. Stricture C. Haemorrhage D. Endocarditis Answer:

Most immunogenic Typhoid antigen

O antigen

H antigen

Vi antigen

Somatic antigen

Question: Most immunogenic Typhoid antigen Choices: A. O antigen B. H antigen C. Vi antigen D. Somatic antigen Answer:

Increased Monocytic count is seen in Typhoid and which of the following conditions?

Parasitic infections

Sub-Acute Bacterial Endocarditis

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

None of the above

Question: Increased Monocytic count is seen in Typhoid and which of the following conditions? Choices: A. Parasitic infections B. Sub-Acute Bacterial Endocarditis C. Hodgkin's Lymphoma D. None of the above Answer:

Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except?

Toxic megacolon

Colonic polyp

Colonic obstruction

Refractory fistula

Question: Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except? Choices: A. Toxic megacolon B. Colonic polyp C. Colonic obstruction D. Refractory fistula Answer:

Most common Morphological difference between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's disease:

Crypt abscess

Diffuse polyps

Mucosal edema

Lymphoid aggregates

Question: Most common Morphological difference between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's disease: Choices: A. Crypt abscess B. Diffuse polyps C. Mucosal edema D. Lymphoid aggregates Answer:

Earliest pathological change is X-ray in Ulcerative Colitis -

Loss of haustration

Aphthous ulcerattions

Mucosal granularity

Skip tensions

Question: Earliest pathological change is X-ray in Ulcerative Colitis - Choices: A. Loss of haustration B. Aphthous ulcerattions C. Mucosal granularity D. Skip tensions Answer:

Most common Morphological difference between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's disease

Mucosal edema

Crypt abscess

Diffuse polyps

Lymphoid aggregates

Question: Most common Morphological difference between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's disease Choices: A. Mucosal edema B. Crypt abscess C. Diffuse polyps D. Lymphoid aggregates Answer:

Not a feature of Ulcerative Colitis?

Fine mucosal granularity

Pseudopolyps

String sign of Kantor

lead Pipe Appearance

Question: Not a feature of Ulcerative Colitis? Choices: A. Fine mucosal granularity B. Pseudopolyps C. String sign of Kantor D. lead Pipe Appearance Answer:

Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's diseases are associated with all EXCEPT?

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

Turner's syndrome

Glycogen storage diseases Type III

Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome

Question: Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's diseases are associated with all EXCEPT? Choices: A. Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Glycogen storage diseases Type III D. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome Answer:

When is surgery not done in cases of Ulcerative Colitis?

Toxic megacolon

Colonic perforation

Colonic obstruction

Refractory fistula

Question: When is surgery not done in cases of Ulcerative Colitis? Choices: A. Toxic megacolon B. Colonic perforation C. Colonic obstruction D. Refractory fistula Answer:

All the following Vasculitis causes necrotizing inflammation

Polyarteritis nodosa

Wegener's granulomatosis

Kawasaki disease

Microscopic polyangitis

Question: All the following Vasculitis causes necrotizing inflammation Choices: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Kawasaki disease D. Microscopic polyangitis Answer:

Vasculitis involving the Aoic arch is

Takayasu aeritis

Polyaeritis nodosa

Kawasaki disease

Churg-Strauss syndrome

Question: Vasculitis involving the Aoic arch is Choices: A. Takayasu aeritis B. Polyaeritis nodosa C. Kawasaki disease D. Churg-Strauss syndrome Answer:

Vasculitis is seen in-a) Burger's diseaseb) HSPc) Goutd) Reiteres diseasee) Behcets syndrome

abcd

bcde

acde

abde

Question: Vasculitis is seen in-a) Burger's diseaseb) HSPc) Goutd) Reiteres diseasee) Behcets syndrome Choices: A. abcd B. bcde C. acde D. abde Answer:

Which of the following is a 'Small Vessel Vasculitis':

Polyaeritis Nodosa (PAN)

Microscopic polyangitis

Giant cell vasculitis

Takayasu's Disease

Question: Which of the following is a 'Small Vessel Vasculitis': Choices: A. Polyaeritis Nodosa (PAN) B. Microscopic polyangitis C. Giant cell vasculitis D. Takayasu's Disease Answer:

Vasculitis not commonly seen in adults-

Kawasaki disease

Henoch schonlein purpura

Temporal arteritis

PAN

Question: Vasculitis not commonly seen in adults- Choices: A. Kawasaki disease B. Henoch schonlein purpura C. Temporal arteritis D. PAN Answer:

Vasculitis not commonly seen in adults

Kawasaki disease

Henoch schonlein purpura

Temporal aeritis

PAN

Question: Vasculitis not commonly seen in adults Choices: A. Kawasaki disease B. Henoch schonlein purpura C. Temporal aeritis D. PAN Answer:

Which of these doesn't present with granulomatous Vasculitis?

Polyarteritis nodosa

Wegeners

Churg strauss syndrome

Microscopic polyangitis

Question: Which of these doesn't present with granulomatous Vasculitis? Choices: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Wegeners C. Churg strauss syndrome D. Microscopic polyangitis Answer:

A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilic infiltration. There is no evidence of Vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is:

Sweet's Syndrome

Erythema nodosum

Erythema nodosum leprosum

Behcet's syndrome

Question: A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilic infiltration. There is no evidence of Vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is: Choices: A. Sweet's Syndrome B. Erythema nodosum C. Erythema nodosum leprosum D. Behcet's syndrome Answer:

In Werner Syndrome, most common site of Gastrinoma is?

Pancreas

Stomach

Colon

Small Intestione

Question: In Werner Syndrome, most common site of Gastrinoma is? Choices: A. Pancreas B. Stomach C. Colon D. Small Intestione Answer:

In Werner Syndrome, the most common site of Gastrinoma is?

Pancreas

Stomach

Small Intestine

Colon

Question: In Werner Syndrome, the most common site of Gastrinoma is? Choices: A. Pancreas B. Stomach C. Small Intestine D. Colon Answer:

All are true about Xeroderma Pigmentosum except

It is autosomal dominant inheritance

Due to defective DNA repair

Associated with squamous cell carcinoma

Thymine dimers

Question: All are true about Xeroderma Pigmentosum except Choices: A. It is autosomal dominant inheritance B. Due to defective DNA repair C. Associated with squamous cell carcinoma D. Thymine dimers Answer:

In Xeroderma Pigmentosum, defect is in?

Base pair defect

Nucleotide Excision Repair

Mismatch repair defect

Protein folding

Question: In Xeroderma Pigmentosum, defect is in? Choices: A. Base pair defect B. Nucleotide Excision Repair C. Mismatch repair defect D. Protein folding Answer:

Yaws is caused by

T.pallidum

T. Endemicum

T. Peenue

T. Carateum

Question: Yaws is caused by Choices: A. T.pallidum B. T. Endemicum C. T. Peenue D. T. Carateum Answer:

Causative agent of Yaws is?

Treponema pertenue

Treponema carateum

Treponema pallidum

Treponema endemicum

Question: Causative agent of Yaws is? Choices: A. Treponema pertenue B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:

Which of the following statements about Yaws is not TRUE?

Spread by sexual transmission

Caused by T. peenue

Has cross immunity with syphilis

Cannot be differentiated serologically from T. pallidum

Question: Which of the following statements about Yaws is not TRUE? Choices: A. Spread by sexual transmission B. Caused by T. peenue C. Has cross immunity with syphilis D. Cannot be differentiated serologically from T. pallidum Answer:

Causative agent of Yaws is:

Treponema peenue

Treponema carateum

Treponema pallidum

Treponema endemicum

Question: Causative agent of Yaws is: Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:

All are true about Yaws except

Caused by Treponema pertenue

Transmitted non-venerally

Later stages involve heart and nerves

Secondary Yaws can involve bones

Question: All are true about Yaws except Choices: A. Caused by Treponema pertenue B. Transmitted non-venerally C. Later stages involve heart and nerves D. Secondary Yaws can involve bones Answer:

Which of the following is the causative agent of Yaws?

Treponema peenue

Treponema carateum

Treponema pallidum

Treponema endemicum

Question: Which of the following is the causative agent of Yaws? Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:

Which is not true about Yaws?

Spread by sexual transmission

Caused by T. peenue

Has cross immunity with syphilis

Cannot be differentiated serologically from T. pallidum

Question: Which is not true about Yaws? Choices: A. Spread by sexual transmission B. Caused by T. peenue C. Has cross immunity with syphilis D. Cannot be differentiated serologically from T. pallidum Answer:

Yaws is caused by -

Treponema pallidum

Treponema carateum

Treponema refringens

Treponema pertenue

Question: Yaws is caused by - Choices: A. Treponema pallidum B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema refringens D. Treponema pertenue Answer:

Yellow Fever vaccination stas protection after how many days of injection -

5 days

10 days

15 days

20 days

Question: Yellow Fever vaccination stas protection after how many days of injection - Choices: A. 5 days B. 10 days C. 15 days D. 20 days Answer:

Ceificate of vaccination of Yellow Fever is valid for how many years: September 2010

1 year

2 years

5 years

10 years

Question: Ceificate of vaccination of Yellow Fever is valid for how many years: September 2010 Choices: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 10 years Answer:

To prevent Yellow Fever Aedes aegypti index should be less than?

0.50%

1%

2%

5%

Question: To prevent Yellow Fever Aedes aegypti index should be less than? Choices: A. 0.50% B. 1% C. 2% D. 5% Answer:

To prevent Yellow Fever Aedes aegypti index should be less than

0.50%

1%

2%

5%

Question: To prevent Yellow Fever Aedes aegypti index should be less than Choices: A. 0.50% B. 1% C. 2% D. 5% Answer:

All are true about Yellow Fever except

Incubation period is 3-6 days

Validity of Int’l certificate of Vaccination lasts up to 10 years

Urban form is controlled by 17 D vaccine

Aedes aegypti index should not be more than 10% to ensure freedom from yellow Fever

Question: All are true about Yellow Fever except Choices: A. Incubation period is 3-6 days B. Validity of Int’l certificate of Vaccination lasts up to 10 years C. Urban form is controlled by 17 D vaccine D. Aedes aegypti index should not be more than 10% to ensure freedom from yellow Fever Answer:

A 67-year-old man is hospitalized after several days of fever and increasing shortness of breath. Respiratory viral panel returns positive for influenza A and the patient is started on a standard five day course of oseltamivir. Despite therapy, his shortness of breath continues to worsen and his oxygen saturation decreases to the point where ICU transfer and intubation are required. Chest radiograph shows bilateral infiltrates. Clinical criteria are consistent with development of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). After several weeks of supportive therapy, the patient improves with lung function returning to near normal. Which of the following processes is involved in the regeneration of alveolar lining after damage to alveoli occurs?

Squamous cell proliferation.

Sweeping of debris out of the alveoli by ciliated cells.

Excess mucus production by goblet cells.

Proliferation of surfactant-secreting cells.

Question: A 67-year-old man is hospitalized after several days of fever and increasing shortness of breath. Respiratory viral panel returns positive for influenza A and the patient is started on a standard five day course of oseltamivir. Despite therapy, his shortness of breath continues to worsen and his oxygen saturation decreases to the point where ICU transfer and intubation are required. Chest radiograph shows bilateral infiltrates. Clinical criteria are consistent with development of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). After several weeks of supportive therapy, the patient improves with lung function returning to near normal. Which of the following processes is involved in the regeneration of alveolar lining after damage to alveoli occurs? Choices: A. Squamous cell proliferation. B. Sweeping of debris out of the alveoli by ciliated cells. C. Excess mucus production by goblet cells. D. Proliferation of surfactant-secreting cells. Answer:

A newlywed couple comes to your office for genetic counseling. Both potential parents are known to be carriers of the same Cystic Fibrosis (CF) mutation. What is the probability that at least one of their next three children will have CF if they are all single births?

0.

1/64.

27/64.

37/64.

Question: A newlywed couple comes to your office for genetic counseling. Both potential parents are known to be carriers of the same Cystic Fibrosis (CF) mutation. What is the probability that at least one of their next three children will have CF if they are all single births? Choices: A. 0. B. 1/64. C. 27/64. D. 37/64. Answer:

Two days after delivery, a 4300-g (9-lb 8-oz) newborn has difficulty feeding and has become increasingly lethargic. His cry has become weak. He was born at term. His mother has a history of intravenous drug use. His temperature is 36.4°C (96.5°F), pulse is 170/min, respirations are 62/min, and blood pressure is 70/48 mm Hg. Examination shows midfacial hypoplasia, diaphoresis, and tremor of the lower extremities. Macroglossia is present. There are folds in the posterior auricular cartilage. The left lower extremity is larger than the right lower extremity. Abdominal examination shows an umbilical hernia. The liver is palpated 4 cm below the right costal margin. Neurological examination shows decreased tone in all extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

Administer thyroxine.

Administer 3% saline.

Administer glucose.

Administer ampicillin and gentamicin.

Question: Two days after delivery, a 4300-g (9-lb 8-oz) newborn has difficulty feeding and has become increasingly lethargic. His cry has become weak. He was born at term. His mother has a history of intravenous drug use. His temperature is 36.4°C (96.5°F), pulse is 170/min, respirations are 62/min, and blood pressure is 70/48 mm Hg. Examination shows midfacial hypoplasia, diaphoresis, and tremor of the lower extremities. Macroglossia is present. There are folds in the posterior auricular cartilage. The left lower extremity is larger than the right lower extremity. Abdominal examination shows an umbilical hernia. The liver is palpated 4 cm below the right costal margin. Neurological examination shows decreased tone in all extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? Choices: A. Administer thyroxine. B. Administer 3% saline. C. Administer glucose. D. Administer ampicillin and gentamicin. Answer:

A 27-year-old G3P2002 presents to the clinic for follow up after her initial prenatal visit. Her last period was 8 weeks ago. Her medical history is notable for obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and eczema. Her current two children are healthy. Her current pregnancy is with a new partner after she separated from her previous partner. Her vaccinations are up to date since the delivery of her second child. Her temperature is 98°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her physical exam is unremarkable. Laboratory results are shown below: Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL Hematocrit: 41% Leukocyte count: 9,000/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 210,000/mm^3 Blood type: O Rh status: Negative Urine: Epithelial cells: Rare Glucose: Positive WBC: 5/hpf Bacterial: None Rapid plasma reagin: Negative Rubella titer: > 1:8 HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody screen: Negative Gonorrhea and Chlamydia NAAT: negative Pap smear: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL) What is the best next step in management?

Colposcopy and biopsy after delivery.

Colposcopy and biopsy now.

Cryosurgical excision.

Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP).

Question: A 27-year-old G3P2002 presents to the clinic for follow up after her initial prenatal visit. Her last period was 8 weeks ago. Her medical history is notable for obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and eczema. Her current two children are healthy. Her current pregnancy is with a new partner after she separated from her previous partner. Her vaccinations are up to date since the delivery of her second child. Her temperature is 98°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her physical exam is unremarkable. Laboratory results are shown below: Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL Hematocrit: 41% Leukocyte count: 9,000/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 210,000/mm^3 Blood type: O Rh status: Negative Urine: Epithelial cells: Rare Glucose: Positive WBC: 5/hpf Bacterial: None Rapid plasma reagin: Negative Rubella titer: > 1:8 HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody screen: Negative Gonorrhea and Chlamydia NAAT: negative Pap smear: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL) What is the best next step in management? Choices: A. Colposcopy and biopsy after delivery. B. Colposcopy and biopsy now. C. Cryosurgical excision. D. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP). Answer:

A 22-year-old gravida 1 presents to her physician at 15 weeks gestation for a prenatal appointment. She complains of a rash involving her chest, face, and arms, a watery nasal discharge, and mild bilateral knee pain. She has had these symptoms for about 5 days. The symptoms do not seem to bother her too much, but she is concerned for the baby. She had contact with her younger sister, who also had a rash and was diagnosed with rubella infection about 10 days ago at a family gathering. She cannot confirm her vaccination history. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 110/70 mmHg; heart rate, 89/min; respiratory rate, 12/min; and temperature, 37.6℃ (99.7℉). Examination shows a moderately dense maculopapular lacy rash spread over the patient’s trunk, extremities, and face. No lymph node, liver, or spleen enlargement is noted. The knee joints appear normal. Serology performed 1 year ago Current serology Rubella IgM - negative Rubella IgM - negative Rubella IgG - 1:128 Rubella IgG - 1:64 Rubella IgG avidity - high Rubella IgG avidity - high What is the proper next step in the management of this woman?

Reassure and recommend vaccination against rubella postpartum.

Recommend pregnancy termination.

Arrange a chorionic villus sampling.

Recommend additional serologic testing for parvovirus B19.

Question: A 22-year-old gravida 1 presents to her physician at 15 weeks gestation for a prenatal appointment. She complains of a rash involving her chest, face, and arms, a watery nasal discharge, and mild bilateral knee pain. She has had these symptoms for about 5 days. The symptoms do not seem to bother her too much, but she is concerned for the baby. She had contact with her younger sister, who also had a rash and was diagnosed with rubella infection about 10 days ago at a family gathering. She cannot confirm her vaccination history. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 110/70 mmHg; heart rate, 89/min; respiratory rate, 12/min; and temperature, 37.6℃ (99.7℉). Examination shows a moderately dense maculopapular lacy rash spread over the patient’s trunk, extremities, and face. No lymph node, liver, or spleen enlargement is noted. The knee joints appear normal. Serology performed 1 year ago Current serology Rubella IgM - negative Rubella IgM - negative Rubella IgG - 1:128 Rubella IgG - 1:64 Rubella IgG avidity - high Rubella IgG avidity - high What is the proper next step in the management of this woman? Choices: A. Reassure and recommend vaccination against rubella postpartum. B. Recommend pregnancy termination. C. Arrange a chorionic villus sampling. D. Recommend additional serologic testing for parvovirus B19. Answer:

A 23-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 20 weeks of gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal exam. Her last pregnancy was unremarkable and she gave birth to a healthy rhesus (RhD) positive girl. Her past medical history is notable for a blood transfusion after a car accident with a complex femur fracture about 3 years ago. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg. Examination shows that the uterus is at the umbilicus. Ultrasound examination reveals normal fetal heart rate, movement, and anatomy. Routine prenatal labs show the following: Blood type A Rh- Leukocyte count 11,000/mm3 Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL Platelet count 345,000/mm3 Serum Anti-D antibody screen Negative Rubella IgM Negative Rubella IgG Negative Varicella IgM Negative Varicella IgG Positive STD panel Negative Urine Protein Trace Culture No growth Cervical cytology Normal Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?"

Administer anti-D immunoglobulin now and repeat antibody screening shortly before delivery..

Repeat antibody screening at 28 weeks. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin at 28 weeks and after delivery if the newborn is Rh(D) positive..

Repeat antibody screening at 28 weeks and administer anti-D immunoglobulin at 28 weeks. No further management is needed..

No further screening is needed. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin shortly after delivery.

Question: A 23-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 20 weeks of gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal exam. Her last pregnancy was unremarkable and she gave birth to a healthy rhesus (RhD) positive girl. Her past medical history is notable for a blood transfusion after a car accident with a complex femur fracture about 3 years ago. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg. Examination shows that the uterus is at the umbilicus. Ultrasound examination reveals normal fetal heart rate, movement, and anatomy. Routine prenatal labs show the following: Blood type A Rh- Leukocyte count 11,000/mm3 Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL Platelet count 345,000/mm3 Serum Anti-D antibody screen Negative Rubella IgM Negative Rubella IgG Negative Varicella IgM Negative Varicella IgG Positive STD panel Negative Urine Protein Trace Culture No growth Cervical cytology Normal Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?" Choices: A. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin now and repeat antibody screening shortly before delivery.. B. Repeat antibody screening at 28 weeks. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin at 28 weeks and after delivery if the newborn is Rh(D) positive.. C. Repeat antibody screening at 28 weeks and administer anti-D immunoglobulin at 28 weeks. No further management is needed.. D. No further screening is needed. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin shortly after delivery. Answer:

An infectious disease investigator is evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of a new interferon-gamma-based assay for diagnosing tuberculosis in patients who have previously received a Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine. Consenting participants with a history of BCG vaccination received an interferon-gamma assay and were subsequently evaluated for tuberculosis by sputum culture. Results of the study are summarized in the table below. Tuberculosis, confirmed by culture No tuberculosis Total Positive interferon-gamma assay 90 6 96 Negative interferon-gamma assay 10 194 204 Total 100 200 300 Based on these results, what is the sensitivity of the interferon-gamma-based assay for the diagnosis of tuberculosis in this study?"

194/200.

90/100.

90/96.

100/300.

Question: An infectious disease investigator is evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of a new interferon-gamma-based assay for diagnosing tuberculosis in patients who have previously received a Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine. Consenting participants with a history of BCG vaccination received an interferon-gamma assay and were subsequently evaluated for tuberculosis by sputum culture. Results of the study are summarized in the table below. Tuberculosis, confirmed by culture No tuberculosis Total Positive interferon-gamma assay 90 6 96 Negative interferon-gamma assay 10 194 204 Total 100 200 300 Based on these results, what is the sensitivity of the interferon-gamma-based assay for the diagnosis of tuberculosis in this study?" Choices: A. 194/200. B. 90/100. C. 90/96. D. 100/300. Answer:

Acute Myeloid Leukemia is a malignant cancer in which myeloid progenitor cells become rapidly dividing and retain their semi-stem cell state. Under normal circumstances, which of the following cell types would arise from this stem cell??

NK cell

Platelet

T cell

Lymphoid progenitor

Question: Acute Myeloid Leukemia is a malignant cancer in which myeloid progenitor cells become rapidly dividing and retain their semi-stem cell state. Under normal circumstances, which of the following cell types would arise from this stem cell?? Choices: A. NK cell B. Platelet C. T cell D. Lymphoid progenitor Answer:

Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent years. This has been mainly facilitated by:?

Mutation in the virus allowing replication in the mosquito Aedes albopictus

Air Travel

Climate change

Poor mosquito control and the absence of DTT

Question: Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent years. This has been mainly facilitated by:? Choices: A. Mutation in the virus allowing replication in the mosquito Aedes albopictus B. Air Travel C. Climate change D. Poor mosquito control and the absence of DTT Answer:

Measles has been controlled in many countries by which of the following??

By hygiene

By MMR vaccine

By new molecular peptide vaccines

By humanised monoclonal antibodies to F protein

Question: Measles has been controlled in many countries by which of the following?? Choices: A. By hygiene B. By MMR vaccine C. By new molecular peptide vaccines D. By humanised monoclonal antibodies to F protein Answer:

Ulcerative Colitis ?

Carries a risk of colonic cancer

Can be treated with a LOFFLEX diet

Can be caused by small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

Can be caused by milk intolerance

Question: Ulcerative Colitis ? Choices: A. Carries a risk of colonic cancer B. Can be treated with a LOFFLEX diet C. Can be caused by small intestinal bacterial overgrowth D. Can be caused by milk intolerance Answer: