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500 | 12,059 | H.R.7065 | Energy | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2022
This bill supports infrastructure for hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, at ports and in the shipping industry. For example, the bill directs the Department of Energy to establish a program that awards grants to states, local governments, Indian tribes, and other eligible entities for infrastructure that supports hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, at ports and in the shipping industry. | To require the Secretary of Energy to establish a grant program to
support hydrogen-fueled equipment at ports and to conduct a study with
the Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security
on the feasibility and safety of using hydrogen-derived fuels,
including ammonia, as a shipping fuel.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. MARITIME MODERNIZATION GRANT PROGRAM.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means an
entity described in subsection (d).
(2) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian Tribe'' has the
meaning given the term in section 4 of the Indian Self-
Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(3) Low-income or disadvantaged community.--The term ``low-
income or disadvantaged community'' means a community
(including a city, a town, a county, and any reasonably
isolated and divisible segment of a larger municipality) with
an annual median household income that is less than 100 percent
of the statewide annual median household income for the State
in which the community is located, according to the most recent
decennial census.
(4) Program.--The term ``program'' means the program
established under subsection (b).
(5) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Energy.
(b) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a program under
which the Secretary shall provide grants, on a competitive basis, to
eligible entities for--
(1) the purchase, installation, construction, facilitation,
maintenance, or operation of, as appropriate--
(A) hydrogen- or ammonia-fueled cargo-handling
equipment, including, at a minimum, equipment used for
drayage applications;
(B) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia-fueled trucks for
use at ports;
(C) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia-fueled ferries,
tugboats, dredging vessels, container ships, bulk
carriers, fuel tankers, and other marine vessels;
(D) hydrogen fuel cell-based shore power for ships
while docked at the port;
(E) hydrogen fuel cell or ammonia onsite power
plants; and
(F) port infrastructure for hydrogen or ammonia
import, export, storage, and fueling; and
(2) the training of ship crew and shore personnel to handle
hydrogen or ammonia.
(c) Goals.--The goals of the program shall be--
(1) to demonstrate fuel cell, hydrogen, or ammonia
technologies in maritime and associated logistics applications;
(2) to assist in the development and validation of
technical targets for hydrogen, ammonia, and fuel cell systems
for maritime and associated logistics applications;
(3) to benchmark the conditions required for broad
commercialization of hydrogen, ammonia, and fuel cell
technologies in maritime and associated logistics applications;
(4) to assess the operational and technical considerations
for installing, constructing, and using hydrogen- or ammonia-
fueled equipment and supporting infrastructure at ports; and
(5) to reduce emissions and improve air quality in areas in
and around ports.
(d) Eligible Entities.--
(1) In general.--An entity eligible to receive a grant
under the program is--
(A) a State;
(B) a political subdivision of a State;
(C) a local government;
(D) a public agency or publicly chartered authority
established by 1 or more States;
(E) a special purpose district with a
transportation function;
(F) an Indian Tribe or a consortium of Indian
Tribes;
(G) a multistate or multijurisdictional group of
entities described in any of subparagraphs (A) through
(F); or
(H) subject to paragraph (2), a private entity or
group of private entities, including the owners or
operators of 1 or more facilities at a port.
(2) Joint eligibility with private entities.--A private
entity or group of private entities is eligible for a grant
under the program if--
(A) the private entity or group of private entities
partners with an entity described in any of
subparagraphs (A) through (G) of paragraph (1) for
purposes of applying for, and carrying out activities
under, the grant; and
(B) the entity described in the applicable
subparagraph of that paragraph is the lead entity with
respect to the application and those activities.
(e) Applications.--
(1) In general.--An eligible entity desiring a grant under
the program shall submit to the Secretary an application at
such time, in such manner, and containing such information as
the Secretary may require.
(2) Requirement.--The application of an eligible entity
described in subparagraph (H) of subsection (d)(1) shall be
submitted jointly with an entity described in subparagraphs (A)
through (G) of that subsection.
(f) Considerations.--In providing grants under the program, the
Secretary, to the maximum extent practicable, shall--
(1) select projects that will generate the greatest benefit
to low-income or disadvantaged communities; and
(2) select projects that will--
(A) maximize the creation or retention of jobs in
the United States; and
(B) provide the highest job quality.
(g) Priority.--In selecting eligible entities to receive a grant
under the program, the Secretary shall give priority to projects that
will provide greater net impact in avoiding or reducing emissions of
greenhouse gases.
(h) Leak Detection.--Each eligible entity that receives a grant
under the program shall conduct--
(1) a hydrogen leakage monitoring, reporting, and
verification (also known as ``MRV'') program; and
(2) a hydrogen leak detection and repair (also known as
``LDAR'') program.
(i) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this section $100,000,000
for each of fiscal years 2022 through 2026.
SEC. 3. STUDY.
(a) In General.--The Secretary of Energy, in consultation with the
Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security,
shall conduct, and submit to Congress a report describing the results
of, a study--
(1) to fully address the challenges to ensure the safe use
and handling of hydrogen, ammonia, and other hydrogen-based
fuels on vessels and in ports;
(2) to identify, compare, and evaluate the feasibility of,
the safety, environmental, and health impacts of, and best
practices with respect to, the use of hydrogen-derived fuels,
including ammonia, as a shipping fuel;
(3) to identify and evaluate considerations for hydrogen
and ammonia storage, including--
(A) at ports;
(B) on board vessels; and
(C) for subsea hydrogen storage; and
(4) to assess the cost and value of a hydrogen or ammonia
strategic reserve, either as a new facility or as a
modification to the Strategic Petroleum Reserve established
under part B of title I of the Energy Policy and Conservation
Act (42 U.S.C. 6231 et seq.).
(b) Requirements.--In carrying out subsection (a), the Secretary of
Energy, the Secretary of Transportation, and the Secretary of Homeland
Security shall--
(1) take into account lessons learned from demonstration
projects in other industries, including--
(A) projects carried out in the United States;
(B) projects carried out in other countries; and
(C) projects relating to the automotive industry,
buses, petroleum refining, chemical production,
fertilizer production, and stationary power; and
(2) evaluate the applicability of the lessons described in
paragraph (1) to the use of hydrogen in maritime and associated
logistics applications.
<all> | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2022 | To require the Secretary of Energy to establish a grant program to support hydrogen-fueled equipment at ports and to conduct a study with the Secretary of Transportation and the Secretary of Homeland Security on the feasibility and safety of using hydrogen-derived fuels, including ammonia, as a shipping fuel. | Hydrogen for Ports Act of 2022 | Rep. Porter, Katie | D | CA |
501 | 2,534 | S.4780 | Transportation and Public Works | Improving Marine Highway Transportation Act of 2022
This bill modifies the definition of marine highway transportation to include the carriage by a documented vessel of cargo that is bulk, liquid, or loose cargo loaded in tanks, holds, hoppers, or on deck. | To amend the definition of marine highway transportation to include the
carriage by a documented vessel of cargo that is bulk, liquid, or loose
cargo loaded in tanks, holds, hoppers, or on deck.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Improving Marine Highway
Transportation Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. MARINE HIGHWAY TRANSPORTATION DEFINITION AMENDMENT.
Section 55605(1) of title 46, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (C), by striking ``or'' after the
semicolon;
(2) by redesignating subparagraph (D) as subparagraph (E);
and
(3) by inserting after subparagraph (C) the following:
``(D) bulk, liquid, or loose cargo loaded in tanks,
holds, hoppers, or on deck; or''.
<all> | Improving Marine Highway Transportation Act of 2022 | A bill to amend the definition of marine highway transportation to include the carriage by a documented vessel of cargo that is bulk, liquid, or loose cargo loaded in tanks, holds, hoppers, or on deck. | Improving Marine Highway Transportation Act of 2022 | Sen. Cruz, Ted | R | TX |
502 | 3,199 | S.4330 | Health | Specialty Physicians Advancing Rural Care Act or the SPARC Act
This bill establishes student loan repayment programs to support the provision of specialty medical care in rural areas.
The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) must carry out such a program for certain specialty medicine physicians who provide care in rural communities with shortages of such physicians. Physicians must agree to a period of obligated service and, for each year of such service, HRSA must pay one-sixth of the principal payment and interest on eligible loans up to a maximum cap of $250,000. Additionally, HRSA may carry out a similar loan repayment program for nonphysician specialty health care providers. | To amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize a loan repayment
program to encourage specialty medicine physicians to serve in rural
communities experiencing a shortage of specialty medicine physicians,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Specialty Physicians Advancing Rural
Care Act'' or the ``SPARC Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) According to a June 2021 study by the Association of
American Medical Colleges, titled ``The Complexities of
Physician Supply and Demand: Projections From 2019 to 2034'',
the projected demand for physicians continues to exceed
projected supply, with a projected shortage of between 37,800
and 124,000 physicians by 2034. Further, the study projects a
shortage of between 21,000 and 77,100 nonprimary care
physicians by 2034.
(2) A July 25, 2019, article, titled ``Implications of an
Aging Rural Physician Workforce'', published in the New England
Journal of Medicine, estimates that the size of the workforce
held relatively steady at about 12 physicians per 10,000
population in rural areas from 2000 to 2017, but such workforce
is forecast to decrease by 23 percent by 2030.
(3) According to the report by the Association of American
Medical Colleges, titled ``Medical Student Education: Debt,
Costs, and Loan Repayment Fact Card for the Class of 2020'',
the percentage of medical school graduates with education debt
is 73 percent and the average education debt amount for a
medical school graduate is $207,003. Medical school debt
accounts for 70 percent of overall student loan debt, and the
median stipend for a medical graduate's first year after
earning a medical degree is $58,305.
SEC. 3. SPECIALTY MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS WORKFORCE IN RURAL COMMUNITIES.
Title VII of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 292 et seq.)
is amended--
(1) by redesignating part G (42 U.S.C. 795j et seq.) as
part H; and
(2) by inserting after part F (42 U.S.C. 295h) the
following new part:
``PART G--SPECIALTY MEDICINE WORKFORCE IN RURAL COMMUNITIES
``SEC. 782. LOAN REPAYMENT PROGRAM.
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Program for specialty medicine physicians.--The
Secretary, acting through the Administrator of the Health
Resources and Services Administration, shall carry out a
program under which--
``(A) the Secretary enters into agreements with
specialty medicine physicians to make payments in
accordance with subsection (b) on the principal of and
interest on any eligible loans described in subsection
(c); and
``(B) the specialty medicine physicians each agree
to complete a period of obligated service described in
subsection (d) as a specialty medicine physician in the
United States in a rural community experiencing a
shortage of specialty medicine physicians.
``(2) Program for non-physician specialty health care
providers.--The Secretary, acting through the Administrator of
the Health Resources and Services Administration, may carry out
a program under which--
``(A) the Secretary enters into agreements with
non-physician specialty health care providers to make
payments in accordance with subsection (b) on the
principal of and interest on any eligible loans
described in subsection (c); and
``(B) the non-physician specialty health care
providers each agree to complete a period of obligated
service described in subsection (d) as a non-physician
specialty health care provider in the United States in
a rural community experiencing a shortage of such
providers.
``(b) Payments.--For each year of obligated service by a specialty
medicine physician pursuant to an agreement under subsection (a)(1) or
by a non-physician specialty health care provider pursuant to an
agreement under subsection (a)(2), the Secretary shall make a payment
to such physician or provider as follows:
``(1) Service in shortage area.--The Secretary shall pay--
``(A) for each year of obligated service by a
specialty medicine physician or non-physician specialty
health care provider pursuant to an agreement under
paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a), \1/6\ of the
principal of and interest on each eligible loan of the
physician or provider which is outstanding on the date
the physician or provider began service pursuant to the
agreement; and
``(B) for completion of the sixth and final year of
such service, the remainder of such principal and
interest.
``(2) Maximum amount.--The total amount of payments under
this section to any specialty medicine physician or non-
physician specialty health care provider shall not exceed
$250,000.
``(c) Eligible Loans.--The loans eligible for repayment under this
section are each of the following:
``(1) Any loan for education in specialty medicine or
specialty health care.
``(2) Any Federal Direct Stafford Loan, Federal Direct PLUS
Loan, Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford Loan, or Federal
Direct Consolidation Loan (as such terms are used in section
455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965).
``(3) Any Federal Perkins Loan under part E of title I of
the Higher Education Act of 1965.
``(4) Any other Federal loan as determined appropriate by
the Secretary.
``(d) Period of Obligated Service.--Any specialty medicine
physician or non-physician specialty health care provider receiving
payments under this section as required by an agreement under paragraph
(1) or (2) of subsection (a) shall agree to a 6-year commitment to
full-time employment, with no more than 1 year passing between any 2
years of covered employment, as a specialty medicine physician or non-
physician specialty health care provider, as applicable, in the United
States in a rural community experiencing a shortage of specialty
medicine physicians or non-physician specialty health care providers,
as applicable.
``(e) Ineligibility for Double Benefits.--No borrower may, for the
same service, receive a reduction of loan obligations or a loan
repayment under both--
``(1) this section; and
``(2) any federally supported loan forgiveness program,
including under section 338B, 338I, or 846 of this Act, or
section 428J, 428L, 455(m), or 460 of the Higher Education Act
of 1965.
``(f) Breach.--
``(1) Liquidated damages formula.--The Secretary may
establish a liquidated damages formula to be used in the event
of a breach of an agreement entered into under paragraph (1) or
(2) of subsection (a).
``(2) Limitation.--The failure by a specialty medicine
physician or a non-physician specialty health care provider to
complete the full period of service obligated pursuant to such
an agreement, taken alone, shall not constitute a breach of the
agreement, so long as the physician or provider completed in
good faith the years of service for which payments were made to
the physician or provider under this section.
``(g) Special Rules for Non-Physician Specialty Health Care
Providers.--Non-physician specialty health care providers participating
in the program under this section are not eligible for other Federal
loan forgiveness programs specific to health care providers. Not more
than 15 percent of amounts made available to carry out this section for
a fiscal year may be allocated to awards to non-physician specialty
health care providers.
``(h) Reports to Congress.--Not later than 5 years after the date
of enactment of this section, and not less than every other year
thereafter through fiscal year 2030, the Secretary shall report to
Congress on--
``(1) the practice location of special medicine physicians
and non-physician specialty health care providers
participating, or who have participated, in the loan repayment
program under this section; and
``(2) the impact of the loan repayment program under this
section on the availability of specialty medicine or specialty
health care services in the United States in rural communities
experiencing a shortage of specialty medicine physicians or
non-physician specialty health care providers.
``(i) Data Updates.--The Administrator of the Health Resources and
Services Administration shall update publicly available data on the
supply of specialty medicine physicians and non-physician specialty
health care providers, as appropriate.
``(j) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Non-physician specialty health care provider.--The
term `non-physician specialty health care provider' means a
health professional other than a physician who is licensed to
provide patient care other than primary care services.
``(2) Specialty medicine physician.--The term `specialty
medicine physician' means a physician practicing in--
``(A) a specialty identified in the report of the
Health Resources and Services Administration, titled
`Projecting the Supply of Non-Primary Care Specialty
and Subspecialty Clinicians: 2010-2025';
``(B) hospice and palliative medicine;
``(C) geriatric medicine; or
``(D) another medical specialty, if the Secretary
determines that there is evidence demonstrating a
significant shortage of providers in the medical
specialty and limited patient access to care.
``(k) Authorization of Appropriations.--To carry out this section,
there are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary
for fiscal years 2022 through 2031.''.
<all> | SPARC Act | A bill to amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize a loan repayment program to encourage specialty medicine physicians to serve in rural communities experiencing a shortage of specialty medicine physicians, and for other purposes. | SPARC Act
Specialty Physicians Advancing Rural Care Act | Sen. Rosen, Jacky | D | NV |
503 | 10,598 | H.R.5413 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Outdoors for All Act
This bill directs the Department of the Interior to establish an outdoor recreation legacy partnership grant program under which Interior may award grants to states, certain political subdivisions of a state, special purpose districts, Indian tribes, or Alaska Native or Native Hawaiian communities or organizations. Funds must be used for projects to (1) acquire land and water for parks and other outdoor recreation purposes in qualifying areas, and (2) develop new or renovate existing outdoor recreation facilities that provide outdoor recreation opportunities to the public in qualifying areas.
A qualifying area is an area
Interior shall give priority to projects that | To codify the existing Outdoor Recreation Legacy Partnership Program of
the National Park Service, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Outdoors for All Act''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means an
entity that represents or otherwise serves a qualifying area.
(2) Eligible nonprofit organization.--The term ``eligible
nonprofit organization'' means an organization that is
described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 and is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of such
code.
(3) Entity.--The term ``entity'' means--
(A) a State;
(B) a political subdivision of a State, including--
(i) a city;
(ii) a county; and
(iii) a special purpose district that
manages open space, including a park district;
and
(C) an Indian Tribe or Alaska Native or Native
Hawaiian community or organization.
(4) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian Tribe'' has the
meaning given the term in section 4 of the Indian Self-
Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5304).
(5) Low-income community.--The term ``low-income
community'' means any census block group in which 30 percent or
more of the population are individuals with an annual household
equal to, or less than, the greater of--
(A) an amount equal to 80 percent of the median
income of the area in which the household is located,
as reported by the Department of Housing and Urban
Development; and
(B) an amount equal to 200 percent of the Federal
poverty line.
(6) Outdoor recreation legacy partnership program.--The
term ``Outdoor Recreation Legacy Partnership Program'' means
the program established under section 3(a).
(7) Qualifying area.--The term ``qualifying area'' means--
(A) an area that has a population of 30,000 or more
in the most recent census; or
(B) an area administered by an Indian Tribe or an
Alaska Native or Native Hawaiian community
organization.
(8) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of the Interior.
(9) State.--The term ``State'' means each of the several
States, the District of Columbia, and each territory of the
United States.
SEC. 3. GRANTS AUTHORIZED.
(a) Establishment of Program.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall establish an outdoor
recreation legacy partnership program under which the Secretary
may award grants to eligible entities for projects--
(A) to acquire land and water for parks and other
outdoor recreation purposes in qualifying areas; and
(B) to develop new or renovate existing outdoor
recreation facilities that provide outdoor recreation
opportunities to the public in qualifying areas.
(2) Priority.--In awarding grants to eligible entities
under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall give priority to
projects that--
(A) create or significantly enhance access to park
and recreational opportunities in an urban neighborhood
or community;
(B) engage and empower underserved communities and
youth;
(C) provide employment or job training
opportunities for youth or underserved communities;
(D) establish or expand public-private
partnerships, with a focus on leveraging resources; and
(E) take advantage of coordination among various
levels of government.
(b) Matching Requirement.--
(1) In general.--As a condition of receiving a grant under
subsection (a), an eligible entity shall provide matching funds
in the form of cash or an in-kind contribution in an amount
equal to not less than 100 percent of the amounts made
available under the grant.
(2) Waiver.--The Secretary may waive all or part of the
matching requirement under paragraph (1) if the Secretary
determines that--
(A) no reasonable means are available through which
the eligible entity can meet the matching requirement;
and
(B) the probable benefit of the project outweighs
the public interest in the matching requirement.
(3) Administrative expenses.--Not more than 10 percent of
funds provided to an eligible entity under a grant awarded
under subsection (a) may be used for administrative expenses.
(c) Considerations.--In awarding grants to eligible entities under
subsection (a), the Secretary shall consider the extent to which a
project would--
(1) provide recreation opportunities in underserved
communities in which access to parks is not adequate to meet
local needs;
(2) provide opportunities for outdoor recreation and public
land volunteerism;
(3) support innovative or cost-effective ways to enhance
parks and other recreation--
(A) opportunities; or
(B) delivery of services;
(4) support park and recreation programming provided by
cities, including cooperative agreements with community-based
eligible nonprofit organizations; and
(5) develop Native American event sites and cultural
gathering spaces.
(d) Eligible Uses.--
(1) In general.--Subject to paragraph (2), a grant
recipient may use a grant awarded under subsection (a) for a
project described in paragraph (1) or (2) of that subsection.
(2) Limitations on use.--A grant recipient may not use
grant funds for--
(A) incidental costs related to land acquisition,
including appraisal and titling;
(B) operation and maintenance activities;
(C) facilities that support semiprofessional or
professional athletics;
(D) indoor facilities, such as recreation centers
or facilities that support primarily non-outdoor
purposes; or
(E) acquisition of land or interests in land that
restrict access to specific persons.
SEC. 4. NATIONAL PARK SERVICE REQUIREMENTS.
In carrying out the Outdoor Recreation Legacy Partnership Program,
the Secretary shall--
(1) conduct an initial screening and technical review of
applications received;
(2) evaluate and score all qualifying applications; and
(3) provide culturally and linguistically appropriate
information to eligible entities (including low-income
communities and eligible entities serving low-income
communities) on--
(A) the opportunity to apply for grants under this
Act;
(B) the application procedures by which eligible
entities may apply for grants under this Act; and
(C) eligible uses for grants under this Act.
SEC. 5. REPORTING.
(a) Annual Reports.--Not later than 30 days after the last day of
each report period, each State lead agency that receives a grant under
this Act shall annually submit to the Secretary performance and
financial reports that--
(1) summarize project activities conducted during the
report period; and
(2) provide the status of the project.
(b) Final Reports.--Not later than 90 days after the earlier of the
date of expiration of a project period or the completion of a project,
each State lead agency that receives a grant under this Act shall
submit to the Secretary a final report containing such information as
the Secretary may require.
SEC. 6. REVENUE SHARING.
(a) In General.--Section 105(a)(2)(B) of the Gulf of Mexico Energy
Security Act of 2006 (43 U.S.C. 1331 note; Public Law 109-432) is
amended by inserting before the period at the end ``, of which 25
percent shall be used by the Secretary of the Interior to provide
grants under the Outdoors for All Act''.
(b) Supplement Not Supplant.--Amounts made available to the Outdoor
Recreation Legacy Partnership Program as a result of the amendment made
by subsection (a) shall supplement and not supplant any other Federal
funds made available to carry out the Outdoor Recreation Legacy
Partnership Program.
<all> | Outdoors for All Act | To codify the existing Outdoor Recreation Legacy Partnership Program of the National Park Service, and for other purposes. | Outdoors for All Act | Rep. Barragan, Nanette Diaz | D | CA |
504 | 11,464 | H.R.2972 | Health | Helping Ensure Life- and Limb-Saving Access to Podiatric Physicians Act or the HELLPP Act
This bill adds podiatrists as covered physicians under the Medicaid program.
Additionally, the bill revises certain documentation requirements related to Medicare coverage of therapeutic shoes for individuals with diabetes.
Finally, the bill subjects payments made to a Medicaid provider or supplier to a continuing levy for federal taxes owed by the provider or supplier. | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to cover physician
services delivered by podiatric physicians to ensure access by Medicaid
beneficiaries to appropriate quality foot and ankle care, to amend
title XVIII of such Act to modify the requirements for diabetic shoes
to be included under Medicare, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Helping Ensure Life- and Limb-saving
access to Podiatric Physicians Act'' or the ``HELLPP Act''.
SEC. 2. RECOGNIZING DOCTORS OF PODIATRIC MEDICINE AS PHYSICIANS UNDER
THE MEDICAID PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--Section 1905(a)(5)(A) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 1396d(a)(5)(A)) is amended by striking ``section
1861(r)(1)'' and inserting ``paragraphs (1) and (3) of section
1861(r)''.
(b) Effective Date.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), the
amendment made by subsection (a) shall apply to services
furnished on or after January 1, 2022.
(2) Extension of effective date for state law amendment.--
In the case of a State plan under title XIX of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.) which the Secretary of
Health and Human Services determines requires State legislation
in order for the plan to meet the additional requirement
imposed by the amendment made by subsection (a), the State plan
shall not be regarded as failing to comply with the
requirements of such title solely on the basis of its failure
to meet these additional requirements before the first day of
the first calendar quarter beginning after the close of the
first regular session of the State legislature that begins
after the date of enactment of this Act. For purposes of the
previous sentence, in the case of a State that has a 2-year
legislative session, each year of the session is considered to
be a separate regular session of the State legislature.
SEC. 3. CLARIFYING MEDICARE DOCUMENTATION REQUIREMENTS FOR THERAPEUTIC
SHOES FOR PERSONS WITH DIABETES.
(a) In General.--Section 1861(s)(12) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395x(s)(12)) is amended to read as follows:
``(12) subject to section 4072(e) of the Omnibus Budget
Reconciliation Act of 1987, extra-depth shoes with inserts or
custom molded shoes with inserts (in this paragraph referred to
as `therapeutic shoes') for an individual with diabetes, if--
``(A) the physician who is managing the
individual's diabetic condition--
``(i) documents that the individual has
diabetes;
``(ii) certifies that the individual is
under a comprehensive plan of care related to
the individual's diabetic condition; and
``(iii) documents agreement with the
prescribing podiatrist or other qualified
physician (as established by the Secretary)
that it is medically necessary for the
individual to have therapeutic shoes;
``(B) the therapeutic shoes are prescribed by a
podiatrist or other qualified physician (as established
by the Secretary) who--
``(i) examines the individual and
determines the medical necessity for the
individual to receive the therapeutic shoes;
and
``(ii) communicates in writing the medical
necessity to a certifying doctor of medicine or
osteopathy for the individual to have
therapeutic shoes along with findings that the
individual has peripheral neuropathy with
evidence of callus formation, a history of pre-
ulcerative calluses, a history of previous
ulceration, foot deformity, previous
amputation, or poor circulation; and
``(C) the therapeutic shoes are fitted and
furnished by a podiatrist or other qualified supplier
individual (as established by the Secretary), such as a
pedorthist or orthotist, who is not the physician
described in subparagraph (A) (unless the Secretary
finds that the physician is the only such qualified
individual in the area);''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) shall
apply with respect to items and services furnished on or after January
1, 2022.
(c) Rule of Construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed as expanding Medicare coverage for therapeutic shoes for
individuals with diabetes.
SEC. 4. BUDGET SAVINGS: STRENGTHENING MEDICAID PROGRAM INTEGRITY
THROUGH CONTINUOUS LEVY ON PAYMENTS TO MEDICAID PROVIDERS
AND SUPPLIERS.
(a) In General.--Section 6331(h)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 (defining specified payment) is amended by striking ``and'' at the
end of subparagraph (B), by striking the period at the end of
subparagraph (C) and inserting ``, and'', and by adding at the end the
following new subparagraph:
``(D) any payment to any Medicaid provider or
supplier under a State plan under title XIX of the
Social Security Act.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to levies issued after the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | HELLPP Act | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to cover physician services delivered by podiatric physicians to ensure access by Medicaid beneficiaries to appropriate quality foot and ankle care, to amend title XVIII of such Act to modify the requirements for diabetic shoes to be included under Medicare, and for other purposes. | HELLPP Act
Helping Ensure Life- and Limb-saving access to Podiatric Physicians Act | Rep. DeGette, Diana | D | CO |
505 | 2,174 | S.3049 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Fresh Start Act of 2021
This bill authorizes the Department of Justice to award grants for states to implement automatic expungement laws (i.e., laws that provide for the automatic expungement or sealing of an individual's criminal records). | To establish a grant program for States for purposes of modernizing
criminal justice data infrastructure to facilitate automatic record
expungement and sealing, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Fresh Start Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. ESTABLISHMENT.
(a) In General.--The Attorney General may make not more than 1
grant under this Act to each eligible State. Each such grant shall be
in an amount of not more than $5,000,000.
(b) Eligibility.--A State shall be eligible for a grant under this
Act if--
(1) the State has in effect a covered expungement law;
(2) the covered expungement law of the State provides that
expungement or sealing of a criminal record shall not be
delayed by reason of a failure to pay a fee or fine; and
(3) the State submits an application to the Attorney
General, containing such information as the Attorney General
may require, including, at a minimum--
(A) information identifying whether there is a
system that, as of the date of the application, exists
for record expungement or sealing in the State;
(B) a description of how infrastructure created
through grant funding will facilitate automatic record
expungement or sealing for individuals eligible for
record expungement or sealing; and
(C) an identification of the anticipated number of
individuals that would benefit from the implementation
of automatic record expungement or sealing
infrastructure.
SEC. 3. USE OF GRANT AMOUNTS.
A grant under section 2 shall be used to implement a covered
expungement law in accordance with the following:
(1) Not more than 10 percent of such grant shall be used
for research or planning for criminal record data
infrastructure improvements that will make criminal record
expungement or sealing automatic.
(2) Any remaining amounts shall be used to implement such
improvements.
(3) The portion of the costs of implementing such a law
provided by a grant under this section may not exceed 75
percent.
SEC. 4. REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
(a) In General.--A State receiving a grant under section 2 shall
report to the Attorney General, each year of the grant term, pursuant
to guidelines established by the Attorney General, information
regarding the following:
(1) The number of individuals eligible for automatic
expungement or sealing under the covered expungement law of
that State, disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and gender.
(2) The number of individuals whose records have been
expunged or sealed annually since the enactment of such law,
disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and gender.
(3) The number of individuals whose application for
expungement or sealing under such law are still pending,
disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and gender.
(b) Inaccessibility of Data for Reporting.--In the event that
elements of the data on expungement and sealing required to be reported
under subsection (a) are not able to be compiled and reported, the
State shall develop and report a comprehensive plan to obtain as much
of the unavailable data as possible not later than the date that is 1
year after the first year of the grant being awarded.
(c) Publication.--Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment
of this Act, and each year thereafter, the Attorney General shall
publish, and make available to the public, a report containing the data
reported to the Attorney General under this section.
SEC. 5. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Terms used have the meanings given such terms in
section 901 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe
Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10251).
(2) The term ``automatic'' means, with regard to the
expungement or sealing of a criminal record, that such
expungement or sealing occurs without any action required on
the part of the State from an eligible individual.
(3) The term ``covered expungement law'' means a law of a
State providing for the automatic expungement or sealing,
subject to such requirements as the State may impose, of a
criminal record of an individual.
SEC. 6. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
There are authorized to be appropriated $50,000,000 for each of
fiscal years 2022 through 2026 to carry out this Act.
<all> | Fresh Start Act of 2021 | A bill to establish a grant program for States for purposes of modernizing criminal justice data infrastructure to facilitate automatic record expungement and sealing, and for other purposes. | Fresh Start Act of 2021 | Sen. Van Hollen, Chris | D | MD |
506 | 4,870 | S.2781 | International Affairs | No Harbor for Terror Act
This bill repeals authority granted to the President to except Iran's energy, shipping, and shipbuilding sectors from sanctions in order to provide for reconstruction assistance or economic development in Afghanistan. | To repeal the exception to sanctions with respect to the energy,
shipping, and shipbuilding sectors of Iran relating to reconstruction
assistance for Afghanistan.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``No Harbor for Terror Act''.
SEC. 2. REPEAL OF EXCEPTION TO SANCTIONS WITH RESPECT TO ENERGY,
SHIPPING, AND SHIPBUILDING SECTORS OF IRAN RELATING TO
AFGHANISTAN RECONSTRUCTION.
Subsection (f) of section 1244 of the Iran Freedom and Counter-
Proliferation Act of 2012 (22 U.S.C. 8803) is repealed. | No Harbor for Terror Act | A bill to repeal the exception to sanctions with respect to the energy, shipping, and shipbuilding sectors of Iran relating to reconstruction assistance for Afghanistan. | No Harbor for Terror Act | Sen. Cotton, Tom | R | AR |
507 | 12,882 | H.R.5337 | Education | National Social Emotional Learning Clearinghouse Act
This bill directs the Department of Health and Human Services and the Department of Education to jointly establish and maintain an online clearinghouse of early childhood education and elementary school education curricula, lesson plans, and best practices related to social emotional learning. | To establish a National social emotional learning clearinghouse.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``National Social Emotional Learning
Clearinghouse Act''.
SEC. 2. NATIONAL SOCIAL EMOTIONAL LEARNING CLEARINGHOUSE.
Not later than 120 days after the date of enactment of this Act,
the Secretary of Health and Human Services (acting through the Office
of Child Care) and the Secretary of Education shall jointly--
(1) establish and maintain an online clearinghouse of early
childhood education and elementary school education curricula,
lesson plans, and best practices, which shall--
(A) prioritize social emotional learning resources
(such as resources to address trauma, anxiety,
depression and other social or behavioral disorders)
for children from birth through the elementary school;
(B) include best practices and studies exploring
best practices, crisis intervention training and de-
escalation, social emotional learning curriculums and
lesson plans, and ready to use worksheets or
interactive learning resources for early childhood
learners and elementary school students; and
(C) include social emotional resources for children
with disabilities, including training resources to
assist families and child care workers in assessing
functional behaviors and creating responsive and
appropriate behavioral intervention plans; and
(2) conduct a national advertising campaign to inform child
care professionals, families or parents providing
homeschooling, and educators and caregivers of children from
birth through age 12 of such online clearinghouse.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Child with a disability.--The term ``child with a
disability'' has the meaning given such term in section 602 of
the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C.
1401).
(2) Elementary school.--The term ``elementary school'' has
the meaning given the term in section 8101 of the Elementary
and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7801).
<all> | National Social Emotional Learning Clearinghouse Act | To establish a National social emotional learning clearinghouse. | National Social Emotional Learning Clearinghouse Act | Rep. Larsen, Rick | D | WA |
508 | 3,080 | S.2724 | Finance and Financial Sector | NFIP Extension Act of 2021
This bill reauthorizes the National Flood Insurance Program through September 30, 2022.
The bill shall take effect as if it had been enacted on September 30, 2021. | To reauthorize the National Flood Insurance Program.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``NFIP Extension Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. REAUTHORIZATION OF NATIONAL FLOOD INSURANCE PROGRAM.
(a) Financing.--Section 1309(a) of the National Flood Insurance Act
of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4016(a)) is amended by striking ``September 30,
2021'' and inserting ``September 30, 2022''.
(b) Program Expiration.--Section 1319 of the National Flood
Insurance Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4026) is amended by striking
``September 30, 2021'' and inserting ``September 30, 2022''.
(c) Retroactive Effective Date.--If this Act is enacted after
September 30, 2021, the amendments made by subsections (a) and (b)
shall take effect as if enacted on September 30, 2021.
<all> | NFIP Extension Act of 2021 | A bill to reauthorize the National Flood Insurance Program. | NFIP Extension Act of 2021 | Sen. Kennedy, John | R | LA |
509 | 8,925 | H.R.980 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Southwestern Oregon Watershed and Salmon Protection Act of 2021
This bill withdraws specified federal land in Curry and Josephine Counties in Oregon from (1) entry, appropriation, or disposal under the public land laws; (2) location, entry, and patent under the mining laws; and (3) operation under the mineral leasing and geothermal leasing laws. | To withdraw certain land located in Curry County and Josephine County,
Oregon, from all forms of entry, appropriation, or disposal under the
public land laws, location, entry, and patent under the mining laws,
and operation under the mineral leasing and geothermal leasing laws,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Southwestern Oregon Watershed and
Salmon Protection Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. WITHDRAWAL OF FEDERAL LAND, CURRY COUNTY AND JOSEPHINE COUNTY,
OREGON.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Eligible federal land.--The term ``eligible Federal
land'' means--
(A) any federally owned land or interest in land
depicted on the Maps as within the Hunter Creek and
Pistol River Headwaters Withdrawal Proposal or the
Rough and Ready and Baldface Creeks Mineral Withdrawal
Proposal; or
(B) any land or interest in land located within
such withdrawal proposals that is acquired by the
Federal Government after the date of enactment of this
Act.
(2) Maps.--The term ``Maps'' means--
(A) the Bureau of Land Management map entitled
``Hunter Creek and Pistol River Headwaters Withdrawal
Proposal'' and dated January 12, 2015; and
(B) the Bureau of Land Management map entitled
``Rough and Ready and Baldface Creeks Mineral
Withdrawal Proposal'' and dated January 12, 2015.
(b) Withdrawal.--Subject to valid existing rights, the eligible
Federal land is withdrawn from all forms of--
(1) entry, appropriation, or disposal under the public land
laws;
(2) location, entry, and patent under the mining laws; and
(3) operation under the mineral leasing and geothermal
leasing laws.
(c) Availability of Maps.--Not later than 30 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Maps shall be made available to the public
at each appropriate office of the Bureau of Land Management.
(d) Existing Uses Not Affected.--Except with respect to the
withdrawal under subsection (b), nothing in this section restricts
recreational uses, hunting, fishing, forest management activities, or
other authorized uses allowed on the date of enactment of this Act on
the eligible Federal land in accordance with applicable law.
<all> | Southwestern Oregon Watershed and Salmon Protection Act of 2021 | To withdraw certain land located in Curry County and Josephine County, Oregon, from all forms of entry, appropriation, or disposal under the public land laws, location, entry, and patent under the mining laws, and operation under the mineral leasing and geothermal leasing laws, and for other purposes. | Southwestern Oregon Watershed and Salmon Protection Act of 2021 | Rep. DeFazio, Peter A. | D | OR |
510 | 14,910 | H.R.6849 | Armed Forces and National Security | Supporting All Veteran Families Act
This bill updates terminology related to marriage under laws administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs, including by removing the specification that a spouse must be a person of the opposite sex. | To amend title 38, United States Code, to update certain terminology
related to marriage under the laws administered by the Secretary of
Veterans Affairs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Supporting All Veteran Families
Act''.
SEC. 2. DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS MARRIAGE TERMINOLOGY.
(a) Definitions.--Section 101 of title 38, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) in paragraph (3)--
(A) by striking ``of the opposite sex''; and
(B) by striking ``or (in cases not involving
remarriage) has not since the death of the veteran, and
after September 19, 1962, lived with another person and
held himself or herself out openly to the public to be
the spouse of such other person''; and
(2) in paragraph (31), by striking ``of the opposite sex''.
(b) Special Provisions Relating to Marriages.--Section 103 of title
38, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and holding himself or
herself out openly to the public as that person's spouse''.
<all> | Supporting All Veteran Families Act | To amend title 38, United States Code, to update certain terminology related to marriage under the laws administered by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs. | Supporting All Veteran Families Act | Rep. Newman, Marie | D | IL |
511 | 11,995 | H.R.4130 | Commerce | American Music Fairness Act of 2022
This bill establishes that the copyright holder of a sound recording shall have the exclusive right to perform the sound recording through an audio transmission and addresses other related issues. (Currently, the public performance right only covers performances through a digital audio transmission in certain instances, which means that nonsubscription terrestrial radio stations generally do not have to secure a license to publicly perform a copyright-protected sound recording.)
Under the bill, a nonsubscription broadcast transmission must have a license to publicly perform such sound recordings. The Copyright Royalty Board must periodically determine the royalty rates for such a license. When determining the rates, the board must base its decision on certain information presented by the parties, including the radio stations' effect on other streams of revenue related to the sound recordings.
Terrestrial broadcast stations (and the owners of such stations) that fall below certain revenue thresholds may pay certain flat fees, instead of the board-established rate, for a license to publicly perform copyright-protected sound recordings. | To amend title 17, United States Code, to provide fair treatment of
radio stations and artists for the use of sound recordings, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``American Music
Fairness Act of 2022''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Equitable treatment for terrestrial broadcasts and internet
services.
Sec. 3. Timing of proceedings under sections 112(e) and 114(f).
Sec. 4. Special protection for small broadcasters.
Sec. 5. Distribution of certain royalties.
Sec. 6. No harmful effects on songwriters.
Sec. 7. Value of promotion taken into account.
SEC. 2. EQUITABLE TREATMENT FOR TERRESTRIAL BROADCASTS AND INTERNET
SERVICES.
(a) Performance Right Applicable to Audio Transmissions
Generally.--Paragraph (6) of section 106 of title 17, United States
Code, is amended to read as follows:
``(6) in the case of sound recordings, to perform the
copyrighted work publicly by means of an audio transmission.''.
(b) Inclusion of Terrestrial Broadcasts in Existing Performance
Right and Statutory License.--Section 114(d)(1) of title 17, United
States Code, is amended--
(1) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), by striking
``a digital'' and inserting ``an'';
(2) by striking subparagraph (A);
(3) by redesignating subparagraphs (B) and (C) as (A) and
(B), respectively; and
(4) in subparagraph (A), as redesignated by paragraph (3),
by striking ``nonsubscription'' each place such term appears
and inserting ``licensed nonsubscription''.
(c) Technical and Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Definition.--Section 101 of title 17, United States
Code, is amended by inserting after the definition of
``architectural work'' the following:
``An ``audio transmission'' is a transmission of a sound recording,
whether in a digital, analog, or other format. This term does not
include the transmission of any audiovisual work.''.
(2) Conforming removal of digital.--Title 17, United States
Code, is amended--
(A) in section 112(e)(8), by striking ``a digital
audio transmission'' and inserting ``an audio
transmission'';
(B) in section 114--
(i) in subsection (d)--
(I) in paragraph (2)--
(aa) in the matter
preceding subparagraph (A), by
striking ``subscription
digital'' and inserting
``subscription''; and
(bb) in subparagraph
(C)(viii), by striking
``digital signal'' and
inserting ``signal''; and
(II) in paragraph (4)--
(aa) in subparagraph (A),
by striking ``a digital audio
transmission'' and inserting
``an audio transmission''; and
(bb) in subparagraph
(B)(i), by striking ``a digital
audio transmission'' and
inserting ``an audio
transmission'';
(ii) in subsection (g)(2)(A), by striking
``a digital'' and inserting ``an''; and
(iii) in subsection (j)--
(I) in paragraph (6)--
(aa) by striking
``digital''; and
(bb) by striking
``retransmissions of broadcast
transmissions'' and inserting
``broadcast transmissions and
retransmissions of broadcast
transmissions''; and
(II) in paragraph (8), by striking
``subscription digital'' and inserting
``subscription''; and
(C) in section 1401--
(i) in subsection (b), by striking ``a
digital audio'' and inserting ``an audio''; and
(ii) in subsection (d)--
(I) in paragraph (1), by striking
``a digital audio'' and inserting ``an
audio'';
(II) in paragraph (2)(A), by
striking ``a digital audio'' and
inserting ``an audio''; and
(III) in paragraph (4)(A), by
striking ``a digital audio'' and
inserting ``an audio''.
SEC. 3. TIMING OF PROCEEDINGS UNDER SECTIONS 112(E) AND 114(F).
Paragraph (3) of section 804(b) of title 17, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following new subparagraph:
``(D) A proceeding under this chapter shall be
commenced as soon as practicable after the date of the
enactment of this subparagraph to determine royalty
rates and terms for nonsubscription broadcast
transmissions, to be effective for the period beginning
on such date of enactment, and ending on December 31,
2028. Any payment due under section 114(f)(1)(D) shall
not be due until the due date of the first royalty
payments for nonsubscription broadcast transmissions
that are determined, after the date of the enactment of
this subparagraph, by the Copyright Royalty Judges.
Thereafter, such proceeding shall be repeated in each
subsequent fifth calendar year.''.
SEC. 4. SPECIAL PROTECTION FOR SMALL BROADCASTERS.
(a) Specified Royalty Fees.--Section 114(f)(1) of title 17, United
States Code, is amended by inserting at the end the following new
subparagraph:
``(D)(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of
subparagraphs (A) through (C), the royalty rate shall
be as follows for nonsubscription broadcast
transmissions by each individual terrestrial broadcast
station licensed as such by the Federal Communications
Commission that satisfies the conditions in clause
(ii)--
``(I) $10 per calendar year, in the case of
nonsubscription broadcast transmissions by a
broadcast station that generated revenue in the
immediately preceding calendar year of less
than $100,000;
``(II) $100 per calendar year, in the case
of nonsubscription broadcast transmissions by a
broadcast station that is a public broadcasting
entity as defined in section 118(f) and
generated revenue in the immediately preceding
calendar year of $100,000 or more, but less
than $1,500,000; and
``(III) $500 per calendar year, in the case
of nonsubscription broadcast transmissions by a
broadcast station that is not a public
broadcasting entity as defined in section
118(f) and generated revenue in the immediately
preceding calendar year of $100,000 or more,
but less than $1,500,000.
``(ii) An individual terrestrial broadcast station
licensed as such by the Federal Communications
Commission is eligible for a royalty rate set forth in
clause (i) if--
``(I) the revenue from the operation of
that individual station was less than
$1,500,000 during the immediately preceding
calendar year;
``(II) the aggregate revenue of the owner
and operator of the broadcast station and any
person directly or indirectly controlling,
controlled by, or under common control with
such owner or operator, from any source, was
less than $10,000,000 during the immediately
preceding calendar year; and
``(III) the owner or operator of the
broadcast station provides to the nonprofit
collective designated by the Copyright Royalty
Judges to distribute receipts from the
licensing of transmissions in accordance with
subsection (f), by no later than January 31 of
the relevant calendar year, a written and
signed certification of the station's
eligibility under this clause and the
applicable subclause of clause (i), in
accordance with requirements the Copyright
Royalty Judges shall prescribe by regulation.
``(iii) For purposes of clauses (i) and (ii)--
``(I) revenue shall be calculated in
accordance with generally accepted accounting
principles;
``(II) revenue generated by a terrestrial
broadcast station shall include all revenue
from the operation of the station, from any
source; and
``(III) in the case of affiliated broadcast
stations, revenue shall be allocated reasonably
to individual stations associated with the
revenue.
``(iv) The royalty rates specified in clause (i)
shall not be admissible as evidence or otherwise taken
into account in determining royalty rates in a
proceeding under chapter 8, or in any other
administrative, judicial, or other Federal Government
proceeding involving the setting or adjustment of the
royalties payable for the public performance or
reproduction in ephemeral phonorecords or copies of
sound recordings, the determination of terms or
conditions related thereto, or the establishment of
notice or recordkeeping requirements.''.
(b) Technical Correction.--Section 118(f) of title 17, United
States Code, is amended by striking ``section 397 of title 47'' and
inserting ``section 397 of the Communications Act of 1934 (47 U.S.C.
397)''.
SEC. 5. DISTRIBUTION OF CERTAIN ROYALTIES.
Section 114(g) of title 17, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by inserting ``or in the case of a
transmission to which paragraph (5) applies'' after ``this
section'';
(2) by redesignating paragraphs (5), (6), and (7) as (6),
(7), and (8), respectively; and
(3) by inserting after paragraph (4) the following new
paragraph:
``(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), to the extent that a
license granted by the copyright owner of a sound recording to
a transmitting entity eligible for a statutory license under
subsection (d)(2) extends to such entity's transmissions
otherwise licensable under a statutory license in accordance
with subsection (f), such entity shall pay to the collective
designated to distribute statutory licensing receipts from the
licensing of transmissions in accordance with subsection (f),
50 percent of the total royalties that such entity is required,
pursuant to the applicable license agreement, to pay for such
transmissions otherwise licensable under a statutory license in
accordance with subsection (f). That collective shall
distribute such payments in proportion to the distributions
provided in subparagraphs (B) through (D) of paragraph (2), and
such payments shall be the only payments to which featured and
nonfeatured artists are entitled by virtue of such
transmissions under the direct license with such entity.''.
SEC. 6. NO HARMFUL EFFECTS ON SONGWRITERS.
Nothing in this Act, or the amendments made by this Act, shall
adversely affect in any respect the public performance rights of or
royalties payable to songwriters or copyright owners of musical works.
SEC. 7. VALUE OF PROMOTION TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT.
Pursuant to section 114(f)(1)(B) of title 17, United States Code,
in determining rates and terms for terrestrial broadcast radio stations
under this Act, and the amendments made by this Act, the Copyright
Royalty Judges shall base their decision on economic, competitive, and
programming information presented by the parties, including whether use
of the station's service may substitute for or may promote the sales of
phonorecords or otherwise may interfere with or may enhance the sound
recording copyright owner's other streams of revenue from the copyright
owner's sound recordings.
Union Calendar No. 509
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. R. 4130
[Report No. 117-693]
_______________________________________________________________________ | American Music Fairness Act of 2022 | To amend title 17, United States Code, to provide fair treatment of radio stations and artists for the use of sound recordings, and for other purposes. | American Music Fairness Act of 2022
American Music Fairness Act | Rep. Deutch, Theodore E. | D | FL |
512 | 466 | S.1706 | Economics and Public Finance | Taxpayer Receipt Act
This bill requires the Department of the Treasury to provide taxpayers with a one-page document that contains information regarding the federal budget for the most recently completed fiscal year. The document must include total outlays during the year, total revenues collected during the year, the deficit or surplus for the year, and the total debt held by the public. | To require the Secretary of the Treasury to provide taxpayers with
information regarding the Federal budget.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Taxpayer Receipt Act''.
SEC. 2. INFORMATION REGARDING THE FEDERAL BUDGET.
The Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary's delegate, shall
provide, to each individual filing a Federal income tax return for a
taxable year, a one-page document which contains, with respect to the
most recently completed fiscal year--
(1) total Federal outlays during such year;
(2) total Federal revenues collected during such year;
(3) the Federal deficit or surplus for such year; and
(4) the total Federal debt held by the public.
<all> | Taxpayer Receipt Act | A bill to require the Secretary of the Treasury to provide taxpayers with information regarding the Federal budget. | Taxpayer Receipt Act | Sen. Braun, Mike | R | IN |
513 | 13,819 | H.R.5839 | Armed Forces and National Security | This bill authorizes the President to posthumously award the Medal of Honor to Charles R. Johnson for his acts of valor as a private first class in the Army on June 11 and 12, 1953, during the Korean War. | To authorize the President to award the Medal of Honor to Charles R.
Johnson for acts of valor during the Korean War while a member of the
Army.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. AUTHORIZATION FOR AWARD OF THE MEDAL OF HONOR TO CHARLES R.
JOHNSON FOR ACTS OF VALOR DURING THE KOREAN WAR.
(a) Authorization.--Notwithstanding the time limitations specified
in section 7274 of title 10, United States Code, or any other time
limitation with respect to the awarding of certain medals to persons
who served in the Armed Forces, the President may posthumously award
the Medal of Honor under section 7271 of such title to Charles R.
Johnson for the acts of valor described in the subsection (b).
(b) Acts of Valor Described.--The acts of valor described in this
subsection are the actions of Charles R. Johnson as a private first
class in the Army, on June 11 and 12, 1953, during the Korean War, for
which he was posthumously awarded the Silver Star.
<all> | To authorize the President to award the Medal of Honor to Charles R. Johnson for acts of valor during the Korean War while a member of the Army. | To authorize the President to award the Medal of Honor to Charles R. Johnson for acts of valor during the Korean War while a member of the Army. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To authorize the President to award the Medal of Honor to Charles R. Johnson for acts of valor during the Korean War while a member of the Army. | Rep. Delgado, Antonio | D | NY |
514 | 8,799 | H.R.1262 | Transportation and Public Works | Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021
This bill directs the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to establish the FAA Task Force on NOTAM (notice to airmen required by international or domestic law) Improvement.
Specifically, the task force must (1) review existing methods for presenting NOTAMs and flight operations information to pilots; (2) review regulations and policies relating to NOTAMs, including their content and presentation to pilots; (3) evaluate and determine best practices to organize, prioritize, and present flight operations information in a manner that optimizes pilot review and retention of relevant information; (4) provide recommendations to improve the presentation of NOTAM information; and (5) report to Congress on its reviews and evaluations.
The task force must terminate on the later of the date it submits its report or 18 months after its establishment. | To establish a task force on improvements for certain notices to
airmen, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. FAA TASK FORCE ON NOTAM IMPROVEMENT.
(a) Establishment.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation
Administration shall establish a task force to be known as the FAA Task
Force on NOTAM Improvement (in this section referred to as the ``Task
Force'').
(b) Composition.--The Task Force shall consist of members appointed
by the Administrator, including at least one member of each of the
following:
(1) Air carrier representatives.
(2) Labor union representatives of airline pilots.
(3) Labor union certified under section 7111 of title 5,
United States Code, to represent FAA air traffic control
specialists assigned to the U.S. NOTAM Office.
(4) Labor union certified under section 7111 of title 5,
United States Code, to represent FAA aeronautical information
specialists.
(5) General and business aviation representatives.
(6) Aviation safety experts with knowledge of NOTAMs.
(7) Human factors experts.
(c) Duties.--The duties of the Task Force shall include--
(1) reviewing existing methods for presenting NOTAMs and
flight operations information to pilots;
(2) reviewing regulations and policies relating to NOTAMs,
including their content and presentation to pilots;
(3) evaluating and determining best practices to organize,
prioritize, and present flight operations information in a
manner that optimizes pilot review and retention of relevant
information; and
(4) providing recommendations for--
(A) improving the presentation of NOTAM information
in a manner that prioritizes or highlights the most
important information, and optimizes pilot review and
retention of relevant information;
(B) ways to ensure that NOTAMs are complete,
accurate, and contain the proper information;
(C) any best practices that the FAA should consider
to improve the accuracy and understandability of NOTAMs
and the display of flight operations information; and
(D) ways to work with air carriers, other airspace
users, and aviation service providers to implement
solutions that are aligned with the recommendations
under this paragraph.
(d) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date of the
establishment of the Task Force, the Task Force shall submit to the
Committee on Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate a report detailing--
(1) the results of the reviews and evaluations of the Task
Force under paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (c);
(2) the best practices identified and recommendations
provided by the Task Force under subsection (c)(4);
(3) any recommendations of the Task Force for additional
regulatory or policy actions to improve the presentation of
NOTAMs; and
(4) the degree to which implementing the recommendations of
the Task Force described under paragraph (2) will address
National Transportation Safety Board Safety Recommendation A-
18-024.
(e) Applicable Law.--The Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C.
App.) shall not apply to the Task Force.
(f) Sunset.--The Task Force shall terminate on the later of--
(1) the date on which the Task Force submits the report
required under subsection (d); or
(2) the date that is 18 months after the date on which the
Task Force is established under subsection (a).
(g) Authority.--The Administrator shall have the authority to carry
out the recommendations of the Task Force detailed in the report
required under subsection (d).
(h) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) FAA.--The term ``FAA'' means the Federal Aviation
Administration.
(2) NOTAM.--The term ``NOTAM'' means notices to airmen
required by international or domestic regulation or law, as
described in the order issued by
the FAA on December 11, 2018, titled ``Notices to Airmen
(NOTAM)''.
Passed the House of Representatives June 15, 2021.
Attest:
CHERYL L. JOHNSON,
Clerk. | Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021 | To establish a task force on improvements for certain notices to airmen, and for other purposes. | Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021
Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021
Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021
Notice to Airmen Improvement Act of 2021 | Rep. Stauber, Pete | R | MN |
515 | 3,305 | S.957 | Armed Forces and National Security | This bill requires the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to designate periods during which any individual may dispose of controlled substances medications at VA medical facilities with an on-site pharmacy or a physical location dedicated for law enforcement purposes.
The bill also authorizes the VA to carry out public information campaigns regarding the designated disposal periods. | [117th Congress Public Law 29]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 135 STAT. 306]]
Public Law 117-29
117th Congress
An Act
To direct the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to ensure that certain
medical facilities of the Department of Veterans Affairs have physical
locations for the disposal of controlled substances
medications. <<NOTE: July 29, 2021 - [S. 957]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. DESIGNATION OF PERIODS DURING WHICH ANY INDIVIDUAL MAY
DISPOSE OF CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES
MEDICATIONS AT FACILITIES OF THE
DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS.
Section 3009 of the Johnny Isakson and David P. Roe, M.D. Veterans
Health Care and Benefits Improvement Act of 2020 (Public Law 116-315; 38
U.S.C. 8110 note) is amended--
(1) by redesignating subsection (b) and (c) as subsections
(c) and (d), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after subsection (a) the following new
subsection (b):
``(b) Designation of Periods for Any Individual to Dispose of
Medication.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall designate periods
during which any individual may dispose of controlled substances
medications at a covered Department medical facility.
``(2) Public information campaigns.--The Secretary may carry
out public information campaigns regarding the periods
designated under paragraph (1).''.
Approved July 29, 2021.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--S. 957:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 167 (2021):
Apr. 22, considered and passed Senate.
July 26, 27, considered and passed House.
<all> | DUMP Opioids Act | A bill to direct the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to ensure that certain medical facilities of the Department of Veterans Affairs have physical locations for the disposal of controlled substances medications. | DUMP Opioids Act
Dispose Unused Medications and Prescription Opioids Act | Sen. Kennedy, John | R | LA |
516 | 2,508 | S.3229 | Agriculture and Food | Cattle Price Discovery and Transparency Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Agriculture (USDA) to take various actions to address transparency in pricing and contract terms in the cattle industry.
Among these requirements, USDA must (1) establish regional minimum percentages of cattle that meat packers must procure through negotiated purchases or negotiated grid purchases (i.e., transactions where the price is known and negotiated at the time of the transaction), and (2) maintain a publicly available catalog of contracts offered by meat packers to livestock producers for the purchase of fed cattle. | To amend the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 to establish a cattle
contract library, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Cattle Price Discovery and
Transparency Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
(a) In General.--Section 212 of the Agricultural Marketing Act of
1946 (7 U.S.C. 1635a) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (5), by striking ``cattle,'' and inserting
``cattle (including fed cattle),'';
(2) by redesignating paragraphs (4), (5), (6), (7), (8),
(9), (10), (11), (12), (13), and (14) as paragraphs (5), (6),
(7), (8), (10), (11), (12), (13), (15), (16), and (17),
respectively;
(3) by inserting after paragraph (3) the following:
``(4) Fed cattle.--The term `fed cattle' means a steer or
heifer that has been finished on a ration of roughage and feed
concentrates, such as grains, protein meal, grass (forage), and
other nutrient-rich feeds, prior to slaughter.'';
(4) by inserting after paragraph (8) (as so redesignated)
the following:
``(9) Negotiated grid purchase.--The term `negotiated grid
purchase' means a purchase of fed cattle by a packer from a
producer under which--
``(A) the buyer-seller interaction results in a
negotiated base price, which may be adjusted by
premiums and discounts; and
``(B) the fed cattle are scheduled for delivery to
the packer not more than 14 days after the date on
which the agreement for purchase is made.''; and
(5) by inserting after paragraph (13) (as so redesignated)
the following:
``(14) Regional mandatory minimum.--The term `regional
mandatory minimum' means, for each reporting region (as
designated by the Agricultural Marketing Service), of the
quantity of cattle purchased for slaughter by a packer (as
defined in section 259(a)) in that region each current
slaughter week, the minimum percentage of such cattle that are
required to be purchased through negotiated purchases or
negotiated grid purchases from producers.''.
(b) Cattle Reporting Definitions.--Section 221 of the Agricultural
Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1635d) is amended--
(1) by striking paragraph (3) and inserting the following:
``(3) Formula marketing arrangement.--The term `formula
marketing arrangement' means the advance commitment of cattle
for slaughter--
``(A) by any means other than through a negotiated
purchase, negotiated grid purchase, or forward
contract; and
``(B) using a method for calculating price--
``(i) under which the price is determined
at a future date; and
``(ii) the basis of which is a price
established for a specified market, which may
be based on any publicly reported price,
including plant average price, regional price,
downstream price, or some other mutually
agreeable price source.'';
(2) in paragraph (8)(B), by striking ``market'' and
inserting ``marketing'';
(3) by redesignating paragraphs (3), (4), (5), (6), (7),
and (8) as paragraphs (4), (5), (7), (8), (10), and (12),
respectively;
(4) by inserting after paragraph (2) the following:
``(3) Contract.--
``(A) In general.--The term `contract' means any
agreement, written or oral, between a packer and a
producer for the purchase of fed cattle for slaughter.
``(B) Exclusion.--The term `contract' does not
include a contract for a negotiated purchase.'';
(5) by inserting after paragraph (5) (as so redesignated)
the following:
``(6) Heifer.--The term `heifer' means a bovine female that
has not given birth to a calf.'';
(6) by inserting after paragraph (8) (as so redesignated)
the following:
``(9) Steer.--The term `steer' means a bovine male
castrated before reaching sexual maturity.''; and
(7) by inserting after paragraph (10) (as so redesignated)
the following:
``(11) Type of contract.--
``(A) In general.--The term `type of contract'
means the classification of a contract for the purchase
of cattle--
``(i) into 1 of the categories described in
subparagraph (B); and
``(ii) by determining the base price of the
cattle.
``(B) Categories.--The categories for
classification of a type of contract are the following:
``(i) Formula marketing arrangement.
``(ii) Forward contract.
``(iii) Negotiated grid purchase
contract.''.
SEC. 3. 14-DAY CATTLE SLAUGHTER.
(a) Definition of Cattle Committed.--Section 221(1) of the
Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1635d(1)) is amended by
striking ``7-day'' and inserting ``14-day''.
(b) Mandatory Reporting for Live Cattle.--Section 222(c) of the
Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1635e(c)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)--
(A) by striking subparagraphs (B) and (C); and
(B) by redesignating subparagraph (D) as
subparagraph (B);
(2) in paragraph (2), by striking ``the information'' and
inserting ``information reported under this subsection'';
(3) by redesignating paragraph (2) as paragraph (3); and
(4) by inserting after paragraph (1) the following:
``(2) Prior day reporting.--
``(A) In general.--The corporate officers or
officially designated representatives of each packer
processing plant shall report to the Secretary, for
each business day of the packer processing plant, not
later than 10:00 a.m. Central Time on each reporting
day, the information from the prior business day
described in subparagraph (B).
``(B) Information required.--The information
required under subparagraph (A) shall be, with respect
to the prior business day, the number of cattle,
organized by cattle type, scheduled for delivery to a
packer processing plant for slaughter for each of the
next 14 calendar days.''.
SEC. 4. DAILY FORMULA BASE PRICE REPORTING.
Section 222(c)(1)(A) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7
U.S.C. 1635e(c)(1)(A)) is amended in the matter preceding clause (i) by
inserting ``(including base price information for cattle purchased
through a formula marketing arrangement)'' after ``day''.
SEC. 5. EXPEDITED CARCASS WEIGHTS REPORTING.
Section 222 of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C.
1635e) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(f) Expedited Carcass Weights.--
``(1) Determination.--Not later than 180 days after the
date of enactment of the Cattle Price Discovery and
Transparency Act of 2021, the Secretary shall determine the
minimum amount of time needed by the Secretary to publicly
report the daily average carcass weight of cattle slaughtered
by packer processing plants.
``(2) Reporting.--Not later than 180 days after the
Secretary has made a determination under paragraph (1), the
Secretary shall begin publicly reporting the information
described in that paragraph within the time determined under
that paragraph.''.
SEC. 6. CATTLE CONTRACT LIBRARY.
Chapter 2 of subtitle B of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946
is amended--
(1) by redesignating section 223 (7 U.S.C. 1635f) as
section 224; and
(2) by inserting after section 222 (7 U.S.C. 1635e) the
following:
``SEC. 223. CATTLE CONTRACT LIBRARY.
``(a) In General.--Subject to the availability of appropriations to
carry out this section, the Secretary shall establish and maintain,
through the Livestock Mandatory Price Reporting program, a library or
catalog of each type of contract offered by packers to producers for
the purchase of all or part of the production of the producers of fed
cattle (including cattle that are purchased or committed for delivery),
including any schedules of premiums or discounts associated with the
contract.
``(b) Information Collection.--
``(1) In general.--To maintain the library or catalog
established under subsection (a), the Secretary shall obtain
information from each packer on each type of existing contract
of the packer by requiring a filing or other form of
information submission from each packer.
``(2) Contracted cattle information.--Information submitted
to the Secretary by a packer under paragraph (1) shall include,
with respect to each existing contract of a packer--
``(A) the type of contract;
``(B) the duration of the contract;
``(C) a summary of the contract terms;
``(D) provisions in the contract that may affect
the price of cattle covered by the contract, including
schedules, premiums and discounts, and transportation
arrangements;
``(E) the total number of cattle covered by the
contract solely committed to the packer each week
within the 6-month and 12-month periods following the
date of the contract, organized by reporting region;
``(F) in the case of a contract in which a specific
number of cattle are not solely committed to the
packer--
``(i) an indication that the contract is an
open commitment; and
``(ii) any weekly, monthly, annual, or
other limitations on the number of cattle that
may be delivered to the packer under the
contract; and
``(G) a description of the provisions in the
contract that provide for expansion in the numbers of
fed cattle to be delivered under the contract for the
6-month and 12-month periods following the date of the
contract.
``(c) Availability of Information.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall make publicly
available to producers and other interested persons information
(including the information described in subsection (b)(2)), in
a user-friendly format, on the types of contracts in the
library or catalog established under subsection (a), including
notice (on a real-time basis, if practicable) of the types of
contracts that are being offered by packers to, and are open to
acceptance by, producers for the purchase of fed cattle.
``(2) Monthly report.--
``(A) In general.--Beginning 30 days after the
library or catalog is established under subsection (a),
the Secretary shall make the information obtained each
month in the library or catalog available in a monthly
report to producers and other interested persons.
``(B) Contents.--The monthly report described in
subparagraph (A) shall include--
``(i) based on the information collected
under subsection (b)(2)(E), an estimate by the
Secretary of the total number of fed cattle
committed under contracts for delivery to
packers within the 6-month and 12-month periods
following the date of the report, organized by
reporting region and type of contract;
``(ii) based on the information collected
under subsection (b)(2)(F), the number of
contracts with an open commitment and any
weekly, monthly, annual, or other limitations
on the number of cattle that may be delivered
under such contracts; and
``(iii) based on the information collected
under subsection (b)(2)(G), an estimate by the
Secretary of the total maximum number of fed
cattle that may be delivered within the 6-month
and 12-month periods following the date of the
report, organized by reporting region and type
of contract.
``(d) Maintenance of Library or Catalog.--Information in the
library or catalog established under subsection (a) about types of
contracts that are no longer offered or in use shall be removed from
the library or catalog.
``(e) Confidentiality.--The reporting requirements for packers
under this section shall be subject to the confidentiality protections
provided under section 251.
``(f) Violations.--It shall be unlawful and a violation of this Act
for any packer to willfully fail or refuse--
``(1) to provide to the Secretary accurate information
required under this section; or
``(2) to comply with any other requirement of this section.
``(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary such sums as are necessary to carry out
this section.''.
SEC. 7. PUBLIC AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION.
Section 251(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C.
1636(a)) is amended--
(1) by redesignating paragraphs (1) and (2) as
subparagraphs (A) and (B), respectively, and indenting
appropriately;
(2) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A) (as so
redesignated), by striking ``The Secretary shall make available
to the public information'' and inserting the following:
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall make available to
the public all information''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(2) Effect.--Nothing in this section permits the
Secretary, or any officer or employee of the Secretary, to
withhold from the public the information, statistics, and
documents described in paragraph (1).''.
SEC. 8. CASH MARKET ACQUISITION OF CATTLE.
(a) Sense of the Senate.--It is the sense of the Senate that--
(1) all participants in the fed cattle market have a
responsibility to contribute to regionally sufficient levels of
negotiated trade of fed cattle in all cattle feeding regions in
order to achieve robust price discovery; and
(2) the Department of Agriculture should examine existing
academic literature regarding minimum levels of cash
transactions necessary to achieve robust price discovery and
enhance cattle producer leverage in the marketplace in each of
the cattle marketing regions.
(b) Amendment.--Chapter 5 of subtitle B of the Agricultural
Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1636 et seq.) is amended--
(1) by redesignating sections 259 and 260 as sections 260
and 261, respectively; and
(2) by inserting after section 258 the following:
``SEC. 259. REGIONAL MANDATORY MINIMUMS FOR NEGOTIATED PURCHASES AND
NEGOTIATED GRID PURCHASES.
``(a) Definition of Packer.--
``(1) In general.--In this section, the term `packer' has
the meaning given the term in section 221.
``(2) Exclusion.--In this section, the term `packer' does
not include a packer that slaughters cattle at only 1 livestock
processing plant.
``(b) Establishment.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of the Cattle Price Discovery and Transparency Act of
2021, the Secretary, in consultation with the Chief Economist,
shall establish--
``(A) regional mandatory minimums for the purpose
of enhancing price discovery, transparency, and cattle
producer leverage for cattle market participants; and
``(B) methods for establishing those regional
mandatory minimums, which shall be publicly available.
``(2) Purchases.--A packer shall, with respect to a packer
processing plant, purchase by negotiated purchase or negotiated
grid purchase the percentage of cattle required by the regional
mandatory minimum established for the region in which the
packer processing plant is located.
``(c) Public Input.--In carrying out subsection (b), the Secretary
shall make all proposed regional mandatory minimums and proposed
methods for establishing those minimums subject to a notice and comment
period.
``(d) Duration.--Regional mandatory minimums established for each
reporting region under subsection (b)(1) shall be applicable for not
more than a 24-month period.
``(e) Considerations.--In carrying out subsection (b) for each
reporting region, the Secretary, in consultation with the Chief
Economist, shall consider the following factors:
``(1) The number of packers in the reporting region.
``(2) The availability of cattle in the reporting region.
``(3) Pre-existing contractual arrangements of packers in
the reporting region.
``(4) The number of pricing transactions (pens of cattle
sold) in the reporting region.
``(f) Initial Requirement.--
``(1) In general.--Subject to paragraph (2), the initial
regional mandatory minimums established for each reporting
region under subsection (b)(1) shall be not less than the
average percentage of negotiated purchases and negotiated grid
purchases in that region from the preceding 18 months.
``(2) Requirement.--No initial regional mandatory minimum
established for a reporting region under paragraph (1) shall
exceed 300 percent of the lowest initial regional mandatory
minimum established under that paragraph for a region that has
publicly reported a majority of weekly market information
during the previous 18 months.
``(g) Biannual Review.--On establishing regional mandatory minimums
under subsection (b)(1), the Secretary--
``(1) shall review the regional mandatory minimums not less
frequently than once every 2 years; and
``(2) shall, in consultation with the Chief Economist--
``(A) maintain existing regional mandatory
minimums; or
``(B) modify the regional mandatory minimums
after--
``(i) consulting with representatives of
the United States cattle and beef industry; and
``(ii) making the proposed modification
subject to a notice and comment period.
``(h) Enforcement.--On establishing regional mandatory minimums
under subsection (b)(1), the Secretary shall--
``(1) regularly monitor compliance by packers with those
regional mandatory minimums; and
``(2) enforce this section in accordance with section 203
of the Packers and Stockyards Act, 1921 (7 U.S.C. 193).
``(i) Cost-Benefit Analysis.--Not later than 2 years after
establishing regional mandatory minimums under subsection (b)(1), the
Secretary, in consultation with the Chief Economist, shall conduct a
quantifiable, data-driven cost-benefit analysis regarding the operation
and effect of those regional mandatory minimums.
``(j) Application.--This section shall apply only with respect to
the reporting regions designated by the Agricultural Marketing
Service.''.
SEC. 9. MAXIMUM PENALTY AMOUNT.
The Secretary of Agriculture shall revise section 3.91(b)(1)(lvi)
of title 7, Code of Federal Regulations (or a successor regulation), to
establish a maximum civil penalty of $86,156, which shall be adjusted
for inflation in the same manner and to the same extent as civil
monetary penalties under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation
Adjustment Act of 1990 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note).
<all> | Cattle Price Discovery and Transparency Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 to establish a cattle contract library, and for other purposes. | Cattle Price Discovery and Transparency Act of 2021 | Sen. Fischer, Deb | R | NE |
517 | 2,023 | S.610 | Health | Protecting Medicare and American Farmers from Sequester Cuts Act
This bill makes several budgetary, technical, and procedural changes, particularly in relation to Medicare and increasing the debt limit.
Specifically, the bill continues to exempt Medicare from sequestration until March 31, 2022. (Sequestration is a process of automatic, usually across-the-board spending reductions under which budgetary resources are permanently cancelled to enforce specific budget policy goals.)
The bill also establishes expedited Senate procedures for considering legislation to increase the debt limit. The procedures limit debate, waive points of order, and prohibit amendments. The procedures may only be used once and expire after January 16, 2022.
Additionally, the bill (1) temporarily extends other provisions under Medicare, including a payment increase under the physician fee schedule; and (2) requires any debits recorded for FY2022 on the statutory pay-as-you-go (PAYGO) scorecards to be deducted from the scorecards for 2022 and added to the scorecards for 2023. | [117th Congress Public Law 71]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 1505]]
PROTECTING MEDICARE AND AMERICAN FARMERS FROM SEQUESTER CUTS ACT
[[Page 135 STAT. 1506]]
Public Law 117-71
117th Congress
An Act
To address behavioral health and well-being among health care
professionals. <<NOTE: Dec. 10, 2021 - [S. 610]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled, <<NOTE: Protecting
Medicare and American Farmers from Sequester Cuts Act.>>
SECTION 1. <<NOTE: 2 USC 900 note.>> SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Protecting Medicare and American
Farmers from Sequester Cuts Act''.
SEC. 2. ADJUSTMENTS TO MEDICARE SEQUESTRATION REDUCTIONS.
(a) Extension of Temporary Suspension Through March 2022.--
(1) In general.--Section 3709(a) of division A of the CARES
Act (2 U.S.C. 901a note) is amended--
(A) in the subsection header by inserting ``and
Adjustment'' after ``Suspension''; and
(B) by striking ``December 31, 2021'' and inserting
``March 31, 2022''.
(2) <<NOTE: 2 USC 901a note.>> Effective date.--The
amendments made by paragraph (1) shall take effect as if enacted
as part of the CARES Act (Public Law 116-136).
(b) Adjustments to Medicare Program Sequestration Reduction With
Respect to Fiscal Years 2022 and 2030.--Section 251A(6) of the Balanced
Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 (2 U.S.C. 901a(6)) is
amended--
(1) by redesignating subparagraph (C) as subparagraph (E);
and
(2) by inserting after subparagraph (B) the following new
subparagraphs:
``(C) <<NOTE: Applicability.>> Notwithstanding the
2 percent limit specified in subparagraph (A) for
payments for the Medicare programs specified in section
256(d), the sequestration order of the President under
such subparagraph for fiscal year 2022 shall be applied
to such payments so that with respect to the period
beginning on April 1, 2022, and ending on June 30, 2022,
the payment reduction shall be 1.0 percent.
``(D) <<NOTE: Applicability.>> Notwithstanding the
2 percent limit specified in subparagraph (A) for
payments for the Medicare programs specified in section
256(d), the sequestration order of the President under
such subparagraph for fiscal year 2030 shall be applied
to such payments so that--
``(i) with respect to the first 6 months in
which such order is effective for such fiscal
year, the payment reduction shall be 2.25 percent;
and
[[Page 135 STAT. 1507]]
``(ii) with respect to the second 6 months in
which such order is so effective for such fiscal
year, the payment reduction shall be 3 percent.''.
SEC. 3. EXTENSION OF SUPPORT FOR PHYSICIANS AND OTHER
PROFESSIONALS IN ADJUSTING TO MEDICARE PAYMENT
CHANGES.
(a) In General.--Section 1848 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395w-4) is amended--
(1) in subsection (c)(2)(B)(iv)(V), by striking ``2021'' and
inserting ``2021 or 2022''; and
(2) in subsection (t)--
(A) in the subsection header, by striking ``2021''
and inserting ``2021 and 2022'';
(B) in paragraph (1)--
(i) by striking ``during 2021'' and inserting
``during 2021 and 2022''; and
(ii) by striking ``for such services furnished
on or after January 1, 2021, and before January 1,
2022, by 3.75 percent.'' and inserting ``for--
``(A) such services furnished on or after January 1,
2021, and before January 1, 2022, by 3.75 percent; and
``(B) such services furnished on or after January 1,
2022, and before January 1, 2023, by 3.0 percent.''; and
(C) in paragraph (2)(C)--
(i) in the subparagraph header, by striking
``2021'' and inserting ``2021 and 2022'';
(ii) by inserting ``for services furnished in
2021 or 2022'' after ``under this subsection'';
and
(iii) by inserting ``or 2022, respectively''
before the period at the end.
(b) Report.--Section 101(c) of division N of the Consolidated
Appropriations Act, 2021 (Public Law 116-260) <<NOTE: 134 Stat. 1950.>>
is amended--
(1) in the first sentence--
(A) by striking ``April 1, 2022'' and inserting
``each of April 1, 2022, and April 1, 2023''; and
(B) by striking ``, as added by subsection (a)'' and
inserting ``furnished during 2021 or 2022,
respectively''; and
(2) in the second sentence--
(A) by striking ``Such report'' and inserting ``Each
such report''; and
(B) by inserting ``with respect to 2021 or 2022, as
applicable'' after ``under such section''.
SEC. 4. PRESERVING PATIENT ACCESS TO CRITICAL CLINICAL LAB
SERVICES.
(a) Revised Phase-in of Reductions From Private Payor Rate
Implementation.--Section 1834A(b)(3) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1395m-1(b)(3)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``through 2024'' and
inserting ``through 2025''; and
(2) in subparagraph (B)--
(A) in clause (ii), by striking ``for 2021'' and
inserting ``for each of 2021 and 2022''; and
(B) in clause (iii), by striking ``2022 through
2024'' and inserting ``2023 through 2025''.
[[Page 135 STAT. 1508]]
(b) Revised Reporting Period for Reporting of Private Sector Payment
Rates for Establishment of Medicare Payment Rates.--Section
1834A(a)(1)(B) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m-1(a)(1)(B))
is amended--
(1) in clause (i), by striking ``December 31, 2021'' and
inserting ``December 31, 2022''; and
(2) in clause (ii)--
(A) by striking ``January 1, 2022'' and inserting
``January 1, 2023''; and
(B) by striking ``March 31, 2022'' and inserting
``March 31, 2023''.
SEC. 5. DELAY TO THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE RADIATION ONCOLOGY
MODEL UNDER THE MEDICARE PROGRAM.
Section 133 of Division CC of the Consolidated Appropriations Act,
2021 (Public Law 116-260) <<NOTE: 134 Stat. 2976.>> is amended by
striking ``January 1, 2022'' and inserting ``January 1, 2023''.
SEC. 6. MEDICARE IMPROVEMENT FUND.
Section 1898(b)(1) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1395iii(b)(1)) is amended by striking ``fiscal year 2021'' and all that
follows through the period at the end and inserting ``fiscal year 2021,
$101,000,000.''.
SEC. 7. <<NOTE: Determination. Time periods.>> PAYGO ANNUAL
REPORT.
For the purposes of the annual report issued pursuant to section 5
of the Statutory Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2010 (2 U.S.C. 934) after
adjournment of the first session of the 117th Congress, and for
determining whether a sequestration order is necessary under such
section, the debit for the budget year on the 5-year scorecard, if any,
and the 10-year scorecard, if any, shall be deducted from such scorecard
in 2022 and added to such scorecard in 2023.
SEC. 8. EXPEDITED PROCEDURES FOR CONSIDERING AN INCREASE IN THE
DEBT LIMIT.
(a) Definition.--In this section, the term ``joint resolution''
means a joint resolution--
(1) <<NOTE: Time period.>> that is introduced by the
Majority Leader of the Senate, or a designee, during the period
beginning on the date of enactment of this Act and ending on
December 31, 2021;
(2) which does not have a preamble;
(3) the title of which is as follows: ``Joint resolution
relating to increasing the debt limit.''; and
(4) the matter after the resolving clause of which is as
follows: ``That the limitation under section 3101(b) of title
31, United States Code, as most recently increased by Public Law
117-50 (31 U.S.C. 3101 note), is increased by $_________.'', the
blank space being appropriately filled in with the dollar amount
of the increase.
(b) Expedited Consideration in Senate.--
(1) Placement on calendar.--Upon introduction in the Senate,
the joint resolution shall be placed immediately on the
calendar.
(2) Proceeding to consideration.--
(A) <<NOTE: Deadline.>> In general.--
Notwithstanding rule XXII of the Standing Rules of the
Senate, it is in order, not later than January 15, 2022
(even though a previous motion
[[Page 135 STAT. 1509]]
to the same effect has been disagreed to) to move to
proceed to the consideration of the joint resolution.
(B) Procedure.--For a motion to proceed to the
consideration of the joint resolution--
(i) all points of order against the motion are
waived;
(ii) the motion is not debatable;
(iii) the motion is not subject to a motion to
postpone;
(iv) a motion to reconsider the vote by which
the motion is agreed to or disagreed to shall not
be in order; and
(v) if the motion is agreed to, the joint
resolution shall remain the unfinished business
until disposed of.
(3) Floor consideration.--
(A) In general.--If the Senate proceeds to
consideration of the joint resolution--
(i) all points of order against the joint
resolution (and against consideration of the joint
resolution) are waived;
(ii) <<NOTE: Time period.>> debate on the
joint resolution, and all debatable motions and
appeals in connection therewith, shall be limited
to not more than 10 hours, which shall be divided
equally between the Chairman and Ranking Member of
the Committee on Finance;
(iii) an amendment to the joint resolution is
not in order;
(iv) a motion to postpone or a motion to
commit the joint resolution is not in order; and
(v) a motion to proceed to the consideration
of other business is not in order.
(B) Vote on passage.--The vote on passage shall
occur immediately following the conclusion of the debate
on the joint resolution and a single quorum call if
requested in accordance with the rules of the Senate.
(C) Rulings of the chair on procedure.--Appeals from
the decisions of the Chair relating to the application
of this paragraph or the rules of the Senate, as the
case may be, to the procedure relating to the joint
resolution shall be decided without debate.
(D) Single measure authorized.--It shall not be in
order to consider more than 1 joint resolution under the
procedures under this paragraph.
(E) Sunset.--It shall not be in order to consider a
joint resolution under the procedures under this
paragraph after January 16, 2022.
(4) Rules of the senate.--This subsection is enacted by
Congress--
(A) as an exercise of the rulemaking power of the
Senate, and as such is deemed a part of the rules of the
Senate, but applicable only with respect to the
procedure to be followed in the Senate in the case of a
joint resolution, and supersede other rules only to the
extent that they are inconsistent with such rules; and
(B) with full recognition of the constitutional
right of the Senate to change the rules (so far as
relating to
[[Page 135 STAT. 1510]]
the procedure of the Senate) at any time, in the same
manner, and to the same extent as in the case of any
other rule of the Senate.
Approved December 10, 2021.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--S. 610:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 167 (2021):
Aug. 5, considered and passed Senate.
Dec. 7, considered and passed House, amended. Senate
considered concurring in House amendment.
Dec. 9, Senate concurred in House amendment.
<all> | Protecting Medicare and American Farmers from Sequester Cuts Act | A bill to address behavioral health and well-being among health care professionals. | Dr. Lorna Breen Health Care Provider Protection Act
Dr. Lorna Breen Health Care Provider Protection Act
Dr. Lorna Breen Health Care Provider Protection Act
Dr. Lorna Breen Health Care Provider Protection Act | Sen. Kaine, Tim | D | VA |
518 | 6,411 | H.R.2151 | Armed Forces and National Security | Hire Veteran Health Heroes Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to consult with the Department of Defense to identify members of the Armed Forces in health care occupations who are separating from the Armed Forces.
The VA must refer interested members to a recruiter for consideration of open positions in the member's specialty and geography of interest. | To identify and refer members of the Armed Forces with a health care
occupation who are separating from the Armed Forces for potential
employment with the Department of Veterans Affairs, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Hire Veteran Health Heroes Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. IDENTIFICATION AND REFERRAL OF MEMBERS OF THE ARMED FORCES WITH
A HEALTH CARE OCCUPATION FOR POTENTIAL EMPLOYMENT WITH
THE DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS DURING SEPARATION FROM
THE ARMED FORCES.
(a) Identification.--The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, in
consultation with the Secretary of Defense, shall identify members of
the Armed Forces in a health care occupation during the separation of
such members from the Armed Forces.
(b) Referral of Interested Individuals.--
(1) In general.--If a member of the Armed Forces identified
under subsection (a) expresses an interest in working in a
health care occupation within the Department of Veterans
Affairs, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs shall refer the
member to a recruiter of the Department for consideration of
open positions in the specialty and geography of interest of
the member.
(2) Timing.--Any referral of a member of the Armed Forces
conducted under paragraph (1) shall be made not earlier than
one year before the separation of the member from the Armed
Forces.
(c) Rule of Construction.--Any identification of a member of the
Armed Forces under subsection (a) or referral of such member under
subsection (b) shall not be construed as a guarantee of employment of
such member with the Department of Veterans Affairs.
(d) Reports.--Not later than each of one year and two years after
the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans
Affairs, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, shall submit to
the appropriate committees of Congress a report on the efficacy of the
identification and referral of separating members of the Armed Forces
under this section.
(e) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Appropriate committees of congress.--The term
``appropriate committees of Congress'' means--
(A) The Committee on Armed Services and the
Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the Senate; and
(B) The Committee on Armed Services and the
Committee on Veterans' Affairs of the House of
Representatives.
(2) Health care occupation.--The term ``health care
occupation'' means an occupation for which an individual may be
appointed for employment with the Department of Veterans
Affairs under section 7401 of title 38, United States Code.
<all> | Hire Veteran Health Heroes Act of 2021 | To identify and refer members of the Armed Forces with a health care occupation who are separating from the Armed Forces for potential employment with the Department of Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes. | Hire Veteran Health Heroes Act of 2021 | Rep. Latta, Robert E. | R | OH |
519 | 11,141 | H.R.1149 | Science, Technology, Communications | Communities Overregulating Networks Need Economic Competition Today Act or the CONNECT Act
This bill prohibits a state or political subdivision thereof from providing or selling broadband internet access service. Such provision or sale may continue if there is no more than one other commercial provider of broadband internet access that provides competition in a particular area. | To prohibit a State or political subdivision thereof from providing or
offering for sale to the public retail or wholesale broadband internet
access service, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Communities Overregulating Networks
Need Economic Competition Today Act'' or the ``CONNECT Act''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON GOVERNMENT OWNED BROADBAND NETWORKS.
(a) In General.--Except as provided in subsections (b)(1) and (c),
a State or political subdivision thereof may not provide or offer for
sale to the public, a telecommunications provider, or to a commercial
provider of broadband internet access service, retail or wholesale
broadband internet access service.
(b) Transitional Rule.--Any State or political subdivision thereof
providing or offering for sale, either to the public, a
telecommunications provider, or to a provider of broadband internet
access service, retail or wholesale broadband internet access service,
before the date of the enactment of this section--
(1) notwithstanding subsection (a), may continue to provide
or offer for sale such service if the Commission finds there is
no more than one other commercial provider of broadband
internet access that provides competition for that service in a
particular area;
(2) shall notify each subscriber of the State or political
subdivision if a commercial provider of retail broadband
internet access enters the market; and
(3) may not construct or extend facilities used to deliver
broadband internet access service beyond the geographic area in
which the State or political subdivision thereof lawfully
operates.
(c) Exception.--Notwithstanding subsection (a), this section does
not apply to the Tennessee Valley Authority.
(d) Rules of Construction.--
(1) In general.--This section may not be construed to
restrict a State or political subdivision thereof, from
allowing the nondiscriminatory use of its rights-of-way,
including access to utility poles, conduits, ducts, or similar
support structures used for the deployment of facilities
necessary to deliver broadband internet access service.
(2) Public safety.--This section may not be construed to
restrict a State or political subdivision thereof, from
providing broadband facilities or services for 9-1-1, enhanced
9-1-1 service, or Next Generation 9-1-1.
(e) Limitation of Commission Authority.--Notwithstanding any
provision of law, including section 706 of the Communications Act of
1934 (47 U.S.C. 706), the Commission may not pre-empt State laws to
permit a State or political subdivision thereof to provide or offer for
sale to the public retail or wholesale broadband internet access
service.
(f) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) 9-1-1 request for emergency assistance.--The term ``9-
1-1 request for emergency assistance'' means a communication,
such as voice, text, picture, multimedia, or any other type of
data that is sent to an emergency communications center for the
purpose of requesting emergency assistance.
(2) Broadband internet access service.--The term
``broadband internet access service'' has the meaning given
that term in section 8.1(b) of title 47, Code of Federal
Regulations, or any successor regulation.
(3) Commonly accepted standards.--The term ``commonly
accepted standards'' means--
(A) the technical standards followed by the
communications industry for network, device, and
Internet Protocol connectivity, including standards
developed by the Third Generation Partnership Project,
the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers,
the Alliance for Telecommunications Industry Solutions,
the Internet Engineering Taskforce, and the
International Telecommunications Union; and
(B) standards that are accredited by a recognized
authority such as the American National Standards
Institute.
(4) Emergency communications center.--The term ``emergency
communications center'' means a facility that is designated to
receive a 9-1-1 request for emergency assistance and perform
one or more of the following functions:
(A) Process and analyze 9-1-1 requests for
emergency assistance and other gathered information.
(B) Dispatch appropriate emergency response
providers.
(C) Transfer or exchange 9-1-1 requests for
emergency assistance and other gathered information
with other emergency communications centers and
emergency response providers.
(D) Analyze any communications received from
emergency response providers.
(E) Support incident command functions.
(5) Emergency response provider.--The term ``emergency
response provider''--
(A) has the meaning given that term under section 2
of the Homeland Security Act (47 U.S.C. 101); and
(B) includes Federal, State, and local governmental
and nongovernmental emergency public safety, fire, law
enforcement, emergency response, emergency medical
(including hospital emergency facilities), and related
personnel, agencies, and authorities.
(6) Enhanced 9-1-1 service.--The term ``enhanced 9-1-1
service'' has the meaning given that term in section 7(10) of
the Wireless Communications and Public Safety Act of 1999 (47
U.S.C. 615b(10)).
(7) Interoperable.--The term ``interoperable'' means the
capability of emergency communications centers to receive 9-1-1
requests for emergency assistance and related data such as
location information and callback numbers from the public, then
process and share the 9-1-1 requests for emergency assistance
and related data with other emergency communications centers
and emergency response providers, regardless of jurisdiction,
equipment, device, software, service provider, or other
relevant factors, and without the need for proprietary
interfaces.
(8) Next generation 9-1-1.--The term ``Next Generation 9-1-
1'' means an interoperable, secure, Internet Protocol-based
system that--
(A) employs commonly accepted standards;
(B) enables the appropriate emergency
communications centers to receive, process, and analyze
all types of 9-1-1 requests for emergency assistance;
(C) acquires and integrates additional information
useful to handling 9-1-1 requests for emergency
assistance; and
(D) supports sharing information related to 9-1-1
requests for emergency assistance among emergency
communications centers and emergency response
providers.
(9) State.--The term ``State'' means any State of the
United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American
Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Northern
Mariana Islands, and any other territory or possession of the
United States.
(10) Telecommunications provider.--The term
``telecommunications provider'' means an eligible
telecommunications carrier as designated under section
214(e)(2) of the Communications Act of 1934 (47 U.S.C.
214(e)(2)).
<all> | Communities Overregulating Networks Need Economic Competition Today Act | To prohibit a State or political subdivision thereof from providing or offering for sale to the public retail or wholesale broadband internet access service, and for other purposes. | CONNECT Act
Communities Overregulating Networks Need Economic Competition Today Act | Rep. Long, Billy | R | MO |
520 | 11,034 | H.R.5777 | Education | Connecting Higher Opportunities In College Education Act or the CHOICE Act
This bill makes certain job training programs eligible for federal student aid.
To be eligible, a program must (1) provide at least 150 clock hours, 4 semester hours, or 6 quarter hours of instructional time over a minimum of 8 weeks; (2) have verified completion and placement rates meeting a minimum standard; and (3) provide training aligned with high-skill, high-wage, or in-demand industry sectors or occupations in the state or local area in which the program is provided. | To amend the definition of eligible program under the Higher Education
Act of 1965 for the purposes of eligibility for Federal financial aid.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Connecting Higher Opportunities In
College Education Act'' or the ``CHOICE Act''.
SEC. 2. JOB TRAINING PROGRAM.
Section 481(b)(1) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1088(b)(1)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``or'' at the end of subparagraph (A)(ii);
(2) in subparagraph (B)(ii), by striking the period and
inserting ``; or''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(C)(i) 150 clock hours of instruction, 4 semester
hours, or 6 quarter hours, offered during a minimum of
8 weeks, that--
``(I) has a verified completion
rate of at least 70 percent, as
determined in accordance with the
regulations of the Secretary;
``(II) has a verified placement
rate of at least 70 percent, as
determined in accordance with the
regulations of the Secretary; and
``(III) provides training aligned
with the requirements of high-skill,
high-wage, or in-demand industry
sectors or occupations in the State or
local area in which the job training
program is provided, as determined by
an industry or sector partnership in
such State or local area.
``(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, the terms
`in-demand industry sector or occupation', `industry or
sector partnership', and `local area' have the meanings
given the terms in section 3 of the Workforce
Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3102).''.
<all> | CHOICE Act | To amend the definition of eligible program under the Higher Education Act of 1965 for the purposes of eligibility for Federal financial aid. | CHOICE Act
Connecting Higher Opportunities In College Education Act | Rep. Keller, Fred | R | PA |
521 | 2,837 | S.3178 | International Affairs | This bill states that the United States should seek to support (1) improving Taiwan's asymmetric defense capabilities; (2) bolstering deterrence to preserve peace, security, and stability across the Taiwan Strait; (3) and deepening defense capability interoperability with Taiwan. | To express the sense of Congress on interoperability with Taiwan.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SENSE OF CONGRESS ON INTEROPERABILITY WITH TAIWAN.
It is the sense of Congress that, consistent with the Taiwan
Relations Act (Public Law 96-8; 22 U.S.C. 3301 et seq.) and the Six
Assurances, the United States should seek to support the goals of--
(1) improving asymmetric defense capabilities of Taiwan;
(2) bolstering deterrence to preserve peace, security, and
stability across the Taiwan Strait; and
(3) deepening interoperability with Taiwan in defense
capabilities, including in--
(A) maritime and air domain awareness; and
(B) integrated air and missile defense systems.
<all> | A bill to express the sense of Congress on interoperability with Taiwan. | A bill to express the sense of Congress on interoperability with Taiwan. | Official Titles - Senate
Official Title as Introduced
A bill to express the sense of Congress on interoperability with Taiwan. | Sen. Cornyn, John | R | TX |
522 | 7,473 | H.R.5271 | Government Operations and Politics | This act designates the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, as the Thelma Harper Post Office Building. | [117th Congress Public Law 277]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 136 STAT. 4187]]
Public Law 117-277
117th Congress
An Act
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at
2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, as the ``Thelma
Harper Post Office Building''. <<NOTE: Dec. 27, 2022 - [H.R. 5271]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. THELMA HARPER POST OFFICE BUILDING.
(a) Designation.--The facility of the United States Postal Service
located at 2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, shall be
known and designated as the ``Thelma Harper Post Office Building''.
(b) References.--Any reference in a law, map, regulation, document,
paper, or other record of the United States to the facility referred to
in subsection (a) shall be deemed to be a reference to the ``Thelma
Harper Post Office Building''.
Approved December 27, 2022.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--H.R. 5271:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 168 (2022):
July 12, considered and passed House.
Dec. 19, considered and passed Senate.
<all> | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, as the "Thelma Harper Post Office Building". | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, as the "Thelma Harper Post Office Building". | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 2245 Rosa L Parks Boulevard in Nashville, Tennessee, as the "Thelma Harper Post Office Building". | Rep. Cooper, Jim | D | TN |
523 | 4,977 | S.3702 | Armed Forces and National Security | United States Colored Troops Congressional Gold Medal Act
This bill provides for the award of a Congressional Gold Medal to the African Americans who served with Union forces in recognition of their bravery and outstanding service during the Civil War. | To award a Congressional Gold Medal, collectively, to the African
Americans who served with Union forces during the Civil War, in
recognition of their bravery and outstanding service.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``United States Colored Troops
Congressional Gold Medal Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Since the colonial era, African Americans have served
the United States in times of war.
(2) During the Civil War, approximately 200,000 African-
American men served in the Union Army and 19,000 African-
American men served in the Union Navy.
(3) During the Civil War, African-American women were not
allowed to formally enlist as soldiers or sailors, though they
served as nurses, cooks, spies, and scouts for the Union Army
and the Union Navy.
(4) While African-American men served in the Navy since its
establishment, there was resistance to enlisting them to take
up arms for the Union Army at the start of the Civil War.
(5) As the Civil War dragged on, President Lincoln broke
from the previous policy of his administration and determined
that liberating enslaved persons ``was a military necessity
absolutely essential for the salvation of the Union''.
(6) The Act entitled ``An Act to suppress insurrection, to
punish treason and rebellion, to seize and confiscate the
property of rebels, and for other purposes'', approved July 17,
1862 (commonly known as the ``Second Confiscation Act'') (12
Stat. 589; chapter 195) and the Act of July 17, 1862 (commonly
known as the ``Military Act of 1862'') (12 Stat. 597; chapter
201) were the first official authorizations to employ African
Americans in the Union Army.
(7) It was not until January 1, 1863, the effective date of
the Emancipation Proclamation issued by President Lincoln, that
the Union Army was ordered to receive African-American men.
(8) On May 22, 1863, the United States War Department
issued General Order Number 143, which established the Bureau
of Colored Troops for the recruitment and organization of
regiments of the Union Army composed of African-American men,
called the United States Colored Troops (referred to in this
section as ``USCT'').
(9) Leaders such as Frederick Douglass encouraged African
Americans to enlist to advance the cause of citizenship. ``Once
let the black man get upon his person the brass letters,
`U.S.', let him get an eagle on his button, and a musket on his
shoulder and bullets in his pocket, there is no power on
[E]arth that can deny that he has earned the right to
citizenship.'', wrote Douglass.
(10) African-American sailors constituted a significant
segment of the Union Navy, making up 20 percent of the total
enlisted force of the Navy.
(11) Although there were rank restrictions on African
Americans in the Navy before the Civil War, this policy changed
after the establishment of the USCT, when the Union Navy
started to compete with the Union Army for enlistment of
African Americans.
(12) Yet, in practice, most African Americans could not
advance beyond lowest ranks of ``boy'' and ``landsman.''
(13) African-American soldiers and sailors served with
distinction, honor, and bravery amid racial discrimination and
adverse circumstances, including the risk of enslavement and
torture if captured.
(14) Eighteen members of the USCT and 8 African-American
sailors were awarded the Medal of Honor, the highest honor in
the United States for bravery in combat.
(15) For generations after the Civil War, the contributions
of African Americans in the Civil War were excluded from
historical memory.
(16) Public Law No. 102-412 (106 Stat. 2104) authorized the
establishment of a memorial on Federal land in the District of
Columbia to honor African Americans who served with Union
forces during the Civil War.
(17) This memorial, featuring a bronze statue of USCT
soldiers, an African-American sailor and family, is surrounded
by the Wall of Honor, which lists the names of the members of
the USCT.
(18) The African-American Civil War Museum is located in
the District of Columbia.
(19) Patriots and heroes who rose in service to a Nation
that would not fully recognize them, the African Americans who
served the Union during the Civil War deserve our recognition
for their contributions to the grant of emancipation and
citizenship for nearly 4,000,000 enslaved people and the
preservation of the Union.
SEC. 3. CONGRESSIONAL GOLD MEDAL.
(a) Presentation Authorized.--The Speaker of the House of
Representatives and the President pro tempore of the Senate shall make
appropriate arrangements for the presentation, on behalf of Congress,
of a gold medal of appropriate design to the African Americans who
served with Union forces during the Civil War, collectively, in
recognition of their bravery and outstanding service during the Civil
War.
(b) Design and Striking.--For the purposes of the award referred to
in subsection (a), the Secretary of the Treasury (hereafter in this Act
referred to as the ``Secretary'') shall strike a gold medal with
suitable emblems, devices, and inscriptions, to be determined by the
Secretary.
(c) Smithsonian Institution.--
(1) In general.--Following the award of the gold medal
under subsection (a), the gold medal shall be given to the
Smithsonian Institution, where the medal shall be available for
display as appropriate and available for research.
(2) Sense of the congress.--It is the sense of Congress
that the Smithsonian Institution should make the gold medal
received under paragraph (1) available for display elsewhere,
particularly at appropriate locations associated with the
United States Colored Troops.
SEC. 4. DUPLICATE MEDALS.
The Secretary may strike and sell duplicates in bronze of the gold
medal struck pursuant to section 3 at a price sufficient to cover the
cost thereof, including labor, materials, dies, use of machinery, and
overhead expenses.
SEC. 5. STATUS OF MEDALS.
(a) National Medals.--The medals struck pursuant to this Act are
national medals for purposes of chapter 51 of title 31, United States
Code.
(b) Numismatic Items.--For purposes of section 5134 of title 31,
United States Code, all medals struck under this Act shall be
considered to be numismatic items.
SEC. 6. AUTHORITY TO USE FUND AMOUNTS; PROCEEDS OF SALE.
(a) Authority To Use Fund Amounts.--There is authorized to be
charged against the United States Mint Public Enterprise Fund such
amounts as may be necessary to pay for the cost of the medals struck
under this Act.
(b) Proceeds of Sale.--Amounts received from the sale of duplicate
bronze medals under section 4 shall be deposited in the United States
Mint Public Enterprise Fund.
<all> | United States Colored Troops Congressional Gold Medal Act | A bill to award a Congressional Gold Medal, collectively, to the African Americans who served with Union forces during the Civil War, in recognition of their bravery and outstanding service. | United States Colored Troops Congressional Gold Medal Act | Sen. Booker, Cory A. | D | NJ |
524 | 1,961 | S.1809 | Social Welfare | Allowing Steady Savings by Eliminating Tests Act or the ASSET Act
This bill prohibits the use of asset tests or resource limits in certain means-tested public assistance programs and increases the resource limits to qualify for Supplemental Security Income (SSI). SSI is a federal income supplement program designed to help aged, blind, and disabled individuals with limited income and resources meet basic needs.
Under the bill, states may not use asset or resource limits to determine eligibility for (1) programs funded by Temporary Assistance for Needy Families grants, (2) the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or (3) the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program.
In addition, an individual may have up to $10,000 in certain resources (or up to $20,000 for a couple) and qualify for SSI. Under current law, the limit is $2,000 for an individual (or $3,000 for a couple). | To eliminate asset limits employed by certain federally funded means-
tested public assistance programs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Allowing Steady
Savings by Eliminating Tests Act'' or the ``ASSET Act''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Findings; sense of Congress.
Sec. 3. States prohibited from imposing asset limits on programs funded
by Temporary Assistance for Needy Families
(TANF) grants.
Sec. 4. Eliminating asset limits in the supplemental nutrition
assistance program (SNAP).
Sec. 5. Eliminating asset limit in Low-Income Home Energy Assistance
Program (LIHEAP).
Sec. 6. Updating and indexing the resource limit for supplemental
security income (SSI).
Sec. 7. Effective date.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS; SENSE OF CONGRESS.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds as follows:
(1) Many means-tested public assistance programs limit
eligibility for benefits on the basis of the assets of a
family, such as savings and other resources. Such asset limits
impede the ability of needy families to improve their financial
circumstances and thereby reduce their dependence on public
assistance programs.
(2) Restricting eligibility for public assistance programs
on the basis of assets negatively affects the financial
security of low-income families. For example, to avoid losing
eligibility for public assistance under an asset limit, a
family may avoid mainstream financial services such as bank
accounts, or refrain from acquiring and saving resources that
would enable the family to weather an unanticipated expense.
(3) The risk that people who don't need public assistance
will take advantage of public assistance programs in the
absence of asset limits is low, in part because most applicants
for public assistance have very few assets, must meet strict
work requirements, and usually may only participate in a
program for a limited time.
(4) Evidence from States that have eliminated asset limits
suggests that the administrative cost savings associated with
the elimination of asset limits outweigh any increases in
payments made to beneficiaries.
(b) Sense of Congress.--It is the sense of Congress that certain
federally funded means-tested public assistance programs should not
utilize asset limits to restrict eligibility for assistance under those
programs.
SEC. 3. STATES PROHIBITED FROM IMPOSING ASSET LIMITS ON PROGRAMS FUNDED
BY TEMPORARY ASSISTANCE FOR NEEDY FAMILIES (TANF) GRANTS.
(a) No State Limitation on Allowable Financial Resources.--Section
408(a) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 608(a)) is amended by
adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(13) No asset or resource limit.--A State to which a
grant is made under section 403 shall not apply any asset or
resource limit for eligibility of a family for any benefit,
assistance, or service provided under the State program funded
under this part.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--Section 408(f) of the Social Security
Act (42 U.S.C. 608(f)) is amended--
(1) in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking ``or
resources''; and
(2) in paragraph (1)--
(A) in the paragraph header, by striking ``and
resources'';
(B) by striking subparagraph (B);
(C) by redesignating subparagraph (C) as
subparagraph (B); and
(D) in subparagraph (B) (as so redesignated), by
striking ``and resources'' each place it appears.
(c) Delay Permitted if State Legislation Required.--
(1) In general.--In the case of a State to which a grant is
made under section 403 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
603) that the Secretary of Health and Human Services determines
requires State legislation (other than legislation
appropriating funds) to meet the requirements of paragraph (13)
of section 408(a) of such Act (42 U.S.C. 608(a)), such State
shall not be regarded as failing to comply with the
requirements of such paragraph before the first day of the
first calendar quarter that begins after the close of the first
regular session of the State legislature that begins after the
date of enactment of this Act.
(2) 2-year legislative session.--For purposes of paragraph
(1), in the case of a State that has a 2-year legislative
session, each year of the session shall be considered to be a
separate regular session of the State legislature.
SEC. 4. ELIMINATING ASSET LIMITS IN THE SUPPLEMENTAL NUTRITION
ASSISTANCE PROGRAM (SNAP).
(a) In General.--
(1) Eligible households.--Section 5 of the Food and
Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2014) is amended--
(A) in subsection (a), in the first sentence, by
striking ``and other financial resources'';
(B) by striking subsections (g) and (j);
(C) by redesignating subsections (h), (i), (k),
(l), (m), and (n) as subsections (g), (h), (i), (j),
(k), and (l), respectively; and
(D) in subsection (h) (as so redesignated)--
(i) in paragraph (1), by striking ``and
resources'' each place it appears; and
(ii) in paragraph (2)--
(I) by striking subparagraph (B);
and
(II) by redesignating subparagraphs
(C) through (E) as subparagraphs (B)
through (D), respectively.
(2) Eligibility disqualifications.--Section 6 of the Food
and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015) is amended--
(A) by striking subsection (h); and
(B) by redesignating subsections (i) through (s) as
subsections (h) through (r), respectively.
(3) Research, demonstration, and evaluations.--Section 17
of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2026) is
amended--
(A) by striking subsections (h) and (i); and
(B) by redesignating subsections (j) through (n) as
subsections (h) through (l), respectively.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 5 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7
U.S.C. 2014) is amended--
(A) in subsection (a), in the second sentence, by
striking ``and (r)'' and inserting ``and (q)''; and
(B) in subsection (d)--
(i) in paragraph (1), by striking
``subsection (k)'' and inserting ``subsection
(i)''; and
(ii) in paragraph (10), by striking
``subsection (k) of this section'' and
inserting ``subsection (i)''.
(2) Section 6 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7
U.S.C. 2015) is amended--
(A) in subsection (d)(4), by striking ``subsection
(o)'' each place it appears and inserting ``subsection
(n)'';
(B) in subsection (f), in the third sentence, by
striking ``and financial resources'';
(C) in subsection (q) (as redesignated by
subsection (a)(2)(B)), in paragraph (1)(B), by striking
``subsection (k)'' and inserting ``subsection (j)'';
and
(D) in subsection (r) (as redesignated by
subsection (a)(2)(B)), in paragraph (2)--
(i) by striking ``allowable financial
resources and''; and
(ii) by striking ``(g), (i), (k), (l), (m),
and (n)'' and inserting ``(h), (i), (j), (k),
and (l)''.
(3) Section 7(i)(1) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008
(7 U.S.C. 2016(i)(1)) is amended by striking ``section 6(o)(2)
of this Act'' and inserting ``section 6(n)(2)''.
(4) Section 11(e)(22) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008
(7 U.S.C. 2020(e)(22)) is amended by striking ``section 6(i)''
and inserting ``section 6(h)''.
(5) Section 16 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7
U.S.C. 2025) is amended--
(A) in subsection (a)(9), by striking ``section
17(n)'' and inserting ``section 17(l)''; and
(B) in subsection (h)--
(i) in paragraph (1)--
(I) in subparagraph (B)(ii), by
striking ``section 6(o)'' and inserting
``section 6(n)'';
(II) in subparagraph (E)--
(aa) by striking ``section
6(o)(3)'' each place it appears
and inserting ``section
6(n)(3)'';
(bb) by striking ``section
6(o)(2)'' each place it appears
and inserting ``section
6(n)(2)''; and
(cc) in clause (ii)--
(AA) in subclause
(III), by striking
``section 6(o)(4)'' and
inserting ``section
6(n)(4)''; and
(BB) in subclause
(IV), by striking
``section 6(o)(6)'' and
inserting ``section
6(n)(6)''; and
(III) in subparagraph
(F)(ii)(III)(ee)(AA), by striking
``section 6(o)'' and inserting
``section 6(n)''; and
(ii) in paragraph (5)(C)(iv)(I), by
striking ``section 6(o)(2)'' and inserting
``section 6(n)(2)''.
(6) Section 17 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7
U.S.C. 2026) is amended--
(A) in subsection (k) (as redesignated by
subsection (a)(3)(B))--
(i) by striking ``subsections (l) through
(n)'' each place it appears and inserting
``subsections (k) through (m)''; and
(ii) in paragraph (2)(E), by striking
``section 6(l)(2)'' and inserting ``section
6(k)(2)''; and
(B) in subsection (l) (as redesignated by
subsection (a)(3)(B)), in paragraph (4)(A)(i)(II), by
striking ``and financial resources (as described in
section 5(g))''.
(7) Section 18(g)(2) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008
(7 U.S.C. 2027(g)(2)) is amended by striking ``section 5(h)''
and inserting ``section 5(g)''.
(8) Section 103(a)(2)(D) of the Workforce Innovation and
Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3113(a)(2)(D)) is amended by
striking ``section 6(o) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008
(7 U.S.C. 2015(o))'' and inserting ``section 6(n) of the Food
and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015(n))''.
(9) Section 121(b)(2)(B)(iv) of the Workforce Innovation
and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3151(b)(2)(B)(iv)) is amended by
striking ``section 6(o) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008
(7 U.S.C. 2015(o))'' and inserting ``section 6(n) of the Food
and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015(n))''.
(10) Section 454 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 654)
is amended--
(A) in paragraph (4)(A)(i), by striking ``section
6(l)(1) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C.
2015(l)(1))'' and inserting ``section 6(k)(1) of the
Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015(k)(1))'';
(B) in paragraph (6)(B)(i), by striking
``subsection (l) or (m) of section 6 of the Food and
Nutrition Act of 2008'' and inserting ``subsection (k)
or (l) of section 6 of the Food and Nutrition Act of
2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015)''; and
(C) in paragraph (29)(A)(ii), by striking ``section
6(l)(2) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C.
2015(l)(2))'' and inserting ``section 6(k)(2) of the
Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015(k)(2))''.
(c) Delay Permitted if State Legislation Required.--
(1) In general.--In the case of a State plan under section
11 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2020) that
the Secretary of Agriculture determines requires State
legislation (other than legislation appropriating funds) in
order for the plan to meet the additional requirements imposed
by the amendments made by this section, the State plan shall
not be regarded as failing to comply with the requirements of
section 11 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C.
2020) solely on the basis of the failure of the plan to meet
those additional requirements before the first day of the first
calendar quarter that begins after the close of the first
regular session of the State legislature that begins after the
date of enactment of this Act.
(2) Legislative session.--For purposes of paragraph (1), in
the case of a State that has a 2-year legislative session, each
year of the session shall be considered a separate regular
session of the State legislature.
SEC. 5. ELIMINATING ASSET LIMIT IN LOW-INCOME HOME ENERGY ASSISTANCE
PROGRAM (LIHEAP).
(a) Elimination of Limitations on Allowable Financial Resources.--
Section 2605(b)(2) of the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Act of 1981
(42 U.S.C. 8624(b)(2)) is amended, in the matter following subparagraph
(B), by inserting ``, and agrees that a State may not exclude a
household from eligibility in a fiscal year solely or partially on the
basis of the assets of 1 or more members of the household'' before the
semicolon.
(b) Delay Permitted if State Legislation Required.--
(1) In general.--In the case of a State plan under section
2605 of the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Act of 1981 (42
U.S.C. 8624) that the Secretary of Health and Human Services
determines requires State legislation (other than legislation
appropriating funds) in order for the plan to meet the
additional requirements imposed by the amendment made by this
section, the State plan shall not be regarded as failing to
comply with the requirements of such section 2605 solely on the
basis of the failure of the plan to meet those additional
requirements before the first day of the first calendar quarter
that begins after the close of the first regular session of the
State legislature that begins after the date of enactment of
this Act.
(2) 2-year legislative session.--For purposes of paragraph
(1), in the case of a State that has a 2-year legislative
session, each year of the session shall be considered to be a
separate regular session of the State legislature.
SEC. 6. UPDATING AND INDEXING THE RESOURCE LIMIT FOR SUPPLEMENTAL
SECURITY INCOME (SSI).
(a) In General.--
(1) Update in resource limit for individuals and couples.--
Section 1611(a)(3) of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1382(a)(3)) is
amended--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``$2,250'' and
all that follows through the end of the subparagraph
and inserting ``$20,000 in calendar year 2021, and
shall be increased as described in section 1617(d) for
each subsequent calendar year.''; and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``$1,500'' and
all that follows through the end of the subparagraph
and inserting ``$10,000 in calendar year 2021, and
shall be increased as described in section 1617(d) for
each subsequent calendar year.''.
(2) Inflation adjustment.--Section 1617 of such Act (42
U.S.C. 1382f) is amended--
(A) in the section heading, by inserting ``;
inflation adjustment'' after ``benefits''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(d) In the case of any calendar year after 2021, each of the
amounts specified in section 1611(a)(3) shall be increased by
multiplying each such amount by the quotient (not less than 1) obtained
by dividing--
``(1) the average of the Consumer Price Index for Elderly
Consumers (CPI-E, as published by the Bureau of Labor
Statistics of the Department of Labor) for the 12-month period
ending with September of the preceding calendar year, by
``(2) such average for the 12-month period ending with
September 2020.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall take
effect as if enacted on January 1, 2021.
SEC. 7. EFFECTIVE DATE.
Except as otherwise provided, the amendments made by this Act shall
apply to benefits for calendar months beginning on or after the date
that is 30 days after the date of enactment of this Act.
<all> | ASSET Act | A bill to eliminate asset limits employed by certain federally funded means-tested public assistance programs, and for other purposes. | ASSET Act
Allowing Steady Savings by Eliminating Tests Act | Sen. Coons, Christopher A. | D | DE |
525 | 14,537 | H.R.7203 | Taxation | Wally Bunker Healthcare Enhancement for Local Public Safety Retirees Improvement Act of 2022 or the HELPS Retirees Improvement Act of 2022
This bill increases from $3,000 to $6,000 the amount of the exclusion from gross income of distributions from a tax-exempt retirement plan for health and long-term care insurance for public safety officers. It also eliminates the requirement that insurance premiums must be paid directly to the provider of the accident or health plan or long-term care insurance contract as a condition of eligibility for the tax exclusion. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the direct payment
requirement on the exclusion from gross income of distributions from
governmental plans for health and long-term care insurance, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Wally Bunker Healthcare Enhancement
for Local Public Safety Retirees Improvement Act of 2022'' or the
``HELPS Retirees Improvement Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. INCREASE IN AMOUNT EXCLUDED FROM GROSS INCOME BY REASON OF
DISTRIBUTIONS FROM GOVERNMENTAL RETIREMENT PLANS FOR
HEALTH AND LONG-TERM CARE INSURANCE FOR PUBLIC SAFETY
OFFICERS.
(a) In General.--Paragraph (2) of section 402(l) of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by striking ``$3,000'' and inserting
``$6,000''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by paragraph (1) shall
apply to distributions in taxable years beginning after December 31,
2021.
SEC. 3. REPEAL OF DIRECT PAYMENT REQUIREMENT ON EXCLUSION FROM GROSS
INCOME OF DISTRIBUTIONS FROM GOVERNMENTAL PLANS FOR
HEALTH AND LONG-TERM CARE INSURANCE.
(a) In General.--Section 402(l)(5) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended to read as follows:
``(5) Aggregation rule.--For purposes of this subsection,
all eligible retirement plans of an employer shall be treated
as a single plan.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall apply
to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.
<all> | HELPS Retirees Improvement Act of 2022 | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to repeal the direct payment requirement on the exclusion from gross income of distributions from governmental plans for health and long-term care insurance, and for other purposes. | HELPS Retirees Improvement Act of 2022
Wally Bunker Healthcare Enhancement for Local Public Safety Retirees Improvement Act of 2022 | Rep. Chabot, Steve | R | OH |
526 | 12,136 | H.R.370 | Emergency Management | Quadrennial Homeland Security Review Technical Corrections Act of 2021
This bill makes numerous changes to the quadrennial homeland security reviews. The quadrennial homeland security review is the Department of Homeland Security's capstone strategy document, which offers recommendations on long-term strategy and priorities for homeland security.
Specifically, the changes are related to consultation, prioritization, resources required, deadlines, and documentation. | To amend the Homeland Security Act of 2002 to make technical
corrections to the requirement that the Secretary of Homeland Security
submit quadrennial homeland security reviews, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Quadrennial Homeland Security Review
Technical Corrections Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. TECHNICAL CORRECTIONS TO QUADRENNIAL HOMELAND SECURITY REVIEW.
(a) In General.--Section 707 of the Homeland Security Act of 2002
(6 U.S.C. 347) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(3)--
(A) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``and'' after
the semicolon at the end;
(B) by redesignating subparagraph (C) as
subparagraph (D); and
(C) by inserting after subparagraph (B) the
following new subparagraph:
``(C) representatives from appropriate advisory
committees established pursuant to section 871,
including the Homeland Security Advisory Council and
the Homeland Security Science and Technology Advisory
Committee, or otherwise established, including the
Aviation Security Advisory Committee established
pursuant to section 44946 of title 49, United States
Code; and'';
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) in paragraph (2), by inserting before the
semicolon at the end the following: ``based on the risk
assessment required pursuant to subsection (c)(2)(B)'';
(B) in paragraph (3)--
(i) by inserting ``, to the extent
practicable,'' after ``describe''; and
(ii) by striking ``budget plan'' and
inserting ``resources required'';
(C) in paragraph (4)--
(i) by inserting ``, to the extent
practicable,'' after ``identify'';
(ii) by striking ``budget plan required to
provide sufficient resources to successfully''
and inserting ``resources required to''; and
(iii) by striking the semicolon at the end
and inserting the following: ``, including any
resources identified from redundant, wasteful,
or unnecessary capabilities or capacities that
may be redirected to better support other
existing capabilities or capacities, as the
case may be; and'';
(D) in paragraph (5), by striking ``; and'' and
inserting a period; and
(E) by striking paragraph (6);
(3) in subsection (c)--
(A) in paragraph (1), by striking ``December 31 of
the year'' and inserting ``60 days after the date of
the submission of the President's budget for the fiscal
year after the fiscal year'';
(B) in paragraph (2)--
(i) in subparagraph (B), by striking
``description of the threats to'' and inserting
``risk assessment of'';
(ii) in subparagraph (C), by inserting ``,
as required under subsection (b)(2)'' before
the semicolon at the end;
(iii) in subparagraph (D)--
(I) by inserting ``to the extent
practicable,'' before ``a
description''; and
(II) by striking ``budget plan''
and inserting ``resources required'';
(iv) in subparagraph (F)--
(I) by inserting ``to the extent
practicable,'' before ``a discussion'';
and
(II) by striking ``the status of'';
(v) in subparagraph (G)--
(I) by inserting ``to the extent
practicable,'' before ``a discussion'';
(II) by striking ``the status of'';
(III) by inserting ``and risks''
before ``to national homeland''; and
(IV) by inserting ``and'' after the
semicolon at the end;
(vi) by striking subparagraph (H); and
(vii) by redesignating subparagraph (I) as
subparagraph (H);
(C) by redesignating paragraph (3) as paragraph
(4); and
(D) by inserting after paragraph (2) the following
new paragraph:
``(3) Documentation.--The Secretary shall retain and, upon
request, provide to Congress the following documentation
regarding each quadrennial homeland security review:
``(A) Records regarding the consultation carried
out pursuant to subsection (a)(3), including the
following:
``(i) All written communications, including
communications sent out by the Secretary and
feedback submitted to the Secretary through
technology, online communications tools, in-
person discussions, and the interagency
process.
``(ii) Information on how feedback received
by the Secretary informed each such quadrennial
homeland security review.
``(B) Information regarding the risk assessment
required pursuant to subsection (c)(2)(B), including
the following:
``(i) The risk model utilized to generate
such risk assessment.
``(ii) Information, including data used in
the risk model, utilized to generate such risk
assessment.
``(iii) Sources of information, including
other risk assessments, utilized to generate
such risk assessment.
``(iv) Information on assumptions, weighing
factors, and subjective judgments utilized to
generate such risk assessment, together with
information on the rationale or basis
thereof.'';
(4) by redesignating subsection (d) as subsection (e); and
(5) by inserting after subsection (c) the following new
subsection:
``(d) Review.--Not later than 90 days after the submission of each
report required under subsection (c)(1), the Secretary shall provide to
the Committee on Homeland Security of the House of Representatives and
the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs of the
Senate information on the degree to which the findings and
recommendations developed in the quadrennial homeland security review
that is the subject of such report were integrated into the acquisition
strategy and expenditure plans for the Department.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this Act shall apply
with respect to a quadrennial homeland security review conducted after
December 31, 2021.
Calendar No. 581
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. R. 370
[Report No. 117-231]
_______________________________________________________________________ | Quadrennial Homeland Security Review Technical Corrections Act of 2021 | To amend the Homeland Security Act of 2002 to make technical corrections to the requirement that the Secretary of Homeland Security submit quadrennial homeland security reviews, and for other purposes. | Quadrennial Homeland Security Review Technical Corrections Act of 2021
Quadrennial Homeland Security Review Technical Corrections Act of 2021
Quadrennial Homeland Security Review Technical Corrections Act of 2021 | Rep. Watson Coleman, Bonnie | D | NJ |
527 | 7,552 | H.R.9205 | Health | Public Health Emergency Flexibility Act of 2022
This bill allows specified COVID-19 funding that was made available through the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 to also be used to address monkeypox. (Monkeypox is a viral disease that is endemic to parts of Africa and causes symptoms similar to, but less severe than, smallpox.) | To allow certain public health funds appropriated by the American
Rescue Plan Act of 2021 to be used to address the monkeypox public
health emergency.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Public Health Emergency Flexibility
Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. FUNDING FOR ADDRESSING MONKEYPOX PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY.
(a) Use by Respective Secretaries.--Covered funds may, without
further appropriation, be used by the respective Secretary with respect
to monkeypox to the same extent and in the same manner as such funds
are authorized to be used with respect to COVID-19.
(b) Use by Certain Awardees.--Notwithstanding the terms of any
award of covered funds that was made before the date of enactment of
this Act to a State, local, Tribal, or territorial government, such
government may use such award with respect to monkeypox to the same
extent and in the same manner as such award is authorized to be used
with respect to COVID-19.
(c) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) The term ``covered funds'' means funds that--
(A) were appropriated by subtitle D, E, F, G, or H
of title II, or subtitle M or N of title IX, of the
American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 (Public Law 117-2), as
amended; and
(B) have not been otherwise obligated or expended.
(2) The term ``respective Secretary'' means the Secretary
to which the covered funds were appropriated.
<all> | Public Health Emergency Flexibility Act of 2022 | To allow certain public health funds appropriated by the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 to be used to address the monkeypox public health emergency. | Public Health Emergency Flexibility Act of 2022 | Rep. Casten, Sean | D | IL |
528 | 8,915 | H.R.129 | Crime and Law Enforcement | No More Tulias: Drug Law Enforcement Evidentiary Standards Improvement Act of 2021
This bill establishes new requirements for states that receive funds under the Edward Byrne Memorial Justice Assistance Grant program or under another law enforcement assistance program of the Department of Justice.
Specifically, to be eligible for funds, states must either not fund antidrug task forces or have in effect laws that
Additionally, an eligible state that receives funds because these laws are in effect must collect and report data on criminal charges, including the racial distribution, nature, and location of such charges. | To increase the evidentiary standard required to convict a person for a
drug offense, to require screening of law enforcement officers or
others acting under color of law participating in drug task forces, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``No More Tulias: Drug Law Enforcement
Evidentiary Standards Improvement Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS; SENSE OF CONGRESS.
(a) Findings.--Congress finds the following:
(1) In recent years it has become clear that programs
funded by the Edward Byrne Memorial Justice Assistance Grant
program (referred to in this Act as the ``Byrne grants
program'') have perpetuated racial disparities, corruption in
law enforcement, and the commission of civil rights abuses
across the country. This is especially the case when it comes
to the program's funding of hundreds of regional antidrug task
forces because the grants for these antidrug task forces have
been dispensed to State governments with very little Federal
oversight and have been prone to misuse and corruption.
(2) Numerous Government Accountability Office reports have
found that the Department of Justice has inadequately monitored
grants provided under the Byrne grants program. A 2001 General
Accounting Office report found that one-third of the grants did
not contain required monitoring plans. Seventy percent of files
on such grants did not contain required progress reports.
Forty-one percent of such files did not contain financial
reports covering the full grant period. A 2002 report by the
Heritage Foundation reported that ``there is virtually no
evidence'' that the Byrne grants program has been successful in
reducing crime and that the program lacks ``adequate measures
of performance''.
(3) A 2002 report by the American Civil Liberties Union of
Texas identified 17 recent scandals involving antidrug task
forces in Texas that receive funds under the Byrne grants
program. Such scandals include cases of the falsification of
government records, witness tampering, fabricating evidence,
false imprisonment, stealing drugs from evidence lockers,
selling drugs to children, large-scale racial profiling, sexual
harassment, and other abuses of official capacity. Recent
scandals in other States include the misuse of millions of
dollars in Byrne grants program money in Kentucky and
Massachusetts, wrongful convictions based on police perjury in
Missouri, and negotiations with drug offenders to drop or lower
their charges in exchange for money or vehicles in Alabama,
Arkansas, Georgia, Massachusetts, New York, Ohio, and
Wisconsin.
(4) The most well-known Byrne-funded task force scandal
occurred in Tulia, Texas, where dozens of African-American
residents (totaling over 16 percent of the town's African-
American population) were arrested, prosecuted, and sentenced
to decades in prison, based solely on the uncorroborated
testimony of one undercover officer whose background included
past allegations of misconduct, sexual harassment, unpaid
debts, and habitual use of a racial epithet. The undercover
officer was allowed to work alone, and not required to provide
audiotapes, video surveillance, or eyewitnesses to corroborate
his allegations. Despite the lack of physical evidence or
corroboration, the charges were vigorously prosecuted. After
the first few trials resulted in convictions and lengthy
sentences, many defendants accepted plea bargains. Suspicions
regarding the legitimacy of the charges eventually arose after
two of the accused defendants were able to produce convincing
alibi evidence to prove that they were out of State or at work
at the time of the alleged drug purchases. Texas Governor Rick
Perry eventually pardoned the Tulia defendants (after four
years of imprisonment), but these kinds of scandals continue to
plague Byrne grant program spending.
(5) A case arose in a Federal court in Waco, Texas,
concerning the wrongful arrests of 28 African Americans out of
4,500 other residents of Hearne, Texas. In November 2000, these
individuals were arrested on charges of possession or
distribution of crack cocaine, and they subsequently filed a
case against the county government. On May 11, 2005, a
magistrate judge found sufficient evidence that a Byrne-funded
antidrug task force had routinely targeted African Americans to
hold the county liable for the harm suffered by the plaintiffs.
Plaintiffs in that lawsuit alleged that for the past 15 years,
based on the uncorroborated tales of informants, task force
members annually raided the African-American community in
eastern Hearne to arrest the residents identified by the
confidential informants, resulting in the arrest and
prosecution of innocent citizens without cause. On the eve of
trial the counties involved in the Hearne task force scandal
settled the case, agreeing to pay financial damages to the
plaintiffs.
(6) Scandals related to the Byrne grants program have grown
so prolific that the Texas legislature has passed several
reforms in response to them, including outlawing racial
profiling and changing Texas law to prohibit drug offense
convictions based solely on the word of an undercover
informant. The Criminal Jurisprudence Committee of the Texas
House of Representatives issued a report in 2004 recommending
that all of the State's federally funded antidrug task forces
be abolished because they are inherently prone to corruption.
The Committee reported, ``Continuing to sanction task force
operations as stand-alone law enforcement entities--with
widespread authority to operate at will across multiple
jurisdictional lines--should not continue. The current approach
violates practically every sound principle of police oversight
and accountability applicable to narcotics interdiction.'' The
Texas legislature passed a law that ends the ability of a
narcotics task force to operate as an entity with no clear
accountability. The legislation transfers authority for
multicounty drug task forces to the Department of Public Safety
and channels one-quarter of asset forfeiture proceeds received
by the task forces to a special fund to support drug abuse
prevention programs, drug treatment, and other programs
designed to reduce drug use in the county where the assets are
seized.
(7) Texas's ``corroboration'' law was passed thanks to a
coalition of Christian conservatives and civil rights
activists. As one Texas preacher related, requiring
corroboration ``puts a protective hedge around the ninth
commandment, `You shall not bear false witness against your
neighbor.' As long as people bear false witness against their
neighbors, this Biblical law will not be outdated.''
(8) During floor debate, conservative Texas legislators
pointed out that Mosaic law requires corroboration: ``One
witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or
for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two
witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter
be established.'' Deuteronomy 19:15. Jesus concurred with the
corroboration rule: ``If thy brother shall trespass against
thee, go and tell him his fault between thee and him alone. . .
. But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two
more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word
may be established.'' Matthew 18:15-16.
(9) Texas's ``corroboration'' law had an immediate positive
impact. Once prosecutors needed more than just the word of one
person to convict someone of a drug offense they began
scrutinizing law enforcement tactics. This new scrutiny led to
the uncovering of massive corruption and civil rights abuse by
the Dallas police force. In what became known nationally as the
``Sheetrock'' scandal, Dallas police officers and undercover
informants were found to have set up dozens of innocent people,
mostly Mexican immigrants, by planting fake drugs on them
consisting of chalk-like material used in sheetrock and other
brands of wallboard. The revelations led to the dismissal of
over 40 cases (although some of those arrested were already
deported). In April 2005, a former Dallas narcotics detective
was sentenced to five years in prison for his role in the
scheme. Charges against others are pending.
(10) Many regional antidrug task forces receive up to 75
percent of their funding from the Byrne grant program. As such,
the United States Government is accountable for corruption and
civil rights abuses inherent in their operation.
(b) Sense of Congress.--It is the sense of Congress that--
(1) grants under the Byrne grants program should be
prohibited for States that do not exercise effective control
over antidrug task forces;
(2) at a minimum, no State that fails to prohibit criminal
convictions based solely on the testimony of a law enforcement
officer or informants should receive a grant under such
program; and
(3) corroborative evidence, such as video or audio tapes,
drugs, and money, should always be required for such criminal
convictions to be sustained.
SEC. 3. LIMITATION ON RECEIPT OF BYRNE GRANT FUNDS AND OTHER DEPARTMENT
OF JUSTICE LAW ENFORCEMENT ASSISTANCE.
(a) Limitation.--For any fiscal year, a State shall not receive any
amount that would otherwise be allocated to that State under section
505(a) of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34
U.S.C. 10156(a)), or any amount from any other law enforcement
assistance program of the Department of Justice, unless the State--
(1) does not fund any antidrug task forces for that fiscal
year; or
(2) has in effect throughout the State laws that ensure--
(A) a person is not convicted of a drug offense
unless the fact that a drug offense was committed, and
the fact that the person committed that offense, are
each supported by evidence other than the eyewitness
testimony of a law enforcement officer or an individual
acting on behalf of a law enforcement officer; and
(B) a law enforcement officer does not participate
in an antidrug task force unless the honesty and
integrity of that officer is evaluated and found to be
at an appropriately high level.
(b) Regulations.--The Attorney General shall prescribe regulations
to carry out subsection (a).
(c) Reallocation.--Amounts not allocated by reason of subsection
(a) shall be reallocated to States not disqualified by failure to
comply with such subsection.
SEC. 4. COLLECTION OF DATA.
(a) In General.--A State that receives Federal funds pursuant to
eligibility under section 3(a)(2), with respect to a fiscal year, shall
collect data, for the most recent year for which funds were allocated
to such State, with respect to the--
(1) racial distribution of charges made during that year;
(2) nature of the criminal law specified in the charges
made; and
(3) city or law enforcement jurisdiction in which the
charges were made.
(b) Report.--As a condition of receiving Federal funds pursuant to
section 3(a)(2), a State shall submit to Congress the data collected
under subsection (a) by not later than the date that is 180 days prior
to the date on which such funds are awarded for a fiscal year.
<all> | No More Tulias: Drug Law Enforcement Evidentiary Standards Improvement Act of 2021 | To increase the evidentiary standard required to convict a person for a drug offense, to require screening of law enforcement officers or others acting under color of law participating in drug task forces, and for other purposes. | No More Tulias: Drug Law Enforcement Evidentiary Standards Improvement Act of 2021 | Rep. Jackson Lee, Sheila | D | TX |
529 | 8,655 | H.R.2527 | Agriculture and Food | Food Recovery Transportation Act
This bill directs the Department of Agriculture to award grants to public food service providers, tribal organizations, or private nonprofit entities for activities related to food recovery. | To establish a grant program to provide certain eligible entities
engaged in food recovery with grants to support certain costs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Food Recovery Transportation Act''.
SEC. 2. FOOD WASTE RECOVERY TRANSPORTATION GRANTS.
(a) Authority To Provide Assistance.--
(1) In general.--From amounts made available to carry out
this section, the Secretary of Agriculture shall make grants to
assist an eligible entity with--
(A) purchasing, leasing, or otherwise acquiring
vehicles, including refrigerated vehicles, or other
equipment to carry out activities related to food
recovery;
(B) reimbursing travel costs related to food
recovery at the per mile rate established by the
Commissioner of the Internal Revenue Service; and
(C) the costs of preparing, storing, and
transporting donated food.
(2) Limitation.--An eligible entity may only receive one
grant under this section.
(b) Application.--To be eligible to receive a grant under
subsection (a), an eligible entity shall submit an application to the
Secretary of Agriculture, at such time, in such manner, and containing
such information as the Secretary of Agriculture may require.
(c) Eligible Entity.--To be eligible for a grant under subsection
(a), a public food program service provider, a tribal organization, or
a private nonprofit entity (including a gleaner) shall--
(1) have experience in the area of--
(A) food recovery and distribution, particularly
concerning small and medium-sized farms;
(B) job training and business development
activities for food-related activities in low-income
communities; or
(C) efforts to reduce food insecurity in the
community, including food recovery and distribution,
improving access to services, or coordinating services
and programs; and
(2) demonstrate competency to implement a project, provide
fiscal accountability, collect data, and prepare reports and
other necessary documentation.
(d) Gleaner Defined.--In this section, the term ``gleaner'' has the
meaning given the term in section 25(a)(2) of the Food and Nutrition
Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2034(a)(2)).
(e) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to carry
out this section $10,000,000 for fiscal year 2022.
<all> | Food Recovery Transportation Act | To establish a grant program to provide certain eligible entities engaged in food recovery with grants to support certain costs. | Food Recovery Transportation Act | Rep. McKinley, David B. | R | WV |
530 | 8,328 | H.R.1669 | Commerce | State Small Business Credit Initiative Renewal Act
This bill reauthorizes the State Small Business Credit Initiative through which the Department of the Treasury provides funding for participating states and tribal governments to support small business credit expansion programs that deliver loans or investments to eligible small businesses.
A participating state must provide Treasury with a description of (1) how minority depository institutions and community development financial institutions will be encouraged to participate in state programs, and (2) how the state will utilize funds to support small businesses in responding to and recovering from the economic effects of COVID-19.
The bill allocates specified portions of this funding for (1) states to support businesses that are owned by socially and economically disadvantaged individuals, (2) an incentive program to boost funding for states that demonstrate robust support for those businesses, (3) support for very small businesses (e.g., those with fewer than 10 employees), and (4) tribal governments.
Additionally, Treasury may provide funds to states, the Minority Business Development Agency, or other advisory firms to provide technical assistance to specified small businesses. | To amend the State Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 to
respond to the COVID-19 pandemic, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``State Small Business Credit
Initiative Renewal Act''.
SEC. 2. REAUTHORIZATION OF THE STATE SMALL BUSINESS CREDIT INITIATIVE
ACT OF 2010.
(a) Reauthorization.--
(1) In general.--The State Small Business Credit Initiative
Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5701 et seq.) is amended--
(A) in section 3003--
(i) in subsection (b)--
(I) by amending paragraph (1) to
read as follows:
``(1) In general.--Not later than 30 days after the date of
enactment of subsection (d), the Secretary shall allocate
Federal funds to participating States so that each State is
eligible to receive an amount equal to what the State would
receive under the 2021 allocation, as determined under
paragraph (2).'';
(II) in paragraph (2)--
(aa) by striking ``2009''
each place such term appears
and inserting ``2021'';
(bb) by striking ``2008''
each place such term appears
and inserting ``2020'';
(cc) in subparagraph (A),
by striking ``The Secretary''
and inserting ``With respect to
States other than Tribal
governments, the Secretary'';
(dd) in subparagraph
(C)(i), by striking ``2007''
and inserting ``2019''; and
(ee) by adding at the end
the following:
``(C) Separate allocation for tribal governments.--
``(i) In general.--With respect to States
that are Tribal governments, the Secretary
shall determine the 2021 allocation by
allocating $500,000,000 among the Tribal
governments in the proportion the Secretary
determines appropriate, including with
consideration to available employment and
economic data regarding each such Tribal
government.
``(ii) Notice of intent; timing of
allocation.--With respect to allocations to
States that are Tribal governments, the
Secretary may--
``(I) require Tribal governments
that wish to participate in the Program
to file a notice of intent with the
Secretary not later than 30 days after
the date of enactment of subsection
(d); and
``(II) notwithstanding paragraph
(1), allocate Federal funds to
participating Tribal governments not
later than 60 days after the date of
enactment of subsection (d).
``(D) Employment data.--If the Secretary determines
that employment data with respect to a State is
unavailable from the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the
Department of Labor, the Secretary shall consider such
other economic and employment data that is otherwise
available for purposes of determining the employment
data of such State.''; and
(III) by striking paragraph (3);
and
(ii) in subsection (c)--
(I) in paragraph (1)(A)(iii), by
inserting before the period the
following: ``that have delivered loans
or investments to eligible
businesses''; and
(II) by amending paragraph (4) to
read as follows:
``(4) Termination of availability of amounts not
transferred.--
``(A) In general.--Any portion of a participating
State's allocated amount that has not been transferred
to the State under this section may be deemed by the
Secretary to be no longer allocated to the State and no
longer available to the State and shall be returned to
the general fund of the Treasury or reallocated as
described under subparagraph (B), if--
``(i) the second \1/3\ of a State's
allocated amount has not been transferred to
the State before the end of the end of the 3-
year period beginning on the date that the
Secretary approves the State for participation;
or
``(ii) the last \1/3\ of a State's
allocated amount has not been transferred to
the State before the end of the end of the 5-
year period beginning on the date that the
Secretary approves the State for participation.
``(B) Reallocation.--Any amount deemed by the
Secretary to be no longer allocated to a State and no
longer available to such State under subparagraph (A)
may be reallocated by the Secretary to other
participating States. In making such a reallocation,
the Secretary shall not take into account the minimum
allocation requirements under subsection (b)(2)(B) or
the specific allocation for Tribal governments
described under subsection (b)(2)(C).'';
(B) in section 3004(d), by striking ``date of
enactment of this Act'' each place it appears and
inserting ``date of the enactment of section 3003(d)'';
(C) in section 3005(b), by striking ``date of
enactment of this Act'' each place it appears and
inserting ``date of the enactment of section 3003(d)'';
(D) in section 3006(b)(4), by striking ``date of
enactment of this Act'' and inserting ``date of the
enactment of section 3003(d)'';
(E) in section 3007(b), by striking ``March 31,
2011'' and inserting ``March 31, 2022'';
(F) in section 3009, by striking ``date of
enactment of this Act'' each place it appears and
inserting ``date of the enactment of section 3003(d)'';
and
(G) in section 3011(b), by striking ``date of the
enactment of this Act'' each place it appears and
inserting ``date of the enactment of section 3003(d)''.
(2) Appropriation.--
(A) In general.--There is hereby appropriated to
the Secretary of the Treasury, out of funds in the
Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $10,000,000,000 to
carry out the State Small Business Credit Initiative
established under the State Small Business Credit
Initiative Act of 2010, including to pay reasonable
costs of administering such Initiative.
(B) Rescission.--With respect to amounts
appropriated under subparagraph (A)--
(i) the Secretary of the Treasury shall
complete all disbursements and remaining
obligations before September 30, 2030; and
(ii) any amounts that remain unexpended
(whether obligated or unobligated) on September
30, 2030, shall be rescinded and deposited into
the general fund of the Treasury.
(b) Additional Allocations to Support Business Enterprises Owned
and Controlled by Socially and Economically Disadvantaged
Individuals.--Section 3003 of the State Small Business Credit
Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5702) is amended by adding at the end
the following:
``(d) Additional Allocations to Support Business Enterprises Owned
and Controlled by Socially and Economically Disadvantaged
Individuals.--Of the amounts appropriated to carry out the Program, the
Secretary shall--
``(1) ensure that $1,500,000,000 from funds allocated under
this section shall be expended for business enterprises owned
and controlled by socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals; and
``(2) allocate such amounts to States based on the needs of
business enterprises owned and controlled by socially and
economically disadvantaged individuals, as determined by the
Secretary, in each State, and not subject to the allocation
formula described under subsection (b).
``(e) Supporting Business Enterprises Owned and Controlled by
Socially and Economically Disadvantaged Individuals.--In allocating
funds to participating States under this section, the Secretary shall
establish a minimum amount of support that a State shall provide to
business enterprises owned and controlled by socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals.
``(f) Incentive Allocations to Support Business Enterprises Owned
and Controlled by Socially and Economically Disadvantaged
Individuals.--Of the amounts appropriated to carry out the Program, the
Secretary shall set aside $1,000,000,000 for an incentive program under
which the Secretary shall increase the second \1/3\ and last \1/3\
allocations for States that demonstrate robust support, as determined
by the Secretary, for business concerns owned and controlled by
socially and economically disadvantaged individuals in the deployment
of prior allocation amounts.''.
(c) CDFI and MDI Participation Plan.--Section 3004 of the State
Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5703) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``(e) CDFI and MDI Participation Plan.--The Secretary may not
approve a State to be a participating State unless the State has
provided the Secretary with a plan detailing how minority depository
institutions and community development financial institutions will be
encouraged to participate in State programs.''.
(d) Pandemic Response Plan.--Section 3004 of the State Small
Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5703), as amended by
subsection (c), is further amended by adding at the end the following:
``(f) Pandemic Response Plan.--The Secretary may not approve a
State to be a participating State unless the State has provided the
Secretary with a description of how the State will expeditiously
utilize funds to support small businesses, including business
enterprises owned and controlled by socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals, in responding to and recovering from the
economic effects of the COVID-19 pandemic.''.
(e) Technical Assistance.--
(1) State technical assistance plan.--Section 3004 of the
State Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C.
5703), as amended by subsection (d), is further amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(g) State Technical Assistance Plan.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary may not approve a State to
be a participating State unless the State has provided the
Secretary with a technical assistance plan under which the
State will use a portion of the funds received under the
Program to provide legal, accounting, and financial advisory
services to very small businesses and business enterprises
owned and controlled by socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals applying for--
``(A) State programs under the Program; and
``(B) other State or Federal programs that support
small businesses.
``(2) Contracting.--Services described under paragraph (1)
may be contracted with legal, accounting, and financial
advisory firms, with priority given to business enterprises
owned and controlled by socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals.''.
(2) Funding.--Section 3009 of the State Small Business
Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5708) is amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(e) Technical Assistance.--Of the amounts appropriated to carry
out the Program, $500,000,000 may be used by the Secretary to--
``(1) provide funds to States to carry out technical
assistance plans described under section 3004(g);
``(2) transfer amounts to the Minority Business Development
Agency, so that the Agency may use such amounts in a manner the
Agency determines appropriate, including through contracting
with third parties, to provide technical assistance to business
enterprises owned and controlled by socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals applying to--
``(A) State programs under the Program; and
``(B) other State or Federal programs that support
small businesses; and
``(3) contract with legal, accounting, and financial
advisory firms (with priority given to business enterprises
owned and controlled by socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals), to provide technical assistance to business
enterprises owned and controlled by socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals applying to--
``(A) State programs under the Program; and
``(B) other State or Federal programs that support
small businesses.''.
(f) Multi-State Participation Program.--Section 3009 of the State
Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5708), as
amended by subsection (d)(2), is further amended by adding at the end
the following:
``(f) Multi-State Participation Program.--The Secretary may
establish a multi-State participation program under which--
``(1) the Secretary determines which State programs are
similar to each other, with respect to eligibility criteria and
such other criteria as the Secretary determines appropriate;
and
``(2) a State may elect to automatically deem a person
eligible for a State program if the person is already
participating in another State's State program that the
Secretary has determined is similar under paragraph (1).''.
(g) Application of the Military Lending Act.--Section 3004 of the
State Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (15 U.S.C. 5702), as
amended by subsection (d)(1), is further amended by adding at the end
the following:
``(h) Application of the Military Lending Act.--The Secretary may
not approve a State to be a participating State unless the State has
agreed that no lending activity supported by amounts received by the
State under the Program would result in interest rates being charged at
an annualized percentage rate above 36 percent, as determined in
accordance with section 987(b) of title 10, United States Code
(commonly known as the `Military Lending Act').''.
(h) Inclusion of Tribal Governments.--Section 3002(10) of the State
Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5701(10)) is
amended--
(1) in subparagraph (C), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in subparagraph (D), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(E) a Tribal government.''.
(i) Definitions.--Section 3002 of the State Small Business Credit
Initiative Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5701) is amended by adding at the end
the following:
``(15) Business enterprise owned and controlled by socially
and economically disadvantaged individuals.--The term `business
enterprise owned and controlled by socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals' means a business that--
``(A) if privately owned, 51 percent is owned by
one or more socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals;
``(B) if publicly owned, 51 percent of the stock is
owned by one or more socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals; and
``(C) in the case of a mutual institution, a
majority of the Board of Directors, account holders,
and the community which the institution services is
predominantly comprised of socially and economically
disadvantaged individuals.
``(16) Community development financial institution.--The
term `community development financial institution' has the
meaning given that term under section 103 of the Riegle
Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994.
``(17) Minority depository institution.--The term `minority
depository institution' has the meaning given that term under
section 308(b) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery,
and Enforcement Act of 1989.
``(18) Socially and economically disadvantaged
individual.--The term `socially and economically disadvantaged
individual' means an individual who is a socially disadvantaged
individual or an economically disadvantaged individual, as such
terms are defined, respectively, under section 8 of the Small
Business Act (15 U.S.C. 637) and the regulations thereunder.
``(19) Tribal government.--The term `Tribal government'
means a government of an Indian Tribe listed on the list of
recognized Tribes published by the Secretary of the Interior
under section 104 of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List
Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 5131).''.
(j) Rule of Application.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply with respect to funds appropriated under this section and funds
appropriated on and after the date of enactment of this section.
<all> | State Small Business Credit Initiative Renewal Act | To amend the State Small Business Credit Initiative Act of 2010 to respond to the COVID-19 pandemic, and for other purposes. | State Small Business Credit Initiative Renewal Act | Rep. Green, Al | D | TX |
531 | 12,656 | H.R.9077 | Armed Forces and National Security | Canine Members of the Armed Forces Act
This bill requires the Department of Defense to classify military working dogs as canine members of the Armed Forces (not as equipment) and provides for certain requirements and authorities related to the retirement, transfer, transportation, and recognition of such canine members. | To amend title 10, United States Code, to provide for certain
requirements relating to the retirement, adoption, and recognition of
military working dogs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Canine Members of the Armed Forces
Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress makes the following findings:
(1) Each of the Armed Forces and other Government agencies,
including the Secret Service, the Central Intelligence Agency,
and the Transportation Security Administration, use military
working dogs in service to the country.
(2) Since September 11, 2011, military working dogs have
served in Iraq and Afghanistan and have been trained in
explosive detection, narcotic detection, sentry, patrol,
tracking, and other specific duties.
(3) Military working dogs, through their training, have
prevented injuries and saved the lives of thousands of United
States citizens.
(4) Military working dogs perform critical and varied roles
that go far beyond their current designation as ``equipment''.
SEC. 3. RETIREMENT AND ADOPTION OF MILITARY WORKING DOGS.
(a) Retirement and Reclassification of Military Working Dogs.--
Section 2583 of title 10, United States Code, is amended--
(1) by redesignating subsections (f), (g), (h), and (i) as
subsections (h), (i), (j), and (k), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after subsection (e) the following new
subsections:
``(f) Classification of Military Working Dogs.--The Secretary of
Defense shall classify military working dogs as canine members of the
Armed Forces. Such dogs shall not be classified as equipment.
``(g) Transfer of Retired Military Working Dogs.--If the Secretary
of the military department concerned determines that a military working
dog should be retired, and no suitable adoption is available at the
military facility where the dog is located, the Secretary may transfer
the dog--
``(1) to the 341st Training Squadron; or
``(2) to another location for adoption under this
section.''.
(b) Acceptance of Frequent Traveler Miles.--Section 2613(d) of such
title is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)(B), by striking ``; or'' and inserting
a semicolon;
(2) in paragraph (2), by striking the period at the end and
inserting ``; or''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(3) facilitating the adoption of a military working dog
under section 2583 of this title.''.
SEC. 4. RECOGNITION OF SERVICE OF MILITARY WORKING DOGS.
Section 1125 of title 10, United States Code, is amended--
(1) by inserting ``(a) General Authority.--'' before ``The
Secretary of Defense''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(b) Recognition of Service of Military Working Dogs.--The
Secretary of Defense shall create a decoration or other appropriate
recognition to recognize military working dogs under the jurisdiction
of the Secretary that are killed in action or perform an exceptionally
meritorious or courageous act in service to the United States.''.
<all> | Canine Members of the Armed Forces Act | To amend title 10, United States Code, to provide for certain requirements relating to the retirement, adoption, and recognition of military working dogs, and for other purposes. | Canine Members of the Armed Forces Act | Rep. Slotkin, Elissa | D | MI |
532 | 10,216 | H.R.1717 | Health | Protecting Married Seniors from Impoverishment Act of 2021
This bill makes permanent certain provisions regarding Medicaid eligibility that protect against spousal impoverishment for recipients of home and community-based services. Under current law, these provisions expire on September 30, 2023. | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to make permanent the
protections under Medicaid for recipients of home and community-based
services against spousal impoverishment.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Protecting Married Seniors from
Impoverishment Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. MAKING PERMANENT THE PROTECTION UNDER MEDICAID FOR RECIPIENTS
OF HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES AGAINST SPOUSAL
IMPOVERISHMENT.
(a) In General.--Section 1924(h)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 1396r-5(h)(1)(A)) is amended by striking ``(at the option of
the State) is described in section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI)'' and
inserting the following: ``is eligible for medical assistance for home
and community-based services provided under subsection (c), (d), or (i)
of section 1915, under a waiver approved under section 1115, or who is
eligible for such medical assistance by reason of being determined
eligible under section 1902(a)(10)(C) or by reason of section 1902(f)
or otherwise on the basis of a reduction of income based on costs
incurred for medical or other remedial care, or who is eligible for
medical assistance for home and community-based attendant services and
supports under section 1915(k)''.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--Section 2404 of the Patient Protection
and Affordable Care Act (42 U.S.C. 1396r-5) is amended by striking
``September 30, 2023'' and inserting ``the date of the enactment of the
Protecting Married Seniors from Impoverishment Act of 2021''.
<all> | Protecting Married Seniors from Impoverishment Act of 2021 | To amend title XIX of the Social Security Act to make permanent the protections under Medicaid for recipients of home and community-based services against spousal impoverishment. | Protecting Married Seniors from Impoverishment Act of 2021 | Rep. Upton, Fred | R | MI |
533 | 332 | S.4142 | International Affairs | Preventing PLA Acquisition of United States Technology Act of 2022
This bill prohibits U.S. companies and universities that receive federal assistance and federal agencies from engaging in certain research or technical exchanges with Chinese entities.
Specifically, this prohibition applies to research or exchanges involving (1) certain Chinese entities, including universities that receive funding from China's military and Chinese state-owned enterprises; and (2) certain technologies identified by the Chinese Communist Party as priorities for its strategy to mobilize non-military resources and expertise for military application. | To counter the military-civil fusion strategy of the Chinese Communist
Party and prevent United States contributions to the development of
dual-use technology in China.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Preventing PLA Acquisition of United
States Technology Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. COUNTERING THE MILITARY-CIVIL FUSION STRATEGY OF THE CHINESE
COMMUNIST PARTY.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Chinese entity of concern.--The term ``Chinese entity
of concern'' means--
(A) any college or university in the People's
Republic of China that is determined by the Secretary
of Defense to be involved in the implementation of the
military-civil fusion strategy, including--
(i) any college or university known as the
``Seven Sons of National Defense'';
(ii) any college or university that
receives funding from--
(I) the People's Liberation Army;
or
(II) the Equipment Development
Department, or the Science and
Technology Commission, of the Central
Military Commission;
(iii) any college or university in the
People's Republic of China involved in military
training and education, including any such
college or university in partnership with the
People's Liberation Army;
(iv) any college or university in the
People's Republic of China that conducts
military research or hosts dedicated military
initiatives or laboratories, including such a
college or university designated under the
``double first-class university plan'';
(v) any college or university in the
People's Republic of China that is designated
by the State Administration for Science,
Technology, and Industry for the National
Defense to host ``joint construction''
programs;
(vi) any college or university in the
People's Republic of China that has launched a
platform for military-civil fusion or created
national defense laboratories; and
(vii) any college or university in the
People's Republic of China that conducts
research or hosts dedicated initiatives or
laboratories for any other related security
entity beyond the People's Liberation Army,
including the People's Armed Police, the
Ministry of Public Security, and the Ministry
of State Security;
(B) any enterprise for which the majority
shareholder or ultimate parent entity is the Government
of the People's Republic of China at any level of that
government;
(C) any privately owned company in the People's
Republic of China--
(i) that has received a military production
license, such as the Weapons and Equipment
Research and Production Certificate, the
Equipment Manufacturing Unit Qualification, the
Weapons and Equipment Quality Management System
Certificate, or the Weapons and Equipment
Research and Production Unit Classified
Qualification Permit;
(ii) that is otherwise known to have set up
mechanisms for engaging in activity in support
of military initiatives;
(iii) that has a history of subcontracting
for the People's Liberation Army or its
affiliates;
(iv) that is participating in, or receiving
benefits under, a military-civil fusion
demonstration base; or
(v) that has an owner, director, or a
senior management official who has served as a
delegate to the National People's Congress, a
member of the Chinese People's Political
Consultative Conference, or a member of the
Central Committee of the Chinese Communist
Party; and
(D) any entity that--
(i) is identified by the Secretary of
Defense under section 1260H(a) of the William
M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (10
U.S.C. 113 note) as a Chinese military company;
and
(ii) is included in the Non-SDN Chinese
Military-Industrial Complex Companies List
published by the Department of the Treasury.
(2) Covered entity.--The term ``covered entity'' means--
(A) any Federal agency that engages in research or
provides funding for research, including the National
Science Foundation and the National Institutes of
Health;
(B) any institution of higher education, or any
other private research institution, that receives any
Federal financial assistance; and
(C) any private company headquartered in the United
States that receives Federal financial assistance.
(3) Federal financial assistance.--The term ``Federal
financial assistance'' has the meaning given the term in
section 200.1 of title 2, Code of Federal Regulations (or
successor regulations).
(4) Military-civil fusion strategy.--The term ``military-
civil fusion strategy'' means the strategy of the Chinese
Communist Party aiming to mobilize non-military resources and
expertise for military application, including the development
of technology, improvements in logistics, and other uses by the
People's Liberation Army.
(b) Prohibitions.--
(1) In general.--No covered entity may engage with a
Chinese entity of concern in any scientific research or
technical exchange that has a direct bearing on, or the
potential for dual use in, the development of technologies that
the Chinese Communist Party has identified as a priority of its
national strategy of military-civil fusion and that are listed
on the website under subsection (c)(1)(A).
(2) Private partnerships.--No covered entity described in
subsection (a)(2)(C) may form a partnership or joint venture
with another such covered entity for the purpose of engaging in
any scientific research or technical exchange described in
paragraph (1).
(c) Website.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary of Defense, in consultation
with the Secretary of State, the Director of National
Intelligence, the Director of the Federal Bureau of
Investigation, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of
Education, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Secretary of
Commerce, shall establish, and periodically update not less
than twice a year, a website that includes--
(A) a list of the specific areas of scientific
research or technical exchange for which the
prohibitions under subsection (b) apply, which shall
initially include some or all aspects of the fields of
quantum computing, photonics and lasers, robotics, big
data analytics, semiconductors, new and advanced
materials, biotechnology (including synthetic biology
and genetic engineering), 5G and all future generations
of telecommunications, advanced nuclear technology
(including nuclear power and energy storage), aerospace
technology, and artificial intelligence; and
(B) to the extent practicable, a list of all
Chinese entities of concern.
(2) List of specific areas.--In developing the list under
paragraph (1)(A), the Secretary of Defense shall monitor and
consider the fields identified by the State Administration for
Science, Technology, and Industry for the National Defense of
the People's Republic of China as defense-relevant and
consider, including the more than 280 fields of study
designated as of the date of enactment of this Act, and any
others designated thereafter, as disciplines with national
defense characteristics that have the potential to support
military-civil fusion.
(3) Resources.--In establishing the website under paragraph
(1), the Secretary of Defense may use as a model any existing
resources, such as the China Defense Universities Tracker
maintained by the Australian Strategic Policy Institute,
subject to any other laws applicable to such resources.
(d) Exception.--The prohibitions under subsection (b) shall not
apply to any collaborative study or research project in fields
involving information that would not contribute substantially to the
goals of the military-civil fusion strategy, as determined by
regulations issued by the Secretary of Defense.
(e) Annual Reporting Requirements.--
(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, and December 31 of each year thereafter,
each covered entity shall submit to the Secretary of Defense a
report that discloses--
(A) any research relationships the covered entity
has with a Chinese entity of concern or has had during
the previous year;
(B) any research relationships the covered entity
has considered with a Chinese entity of concern during
the previous year and declined; and
(C) any research relationships the covered entity
has terminated with a Chinese entity of concern during
the previous year because the relationship violates
subsection (b) or as a result of related concerns.
(2) Audit.--The Secretary of Defense may enter into a
contract with an independent entity to conduct an audit of any
report submitted under paragraph (1) to ensure compliance with
the requirements of such paragraph.
(f) Enforcement.--
(1) In general.--Notwithstanding any other provision of
law, a covered entity described in subparagraph (B) or (C) of
subsection (a)(2) that violates a prohibition under subsection
(b), or violates subsection (e), on or after the date of
enactment of this Act shall be precluded from receiving any
Federal financial assistance on or after the date of such
violation.
(2) Regulations.--The Secretary of Defense, in consultation
with the Secretary of State, the Director of National
Intelligence, the Director of the Federal Bureau of
Investigation, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of
Education, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Secretary of
Commerce, shall--
(A) promulgate regulations to enforce the
prohibitions under subsection (b), the auditing
requirements under subsection (e), and the requirement
under paragraph (1); and
(B) coordinate with the heads of other Federal
agencies to ensure the enforcement of such prohibitions
and requirements.
<all> | Preventing PLA Acquisition of United States Technology Act of 2022 | A bill to counter the military-civil fusion strategy of the Chinese Communist Party and prevent United States contributions to the development of dual-use technology in China. | Preventing PLA Acquisition of United States Technology Act of 2022 | Sen. Rubio, Marco | R | FL |
534 | 8,746 | H.R.1219 | Taxation | ABLE Age Adjustment Act
This bill increases from 26 to 46 the age threshold for tax-favored ABLE (Achieving a Better Life Experience) accounts. (ABLE accounts are designed to enable individuals with disabilities to save for and pay for disability-related expenses. To establish an account, an individual must have a qualifying impairment that began before the individual attained the age threshold.) | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to increase the age
requirement with respect to eligibility for qualified ABLE programs.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``ABLE Age Adjustment Act''.
SEC. 2. MODIFICATION OF AGE REQUIREMENT FOR QUALIFIED ABLE PROGRAMS.
(a) In General.--Section 529A(e) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended by striking ``age 26'' in paragraphs (1)(A) and
(2)(A)(i)(II) and inserting ``age 46''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of
this Act.
<all> | ABLE Age Adjustment Act | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to increase the age requirement with respect to eligibility for qualified ABLE programs. | ABLE Age Adjustment Act | Rep. Cárdenas, Tony | D | CA |
535 | 14,311 | H.R.2693 | Agriculture and Food | School Lunch Affordability Act of 2021
This bill provides that only school food authorities with a negative balance in the nonprofit school food service account on June 30 of the year preceding the previous school year are required to establish a price for paid lunches using the formula specified under current law (known as Paid Lunch Equity requirements). | To amend the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to require
that only a school food authority that had a negative balance in the
nonprofit school food service account on June 30th of the year
preceding the previous school year shall be required to establish a
price for paid lunches.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``School Lunch Affordability Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. REQUIRED PRICE FOR PAID LUNCH.
Section 12(p)(2)(A) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch
Act (42 U.S.C. 1760(p)(2)(A)) is amended by inserting ``that had a
negative balance in the nonprofit school food service account on June
30th of the year preceding the previous school year'' after ``school
food authority''.
<all> | School Lunch Affordability Act of 2021 | To amend the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to require that only a school food authority that had a negative balance in the nonprofit school food service account on June 30th of the year preceding the previous school year shall be required to establish a price for paid lunches. | School Lunch Affordability Act of 2021 | Rep. Hartzler, Vicky | R | MO |
536 | 8,269 | H.R.4607 | Education | Protecting Life on College Campus Act of 2021
This bill prohibits the award of federal funds to an institution of higher education (IHE) that hosts or is affiliated with a school-based service site that provides abortion drugs or abortions to its students or to employees of the IHE or the site. An IHE that hosts or is affiliated with a site must, in order to remain eligible for federal funds, annually certify that the site does not provide abortion drugs or abortions to students or employees. | To prohibit the award of Federal funds to an institution of higher
education that hosts or is affiliated with a student-based service site
that provides abortion drugs or abortions to students of the
institution or to employees of the institution or site, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Protecting Life on College Campus
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON AWARD OF FUNDS TO CERTAIN INSTITUTIONS OF HIGHER
EDUCATION.
(a) Prohibition.--No Federal funds may be awarded (directly or
indirectly, including through a contract or subcontract) to any
institution of higher education that hosts or is affiliated with any
school-based service site that provides abortion drugs or abortions to
students of the institution or to employees of the institution or site.
(b) Annual Reporting.--To remain eligible for awards of Federal
funds, an institution of higher education that hosts or is affiliated
with one or more school-based service sites shall submit an annual
report to the Secretary of Education and the Secretary of Health and
Human Services certifying that no such site provides abortion drugs or
abortions to students of the institution or to employees of the
institution or site.
(c) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) The term ``abortion drug'' means any drug, substance,
or combination of drugs or substances that is intended for use
or that is in fact used (irrespective of how the product is
labeled)--
(A) to intentionally kill the unborn child of a
woman known to be pregnant; or
(B) to intentionally terminate the pregnancy of a
woman known to be pregnant, with an intention other
than--
(i) to produce a live birth; or
(ii) to remove a dead unborn child.
(2) The term ``institution of higher education'' has the
meaning given to such term in section 101 of the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001).
(3) The term ``school-based service site'' means--
(A) a health clinic that--
(i) meets the definition of a school-based
health center under section 2110(c)(9)(A) of
the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1397jj(c)(9)(A)) and is administered by a
sponsoring facility (as defined in section
2110(c)(9)(B) of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 1397jj(c)(9)(B))); and
(ii) provides, at a minimum, comprehensive
primary health services during school hours by
health professionals in accordance with
established standards, community practice,
reporting laws, and other State laws, including
parental consent and notification laws that are
not inconsistent with Federal law; or
(B) a clinic providing health care services
(including primary health services, family planning
services, telehealth services, and pharmaceutical
services, without regard to whether the services are
provided by employees of the clinic or contracted
providers) to students that is located on the campus of
an institution of higher education that accepts Federal
funding.
<all> | Protecting Life on College Campus Act of 2021 | To prohibit the award of Federal funds to an institution of higher education that hosts or is affiliated with a student-based service site that provides abortion drugs or abortions to students of the institution or to employees of the institution or site, and for other purposes. | Protecting Life on College Campus Act of 2021 | Rep. Roy, Chip | R | TX |
537 | 4,234 | S.290 | Government Operations and Politics | This bill directs the President to designate an employee of the National Security Council to be the permanent coordinator for pandemic prevention and response for the federal government.
The coordinator shall (1) serve as the principal advisor to the President regarding pandemic prevention and response, and (2) lead interagency coordination for such prevention and response.
The coordinator may represent the United States in bilateral and multilateral discussions and agreements on matters relevant to such prevention and response. | To amend the National Security Act of 1947 to require the President to
designate an employee of the National Security Council to be
responsible for pandemic prevention and response, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. NATIONAL SECURITY COUNCIL COORDINATOR FOR PANDEMIC
PREVENTION AND RESPONSE.
Section 101 of the National Security Act of 1947 (50 U.S.C. 3021)
is amended--
(1) by redesignating subsection (h) as subsection (i); and
(2) by inserting after subsection (g) the following new
subsection (h):
``(h) Coordinator for Pandemic Prevention and Response.--
``(1) In general.--The President shall designate an
employee of the National Security Council to be the permanent
coordinator for pandemic prevention and response for the
Federal Government (in this subsection referred to as the
`Coordinator').
``(2) Purpose.--The Coordinator shall direct all efforts of
the Federal Government relating to United States policy
regarding pandemic prevention and response, including by
carrying out the duties under paragraph (3).
``(3) Duties.--The Coordinator shall--
``(A) serve as the principal advisor to the
President regarding pandemic prevention and response;
``(B) notwithstanding any other provision of law,
coordinate and direct all activities, policies,
programs, and funding relating to pandemic prevention
and response, for all Federal agencies;
``(C) direct, as appropriate, Federal Government
resources to respond to needs for pandemic prevention
and response; and
``(D) lead interagency coordination for pandemic
prevention and response, including regular consultation
with nongovernmental organizations and public health
officials working to prevent and respond to pandemics.
``(4) Authority to represent the united states.--The
Coordinator may represent the United States in bilateral and
multilateral discussions and agreements on matters relevant to
pandemic prevention and response.''.
<all> | A bill to amend the National Security Act of 1947 to require the President to designate an employee of the National Security Council to be responsible for pandemic prevention and response, and for other purposes. | A bill to amend the National Security Act of 1947 to require the President to designate an employee of the National Security Council to be responsible for pandemic prevention and response, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - Senate
Official Title as Introduced
A bill to amend the National Security Act of 1947 to require the President to designate an employee of the National Security Council to be responsible for pandemic prevention and response, and for other purposes. | Sen. Markey, Edward J. | D | MA |
538 | 11,903 | H.R.9190 | Economics and Public Finance | Presidential Accountability for Yearly Submission of The United States' Budget Act or the PAYSTUB Act
This bill restricts the use of federal funds for the salaries or expenses of political employees if the President's budget is not submitted to Congress by the first Monday in February as required by law.
Specifically, if the President's budget is not submitted to Congress on or before the first Monday in February of a year, federal funds may not be used for the salary or expenses of any political employee during the period beginning on the first Tuesday of February of that year and ending on the date the budget is submitted.
On the earliest possible date after the President's budget is submitted, political employees whose salaries or expenses were not paid during a period in which the President's budget had not yet been submitted must be paid for that period. | To amend title 31, United States Code, to limit the use of Federal
funds for the salaries or expenses of political employees if the
President's annual budget submission to Congress is late, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Presidential Accountability for
Yearly Submission of The United States' Budget Act'' or the ``PAYSTUB
Act''.
SEC. 2. LIMITATION ON USE OF FEDERAL FUNDS FOR POLITICAL EMPLOYEE
SALARIES AND EXPENSES IF PRESIDENT'S BUDGET IS LATE.
Section 1105 of title 31, United States Code, is amended by adding
at the end the following:
``(j)(1) If the budget under subsection (a) is not submitted to
Congress on or before the first Monday in February of a year, during
the period beginning on the first Tuesday of February of such year and
ending on the date the budget is submitted, no Federal funds may be
obligated or expended for the salary or expenses of any political
employee.
``(2) Each political employee whose salary and expenses are not
paid by operation of paragraph (1) shall be paid for the period the
limitation under such subsection was in effect at the employee's
standard rate of pay, at the earliest date possible after such period
ends, regardless of scheduled pay dates.
``(3) In this subsection, the term `political employee' means any
individual--
``(A) occupying a position described under sections 5312
through 5316 of title 5 (relating to the Executive Schedule);
``(B) serving under a noncareer appointment in the Senior
Executive Service, as defined under paragraph (7) of section
3132(a) of such title; or
``(C) occupying a position in the executive branch of the
Government of a confidential or policy-determining character
under schedule C of subpart C of part 213 of title 5, Code of
Federal Regulations.''.
<all> | PAYSTUB Act | To amend title 31, United States Code, to limit the use of Federal funds for the salaries or expenses of political employees if the President's annual budget submission to Congress is late, and for other purposes. | PAYSTUB Act
Presidential Accountability for Yearly Submission of The United States’ Budget Act | Rep. Carter, Earl L. "Buddy" | R | GA |
539 | 7,841 | H.R.2131 | Energy | Gulf Conservation and Recreation Funding Act
This bill requires the Department of the Interior to annually pay Gulf producing states (Alabama, Louisiana, Mississippi, and Texas) and each of their coastal political subdivisions an amount equal to the amount of revenue they will not receive due to moratorium on new oil and natural gas leases in offshore waters. The moratorium was established under Executive Order 14008 on January 27, 2021. | To amend the Gulf of Mexico Energy Security Act of 2006 to require
payments to Gulf producing States and their coastal political
subdivisions to compensate for reductions in other payments under that
Act resulting from the moratorium on new oil and natural gas leases in
offshore waters under Executive Order 14008 of January 27, 2021.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Gulf Conservation and Recreation
Funding Act''.
SEC. 2. PAYMENTS TO GULF PRODUCING STATES AND COASTAL POLITICAL
SUBDIVISIONS TO COMPENSATE FOR REDUCTIONS IN PAYMENTS
RESULTING FROM MORATORIUM ON NEW OFFSHORE OIL AND NATURAL
GAS LEASES.
Section 105(b) of the Gulf of Mexico Energy Security Act of 2006
(43 U.S.C. 1331 note) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(4) Payments to gulf producing states to compensate for
reductions in other payments resulting from moratorium on new
leases.--In addition to the other payments required by this
subsection, during the effective period of the moratorium on
new oil and natural gas leases in offshore waters under
Executive Order 14008 of January 27, 2021, the Secretary shall
pay to each Gulf producing State and each coastal political
subdivision each fiscal year an amount equal to the difference
between the amount of such other payments for the fiscal year
to the State or subdivision, respectively, and the average
annual amount of such other payments to the State or
subdivision, respectively, for fiscal years after fiscal year
2017 and up to fiscal year 2020.''.
<all> | Gulf Conservation and Recreation Funding Act | To amend the Gulf of Mexico Energy Security Act of 2006 to require payments to Gulf producing States and their coastal political subdivisions to compensate for reductions in other payments under that Act resulting from the moratorium on new oil and natural gas leases in offshore waters under Executive Order 14008 of January 27, 2021. | Gulf Conservation and Recreation Funding Act | Rep. Carl, Jerry L. | R | AL |
540 | 3,718 | S.4405 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Inmate Financial Accountability Task Force Act
This bill establishes a joint task force to (1) develop a strategic plan to improve the criminal and civil debt collection process and establish an effective coordination mechanism among each entity involved in the process, and (2) develop a strategic plan to improve oversight of Bureau of Prisons inmate trust fund accounts for detecting and deterring illicit financial activity and money laundering. | To establish a joint task force to improve the collection of
restitution and improve oversight of the Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust
Fund Accounts for the purpose of deterring illicit financial activity,
money laundering, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Inmate Financial Accountability Task
Force Act''.
SEC. 2. TASK FORCE.
(a) In General.--The Attorney General (in consultation with the
Director of the Bureau of Prisons and the Director of the Executive
Office for United States Attorneys), the Director of the Administrative
Office of the United States Courts, the Secretary of Health and Human
Services (in consultation with the Commissioner of the Office of Child
Support Enforcement), the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Director
of the United States Marshals Service shall establish a joint task
force (referred to in this Act as the ``Inmate Financial Accountability
Task Force'') to develop--
(1) a strategic plan to improve the criminal and civil debt
collection process and establish an effective coordination
mechanism among each entity involved in that process; and
(2) a strategic plan to improve oversight of Bureau of
Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts for detecting and deterring
illicit financial activity and money laundering.
(b) Required Review of Procedures.--Not later than 180 days after
the date of enactment of this Act, the Inmate Financial Accountability
Task Force shall--
(1) review the long-standing problems in the collection of
outstanding criminal and civil debt, including fragmented
processes and lack of coordination;
(2) review and enhance training and examination procedures
to improve the capabilities of criminal and civil debt
reporting and collection by Federal agencies;
(3) recommend the proper accounting, reporting, collecting,
and management of criminal and civil debt eligible for referral
to the Secretary of the Treasury for collection actions;
(4) review and enhance training and examination procedures
to improve the capabilities of anti-money laundering processes
to detect financial transactions relating to Bureau of Prisons
Inmate Trust Fund Accounts;
(5) review and enhance procedures for referring potential
cases relating to money laundering and illicit financial
activity to the appropriate law enforcement agency; and
(6) determine, as appropriate, whether requirements for the
Bureau of Prisons are sufficient to detect and deter money
laundering relating to Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund
Accounts.
(c) Reports.--
(1) Criminal and civil debt collection report.--Not later
than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act, the Inmate
Financial Accountability Task Force shall submit to the
Committee on Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate and the Committee on
Financial Services and the Committee on the Judiciary of the
House of Representatives, a report containing--
(A) an analysis of criminal and civil debt
collection efforts of the Federal Government;
(B) appropriate legislative, administrative, and
other recommendations to strengthen criminal and civil
debt collection processes; and
(C) recommendations, including--
(i) feedback from stakeholders, including
financial institutions and advocacy groups for
victims of crime, on policy proposals derived
from the analysis conducted by the Inmate
Financial Accountability Task Force that would
enhance the efforts and programs of Federal and
State agencies to improve criminal and civil
debt reporting and collection, including any
recommended changes to internal policies,
procedures, and controls;
(ii) any recommended changes to expand
information sharing relating to criminal and
civil debt reporting and collection between
financial institutions, appropriate law
enforcement agencies, appropriate State
agencies, and appropriate Federal agencies;
(iii) any recommended changes to enhance
the efforts and programs of Federal and State
agencies to improve criminal and civil debt
reporting and collection and expand information
sharing of the Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust
Fund Accounts with appropriate law enforcement
agencies; and
(iv) any recommended changes, if necessary,
to existing statutes to more effectively report
and collect criminal and civil debt.
(2) Anti-money laundering report.--Not later than 1 year
after the date of enactment of this Act, the Inmate Financial
Accountability Task Force shall submit to the Committee on
Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs and the Committee on the
Judiciary of the Senate, the Committee on Financial Services
and the Committee on the Judiciary of the House of
Representatives, a report containing--
(A) an analysis of anti-money laundering efforts of
the Federal Government and Federal financial
institutions relating to Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust
Fund Accounts;
(B) appropriate legislative, administrative, and
other recommendations to improve anti-money laundering
efforts relating to Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund
Accounts; and
(C) recommendations, including--
(i) feedback from Federal agencies on best
practices under successful programs related to
anti-money laundering efforts in place that may
be suitable for broader adoption by the
Director of the Bureau of Prisons;
(ii) feedback from stakeholders, including
law enforcement agencies and financial
institutions, on policy proposals derived from
the analysis conducted by the Inmate Financial
Accountability Task Force that would enhance
anti-money laundering efforts and oversight of
Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts,
including any recommended changes to internal
policies, procedures, and controls to improve
anti-money laundering efforts;
(iii) any recommended changes to training
programs at the Bureau of Prisons to better
equip employees to deter and detect money
laundering relating to Bureau of Prisons Inmate
Trust Fund Accounts; and
(iv) recommended changes, if necessary, to
existing statutes to more effectively detect
and deter money laundering relating to Bureau
of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts.
(d) Limitation.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed to grant
rulemaking authority to the Inmate Financial Accountability Task Force.
(e) Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts.--In this Act, the
term ``Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts'' refers to--
(1) funds of Federal prisoners held in trust by the Bureau
of Prisons; and
(2) commissary funds of Federal prisoners.
<all> | Inmate Financial Accountability Task Force Act | A bill to establish a joint task force to improve the collection of restitution and improve oversight of the Bureau of Prisons Inmate Trust Fund Accounts for the purpose of deterring illicit financial activity, money laundering, and for other purposes. | Inmate Financial Accountability Task Force Act | Sen. Kennedy, John | R | LA |
541 | 14,606 | H.R.1573 | Immigration | Access to Counsel Act of 2021
This bill provides various protections for covered individuals subject to secondary or deferred inspections when seeking admission into the United States. Covered individuals include U.S. nationals, lawful permanent residents, aliens in possession of a visa, returning asylees, and refugees.
The Department of Homeland Security shall ensure that a covered individual subject to secondary or deferred inspection has a meaningful opportunity to consult with counsel and certain related parties, such as a relative, within an hour of the start of the secondary inspection and as necessary during the inspection process. The counsel and related party shall be allowed to advocate on behalf of the covered individual, including by providing evidence and information to the examining immigration officer.
A lawful permanent resident subject to secondary or deferred inspection may not abandon lawful permanent resident status until the individual has had a meaningful opportunity to seek advice from counsel, unless the individual voluntarily and knowingly waives in writing this opportunity to seek counsel's advice. | To clarify the rights of certain persons who are held or detained at a
port of entry or at any facility overseen by U.S. Customs and Border
Protection.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Access to Counsel Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. ACCESS TO COUNSEL AND OTHER ASSISTANCE AT PORTS OF ENTRY AND
DURING DEFERRED INSPECTION.
(a) Access to Counsel and Other Assistance During Inspection.--
Section 235 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1225) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``(e) Access to Counsel and Other Assistance During Inspection at
Ports of Entry and During Deferred Inspection.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
ensure that a covered individual has a meaningful opportunity
to consult with counsel and an interested party during the
inspection process.
``(2) Scope of assistance.--The Secretary of Homeland
Security shall--
``(A) provide the covered individual a meaningful
opportunity to consult (including consultation via
telephone) with counsel and an interested party not
later than one hour after the secondary inspection
process commences and as necessary throughout the
remainder of the inspection process, including, as
applicable, during deferred inspection;
``(B) allow counsel and an interested party to
advocate on behalf of the covered individual, including
by providing to the examining immigration officer
information, documentation, and other evidence in
support of the covered individual; and
``(C) to the greatest extent practicable,
accommodate a request by the covered individual for
counsel or an interested party to appear in-person at
the secondary or deferred inspection site.
``(3) Special rule for lawful permanent residents.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), the Secretary of Homeland Security
may not accept a Form I-407 Record of Abandonment of
Lawful Permanent Resident Status (or a successor form)
from a lawful permanent resident subject to secondary
or deferred inspection without first providing such
lawful permanent resident a meaningful opportunity to
seek advice from counsel.
``(B) Exception.--The Secretary of Homeland
Security may accept Form I-407 Record of Abandonment of
Lawful Permanent Resident Status (or a successor form)
from a lawful permanent resident subject to secondary
or deferred inspection if such lawful permanent
resident knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily
waives, in writing, the opportunity to seek advice from
counsel.
``(4) Definitions.--In this section:
``(A) Counsel.--The term `counsel' means--
``(i) an attorney who is a member in good
standing of the bar of any State, the District
of Columbia, or a territory or a possession of
the United States and is not under an order
suspending, enjoining, restraining, disbarring,
or otherwise restricting the attorney in the
practice of law; or
``(ii) an individual accredited by the
Attorney General, acting as a representative of
an organization recognized by the Executive
Office for Immigration Review, to represent a
covered individual in immigration matters.
``(B) Covered individual.--The term `covered
individual' means an individual subject to secondary or
deferred inspection who is--
``(i) a national of the United States;
``(ii) an immigrant, lawfully admitted for
permanent residence, who is returning from a
temporary visit abroad;
``(iii) an alien seeking admission as an
immigrant in possession of a valid unexpired
immigrant visa;
``(iv) an alien seeking admission as a
nonimmigrant in possession of a valid unexpired
nonimmigrant visa;
``(v) a refugee;
``(vi) a returning asylee; or
``(vii) an alien who has been approved for
parole under section 212(d)(5)(A), including an
alien who is returning to the United States in
possession of a valid advance parole document.
``(C) Interested party.--The term `interested
party' means--
``(i) a relative of the covered individual;
``(ii) in the case of a covered individual
to whom an immigrant or a nonimmigrant visa has
been issued, the petitioner or sponsor thereof
(including an agent of such petitioner or
sponsor); or
``(iii) a person, organization, or entity
in the United States with a bona fide
connection to the covered individual.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) shall
take effect 180 days after the date of the enactment of this Act.
(c) Savings Provision.--Nothing in this Act, or in any amendment
made by this Act, may be construed to limit a right to counsel or any
right to appointed counsel under--
(1) section 240(b)(4)(A) (8 U.S.C. 1229a(b)(4)(A));
(2) section 292 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8
U.S.C. 1362); or
(3) any other provision of law, including any final court
order securing such rights,
as in effect on the day before the date of the enactment of this Act.
Passed the House of Representatives April 21, 2021.
Attest:
CHERYL L. JOHNSON,
Clerk. | Access to Counsel Act of 2021 | To clarify the rights of certain persons who are held or detained at a port of entry or at any facility overseen by U.S. Customs and Border Protection.
To clarify the rights of all persons who are held or detained at a port of entry or at any detention facility overseen by U.S. Customs and Border Protection or U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement. | Access to Counsel Act of 2021
Access to Counsel Act of 2021
Access to Counsel Act of 2021
Access to Counsel Act of 2021 | Rep. Jayapal, Pramila | D | WA |
542 | 3,979 | S.5054 | Government Operations and Politics | Honest Ads Act
This bill applies requirements, limitations, and protections regarding political advertising in traditional media to internet or digital political advertising. The bill sets forth special rules for disclosure statements for certain internet or digital ads. | To enhance transparency and accountability for online political
advertisements by requiring those who purchase and publish such ads to
disclose information about the advertisements to the public, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Honest Ads Act''.
SEC. 2. PURPOSE.
The purpose of this subtitle is to enhance the integrity of
American democracy and national security by improving disclosure
requirements for online political advertisements in order to uphold the
Supreme Court's well-established standard that the electorate bears the
right to be fully informed.
SEC. 3. FINDINGS.
Congress makes the following findings:
(1) In 2002, the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002
(Public Law 107-155) became law, establishing disclosure
requirements for political advertisements distributed from a
television or radio broadcast station or provider of cable or
satellite television. In 2003, the Supreme Court upheld
regulations on electioneering communications established under
the Act, noting that such requirements ``provide the electorate
with information and insure that the voters are fully informed
about the person or group who is speaking''. The Court
reaffirmed this conclusion in 2010 by an 8-1 vote.
(2) In its 2006 rulemaking, the Federal Election
Commission, the independent Federal agency charged with
protecting the integrity of the Federal campaign finance
process, noted that 18 percent of all Americans cited the
internet as their leading source of news about the 2004
Presidential election. By contrast, Gallup and the Knight
Foundation found in 2020 that the majority of Americans, 58
percent, got most of their news about elections online.
(3) According to a study from Borrell Associates, in 2016,
$1,415,000,000 was spent on online advertising, more than
quadruple the amount in 2012.
(4) Effective and complete transparency for voters must
include information about the true and original source of money
given, transferred, and spent on political advertisements made
online.
(5) Requiring the disclosure of this information is a
necessary and narrowly tailored means to inform the voting
public of who is behind digital advertising disseminated to
influence their votes and to enable the Federal Election
Commission and the Department of Justice to detect and
prosecute illegal foreign spending on local, State, and Federal
elections and other campaign finance violations.
(6) Paid advertising on large online platforms is different
from advertising placed on other common media in terms of the
comparatively low cost of reaching large numbers of people, the
availability of sophisticated microtargeting, and the ease with
which online advertisers, particularly those located outside
the United States, can evade disclosure requirements. Requiring
large online platforms to maintain public files of information
about the online political ads they disseminate is the best and
least restrictive means to ensure the voting public has
complete information about who is trying to influence their
votes and to aid enforcement of other laws, including the
prohibition on foreign money in domestic campaigns.
(7) The reach of a few large internet platforms--larger
than any broadcast, satellite, or cable provider--has greatly
facilitated the scope and effectiveness of disinformation
campaigns. For instance, the largest platform has over
210,000,000 American users--over 160,000,000 of them on a daily
basis. By contrast, the largest cable television provider has
22,430,000 subscribers, while the largest satellite television
provider has 21,000,000 subscribers, and the most-watched
television broadcast in United States history had 118,000,000
viewers.
(8) The public nature of broadcast television, radio, and
satellite ensures a level of publicity for any political
advertisement. These communications are accessible to the
press, fact-checkers, and political opponents. This creates
strong disincentives for a candidate to disseminate materially
false, inflammatory, or contradictory messages to the public.
Social media platforms, in contrast, can target portions of the
electorate with direct, ephemeral advertisements often on the
basis of private information the platform has on individuals,
enabling political advertisements that are contradictory,
racially or socially inflammatory, or materially false.
(9) According to comscore, 2 companies own 8 of the 10 most
popular smart phone applications as of June 2017, including the
most popular social media and email services which deliver
information and news to users without requiring proactivity by
the user. Those same 2 companies accounted for 99 percent of
revenue growth from digital advertising in 2016, including 77
percent of gross spending. 79 percent of online Americans--
representing 68 percent of all Americans--use the single
largest social network, while 66 percent of these users are
most likely to get their news from that site.
(10) Large social media platforms are the only entities in
possession of certain key data related to paid online ads,
including the exact audience targeted by those ads and their
number of impressions. Such information, which cannot be
reliably disclosed by the purchasers of ads, is extremely
useful for informing the electorate, guarding against
corruption, and aiding in the enforcement of existing campaign
finance regulations.
(11) Paid advertisements on social media platforms have
served as critical tools for foreign online influence
campaigns--even those that rely on large amounts of unpaid
content--because such ads allow foreign actors to test the
effectiveness of different messages, expose their messages to
audiences who have not sought out such content, and recruit
audiences for future campaigns and posts.
(12) In testimony before the Senate Select Committee on
Intelligence titled, ``Disinformation: A Primer in Russian
Active Measures and Influence Campaigns'', multiple expert
witnesses testified that while the disinformation tactics of
foreign adversaries have not necessarily changed, social media
services now provide ``platform[s] practically purpose-built
for active measures[.]''. Similarly, as Gen. Keith B. Alexander
(RET.), the former Director of the National Security Agency,
testified, during the Cold War ``if the Soviet Union sought to
manipulate information flow, it would have to do so principally
through its own propaganda outlets or through active measures
that would generate specific news: planting of leaflets,
inciting of violence, creation of other false materials and
narratives. But the news itself was hard to manipulate because
it would have required actual control of the organs of media,
which took long-term efforts to penetrate. Today, however,
because the clear majority of the information on social media
sites is uncurated and there is a rapid proliferation of
information sources and other sites that can reinforce
information, there is an increasing likelihood that the
information available to average consumers may be inaccurate
(whether intentionally or otherwise) and may be more easily
manipulable than in prior eras.''.
(13) On November 24, 2016, The Washington Post reported
findings from 2 teams of independent researchers that concluded
Russians ``exploited American-made technology platforms to
attack U.S. democracy at a particularly vulnerable moment * * *
as part of a broadly effective strategy of sowing distrust in
U.S. democracy and its leaders.''.
(14) On January 6, 2017, the Office of the Director of
National Intelligence published a report titled ``Assessing
Russian Activities and Intentions in Recent U.S. Elections'',
noting that ``Russian President Vladimir Putin ordered an
influence campaign in 2016 aimed at the U.S. presidential
election * * *''. Moscow's influence campaign followed a
Russian messaging strategy that blends covert intelligence
operation--such as cyber activity--with overt efforts by
Russian Government agencies, state-funded media, third-party
intermediaries, and paid social media users or ``trolls''.
(15) On September 6, 2017, the nation's largest social
media platform disclosed that between June 2015 and May 2017,
Russian entities purchased $100,000 in political
advertisements, publishing roughly 3,000 ads linked to fake
accounts associated with the Internet Research Agency, a pro-
Kremlin organization. According to the company, the ads
purchased focused ``on amplifying divisive social and political
messages * * *''.
(16) Findings from a 2017 study on the manipulation of
public opinion through social media conducted by the
Computational Propaganda Research Project at the Oxford
Internet Institute found that the Kremlin is using pro-Russian
bots to manipulate public discourse to a highly targeted
audience. With a sample of nearly 1,300,000 tweets, researchers
found that in the 2016 election's 3 decisive States, propaganda
constituted 40 percent of the sampled election-related tweets
that went to Pennsylvanians, 34 percent to Michigan voters, and
30 percent to those in Wisconsin. In other swing States, the
figure reached 42 percent in Missouri, 41 percent in Florida,
40 percent in North Carolina, 38 percent in Colorado, and 35
percent in Ohio.
(17) 2018 reporting by the Washington Post estimated that
paid Russian ads received more than 37,000,000 impressions in
2016 and 2017.
(18) A 2019 Senate Select Committee on Intelligence's
Report on Russian Active Measures Campaigns and Interference in
the 2016 U.S. Election Volume 2: Russia's Use of Social Media
with Additional Views, the Committee recommended ``that
Congress examine legislative approaches to ensuring Americans
know the sources of online political advertisements. The
Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 requires political
advertisements on television, radio and satellite to disclose
the sponsor of the advertisement. The same requirements should
apply online. This will also help to ensure that the IRA or any
similarly situated actors cannot use paid advertisements for
purposes of foreign interference.''.
(19) A 2020 study by researchers at New York University
found undisclosed political advertisement purchases on a large
social media platform by a Chinese state media company in
violation of that platform's supposed prohibitions on foreign
spending on ads of social, national, or electoral importance.
(20) The same study also found that ``there are persistent
issues with advertisers failing to disclose political ads'' and
that in one social media platform's political ad archive,
68,879 pages (54.6 percent of pages with political ads included
in the archive) never provided a disclosure. Overall, there
were 357,099 ads run on that platforms without a disclosure,
accounting for at least $37,000,000 in spending on political
ads.
(21) A 2020 report by the bipartisan and bicameral U.S.
Cyberspace Solarium Commission found that ``Although foreign
nationals are banned from contributing to U.S. political
campaigns, they are still allowed to purchase U.S. political
advertisements online, making the internet a fertile
environment for conducting a malign influence campaign to
undermine American elections.''. The Commission concluded that
Russian interference in the 2016 election was and still is
possible, ``because the FECA, which establishes rules for
transparency in television, radio, and print media political
advertising, has not been amended to extend the same political
advertising requirements to internet platforms,'' and that
``[a]pplying these standards across all media of communication
would, among other things, increase transparency of funding for
political advertisements, which would in turn strengthen
regulators' ability to reduce improper foreign influence in our
elections''.
(22) On March 16, 2021, the Office of the Director of
National Intelligence released the declassified Intelligence
Community assessment of foreign threats to the 2020 U.S.
Federal elections. The declassified report found: ``Throughout
the election cycle, Russia's online influence actors sought to
affect U.S. public perceptions of the candidates, as well as
advance Moscow's longstanding goals of undermining confidence
in U.S. election processes and increasing sociopolitical
divisions among the American people.''. The report also
determined that Iran sought to influence the election by
``creating and amplifying social media content that criticized
[candidates]''.
(23) According to a Wall Street Journal report in April
2021, voluntary ad libraries operated by major platforms rely
on foreign governments to self-report political ad purchases.
These ad-buys, including those diminishing major human rights
violations like the Uighur genocide, are under-reported by
foreign government purchasers, with no substantial oversight or
repercussions from the platforms.
(24) Multiple reports have indicated that online ads have
become a key vector for strategic influence by the People's
Republic of China. An April 2021 Wall Street Journal report
noted that the Chinese Government and Chinese state-owned
enterprises are major purchasers of ads on the U.S.'s largest
social media platform, including to advance Chinese propaganda.
(25) Large online platforms have made changes to their
policies intended to make it harder for foreign actors to
purchase political ads. However, these private actions have not
been taken by all platforms, have not been reliably enforced,
and are subject to immediate change at the discretion of the
platforms.
(26) The Federal Election Commission has failed to take
action to address online political advertisements and current
regulations on political advertisements do not provide
sufficient transparency to uphold the public's right to be
fully informed about political advertisements made online.
SEC. 4. SENSE OF CONGRESS.
It is the sense of Congress that--
(1) the dramatic increase in digital political
advertisements, and the growing centrality of online platforms
in the lives of Americans, requires the Congress and the
Federal Election Commission to take meaningful action to ensure
that laws and regulations provide the accountability and
transparency that is fundamental to our democracy;
(2) free and fair elections require both transparency and
accountability which give the public a right to know the true
sources of funding for political advertisements, be they
foreign or domestic, in order to make informed political
choices and hold elected officials accountable; and
(3) transparency of funding for political advertisements is
essential to enforce other campaign finance laws, including the
prohibition on campaign spending by foreign nationals.
SEC. 5. EXPANSION OF DEFINITION OF PUBLIC COMMUNICATION.
(a) In General.--Paragraph (22) of section 301 of the Federal
Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30101(22)) is amended by
striking ``or satellite communication'' and inserting ``satellite, paid
internet, or paid digital communication''.
(b) Treatment of Contributions and Expenditures.--Section 301 of
such Act (52 U.S.C. 30101) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (8)(B)(v), by striking ``on broadcasting
stations, or in newspapers, magazines, or similar types of
general public political advertising'' and inserting ``in any
public communication''; and
(2) in paragraph (9)(B)--
(A) by amending clause (i) to read as follows:
``(i) any news story, commentary, or
editorial distributed through the facilities of
any broadcasting station or any print, online,
or digital newspaper, magazine, blog,
publication, or periodical, unless such
broadcasting, print, online, or digital
facilities are owned or controlled by any
political party, political committee, or
candidate;''; and
(B) in clause (iv), by striking ``on broadcasting
stations, or in newspapers, magazines, or similar types
of general public political advertising'' and inserting
``in any public communication''.
(c) Disclosure and Disclaimer Statements.--Subsection (a) of
section 318 of such Act (52 U.S.C. 30120) is amended--
(1) by striking ``financing any communication through any
broadcasting station, newspaper, magazine, outdoor advertising
facility, mailing, or any other type of general public
political advertising'' and inserting ``financing any public
communication''; and
(2) by striking ``solicits any contribution through any
broadcasting station, newspaper, magazine, outdoor advertising
facility, mailing, or any other type of general public
political advertising'' and inserting ``solicits any
contribution through any public communication''.
(d) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall take
effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall take effect
without regard to whether or not the Federal Election Commission has
promulgated the final regulations necessary to carry out this part and
the amendments made by this part by the deadline set forth in
subsection (e).
(e) Regulation.--Not later than 1 year after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Federal Election Commission shall promulgate
regulations on what constitutes a paid internet or paid digital
communication for purposes of paragraph (22) of section 301 of the
Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30101(22)), as amended
by subsection (a), except that such regulation shall not define a paid
internet or paid digital communication to include communications for
which the only payment consists of internal resources, such as employee
compensation, of the entity paying for the communication.
SEC. 6. EXPANSION OF DEFINITION OF ELECTIONEERING COMMUNICATION.
(a) Expansion to Online Communications.--
(1) Application to qualified internet and digital
communications.--
(A) In general.--Subparagraph (A) of section
304(f)(3) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971
(52 U.S.C. 30104(f)(3)(A)) is amended by striking ``or
satellite communication'' each place it appears in
clauses (i) and (ii) and inserting ``satellite, or
qualified internet or digital communication''.
(B) Qualified internet or digital communication.--
Paragraph (3) of section 304(f) of such Act (52 U.S.C.
30104(f)) is amended by adding at the end the following
new subparagraph:
``(D) Qualified internet or digital
communication.--The term `qualified internet or digital
communication' means any communication which is placed
or promoted for a fee on an online platform (as defined
in subsection (j)(3)).''.
(2) Nonapplication of relevant electorate to online
communications.--Section 304(f)(3)(A)(i)(III) of such Act (52
U.S.C. 30104(f)(3)(A)(i)(III)) is amended by inserting ``any
broadcast, cable, or satellite'' before ``communication''.
(3) News exemption.--Section 304(f)(3)(B)(i) of such Act
(52 U.S.C. 30104(f)(3)(B)(i)) is amended to read as follows:
``(i) a communication appearing in a news
story, commentary, or editorial distributed
through the facilities of any broadcasting
station or any online or digital newspaper,
magazine, blog, publication, or periodical,
unless such broadcasting, online, or digital
facilities are owned or controlled by any
political party, political committee, or
candidate;''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply with respect to communications made on or after January 1, 2023,
and shall take effect without regard to whether or not the Federal
Election Commission has promulgated regulations to carry out such
amendments.
SEC. 7. APPLICATION OF DISCLAIMER STATEMENTS TO ONLINE COMMUNICATIONS.
(a) Clear and Conspicuous Manner Requirement.--Subsection (a) of
section 318 of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C.
30120(a)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``shall clearly state'' each place it
appears in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) and inserting ``shall
state in a clear and conspicuous manner''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following flush sentence:
``For purposes of this section, a communication does not make a
statement in a clear and conspicuous manner if it is difficult
to read or hear or if the placement is easily overlooked.''.
(b) Special Rules for Qualified Internet or Digital
Communications.--
(1) In general.--Section 318 of such Act (52 U.S.C. 30120)
is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(e) Special Rules for Qualified Internet or Digital
Communications.--
``(1) Special rules with respect to statements.--In the
case of any qualified internet or digital communication (as
defined in section 304(f)(3)(D)) which is disseminated through
a medium in which the provision of all of the information
specified in this section is not possible, the communication
shall, in a clear and conspicuous manner--
``(A) state the name of the person who paid for the
communication; and
``(B) provide a means for the recipient of the
communication to obtain the remainder of the
information required under this section with minimal
effort and without receiving or viewing any additional
material other than such required information.
``(2) Safe harbor for determining clear and conspicuous
manner.--A statement in qualified internet or digital
communication (as defined in section 304(f)(3)(D)) shall be
considered to be made in a clear and conspicuous manner as
provided in subsection (a) if the communication meets the
following requirements:
``(A) Text or graphic communications.--In the case
of a text or graphic communication, the statement--
``(i) appears in letters at least as large
as the majority of the text in the
communication; and
``(ii) meets the requirements of paragraphs
(2) and (3) of subsection (c).
``(B) Audio communications.--In the case of an
audio communication, the statement is spoken in a
clearly audible and intelligible manner at the
beginning or end of the communication and lasts at
least 3 seconds.
``(C) Video communications.--In the case of a video
communication which also includes audio, the
statement--
``(i) is included at either the beginning
or the end of the communication; and
``(ii) is made both in--
``(I) a written format that meets
the requirements of subparagraph (A)
and appears for at least 4 seconds; and
``(II) an audible format that meets
the requirements of subparagraph (B).
``(D) Other communications.--In the case of any
other type of communication, the statement is at least
as clear and conspicuous as the statement specified in
subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).''.
(2) Nonapplication of certain exceptions.--The exceptions
provided in section 110.11(f)(1)(i) and (ii) of title 11, Code
of Federal Regulations, or any successor to such rules, shall
have no application to qualified internet or digital
communications (as defined in section 304(f)(3)(D) of the
Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971).
(c) Modification of Additional Requirements for Certain
Communications.--Section 318(d) of such Act (52 U.S.C. 30120(d)) is
amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)(A)--
(A) by striking ``which is transmitted through
radio'' and inserting ``which is in an audio format'';
and
(B) by striking ``By radio'' in the heading and
inserting ``Audio format'';
(2) in paragraph (1)(B)--
(A) by striking ``which is transmitted through
television'' and inserting ``which is in video
format''; and
(B) by striking ``By television'' in the heading
and inserting ``Video format''; and
(3) in paragraph (2)--
(A) by striking ``transmitted through radio or
television'' and inserting ``made in audio or video
format''; and
(B) by striking ``through television'' in the
second sentence and inserting ``in video format''.
(d) Effective Date.--The amendment made by subsection (a) shall
take effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall take
effect without regard to whether or not the Federal Election Commission
has promulgated regulations to carry out such amendments.
SEC. 8. POLITICAL RECORD REQUIREMENTS FOR ONLINE PLATFORMS.
(a) In General.--Section 304 of the Federal Election Campaign Act
of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30104) is amended by adding at the end the following
new subsection:
``(j) Disclosure of Certain Online Advertisements.--
``(1) In general.--
``(A) Requirements for online platforms.--
``(i) In general.--An online platform shall
maintain, and make available for online public
inspection in machine readable format, a
complete record of any request to purchase on
such online platform a qualified political
advertisement which is made by a person whose
aggregate requests to purchase qualified
political advertisements on such online
platform during the calendar year exceeds $500.
``(ii) Requirement relating to political
ads sold by third-party advertising vendors.--
An online platform that displays a qualified
political advertisement sold by a third-party
advertising vendor as defined in (3)(C), shall
include on its own platform an easily
accessible and identifiable link to the records
maintained by the third-party advertising
vendor under clause (i) regarding such
qualified political advertisement.
``(B) Requirements for advertisers.--Any person who
requests to purchase a qualified political
advertisement on an online platform shall provide the
online platform with such information as is necessary
for the online platform to comply with the requirements
of subparagraph (A).
``(2) Contents of record.--A record maintained under
paragraph (1)(A) shall contain--
``(A) a digital copy of the qualified political
advertisement;
``(B) a description of the audience targeted by the
advertisement, the number of views generated from the
advertisement, and the date and time that the
advertisement is first displayed and last displayed;
and
``(C) information regarding--
``(i) the total cost of the advertisement;
``(ii) the name of the candidate to which
the advertisement refers and the office to
which the candidate is seeking election, the
election to which the advertisement refers, or
the national legislative issue to which the
advertisement refers (as applicable);
``(iii) in the case of a request made by,
or on behalf of, a candidate, the name of the
candidate, the authorized committee of the
candidate, and the treasurer of such committee;
and
``(iv) in the case of any request not
described in clause (iii), the name of the
person purchasing the advertisement, the name
and address of a contact person for such
person, and a list of the chief executive
officers or members of the executive committee
or of the board of directors of such person.
``(3) Online platform.--
``(A) In general.--For purposes of this subsection,
subject to subparagraph (B), the term `online platform'
means any public-facing website, web application, or
digital application (including a social network, ad
network, or search engine) which--
``(i)(I) sells qualified political
advertisements; and
``(II) has 50,000,000 or more unique
monthly United States visitors or users for a
majority of months during the preceding 12
months; or
``(ii) is a third-party advertising vendor
that has 50,000,000 or more unique monthly
United States visitors in the aggregate on any
advertisement space that it has sold or bought
for a majority of months during the preceding
12 months, as measured by an independent
digital ratings service accredited by the Media
Ratings Council (or its successor).
``(B) Exemption.--Such term shall not include any
online platform that is a distribution facility of any
broadcasting station or newspaper, magazine, blog,
publication, or periodical.
``(C) Third-party advertising vendor defined.--For
purposes of this subsection, the term `third-party
advertising vendor' includes, but is not limited to,
any third-party advertising vendor network, advertising
agency, advertiser, or third-party advertisement
serving company that buys and sells advertisement space
on behalf of unaffiliated third-party websites, search
engines, digital applications, or social media sites.
``(4) Qualified political advertisement.--For purposes of
this subsection, the term `qualified political advertisement'
means any advertisement (including search engine marketing,
display advertisements, video advertisements, native
advertisements, and sponsorships) that--
``(A) is made by or on behalf of a candidate; or
``(B) communicates a message relating to any
political matter of national importance, including--
``(i) a candidate;
``(ii) any election to Federal office; or
``(iii) a national legislative issue of
public importance.
``(5) Time to maintain file.--The information required
under this subsection shall be made available as soon as
possible and shall be retained by the online platform for a
period of not less than 4 years.
``(6) Special rule.--For purposes of this subsection,
multiple versions of an advertisement that contain no material
differences (such as versions that differ only because they
contain a recipient's name, or differ only in size, color,
font, or layout) may be treated as a single qualified political
advertisement.
``(7) Penalties.--For penalties for failure by online
platforms, and persons requesting to purchase a qualified
political advertisement on online platforms, to comply with the
requirements of this subsection, see section 309.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall take
effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall take effect
without regard to whether or not the Federal Election Commission has
promulgated the final regulations necessary to carry out this part and
the amendments made by this part by the deadline set forth in
subsection (c).
(c) Rulemaking.--Not later than 120 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Federal Election Commission shall establish
rules--
(1) requiring common data formats for the record required
to be maintained under section 304(j) of the Federal Election
Campaign Act of 1971 (as added by subsection (a)) so that all
online platforms submit and maintain data online in a common,
machine-readable and publicly accessible format; and
(2) establishing search interface requirements relating to
such record, including searches by candidate name, issue,
purchaser, and date.
(d) Reporting.--Not later than 2 years after the date of the
enactment of this Act, and biannually thereafter, the Chairman of the
Federal Election Commission shall submit a report to Congress on--
(1) matters relating to compliance with and the enforcement
of the requirements of section 304(j) of the Federal Election
Campaign Act of 1971, as added by subsection (a);
(2) recommendations for any modifications to such section
to assist in carrying out its purposes; and
(3) identifying ways to bring transparency and
accountability to political advertisements distributed online
for free.
SEC. 9. PREVENTING CONTRIBUTIONS, EXPENDITURES, INDEPENDENT
EXPENDITURES, AND DISBURSEMENTS FOR ELECTIONEERING
COMMUNICATIONS BY FOREIGN NATIONALS IN THE FORM OF ONLINE
ADVERTISING.
Section 319 of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C.
30121) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(c) Responsibilities of Broadcast Stations, Providers of Cable
and Satellite Television, and Online Platforms.--
``(1) In general.--Each television or radio broadcast
station, provider of cable or satellite television, or online
platform (as defined in section 304(j)(3)) shall make
reasonable efforts to ensure that communications described in
section 318(a) and made available by such station, provider, or
platform are not purchased by a foreign national, directly or
indirectly.
``(2) Regulations.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
the enactment of this subsection, the Commission shall
promulgate regulations on what constitutes reasonable efforts
under paragraph (1).''.
SEC. 10. REQUIRING ONLINE PLATFORMS TO DISPLAY NOTICES IDENTIFYING
SPONSORS OF POLITICAL ADVERTISEMENTS AND TO ENSURE
NOTICES CONTINUE TO BE PRESENT WHEN ADVERTISEMENTS ARE
SHARED.
(a) In General.--Section 304 of the Federal Election Campaign Act
of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30104), as amended by section 8(a), is amended by
adding at the end the following new subsection:
``(k) Ensuring Display and Sharing of Sponsor Identification in
Online Political Advertisements.--
``(1) Requirement.--An online platform displaying a
qualified political advertisement shall--
``(A) display with the advertisement a visible
notice identifying the sponsor of the advertisement
(or, if it is not practical for the platform to display
such a notice, a notice that the advertisement is
sponsored by a person other than the platform); and
``(B) ensure that the notice will continue to be
displayed if a viewer of the advertisement shares the
advertisement with others on that platform.
``(2) Definitions.--In this subsection--
``(A) the term `online platform' has the meaning
given such term in subsection (j)(3); and
``(B) the term ``qualified political advertisement'
has the meaning given such term in subsection
(j)(4).''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall take
effect on the date of the enactment of this Act without regard to
whether or not the Federal Election Commission has promulgated
regulations to carry out such amendment.
<all> | Honest Ads Act | A bill to enhance transparency and accountability for online political advertisements by requiring those who purchase and publish such ads to disclose information about the advertisements to the public, and for other purposes. | Honest Ads Act | Sen. Klobuchar, Amy | D | MN |
543 | 9,573 | H.R.1259 | Immigration | Return Excessive Migrants and Asylees to International Neighbors in Mexico Act of 2021 or the REMAIN in Mexico Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to implement the Migrant Protection Protocols as outlined in the January 25, 2019, memo titled Policy Guidance for Implementation of the Migrant Protection Protocols.
(The protocols generally required aliens who are not clearly admissible, including those seeking asylum, arriving by land along the U.S.-Mexico border to be returned to Mexico while their immigration proceedings are pending, rather than remain in the United States. On January 21, 2021, DHS stopped applying the protocols to newly-arrived individuals.) | To direct the Secretary of Homeland Security to continue to implement
the Migrant Protection Protocols, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Return Excessive Migrants and
Asylees to International Neighbors in Mexico Act of 2021'' or the
``REMAIN in Mexico Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. MIGRANT PROTECTION PROTOCOLS.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary of
Homeland Security shall implement the Migrant Protection Protocols in
accordance with the memorandum of Secretary of Homeland Security
Nielsen entitled ``Policy Guidance for Implementation of the Migrant
Protection Protocols'', dated January 25, 2019.
<all> | REMAIN in Mexico Act of 2021 | To direct the Secretary of Homeland Security to continue to implement the Migrant Protection Protocols, and for other purposes. | REMAIN in Mexico Act of 2021
Return Excessive Migrants and Asylees to International Neighbors in Mexico Act of 2021 | Rep. Rosendale Sr., Matthew M. | R | MT |
544 | 4,506 | S.5252 | Civil Rights and Liberties, Minority Issues | Right to Private Conduct Act of 2022
This bill provides statutory authority for the right of adults to engage in private, consensual sexual conduct with other adults. | To establish the right of adults to engage in private, non-commercial,
consensual sexual conduct in the exercise of their liberty.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Right to Private Conduct Act of
2022''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITION.
In this Act, the term ``adult'' means an individual who has
attained the lesser of--
(1) 18 years or age; or
(2) the minimum age at which an individual may consent to
sexual conduct under applicable State law.
SEC. 3. PROTECTION OF THE RIGHT OF ADULTS TO ENGAGE IN PRIVATE, NON-
COMMERCIAL, CONSENSUAL SEXUAL CONDUCT.
(a) In General.--No person acting under color of law may--
(1) prevent an adult from engaging in private, non-
commercial, consensual sexual conduct with another adult;
(2) interfere with an adult engaging in private, non-
commercial, consensual sexual conduct with another adult; or
(3) intimidate, threaten, or retaliate against an adult
because that adult has engaged or may engage in such conduct
with another adult.
(b) Enforcement.--For the purposes of violations under subsection
(a), the enforcement mechanism provided for and available under the
following shall apply:
(1) Section 1979 of the Revised Statutes of the United
States (42 U.S.C. 1983).
(2) Section 241 of title 18, United States Code.
(3) Section 242 of title 18, United States Code.
(4) Section 210401 of the Violent Crime Control and Law
Enforcement Act of 1994 (34 U.S.C. 12601).
(c) Clarification.--Subsection (a) shall not apply to any law
(including any regulation) prohibiting public sexual conduct, forced or
non-consensual sexual conduct, or sexual conduct with a minor.
SEC. 4. RULES OF CONSTRUCTION.
(a) In General.--In interpreting the provisions of this Act, a
court shall liberally construe such provisions to effectuate the
purpose of ensuring the right of an adult to engage in private, non-
commercial, consensual sexual conduct with another adult.
(b) Other Laws.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed to
invalidate, limit, or displace the rights, remedies, procedures, or
legal standards available to individuals under Federal law, or to
supersede State laws, that provide protections against discrimination
beyond those provided in this Act.
(c) Other Individuals Considered as Acting Under Color of Law.--Any
person who, by operation of a provision of Federal or State law, is
permitted to implement or enforce a limitation, prohibition, or
requirement that violates section 3 of this Act shall be considered as
acting under color of law for purposes of this Act.
SEC. 5. SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of this Act, or the application of such provision
to any person, entity, government, or circumstance, is held to be
unconstitutional, the remainder of this Act, or the application of such
provision to all other persons, entities, governments, or
circumstances, shall not be affected thereby.
<all> | Right to Private Conduct Act of 2022 | A bill to establish the right of adults to engage in private, non-commercial, consensual sexual conduct in the exercise of their liberty. | Right to Private Conduct Act of 2022 | Sen. Schatz, Brian | D | HI |
545 | 13,984 | H.R.5750 | Health | Cady Housh and Gemesha Thomas Student Suicide Prevention Act of 2021
This bill reauthorizes through FY2028, and otherwise revises, grants administered by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) to support youth suicide early-intervention and prevention strategies. Specifically, the bill requires SAMHSA to award a portion of such grants for statewide training programs on emotional well-being, mental health, and suicide awareness and prevention for elementary and secondary school students and staff. | To amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize certain grants (for
youth suicide early intervention and prevention strategies) to be used
for school personnel in elementary and secondary schools and students
in secondary schools to receive student suicide awareness and
prevention training, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Cady Housh and Gemesha Thomas
Student Suicide Prevention Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) In the last 12 years, suicide has been on the increase,
moving up to the second leading cause of death for young people
between the ages of 10 and 34 with about 157,000 youth treated
at emergency departments for self-inflicted injuries. Between
2007 and 2018, the national suicide rate among persons ages 1
to 24 increased 57.4 percent.
(2) According to the 2019 Youth Risk Behaviors Survey of
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 18.8 percent of
high school students reported seriously considering suicide,
and 8.9 percent reporting attempting to take their lives during
that period.
(3) Eighty percent of students show warning signs before
attempting suicide.
(4) Prevention and awareness training will equip
individuals to become aware of the warning signs of suicide,
identify students in crisis, and provide resources for help.
(5) Research shows that inquiring about suicide ideation,
or discussing suicide in terms of recognizing risk factors and
prevention methods--
(A) does not increase the chance of suicide; and
(B) in fact, can lower the risk of suicide.
(6) Sexual minority youth (LGBTQ) are almost five times
more likely to have attempted suicide compared to their
heterosexual peers. In addition, 40 percent of LGBTQ youth
seriously considered attempting suicide in the past 12 months,
with more than half of transgender and nonbinary youth having
seriously considered suicide.
SEC. 3. SENSE OF CONGRESS.
It is the sense of the Congress that--
(1) student suicide awareness, prevention training, and
response materials should be available to all school personnel,
including administrative personnel, teachers, counselors, and
other school leaders;
(2) States should give autonomy to each local educational
agency to--
(A) adopt a policy with respect to student suicide
awareness and prevention; and
(B) work collaboratively with local organizations,
youth mental health experts, health care providers, and
the Secretary of Health and Human Services to implement
training for school personnel and students, including
by sharing and disseminating--
(i) training materials and resources; and
(ii) information that is evidence-informed
or promising on student suicide prevention;
(3) the Secretary of Health and Human Services should
identify the highest unmet needs, specifically with at-risk
student populations, such as--
(A) minority students;
(B) LBGTQ+ identifying students;
(C) students living with mental health conditions;
(D) students living with substance use disorders;
(E) students who have engaged in self-harm or have
attempted suicide; and
(F) students experiencing homelessness or out-of-
home settings;
(4) schools should offer these services to students in
grades 9 through 12, with the support of organizations with
demonstrated expertise in cultural competency, suicide
awareness, response, and prevention training;
(5) students who receive such training should not be taught
to be counselors, but rather should be educated on how to--
(A) recognize signs of suicide and depression;
(B) report these signs to appropriate staff; and
(C) identify sources of care and support; and
(6) schools should utilize school-based mental health
professionals and other community partnerships.
SEC. 4. STUDENT SUICIDE AWARENESS AND PREVENTION TRAINING.
(a) Additional Authorized Use of Grant Funds.--Section 520E(a) of
the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-36(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (4), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in paragraph (5), by striking the period at the end and
inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(6) establish and implement a statewide policy requiring
school personnel in elementary and secondary schools and
students in secondary schools to complete student emotional
well-being, mental health, and suicide awareness and prevention
training in accordance with subsection (d).''.
(b) Training Requirements.--Section 520E of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-36(a)), as amended by subsection (a), is
further amended--
(1) by redesignating subsections (d) through (m) as
subsections (e) through (n), respectively; and
(2) by inserting after subsection (c) the following:
``(d) Requirements for Student Suicide Awareness and Training
Programs.--
``(1) In general.--As a condition on receipt of funds under
subsection (a)(6), an applicant shall agree to use the funds to
establish or implement a statewide policy--
``(A) requiring school personnel in elementary and
secondary schools and students in secondary schools to
complete student emotional well-being, mental health,
and suicide awareness and prevention training that--
``(i) includes at least one classroom
session each school year;
``(ii) is evidence-informed; and
``(iii) includes training on--
``(I) the warning signs of, and
elevated risk factors for, poor
emotional well-being, mental health
issues, and suicide of oneself and of
others;
``(II) suggested responses to such
warning signs;
``(III) further suicide awareness
and prevention resources; and
``(IV) the method and manner of
making an appropriate referral to a
school-based mental health services
provider; and
``(B) requiring, with respect to such school
personnel, that such training include training on--
``(i) cultural competency and
intersectionality sensitivity; and
``(ii) an overview of applicable Federal,
State, and local law concerning reporting
requirements.
``(2) Definitions.--As used in subsection (a)(6) and this
subsection:
``(A) The term `evidence-informed' means informed
by practices that--
``(i) use the best available research and
practice knowledge to guide program design and
implementation;
``(ii) allow for innovation while
incorporating the lessons learned from the
existing research literature; and
``(iii) are responsive to families'
cultural backgrounds, community values, and
individual preferences.
``(B) The term `school-based mental health services
provider' includes a State-licensed or State-certified
school counselor, school psychologist, school social
worker, or other State-licensed or certified mental
health professional qualified under State law to
provide mental health services to children and
adolescents.
``(C) The term `school personnel' means--
``(i) principals or other heads of a
school; other professional instructional staff
(such as staff involved in curriculum
development, staff development, or operating
library, media, and computer centers);
specialized instructional support personnel
such as school counselors, school social
workers, and school psychologists; and other
qualified professional personnel, such as
school nurses, speech language pathologists,
and school librarians, involved in providing
assessment, diagnosis, counseling, and
educational, therapeutic, and other necessary
services; and
``(ii) other school employees and
contractors who interact with students,
including bus drivers, cafeteria workers,
coaches, janitorial staff, and after-school
program employees.''.
(c) Funding.--Subsection (n) of section 520E of the Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. 290bb-36), as redesignated by subsection (b)(2),
is amended--
(1) by striking ``For the purpose'' and inserting the
following:
``(1) In general.--For the purpose'';
(2) by striking ``2022'' and inserting ``2028''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(2) Allocation.--Of the amounts made available to carry
out this section for a fiscal year, not less than 15 percent of
such amounts shall be used for grants or cooperative agreements
to carry out subsection (a)(6) (to establish and implement a
statewide policy requiring school personnel in elementary and
secondary schools and students in secondary schools to complete
student emotional well-being, mental health, and suicide
awareness and prevention training).''.
<all> | Cady Housh and Gemesha Thomas Student Suicide Prevention Act of 2021 | To amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize certain grants (for youth suicide early intervention and prevention strategies) to be used for school personnel in elementary and secondary schools and students in secondary schools to receive student suicide awareness and prevention training, and for other purposes. | Cady Housh and Gemesha Thomas Student Suicide Prevention Act of 2021 | Rep. Cleaver, Emanuel | D | MO |
546 | 4,517 | S.731 | Armed Forces and National Security | Department of Veterans Affairs Information Technology Reform Act of 2021
This bill addresses the management and implementation of information technology projects and investments of the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).
Specifically, the bill prohibits the VA from obligating or expending funds for any major information technology project that begins after the date of enactment of this bill unless a report is submitted that includes information on the cost, schedule, and performance of the project. The information in the report must be used as a baseline against which changes or variances are measured and reported on during the life cycle of the project. Projects must be managed by an interdisciplinary team that includes a certified project manager, a functional lead, a technical lead, a contracting officer, and other appropriate personnel.
The VA's Chief Information Officer must (1) exercise authority over the management, governance, and oversight processes relating to information technology of the VA's Financial Services Center; and (2) supervise the information technology employees and contractors of the center.
The VA must ensure its annual budget justification materials include
Finally, the VA must assess all of its information technology investments to determine the suitability for migration to a cloud computing service. | To amend title 38, United States Code, to improve the management of
information technology projects and investments of the Department of
Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Department of Veterans Affairs
Information Technology Reform Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. MANAGEMENT OF MAJOR INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY PROJECTS.
(a) In General.--Chapter 81 of title 38, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following new subchapter:
``SUBCHAPTER VI--INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY PROJECTS AND ACTIVITIES
``Sec. 8171. Definitions
``In this subchapter:
``(1) The term `appropriate congressional committees'
means--
``(A) the Committee on Veterans' Affairs and the
Subcommittee on Military Construction, Veterans Affairs
and Related Agencies of the Committee on Appropriations
of the Senate; and
``(B) the Committee on Veterans' Affairs and the
Subcommittee on Military Construction, Veterans Affairs
and Related Agencies of the Committee on Appropriations
of the House of Representatives.
``(2) The term `information technology' has the meaning
given that term in section 11101 of title 40.
``(3) The term `information technology project' means a
project or program of the Department (including a project or
program of any element of the Department) for, or including,
the acquisition or implementation of an information technology
system.
``(4) The term `life cycle costs' means all direct and
indirect costs to acquire, implement, operate, and maintain an
information technology system.
``(5) The term `major information technology project' means
an information technology project if--
``(A) the project is designated--
``(i) by the Secretary or the Chief
Information Officer of the Department as a
major information technology project; or
``(ii) by the Director of the Office of
Management and Budget as a major information
technology investment, as defined in section
11302 of title 40;
``(B) the dollar value of the project or program is
estimated by the Secretary to exceed--
``(i) $50,000,000 (as adjusted for
inflation pursuant to section 1908 of title 41)
for all project costs in a single fiscal year;
``(ii) $200,000,000 (as adjusted for
inflation pursuant to section 1908 of title 41)
for all project acquisition or implementation
costs for the duration of the project; or
``(iii) $500,000,000 (as adjusted for
inflation pursuant to section 1908 of title 41)
for the total life cycle costs of the project;
or
``(C) any increment of the project separately meets
the requirements of subparagraphs (A) or (B).
``Sec. 8172. Management of major information technology projects
``(a) Cost, Schedule, and Performance Information.--(1) The
Secretary may not obligate or expend funds for any major information
technology project that begins after the date of the enactment of the
Department of Veterans Affairs Information Technology Reform Act of
2021 unless the Secretary, acting through the Chief Information Officer
of the Department, submits to the appropriate congressional committees
a report containing information on the cost, schedule, and performance
of such project.
``(2) Each report submitted under paragraph (1) for a project shall
include, with respect to such project, the following:
``(A) An estimate of acquisition, implementation, and life
cycle costs.
``(B) An intended implementation schedule indicating
significant milestones, initial operating capability, and full
operating capability or completion.
``(C) Key business, functional, and performance objectives.
``(b) Baseline.--(1) The Secretary shall use the information on the
cost, schedule, and performance of a major information technology
project included in the report under subsection (a) as the baseline
against which changes or variances are measured during the life cycle
of such project.
``(2) The Secretary shall--
``(A) annually update the baseline of a major information
technology project pursuant to subsection (c); and
``(B) include such updated baseline in the documents
providing detailed information on the budget for the Department
that the Secretary submits to Congress in conjunction with the
President's budget submission pursuant to section 1105 of title
31.
``(c) Changes and Variances.--(1) Not later than 60 days after the
date on which the Secretary identifies a change or variance described
in paragraph (2) in the cost, schedule, or performance of a major
information technology project, the Secretary, acting through the Chief
Information Officer, shall submit to the appropriate congressional
committees a notification of such change or variance, including a
description and explanation for such change or variance.
``(2) A change or variance in the cost, schedule, or performance of
a major information technology project described in this paragraph is--
``(A) with respect to the acquisition, implementation, or
life cycle cost of the project, or an increment therein, a
change or variance that is 10 percent or greater compared to
the baseline;
``(B) with respect to the schedule for achieving a
significant milestone, initial operating capability, or final
completion of the project, a change or variance that is 180
days or greater compared to the baseline; or
``(C) with respect to the performance, an instance where a
key business, functional, or performance objective is not
attained, or is not anticipated to be attained, in whole or in
part.
``(d) Management.--The Secretary shall ensure that each major
information technology project is managed by an interdisciplinary team
consisting of the following:
``(1) A project manager who is--
``(A) certified in project management at level
three by the Department or the Department of Defense
pursuant to section 1701a of title 10, or who holds an
equivalent certification by a private sector project
management certification organization, as determined
appropriate by the Secretary; and
``(B) an employee of the Office of Information and
Technology of the Department or an employee of an
element of the Department at which the project
originates.
``(2) A functional lead who is an employee of the element
of the Department at which the project originates.
``(3) A technical lead who is an employee of the Office of
Information and Technology of the Department.
``(4) A contracting officer.
``(5) Sufficient other project management, functional,
technical, and procurement personnel as the Secretary
determines appropriate.
``Sec. 8173. Information technology activities of the Financial
Services Center
``(a) Management.--Consistent with sections 11302 and 11319 of
title 40--
``(1) the Chief Information Officer of the Department
shall--
``(A) exercise authority over the management,
governance, and oversight processes relating to
information technology of the Financial Services Center
of the Department, or such successor office; and
``(B) supervise the information technology
employees and contractors of the Financial Services
Center; and
``(2) the Director of the Financial Services Center of the
Department, or the head of such successor office, may not enter
into a contract or other agreement for information technology
or information technology services unless the contract or other
agreement has been reviewed and approved by the Chief
Information Officer.
``(b) Oversight.--The Chief Information Officer shall have
oversight and operational authority over all information security
practices of the Financial Services Center of the Department.
``Sec. 8174. Submission of annual reviews of information technology
``(a) In General.--The Secretary, acting through the Chief
Information Officer of the Department, shall submit to the appropriate
congressional committees each annual review of the information
technology portfolio of the Department conducted pursuant to section
11319(d)(3) of title 40.
``(b) First Submission.--The first annual review submitted under
subsection (a) shall include a copy of each previous annual review
conducted under section 11319(d)(3) of title 40.
``Sec. 8175. Information technology matters to be included in budget
justification materials for the Department
``(a) List of Information Technology Projects in Effect.--(1) The
Secretary shall ensure that whenever the budget justification materials
are submitted to Congress in support of the Department budget for a
fiscal year (as submitted with the budget of the President for such
fiscal year under section 1105(a) of title 31), such budget
justification materials include a list of every information technology
project currently in effect at the Department.
``(2) Each list included under paragraph (1) shall include, for
each information technology project included in the list, the
following:
``(A) The expenditures to date.
``(B) Planned expenditures for the upcoming fiscal year.
``(C) The scheduled completion date.
``(D) Any known deviation from the schedule, such as
whether the information technology project is behind schedule.
``(E) The planned or actual functionality delivered.
``(b) Prioritized List of Unfunded Projects.--(1) In addition to
the list included in the budget justification materials required by
subsection (a), the Secretary shall ensure that the budget
justification materials described in such subsection also include a
prioritized list, in rank order, of every proposed project of the
Department that is unfunded as of the time of the inclusion of the list
under this paragraph.
``(2) In producing the list required by paragraph (1), the
Secretary shall--
``(A) ensure such list represents a ranking of all proposed
projects that reflects the needs of all components of the
Department;
``(B) produce one unified list for the entire Department
that shows how the various proposed projects of each of the
components of the Department rank in priority with the projects
of the other components of the Department; and
``(C) ensure that the list--
``(i) does not disaggregate and rank projects based
on component of the Department; and
``(ii) does identify the component of the
Department requesting the information technology
project.
``(3)(A) In producing each list under paragraph (1), the Secretary
shall prioritize and rank each information technology project based on
an assessment of each of the following factors:
``(i) Tangible benefits to veterans created or produced by
the information technology project.
``(ii) Operational or efficiency benefits to employees of
the Department created or produced by the information
technology project.
``(iii) The cost of the information technology project.
``(iv) The cost savings or cost avoidance yielded by the
information technology project.
``(v) Time to completion of the information technology
project.
``(vi) The difficulty of the information technology
project, the likelihood the information technology project will
be completed, or the risks associated with undertaking the
information technology project.
``(vii) Such other factors as the Secretary considers
appropriate.
``(B) The Secretary shall ensure that each list produced under
paragraph (1) includes, for each information technology project
included in the list, a brief description of the findings of the
Secretary with respect to each assessment carried out by the Secretary
for each factor for the information technology project under
subparagraph (A).
``(c) Projected Funding Needs.--(1) In addition to the matters
included under subsections (a) and (b), the Secretary shall ensure that
the budget justification materials described in subsection (a) also
include a projection of the one-year, five-year, and 10-year funding
needs of the Department for information technology, disaggregated by
major business line of the Department that requires the funding.
``(2) In addition to the projections under paragraph (1), the
Secretary shall include a description of the following, with respect to
each of the periods set forth in such paragraph, disaggregated by major
business line of the Department:
``(A) The information technology infrastructure and
equipment requirements.
``(B) The funding required for development.
``(C) The funding required for operations and maintenance.
``(D) The funding required by cybersecurity.
``(E) Such other categories of the information technology
needs of the Department as the Secretary considers relevant and
important.
``(d) Decommissioning of Information Technology Systems.--(1) In
addition to the matters included under subsections (a), (b), and (c),
the Secretary shall ensure that the budget justification materials
described in subsection (a) also include information about the
decommissioning of information technology systems and applications of
the Department.
``(2) Information included under paragraph (1) shall include the
following:
``(A) A list of information systems and applications of the
Department that have been scheduled for decommissioning or the
Secretary proposes decommissioning.
``(B) For each information technology system and
application listed under subparagraph (A), the following:
``(i) The cost of maintaining the information
technology system or application.
``(ii) A projection of the cost avoided if the
information technology system or application were to be
decommissioned.
``(iii) A schedule for decommissioning the
information technology system or application.
``(iv) Whether a transition plan for the
functionality of the information technology system or
application to be provided, when appropriate, by other
information technology systems or applications of the
Department has been developed.
``(v) Performance data regarding whether the
Department has decommissioned the information
technology system or application that was set forth
under clause (iii) in the budget justification
materials for the previous fiscal year.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of sections at the beginning of
such chapter is amended by adding at the end the following:
``subchapter vi--information technology projects and activities
``Sec. 8171. Definitions.
``Sec. 8172. Management of major information technology projects.
``Sec. 8173. Information technology activities of the Financial
Services Center.
``Sec. 8174. Submission of annual reviews of information technology.
``Sec. 8175. Information technology matters to be included in budget
justification materials for the
Department.''.
(c) Application; Report.--
(1) Current and new projects.--Except as specifically
provided in subsection (a) of section 8172 of title 38, United
States Code, as added by subsection (a) of this section, such
section 8172 shall apply with respect to major information
technology projects that begin before, on, or after the date of
the enactment of this Act.
(2) Report on current projects.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 90 days after the
date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of
Veterans Affairs shall submit to the appropriate
congressional committees a report on each major
information technology project that the Secretary is
carrying out as of the date of the report.
(B) Contents.--The report submitted under
subparagraph (A) shall contain, with respect to each
project described in such subparagraph, information on
the cost, schedule, and performance of the project as
described in subsection (a) of section 8172 of such
title, as so added.
(3) Definitions.--In this subsection, the terms
``appropriate congressional committees'' and ``major
information technology project'' have the meanings given those
terms in section 8171 of title 38, United States Code, as added
by subsection (a) of this section.
(d) Effective Date of Requirement for Projects in Budget
Justification Materials.--Subsection (c) of section 8175 of such title,
as added by subsection (a) of this section, shall take effect on the
first Monday in the second January beginning after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
(e) Effective Date of Decommissioning Performance Element of Budget
Justification Materials.--Clause (v) of section 8175(d)(2)(B) of such
title, as added by subsection (a) of this section, shall take effect on
the first Monday in the second January beginning after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
SEC. 3. ASSESSMENT OF SUITABILITY OF CLOUD MIGRATION INVESTMENTS.
(a) Assessment.--Not later than one year after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, acting
through the Chief Information Officer of the Department of Veterans
Affairs, shall conduct an assessment, in accordance with guidance from
the Office of Management and Budget, of all information technology
investments of the Department of Veterans Affairs to determine the
suitability of the investments for migration to a cloud computing
service.
(b) Consistent Mechanism.--The Secretary, acting through the Chief
Information Officer, shall establish a consistent and repeatable
mechanism to track savings and cost avoidances from--
(1) the migration of information technology investments to
cloud computing services; and
(2) the deployment of cloud computing services.
SEC. 4. REPORT ON INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DASHBOARD INFORMATION.
(a) Report.--Not later than 90 days after the date of the enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, acting through the
Chief Information Officer of the Department of Veterans Affairs, shall
submit to the appropriate congressional committees a report
containing--
(1) an explanation of the ratings, rankings, and risk
categorizations used by the Chief Information Officer pursuant
to subparagraph (C) of section 11302(c)(3) of title 40, United
States Code, with respect to the information technology
dashboard of the Office of Management and Budget developed
under such section; and
(2) copies of supporting or explanatory information
provided by the Chief Information Officer to the Office of
Management and Budget with respect to submissions by the Chief
Information Officer to the information technology dashboard for
the fiscal year in which the report is submitted (other than
information not otherwise made public pursuant to such
section).
(b) Appropriate Congressional Committees Defined.--In this section,
the term ``appropriate congressional committees'' has the meaning given
such term in section 8171 of title 38, United States Code, as added by
section 2.
<all> | Department of Veterans Affairs Information Technology Reform Act of 2021 | A bill to amend title 38, United States Code, to improve the management of information technology projects and investments of the Department of Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes. | Department of Veterans Affairs Information Technology Reform Act of 2021 | Sen. Tester, Jon | D | MT |
547 | 3,026 | S.1578 | Health | Mental Health Professionals Workforce Shortage Loan Repayment Act of 2021
This bill requires the Health Resources and Services Administration to establish a loan repayment program for mental health professionals who work in designated workforce-shortage areas. | To amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize a loan repayment
program for mental health professionals to relieve workforce shortages,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Mental Health Professionals
Workforce Shortage Loan Repayment Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. LOAN REPAYMENT PROGRAM FOR MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSIONALS IN
SHORTAGE.
Title VII of the Public Health Service Act is amended--
(1) by redesignating part G (42 U.S.C. 295j et seq.) as
part H; and
(2) by inserting after part F (42 U.S.C. 294n et seq.) the
following:
``PART G--MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSIONALS IN WORKFORCE SHORTAGE
``SEC. 783. LOAN REPAYMENT PROGRAM FOR MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSIONALS IN
WORKFORCE SHORTAGES.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary, acting through the Administrator
of the Health Resources and Services Administration, shall carry out a
program under which--
``(1) the Secretary enters into agreements with individuals
to make payments in accordance with subsection (b) on the
principal of and interest on any eligible loan; and
``(2) the individuals each agree to complete a period of
service in a mental health professional shortage area.
``(b) Payments.--For each year of obligated service by an
individual pursuant to an agreement under subsection (a), the Secretary
shall make a payment to such individual as follows:
``(1) Service in a shortage area.--The Secretary shall
pay--
``(A) for each year of obligated service by an
individual pursuant to an agreement under subsection
(a), \1/6\ of the principal of and interest on each
eligible loan of the individual which is outstanding on
the date the individual began service pursuant to the
agreement; and
``(B) for completion of the sixth and final year of
such service, the remainder of such principal and
interest.
``(2) Maximum amount.--The total amount of payments under
this section to any individual shall not exceed $250,000.
``(c) Eligible Loans.--The loans eligible for repayment under this
section are each of the following:
``(1) Any loan for education in mental health or a related
field leading to a master's degree, leading to a doctoral
degree, or consisting of post-doctoral study.
``(2) Any Federal Direct Stafford Loan, Federal Direct PLUS
Loan, or Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford Loan, or Federal
Direct Consolidation Loan (as such terms are used in section
455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965).
``(3) Any Federal Perkins Loan under part E of title I of
the Higher Education Act of 1965.
``(4) Any other Federal loan as determined appropriate by
the Secretary.
``(d) Period of Service.--The period of service required by an
agreement under subsection (a) shall consist of up to 6 years of full-
time employment, with no more than one year passing between any two
years of covered employment, as a mental health professional in the
United States in a mental health professional shortage area.
``(e) Ineligibility for Double Benefits.--No borrower may, for the
same service, receive a reduction of loan obligations or a loan
repayment under both--
``(1) this subsection; and
``(2) any federally supported loan forgiveness program,
including under section 338B, 338I, or 846 of this Act, or
section 428J, 428L, 455(m), or 460 of the Higher Education Act
of 1965.
``(f) Breach.--
``(1) Liquidated damages formula.--The Secretary may
establish a liquidated damages formula to be used in the event
of a breach of an agreement entered into under subsection (a).
``(2) Limitation.--The failure by an individual to complete
the full period of service obligated pursuant to such an
agreement, taken alone, shall not constitute a breach of the
agreement, so long as the individual completed in good faith
the years of service for which payments were made to the
individual under this section.
``(g) Additional Criteria.--The Secretary--
``(1) may establish such criteria and rules to carry out
this section as the Secretary determines are needed and in
addition to the criteria and rules specified in this section;
and
``(2) shall give notice to the committees specified in
subsection (h) of any criteria and rules so established.
``(h) Report to Congress.--Not later than 5 years after the date of
enactment of the Mental Health Professionals Workforce Shortage Loan
Repayment Act of 2021, and every other year thereafter, the Secretary
shall prepare and submit to the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the
House of Representatives and the Committee on Health, Education, Labor,
and Pensions of the Senate a report on--
``(1) the number and location of borrowers who have
qualified for loan repayments under this section; and
``(2) the impact of this section on the availability of
mental health services in mental health professional shortage
areas.
``(i) Definition.--In this section:
``(1) The term `mental health professional' means a full-
time job (including a fellowship) where the primary intent and
function of the job is the direct treatment or recovery support
of patients with or in recovery from a mental health disorder,
such as a physician (MD or DO), psychiatric nurse, social
worker, marriage and family therapist, mental health counselor,
occupational therapist, psychologist, psychiatrist, child and
adolescent psychiatrist, or neurologist.
``(2) The term `mental health professional shortage area'
means--
``(A) an area designated under section 332 with
respect to a shortage of mental health professionals;
or
``(B) any facility, program, center, or clinic as
determined appropriate by the Secretary for purposes of
this section because of a shortage of mental health
professionals, including private physician practices
and other medical facilities designated under section
332(a) as having such a shortage.
``(j) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated to carry out this section $25,000,000 for each of fiscal
years 2022 through 2031.''.
<all> | Mental Health Professionals Workforce Shortage Loan Repayment Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Public Health Service Act to authorize a loan repayment program for mental health professionals to relieve workforce shortages, and for other purposes. | Mental Health Professionals Workforce Shortage Loan Repayment Act of 2021 | Sen. Smith, Tina | D | MN |
548 | 6,276 | H.R.3557 | Immigration | Homeland Security Improvement Act
This bill establishes various bodies and policies related to border security operations. It also limits when the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) may separate a child from a parent or legal guardian.
The bill establishes the independent DHS Border Oversight Commission. The commission's duties shall include recommending policies to protect civil rights and improve the safety of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) officers.
The bill establishes the Office of the Ombudsman for Border and Immigration Related Concerns. The office shall independently receive and resolve complaints and requests for assistance regarding border security and immigration activities. The office shall have the power to provide redress, including immigration relief and monetary damages.
The bill establishes the Border Community Liaison Office. The office's duties include consulting with communities in sectors on the northern and southern borders when developing policies and programs.
DHS must ensure CBP officers receive continual education and training each year on topics including interaction with vulnerable populations and professional conduct standards.
The bill imposes data collection requirements on law enforcement officials conducting border and immigration-related stops and searches.
A child may not be removed from a parent or legal guardian at or near a port of entry or within 100 miles of the border except in certain instances, such as when a court determines that removal of the child is in the child's best interests.
The bill requires various reports, including a Government Accountability Office report on the use of force by CBP and ICE. | To increase transparency, accountability, and community engagement
within the Department of Homeland Security, provide independent
oversight of border security activities, improve training for agents
and officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration
and Customs Enforcement, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Homeland Security Improvement Act''.
SEC. 2. STAKEHOLDER AND COMMUNITY ENGAGEMENT.
(a) Department of Homeland Security Border Oversight Commission.--
(1) Establishment.--There is established an independent
commission, which shall be known as the ``Department of
Homeland Security Border Oversight Commission'' (in this Act
referred to as the ``Commission'').
(2) Organization.--
(A) Leadership.--The Commission shall be led by a
Chair and Vice Chair.
(B) Membership.--
(i) In general.--The Commission shall be
composed of 30 members, recommended by
Congress, in consultation with the President,
who have expertise in migration, local crime
indices, civil and human rights, community
relations, cross-border trade and commerce,
quality of life indicators, or other pertinent
experience, of whom--
(I) 13 members shall be from the
northern border region and shall
include--
(aa) two local government
elected officials;
(bb) two local law
enforcement officials;
(cc) two civil rights
advocates;
(dd) one business
representative;
(ee) one higher education
representative;
(ff) one representative of
a faith community;
(gg) two representatives of
the U.S. Border Patrol; and
(hh) two tribal officials;
and
(II) 17 members shall be from the
southern border region and shall
include--
(aa) three local government
elected officials;
(bb) three local law
enforcement officials;
(cc) three civil rights
advocates;
(dd) two business
representatives;
(ee) one higher education
representative;
(ff) one representative of
a faith community;
(gg) two representatives of
the U.S. Border Patrol; and
(hh) two tribal officials.
(ii) Chair, vice chair.--The members of the
Commission shall elect a Chair and a Vice Chair
from among its members by a majority vote of at
least 16 members.
(iii) Terms of service.--The Chair and Vice
Chair of the Commission shall serve for terms
of four years. Members of the Commission shall
serve for terms of four years.
(iv) Appointment deadline.--Members of the
Commission shall be appointed not later than
180 days after the date of the enactment of
this Act.
(3) Meetings.--
(A) Commission.--The Commission shall meet at least
semiannually, and may convene additional meetings as
necessary.
(B) Subcommittees.--The northern border and
southern border subcommittees shall meet at least
quarterly, and may convene additional meetings as
necessary.
(4) Duties.--The Commission, and the northern border and
southern border subcommittees, shall--
(A) develop recommendations for improvements
regarding border enforcement policies, strategies, and
programs that take into consideration their impact on
border communities;
(B) evaluate policies, strategies, and programs of
Federal agencies operating along the northern and
southern borders to--
(i) protect--
(I) due process;
(II) the civil and human rights of
border residents and visitors; and
(III) private property rights of
land owners;
(ii) reduce the number of migrant deaths;
and
(iii) improve the safety of agents and
officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection
and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement;
(C) develop recommendations for improvements
regarding the safety of agents and officers of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement when such agents and officers are
in the field; and
(D) evaluate training, including establishing
training courses related to management and leadership
skills for supervisors in each U.S. Border Patrol
sector, at each port of entry on the northern and
southern borders, and at each U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement field office and the extent to
which supervisory and management personnel practices at
U.S. Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration
and Customs Enforcement encourage and facilitate
workforce development for agents and officers, promote
agent and officer field safety, and post-FLETC training
of border enforcement personnel in accordance with
section 6.
(5) Additional responsibilities.--
(A) In general.--In carrying out the duties
specified in paragraph (5), the Commission shall take
into consideration any recommendations and evaluations
agreed upon by the northern border and southern border
subcommittees.
(B) Subcommittee reports.--The northern border and
southern border subcommittees shall annually submit to
the Chair and Vice Chair of the Commission a publicly
available report containing the recommendations and
evaluations of the subcommittees pursuant to paragraph
(5).
(6) Prohibition on compensation.--Members of the Commission
and the northern border and southern border subcommittees may
not receive pay, allowances, or benefits from the Government by
reason of their service on the Commission or the subcommittees.
(b) Hearings and Evidence.--The Commission or, on the authority of
the Commission, any subcommittee or member thereof, may, for the
purpose of carrying out this Act hold such hearings, and sit and act at
such times and places, take such testimony, receive such evidence, and
administer such oaths as the Commission or such designated subcommittee
or designated member determines necessary to carry out its duties under
subsection (a)(5).
(c) Savings Provision.--Nothing in this Act may be construed as
affecting in any manner the investigative and disciplinary procedures
of U.S. Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement, or the Department of Homeland Security with respect to
agents and officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection or U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
(d) Reports.--
(1) Annual reports.--The Commission shall annually submit
to the Secretary of Homeland Security a publicly available
report containing information on the activities, findings, and
recommendations of the Commission, including the northern
border and southern border subcommittees, for the preceding
year.
(2) Congressional notification.--The Secretary of Homeland
Security shall brief the Committee on Homeland Security and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the House of Representatives and
the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs and
the Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate on each report
required under paragraph (1).
SEC. 3. ESTABLISHMENT OF THE OFFICE OF THE OMBUDSMAN FOR BORDER AND
IMMIGRATION RELATED CONCERNS.
(a) In General.--Section 452 of the Homeland Security Act of 2002
(6 U.S.C. 272) is amended to read as follows:
``SEC. 452. OMBUDSMAN FOR BORDER AND IMMIGRATION RELATED CONCERNS.
``(a) In General.--There shall be within the Department an
Ombudsman for Border and Immigration Related Concerns (in this section
referred to as the `Ombudsman'). The individual appointed as Ombudsman
shall have a background in immigration or civil liberties law or law
enforcement. The Ombudsman shall report directly to the Secretary.
``(b) Organizational Independence.--The Secretary shall take
appropriate action to ensure the independence of the Ombudsman's office
from other officers or employees of the Department engaged in border
security or immigration activities.
``(c) Staffing.--The Secretary shall take appropriate action to
ensure that the Ombudsman's office is sufficiently staffed and
resourced to carry out its duties effectively and efficiently.
``(d) Functions.--The functions of the Ombudsman shall be as
follows:
``(1) To establish an independent, neutral, and
appropriately confidential process to receive, investigate,
resolve, and provide redress, including immigration relief,
monetary damages, or any other action determined appropriate,
for complaints, grievances, or requests for assistance from
individuals, associations, and employers regarding the border
security and immigration activities of the Department.
``(2) To conduct inspections of the facilities, including
privately-owned or operated contract facilities, of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement, and United States Citizenship and Immigration
Services.
``(3) To assist individuals and families who have been
victims of crimes committed by aliens unlawfully present in the
United States or of violence near the United States border, and
individuals and families impacted by situations in which the
Department has exercised force against an individual, including
by use of a firearm, taser, explosive device, chemical agent,
baton, projectile, blunt instrument, body part, canine, or
vehicle.
``(4) To identify areas in which individuals, associations,
and employers have identified concerns with respect to
interacting with U.S. Customs and Border Protection, U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement, or United States
Citizenship and Immigration Services.
``(5) To propose changes in the administrative practices of
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement, and United States Citizenship and
Immigration Services to mitigate problems identified under this
section.
``(6) To review, examine, and make recommendations
regarding the border security and immigration and enforcement
activities of U.S. Customs and Border Protection, U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement, and United States
Citizenship and Immigration Services.
``(7) To establish a uniform and standardized complaint
process regarding complaints against any individual employed by
U.S. Customs and Border Protection or U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement for violations of standards of professional
conduct. Such complaint process shall have the following
components:
``(A) Require that all complaints receive an
independent review and investigation completed not
later than one year from the date of receipt of each
such complaint.
``(B) Require that complainants receive written
confirmation of receipt of their complaints not later
than 60 days from the date of receipt of each such
complaint, and a written summary regarding the outcome
of such complaints not later than 30 days after the
review and investigation under subparagraph (A) is
complete, including findings of fact, recommended
action, and available redress.
``(C) Feature a centralized multilingual online
complaint form that includes street address, toll-free
telephone number, and electronic mailbox address to
permit an individual to file an immigration or border-
related complaint and submit supporting evidence
through the portal of choice of any such individual.
Multilingual information relating to such form shall be
visible at ports of entry and at U.S. Border Patrol
interior checkpoints.
``(D) Include procedures for referring complaints
to the Office for Civil Rights and Civil Liberties,
Office of the Inspector General, or other appropriate
agency of the Department.
``(E) Establish a publicly accessible national,
standardized database capable of tracking and analyzing
complaints and their resolution.
``(F) Provide publicly accessible records, with
copies of complaints, and their resolutions permanently
preserved and available for inspection, while
maintaining the confidentiality of complainants'
identities.
``(8) To establish an online detainee locator system for
individuals held in U.S. Customs and Border Protection custody.
``(e) Other Responsibilities.--In addition to the functions
specified in subsection (d), the Ombudsman shall--
``(1) monitor the coverage and geographic allocation of
local offices of the Ombudsman, including appointing local
ombudsmen for border and immigration related concerns;
``(2) evaluate and take personnel actions (including
dismissal) with respect to any employee of the Ombudsman;
``(3) recommend disciplinary action, including contract
termination, suspension, and debarment, or termination,
suspension, and sanctions, to the appropriate departmental
entity regarding any contractor proven to have violated
departmental policies or procedures while executing any border
security or immigration activity;
``(4) refer to the Inspector General of the Department any
complaints of the violation of departmental policies or
procedures by any Department employee relating to border
security or immigration activity; and
``(5) provide a complainant with a summary of the outcome
of any action taken in response to a complaint, grievance, or
request for assistance from such complainant, including any
findings of fact, recommended action, and available redress.
``(f) Complainants.--The following shall apply to all complainants:
``(1) Any interested party, including a legal
representative, may file a complaint through the complaint
process established pursuant to subsection (d)(7).
``(2) Complainants and other individuals identified in a
complaint shall be protected from retaliatory action by law
enforcement or by any officer of the United States based on the
content of such complaint, and no information contained in a
complaint that is germane to such complaint may be used as
evidence in any removal or criminal proceedings against the
complainant or any individual identified in such complaint.
``(3) Neither the filing of a complaint nor the contents of
a complaint shall in any way confer immunity or otherwise
impact any removal or criminal proceedings against a
complainant or an individual identified in such complaint.
``(4) No personally identifiable information related to an
individual involved in a complaint which would result in
identification of such individual may be published.
``(5) Complainants shall receive full assistance from the
Department in filing complaints, including language assistance,
accommodations for disabilities, and accurate and complete
responses to their questions.
``(g) Request for Investigations.--The Ombudsman is authorized to
request the Inspector General of the Department to conduct inspections,
investigations, and audits related to subsections (d), (e), and (f).
``(h) Coordination With Department Components.--
``(1) In general.--The Director of United States
Citizenship and Immigration Services, the Assistant Secretary
of U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, and the
Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection shall each
establish procedures to provide formal responses to
recommendations submitted to such officials by the Ombudsman
within 60 days of receiving such recommendations.
``(2) Access to information.--The Secretary shall establish
procedures to provide the Ombudsman access to all departmental
records necessary to execute the responsibilities of the
Ombudsman under subsection (d) or (e) not later than 60 days
after a request from the Ombudsman for such information.
``(i) Public Outreach.--The Secretary shall--
``(1) take all appropriate action to advise the public
regarding the existence, duties, responsibilities, and
grievance processes of the Ombudsman's office; and
``(2) shall promulgate regulations to ensure--
``(A) the public's ability to file grievances with
the Ombudsman's office electronically; and
``(B) that absent written permission of all
affected parties, all documents submitted to the
Ombudsman's office are used solely by the Ombudsman's
office to advance the purposes described in this
section.
``(j) Annual Reporting.--Not later than June 30 of each year
beginning in the year after the date of the enactment of this
subsection, the Ombudsman shall submit to the Committee on Homeland
Security and the Committee on the Judiciary of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental
Affairs and the Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate a report that
includes the following:
``(1) The number and type of complaints received under this
section, the demographics of complainants, the results of
investigations, including violations of standards and any
disciplinary actions taken, and an identification of any
complaint patterns that could be prevented or reduced by policy
training or practice changes.
``(2) An inventory of complaints referred to in paragraph
(1) for which action has been taken and the time between
receipt and resolution of each such complaint.
``(3) An inventory of complaints referred to in paragraph
(1) for which action has not been taken after one year, the
period during which each complaint has been open, and the
reason for failure to resolve each such complaint.
``(4) Recommendations the Ombudsman has made to improve the
services and responsiveness of United States Citizenship and
Immigration Services, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement,
and U.S. Customs and Border Protection, and any responses
received from each such component or the Department regarding
such recommendations.
``(5) Other information as the Ombudsman determines
advisable.
``(k) Establishment of Border Communities Liaison Office.--
``(1) In general.--The Ombudsman, in conjunction with the
Office for Civil Rights and Civil Liberties of the Department,
shall establish a Border Community Liaison Office (in this
subsection referred to as the `Liaison Office') in each U.S.
Border Patrol sector on the northern and southern borders.
``(2) Purposes.--Each Liaison Office under this subsection
shall--
``(A) foster cooperation between the U.S. Border
Patrol, the Office of Field Operations of the
Department, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement,
and border communities;
``(B) consult with border communities on the
development of policies, directives, and programs of
the U.S. Border Patrol, the Office of Field Operations,
and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement; and
``(C) receive feedback from border communities on
the performance of the U.S. Border Patrol, the Office
of Field Operations, and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement.
``(3) Membership.--Each Liaison Office shall be comprised
of equal representation from the border community and U.S.
Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement, including at least:
``(A) One member of the community in which each
U.S. Border Patrol sector is located who has expertise
in migration, local public safety, civil and human
rights, the local community, or community relations.
``(B) One member of an Indian tribe (as such term
is defined in section 4(e) of the Indian Self-
Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C.
5304(e)) or tribal organization.
``(C) One non-uniformed Border Patrol agent with
significant experience working for the U.S. Border
Patrol.
``(D) One non-uniformed CBP officer with
significant experience working for U.S. Customs and
Border Protection.
``(E) One Enforcement and Removal Operations (ERO)
agent with significant experience working for U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
``(l) Report on the Impact of Border Enforcement Technologies and
Operations on Border Communities.--Not later than 180 days after the
date of the enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall submit to
the Committee on Homeland Security and the Committee on the Judiciary
of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Homeland Security
and Governmental Affairs and the Committee on the Judiciary of the
Senate a report that assesses current efforts and technologies used at
United States borders, and the impact on border communities of such
efforts and technologies on civil rights, private property rights,
privacy rights, and civil liberties.
``(m) GAO Report on the Extent of CBP Activities, Operations, and
Claimed Authority.--Not later than one year after the date of the
enactment of this subsection, the Comptroller General of the United
States shall submit to the Committee on Homeland Security and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the House of Representatives and the
Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs and the
Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate a report that assesses the
following issues:
``(1) How far into the United States interior the current
activities, operations (including checkpoints), and claimed
authority of U.S. Customs and Border Protection extend.
``(2) The extent to which the area of activities,
operations, and claimed authority referred to in paragraph (1)
is necessary.
``(3) The effectiveness of U.S. Customs and Border
Protection's interior enforcement and its impact on civil,
constitutional, and private property rights.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of contents of the Homeland
Security Act of 2002 is amended by amending the item relating to
section 452 to read as follows:
``Sec. 452. Ombudsman for Border and Immigration Related Concerns.''.
SEC. 4. TRAINING AND CONTINUING EDUCATION.
(a) Mandatory Training and Continuing Education To Promote CBP
Agent and Officer Safety and Professionalism.--The Secretary of
Homeland Security shall establish policies and guidelines to ensure
that every agent and officer of U.S. Customs and Border Protection
receives a minimum of 19 weeks of training that are directly related to
the mission of the U.S. Border Patrol and the Office of Field
Operations of the Department of Homeland Security before the initial
assignment of such agents and officers, and eight hours of training and
continuing education annually thereafter. Such training and continuing
education shall be conducted by attorneys who have experience with the
Fourth Amendment to the Constitution, including appropriate application
of the use of force by agents and officers of U.S. Customs and Border
Protection. Such attorneys shall be members of the Department of
Homeland Security's Office of General Counsel, and all instruction
provided shall be in alignment with curriculum developed and endorsed
by FLETC.
(b) FLETC.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall establish
policies and guidelines governing training with FLETC and continuing
education of agents and officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection
and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement regarding border
awareness, accountability, and oversight. Such training with FLETC
shall include individual courses for each of the following issues:
(1) Community relations, including the following:
(A) Best practices in community policing.
(B) Policies limiting location of enforcement and
cooperation with local law enforcement.
(C) Best practices in responding to grievances and
how to refer complaints to the Ombudsman for Border and
Immigration Related Concerns in accordance with section
452 of the Homeland Security Act of 2002, as amended by
section 3 of this Act.
(2) Interdiction, including the following:
(A) Instruction on formal and proper command
language.
(B) Situational awareness of what language is
appropriate.
(C) Legal application of use of force policies and
guidelines.
(D) Policies and training scenarios necessary to
ensure the agent or officer and the community is safe
when intervening in situations in urban areas,
including--
(i) scenario-based training and guidelines;
and
(ii) non-lethal force training and
certification on at least one non-lethal force
instrument, including tasers.
(E) Policies necessary to ensure the agent or
officer and the community is safe when intervening in
situations in rural and remote locations.
(3) Vulnerable populations, including instruction on
screening, identifying, and responding to vulnerable
populations, such as children, victims of human trafficking,
and the acutely ill.
(4) Cultural and societal issues, including the following:
(A) Understanding of the diversity of immigrant
communities.
(B) Language and basic cultural awareness of major
migrant-sending countries.
(C) Natural resource protection and environmental
policies along the border.
(D) Privacy considerations regarding border-related
technologies.
(E) History and ethics of asylum law.
(5) Standards of professional conduct, including the
following:
(A) Lawful use of force.
(B) Complying with chain of command and lawful
orders.
(C) Conduct and ethical behavior toward the public
in a civil and professional manner.
(D) Respect for civil rights and protection of the
well-being of individuals.
(E) Non-racially biased questioning.
(F) De-escalation tactics and alternatives to use
of force.
(c) Supervisor Training.--In addition to the training and
continuing education required under subsections (a) and (b), the
Secretary of Homeland Security shall establish policies and guidelines
governing the continuing education of agents and officers of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement who attain a supervisory or management position. Such
training and continuing education shall include the following:
(1) Instruction relating to management and leadership best
practices.
(2) Refresher instruction or in-service training relating
to legal application of use of force policies and guidelines,
intervention, community relations, and professional conduct.
(3) Mitigation training to identify, diagnose, and address
issues within such supervisory and management roles.
(d) Review Process.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
establish a review process to ensure that port supervisors and managers
of U.S. Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement, as the case may be, are evaluated annually on their
actions and standards of conduct, and on the actions, situational and
educational development, and standards of conduct of their staffs.
(e) Continuing Education.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
annually require all agents and officers of U.S. Customs and
Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
who are required to undergo training under subsections (a)
through (c) to participate in continuing education to maintain
and update understanding of Federal legal rulings, court
decisions, and Department of Homeland Security policies,
procedures, and guidelines related to the subject matters
described in such subsections.
(2) Constitutional authority subject matter.--Continuing
education under this subsection shall include a course on
protecting the civil, constitutional, human, and privacy rights
of individuals, with special emphasis on the scope of
enforcement authority, including chain of evidence practices
and document seizure, and use of force policies available to
agents and officers.
(3) Additional subject matters.--Continuing education under
this subsection shall also include a course on the following:
(A) Scope of authority to conduct immigration
enforcement activities, including interviews,
interrogations, stops, searches, arrests, and
detentions, in addition to identifying and detecting
fraudulent documents.
(B) Identifying, screening, and responsibility for
vulnerable populations, such as children and victims of
trafficking.
(C) Cultural and societal issues, including
understanding of the diversity of immigrant
communities, language and basic cultural awareness of
major migrant-sending countries, and natural resource
protection and environmental policies along the border.
(4) Administration.--Courses offered as part of continuing
education under this subsection shall--
(A) be administered in consultation with FLETC by
the individual U.S. Border Patrol sectors and the
Office of Field Operations of the Department of
Homeland Security in order to provide such sectors'
field offices with flexibility to design or tailor such
courses to the specific needs and conditions of each
such sector and field office; and
(B) be approved by the Secretary of Homeland
Security before being offered to ensure that such
courses satisfy the requirements for training under
this section.
(5) Rotation.--Courses offered as part of continuing
education under this subsection shall include--
(A) a yearly course focusing on the curriculum
described in paragraph (2); and
(B) an additional course to be rotated on a three-
year basis focusing on curriculum described in
paragraph (3).
(f) Assessment.--Not later than six years after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General of the United States
shall submit to the Committee on Homeland Security of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental
Affairs of the Senate a report that assesses the training and
education, including continuing education, required under this section.
SEC. 5. MANAGEMENT OF PORTS OF ENTRY.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Homeland Security shall submit
to the Committee on Homeland Security of the House of Representatives
and the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs of the
Senate a report that contains an assessment of the current standards
and guidelines for managing ports of entry under the control of the
Department of Homeland Security. Such assessment shall include
information relating to the following:
(1) Staffing levels and the need for additional staffing.
(2) Rules governing the actions of Office of Field
Operations agents.
(3) Average delays for transit through air, land, and sea
ports of entry.
(4) An assessment of existing efforts and technologies used
for border security, and the effect of the use of such efforts
and technologies on facilitating trade at ports of entry and
their impact on civil rights, private property rights, privacy
rights, and civil liberties.
(5) The economic impact of the policies and practices of
CBP Agricultural Specialists and Office of Field Operations
work.
(6) Physical infrastructure and technological needs at
ports of entry.
(7) A plan for increasing the number of Border Patrol
officers certified as EMTs.
(8) An assessment for implementing body worn cameras for
Border Patrol agents, including relating to storage and public
availability of associated data.
(b) Updates.--Based upon the information and assessment contained
in the report required under subsection (a), the Secretary of Homeland
Security shall establish updated guidelines and standards for managing
ports of entry under the control of the Department of Homeland Security
to address any identified needs or shortcomings at such ports of entry,
including, if applicable, the following:
(1) Increasing levels of staffing of CBP Agricultural
Specialists at ports of entry at which delays hinder or
negatively impact the local or national economies.
(2) Increasing the use of or updating technology at ports
of entry at which there are average delays of over two hours
based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection data collected
during the previous fiscal year.
(3) Publishing rules on the handling of documents at ports
of entry.
(4) Establishing standards of conduct and demeanor when
interacting with vulnerable populations, such as children and
victims of human trafficking, and individuals with border
crossing cards.
(5) Establishing training courses relating to management
and leadership skills for supervisors and managers at ports of
entry.
SEC. 6. REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
(a) Annual CBP Report on Mission and Personnel by Border Patrol
Sector.--Not later than one year after the date of the enactment of
this Act and annually thereafter, the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and
Border Protection shall submit to the Committee on Homeland Security of
the House of Representatives and the Committee on Homeland Security and
Governmental Affairs of the Senate a report that includes the following
for each Border Patrol sector:
(1) An assessment of the most appropriate, practical, and
cost effective means of defending the land borders of the
United States against threats to security and illegal transit,
including intelligence capacities, technology, equipment,
personnel, and training needed to address security
vulnerabilities.
(2) An assessment of staffing needs for all border security
functions, including an assessment of efforts to take into
account asylum seekers, trafficking victims, unaccompanied
children, and other vulnerable populations.
(3) A description of the border security roles and missions
of Federal, State, regional, local, and Tribal authorities, and
recommendations regarding actions the Commissioner can carry
out to improve coordination with such authorities to enable
border security activities to be carried out in a more
efficient and effective manner.
(4) A description of ways to ensure that the free flow of
travel and commerce is not diminished by efforts, activities,
and programs aimed at securing the land borders of the United
States.
(5) An impact assessment of the loss of trade and commerce
due to inadequate staffing at land ports of entry by U.S.
Customs and Border Protection agents and officers.
(b) Report on Migrant Deaths.--
(1) CBP and ice.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and
Border Protection and the Director of U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement shall jointly submit to the Comptroller
General of the United States, the Committee on Homeland
Security of the House of Representatives, and the Committee on
Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs of the Senate a
report relating to deaths occurring along the United States-
Mexico border, including information on the following:
(A) The number of documented migrant deaths.
(B) A geographical breakdown of where such migrant
deaths occur.
(C) To the extent possible, the cause of death for
each migrant.
(D) The extent to which border technology, physical
barriers, and enforcement programs have contributed to
such migrant deaths.
(E) A detailed description of U.S. Customs and
Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement programs or plans to reduce the number of
migrant deaths along the border, including an
assessment on the effectiveness of water supply sites
and rescue beacons.
(2) GAO.--Not later than 90 days after the submission of
the report required under paragraph (1), the Comptroller
General of the United States shall review such report to
determine the following:
(A) The validity of U.S. Customs and Border
Protection's and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement's statistical analysis of migrant deaths.
(B) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
have adopted simple and low-cost measures, such as
water supply sites and rescue beacons, to reduce the
frequency of migrants deaths.
(C) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
measures the effectiveness of its programs to address
the frequency of migrant deaths.
(D) The extent of data and information sharing and
cooperation between U.S. Customs and Border Protection,
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, local and
State law enforcement, foreign diplomatic and consular
posts, and nongovernmental organizations to accurately
identify deceased individuals and notify family members
and compare information to missing persons registries.
(c) GAO Report on Use of Force.--
(1) In general.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General of the
United States shall examine the extent to which U.S. Customs
and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement have clarified use of force policies, including the
following (and any recommendations related to the following):
(A) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
have implemented new training tactics to improve use of
force policies, including how the use of force policy
conforms to Department of Homeland Security and Federal
law enforcement best practices.
(B) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
have identified additional or alternative weapons and
equipment to improve agents' and officers' abilities to
de-escalate confrontations, including protective gear.
(C) Efforts to review and enhance current training
and tactics related to use of force, and to implement
reforms to ensure agents and officers are better
equipped to assess and respond to threats.
(D) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
have established a stakeholder engagement framework to
better inform and enhance U.S. Customs and Border
Protection's use of force training.
(E) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
have established metrics to track the effectiveness of
use of force training and to ensure the reporting of
all uses of force for review to determine whether the
force used was justified and whether it could have been
avoided through different tactics or training, better
supervision, different tools, adherence to policy, or
changes in policy.
(F) How U.S. Customs and Border Protection and U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement could implement
best law enforcement practices to improve policies for
transparent communication with family members of
individuals injured or killed by U.S. Customs and
Border Protection or U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement agent's and officer's use of force,
including updates on any pending investigations, and
policies for timely notification of such injuries and
deaths following such uses of force to the Commissioner
of U.S. Customs and Border Protection or the Director
of U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (as the
case may be), the Joint Intake Center of the Department
of Homeland Security, the Office of Inspector General
of the Department, the Office for Civil Rights and
Civil Liberties of the Department, the Offices of
Public Affairs of the Department, Congress, and the
applicable consulates, if appropriate.
(G) How recommendations and requests made by agents
and officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection and
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement have been
received, reviewed, and if possible implemented into
U.S. Customs and Border Protection and Department of
Homeland Security use of force policies and best
practices.
(H) The extent to which U.S. Customs and Border
Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
electronically track personal searches and seizures of
personal items at the border, and an assessment of how
such information is used to inform U.S. Customs and
Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement policies and procedures.
(2) Implementation of gao findings.--The Secretary of
Homeland Security shall direct the Commissioner of U.S. Customs
and Border Protection and the Director of U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement to implement any recommendations contained
in the report required under paragraph (1). If the Secretary
does not so implement such recommendations, the Secretary shall
submit to the Committee on Homeland Security of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Homeland Security and
Governmental Affairs of the Senate a written notification
explaining why such recommendations are not being so
implemented.
(d) GAO Report on Body Worn Cameras.--Not later than one year after
the date of the enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General of the
United States shall assess the potential implementation by U.S. Customs
and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement of
body worn cameras for all agents and officers of U.S. Customs and
Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement,
including relating to storage and public availability of associated
data.
SEC. 7. DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY ACCOUNTABILITY AND
TRANSPARENCY.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Border security.--The term ``border security'' means
the prevention of unlawful entries into the United States,
including entries by individuals, instruments of terrorism,
narcotics, and other contraband.
(2) Checkpoint.--The term ``checkpoint'' means a location--
(A) at which vehicles or individuals traveling
through the location are stopped by a law enforcement
official for the purposes of enforcement of United
States laws and regulations; and
(B) that is not located at a port of entry along an
international border of the United States.
(3) Law enforcement official.--The term ``law enforcement
official'' means--
(A) an agent or officer of U.S. Customs and Border
Protection;
(B) an agent or officer of U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement; or
(C) an officer or employee of a State, or a
political subdivision of a State, who is carrying out
the functions of an immigration officer pursuant to--
(i) an agreement entered into under section
287(g) of the Immigration and Nationality Act
(8 U.S.C. 1357(g));
(ii) authorization under title IV of the
Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1401 et seq.); or
(iii) any other agreement with the
Department of Homeland Security, including any
Federal grant program.
(4) Patrol stop.--The term ``patrol stop'' means search,
seizure, or interrogation of a motorist, passenger, or
pedestrian initiated anywhere except as part of an inspection
at a port of entry or a primary inspection at a checkpoint.
(5) Primary inspection.--The term ``primary inspection''
means an initial inspection of a vehicle or individual at a
checkpoint.
(6) Secondary inspection.--The term ``secondary
inspection'' means a further inspection of a vehicle or
individual that is conducted following a primary inspection.
(b) Data Collection by Law Enforcement Officials Enforcing United
States Laws and Regulations and Making Border Security Stops.--
(1) Requirement for data collection regarding stops and
searches.--A law enforcement official who initiates a patrol
stop or who detains any individual beyond a brief and limited
inquiry, such as a primary inspection at a checkpoint, shall
record--
(A) the date, time, and location of the contact;
(B) the law enforcement official's basis for, or
circumstances surrounding, the contact, including if
such individual's perceived race or ethnicity
contributed to the basis for, and circumstances
surrounding, the contact;
(C) the identifying characteristics of such
individual, including the individual's perceived race,
gender, ethnicity, and approximate age;
(D) the duration of the stop, detention, or search,
whether consent was requested and obtained for the
contact, including any search;
(E) a description of any articulable facts and
behavior by the individual that justify initiating the
contact or probable cause to justify any search
pursuant to such contact;
(F) a description of any items seized during such
search, including contraband or money, and a
specification of the type of search conducted;
(G) whether any arrest, detention, warning, or
citation resulted from such contact and the basis for
such action;
(H) the immigration status of the individual, if
obtained during the ordinary course of the contact
without additional questioning in accordance with this
section, and whether removal proceedings were
subsequently initiated against the individual;
(I) whether a body-worn camera or any other video
or audio recording exists that recorded the stop or
detention;
(J) whether force was used by the law enforcement
official and, if so, the type of force, justification
for using force, and whether the use of force resulted
in injury or death;
(K) whether any complaint was made by the
individual subject to the contact, and if so--
(i) which oversight components within or
outside of the Department of Homeland Security
investigated the complaint;
(ii) how long the investigation lasted;
(iii) a description of the methods of
investigation used; and
(iv) the badge number of the law
enforcement official involved in the complaint;
(L) if the contact was initiated by a State or
local law enforcement agency--
(i) the reason for involvement of a Federal
law enforcement official;
(ii) the duration of the contact prior to
contact with any Federal law enforcement
official;
(iii) the method by which a Federal law
enforcement official was informed of the stop;
and
(iv) whether the individual was being held
by State or local officials on State criminal
charges at the time of such contact;
(M) if the contact was initiated by a State or
local law enforcement agency of a State, whether such
agency was acting pursuant to--
(i) an agreement entered into under section
287(g) of the Immigration and Nationality Act
(8 U.S.C. 1357(g));
(ii) authorization under title IV of the
Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1401 et seq.); or
(iii) pursuant to any other agreement with
the Department of Homeland Security, including
any Federal grant program;
(N) if the contact involved an individual whose
primary language of communication is not English, the
means of communication used;
(O) if the contact occurred at a location proximate
to a place of worship or religious ceremony, school or
education-related place or event, courthouse or other
civic building providing services accessible to the
public, hospital, medical treatment, or health care
facility, at a public demonstration, or an attorney's
office, including a public defender or legal aid
office; and
(P) if the contact occurred at a location described
in subparagraph (O), why that location was chosen and
any supervisory approval that was sought to carry out
the contact at the location.
(2) Requirement for u.s. customs and border protection data
collection regarding checkpoints.--The Commissioner of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection shall collect data on--
(A) the number of permanent and temporary
checkpoints utilized by agents and officers of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection;
(B) the location of each such checkpoint;
(C) the dates on which a temporary checkpoint was
used; and
(D) a description of each such checkpoint,
including the presence of any other law enforcement
agencies and the use of law enforcement resources, such
as canines and surveillance technologies, including
license plate readers.
(3) Rulemaking.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Homeland Security,
in consultation with stakeholders, including research, civil,
and human rights organizations, shall promulgate regulations
relating to the collection and reporting of data required under
paragraphs (1) and (2), which shall--
(A) specify all data to be reported; and
(B) provide standards, definitions, and technical
specifications to ensure uniform reporting.
(4) Compilation of data.--
(A) Department of homeland security law enforcement
officials.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
compile--
(i) the data collected under paragraph (1)
by agents and officers of U.S. Immigration and
Customs Enforcement and U.S. Customs and Border
Protection;
(ii) the data collected under paragraph (2)
by the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border
Protection; and
(iii) an analysis for all incidents
investigated by the Department of Homeland
Security's Office of Inspector General, U.S.
Customs and Border Protection's Office of
Professional Responsibility, or U.S.
Immigration and Customs Enforcement's Office of
Professional Responsibility to determine
whether the data required to be collected under
this Act were properly recorded and, if not,
the corrective measures that were or will be
taken.
(B) Other law enforcement officials.--The head of
each agency, department, or other entity that employs
law enforcement officials other than agents and
officers referred to in subparagraph (A) shall--
(i) compile the data collected by such law
enforcement officials pursuant to paragraph
(1); and
(ii) submit the compiled data to the
Secretary of Homeland Security.
(5) Use of data.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
consider the data compiled under paragraph (4) in making policy
and program decisions.
(6) Audit and report.--Not later than one year after the
effective date of the regulations promulgated under paragraph
(3), the Comptroller General of the United States shall--
(A) conduct an audit of the data compiled under
paragraph (4) to determine whether law enforcement
officials are complying with the data collection
requirements under paragraph (1); and
(B) submit to Congress a report that contains a
summary of the findings of such audit.
(c) Annual Report.--
(1) Requirement.--Not later than one year after the date of
the enactment of this Act and annually thereafter, the
Secretary of Homeland Security shall submit to Congress a
report on the data compiled under subsection (b)(4), including
all such data for the previous year.
(2) Availability.--Each report submitted under paragraph
(1) shall be made available to the public, except for
particular data if the Secretary of Homeland Security--
(A) explicitly invokes an exemption contained in
paragraphs (1) through (9) of section 552(b) of title
5, United States Code; and
(B) provides a written explanation for the
exemption's applicability.
(3) Privacy.--The Secretary may not report unique personal
identifying information of persons stopped, searched, or
subjected to a property seizure, for purposes of this section.
(4) Publication.--The data compiled under subsection (b)(4)
shall be made available to the public to the extent the release
of such data is permissible under Federal law.
SEC. 8. LIMITATION ON THE SEPARATION OF FAMILIES.
(a) Limitation.--
(1) In general.--An agent or officer of a designated agency
shall be prohibited from removing a child from his or her
parent or legal guardian, at or near the port of entry or
within 100 miles of a border of the United States, unless one
of the following has occurred:
(A) A State court, authorized under State law,
terminates the rights of the parent or legal guardian,
determines that it is in the best interests of the
child to be removed from the parent or legal guardian,
in accordance with the Adoption and Safe Families Act
of 1997 (Public Law 105-89), or makes any similar
determination that is legally authorized under State
law.
(B) An official from the State or county child
welfare agency with expertise in child trauma and
development makes a best interests determination that
it is in the best interests of the child to be removed
from the parent or legal guardian because the child is
in danger of abuse or neglect at the hands of the
parent or legal guardian, or is a danger to herself or
others.
(2) Exception.--In the case that a child is removed from
his or her parent or legal guardian under this section, an
independent child welfare expert licensed by the State or
county in which the child was so removed shall make a
determination regarding whether such separation is authorized
not later than 48 hours after such removal, and if such expert
does not authorize such separation, the child shall be reunited
with his or her parent or legal guardian not later than 48
hours after such determination.
(b) Prohibition on Separation.--
(1) In general.--A designated agency may not remove a child
from a parent or legal guardian solely for the policy goal of
deterring individuals from migrating to the United States or
for the policy goal of promoting compliance with civil
immigration laws.
(2) Penalty for family separation.--Any person who
knowingly separates a child from his or her parent or legal
guardian in violation of this section, shall be fined not more
than $10,000.
(c) Documentation Required.--The Secretary shall ensure that a
separation under subsection (a)(3) is documented in writing and
includes, at a minimum, the reason for such separation, together with
the stated evidence for such separation.
SEC. 9. ELECTRONIC TRACKING.
(a) Establishment.--The Secretary of Homeland Security and the
Secretary of Health and Human Services shall establish an electronic
tracking system on a single interface, which--
(1) shall be accessible to agents and officials of U.S.
Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Immigration and Customs
Enforcement, and the Office of Refugee Resettlement; and
(2) shall be used to track the location of a child who has
been removed pursuant to section 8 and the parent or legal
guardian of the child.
(b) Tracking Number.--The Secretary of Homeland Security shall
assign to a child who has been removed pursuant to section 8 and the
parent or legal guardian of the child a tracking number that--
(1) is transferrable;
(2) may be shared easily on the electronic tracking system
described in subsection (a) by agents and officials of--
(A) U.S. Customs and Border Protection;
(B) U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement; and
(C) the Office of Refugee Resettlement; and
(3) is included on the paperwork of the child and the
parent or legal guardian of the child.
(c) Contact Information.--The Secretary of Homeland Security and
the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall advise a child who has
been removed pursuant to section 8 and the parent or legal guardian of
the child on the manner in which the child and the parent or legal
guardian may be contacted during the term of the removal.
SEC. 10. INDEPENDENCE OF IMMIGRATION JUDGES.
Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act, the
Comptroller General of the United States shall submit to Congress a
report, which shall be published and made available to the public, on
the feasibility of establishing an immigration court outside the
executive branch composed of judges appointed for a fixed term with
jurisdiction over cases arising out of the Immigration and Nationality
Act (8 U.S.C. 1101 et seq.) or any other immigration law of the United
States and the appeal of such cases, the impact that such an
immigration court will have on the case backlog of immigration judges,
barriers to the creation of such an immigration court, and
recommendations for Congress.
<all> | Homeland Security Improvement Act | To increase transparency, accountability, and community engagement within the Department of Homeland Security, provide independent oversight of border security activities, improve training for agents and officers of U.S. Customs and Border Protection and U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, and for other purposes. | Homeland Security Improvement Act | Rep. Escobar, Veronica | D | TX |
549 | 5,475 | H.R.4908 | Transportation and Public Works | Community Vehicle Charging Act of 2021
This bill establishes a grant program to expand access to electric vehicle infrastructure in communities that consist primarily of minority, low-income, or tribal populations that experience (or are at risk of experiencing) greater adverse human health or environmental effects than other populations.
The Department of Transportation must award the grants to
Grant funds may be used for projects that include (1) developing or implementing plans to install publicly available electric vehicle charging infrastructure, (2) supporting shared electric mobility and micro-mobility options (e.g., electric bicycles), and (3) providing electric vehicle chargers and funding for their installation to community residents. | To require the Secretary of Transportation to establish a grant program
to increase the availability of electric vehicle charging
infrastructure in environmental justice communities, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Community Vehicle Charging Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds that--
(1) the transportation sector is the highest emitting
sector of greenhouse gases in the United States;
(2) transportation is a significant source of toxic air
pollutants;
(3) electrification is considered 1 of the most feasible
and affordable opportunities to decarbonize transportation in
the near-term, and thus reduce pollutants harmful to public
health;
(4) the adoption of electric vehicles is dependent on
adequate access to electric vehicle charging infrastructure;
(5) publicly available electric vehicle charging
infrastructure has been distributed inequitably, and not all
people of the United States have the ability to access electric
vehicle charging infrastructure at home or at work;
(6) range anxiety and a lack of access to electric vehicle
charging infrastructure are significant barriers to the
widespread adoption of electric vehicles;
(7) access to electric vehicle charging infrastructure
differs from proximity to electric vehicle charging
infrastructure;
(8) environmental justice communities face several barriers
to accessing electric vehicles, electric vehicle charging
infrastructure, and funding programs to install electric
vehicle charging infrastructure, including--
(A) the high cost of, and a lack of knowledge
about, electric vehicles;
(B) the high cost of--
(i) level 2 electric vehicle charging
infrastructure; and
(ii) fast charging electric vehicle
charging infrastructure;
(C) a lack of awareness of the availability of--
(i) electric vehicle charging
infrastructure; and
(ii) funding programs to install electric
vehicle charging infrastructure;
(D) a lack of technical support and up-front
funding for the installation of electric vehicle
charging infrastructure;
(E) a low level of homeownership in environmental
justice communities;
(F) the high percentage of individuals and families
in environmental justice communities who reside in
multi-unit dwellings;
(G) linguistic isolation; and
(H) the short timelines for electric vehicle
charging infrastructure projects; and
(9) effective programs for environmental justice
communities to access electric vehicle charging infrastructure
and funding programs for the installation of electric vehicle
charging infrastructure need to be targeted to overcome the
barriers described in paragraph (8).
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Community benefit agreement.--The term ``community
benefit agreement'' means a contract between 1 or more
community-based organizations representing residents of an
environmental justice community and an eligible entity carrying
out an eligible project to ensure that the eligible project
creates--
(A) employment opportunities for local workers in
the environmental justice community; and
(B) other opportunities or benefits for the
residents of the environmental justice community.
(2) Electric vehicle.--The term ``electric vehicle'' means
a vehicle that is powered primarily by an electric motor
drawing current from rechargeable batteries, including battery
electric vehicles and plug-in hybrid vehicles.
(3) Electric vehicle make-ready infrastructure.--The term
``electric vehicle make-ready infrastructure'' means the
electrical infrastructure needed to connect and serve electric
vehicle charging infrastructure, including--
(A) raceway or conduit;
(B) sufficient electrical panel service capacity;
(C) overcurrent protection;
(D) devices;
(E) wire; and
(F) suitable termination points, such as a junction
box with a service loop.
(4) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means
each of the following:
(A) A community-based organization.
(B) A nonprofit organization.
(C) A local, regional, State, or Tribal government.
(D) A metropolitan planning organization.
(E) Any other entity responsible for local
transportation planning and transportation projects.
(5) Eligible project.--The term ``eligible project'' means
a project described in section 4(d) that is carried out in, and
addresses the electric vehicle charging infrastructure needs
of, an environmental justice community.
(6) Environmental justice community.--The term
``environmental justice community'' means a community
consisting primarily of minority, low-income, or Tribal
populations that experience, or are at risk of experiencing,
higher or more adverse human health or environmental effects as
compared to other populations.
(7) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Transportation.
SEC. 4. ELECTRIC VEHICLE CHARGING INFRASTRUCTURE GRANT PROGRAM.
(a) Establishment.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a grant program to
provide grants to eligible entities for projects that address barriers
to access to electric vehicle charging infrastructure faced by
environmental justice communities.
(b) Applications.--An eligible entity desiring a grant under this
section shall submit to the Secretary an application at such time, in
such manner, and containing such information as the Secretary may
require.
(c) Requirements.--In carrying out the grant program established
under subsection (a), the Secretary shall--
(1) use a public process to identify known barriers to
access to electric vehicle charging infrastructure faced by
environmental justice communities, including the barriers
described in section 2(8);
(2)(A) perform meaningful stakeholder outreach with
community-based organizations, environmental justice groups, or
other community members--
(i) to identify or design eligible projects; and
(ii) to identify eligible entities to carry out
those eligible projects through the use of a grant
under this section; and
(B) compensate the community-based organizations,
environmental justice groups, and other community members that
respond to that outreach and assist or otherwise participate in
an activity described in clause (i) or (ii) of subparagraph
(A);
(3) provide to eligible entities in the application process
and in project execution, including with respect to identifying
private and utility partnerships--
(A) resources to conduct community-needs
assessments;
(B) resources for planning;
(C) technical support; and
(D) case management guidance;
(4) design project timelines that--
(A) take into account stakeholder input; and
(B) account for the additional time needed to
complete eligible projects in environmental justice
communities;
(5) adopt project criteria--
(A) to reduce the risk of gentrification of, and
displacement of individuals in, environmental justice
communities as a result of an eligible project carried
out using a grant provided under this section;
(B) to increase community engagement throughout the
duration of an eligible project;
(C) to increase the involvement of community-based
organizations and unionized labor, where possible, in
selecting, designing, and carrying out eligible
projects;
(D) to prioritize investments directly into
environmental justice communities;
(E) to reduce air pollution and other impacts from
vehicles with internal combustion engines in
environmental justice communities; and
(F) to encourage partnerships with utility or
private electric vehicle make-ready infrastructure
programs, as applicable;
(6) aim to increase wealth in environmental justice
communities--
(A) through community or public ownership of any
assets of a completed eligible project that are
installed or developed in carrying out that eligible
project;
(B) through the creation of employment
opportunities for local workers in environmental
justice communities;
(C) by encouraging eligible entities receiving a
grant under this section to enter into community
benefit agreements; and
(D) by encouraging participation by local small
businesses, particularly minority- and women-owned
small businesses; and
(7) provide grant funds at the time of infrastructure
purchase to each eligible entity that receives a grant under
this section.
(d) Eligible Projects.--An eligible entity that receives a grant
under this section may use the grant funds for--
(1) projects that develop or implement a plan to install
publicly available electric vehicle charging infrastructure,
including--
(A) projects for the planning for, or installation
of--
(i) electric vehicle charging
infrastructure at grocery stores, convenience
stores, markets, other retail establishments,
existing fueling stations, local government
facilities, or office buildings or other
workplaces;
(ii) fast charging hubs;
(iii) on-street chargers;
(iv) electric vehicle charging
infrastructure at community land trust
locations; and
(v) electric vehicle charging
infrastructure at public schools and parks;
(B) projects for the incorporation of electric
vehicle charging infrastructure or electric vehicle
make-ready infrastructure into the construction of new
buildings or other infrastructure;
(C) projects to retrofit existing buildings,
especially multi-unit dwellings, with electric vehicle
charging infrastructure or electric vehicle make-ready
infrastructure;
(2) projects to support shared electric mobility and
micromobility options, such as electric car, bike, and scooter
share;
(3) projects or rebate programs to provide an electric
vehicle charger and funds for the installation of, and
technical assistance relating to, that charger to any resident
of an environmental justice community who--
(A) purchases an electric vehicle; and
(B) has the ability to use residential electric
vehicle charging infrastructure;
(4) projects to develop and implement education programs
that emphasize the economic, environmental, and public health
advantages of using an electric vehicle, including--
(A) by providing information to residents of an
environmental justice community on the usefulness of
electric vehicles and electric car share systems via
ride and drive events;
(B) by developing electric vehicle dealership
education programs;
(C) by developing an electric vehicle educational
curriculum for schools; and
(D) by creating an electric vehicle information
website and printed materials for distribution to
individuals who lack internet access that may include--
(i) a guide to the makes and models of
electric vehicles in multiple languages;
(ii) information about the locations of
publicly available electric vehicle charging
infrastructure and directions to those
locations; and
(iii) free consulting services for
potential buyers of an electric vehicle;
(5) projects to transition existing vehicle fleets of
States and units of regional and local government that are in
use in environmental justice communities to electric vehicles;
(6) projects to train the staff of municipalities and other
units of regional and local government, including inspectors,
on the use of electric vehicle charging infrastructure; and
(7) any other project that, in the determination of the
Secretary--
(A) addresses known barriers to access to electric
vehicle charging infrastructure faced by environmental
justice communities, including the barriers described
in section 2(4); and
(B) satisfies any other applicable requirement that
the Secretary determines to be appropriate and
consistent with the requirements described in
subsection (c).
(e) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date on which the
grant program under subsection (a) is established, and annually
thereafter through fiscal year 2026, the Secretary shall submit to the
Committees on Commerce, Science, and Transportation and Environment and
Public Works of the Senate and the Committees on Energy and Commerce
and Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of Representatives,
and make publicly available on the website of the Department of
Transportation, a report describing the eligible projects that received
funding under the grant program and the outcomes of, and any issues
encountered in carrying out, those eligible projects, including--
(1) the barriers identified pursuant to the public process
described in subsection (c)(1);
(2) the successes and failures of anti-displacement
measures in those eligible projects;
(3) the types of projects that achieved success based on
established grant program metrics;
(4) the types of projects that were most frequently pursued
by eligible entities;
(5) best practices and lessons learned from serving an
environmental justice community;
(6) a breakdown of grant funds used by--
(A) project type; and
(B) environmental justice community served;
(7) the quantity of electric vehicle charging
infrastructure installed in environmental justice communities
using funds made available under the grant program;
(8) the frequency of use of publicly available electric
vehicle charging infrastructure installed using funds made
available under the grant program;
(9) the number of electric vehicles purchased by residents
of environmental justice communities in which electric vehicle
charging infrastructure is installed using a grant provided
under the grant program;
(10) additional barriers to accessing electric vehicle
charging infrastructure for residents of environmental justice
communities;
(11) any needed adjustments to project timelines to
facilitate greater project success in environmental justice
communities;
(12) the number of jobs created and number of community
members employed by eligible projects; and
(13) any local air quality changes over time in communities
where eligible projects are carried out.
(f) Data Collection.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall work with the
Secretary of Energy and the Administrator of the Energy
Information Administration to collect data on the access to
electric vehicle charging infrastructure in environmental
justice communities, including--
(A) the distance from an average household in an
environmental justice community to publicly available
electric vehicle charging infrastructure;
(B) the number and percentage of residents of each
environmental justice community in which an eligible
project was carried out using a grant provided under
this section who have access to, and use, electric
vehicle charging infrastructure that was installed in
that environmental justice community using funds
provided under the grant program;
(C) to the maximum extent practicable, the number
and percentage of residents of each environmental
justice community described in subparagraph (B) who
have access to, and use, electric vehicle charging
infrastructure that--
(i) is located in the environmental justice
community but was not installed using funds
provided under the grant program; or
(ii) is located in another community; and
(D) to the maximum extent practicable, the number
and percentage of residents of all environmental
justice communities who have access to, and use,
electric vehicle charging infrastructure that--
(i) is located in an environmental justice
community and was installed using funds
provided under the grant program;
(ii) is located in an environmental justice
community but was not installed using funds
provided under the grant program; or
(iii) is located in another community.
(2) Public availability.--The data collected under
paragraph (1) shall be made publicly available on the website
of the Department of Transportation.
(3) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date on which
the grant program under subsection (a) is established, and
annually thereafter, the Secretary shall submit to the
Committee on Environment and Public Works of the Senate and the
Committee on Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of
Representatives a report describing the data collection efforts
under paragraph (1), the data collected under that paragraph,
and any patterns, trends, or changes identified by the
Secretary.
(g) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary to carry out this section, including for
any administrative costs, $75,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2022
through 2026.
<all> | Community Vehicle Charging Act of 2021 | To require the Secretary of Transportation to establish a grant program to increase the availability of electric vehicle charging infrastructure in environmental justice communities, and for other purposes. | Community Vehicle Charging Act of 2021 | Rep. Crow, Jason | D | CO |
550 | 10,583 | H.R.3528 | Transportation and Public Works | Warren Cowles Grade Crossing Safety Act
This bill authorizes appropriations for FY2022 to carry out highway-rail grade crossing improvement projects, specifically projects for commuter rail and operators in high-ridership corridors.
The authorization level shall be adjusted for FY2023 and each subsequent fiscal year to account for changes in the Consumer Price Index. | To authorize appropriations for highway-rail grade crossing improvement
projects.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Warren Cowles Grade Crossing Safety
Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS FOR HIGHWAY-RAIL GRADE CROSSING
IMPROVEMENT PROJECTS.
Section 22907 of title 49, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (c)(5), by inserting ``, including such a
project for commuter rail and operators in high-ridership
corridors'' before the period at the end; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(m) Authorization of Appropriations.--
``(1) In general.--Notwithstanding section 22905(f), there
are authorized to be appropriated for eligible projects
described in subsection (c)(5) for commuter rail and operators
in high-ridership corridors--
``(A) for fiscal year 2022, $250,000,000; and
``(B) for fiscal year 2023 and each fiscal year
thereafter, the amount described in paragraph (2).
``(2) Amount described.--The amount described in this
paragraph for a fiscal year is $250,000,000, adjusted to
reflect the percentage (if any) of the increase in the average
of the Consumer Price Index for the preceding 12-month period
compared to the Consumer Price Index for fiscal year 2021.
``(3) Consumer price index defined.--In this subsection,
the term `Consumer Price Index' means the Consumer Price Index
for All Urban Consumers published by the Bureau of Labor
Statistics of the Department of Labor.''.
<all> | Warren Cowles Grade Crossing Safety Act | To authorize appropriations for highway-rail grade crossing improvement projects. | Warren Cowles Grade Crossing Safety Act | Rep. Neal, Richard E. | D | MA |
551 | 8,041 | H.R.4369 | Health | National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021
This bill directs the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to designate qualified institutions of higher education (or consortia of such institutions) as National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing and to provide grants to the centers. Each designated center must conduct research on advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing technologies and must share information from such research with the FDA. (Currently, most drug production involves batch manufacturing, which typically takes longer than continuous manufacturing processes.) | To amend the 21st Century Cures Act to provide for designation of
institutions of higher education that provide research, data, and
leadership on advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing as
National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous
Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``National Centers of Excellence in
Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. NATIONAL CENTERS OF EXCELLENCE IN ADVANCED AND CONTINUOUS
PHARMACEUTICAL MANUFACTURING.
(a) In General.--Section 3016 of the 21st Century Cures Act (21
U.S.C. 399h) is amended to read as follows:
``SEC. 3016. NATIONAL CENTERS OF EXCELLENCE IN ADVANCED AND CONTINUOUS
PHARMACEUTICAL MANUFACTURING.
``(a) In General.--The Secretary of Health and Human Services,
acting through the Commissioner of Food and Drugs--
``(1) shall solicit and, beginning not later than one year
after the date of enactment of the National Centers of
Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical
Manufacturing Act of 2021, receive requests from institutions
of higher education, or consortia of institutions of higher
education, to be designated as a National Center of Excellence
in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing (in
this section referred to as a `National Center of Excellence')
to support the advancement, development, and implementation of
advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing; and
``(2) shall so designate not more than 5 institutions of
higher education or consortia of such institutions that--
``(A) request such designation; and
``(B) meet the criteria specified in subsection
(c).
``(b) Request for Designation.--A request for designation under
subsection (a) shall be made to the Secretary at such time, in such
manner, and containing such information as the Secretary may require.
Any such request shall include a description of how the institution of
higher education, or consortium of institutions of higher education,
meets or plans to meet each of the criteria specified in subsection
(c).
``(c) Criteria for Designation Described.--The criteria specified
in this subsection with respect to an institution of higher education,
or consortium of institutions of higher education, are that the
institution or consortium has, as of the date of the submission of a
request under subsection (a) by such institution or consortium--
``(1) physical and technical capacity for research,
development, implementation, and demonstration of advanced and
continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing;
``(2) manufacturing knowledge-sharing networks with other
institutions of higher education, large and small
pharmaceutical manufacturers, generic and nonprescription
manufacturers, contract manufacturers, and other relevant
entities;
``(3) proven capacity to design, develop, implement, and
demonstrate new, highly effective technologies for use in
advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing;
``(4) a track record for creating, preserving, and
transferring knowledge with respect to advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing;
``(5) the proven ability to facilitate training of an
adequate future workforce for research on, and implementation
of, advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing; and
``(6) experience in participating in and leading advanced
and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing technology
partnerships with other institutions of higher education, large
and small pharmaceutical manufacturers, generic and
nonprescription manufacturers, contract manufacturers, and
other relevant entities--
``(A) to support companies seeking to implement
advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing in
the United States;
``(B) to support Federal agencies with technical
assistance and employee training, which may include
regulatory and quality metric guidance as applicable,
and hands-on training, for advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing;
``(C) with respect to advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing, to organize and conduct
research and development activities needed to create
new and more effective technology, develop and share
knowledge, create intellectual property, and maintain
technological leadership;
``(D) to develop best practices for designing and
implementing advanced and continuous pharmaceutical
manufacturing processes; and
``(E) to assess and respond to the national
workforce needs for advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing, including the development
and implementing of training programs.
``(d) Termination of Designation.--The Secretary may terminate the
designation of any National Center of Excellence designated under this
section if the Secretary determines such National Center of Excellence
no longer meets the criteria specified in subsection (c). Not later
than 90 days before the effective date of such a termination, the
Secretary shall provide written notice to the National Center of
Excellence, including the rationale for such termination.
``(e) Conditions for Designation.--As a condition of designation as
a National Center of Excellence under this section, the Secretary shall
require that an institution of higher education or consortium of
institutions of higher education enter into an agreement with the
Secretary under which the institution or consortium agrees--
``(1) to collaborate directly with the Food and Drug
Administration to publish the reports required by subsection
(g);
``(2) to share data with the Food and Drug Administration
regarding best practices and research generated through the
funding under subsection (f);
``(3) to develop, along with industry partners (which may
include large and small biopharmaceutical manufacturers,
generic and nonprescription manufacturers, and contract
research organizations or contract manufacturers that carry out
drug development and manufacturing activities) and another
institution or consortium designated under this section, if
any, a roadmap for developing an advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing workforce;
``(4) to develop, along with industry partners and other
institutions or consortia of such institutions designated under
this section, a roadmap for strengthening existing, and
developing new, relationships with other institutions of higher
education or consortia thereof; and
``(5) to provide an annual report to the Food and Drug
Administration regarding the institution's or consortium's
activities under this section, including a description of how
the institution or consortium continues to meet and make
progress on the criteria specified in subsection (c).
``(f) Funding.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall award funding,
through grants, contracts, or cooperative agreements, to the
National Centers of Excellence designated under this section
for the purpose of studying and recommending improvements to
advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing, including
such improvements as may enable the Centers--
``(A) to continue to meet the conditions specified
in subsection (e);
``(B) to expand capacity for research on, and
development of, advanced and continuous pharmaceutical
manufacturing; and
``(C) to implement research infrastructure in
advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing
suitable for accelerating the development of drug
products needed to respond to emerging medical threats,
such as emerging drug shortages, quality issues
disrupting the supply chain, epidemics and pandemics,
and other such situations requiring the rapid
development of new products or new manufacturing
processes.
``(2) Consistency with fda mission.--As a condition on
receipt of funding under this subsection, a National Center of
Excellence shall agree to consider any input from the Secretary
regarding the use of funding that would--
``(A) help to further the advancement of advanced
and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing through the
National Center of Excellence; and
``(B) be relevant to the mission of the Food and
Drug Administration.
``(3) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this section shall
be construed as precluding a National Center for Excellence
designated under this section from receiving funds under any
other provision of this Act or any other Federal law.
``(g) Annual Review and Reports.--
``(1) Annual report.--Beginning not later than one year
after the date on which the first designation is made under
subsection (a), and annually thereafter, the Secretary shall--
``(A) submit to Congress a report describing the
activities, partnerships and collaborations, Federal
policy recommendations, previous and continuing
funding, and findings of, and any other applicable
information from, the National Centers of Excellence
designated under this section;
``(B) include in such report an accounting of the
Federal administrative expenses described in subsection
(i)(2) over the reporting period; and
``(C) make such report available to the public in
an easily accessible electronic format on the website
of the Food and Drug Administration.
``(2) Review of national centers of excellence and
potential designees.--The Secretary shall periodically review
the National Centers of Excellence designated under this
section to ensure that such National Centers of Excellence
continue to meet the criteria for designation under this
section.
``(3) Report on long-term vision of fda role.--Not later
than 2 years after the date on which the first designation is
made under subsection (a), the Secretary, in consultation with
the National Centers of Excellence designated under this
section, shall submit a report to the Congress on the long-term
vision of the Department of Health and Human Services on the
role of the Food and Drug Administration in supporting advanced
and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing, including--
``(A) a national framework of principles related to
the implementation and regulation of advanced and
continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing;
``(B) a plan for the development of Federal
regulations and guidance for how advanced and
continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing can be
incorporated into the development of pharmaceuticals
and regulatory responsibilities of the Food and Drug
Administration;
``(C) a plan for development of Federal regulations
or guidance for how advanced and continuous
pharmaceutical manufacturing will be reviewed by the
Food and Drug Administration; and
``(D) appropriate feedback solicited from the
public, which may include other institutions of higher
education, large and small biopharmaceutical
manufacturers, generic and nonprescription
manufacturers, and contract manufacturers.
``(h) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Advanced.--The term `advanced', with respect to
pharmaceutical manufacturing, refers to an approach that
incorporates novel technology, or uses an established technique
or technology in a new or innovative way, that enhances drug
quality or improves the performance of a manufacturing process.
``(2) Continuous.--The term `continuous', with respect to
pharmaceutical manufacturing, refers to a process--
``(A) where the input materials are continuously
fed into and transformed within the process, and the
processed output materials are continuously removed
from the system; and
``(B) that consists of an integrated process that
consists of a series of two or more simultaneous unit
operations.
``(3) Institution of higher education.--The term
`institution of higher education' has the meaning given such
term in section 101(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1001(a)).
``(4) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' means the Secretary
of Health and Human Services, acting through the Commissioner
of Food and Drugs.
``(i) Authorization of Appropriations.--
``(1) In general.--There is authorized to be appropriated
to carry out this section $100,000,000 for the period of fiscal
years 2022 through 2026.
``(2) Federal administrative expenses.--Of the amounts made
available to carry out this section for a fiscal year, the
Secretary shall not use more than eight percent for Federal
administrative expenses, including training, technical
assistance, reporting, and evaluation.''.
(b) Transition Rule.--Section 3016 of the 21st Century Cures Act
(21 U.S.C. 399h), as in effect on the day before the date of the
enactment of this section, shall apply with respect to grants awarded
under such section before such date of enactment.
(c) Clerical Amendment.--The item relating to section 3016 in the
table of contents in section 1(b) of the 21st Century Cures Act (Public
Law 114-255) is amended to read as follows:
``Sec. 3016. National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous
Pharmaceutical Manufacturing.''.
Passed the House of Representatives October 19, 2021.
Attest:
CHERYL L. JOHNSON,
Clerk. | National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021 | To amend the 21st Century Cures Act to provide for designation of institutions of higher education that provide research, data, and leadership on advanced and continuous pharmaceutical manufacturing as National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and for other purposes.
To amend the 21st Century Cures Act to provide for designation of institutions of higher education that provide research, data, and leadership on continuous manufacturing as National Centers of Excellence in Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and for other purposes. | National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021
National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021
National Centers of Excellence in Advanced and Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021
National Centers of Excellence in Continuous Pharmaceutical Manufacturing Act of 2021 | Rep. Pallone, Frank, Jr. | D | NJ |
552 | 3,934 | S.3587 | Science, Technology, Communications | Connect Unserved Americans Act of 2022
This bill modifies administration of and requirements for broadband deployment programs.
Specifically, it requires the Department of the Treasury to participate in interagency activities to coordinate federally supported broadband deployment.
The bill also increases the percentage (from 50% to 80%) of rural households that a project must serve in order to receive a grant or a loan to expand access to broadband for distance learning and telemedicine in rural areas. | To modify conditions of funding for the distance learning,
telemedicine, and broadband program of the Rural Utilities Service, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Connect Unserved Americans Act of
2022''.
SEC. 2. DISTANCE LEARNING, TELEMEDICINE, AND BROADBAND PROGRAM.
The Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (Public Law 117-58) is
amended in the third proviso under the heading ``distance learning,
telemedicine, and broadband program'' under the heading ``Rural
Utilities Service'' under the heading ``RURAL DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS''
under the heading ``DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE'' in title I of division
J by striking ``50 percent'' and inserting ``80 percent''.
SEC. 3. COORDINATION WITH TREASURY DEPARTMENT ON DISTRIBUTION OF
BROADBAND DEPLOYMENT FUNDS.
(a) In General.--Section 904(b) of division FF of the Consolidated
Appropriations Act, 2021 (47 U.S.C. 1308(b)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)(A)--
(A) in clause (ii), by striking ``and'' at the end;
and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(iv) the Department of the Treasury;
and''; and
(2) in paragraph (2)--
(A) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``and'' at the
end;
(B) in subparagraph (C), by striking the period at
the end and inserting ``; and''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(D) the programs administered by the Department
of the Treasury.''.
(b) Deadline.--Not later than 30 days after the date of enactment
of this Act, the covered agencies (as defined in section 904(b) of
division FF of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (47 U.S.C.
1308(b)), as amended by subsection (a) of this section) shall implement
the amendments made by subsection (a) of this section.
<all> | Connect Unserved Americans Act of 2022 | A bill to modify conditions of funding for the distance learning, telemedicine, and broadband program of the Rural Utilities Service, and for other purposes. | Connect Unserved Americans Act of 2022 | Sen. Thune, John | R | SD |
553 | 10,180 | H.R.3842 | Commerce | MicroCap Small Business Investing Act of 2021
This bill authorizes the Small Business Administration (SBA) to issue up to ten Small Business Investment Company (SBIC) licenses each year to certain applicants. An SBIC is a privately owned company, licensed and regulated by the SBA, which invests in small businesses through debt and equity.
A license issued under the bill must be awarded to an applicant
The SBA must prioritize applicants that are located in states with fewer licenses and establish a streamlined application process for those licenses. | To establish a MicroCap small business investment company designation,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``MicroCap Small Business Investing
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. MICROCAP SMALL BUSINESS INVESTMENT COMPANY DESIGNATION.
(a) In General.--Title III of the Small Business Investment Act of
1958 (15 U.S.C. 681 et seq.) is amended--
(1) in section 301(c) (15 U.S.C. 681(c)), by adding at the
end the following:
``(5) Microcap small business investment company license.--
``(A) In general.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, the Administrator may approve an
application and issue not more than 10 licenses
annually under this subsection with respect to any
applicant--
``(i) that would otherwise be issued a
license under this subsection, except that the
management of the applicant does not satisfy
the qualification requirements under paragraph
(3)(A)(ii) to the extent that such requirements
relate to investment experience and track
record, including any such requirements further
set forth in section 107.305 of title 13, Code
of Federal Regulations, or any successor
regulation;
``(ii) for which the fund managers have--
``(I) a documented record of
successful business experience;
``(II) a record of business
management success; or
``(III) knowledge in the particular
industry or business in which the
investment strategy is being pursued;
and
``(iii) that, in addition to any other
requirement applicable to the applicant under
this title or the rules issued to carry out
this title (including section 121.301(c)(2) of
title 13, Code of Federal Regulations, or any
successor regulation), will make not less than
25 percent of its investments in--
``(I) low-income communities, as
that term is defined in section 45D(e)
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;
``(II) a community that has been
designated as a qualified opportunity
zone under section 1400Z-1 of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986;
``(III) businesses primarily
engaged in research and development;
``(IV) manufacturers;
``(V) businesses primarily owned or
controlled by individuals in
underserved communities before
receiving capital from the applicant;
and
``(VI) rural areas, as that term is
defined by the Bureau of the Census.
``(B) Priority; streamlined process.--With respect
to an application for a license pursuant to this
paragraph, the Administrator shall--
``(i) give priority to an applicant for
such a license that is located in an
underlicensed State; and
``(ii) establish a streamlined process for
applicants submitting such an application.
``(C) Timing for issuance of license.--
Notwithstanding paragraph (2), with respect to an
application for a license submitted to the
Administrator pursuant to this paragraph, the
Administrator shall--
``(i) not later than 60 days after the date
on which the application is submitted to the
Administrator, process and provide complete
feedback with respect to any pre-license
application requirements applicable to the
applicant;
``(ii) not restrict the submission of any
application materials; and
``(iii) not later than 90 days after the
date on which the application is submitted to
the Administrator--
``(I) approve the application and
issue a license for such operation to
the applicant, if the requirements for
the license are satisfied; or
``(II) based upon facts in the
record--
``(aa) disapprove the
application; and
``(bb) provide the
applicant with--
``(AA) a clear,
written explanation of
the reason for the
disapproval; and
``(BB) a chance to
remedy any issues with
the application and
immediately reapply,
with technical
assistance provided as
needed and a new
determination made by
the Administrator not
later than 30 days
after the date on which
the applicant re-
submits the
application.
``(D) Leverage.--A company licensed pursuant to
this paragraph shall--
``(i) not be eligible to receive leverage
in an amount that is more than $25,000,000; and
``(ii) access leverage in an amount that is
not more than 100 percent of the private
capital of the applicant.
``(E) Investment committee.--
``(i) In general.--Each company licensed
pursuant to this paragraph shall have not fewer
than 2 independent members on the investment
committee of the company in a manner that
complies with the following requirements:
``(I) The independent members of
the investment committee are or have
been licensed managers of small
business investment companies within
the preceding 10-year period.
``(II) No small business investment
company described in subclause (I) may
adversely affected by the relationship
of the independent members of the
investment committee with the company
licensed pursuant to this paragraph.
``(III) The independent members of
the investment committee are required
to approve each investment made by the
company.
``(IV) The independent members of
the investment committee shall not be
paid a management fee, but may receive
paid expenses and a portion of any
carried interest.
``(ii) Leverage limits.--Any leverage
associated with a company licensed pursuant to
this paragraph shall not be counted toward the
leverage limits of the independent members of
the investment committee of the company under
this title.''; and
(2) in section 303(d) (15 U.S.C. 683(d)), by inserting
``(or, with respect to a company licensed under section
301(c)(5), 50 percent)'' after ``25 percent''.
(b) SBA Requirements.--
(1) Definitions.--In this subsection--
(A) the term ``Administrator'' means the
Administrator of the Small Business Administration; and
(B) the term ``covered company'' means an entity
that is licensed to operate as a small business
investment company pursuant to paragraph (5) of section
301(c) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15
U.S.C. 681(c)), as added by subsection (a).
(2) Rules.--Not later than 90 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Administrator shall issue rules to
carry out this section and the amendments made by this section.
(3) Annual report.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, and annually thereafter, the
Administrator shall publicly publish a report that details, for
the year covered by the report--
(A) the number of covered companies licensed by the
Administrator;
(B) the industries in which covered companies have
invested;
(C) the geographic locations of covered companies;
and
(D) the aggregate performance of covered companies.
<all> | MicroCap Small Business Investing Act of 2021 | To establish a MicroCap small business investment company designation, and for other purposes. | MicroCap Small Business Investing Act of 2021 | Rep. Neguse, Joe | D | CO |
554 | 1,690 | S.2842 | Armed Forces and National Security | Respecting Our Servicemembers Act
This bill prohibits the Department of Defense from requiring a member of the Armed Forces to receive a COVID-19 vaccine. | To amend title 10, United States Code, to prohibit the Secretary of
Defense from requiring that members of the Armed Forces receive a
COVID-19 vaccine, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Respecting Our Servicemembers Act''.
SEC. 2. PROHIBITION ON COVID-19 VACCINATION REQUIREMENTS FOR MEMBERS OF
THE ARMED FORCES.
(a) In General.--Chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code, is
amended by inserting after section 1110b the following new section:
``Sec. 1110c. Prohibition on COVID-19 vaccination requirement
``(a) In General.--The Secretary of Defense may not require any
member of an Armed Force to receive a vaccine with respect to the
Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19).
``(b) Member of an Armed Force Defined.--In this section the term
`member of an Armed Force' means a member of the Army, Navy, Air Force,
Marine Corps, Coast Guard, or Space Force, including any member of a
reserve component thereof on active service or active status.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of sections at the beginning of
chapter 55 of such title is amended by inserting after the item
relating to section 1110b the following new item:
``1110c. Prohibition on COVID-19 vaccination requirement.''.
<all> | Respecting Our Servicemembers Act | A bill to amend title 10, United States Code, to prohibit the Secretary of Defense from requiring that members of the Armed Forces receive a COVID-19 vaccine, and for other purposes. | Respecting Our Servicemembers Act | Sen. Lee, Mike | R | UT |
555 | 11,446 | H.R.9514 | Taxation | Working Families Childcare Access Act of 2022 or the WFCA Act of 2022
This bill allows certain additional expenses to be paid from a dependent care flexible spending arrangement (FSA), specifically qualified sports, tutoring, and music or art expenses. It also increases the eligibility age for dependent care benefits to 15, allows a carryforward of unused benefits to the next plan year, and increases to $15,000 the maximum amount of dependent care benefits excludible from employee gross income. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to allow for the inclusion
of additional expenses in dependent care FSAs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Working Families Childcare Access
Act of 2022'' or the ``WFCA Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. ADDITIONAL EXPENSES INCLUDED IN DEPENDENT CARE ASSISTANCE
PROGRAMS.
(a) In General.--Section 129(e) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking ``or provision of,
those'' and inserting ``or provision of, qualified adoption
expenses (within the meaning of section 137(d)), qualified
sports expenses, qualified tutoring expenses, qualifying art
expenses, or those'', and
(2) by adding at the end the following new paragraphs:
``(10) Qualified sports expenses.--The term `qualified
sports expenses' means expenses paid or incurred for the
participation or instruction of a dependent in a program of
physical exercise or physical activity.
``(11) Qualified tutoring expenses.--The term `qualified
tutoring expenses' means expenses paid or incurred for the
participation or instruction of a dependent in virtual or in-
person--
``(A) individual academic tutoring, or
``(B) small-group academic tutoring in a group of
four students or fewer.
``(12) Qualified art expenses.--The term `qualified art
expenses' means expenses paid or incurred for the participation
or instruction of a dependent in a program of music or art.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021.
SEC. 3. DEPENDENT CARE EXPENSES ALLOWED FOR CHILDREN AND DEPENDENTS UP
TO AGE 15.
(a) In General.--Section 129(e)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986, as amended by section 1, is amended--
(1) by striking ``or provision of, qualified adoption
expenses'' and inserting ``or provision of, with respect to a
qualifying individual, qualified adoption expenses'',
(2) by striking ``The term'' and inserting the following:
``(A) In general.--The term'', and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(B) Special rule.--For purposes of subparagraph
(A), the term `qualifying individual' has the meaning
given in paragraph (1) of section 21(b), except such
paragraph shall be applied by substituting `age 15' for
`age 13'.''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2022.
SEC. 4. CARRY FORWARD OF UNUSED BENEFITS.
(a) In General.--Section 129(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 is amended by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(10) Benefit carry forward rules.--
``(A) In general.--A plan meets the requirements of
this paragraph if it provides for the automatic carry
forward from the close of a plan year to the succeeding
plan year of any aggregate unused contributions
totaling $20 or greater.
``(B) Small balances.--For purposes of subparagraph
(A), if an eligible employee carries a balance of less
than $20 at the end of a plan year, such employee may
elect to carry forward such balance to the next plan
year or, if such employee makes no election, such
balance may be forfeited.
``(C) Exclusion from gross income.--No amount shall
be included in gross income under this chapter by
reason of any carry forward under this paragraph.
``(D) Coordination limits.--The maximum amount
which may be contributed to a dependent care assistance
flexible spending arrangement for any year to which an
unused amount is carried under this paragraph shall not
be reduced by such unused amount.''.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--Section 125(d)(2) of such Code is
amended by adding at the end the following new subparagraph:
``(E) Exception for dependent care assistance
flexible spending arrangements.--Subparagraph (A) shall
not apply to a dependent care assistance flexible
spending arrangement which conforms to the benefit
carry forward rules of section 129(d)(10).''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall apply
to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2022.
SEC. 5. INCREASE OF BENEFITS FOR DEPENDENT CARE ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS.
(a) In General.--Section 129(a)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code
of 1986 is amended by striking ``$5,000 ($2,500'' and inserting
``$15,000 ($7,500''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendment made by this section shall apply
to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2022.
<all> | WFCA Act of 2022 | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to allow for the inclusion of additional expenses in dependent care FSAs, and for other purposes. | WFCA Act of 2022
Working Families Childcare Access Act of 2022 | Rep. Miller, Carol D. | R | WV |
556 | 10,610 | H.R.5254 | Taxation | Supporting Early-childhood Educators' Deductions Act or the SEED Act
This bill expands the tax deduction for the expenses of elementary and secondary school teachers to include early childhood educators. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to allow early childhood
educators to take the educator expense deduction, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Supporting Early-childhood
Educators' Deductions Act'' or the ``SEED Act''.
SEC. 2. EDUCATOR EXPENSE DEDUCTION TO INCLUDE EARLY CHILDHOOD
EDUCATORS.
(a) In General.--Section 62 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is
amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(2)(D), by striking the heading and
inserting ``Certain expenses of early childhood, elementary,
and secondary school teachers.'';
(2) in subsection (d)(1)(A), by striking ``kindergarten
through grade 12 teacher'' and inserting, ``early childhood
educator, kindergarten through grade 12 teacher''; and
(3) in subsection (d)(1)(B), by striking ``elementary
education or secondary education (kindergarten through grade
12)'' and inserting, ``early childhood education, elementary
education, or secondary education (pre-kindergarten through
grade 12)''.
(b) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to expenses incurred in taxable years beginning after December
31, 2020.
<all> | SEED Act | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to allow early childhood educators to take the educator expense deduction, and for other purposes. | SEED Act
Supporting Early-childhood Educators’ Deductions Act | Rep. Lamb, Conor | D | PA |
557 | 12,317 | H.R.3801 | Commerce | Showing How Isolationism Effects [sic] Long-term Development Act or the SHIELD Act
This bill requires the Department of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) to study and report on electronic commerce, including data sharing and data flow, and its impact on the U.S. economy.
Such study shall involve a review of (1) the economic benefit of the free transfer of data, (2) the impact of digital trade barriers on the U.S. economy and business development, and (3) the beneficial impacts of data agreements on commerce. Commerce and the FTC must also establish and maintain a compendium of data localization regulations.
Commerce and the FTC must report to Congress the results of such study and any recommendations to promote U.S. economic activity through electronic commerce. | To require the Secretary of Commerce and Federal Trade Commission to
conduct an assessment and analysis of regulations regarding data
localization and to establish a compendium of such laws and develop a
means for maintaining, tracking, and updating such compendium.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Showing How Isolationism Effects
Long-term Development Act'' or the ``SHIELD Act''.
SEC. 2. DATA LOCALIZATION COMPENDIUM.
(a) In General.--Not later than 2 years after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Secretary of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission
shall jointly conduct a study on electronic commerce, including data
sharing and data flow, and its impact on the United States economy.
(b) Requirements for Study.--In conducting the study, the Secretary
and the Commission shall survey electronic commerce, including data
sharing and data flow, through outreach to participating entities to--
(1) review and determine the economic benefit of the free
transfer of data;
(2) review and determine the impact digital trade barriers
(limited to non-tariff trade barriers) have on the United
States economy and business development; and
(3) review any data agreement to determine the benefits
such agreements have on commerce.
(c) Compendium.--The Secretary and Commission shall establish a
compendium of data localization regulations (such as regulations
requiring that any data maintained about an individual be maintained
where such individual resides and where such information was collected)
and develop a means for maintaining, tracking, and updating such
compendium. The Secretary and Commission shall update such compendium
as appropriate, but not less than annually.
(d) Report to Congress.--The Secretary and the Commission shall
transmit to the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate a report that contains--
(1) the results of the study conducted under subsection
(a); and
(2) recommendations to develop any legislation to promote
United States economic activity through electronic commerce,
including data sharing and data flows, and any related consumer
protection issues.
<all> | SHIELD Act | To require the Secretary of Commerce and Federal Trade Commission to conduct an assessment and analysis of regulations regarding data localization and to establish a compendium of such laws and develop a means for maintaining, tracking, and updating such compendium. | SHIELD Act
Showing How Isolationism Effects Long-term Development Act | Rep. Upton, Fred | R | MI |
558 | 13,974 | H.R.9289 | Taxation | Affordable Electric Vehicles for America Act of 2022
This bill extends until after 2025 the requirement that final assembly of vehicles occur within North America for purposes of the clean vehicle tax credit. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to temporarily suspend
application of the requirement that final assembly of vehicles occur
within North America for purposes of the clean vehicle credit, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Affordable Electric Vehicles for
America Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. ADJUSTMENT OF CERTAIN REQUIREMENTS FOR CLEAN VEHICLE CREDIT.
(a) Final Assembly.--Subparagraph (G) of section 30D(d)(1) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as added by section 13401(b) of Public
Law 117-169, is amended by inserting ``in the case of any motor vehicle
sold after December 31, 2025,'' before ``the final assembly''.
(b) Critical Minerals and Battery Components.--Section 30D of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended by section 13401 of Public
Law 117-169, is amended--
(1) in subsection (d)(7)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``December 31,
2024'' and inserting ``December 31, 2025'', and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``December 31,
2023'' and inserting ``December 31, 2024'', and
(2) in subsection (e)--
(A) in paragraph (1)(B)--
(i) in clause (i), by striking ``after the
date on which the proposed guidance described
in paragraph (3)(B) is issued by the Secretary
and before January 1, 2024'' and inserting
``during calendar year 2026'',
(ii) in clause (ii), by striking ``2024''
and inserting ``2027'',
(iii) in clause (iii), by striking ``2025''
and inserting ``2028'',
(iv) in clause (iv), by striking ``2026''
and inserting ``2029'', and
(v) in clause (v), by striking ``December
31, 2026'' and inserting ``December 31, 2029'',
(B) in paragraph (2)(B)--
(i) in clause (i), by striking ``after the
date on which the proposed guidance described
in paragraph (3)(B) is issued by the Secretary
and before January 1, 2024'' and inserting
``during calendar year 2026'',
(ii) in clause (ii), by striking ``2024 or
2025'' and inserting ``2027 or 2028'',
(iii) in clause (iii), by striking ``2026''
and inserting ``2029'',
(iv) in clause (iv), by striking ``2027''
and inserting ``2030'',
(v) in clause (v), by striking ``2028'' and
inserting ``2031'', and
(vi) in clause (vi), by striking ``December
31, 2028'' and inserting ``December 31, 2031'',
and
(C) in paragraph (3)(B), by striking ``December 31,
2022'' and inserting ``December 31, 2025''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall take
effect as if included in the enactment of section 13401 of Public Law
117-169.
<all> | Affordable Electric Vehicles for America Act of 2022 | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to temporarily suspend application of the requirement that final assembly of vehicles occur within North America for purposes of the clean vehicle credit, and for other purposes. | Affordable Electric Vehicles for America Act of 2022 | Rep. Sewell, Terri A. | D | AL |
559 | 10,075 | H.R.5650 | Government Operations and Politics | This act designates the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills, Arizona, as the Dr. C.T. Wright Post Office Building. | [117th Congress Public Law 279]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
Public Law 117-279
117th Congress
An Act
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at
16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills, Arizona, as the
``Dr. C.T. Wright Post Office Building''. <<NOTE: Dec. 27, 2022 - [H.R.
5650]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. DR. C.T. WRIGHT POST OFFICE BUILDING.
(a) Designation.--The facility of the United States Postal Service
located at 16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills,
Arizona, shall be known and designated as the ``Dr. C.T. Wright Post
Office Building''.
(b) References.--Any reference in a law, map, regulation, document,
paper, or other record of the United States to the facility referred to
in subsection (a) shall be deemed to be a reference to the ``Dr. C.T.
Wright Post Office Building''.
Approved December 27, 2022.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--H.R. 5650:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 168 (2022):
Sept. 13, considered and passed House.
Dec. 19, considered and passed Senate.
<all> | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills, Arizona, as the "Dr. C.T. Wright Post Office Building". | To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills, Arizona, as the "Dr. C.T. Wright Post Office Building". | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To designate the facility of the United States Postal Service located at 16605 East Avenue of the Fountains in Fountain Hills, Arizona, as the "Dr. C.T. Wright Post Office Building". | Rep. Schweikert, David | R | AZ |
560 | 3,211 | S.2437 | Environmental Protection | Expediting Forest Restoration and Recovery Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Agriculture to expedite the environmental review of hazardous fuel or insect and disease risk reduction projects on certain National Forest System land and prioritize reducing the risks of insect infestations and wildfires over other objectives in forest plans. In addition, the bill directs states to retain good neighbor agreement timber sale revenues and use them for certain restoration services. | To amend the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003 to require the
Secretary of Agriculture to expedite hazardous fuel or insect and
disease risk reduction projects on certain National Forest System land,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Expediting Forest Restoration and
Recovery Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. APPLICATION BY FOREST SERVICE OF AUTHORITIES TO EXPEDITE
ENVIRONMENTAL ANALYSES IN CARRYING OUT HAZARDOUS FUEL AND
INSECT AND DISEASE RISK REDUCTION PROJECTS.
Section 104 of the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003 (16
U.S.C. 6514) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(i) Application by Forest Service of Authorities To Expedite
Environmental Analyses in Carrying Out Hazardous Fuel and Insect and
Disease Risk Reduction Projects.--
``(1) Definitions.--In this subsection:
``(A) Insect and disease treatment area.--The term
`insect and disease treatment area' means an area
that--
``(i) is designated by the Secretary as an
insect and disease treatment area under this
title; or
``(ii) is designated as at risk or a hazard
on the most recent National Insect and Disease
Risk Map published by the Forest Service.
``(B) Secretary.--The term `Secretary' has the
meaning given the term in section 101(14)(A).
``(2) Use of authorities.--In carrying out a hazardous fuel
or insect and disease risk reduction project in an insect and
disease treatment area authorized under this Act, the Secretary
shall--
``(A) apply the categorical exclusion established
by section 603 in the case of a hazardous fuel or
insect and disease risk reduction project carried out
in an area--
``(i) designated as suitable for timber
production within the applicable forest plan;
or
``(ii) where timber harvest activities are
not prohibited;
``(B) conduct applicable environmental assessments
and environmental impact statements in accordance with
this section in the case of a hazardous fuel or insect
and disease risk reduction project--
``(i) carried out in an area--
``(I) outside of an area described
in subparagraph (A); or
``(II) where other significant
resource concerns exist, as determined
exclusively by the Secretary; or
``(ii) that is carried out in an area
equivalent to not less than a hydrologic unit
code 5 watershed, as defined by the United
States Geological Survey; and
``(C) notwithstanding subsection (d), in the case
of any other hazardous fuel or insect and disease
reduction project, in the environmental assessment or
environmental impact statement prepared under
subsection (b), study, develop, and describe--
``(i) the proposed agency action; and
``(ii) the alternative of no action.
``(3) Priority for reducing risks of insect infestation and
wildfire.--Except where established as a mandatory standard
that constrains project and activity decision making in a
resource management plan (as defined in section 101(13)(A)) in
effect on the date of enactment of this Act, in the case of an
insect and disease treatment area, the Secretary shall
prioritize reducing the risks of insect and disease infestation
and wildfire over other planning objectives.
``(4) Inclusion of fire regime groups iv and v.--
Notwithstanding section 603(c)(2)(B), the Secretary shall apply
the categorical exclusion described in paragraph (2)(A) to
areas in Fire Regime Groups IV and V.
``(5) Excluded areas.--This subsection shall not apply to--
``(A) a component of the National Wilderness
Preservation System; or
``(B) an inventoried roadless area, except in the
case of an activity that is permitted under--
``(i) the final rule of the Secretary
entitled `Special Areas; Roadless Area
Conservation' (66 Fed. Reg. 3244 (January 12,
2001)); or
``(ii) a State-specific roadless area
conservation rule.
``(6) Reports.--The Secretary shall annually make publicly
available data describing the acreage treated under hazardous
fuel or insect and disease risk reduction projects in insect
and disease treatment areas during the previous year.''.
SEC. 3. GOOD NEIGHBOR AUTHORITY.
Section 8206(b)(2) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (16 U.S.C.
2113a(b)(2)) is amended by striking subparagraph (C) and inserting the
following:
``(C) Treatment of revenue.--Funds received from
the sale of timber by a Governor of a State under a
good neighbor agreement shall be retained and used by
the Governor--
``(i) to carry out authorized restoration
services under that good neighbor agreement;
and
``(ii) if funds remain after carrying out
authorized restoration services under clause
(i), to carry out authorized restoration
services within the State under other good
neighbor agreements.''.
<all> | Expediting Forest Restoration and Recovery Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003 to require the Secretary of Agriculture to expedite hazardous fuel or insect and disease risk reduction projects on certain National Forest System land, and for other purposes. | Expediting Forest Restoration and Recovery Act of 2021 | Sen. Thune, John | R | SD |
561 | 14,322 | H.R.570 | Energy | Offshore Accountability Act of 2021
This bill establishes disclosure and reporting requirements for operators of offshore oil or gas facilities after equipment failures of critical systems.
Such operators must notify the Department of the Interior and the manufacturers of the equipment of such failures. In addition, the operators must provide equipment failure analyses to Interior and the manufacturers. Interior must post the analyses on its website.
Finally, operators must report to Interior on changes made by such manufacturers to the design of critical systems as the result of reported failures and changes in the operators' procedures as a result of reported failures. | To require operators of offshore oil and gas facilities to report
failures of critical systems to the Secretary of the Interior, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be referred to as the ``Offshore Accountability Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. REPORTING REQUIREMENT.
(a) In General.--Not more than 30 days after the discovery of an
equipment failure of a critical system operated at an offshore oil or
gas facility, the operator of such facility shall provide a written
notice of such failure to the Secretary and the manufacturer of such
equipment.
(b) Investigation.--
(1) Analysis report.--Subject to subsection (d), an
operator required to provide notice to the Secretary under
subsection (a) shall ensure that an investigation and an
equipment failure analysis are completed within 120 days of the
failure to determine the cause of such failure. The operator
shall provide an analysis report to the Secretary and to the
manufacturer of such equipment documenting such investigation
and any corrective action taken.
(2) Publication.--Not more than 30 days after receiving an
analysis report submitted under paragraph (1), the Secretary
shall make such analysis report available to the public on the
Department of the Interior website.
(c) Extension.--An operator required to provide an analysis report
under subsection (b) may request an extension of up to 60 days from the
Secretary for such requirement by submitting a written request
detailing how such operator will complete the investigation and report
required by subsection (b). The Secretary shall review and respond to
such request not later than 30 days after the date on which such
request is submitted, and may not grant more than one such extension
with respect to a single investigation and report.
(d) Notice of Change in Equipment or Procedures.--An operator
required to provide a notice under subsection (a) shall--
(1) not more than 30 days after receiving notice from a
manufacturer of any critical system that made changes in the
design of a critical system as the result of the reported
failure, report in writing such notice to the Secretary; and
(2) not more than 30 days after a change in such operator's
operating or repair procedures as a result of the reported
failure, report in writing such change to the Secretary.
(e) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Blowout preventer system.--The term ``blowout preventer
system'' means a wellhead device or combination of devices that
is specifically designed to prevent the uncontrolled release of
gas, oil, or other fluids or hydrocarbons.
(2) Critical system.--The term ``critical system'' means
safety and pollution prevention equipment or a blowout
preventer system.
(3) Equipment failure.--The term ``equipment failure''
means any conditions that prevents equipment from meeting its
functional specifications or purpose.
(4) Operator.--The term ``operator'' means the operator of
an offshore oil or gas facility.
(5) Safety and pollution prevention equipment.--The term
``safety and pollution prevention system'' means any equipment
that is specifically designed to prevent a malfunction or
failure of an offshore well, resulting in injury or loss of
life, damage to the environment, or serious damage to the
equipment, including--
(A) surface safety valves and actuators;
(B) boarding shutdown valves and the actuators of
such valves;
(C) underwater safety valves and actuators;
(D) subsurface safety valves and associated safety
valve locks and landing nipples; and
(E) gas lift shutdown valves and actuators
associated with such valves.
(6) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of the Interior.
Union Calendar No. 403
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
H. R. 570
[Report No. 117-562]
_______________________________________________________________________ | Offshore Accountability Act of 2021 | To require operators of offshore oil and gas facilities to report failures of critical systems to the Secretary of the Interior, and for other purposes. | Offshore Accountability Act of 2021
Offshore Accountability Act of 2021 | Rep. McEachin, A. Donald | D | VA |
562 | 4,268 | S.3631 | Congress | Bipartisan Ban on Congressional Stock Ownership Act of 2022
This bill prohibits Members of Congress and their spouses from owning or trading stocks, bonds, commodities, futures, or any other form of security. Each current Member must divest within 180 days after the bill is enacted and each new Member must divest within 180 days after becoming a Member. However, Members and their spouses have 5 years to divest from specified complex investment vehicles. The bill does not apply to certain investments, such as investments in widely held investment funds that are diversified and do not present a conflict of interest and investments held in government employee retirement plans.
A Member or spouse who violates the bill may be subject to a fine of up to $50,000 for each violation. The bill permits a Member or spouse who is required to divest property under the bill to avoid recognizing gain for income tax purposes from the sale of that property to the extent that the Member or spouse purchases permitted bonds or diversified investment funds within 60 days of the divestiture. | To prohibit stock trading and ownership by Members of Congress and
spouses of Members of Congress, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Bipartisan Ban on Congressional
Stock Ownership Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. BAR ON STOCK TRADING AND OWNERSHIP BY MEMBERS OF CONGRESS AND
SPOUSES.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Commodity.--The term ``commodity'' has the meaning
given that term in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7
U.S.C. 1a).
(2) Congressional ethics committee.--The term
``congressional ethics committee'' has the meaning given that
term in section 109 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (5
U.S.C. App.).
(3) Diversified.--The term ``diversified'', with respect to
an investment fund, means that the investment fund does not
have a stated policy of overly concentrating its investments.
(4) Member of congress.--The term ``Member of Congress''
has the meaning given that term in section 109 of the Ethics in
Government Act of 1978 (5 U.S.C. App.).
(5) Security.--The term ``security'' has the meaning given
that term in section 3(a) of Securities Exchange Act of 1934
(15 U.S.C. 78c(a)).
(6) Small business concern.--The term ``small business
concern'' has the meaning given that term under section 3 of
the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632).
(7) Widely held investment fund.--The term ``widely held
investment fund'' means a widely held investment fund described
in section 102(f)(8) of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (5
U.S.C. App.).
(b) Divestment.--
(1) In general.--Except as provided in subsection (c), no
Member of Congress or spouse of a Member of Congress may own an
interest in or trade (except as a divestment) any stock, bond,
commodity, future, or other form of security, including an
interest in a hedge fund, a derivative, option, or other
complex investment vehicle.
(2) Implementation.--
(A) Current members.--
(i) In general.--Except as provided in
clause (ii), an individual who is a Member of
Congress on the date of enactment of this Act,
or the spouse of such an individual, shall
complete the divestment of any asset described
in paragraph (1) by not later than 180 days
after the date of enactment of this Act.
(ii) Certain assets.--For an asset
described in paragraph (1) that is an interest
in a hedge fund, venture capital fund, or other
privately-held complex investment vehicle, an
individual who is a Member of Congress on the
date of enactment of this Act, or the spouse of
such an individual, shall complete the
divestment of the asset by not later than 5
years after the date of enactment of this Act.
(B) New members.--
(i) In general.--Except as provided in
clause (ii), an individual who becomes a Member
of Congress after the date of enactment of this
Act, or who is the spouse of such an
individual, shall complete the divestment of
any asset described in paragraph (1) by not
later than 180 days after the date on which the
individual becomes a Member of Congress.
(ii) Certain assets.--For an asset
described in paragraph (1) that is an interest
in a hedge fund, venture capital fund, or other
privately-held complex investment vehicle, an
individual who becomes a Member of Congress
after the date of enactment of this Act, or who
is the spouse of such an individual, shall
complete the divestment of the asset by not
later than 5 years after the date on which the
individual becomes a Member of Congress.
(C) Divestment of assets received while a member.--
An individual serving as a Member of Congress, or the
spouse of such an individual, who receives any asset
described in paragraph (1) during the period of such
service, such as from an inheritance, shall complete
the divestment of the asset by not later than 180 days
after the date on which the individual or spouse
receives the asset.
(c) Exceptions.--Nothing in this section shall be construed to
prevent--
(1) a Member of Congress or spouse of a Member of Congress
from owning or trading--
(A) a widely held investment fund, if the widely
held investment fund--
(i) does not present a conflict of
interest; and
(ii) is diversified;
(B) shares of Settlement Common Stock issued under
section 7(g)(1)(A) of the Alaska Native Claims
Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1606(g)(1)(A));
(C) shares of Settlement Common Stock, as defined
in section 3 of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act
(43 U.S.C. 1602);
(D) a United States Treasury bill, note, or bond;
(E) an investment fund held in a Federal, State, or
local government employee retirement plan;
(F) an interest in a small business concern, if the
small business concern does not present a conflict of
interest; or
(G) any asset described in subsection (b)(1)
received as compensation from the primary occupation of
the spouse; or
(2) a spouse of a Member of Congress from trading any asset
described in subsection (b)(1) that is not owned by the spouse
or Member of Congress in the course of performing the primary
occupation of the spouse.
(d) Civil Fines.--The Attorney General or the Special Counsel may
bring a civil action in the appropriate United States district court
against any Member of Congress or spouse of a Member of Congress who
engages in conduct constituting a violation of this section and, upon
proof of such conduct by a preponderance of the evidence, such Member
of Congress or spouse shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more
than $50,000 for each violation. The imposition of a civil penalty
under this subsection does not preclude any other criminal or civil
statutory, common law, or administrative remedy, which is available by
law to the United States or any other person.
(e) Nonrecognition of Gain.--
(1) In general.--Paragraph (1) of section 1043(b) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended--
(A) by striking ``and'' at the end of subparagraph
(A);
(B) by redesignating subparagraph (B) as
subparagraph (C);
(C) by inserting after subparagraph (A) the
following new subparagraph:
``(B) any Member of Congress or Member of Congress-
elect, but only with respect to a divestment of
property required by the Bipartisan Ban on
Congressional Stock Ownership Act of 2022, and''; and
(D) by striking ``subparagraph (A)'' in
subparagraph (C), as so redesignated, and inserting
``subparagraph (A) or (B), whichever is applicable''.
(2) Certificate of divestiture.--Subparagraph (B) of
section 1043(b)(2) of such Code is amended--
(A) by striking ``or by'' and inserting ``by''; and
(B) by inserting ``, or by the applicable
congressional ethics committee, in the case of Members
of Congress, Members of Congress-elect, and spouses of
Members of Congress and Members of Congress-elect''
after ``judicial officers''.
(3) Effective date.--The amendments made by this subsection
shall apply to sales of property after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
(f) Interpretive Guidance.--The Select Committee on Ethics of the
Senate and the Committee on Ethics of the House of Representatives
shall issue interpretive guidance regarding relevant terms not defined
in this Act or elsewhere in statute.
<all> | Bipartisan Ban on Congressional Stock Ownership Act of 2022 | A bill to prohibit stock trading and ownership by Members of Congress and spouses of Members of Congress, and for other purposes. | Bipartisan Ban on Congressional Stock Ownership Act of 2022 | Sen. Warren, Elizabeth | D | MA |
563 | 9,507 | H.R.846 | Labor and Employment | COVID-19 Whistleblower Protection Act
This bill establishes whistleblower protections for government contractors and private sector workers who may witness waste, fraud, or abuse or be victims of misconduct with respect to a COVID-19 (i.e., coronavirus disease 2019) pandemic-related program, project, or activity. Specifically, employers may not discharge, demote, or otherwise discriminate against such protected individuals who disclose information concerning fraud, misuse, or other misconduct related to COVID-19 program funds. A protected individual may submit to the Department of Labor a complaint alleging a violation of these protections and Labor may adjudicate such complaints and award relief in accordance with the Internal Revenue Service whistleblower procedures. | To protect certain whistleblowers seeking to ensure accountability and
oversight of the Nation's COVID-19 pandemic response, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``COVID-19 Whistleblower Protection
Act''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act--
(1) the term ``abuse of authority'' means an arbitrary and
capricious exercise of authority by a contracting officer or
employee that adversely affects the rights of any individual,
or that results in personal gain or advantage to the officer or
employee or to preferred other individuals;
(2) the term ``CARES Act'' means the CARES Act (Public Law
116-136);
(3) the term ``Coronavirus pandemic-related program,
project, or activity''--
(A) means a program, project, or activity of the
executive branch of the Federal Government authorized
under or carried out using amounts made available under
an Act to respond to or to provide aid or assistance to
address, relief from, or funding to address the
outbreak of COVID-19 that is enacted before, on, or
after the date of enactment of this Act; and
(B) includes any program, project, or activity of
the executive branch of the Federal Government
authorized under or carried out using amounts made
available under--
(i) the Paycheck Protection Program and
Health Care Enhancement Act (Public Law 116-
139), or an amendment made by that Act;
(ii) the CARES Act, or an amendment made by
that Act;
(iii) the Families First Coronavirus
Response Act (Public Law 116-127), or an
amendment made by that Act;
(iv) the Coronavirus Preparedness and
Response Supplemental Appropriations Act, 2020
(Public Law 116-123), or an amendment made by
that Act; or
(v) division M or N of the Consolidated
Appropriations Act, 2021(Public Law 116-260),
or an amendment made by that division;
(4) the term ``covered funds'' means any contract,
subcontract, grant, subgrant, loan, loan guarantee, or other
payment for which--
(A) the Federal Government provides any portion of
the funds or property that is provided, requested, or
demanded; and
(B) any portion of the funds are appropriated or
otherwise made available under or to carry out a
Coronavirus pandemic-related program, project, or
activity;
(5) the term ``employee''--
(A) except as provided under subparagraph (B),
means an individual performing services on behalf of an
employer, including any individual working for an
employer under a contract with such employer (including
a contractor, subcontractor, or agent of an employer);
and
(B) does not include any Federal employee or member
of the uniformed services (as that term is defined in
section 101(a)(5) of title 10, United States Code);
(6) the term ``non-Federal employer''--
(A) means any employer--
(i) with respect to covered funds--
(I) the contractor, subcontractor,
grantee, subgrantee, or recipient, as
the case may be, if the contractor,
subcontractor, grantee, subgrantee, or
recipient is an employer; and
(II) any professional membership
organization, certification or other
professional body, any agent or
licensee of the Federal Government, or
any person acting directly or
indirectly in the interest of an
employer receiving covered funds; or
(ii) with respect to covered funds received
by a State or local government, the State or
local government receiving the funds and any
contractor or subcontractor of the State or
local government; and
(B) does not mean any department, agency, or other
entity of the Federal Government;
(7) the term ``protected individual'' means--
(A) an employee of, former employee of, or
individual seeking employment with, any non-Federal
employer receiving covered funds; or
(B) a Federal personal services contractor
receiving covered funds, former such Federal personal
services contractor, or applicant for a Federal
personal services contract involving such funds;
(8) the term ``reprisal'' means an action (or, as
applicable, inaction) that is discharging, demoting,
blacklisting, or acting or failing to take an action in a
manner prejudicial against, or otherwise discriminating against
in any way (including in the hiring process and including by
the threat of any such action or inaction) a protected
individual as described in section 3(a)(1) for a reason
described in subparagraph (A) or (B) of such section; and
(9) the term ``State or local government'' means--
(A) the government of each of the several States,
the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto
Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or any
other territory or possession of the United States; or
(B) the government of any political subdivision of
a government listed in subparagraph (A).
SEC. 3. PROTECTING WHISTLEBLOWERS.
(a) Prohibition of Reprisals.--
(1) In general.--A protected individual may not be
discharged, demoted, blacklisted, prejudiced by any action or
lack of action, or otherwise discriminated against in any way
(including in the hiring process and including by the threat of
any such action or inaction) for--
(A) disclosing, being perceived as disclosing, or
preparing to disclose (including assisting in
disclosing, being perceived as assisting in disclosing,
or preparing to assist in disclosing and including a
disclosure made in the ordinary course of the duties of
the protected individual) to an officer or entity
described in paragraph (2) information that the
protected individual reasonably believes is evidence of
misconduct that violates, obstructs, or undermines any
statute, rule, or regulation with respect to any
Coronavirus pandemic-related program, project, or
activity, including--
(i) gross mismanagement of an agency
contract, subcontract, grant, or subgrant
relating to covered funds;
(ii) a gross waste of covered funds;
(iii) a substantial and specific danger to
public health or safety;
(iv) an abuse of authority related to the
distribution, implementation, or use of covered
funds, including conflict of interest or
partiality; and
(v) a violation of any statute, rule, or
regulation related to an agency contract,
subcontract (including the competition for or
negotiation of a contract or subcontract),
grant, or subgrant, awarded or issued relating
to covered funds; or
(B) refusing to obey an order that the protected
individual reasonably believes would require that
individual to violate a statute, rule, or regulation
with respect to any Coronavirus pandemic-related
program, project, or activity.
(2) Officers and entities.--The officers and entities
described in this paragraph are--
(A) the Pandemic Response Accountability Committee;
(B) an inspector general, including the Special
Inspector General for Pandemic Relief;
(C) the Congressional Oversight Commission;
(D) the Comptroller General of the United States;
(E) a Member of Congress;
(F) a congressional committee;
(G) a State or Federal regulatory or law
enforcement agency;
(H)(i) an individual with supervisory authority
over a protected individual; or
(ii) another individual who--
(I) has authority to investigate, discover,
or terminate misconduct; and
(II) works for the non-Federal employer (in
the case of a protected individual described in
section 2(7)(A)), or the Federal Government (in
the case of a protected individual described in
section 2(7)(B));
(I) a court or grand jury;
(J) an officer or representative of a labor
organization; or
(K) the head of a Federal agency or a designee of
such a head.
(3) Application.--
(A) In general.--For the purposes of paragraph
(1)--
(i) a protected individual who initiates or
provides evidence of misconduct by a
contractor, subcontractor, grantee, or
subgrantee in any judicial or administrative
proceeding relating to waste, fraud, or abuse
in connection with a Federal contract or grant
shall be deemed to have made a disclosure
covered by such paragraph; and
(ii) any discharge, demotion,
discrimination, or other reprisal described in
paragraph (1) is prohibited even if it is
undertaken at the request of an executive
branch officer or employee, unless the request
takes the form of a non-discretionary directive
and is within the authority of the executive
branch official making the request.
(B) Protection of whistleblower identity.--
(i) In general.--Except as required by law,
an officer or entity described in paragraph (2)
that receives information under paragraph (1)
and any individual or entity to which the
officer or entity discloses the information may
not disclose the identity or identifying
information of the protected individual
providing the information without explicit
written consent of the protected individual.
(ii) Notice.--If disclosure of the identity
or identifying information of a protected
individual providing information under
paragraph (1) is required by law, the recipient
shall provide timely notice of the disclosure
to the protected individual.
(b) Investigation of Complaints.--
(1) Complaints.--
(A) In general.--A protected individual who
believes that the individual has been subjected to a
reprisal prohibited under subsection (a) may, within 3
years after learning of the alleged reprisal, submit a
complaint regarding the reprisal to the Secretary of
Labor in accordance with paragraph (2).
(B) Response.--Not later than 60 days after the
submission of a complaint under subparagraph (A), the
applicable non-Federal employer (or the applicable
agency head in the case of a Federal personal services
contract involving covered funds) shall submit an
answer to the complaint to the Secretary of Labor.
(2) Remedy and enforcement authority.--
(A) Rules and procedures.--Except to the extent
provided otherwise in this section, any action alleging
a reprisal prohibited under subsection (a) shall be
governed, to the maximum extent practicable, by the
rules and procedures for administrative and judicial
enforcement, including for investigations, civil
actions, appeals, and relief, set forth under section
7623(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
(B) Burden of proof.--The Secretary of Labor, or
the officer presiding in a judicial or administrative
proceeding, shall apply the legal burdens of proof
specified in section 1221(e) of title 5, United States
Code, in determining whether a reprisal prohibited
under subsection (a) has occurred in accordance with
the rules and procedures under subparagraph (A).
(C) Access to investigative file of the secretary
of labor.--
(i) In general.--A protected individual
alleging a reprisal under this section shall
have access to the investigation file of the
Secretary of Labor in accordance with section
552a of title 5, United States Code (commonly
referred to as the ``Privacy Act''). The
investigation of the Secretary of Labor shall
be deemed closed for purposes of disclosure
under such section when an individual files an
appeal to an agency head or a court of
competent jurisdiction.
(ii) Civil action.--In the event a
protected individual alleging a reprisal under
this section brings a civil action under this
subsection, the protected individual and the
non-Federal employer (or the head of the
applicable agency in the case of a Federal
personal services contract involving covered
funds), if applicable, shall have access to the
investigative file of the Secretary of Labor in
accordance with section 552a of title 5, United
States Code.
(iii) Exception.--The Secretary of Labor
may exclude from disclosure--
(I) information protected from
disclosure by a provision of law; and
(II) any additional information the
Secretary of Labor determines
disclosure of which would impede a
continuing investigation, if such
information is disclosed once such
disclosure would no longer impede such
investigation, unless the Secretary of
Labor determines that disclosure of law
enforcement techniques, procedures, or
information could reasonably be
expected to risk circumvention of the
law or disclose the identity of a
confidential source.
(iv) Privacy of information.--The Secretary
of Labor investigating an alleged reprisal
under this section may not respond to any
inquiry or disclose any information from or
about any protected individual alleging such
reprisal, except in accordance with the
provisions of section 552a of title 5, United
States Code, or as required by any other
applicable Federal law.
(c) General Provisions.--
(1) Rights retained by employee.--Nothing in this section
shall diminish the rights, privileges, or remedies of any
protected individual under any Federal or State law, or under
any collective bargaining agreement.
(2) Liability.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
a protected individual shall be immune from civil and criminal
liability with respect to a disclosure by the individual if the
individual would be protected from reprisal under subsection
(a) for making the disclosure. The protected individual shall
bear the burden of proving that the individual would be
protected from reprisal under subsection (a) for making the
disclosure.
(3) Nonenforceability of certain provisions waiving rights
and remedies or requiring arbitration of disputes.--
(A) Waiver of rights and remedies.--Except as
provided under subparagraph (C), the rights and
remedies provided for in this section may not be waived
by any public or private agreement, policy, form, or
condition of employment, including by any predispute
arbitration agreement.
(B) Predispute arbitration agreements.--Except as
provided under subparagraph (C), no predispute
arbitration agreement shall be valid or enforceable if
it requires arbitration of a dispute arising under this
section.
(C) Exception for collective bargaining
agreements.--Notwithstanding subparagraphs (A) and (B),
an arbitration provision in a collective bargaining
agreement shall be enforceable as to disputes arising
under the collective bargaining agreement.
(4) Requirement to post notice of rights and remedies.--Any
non-Federal employer receiving covered funds (and the head of
the applicable agency in the case of a Federal personal
services contract involving covered funds) shall post notice of
the rights and remedies provided under this section.
(d) Rules of Construction.--
(1) No implied authority to retaliate for non-protected
disclosures.--Nothing in this section may be construed to--
(A) authorize the discharge of, demotion of, or
discrimination or other reprisal against a protected
individual for a disclosure other than a disclosure
protected by subsection (a); or
(B) modify or derogate from a right or remedy
otherwise available to the protected individual.
(2) Relationship to state laws.--Nothing in this section
may be construed to preempt, preclude, or limit the protections
provided for public or private employees under State
whistleblower laws.
(e) Complaint Portal.--The Special Inspector General for Pandemic
Relief, the Pandemic Relief Accountability Committee, and the
Congressional Oversight Commission shall each establish a public
website where any individual who believes that the individual has been
subjected to a reprisal prohibited under subsection (a) may submit a
complaint regarding the reprisal. Such complaints shall be transmitted
to the Secretary of Labor for enforcement in accordance with this
section.
(f) Authorization of Appropriations.--There is authorized to be
appropriated to the Secretary of Labor to carry out this Act
$20,000,000 for fiscal year 2021, to remain available until expended.
<all> | COVID–19 Whistleblower Protection Act | To protect certain whistleblowers seeking to ensure accountability and oversight of the Nation's COVID-19 pandemic response, and for other purposes. | COVID–19 Whistleblower Protection Act | Rep. Speier, Jackie | D | CA |
564 | 2,108 | S.5277 | Government Operations and Politics | Fair Elections Now Act of 2022
This bill establishes the Freedom from Influence Fund, which shall provide funding to Senate candidates who meet specified conditions and agree to abide by certain requirements, such as limits on types of campaign funding sources. The bill also imposes a tax on certain U.S. government contracts. | To reform the financing of Senate elections, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Fair Elections Now
Act of 2022''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents of this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
TITLE I--SMALL DONOR INCENTIVE PROGRAMS
Sec. 101. Sense of the Senate regarding small donor incentive programs.
TITLE II--SMALL DOLLAR FINANCING OF SENATE ELECTION CAMPAIGNS
Sec. 201. Eligibility requirements and benefits of fair elections
financing of Senate election campaigns.
Sec. 202. Prohibition on joint fundraising committees.
Sec. 203. Exception to limitation on coordinated expenditures by
political party committees with
participating candidates.
TITLE III--RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE FEDERAL ELECTION COMMISSION
Sec. 301. Petition for certiorari.
Sec. 302. Electronic filing of FEC reports.
TITLE IV--REVENUE PROVISIONS
Sec. 401. Freedom From Influence Fund revenue.
TITLE V--MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
Sec. 501. Severability.
Sec. 502. Effective date.
TITLE I--SMALL DONOR INCENTIVE PROGRAMS
SEC. 101. SENSE OF THE SENATE REGARDING SMALL DONOR INCENTIVE PROGRAMS.
It is the sense of the Senate that Congress should take steps to
allow more Americans to fully participate in our democracy through
authorizing publicly financed small donor incentive programs, including
small-dollar voucher programs that broaden and diversify the number of
Americans who are able to have their voice heard in the marketplace of
ideas.
TITLE II--SMALL DOLLAR FINANCING OF SENATE ELECTION CAMPAIGNS
SEC. 201. ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS AND BENEFITS OF FAIR ELECTIONS
FINANCING OF SENATE ELECTION CAMPAIGNS.
The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30101 et seq.)
is amended by adding at the end the following:
``TITLE V--FAIR ELECTIONS FINANCING OF SENATE ELECTION CAMPAIGNS
``Subtitle A--General Provisions
``SEC. 501. DEFINITIONS.
``In this title:
``(1) Allocation from the fund.--The term `allocation from
the Fund' means an allocation of money from the Freedom From
Influence Fund to a participating candidate pursuant to section
522.
``(2) Commission.--The term `Commission' means the Federal
Election Commission.
``(3) Enhanced matching contribution.--The term `enhanced
matching contribution' means an enhanced matching payment
provided to a participating candidate for qualified small
dollar contributions, as provided under section 524.
``(4) Enhanced support qualifying period.--The term
`enhanced support qualifying period' means, with respect to a
general election, the period which begins 60 days before the
date of the election and ends 14 days before the date of the
election.
``(5) Fair elections qualifying period.--The term `Fair
Elections qualifying period' means, with respect to any
candidate for Senator, the period--
``(A) beginning on the date on which the candidate
files a statement of intent under section 511(a)(1);
and
``(B) ending on the date that is 30 days before--
``(i) the date of the primary election; or
``(ii) in the case of a State that does not
hold a primary election, the date prescribed by
State law as the last day to qualify for a
position on the general election ballot.
``(6) Fair elections start date.--The term `Fair Elections
start date' means, with respect to any candidate, the date that
is 180 days before--
``(A) the date of the primary election; or
``(B) in the case of a State that does not hold a
primary election, the date prescribed by State law as
the last day to qualify for a position on the general
election ballot.
``(7) Fund.--The term `Fund' means the Freedom From
Influence Fund established by section 502.
``(8) Immediate family.--The term `immediate family' means,
with respect to any candidate--
``(A) the candidate's spouse;
``(B) a child, stepchild, parent, grandparent,
brother, half-brother, sister, or half-sister of the
candidate or the candidate's spouse; and
``(C) the spouse of any person described in
subparagraph (B).
``(9) Matching contribution.--The term `matching
contribution' means a matching payment provided to a
participating candidate for qualified small dollar
contributions, as provided under section 523.
``(10) Nonparticipating candidate.--The term
`nonparticipating candidate' means a candidate for Senator who
is not a participating candidate.
``(11) Participating candidate.--The term `participating
candidate' means a candidate for Senator who is certified under
section 514 as being eligible to receive an allocation from the
Fund.
``(12) Qualifying contribution.--The term `qualifying
contribution' means, with respect to a candidate, a
contribution that--
``(A) is in an amount that is--
``(i) not less than $5; and
``(ii) not more than $200;
``(B) is made by an individual who is not otherwise
prohibited from making a contribution under this Act;
``(C) is made during the Fair Elections qualifying
period; and
``(D) meets the requirements of section 512(b).
``(13) Qualified small dollar contribution.--The term
`qualified small dollar contribution' means, with respect to a
candidate, any contribution (or series of contributions)--
``(A) which is not a qualifying contribution (or
does not include a qualifying contribution);
``(B) which is made by an individual who is not
prohibited from making a contribution under this Act;
and
``(C) the aggregate amount of which does not exceed
$200 per election.
``(14) Qualifying multicandidate political committee
contribution.--
``(A) In general.--The term `qualifying
multicandidate political committee contribution' means
any contribution to a candidate that is made from a
qualified account of a multicandidate political
committee (within the meaning of section 315(a)(2)).
``(B) Qualified account.--For purposes of
subparagraph (A), the term `qualified account' means,
with respect to a multicandidate political committee, a
separate, segregated account of the committee that
consists solely of contributions which meet the
following requirements:
``(i) All contributions to such account are
made by individuals who are not prohibited from
making contributions under this Act.
``(ii) The aggregate amount of
contributions from each individual to such
account and all other accounts of the political
committee do not exceed the amount described in
paragraph (13)(C).
``SEC. 502. FREEDOM FROM INFLUENCE FUND.
``(a) Establishment.--There is established in the Treasury a fund
to be known as the `Freedom from Influence Fund'.
``(b) Amounts Held by Fund.--The Fund shall consist of the
following amounts:
``(1) Appropriated amounts.--
``(A) In general.--Amounts appropriated to the
Fund.
``(B) Sense of the senate regarding
appropriations.--It is the sense of the Senate that--
``(i) there should be imposed on any
payment made to any person (other than a State
or local government or a foreign nation) who
has a contract with the Government of the
United States in excess of $10,000,000 a tax
equal to 0.50 percent of amount paid pursuant
to each contract, except that the aggregate tax
on each contract for any taxable year shall not
exceed $500,000; and
``(ii) the revenue from such tax should be
appropriated to the Fund.
``(2) Voluntary contributions.--Voluntary contributions to
the Fund.
``(3) Other deposits.--Amounts deposited into the Fund
under--
``(A) section 513(c) (relating to exceptions to
contribution requirements);
``(B) section 521(c) (relating to remittance of
allocations from the Fund);
``(C) section 532 (relating to violations); and
``(D) any other section of this Act.
``(4) Investment returns.--Interest on, and the proceeds
from, the sale or redemption of, any obligations held by the
Fund under subsection (c).
``(c) Investment.--The Commission shall invest portions of the Fund
in obligations of the United States in the same manner as provided
under section 9602(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
``(d) Use of Fund.--
``(1) In general.--The sums in the Fund shall be used to
provide benefits to participating candidates as provided in
subtitle C.
``(2) Insufficient amounts.--Under regulations established
by the Commission, rules similar to the rules of section
9006(c) of the Internal Revenue Code shall apply.
``Subtitle B--Eligibility and Certification
``SEC. 511. ELIGIBILITY.
``(a) In General.--A candidate for Senator is eligible to receive
an allocation from the Fund for any election if the candidate meets the
following requirements:
``(1) The candidate files with the Commission a statement
of intent to seek certification as a participating candidate
under this title during the period beginning on the Fair
Elections start date and ending on the last day of the Fair
Elections qualifying period.
``(2) The candidate meets the qualifying contribution
requirements of section 512.
``(3) The candidate files with the Commission a statement
certifying that the authorized committees of the candidate meet
the requirements of section 513(d)(2).
``(4) Not later than the last day of the Fair Elections
qualifying period, the candidate files with the Commission an
affidavit signed by the candidate and the treasurer of the
candidate's principal campaign committee declaring that the
candidate--
``(A) has complied and, if certified, will comply
with the contribution and expenditure requirements of
section 513;
``(B) if certified, will not run as a
nonparticipating candidate during such year in any
election for the office that such candidate is seeking;
and
``(C) has either qualified or will take steps to
qualify under State law to be on the ballot.
``(b) General Election.--Notwithstanding subsection (a), a
candidate shall not be eligible to receive an allocation from the Fund
for a general election or a general runoff election unless the
candidate's party nominated the candidate to be placed on the ballot
for the general election or the candidate otherwise qualified to be on
the ballot under State law.
``SEC. 512. QUALIFYING CONTRIBUTION REQUIREMENT.
``(a) In General.--A candidate for Senator meets the requirement of
this section if, during the Fair Elections qualifying period, the
candidate obtains--
``(1) a number of qualifying contributions equal to the sum
of--
``(A) 2,000; plus
``(B) 500 for each congressional district in the
State with respect to which the candidate is seeking
election; and
``(2) a total dollar amount of qualifying contributions
equal to 10 percent of the amount of the allocation such
candidate would be entitled to receive for the primary election
under section 522(c)(1) (determined without regard to paragraph
(5) thereof) if such candidate were a participating candidate.
``(b) Requirements Relating to Receipt of Qualifying
Contribution.--Each qualifying contribution--
``(1) may be made by means of a personal check, money
order, debit card, credit card, or electronic payment account;
``(2) shall be accompanied by a signed statement containing
the contributor's name and the contributor's address in the
State in which the contributor is registered to vote; and
``(3) shall be acknowledged by a receipt that is sent to
the contributor with a copy kept by the candidate for the
Commission and a copy kept by the candidate for the election
authorities in the State with respect to which the candidate is
seeking election.
``(c) Verification of Qualifying Contributions.--The Commission
shall establish procedures for the auditing and verification of
qualifying contributions to ensure that such contributions meet the
requirements of this section.
``SEC. 513. CONTRIBUTION AND EXPENDITURE REQUIREMENTS.
``(a) General Rule.--A candidate for Senator meets the requirements
of this section if, during the election cycle of the candidate, the
candidate--
``(1) except as provided in subsection (b), accepts no
contributions other than--
``(A) qualifying contributions;
``(B) qualified small dollar contributions;
``(C) qualifying multicandidate political committee
contributions;
``(D) allocations from the Fund under section 522;
``(E) matching contributions under section 523;
``(F) enhanced matching contributions under section
524;
``(G) vouchers provided to the candidate under
section 525;
``(H) subject to subsection (c), personal funds of
the candidate or of any immediate family member of the
candidate (other than funds received through qualified
small dollar contributions); and
``(I) subject to subsection (d), contributions from
individuals who are otherwise permitted to make
contributions under this Act, subject to the applicable
limitations of section 315, except that the aggregate
amount of contributions a participating candidate may
accept from any individual with respect to any election
during the election cycle may not exceed $1,000; and
``(2) makes no expenditures from any amounts other than
from--
``(A) qualifying contributions;
``(B) qualified small dollar contributions;
``(C) qualifying multicandidate political committee
contributions;
``(D) allocations from the Fund under section 522;
``(E) matching contributions under section 523;
``(F) enhanced matching contributions under section
524;
``(G) vouchers provided to the candidate under
section 525;
``(H) subject to subsection (c), personal funds of
the candidate or of any immediate family member of the
candidate (other than funds received through qualified
small dollar contributions); and
``(I) subject to subsection (d), contributions from
individuals who are otherwise permitted to make
contributions under this Act, subject to the applicable
limitations of section 315, except that the aggregate
amount of contributions a participating candidate may
accept from any individual with respect to any election
during the election cycle may not exceed $1,000.
For purposes of this subsection, a payment made by a political party in
coordination with a participating candidate shall not be treated as a
contribution to or as an expenditure made by the participating
candidate.
``(b) Contributions for Leadership PACs, etc.--A political
committee of a participating candidate which is not an authorized
committee of such candidate may accept contributions other than
contributions described in subsection (a)(1) from any person if--
``(1) the aggregate contributions from such person for any
calendar year do not exceed $200; and
``(2) no portion of such contributions is disbursed in
connection with the campaign of the participating candidate.
``(c) Special Rules for Personal Funds.--A candidate who is
certified as a participating candidate may use personal funds
(including personal funds of any immediate family member of the
candidate) so long as--
``(1) the aggregate amount used with respect to the
election cycle (including any period of the cycle occurring
prior to the candidate's certification as a participating
candidate) does not exceed $50,000; and
``(2) the funds are used only for making direct payments
for the receipt of goods and services which constitute
authorized expenditures in connection with the election cycle
involved.
``(d) Requirements Relating to Subsequent Contributions and
Notification Requirements.--
``(1) Restriction on subsequent contributions.--
``(A) Prohibiting donor from making subsequent
nonqualified contributions during election cycle.--An
individual who makes a qualified small dollar
contribution to a candidate with respect to an election
may not make any subsequent contribution to such
candidate with respect to the election cycle which is
not a qualified small dollar contribution.
``(B) Treatment of subsequent nonqualified
contributions.--If, notwithstanding the prohibition
described in subparagraph (A), an individual who makes
a qualified small dollar contribution to a candidate
with respect to an election makes a subsequent
contribution to such candidate with respect to the
election which is prohibited under subparagraph (A)
because it is not a qualified small dollar
contribution, the candidate may take one of the
following actions:
``(i) Not later than 2 weeks after
receiving the contribution, the candidate may
return the subsequent contribution to the
individual. In the case of a subsequent
contribution which is not a qualified small
dollar contribution because the contribution
fails to meet the requirements of paragraph
(13)(C) of section 501 (relating to the
aggregate amount of qualified small dollar
contributions that may be made by an individual
to a candidate), the candidate may return an
amount equal to the difference between the
amount of the subsequent contribution and the
amount described in such paragraph.
``(ii) The candidate may retain the
subsequent contribution, so long as not later
than 2 weeks after receiving the subsequent
contribution, the candidate remits to the
Commission for deposit in the Freedom from
Influence Fund established by section 502 an
amount equal to any payments received by the
candidate under this title which are
attributable to the qualified small dollar
contribution made by the individual involved.
``(C) No effect on ability to make multiple
contributions.--Nothing in this subsection may be
construed to prohibit an individual from making
multiple qualified small dollar contributions to any
candidate or any number of candidates, so long as each
contribution meets the definition of a qualified small
dollar contribution under section 501(13).
``(2) Notification requirements for candidates.--
``(A) Notification.--Each authorized committee of a
candidate who seeks to be a participating candidate
under this title shall provide the following
information in any materials for the solicitation of
contributions, including any internet site through
which individuals may make contributions to the
committee:
``(i) A statement that if the candidate is
certified as a participating candidate under
this title, the candidate will receive matching
payments in an amount which is based on the
total amount of qualified small dollar
contributions received.
``(ii) A statement that a contribution
which meets the definition of a qualified small
dollar contribution under section 501(13) shall
be treated as a qualified small dollar
contribution under this title.
``(iii) A statement that if a contribution
is treated as qualified small dollar
contribution under this title, the individual
who makes the contribution may not make any
contribution to the candidate or the authorized
committees of the candidate during the election
cycle which is not a qualified small dollar
contribution.
``(B) Alternative methods of meeting
requirements.--An authorized committee may meet the
requirements of subparagraph (A)--
``(i) by including the information
described in paragraph (1) in the receipt
provided under section 512(b)(3) to a person
making a qualified small dollar contribution;
or
``(ii) by modifying the information it
provides to persons making contributions which
is otherwise required under title III
(including information it provides through the
internet).
``(e) Exception.--Notwithstanding subsection (a), a candidate shall
not be treated as having failed to meet the requirements of this
section if any contributions that are not qualified small dollar
contributions, qualifying contributions, qualifying multicandidate
political committee contributions, or contributions that meet the
requirements of subsection (b) and that are accepted before the date
the candidate files a statement of intent under section 511(a)(1) are--
``(1) returned to the contributor; or
``(2) submitted to the Commission for deposit in the Fund.
``SEC. 514. CERTIFICATION.
``(a) In General.--Not later than 5 days after a candidate for
Senator files an affidavit under section 511(a)(4), the Commission
shall--
``(1) certify whether or not the candidate is a
participating candidate; and
``(2) notify the candidate of the Commission's
determination.
``(b) Revocation of Certification.--
``(1) In general.--The Commission may revoke a
certification under subsection (a) if--
``(A) a candidate fails to qualify to appear on the
ballot at any time after the date of certification; or
``(B) a candidate otherwise fails to comply with
the requirements of this title, including any
regulatory requirements prescribed by the Commission.
``(2) Repayment of benefits.--If certification is revoked
under paragraph (1), the candidate shall repay to the Fund an
amount equal to the value of benefits received under this title
plus interest (at a rate determined by the Commission) on any
such amount received.
``Subtitle C--Benefits
``SEC. 521. BENEFITS FOR PARTICIPATING CANDIDATES.
``(a) In General.--For each election with respect to which a
candidate is certified as a participating candidate under section 514,
such candidate shall be entitled to--
``(1) an allocation from the Fund to make or obligate to
make expenditures with respect to such election, as provided in
section 522;
``(2) matching contributions, as provided in section 523;
``(3) enhanced matching contributions, as provided in
section 524; and
``(4) for the general election, vouchers for broadcasts of
political advertisements, as provided in section 525.
``(b) Restriction on Uses of Allocations From the Fund.--
Allocations from the Fund received by a participating candidate under
section 522, matching contributions under section 523, and enhanced
matching contributions under section 524 may only be used for campaign-
related costs.
``(c) Remitting Allocations From the Fund.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than the date that is 180 days
after an election in which the participating candidate appeared
on the ballot, such participating candidate shall remit to the
Commission for deposit in the Fund an amount equal to the
lesser of--
``(A) the amount of money in the candidate's
campaign account; or
``(B) the sum of the allocations from the Fund
received by the candidate under section 522, the
matching contributions received by the candidate under
section 523, and the enhanced matching contributions
under section 524.
``(2) Exceptions.--
``(A) Subsequent election.--In the case of a
candidate who qualifies to be on the ballot for a
primary runoff election, a general election, or a
general runoff election, the amounts described in
paragraph (1) may be retained by the candidate and used
in such subsequent election.
``(B) Candidate seeking certification for next
election cycle.--Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a
participating candidate may withhold not more than
$100,000 from the amount required to be remitted under
paragraph (1) if the candidate files a signed affidavit
with the Commission that the candidate will seek
certification as a participating candidate with respect
to the next election cycle, except that the candidate
may not use any portion of the amount withheld until
the candidate is certified as a participating candidate
with respect to that next election cycle. If the
candidate fails to seek certification as a
participating candidate prior to the last day of the
qualifying period for the next election cycle (as
described in section 511), or if the Commission
notifies the candidate of the Commission's
determination that the candidate does not meet the
requirements for certification as a participating
candidate with respect to such cycle, the candidate
shall immediately remit to the Commission the amount
withheld.
``SEC. 522. ALLOCATIONS FROM THE FUND.
``(a) In General.--The Commission shall make allocations from the
Fund under section 521(a)(1) to a participating candidate--
``(1) in the case of amounts provided under subsection
(d)(1), after the date on which such candidate is certified as
a participating candidate under section 514;
``(2) in the case of a general election after--
``(A) the date of the certification of the results
of the primary election or the primary runoff election;
or
``(B) in any case in which there is no primary
election, the date the candidate qualifies to be placed
on the ballot; and
``(3) in the case of a primary runoff election or a general
runoff election, after the certification of the results of the
primary election or the general election, as the case may be.
``(b) Method of Payment.--The Commission shall distribute funds
available to participating candidates under this section through the
use of an electronic funds exchange or a debit card.
``(c) Timing of Payment.--The Commission shall, in coordination
with the Secretary of the Treasury, take such steps as may be necessary
to ensure that the Secretary is able to make payments under this
section from the Treasury not later than 2 business days after date of
the applicable certification as described in subsection (a).
``(d) Amounts.--
``(1) Primary election allocation; initial allocation.--
Except as provided in paragraph (5), the Commission shall make
an allocation from the Fund for a primary election to a
participating candidate in an amount equal to 67 percent of the
base amount with respect to such participating candidate.
``(2) Primary runoff election allocation.--The Commission
shall make an allocation from the Fund for a primary runoff
election to a participating candidate in an amount equal to 25
percent of the amount the participating candidate was eligible
to receive under this section for the primary election.
``(3) General election allocation.--Except as provided in
paragraph (5), the Commission shall make an allocation from the
Fund for a general election to a participating candidate in an
amount equal to the base amount with respect to such candidate.
``(4) General runoff election allocation.--The Commission
shall make an allocation from the Fund for a general runoff
election to a participating candidate in an amount equal to 25
percent of the base amount with respect to such candidate.
``(5) Uncontested elections.--
``(A) In general.--In the case of a primary or
general election that is an uncontested election, the
Commission shall make an allocation from the Fund to a
participating candidate for such election in an amount
equal to 25 percent of the allocation which such
candidate would be entitled to under this section for
such election if this paragraph did not apply.
``(B) Uncontested election defined.--For purposes
of this subparagraph, an election is uncontested if not
more than 1 candidate has campaign funds (including
payments from the Fund) in an amount equal to or
greater than 10 percent of the allocation a
participating candidate would be entitled to receive
under this section for such election if this paragraph
did not apply.
``(e) Base Amount.--
``(1) In general.--Except as otherwise provided in this
subsection, the base amount for any candidate is an amount
equal to the sum of--
``(A) $750,000; plus
``(B) $150,000 for each congressional district in
the State with respect to which the candidate is
seeking election.
``(2) Indexing.--In each even-numbered year after 2027--
``(A) each dollar amount under paragraph (1) shall
be increased by the percent difference between the
price index (as defined in section 315(c)(2)(A)) for
the 12 months preceding the beginning of such calendar
year and the price index for calendar year 2022;
``(B) each dollar amount so increased shall remain
in effect for the 2-year period beginning on the first
day following the date of the last general election in
the year preceding the year in which the amount is
increased and ending on the date of the next general
election; and
``(C) if any amount after adjustment under
subparagraph (A) is not a multiple of $100, such amount
shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $100.
``SEC. 523. MATCHING PAYMENTS FOR QUALIFIED SMALL DOLLAR CONTRIBUTIONS.
``(a) In General.--The Commission shall pay to each participating
candidate an amount equal to 600 percent of the amount of qualified
small dollar contributions received by the candidate from individuals
after the date on which such candidate is certified under section 514.
``(b) Limitation.--The aggregate payments under subsection (a) with
respect to any candidate shall not exceed 400 percent of the allocation
such candidate is entitled to receive for such election under section
522 (determined without regard to subsection (d)(5) thereof).
``(c) Time of Payment.--The Commission shall make payments under
this section not later than 2 business days after the receipt of a
report made under subsection (d).
``(d) Reports.--
``(1) In general.--Each participating candidate shall file
reports of receipts of qualified small dollar contributions at
such times and in such manner as the Commission may by
regulations prescribe.
``(2) Contents of reports.--Each report under this
subsection shall disclose--
``(A) the amount of each qualified small dollar
contribution received by the candidate; and
``(B) the name, address, and occupation of each
individual who made a qualified small dollar
contribution to the candidate.
``(3) Frequency of reports.--Reports under this subsection
shall be made no more frequently than--
``(A) once every month until the date that is 90
days before the date of the election; and
``(B) once every week after the period described in
subparagraph (A) and until the date of the election.
``(4) Limitation on regulations.--The Commission may not
prescribe any regulations with respect to reporting under this
subsection with respect to any election after the date that is
180 days before the date of such election.
``(e) Appeals.--The Commission shall provide a written explanation
with respect to any denial of any payment under this section and shall
provide the opportunity for review and reconsideration within 5
business days of such denial.
``SEC. 524. ENHANCED MATCHING SUPPORT.
``(a) In General.--In addition to the payments made under section
523, the Commission shall make an additional payment to an eligible
candidate under this section.
``(b) Eligibility.--A candidate is eligible to receive an
additional payment under this section if the candidate meets each of
the following requirements:
``(1) The candidate is on the ballot for the general
election for the office the candidate seeks.
``(2) The candidate is certified as a participating
candidate under this title with respect to the election.
``(3) During the enhanced support qualifying period, the
candidate receives qualified small dollar contributions in a
total amount of not less than the sum of $15,000 for each
congressional district in the State with respect to which the
candidate is seeking election.
``(4) During the enhanced support qualifying period, the
candidate submits to the Commission a request for the payment
which includes--
``(A) a statement of the number and amount of
qualified small dollar contributions received by the
candidate during the enhanced support qualifying
period;
``(B) a statement of the amount of the payment the
candidate anticipates receiving with respect to the
request; and
``(C) such other information and assurances as the
Commission may require.
``(5) After submitting a request for the additional payment
under paragraph (4), the candidate does not submit any other
application for an additional payment under this title.
``(c) Amount.--
``(1) In general.--Subject to paragraph (2), the amount of
the additional payment made to an eligible candidate under this
subtitle shall be an amount equal to 50 percent of--
``(A) the amount of the payment made to the
candidate under section 523 with respect to the
qualified small dollar contributions which are received
by the candidate during the enhanced support qualifying
period (as included in the request submitted by the
candidate under (b)(4)(A)); or
``(B) in the case of a candidate who is not
eligible to receive a payment under section 523 with
respect to such qualified small dollar contributions
because the candidate has reached the limit on the
aggregate amount of payments under section 523, the
amount of the payment which would have been made to the
candidate under section 523 with respect to such
qualified small dollar contributions if the candidate
had not reached such limit.
``(2) Limit.--The amount of the additional payment
determined under paragraph (1) with respect to a candidate may
not exceed the sum of $150,000 for each congressional district
in the State with respect to which the candidate is seeking
election.
``(3) No effect on aggregate limit.--The amount of the
additional payment made to a candidate under this section shall
not be included in determining the aggregate amount of payments
made to a participating candidate with respect to an election
cycle under section 523.
``SEC. 525. POLITICAL ADVERTISING VOUCHERS.
``(a) In General.--The Commission shall establish and administer a
voucher program for the purchase of airtime on broadcasting stations
for political advertisements in accordance with the provisions of this
section.
``(b) Candidates.--The Commission shall only disburse vouchers
under the program established under subsection (a) to participants
certified pursuant to section 514 who have agreed in writing to keep
and furnish to the Commission such records, books, and other
information as it may require.
``(c) Amounts.--The Commission shall disburse vouchers to each
candidate certified under subsection (b) in an aggregate amount equal
to $100,000 multiplied by the number of congressional districts in the
State with respect to which such candidate is running for office.
``(d) Use.--
``(1) Exclusive use.--Vouchers disbursed by the Commission
under this section may be used only for the purchase of
broadcast airtime for political advertisements relating to a
general election for the office of Senate by the participating
candidate to which the vouchers were disbursed, except that--
``(A) a candidate may exchange vouchers with a
political party under paragraph (2); and
``(B) a political party may use vouchers only to
purchase broadcast airtime for political advertisements
for generic party advertising (as defined by the
Commission in regulations), to support candidates for
State or local office in a general election, or to
support participating candidates of the party in a
general election for Federal office, but only if it
discloses the value of the voucher used as an
expenditure under section 315(d).
``(2) Exchange with political party committee.--
``(A) In general.--A participating candidate who
receives a voucher under this section may transfer the
right to use all or a portion of the value of the
voucher to a committee of the political party of which
the individual is a candidate (or, in the case of a
participating candidate who is not a member of any
political party, to a committee of the political party
of that candidate's choice) in exchange for money in an
amount equal to the cash value of the voucher or
portion exchanged.
``(B) Continuation of candidate obligations.--The
transfer of a voucher, in whole or in part, to a
political party committee under this paragraph does not
release the candidate from any obligation under the
agreement made under subsection (b) or otherwise modify
that agreement or its application to that candidate.
``(C) Party committee obligations.--Any political
party committee to which a voucher or portion thereof
is transferred under subparagraph (A)--
``(i) shall account fully, in accordance
with such requirements as the Commission may
establish, for the receipt of the voucher; and
``(ii) may not use the transferred voucher
or portion thereof for any purpose other than a
purpose described in paragraph (1)(B).
``(D) Voucher as a contribution under feca.--If a
candidate transfers a voucher or any portion thereof to
a political party committee under subparagraph (A)--
``(i) the value of the voucher or portion
thereof transferred shall be treated as a
contribution from the candidate to the
committee, and from the committee to the
candidate, for purposes of sections 302 and
304;
``(ii) the committee may, in exchange,
provide to the candidate only funds subject to
the prohibitions, limitations, and reporting
requirements of title III of this Act; and
``(iii) the amount, if identified as a
`voucher exchange', shall not be considered a
contribution for the purposes of sections 315
and 513.
``(e) Value; Acceptance; Redemption.--
``(1) Voucher.--Each voucher disbursed by the Commission
under this section shall have a value in dollars, redeemable
upon presentation to the Commission, together with such
documentation and other information as the Commission may
require, for the purchase of broadcast airtime for political
advertisements in accordance with this section.
``(2) Acceptance.--A broadcasting station shall accept
vouchers in payment for the purchase of broadcast airtime for
political advertisements in accordance with this section.
``(3) Redemption.--The Commission shall redeem vouchers
accepted by broadcasting stations under paragraph (2) upon
presentation, subject to such documentation, verification,
accounting, and application requirements as the Commission may
impose to ensure the accuracy and integrity of the voucher
redemption system.
``(4) Expiration.--
``(A) Candidates.--A voucher may only be used to
pay for broadcast airtime for political advertisements
to be broadcast before midnight on the day before the
date of the Federal election in connection with which
it was issued and shall be null and void for any other
use or purpose.
``(B) Exception for political party committees.--A
voucher held by a political party committee may be used
to pay for broadcast airtime for political
advertisements to be broadcast before midnight on
December 31st of the odd-numbered year following the
year in which the voucher was issued by the Commission.
``(5) Voucher as expenditure under feca.--The use of a
voucher to purchase broadcast airtime constitutes an
expenditure as defined in section 301(9)(A).
``(f) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Broadcasting station.--The term `broadcasting
station' has the meaning given that term by section 315(f)(1)
of the Communications Act of 1934.
``(2) Political party.--The term `political party' means a
major party or a minor party as defined in section 9002 (3) or
(4) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 9002 (3) or
(4)).
``Subtitle D--Administrative Provisions
``SEC. 531. DUTIES OF THE FEDERAL ELECTION COMMISSION.
``(a) Duties and Powers.--
``(1) Administration.--The Commission shall have the power
to administer the provisions of this title and shall prescribe
regulations to carry out the purposes of this title, including
regulations--
``(A) to establish procedures for--
``(i) verifying the amount of valid
qualifying contributions with respect to a
candidate;
``(ii) effectively and efficiently
monitoring and enforcing the limits on the
raising of qualified small dollar
contributions;
``(iii) monitoring the raising of
qualifying multicandidate political committee
contributions through effectively and
efficiently monitoring and enforcing the limits
on individual contributions to qualified
accounts of multicandidate political
committees;
``(iv) effectively and efficiently
monitoring and enforcing the limits on the use
of personal funds by participating candidates;
``(v) monitoring the use of allocations
from the Fund and matching contributions under
this title through audits or other mechanisms;
and
``(vi) the administration of the voucher
program under section 525; and
``(B) regarding the conduct of debates in a manner
consistent with the best practices of States that
provide public financing for elections.
``(2) Review of fair elections financing.--
``(A) In general.--After each general election for
Federal office, the Commission shall conduct a
comprehensive review of the Fair Elections financing
program under this title, including--
``(i) the maximum dollar amount of
qualified small dollar contributions under
section 501(13);
``(ii) the maximum and minimum dollar
amounts for qualifying contributions under
section 501(12);
``(iii) the number and value of qualifying
contributions a candidate is required to obtain
under section 512 to qualify for allocations
from the Fund;
``(iv) the amount of allocations from the
Fund that candidates may receive under section
522;
``(v) the maximum amount of matching
contributions a candidate may receive under
section 523;
``(vi) the maximum amount of enhanced
matching contributions a candidate may receive
under section 524;
``(vii) the amount and usage of vouchers
under section 525;
``(viii) the overall satisfaction of
participating candidates and the American
public with the program; and
``(ix) such other matters relating to
financing of Senate campaigns as the Commission
determines are appropriate.
``(B) Criteria for review.--In conducting the
review under subparagraph (A), the Commission shall
consider the following:
``(i) Qualifying contributions and
qualified small dollar contributions.--The
Commission shall consider whether the number
and dollar amount of qualifying contributions
required and maximum dollar amount for such
qualifying contributions and qualified small
dollar contributions strikes a balance
regarding the importance of voter involvement,
the need to assure adequate incentives for
participating, and fiscal responsibility,
taking into consideration the number of primary
and general election participating candidates,
the electoral performance of those candidates,
program cost, and any other information the
Commission determines is appropriate.
``(ii) Review of program benefits.--The
Commission shall consider whether the totality
of the amount of funds allowed to be raised by
participating candidates (including through
qualifying contributions and small dollar
contributions), allocations from the Fund under
section 522, matching contributions under
section 523, enhanced matching contributions
under section 524, and vouchers under section
525 are sufficient for voters in each State to
learn about the candidates to cast an informed
vote, taking into account the historic amount
of spending by winning candidates, media costs,
primary election dates, and any other
information the Commission determines is
appropriate.
``(C) Recommendations for adjustment of amounts.--
Based on the review conducted under subparagraph (A),
the Commission shall make recommendations to Congress
for any adjustment of the following amounts:
``(i) The maximum dollar amount of
qualified small dollar contributions under
section 501(13)(C).
``(ii) The maximum and minimum dollar
amounts for qualifying contributions under
section 501(12)(A).
``(iii) The number and value of qualifying
contributions a candidate is required to obtain
under section 512(a)(1).
``(iv) The base amount for candidates under
section 522(d).
``(v) The maximum amount of matching
contributions a candidate may receive under
section 523(b).
``(vi) The maximum amount of enhanced
matching contributions a candidate may receive
under section 524(c).
``(vii) The dollar amount for vouchers
under section 525(c).
``(D) Report.--Not later than March 30 following
any general election for Federal office, the Commission
shall submit a report to Congress on the review
conducted under subparagraph (A) and any
recommendations developed under subparagraph (C). Such
report shall contain a detailed statement of the
findings, conclusions, and recommendations of the
Commission based on such review.
``(b) Reports.--Not later than March 30, 2026, and every 2 years
thereafter, the Commission shall submit to the Senate Committee on
Rules and Administration a report documenting, evaluating, and making
recommendations relating to the administrative implementation and
enforcement of the provisions of this title.
``(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--There are authorized to be
appropriated such sums as are necessary to carry out the purposes of
this subtitle.
``SEC. 532. VIOLATIONS AND PENALTIES.
``(a) Civil Penalty for Violation of Contribution and Expenditure
Requirements.--If a candidate who has been certified as a participating
candidate under section 514 accepts a contribution or makes an
expenditure that is prohibited under section 513, the Commission shall
assess a civil penalty against the candidate in an amount that is not
more than 3 times the amount of the contribution or expenditure. Any
amounts collected under this subsection shall be deposited into the
Fund.
``(b) Repayment for Improper Use of Freedom From Influence Fund.--
``(1) In general.--If the Commission determines that any
benefit made available to a participating candidate under this
title was not used as provided for in this title or that a
participating candidate has violated any of the dates for
remission of funds contained in this title, the Commission
shall so notify the candidate and the candidate shall pay to
the Fund an amount equal to--
``(A) the amount of benefits so used or not
remitted, as appropriate; and
``(B) interest on any such amounts (at a rate
determined by the Commission).
``(2) Other action not precluded.--Any action by the
Commission in accordance with this subsection shall not
preclude enforcement proceedings by the Commission in
accordance with section 309(a), including a referral by the
Commission to the Attorney General in the case of an apparent
knowing and willful violation of this title.''.
SEC. 202. PROHIBITION ON JOINT FUNDRAISING COMMITTEES.
Section 302(e) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52
U.S.C. 30102(e)) is amended by adding at the end the following new
paragraph:
``(6) No authorized committee of a participating candidate
(as defined in section 501) may establish a joint fundraising
committee with a political committee other than an authorized
committee of a candidate.''.
SEC. 203. EXCEPTION TO LIMITATION ON COORDINATED EXPENDITURES BY
POLITICAL PARTY COMMITTEES WITH PARTICIPATING CANDIDATES.
Section 315(d) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52
U.S.C. 30116(d)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (3)(A), by striking ``in the case of'' and
inserting ``except as provided in paragraph (6), in the case
of''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(6)(A) The limitation under paragraph (3)(A) shall not
apply with respect to any expenditure from a qualified
political party-participating candidate coordinated expenditure
fund.
``(B) In this paragraph, the term `qualified political
party-participating candidate coordinated expenditure fund'
means a fund established by the national committee of a
political party, or a State committee of a political party,
including any subordinate committee of a State committee, for
purposes of making expenditures in connection with the general
election campaign of a candidate for election to the office of
Senator who is a participating candidate (as defined in section
501), that only accepts qualified coordinated expenditure
contributions.
``(C) In this paragraph, the term `qualified coordinated
expenditure contribution' means, with respect to the general
election campaign of a candidate for election to the office of
Senator who is a participating candidate (as defined in section
501), any contribution (or series of contributions)--
``(i) which is made by an individual who is not
prohibited from making a contribution under this Act;
and
``(ii) the aggregate amount of which does not
exceed $500 per election.''.
TITLE III--RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE FEDERAL ELECTION COMMISSION
SEC. 301. PETITION FOR CERTIORARI.
Section 307(a)(6) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52
U.S.C. 30107(a)(6)) is amended by inserting ``(including a proceeding
before the Supreme Court on certiorari)'' after ``appeal''.
SEC. 302. ELECTRONIC FILING OF FEC REPORTS.
Section 304(a)(11) of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52
U.S.C. 30104(a)(11)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``under this Act--''
and all that follows and inserting ``under this Act shall be
required to maintain and file such designation, statement, or
report in electronic form accessible by computers.'';
(2) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``48 hours'' and all
that follows through ``filed electronically)'' and inserting
``24 hours''; and
(3) by striking subparagraph (D).
TITLE IV--REVENUE PROVISIONS
SEC. 401. FREEDOM FROM INFLUENCE FUND REVENUE.
(a) In General.--The Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by
inserting after chapter 36 the following new chapter:
``CHAPTER 37--TAX ON PAYMENTS PURSUANT TO CERTAIN GOVERNMENT CONTRACTS
``Sec. 4501. Imposition of tax.
``SEC. 4501. IMPOSITION OF TAX.
``(a) Tax Imposed.--There is hereby imposed on any payment made to
a qualified person pursuant to a contract with the Government of the
United States a tax equal to 0.50 percent of the amount paid.
``(b) Limitation.--The aggregate amount of tax imposed per contract
under subsection (a) for any calendar year shall not exceed $500,000.
``(c) Qualified Person.--For purposes of this section, the term
`qualified person' means any person which--
``(1) is not a State or local government, a foreign nation,
or an organization described in section 501(c)(3) which is
exempt from taxation under section 501(a), and
``(2) has a contract with the Government of the United
States with a value in excess of $10,000,000.
``(d) Payment of Tax.--The tax imposed by this section shall be
paid by the person receiving such payment.
``(e) Use of Revenue Generated by Tax.--It is the sense of the
Senate that amounts equivalent to the revenue generated by the tax
imposed under this chapter should be appropriated for the financing of
a Freedom From Influence Fund and used for the public financing of
Senate elections.''.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--The table of chapters of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by inserting after the item relating to
chapter 36 the following:
``Chapter 37--Tax on Payments Pursuant to Certain Government
Contracts''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to contracts entered into after the date of the enactment of this
Act.
TITLE V--MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
SEC. 501. SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of this Act or amendment made by this Act, or the
application of a provision or amendment to any person or circumstance,
is held to be unconstitutional, the remainder of this Act and
amendments made by this Act, and the application of the provisions and
amendment to any person or circumstance, shall not be affected by the
holding.
SEC. 502. EFFECTIVE DATE.
(a) In General.--Except as may otherwise be provided in this Act
and in the amendments made by this Act, this Act and the amendments
made by this Act shall apply with respect to elections occurring during
2028 or any succeeding year, without regard to whether or not the
Federal Election Commission has promulgated the final regulations
necessary to carry out this Act and the amendments made by this Act by
the deadline set forth in subsection (b).
(b) Deadline for Regulations.--Not later than June 30, 2026, the
Federal Election Commission shall promulgate such regulations as may be
necessary to carry out this Act and the amendments made by this Act.
<all> | Fair Elections Now Act of 2022 | A bill to reform the financing of Senate elections, and for other purposes. | Fair Elections Now Act of 2022 | Sen. Durbin, Richard J. | D | IL |
565 | 3,174 | S.3748 | Labor and Employment | Job Protection Act
This bill reduces from 12 months to 90 days the employment period required for employees (including federal employees) to become eligible for family and medical leave. Additionally, the bill makes the family and medical leave requirements applicable to all employers (currently, the requirements apply to employers with 50 or more employees). | To expand employees eligible for leave and employers subject to leave
requirements.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Job Protection Act''.
SEC. 2. EXPANSION OF EMPLOYEES ELIGIBLE FOR LEAVE.
(a) In General.--Section 101(2) of the Family and Medical Leave Act
of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2611(2)) is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``employed--'' and all
that follows through the end of the subparagraph and inserting
``employed for not less than 90 days by the employer with
respect to whom leave is requested under section 102.'';
(2) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``does not include--''
and all that follows through the end of the subparagraph and
inserting ``does not include any Federal officer or employee
covered under subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United
States Code (as added by title II of this Act).'';
(3) by striking subparagraphs (C) and (D); and
(4) by redesignating subparagraph (E) as subparagraph (C).
(b) Federal Employees.--
(1) Title 5.--Subchapter V of chapter 63 of title 5, United
States Code, is amended--
(A) in section 6381(1)(B), by striking ``12
months'' and inserting ``90 days''; and
(B) in section 6382(d)(2)(E), by striking ``12
months'' and inserting ``90 days''.
(2) Presidential employees.--Section 412(a)(2)(B) of title
3, United States Code, is amended by striking ``12 months and
for at least 1,250 hours of employment during the previous 12
months'' and inserting ``90 days''.
(3) Congressional employees.--Section 202(a)(2)(B) of the
Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C.
1312(a)(2)(B)) is amended by striking ``12 months and for at
least 1,250 hours of employment during the previous 12 months''
and inserting ``90 days''.
SEC. 3. EXPANSION OF EMPLOYERS SUBJECT TO LEAVE REQUIREMENTS.
Section 101(4)(A)(i) of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993
(29 U.S.C. 2611(4)(A)(i)) is amended by striking ``50 or more
employees'' and all that follows through the end of the clause and
inserting ``1 or more employees''.
SEC. 4. APPLICABILITY.
This Act, and the amendments made by this Act, shall apply with
respect to leave taken on or after the date of enactment of this Act.
<all> | Job Protection Act | A bill to expand employees eligible for leave and employers subject to leave requirements. | Job Protection Act | Sen. Smith, Tina | D | MN |
566 | 9,445 | H.R.5826 | Science, Technology, Communications | This bill allows states to observe daylight savings time year-round. (States may already choose to observe standard time year-round.) | To allow States to elect to observe year-round daylight saving time,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. OPTIONAL YEAR-LONG APPLICATION OF DAYLIGHT SAVING TIME.
Section 3(a) of the Uniform Time Act of 1966 (15 U.S.C. 260a) is
amended--
(1) by inserting ``or may by law apply the advancement of
time described in this section for the duration of the year,''
after ``may by law exempt itself from the provisions of this
subsection providing for the advancement of time,'';
(2) by striking ``the standard time otherwise applicable
during that period'' and inserting ``the same standard time'';
(3) by striking ``may by law exempt either the entire State
as provided in (1) or'' and inserting ``, by law, may apply
either standard time provided for in paragraph (1) to the
entire State,''; and
(4) by inserting ``, or may apply the advancement of time
for the duration of the year to the entire area of the State
lying within any time zone'' before the period at the end.
<all> | To allow States to elect to observe year-round daylight saving time, and for other purposes. | To allow States to elect to observe year-round daylight saving time, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To allow States to elect to observe year-round daylight saving time, and for other purposes. | Rep. Rogers, Mike D. | R | AL |
567 | 341 | S.4007 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Act of 2022
This bill requires the Office of Community Oriented Policing Services within the Department of Justice to report on one or more proposed programs to make treatment or preventative care available to public safety officers and public safety telecommunicators for job-related post-traumatic stress disorder or acute stress disorder.
The report must also include draft legislative language related to each proposed program, as well as the estimated cost for administering each proposed program. | To require the Attorney General to propose a program for making
treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder
available to public safety officers, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress
Disorder Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Public safety officers serve their communities with
bravery and distinction in order to keep their communities
safe.
(2) Public safety officers, including police officers,
firefighters, emergency medical technicians, and 911
dispatchers, are on the front lines of dealing with situations
that are stressful, graphic, harrowing, and life-threatening.
(3) The work of public safety officers puts them at risk
for developing post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress
disorder.
(4) It is estimated that 30 percent of public safety
officers develop behavioral health conditions at some point in
their lifetimes, including depression and post-traumatic stress
disorder, in comparison to 20 percent of the general population
that develops such conditions.
(5) Victims of post-traumatic stress disorder and acute
stress disorder are at a higher risk of dying by suicide.
(6) Firefighters have been reported to have higher suicide
attempt and ideation rates than the general population.
(7) It is estimated that between 125 and 300 police
officers die by suicide every year.
(8) In 2019, pursuant to section 2(b) of the Law
Enforcement Mental Health and Wellness Act of 2017 (Public Law
115-113; 131 Stat. 2276), the Director of the Office of
Community Oriented Policing Services of the Department of
Justice developed a report (referred to in this section as the
``LEMHWA report'') that expressed that many law enforcement
agencies do not have the capacity or local access to the mental
health professionals necessary for treating their law
enforcement officers.
(9) The LEMHWA report recommended methods for establishing
remote access or regional mental health check programs at the
State or Federal level.
(10) Individual police and fire departments generally do
not have the resources to employ full-time mental health
experts who are able to treat public safety officers with
state-of-the-art techniques for the purpose of treating job-
related post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress
disorder.
SEC. 3. PROGRAMMING FOR POST-TRAUMATIC STRESS DISORDER.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Public safety officer.--The term ``public safety
officer''--
(A) has the meaning given the term in section 1204
of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of
1968 (34 U.S.C. 10284); and
(B) includes Tribal public safety officers.
(2) Public safety telecommunicator.--The term ``public
safety telecommunicator'' means an individual who--
(A) operates telephone, radio, or other
communication systems to receive and communicate
requests for emergency assistance at 911 public safety
answering points and emergency operations centers;
(B) takes information from the public and other
sources relating to crimes, threats, disturbances, acts
of terrorism, fires, medical emergencies, and other
public safety matters; and
(C) coordinates and provides information to law
enforcement and emergency response personnel.
(b) Report.--Not later than 150 days after the date of enactment of
this Act, the Attorney General, acting through the Director of the
Office of Community Oriented Policing Services of the Department of
Justice, shall submit to the Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate
and the Committee on the Judiciary of the House of Representatives a
report on--
(1) not fewer than 1 proposed program, if the Attorney
General determines it appropriate and feasible to do so, to be
administered by the Department of Justice for making state-of-
the-art treatments or preventative care available to public
safety officers and public safety telecommunicators with regard
to job-related post-traumatic stress disorder or acute stress
disorder by providing public safety officers and public safety
telecommunicators access to evidence-based trauma-informed
care, peer support, counselor services, and family supports for
the purpose of treating or preventing post-traumatic stress
disorder or acute stress disorder;
(2) a draft of any necessary grant conditions required to
ensure that confidentiality is afforded to public safety
officers on account of seeking the care or services described
in paragraph (1) under the proposed program;
(3) how each proposed program described in paragraph (1)
could be most efficiently administered throughout the United
States at the State, Tribal, territorial, and local levels,
taking into account in-person and telehealth capabilities;
(4) a draft of legislative language necessary to authorize
each proposed program described in paragraph (1); and
(5) an estimate of the amount of annual appropriations
necessary for administering each proposed program described in
paragraph (1).
(c) Development.--In developing the report required under
subsection (b), the Attorney General shall consult relevant
stakeholders, including--
(1) Federal, State, Tribal, territorial, and local agencies
employing public safety officers and public safety
telecommunicators; and
(2) non-governmental organizations, international
organizations, academies, or other entities, including
organizations that support the interests of public safety
officers and public safety telecommunicators and the interests
of family members of public safety officers and public safety
telecommunicators.
Passed the Senate August 1, 2022.
Attest:
Secretary.
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
S. 4007
_______________________________________________________________________ | Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Act of 2022 | A bill to require the Attorney General to propose a program for making treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder available to public safety officers, and for other purposes. | Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Act of 2022
Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Act of 2022
Fighting Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Act of 2022 | Sen. Grassley, Chuck | R | IA |
568 | 1,919 | S.3571 | Environmental Protection | Good Samaritan Remediation of Abandoned Hardrock Mines Act of 2022
This bill promotes the remediation of abandoned hardrock mine sites by Good Samaritans. A Good Samaritan means a person that is (1) not a past or current owner or operator of the abandoned site; (2) had no role in the creation of the historic mine residue; and (3) is not potentially liable under any law for the remediation, treatment, or control of the historic mine residue.
The bill requires the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to establish a Good Samaritan pilot program. Under the program, the EPA may issue permits to allow Good Samaritans to remediate historic mine residue at abandoned hardrock mine sites without assuming liability under specified environmental laws for past, present, or future releases, threats of releases, or discharges of hazardous substances or other contaminants at or from the abandoned mine site.
In addition, the bill establishes a Good Samaritan Mine Remediation Fund for land management agencies that authorize Good Samaritans to conduct remediation projects on federal land. | To promote remediation of abandoned hardrock mines, and for other
purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Good Samaritan Remediation of
Abandoned Hardrock Mines Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Abandoned mine site.--
(A) In general.--The term ``abandoned mine site''
means an abandoned or inactive hardrock mine site and
any facility associated with an abandoned or inactive
hardrock mine site--
(i) that was used for the production of a
mineral other than coal conducted on Federal
land under sections 2319 through 2352 of the
Revised Statutes (commonly known as the
``Mining Law of 1872''; 30 U.S.C. 22 et seq.)
or on non-Federal land; and
(ii) for which, based on information
supplied by the Good Samaritan after review of
publicly available data and after review of
other information in the possession of the
Administrator, the Administrator or, in the
case of a site on land owned by the United
States, the Federal land management agency,
determines that no responsible owner or
operator has been identified--
(I) who is potentially liable for,
or has been required to perform or pay
for, environmental remediation
activities under applicable law; and
(II) other than, in the case of a
mine site located on land owned by the
United States, a Federal land
management agency that has not been
involved in mining activity on that
land, except that the approval of a
plan of operations under the hardrock
mining regulations of the applicable
Federal land management agency shall
not be considered involvement in the
mining activity.
(B) Inclusion.--The term ``abandoned mine site''
includes a hardrock mine site (including associated
facilities) that was previously the subject of a
completed response action under the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.) or a similar Federal
and State reclamation or cleanup program, including the
remediation of mine-scarred land under the brownfields
revitalization program under section 104(k) of the
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9604(k)).
(C) Exclusions.--The term ``abandoned mine site''
does not include a mine site (including associated
facilities)--
(i) in a temporary shutdown or cessation;
(ii) included on the National Priorities
List developed by the President in accordance
with section 105(a)(8)(B) of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9605(a)(8)(B))
or proposed for inclusion on that list;
(iii) that is the subject of a planned or
ongoing response action under the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.)
or a similar Federal and State reclamation or
cleanup program;
(iv) that has a responsible owner or
operator; or
(v) that actively mined or processed
minerals after December 11, 1980.
(2) Administrator.--The term ``Administrator'' means the
Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency.
(3) Applicable water quality standards.--The term
``applicable water quality standards'' means the water quality
standards promulgated by the Administrator or adopted by a
State or Indian tribe and approved by the Administrator
pursuant to the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C.
1251 et seq.).
(4) Cooperating person.--
(A) In general.--The term ``cooperating person''
means any person that is named by the Good Samaritan in
the permit application as a cooperating entity.
(B) Exclusion.--The term ``cooperating person''
does not include a responsible owner or operator.
(5) Federal land management agency.--The term ``Federal
land management agency'' means any Federal agency authorized by
law or Executive order to exercise jurisdiction, custody, or
control over land owned by the United States.
(6) Good samaritan.--The term ``Good Samaritan'' means a
person that, with respect to historic mine residue, as
determined by the Administrator--
(A) is not a past or current owner or operator of--
(i) the abandoned mine site at which the
historic mine residue is located; or
(ii) a portion of that abandoned mine site;
(B) had no role in the creation of the historic
mine residue; and
(C) is not potentially liable under any Federal,
State, Tribal, or local law for the remediation,
treatment, or control of the historic mine residue.
(7) Good samaritan permit.--The term ``Good Samaritan
permit'' means a permit granted by the Administrator under
section 4(a)(1).
(8) Historic mine residue.--
(A) In general.--The term ``historic mine residue''
means mine residue or any condition at an abandoned
mine site resulting from hardrock mining activities
conducted on--
(i) Federal land under sections 2319
through 2352 of the Revised Statutes (commonly
known as the ``Mining Law of 1872''; 30 U.S.C.
22 et seq.); or
(ii) State, Tribal, or private land.
(B) Inclusions.--The term ``historic mine residue''
includes--
(i) previously mined ores and minerals
other than coal that contribute to acid mine
drainage or other pollution;
(ii) equipment (including materials in
equipment);
(iii) any tailings, heap leach piles, dump
leach piles, waste rock, overburden, slag
piles, or other waste or material resulting
from any extraction, beneficiation, or other
processing activity that occurred during the
active operation of an abandoned mine site;
(iv) any acidic or otherwise polluted flow
in surface water or groundwater that originates
from, or is pooled and contained in, an
inactive or abandoned mine site, such as
underground workings, open pits, in-situ
leaching operations, ponds, or impoundments;
(v) any hazardous substance (as defined in
section 101 of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of
1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601));
(vi) any pollutant or contaminant (as
defined in section 101 of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601)); and
(vii) any pollutant (as defined in section
502 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act
(33 U.S.C. 1362)).
(9) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian tribe'' has the
meaning given the term in section 518(h) of the Federal Water
Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1377(h)).
(10) Investigative sampling permit.--The term
``investigative sampling permit'' means a permit granted by the
Administrator under section 4(d)(1).
(11) Person.--The term ``person'' means any entity
described in--
(A) section 502(5) of the Federal Water Pollution
Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1362(5)); and
(B) section 101(21) of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601(21)).
(12) Remediation.--
(A) In general.--The term ``remediation'' means any
action taken to investigate, characterize, or cleanup,
in whole or in part, a discharge, release, or threat of
release of a hazardous substance, pollutant, or
contaminant into the environment at or from an
abandoned mine site, or to otherwise protect and
improve human health and the environment.
(B) Inclusion.--The term ``remediation'' includes
any action to remove, treat, or contain historic mine
residue to prevent, minimize, or reduce--
(i) the release or threat of release of a
hazardous substance, pollutant, or contaminant
that would harm human health or the
environment; or
(ii) a migration or discharge of a
hazardous substance, pollutant, or contaminant
that would harm human health or the
environment.
(C) Exclusion for state, tribal, or private land.--
In the case of a project to remediate historic mine
residue at any portion of an abandoned mine site on
State, Tribal, or private land, the term
``remediation'' does not include any action that
requires plugging, opening, or otherwise altering the
portal or adit of the abandoned mine site.
(13) Reservation.--The term ``reservation'' has the meaning
given the term ``Indian country'' in section 1151 of title 18,
United States Code.
(14) Responsible owner or operator.--The term ``responsible
owner or operator'' means a person that is--
(A)(i) legally responsible under section 301 of the
Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1311)
for a discharge that originates from an abandoned mine
site; and
(ii) financially able to comply with each
requirement described in that section; or
(B)(i) a present or past owner or operator or other
person that is liable with respect to a release or
threat of release of a hazardous substance, pollutant,
or contaminant associated with the historic mine
residue at or from an abandoned mine site under section
104, 106, 107, or 113 of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9604, 9606, 9607, 9613); and
(ii) financially able to comply with each
requirement described in those sections, as applicable.
SEC. 3. SCOPE.
Nothing in this Act--
(1) reduces any existing liability;
(2) releases any person from liability, except in
compliance with this Act;
(3) authorizes the conduct of any mining or processing
other than the conduct of any processing of previously mined
ores, minerals, wastes, or other materials that is authorized
by a Good Samaritan permit;
(4) imposes liability on the United States or a Federal
land management agency pursuant to section 107 of the
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9607) or section 301 of the
Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1311); or
(5) relieves the United States or any Federal land
management agency from any liability under section 107 of the
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9607) or section 301 of the
Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1311) that
exists apart from any action undertaken pursuant to this Act.
SEC. 4. ABANDONED MINE SITE GOOD SAMARITAN PILOT PROJECT AUTHORIZATION.
(a) Establishment.--
(1) In general.--The Administrator shall establish a pilot
program under which the Administrator shall grant not more than
15 Good Samaritan permits to carry out projects to remediate
historic mine residue at any portions of abandoned mine sites
in accordance with this Act.
(2) Oversight of permits.--The Administrator may oversee
the remediation project under paragraph (1), and any action
taken by the applicable Good Samaritan or any cooperating
person under the applicable Good Samaritan permit, for the
duration of the Good Samaritan permit, as the Administrator
determines to be necessary to review the status of the project.
(b) Good Samaritan Permit Eligibility.--
(1) In general.--To be eligible to receive a Good Samaritan
permit to carry out a project to remediate an abandoned mine
site, a person shall demonstrate that--
(A) the abandoned mine site that is the subject of
the application for a Good Samaritan permit is located
in the United States;
(B) the purpose of the proposed project is the
remediation at that abandoned mine site of historic
mine residue;
(C) the proposed activities are designed to result
in the partial or complete remediation of historic mine
residue at the abandoned mine site;
(D) the proposed project poses a low risk to the
environment;
(E) to the satisfaction of the Administrator, the
person--
(i) possesses, or has the ability to
secure, the financial and other resources
necessary--
(I) to complete the permitted work,
as determined by the Administrator; and
(II) to address any contingencies
identified in the Good Samaritan permit
application described in subsection
(c);
(ii) possesses the proper and appropriate
experience and capacity to complete the
permitted work; and
(iii) will complete the permitted work; and
(F) the person is a Good Samaritan with respect to
the historic mine residue proposed to be covered by the
Good Samaritan permit.
(2) Identification of all responsible owners or
operators.--
(A) In general.--A Good Samaritan shall make
reasonable and diligent efforts to identify, from a
review of publicly available information in land
records or on internet websites of Federal, State, and
local regulatory authorities, all responsible owners or
operators of an abandoned mine site proposed to be
remediated by the Good Samaritan under this section.
(B) Existing responsible owner or operator.--If the
Administrator determines, based on information provided
by a Good Samaritan or otherwise, that a responsible
owner or operator exists for an abandoned mine site
proposed to be remediated by the Good Samaritan, the
Administrator shall deny the application for a Good
Samaritan permit.
(c) Application for Permits.--To obtain a Good Samaritan permit, a
person shall submit to the Administrator an application, signed by the
person and any cooperating person, that provides, to the extent known
or reasonably discoverable by the person on the date on which the
application is submitted--
(1) a description of the abandoned mine site (including the
boundaries of the abandoned mine site) proposed to be covered
by the Good Samaritan permit;
(2) a description of all parties proposed to be involved in
the remediation project, including any cooperating person and
each member of an applicable corporation, association,
partnership, consortium, joint venture, commercial entity, or
nonprofit association;
(3) evidence that the person has or will acquire all legal
rights or the authority necessary to enter the relevant
abandoned mine site and perform the remediation described in
the application;
(4) a detailed description of the historic mine residue to
be remediated;
(5) a detailed description of the expertise and experience
of the person and the resources available to the person to
successfully implement and complete the remediation plan under
paragraph (7);
(6) to the satisfaction of the Administrator and subject to
subsection (d), a description of the baseline environmental
conditions, including potentially affected surface water
quality and hydrological conditions, affected by the historic
mine residue to be remediated that includes--
(A) the nature and extent of any adverse impact on
the water quality of any body of water caused by the
drainage of historic mine residue or other discharges
from the abandoned mine site;
(B) the flow rate and concentration of any drainage
of historic mine residue or other discharge from the
abandoned mine site in any body of water that has
resulted in an adverse impact described in subparagraph
(A); and
(C) any other release or threat of release of
historic mine residue that has resulted in an adverse
impact to public health or the environment;
(7) subject to subsection (d), a remediation plan for the
abandoned mine site that describes--
(A) the nature and scope of the proposed
remediation activities, including--
(i) any historic mine residue to be
addressed by the remediation plan; and
(ii) a description of the goals of the
remediation including, if applicable, with
respect to--
(I) the reduction or prevention of
a release, threat of release, or
discharge to surface waters; or
(II) other appropriate goals
relating to water or soil;
(B) each activity that the person proposes to take
that is designed--
(i) to improve or enhance water quality or
site-specific soil quality relevant to the
historic mine residue addressed by the
remediation plan, including making measurable
progress toward achieving applicable water
quality standards; or
(ii) to otherwise protect human health and
the environment (including through the
prevention of a release, discharge, or threat
of release to water or soil);
(C) the monitoring or other form of assessment that
will be undertaken by the person to evaluate the
success of the activities described in subparagraph (A)
during and after the remediation, with respect to the
baseline conditions, as described in paragraph (6);
(D) to the satisfaction of the Administrator,
detailed engineering plans for the project;
(E) detailed plans for any proposed recycling or
reprocessing of historic mine residue to be conducted
by the person (including a description of how all
proposed recycling or reprocessing activities
contribute to the remediation of the abandoned mine
site); and
(F) identification of any proposed contractor that
will perform any remediation activity;
(8) subject to subsection (d), a schedule for the work to
be carried out under the project, including a schedule for
periodic reporting by the person on the remediation of the
abandoned mine site;
(9) subject to subsection (d), in the case of a remediation
activity that requires plugging, opening, or otherwise altering
the portal or adit of an abandoned mine site, an evaluation of
abandoned mine site conditions, including an assessment of any
pooled water or hydraulic pressure in the abandoned mine site
conducted by a licensed professional engineer;
(10) a health and safety plan that is specifically designed
for mining remediation work;
(11) a specific contingency plan that--
(A) includes provisions on response and
notification to Federal, State, and local authorities
with jurisdiction over downstream waters that have the
potential to be impacted by an unplanned release or
discharge of hazardous substances, pollutants, or
contaminants; and
(B) is designed to respond to unplanned adverse
events (such as potential fluid release that may result
from addressing pooled water or hydraulic pressure
situations), including the sudden release of historic
mine residue;
(12) subject to subsection (d), a project budget and
description of financial resources that demonstrate that the
permitted work, including any operation and maintenance, will
be completed;
(13) subject to subsection (d), information demonstrating
that the applicant has the financial resources to carry out the
remediation (including any long-term monitoring that may be
required by the Good Samaritan permit) or the ability to secure
an appropriate third-party financial assurance, as determined
by the Administrator, to ensure completion of the permitted
work, including any long-term operations and maintenance of
remediation activities that may be--
(A) proposed in the application for the Good
Samaritan permit; or
(B) required by the Administrator as a condition of
granting the permit;
(14) subject to subsection (d), a detailed plan for any
required operation and maintenance of any remediation,
including a timeline, if necessary;
(15) subject to subsection (d), a description of any
planned post-remediation monitoring, if necessary; and
(16) subject to subsection (d), any other appropriate
information, as determined by the Administrator or the
applicant.
(d) Investigative Sampling.--
(1) Investigative sampling permits.--The Administrator may
grant an investigative sampling permit for a period determined
by the Administrator to authorize a person to conduct
investigative sampling of historic mine residue, soil, or water
to determine--
(A) baseline conditions; and
(B) whether the person--
(i) is willing to perform further
remediation to address the historic mine
residue; and
(ii) will proceed with a permit conversion
under subsection (e)(1).
(2) Application.--If a person proposes to conduct
investigative sampling, the person shall submit to the
Administrator an investigative sampling permit application that
contains, to the satisfaction of the Administrator--
(A) each description required under paragraphs (1),
(2), (5), and (6) of subsection (c);
(B) the evidence required under subsection (c)(3);
(C) each plan required under paragraphs (10) and
(11) of subsection (c); and
(D) a detailed plan of the investigative sampling.
(3) Permit limitations.--
(A) In general.--If a person submits an application
that proposes only investigative sampling of historic
mine residue, soil, or water that only includes the
requirements described in paragraph (2), the
Administrator may only grant an investigative sampling
permit that authorizes the person only to carry out the
plan of investigative sampling of historic mine
residue, soil, or water, as described in the
investigative sampling permit application under
paragraph (2).
(B) Reprocessing.--An investigative sampling
permit--
(i) shall not authorize a Good Samaritan or
cooperating person to conduct any reprocessing
of material; and
(ii) may authorize metallurgical testing to
determine whether reprocessing under subsection
(f)(5)(B) is feasible.
(4) Requirements relating to samples.--In conducting
investigative sampling of historic mine residue, soil, or
water, a person shall--
(A) collect samples that are representative of the
conditions present at the abandoned mine site that is
the subject of the investigative sampling permit; and
(B) retain publicly available records of all
sampling events for a period of not less than 3 years.
(5) Post-sampling remediation.--
(A) Refusal to convert permit.--Subject to
subparagraph (B), a person who obtains an investigative
sampling permit may decline to apply to convert the
investigative sampling permit into a Good Samaritan
permit under paragraph (6) and decline to undertake
remediation on conclusion of investigative sampling.
(B) Return to preexisting conditions.--If the
activities carried out by a person under an
investigative sampling permit result in surface water
quality conditions, or any other environmental
conditions, that are worse than the preexisting
conditions of the applicable abandoned mine site due to
historic mine residue at the abandoned mine site, the
person shall undertake actions to return the abandoned
mine site to those preexisting conditions.
(6) Permit conversion.--Not later than 1 year after the
date on which the investigative sampling under the
investigative sampling permit concludes, a person to whom an
investigative sampling permit is granted under paragraph (1)
may apply to convert an investigative sampling permit into a
Good Samaritan permit under subsection (e)(1).
(e) Investigative Sampling Conversion.--
(1) In general.--A person to which an investigative
sampling permit was granted may submit to the Administrator an
application in accordance with paragraph (2) to convert the
investigative sampling permit into a Good Samaritan permit.
(2) Application.--
(A) Investigative sampling.--An application for the
conversion of an investigative sampling permit under
paragraph (1) shall include any requirement described
in subsection (c) that was not included in full in the
application submitted under subsection (d)(2).
(B) Public notice and comment.--An application for
permit conversion under this paragraph shall be subject
to--
(i) environmental review and public comment
procedures required by subsection (l); and
(ii) a public hearing, if requested.
(f) Content of Permits.--
(1) In general.--A Good Samaritan permit shall contain--
(A) the information described in subsection (c),
including any modification required by the
Administrator;
(B)(i) a provision that states that the Good
Samaritan is responsible for securing, for all
activities authorized under the Good Samaritan permit,
all authorizations, licenses, and permits that are
required under applicable law except for--
(I) section 301, 302, 306, 307, 402, or 404
of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
U.S.C. 1311, 1312, 1316, 1317, 1342, 1344); and
(II) authorizations, licenses, and permits
that would not need to be obtained if the
remediation was conducted pursuant to section
121 of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of
1980 (42 U.S.C. 9621); or
(ii) in the case of an abandoned mine site in a
State that is authorized to implement State law
pursuant to section 402 or 404 of the Federal Water
Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1342, 1344) or on land
of an Indian tribe that is authorized to implement
Tribal law pursuant to that section, a provision that
states that the Good Samaritan is responsible for
securing, for all activities authorized under the Good
Samaritan permit, all authorizations, licenses, and
permits that are required under applicable law, except
for--
(I) the State or Tribal law, as applicable;
and
(II) authorizations, licenses, and permits
that would not need to be obtained if the
remediation was conducted pursuant to section
121 of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of
1980 (42 U.S.C. 9621);
(C) specific public notification requirements,
including the contact information for all appropriate
response centers in accordance with subsection (o);
(D) in the case of a project on land owned by the
United States, a notice that the Good Samaritan permit
serves as an agreement for use and occupancy of Federal
land that is enforceable by the applicable Federal land
management agency; and
(E) any other terms and conditions determined to be
appropriate by the Administrator or the Federal land
management agency, as applicable.
(2) Force majeure.--A Good Samaritan permit may include, at
the request of the Good Samaritan, a provision that a Good
Samaritan may assert a claim of force majeure for any violation
of the Good Samaritan permit caused solely by--
(A) an act of God;
(B) an act of war;
(C) negligence on the part of the United States;
(D) an act or omission of a third party, if the
Good Samaritan--
(i) exercises due care with respect to the
actions of the Good Samaritan under the Good
Samaritan permit, as determined by the
Administrator;
(ii) took precautions against foreseeable
acts or omissions of the third party, as
determined by the Administrator; and
(iii) uses reasonable efforts--
(I) to anticipate any potential
force majeure; and
(II) to address the effects of any
potential force majeure; or
(E) a public health emergency declared by the
Federal Government or a global government, such as a
pandemic or an epidemic.
(3) Monitoring.--
(A) In general.--The Good Samaritan shall take such
actions as the Good Samaritan permit requires to ensure
appropriate baseline monitoring, monitoring during the
remediation project, and post-remediation monitoring of
the environment under paragraphs (6), (7), and (15),
respectively, of subsection (c).
(B) Multiparty monitoring.--The Administrator may
approve in a Good Samaritan permit the monitoring by
multiple cooperating persons if, as determined by the
Administrator--
(i) the multiparty monitoring will
effectively accomplish the goals of this
section; and
(ii) the Good Samaritan remains responsible
for compliance with the terms of the Good
Samaritan permit.
(4) Signature by good samaritan.--The signature of the
relevant Good Samaritan and a cooperating person, if any, on
the Good Samaritan permit shall be considered to be an
acknowledgment by the Good Samaritan that the Good Samaritan
accepts the terms and conditions of the Good Samaritan permit.
(5) Other development.--
(A) No authorization of mining activities.--No
mineral exploration, processing, beneficiation, or
mining shall be--
(i) authorized by this Act; or
(ii) covered by any waiver of liability
provided by this Act from applicable law.
(B) Reprocessing of materials.--A Good Samaritan
may reprocess materials recovered during the
implementation of a remediation plan only if--
(i) the project under the Good Samaritan
permit is on land owned by the United States;
(ii) the applicable Federal land management
agency has signed a decision document under
subsection (l)(2)(G) approving reprocessing as
part of a remediation plan;
(iii) the proceeds from the sale or use of
the materials are used--
(I) to defray the costs of the
remediation; and
(II) to the extent required by the
Good Samaritan permit, to reimburse the
Administrator or the head of a Federal
land management agency for any costs
incurred for oversight of the Good
Samaritan; and
(iv) any remaining proceeds are deposited
into the Good Samaritan Mine Remediation Fund
established by section 5(a).
(C) Connection with other activities.--The
commingling or association of any other discharge of
water or historic mine residue or any activity,
project, or operation conducted on or after the date of
enactment of this Act with any aspect of a project
subject to a Good Samaritan permit shall not limit or
reduce the liability of any person associated with the
other discharge of water or historic mine residue or
activity, project, or operation.
(g) Additional Work.--A Good Samaritan permit may allow the Good
Samaritan to return to the abandoned mine site after the completion of
the remediation to perform operations and maintenance or other work--
(1) to ensure the functionality of the abandoned mine site;
or
(2) to protect public health and the environment.
(h) Timing.--Work authorized under a Good Samaritan permit--
(1) shall commence, as applicable--
(A) not later than the date that is 18 months after
the date on which the Administrator granted the Good
Samaritan permit, unless the Administrator grants an
extension under subsection (r)(3)(B)(i); or
(B) if the grant of the Good Samaritan permit is
the subject of a petition for judicial review, not
later than the date that is 18 months after the date on
which the judicial review, including any appeals, has
concluded; and
(2) shall continue until completed, with temporary
suspensions permitted during adverse weather or other
conditions specified in the Good Samaritan permit.
(i) Transfer of Permits.--A Good Samaritan permit may be
transferred to another person only if--
(1) the Administrator determines that the transferee
qualifies as a Good Samaritan;
(2) the transferee signs, and agrees to be bound by the
terms of, the permit;
(3) the Administrator includes in the transferred permit
any additional conditions necessary to meet the goals of this
section; and
(4) in the case of a project under the Good Samaritan
permit on land owned by the United States, the head of the
applicable Federal land management agency approves the
transfer.
(j) Role of Administrator and Federal Land Management Agencies.--In
carrying out this section--
(1) the Administrator shall--
(A) consult with prospective applicants;
(B) convene, coordinate, and lead the application
review process;
(C) maintain all records relating to the Good
Samaritan permit and the permit process;
(D) in the case of a proposed project on State,
Tribal, or private land, provide an opportunity for
cooperating persons and the public to participate in
the Good Samaritan permit process, including--
(i) carrying out environmental review and
public comment procedures pursuant to
subsection (l); and
(ii) a public hearing, if requested; and
(E) enforce and otherwise carry out this section;
and
(2) the head of an applicable Federal land management
agency shall--
(A) in the case of a proposed project on land owned
by the United States, provide an opportunity for
cooperating persons and the public to participate in
the Good Samaritan permit process, including--
(i) carrying out environmental review and
public comment procedures pursuant to
subsection (l); and
(ii) a public hearing, if requested; and
(B) in coordination with the Administrator, enforce
Good Samaritan permits issued under this section for
projects on land owned by the United States.
(k) State, Local, and Tribal Governments.--As soon as practicable,
but not later than 14 days after the date on which the Administrator
receives an application for the remediation of an abandoned mine site
under this section, the Administrator shall provide notice and a copy
of the application to--
(1) each local government with jurisdiction over a drinking
water utility, and each Indian tribe with reservation or off-
reservation treaty rights to land or water, located downstream
from a proposed remediation project that is reasonably
anticipated to be adversely impacted by a potential release of
contaminants from the abandoned mine site, as determined by the
Administrator;
(2) each Federal, State, and Tribal agency that may have an
interest in the application; and
(3) in the case of an abandoned mine site that is located
partially or entirely on land owned by the United States, the
Federal land management agency with jurisdiction over that
land.
(l) Environmental Review and Public Comment.--
(1) In general.--Before the issuance of a Good Samaritan
permit to carry out a project for the remediation of an
abandoned mine site, the Administrator shall ensure that
environmental review and public comment procedures are carried
out with respect to the proposed project.
(2) Relation to nepa.--
(A) Major federal action.--Subject to subparagraph
(F), the issuance or modification of a Good Samaritan
permit by the Administrator shall be considered a major
Federal action for purposes of section 102 of the
National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C.
4332).
(B) Lead agency.--The lead agency for purposes of
an environmental assessment and public comment under
this subsection shall be--
(i) in the case of a proposed project on
land owned by the United States, the applicable
Federal land management agency; and
(ii) in the case of a proposed project on
State, Tribal, or private land, the
Administrator.
(C) Coordination.--To the maximum extent
practicable, the lead agency described in subparagraph
(B) shall coordinate procedures under the National
Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et
seq.) with State, Tribal, and Federal cooperating
agencies, as applicable.
(D) Cooperating agency.--In the case of a proposed
project on land owned by the United States, the
Administrator shall be a cooperating agency for
purposes of an environmental assessment and public
comment under this subsection.
(E) Single nepa document.--The lead agency
described in subparagraph (B) may conduct a single
environmental assessment for--
(i) the issuance of a Good Samaritan
permit;
(ii) any activities authorized by a Good
Samaritan permit; and
(iii) any applicable permits required by
the Secretary of the Interior or the Secretary
of Agriculture.
(F) Significant impacts.--A Good Samaritan permit
may only be issued if the head of the lead agency makes
a finding of no significant impact supported by the
environmental assessment conducted pursuant to this
subsection.
(G) Decision document.--An approval or denial of a
Good Samaritan permit may be issued as a single
decision document that is signed by--
(i) the Administrator; and
(ii) in the case of a project on land owned
by the United States, the head of the
applicable Federal land management agency.
(H) Limitation.--Nothing in this paragraph exempts
the Secretary of Agriculture or the Secretary of the
Interior, as applicable, from any other requirements of
section 102 of the National Environmental Policy Act of
1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332).
(m) Permit Grant.--
(1) In general.--The Administrator may grant a Good
Samaritan permit to carry out a project for the remediation of
an abandoned mine site only if--
(A) the Administrator determines that--
(i) the person seeking the permit is a Good
Samaritan;
(ii) the application described in
subsection (c) is complete;
(iii) the project is designed to remediate
historic mine residue at the abandoned mine
site to protect public health and the
environment;
(iv) the proposed project is designed to
meet all other goals, as determined by the
Administrator, including any goals set forth in
the application for the Good Samaritan permit
that are accepted by the Administrator;
(v) the proposed activities, as compared to
the baseline conditions described in subsection
(c)(6)--
(I) will make measurable progress
toward achieving applicable water
quality standards; or
(II) are designed to result in--
(aa) improved soil quality
or other environmental or
safety conditions; or
(bb) reductions in further
threats to soil quality or
other environmental or safety
conditions;
(vi) the applicant has--
(I) demonstrated that the applicant
has the proper and appropriate
experience and capacity to complete the
permitted work;
(II) demonstrated that the
applicant will complete the permitted
work;
(III) the financial and other
resources to address any contingencies
identified in the Good Samaritan permit
application described in subsections
(b) and (c);
(IV) granted access and provided
the authority to review the records of
the applicant relevant to compliance
with the requirements of the Good
Samaritan permit; and
(V) demonstrated, to the
satisfaction of the Administrator,
that--
(aa) the applicant has, or
has access to, the financial
resources to complete the
project described in the Good
Samaritan permit application,
including any long-term
monitoring and operations and
maintenance that the
Administrator may require the
applicant to perform in the
Good Samaritan permit; or
(bb) the applicant has
established a third-party
financial assurance mechanism,
such as a corporate guarantee
from a parent or other
corporate affiliate, letter of
credit, trust, surety bond, or
insurance to assure that funds
are available to complete the
permitted work, including for
operations and maintenance and
to address potential
contingencies, that establishes
the Administrator or the head
of the Federal land management
agency as the beneficiary of
the third-party financial
assurance mechanism and that
allows the Administrator to
retain and use the funds from
the financial assurance
mechanism in the event the Good
Samaritan does not complete the
remediation under the Good
Samaritan permit; and
(vii) the project meets the requirements of
this Act;
(B) the State or Indian tribe with jurisdiction
over land on which the abandoned mine site is located
has been given an opportunity to review and, if
necessary, comment on the grant of the Good Samaritan
permit;
(C) in the case of a project proposed to be carried
out under the Good Samaritan permit partially or
entirely on land owned by the United States, pursuant
to subsection (l), the head of the applicable Federal
land management agency has signed a decision document
approving the proposed project; and
(D) the Administrator or head of the Federal land
management agency, as applicable, has provided--
(i) environmental review and public comment
procedures required by subsection (l); and
(ii) a public hearing under that
subsection, if requested.
(2) Deadline.--
(A) In general.--The Administrator shall grant or
deny a Good Samaritan permit by not later than--
(i) the date that is 180 days after the
date of receipt by the Administrator of an
application for the Good Samaritan permit that,
as determined by the Administrator, is complete
and meets all applicable requirements of
subsection (c); or
(ii) such later date as may be determined
by the Administrator with notification provided
to the applicant.
(B) Constructive denial.--If the Administrator
fails to grant or deny a Good Samaritan permit by the
applicable deadline described in subparagraph (A), the
application shall be considered to be denied.
(3) Discretionary action.--The issuance of a permit by the
Administrator and the approval of a project by the head of an
applicable Federal land management agency shall be considered
to be discretionary actions taken in the public interest.
(n) Effect of Permits.--
(1) In general.--A Good Samaritan, recipient of an
investigative sampling permit, and any cooperating person
undertaking remediation activities identified in, carried out
pursuant to, and in compliance with, a Good Samaritan permit--
(A) shall be considered to be in compliance with
all requirements (including permitting requirements)
under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
U.S.C. 1251 et seq.) (including any law or regulation
implemented by a State or Indian tribe under section
402 or 404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act
(33 U.S.C. 1342, 1344)) and the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.) during the term of the
Good Samaritan permit and after the termination of the
Good Samaritan permit;
(B) shall not be required to obtain a permit under,
or to comply with, section 301, 302, 306, 307, 402, or
404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
U.S.C. 1311, 1312, 1316, 1317, 1342, 1344), or any
State or Tribal standards or regulations approved by
the Administrator under those sections of that Act,
during the term of the Good Samaritan permit and after
the termination of the Good Samaritan permit; and
(C) shall not be required to obtain any
authorizations, licenses, or permits that would
otherwise not need to be obtained if the remediation
was conducted pursuant to section 121 of the
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9621).
(2) Activities not relating to remediation.--
(A) In general.--Any person (including a Good
Samaritan or any cooperating person) that carries out
any activity relating to mineral exploration,
processing, beneficiation, or mining, including
development, that is not authorized by the applicable
Good Samaritan permit shall be subject to all
applicable law.
(B) Liability.--Any activity not authorized by a
Good Samaritan permit, as determined by the
Administrator, may be subject to liability and
enforcement under all applicable law, including--
(i) the Federal Water Pollution Control Act
(33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.); and
(ii) the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of
1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.).
(3) No enforcement liability for good samaritans.--
(A) Discharges.--Subject to subparagraphs (B) and
(C), a Good Samaritan, recipient of an investigative
sampling permit, or cooperating person that is
conducting a remediation activity identified in,
pursuant to, and in compliance with, a Good Samaritan
permit shall not be subject to enforcement, civil or
criminal penalties, citizen suits, or any other
liability (including any liability for response costs,
natural resource damage, or contribution) under the
Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 et
seq.) (including under any law or regulation
administered by a State or Indian tribe under that Act)
or the Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601
et seq.) for any actions undertaken or for any past,
present, or future releases, threats of releases, or
discharges of hazardous substances, pollutants, or
contaminants at or from the abandoned mine site that is
the subject of the Good Samaritan permit (including any
releases, threats of releases, or discharges that
occurred prior to the grant of the Good Samaritan
permit) during the term of the Good Samaritan permit
and after termination of the Good Samaritan permit.
(B) Other parties.--Nothing in subparagraph (A)
limits the liability of any person that is not
described in that subparagraph.
(C) Violation of a permit prior to termination.--
Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), if a Good Samaritan
or cooperating person violates the terms of a Good
Samaritan permit and that violation results in surface
water quality or other environmental conditions that
are measurably worse than baseline conditions at the
abandoned mine site, the Administrator shall--
(i) notify the Good Samaritan and the
cooperating person of the violation; and
(ii) require the Good Samaritan or the
cooperating person, as applicable, to undertake
reasonable measures, as determined by the
Administrator, to return surface water quality
or other environmental conditions to the
condition that existed prior to the violation.
(4) Minor or corrected permit violations.--For purposes of
this subsection, failure to comply with any term, condition, or
limitation of a Good Samaritan permit or investigative sampling
permit shall not be considered a permit violation or
noncompliance if--
(A) that failure to comply is corrected by the
permittee within a reasonable period of time, as
established by the Administrator; and
(B)(i) that failure or noncompliance does not
result in a measurable adverse impact on water quality
or other environmental conditions; or
(ii) the water quality and other affected
environmental conditions as a result of that failure or
noncompliance have been returned to the condition that
existed prior to the violation, as described in
paragraph (3)(C)(ii).
(o) Public Notification of Adverse Event.--A Good Samaritan shall
notify all appropriate Federal, State, Tribal, and local entities of
any unplanned or previously unknown release of historic mine residue
caused by the actions of the Good Samaritan or any cooperating person
in accordance with--
(1) section 103 of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C.
9603);
(2) section 304 of the Emergency Planning and Community
Right-To-Know Act of 1986 (42 U.S.C. 11004);
(3) the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
et seq.);
(4) any other applicable provision of Federal law; and
(5) any other applicable provision of State, Tribal, or
local law.
(p) Grant Eligibility.--A remediation project conducted under a
Good Samaritan permit shall be eligible for funding pursuant to--
(1) section 319 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act
(33 U.S.C. 1329); and
(2) section 104(k) of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C.
9604(k)).
(q) Emergency Authority and Liability.--
(1) Emergency authority.--Nothing in this section affects
the authority of--
(A) the Administrator to take any responsive action
authorized by law; or
(B) a Federal, State, Tribal, or local agency to
carry out any emergency authority, including an
emergency authority provided under Federal, State,
Tribal, or local law.
(2) Liability.--Except as specifically provided in this
Act, nothing in this Act, a Good Samaritan permit, or an
investigative sampling permit limits the liability of any
person (including a Good Samaritan or any cooperating person)
under any provision of law.
(r) Termination of Authority.--
(1) Termination.--
(A) In general.--Except as provided in subparagraph
(B), the authority to grant Good Samaritan permits
pursuant to this Act shall terminate on the date that
is 7 years after the date of enactment of this Act.
(B) Exception.--Notwithstanding subparagraph (A),
the Administrator may grant a Good Samaritan permit
pursuant to this Act after the date identified in
subparagraph (A) if the application for the Good
Samaritan permit--
(i) was submitted not later than 180 days
before that date; and
(ii) was completed in accordance with
subsection (e)(1) by not later than 7 years
after the date of enactment of this Act.
(2) Effect on certain permits.--Any Good Samaritan permit
granted by the deadline prescribed in subparagraph (A) or (B)
of paragraph (1), as applicable, that is in effect on the date
that is 7 years after the date of enactment of this Act shall
remain in effect after that date in accordance with--
(A) the terms and conditions of the Good Samaritan
permit; and
(B) this Act.
(3) Termination of permit.--
(A) In general.--A Good Samaritan permit shall
terminate, as applicable--
(i) on inspection and notice from the
Administrator to the recipient of the Good
Samaritan permit that the permitted work has
been completed in accordance with the terms of
the Good Samaritan permit, as determined by the
Administrator;
(ii) if the Administrator terminates a
permit under paragraph (4)(B)(i); or
(iii) except as provided in subparagraph
(B)--
(I) on the date that is 18 months
after the date on which the
Administrator granted the Good
Samaritan permit, if the permitted work
has not commenced by that date; or
(II) if the grant of the Good
Samaritan permit was the subject of a
petition for judicial review, on the
date that is 18 months after the date
on which the judicial review, including
any appeals, has concluded, if the
permitted work has not commenced by
that date.
(B) Extension.--
(i) In general.--If the Administrator is
otherwise required to terminate a Good
Samaritan permit under subparagraph (A)(iii),
the Administrator may grant an extension of the
Good Samaritan permit.
(ii) Limitation.--Any extension granted
under clause (i) shall be not more than 180
days for each extension.
(4) Unforeseen circumstances.--
(A) In general.--The recipient of a Good Samaritan
permit or investigative sampling permit may seek to
modify or terminate the Good Samaritan permit or
investigative sampling permit to take into account any
event or condition that--
(i) significantly reduces the feasibility
or significantly increases the cost of
completing the remediation project that is the
subject of the Good Samaritan permit or
investigative sampling permit;
(ii) was not--
(I) reasonably contemplated by the
recipient of the permit; or
(II) taken into account in the
remediation plan of the recipient of
the permit; and
(iii) is beyond the control of the
recipient of the permit, as determined by the
Administrator.
(B) Termination.--
(i) In general.--The Administrator shall
terminate a Good Samaritan permit or
investigative sampling permit if--
(I) the recipient of the permit
seeks termination of the permit under
subparagraph (A);
(II) the factors described in
subparagraph (A) are satisfied; and
(III) the Administrator determines
that remediation activities conducted
by the Good Samaritan or person
pursuant to the Good Samaritan permit
or investigative sampling permit,
respectively, may result in surface
water quality conditions, or any other
environmental conditions, that will be
worse than the baseline conditions, as
described in subsection (c)(6), as
applicable.
(ii) Effect of termination.--
Notwithstanding the termination of a Good
Samaritan permit or an investigative sampling
permit under clause (i), the provisions of
paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (n)
shall continue to apply to the Good Samaritan,
the recipient of an investigative sampling
permit, and any cooperating persons after the
termination, including to any long-term
operations and maintenance pursuant to the
agreement under paragraph (5).
(5) Long-term operations and maintenance.--In the case of a
project that involves long-term operations and maintenance at
an abandoned mine site located on land owned by the United
States, the project may be considered complete and the
Administrator may terminate the Good Samaritan permit under
this subsection if the applicable Good Samaritan has entered
into an agreement with the applicable Federal land management
agency or a cooperating person for the long-term operations and
maintenance that includes sufficient funding for the long-term
operations and maintenance.
(s) Regulations.--
(1) In general.--Subject to paragraph (2), not later than
18 months after the date of enactment of this Act, the
Administrator, in consultation with the Secretary of the
Interior and the Secretary of Agriculture, and appropriate
State, Tribal, and local officials, shall promulgate
regulations to establish--
(A) requirements for remediation plans described in
subsection (c); and
(B) any other requirement that the Administrator
determines to be necessary to carry out this Act.
(2) Specific requirements before promulgation of
regulations.--Before the date on which the Administrator
promulgates regulations under paragraph (1), the Administrator
may establish, on a case-by-case basis, specific requirements
that the Administrator determines would facilitate the
implementation of this subsection with respect to a Good
Samaritan permitting program.
SEC. 5. SPECIAL ACCOUNTS.
(a) Establishment.--There is established in the Treasury of the
United States a Good Samaritan Mine Remediation Fund (referred to in
this section as a ``Fund'') for--
(1) each Federal land management agency that authorizes a
Good Samaritan to conduct a project on Federal land under the
jurisdiction of that Federal land management agency under a
Good Samaritan permit; and
(2) the Environmental Protection Agency.
(b) Deposits.--Each Fund shall consist of--
(1) amounts provided in appropriation Acts;
(2) any proceeds from reprocessing deposited under section
4(f)(5)(B)(iv);
(3) any financial assurance funds collected from an
agreement described in section 4(m)(1)(A)(vi)(V)(bb);
(4) any funds collected for long-term operations and
maintenance under an agreement under section 4(r)(5);
(5) any interest earned under an investment under
subsection (c);
(6) any proceeds from the sale or redemption of investments
held in the Fund; and
(7) any amounts donated to the Fund by any person.
(c) Unused Funds.--Amounts in each Fund not currently needed to
carry out this Act shall be--
(1) maintained as readily available or on deposit;
(2) invested in obligations of the United States or
guaranteed by the United States; or
(3) invested in obligations, participations, or other
instruments that are lawful investments for a fiduciary, a
trust, or public funds.
(d) Retain and Use Authority.--The Administrator and each head of a
Federal land management agency, as appropriate, may, notwithstanding
any other provision of law, retain and use money deposited in the
applicable Fund without fiscal year limitation for the purpose of
carrying out this Act.
SEC. 6. REPORT TO CONGRESS.
(a) In General.--Not later than 8 years after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Administrator, in consultation with the heads of
Federal land management agencies, shall submit to the Committee on
Environment and Public Works of the Senate and the Committees on
Transportation and Infrastructure, Energy and Commerce, and Natural
Resources of the House of Representatives a report evaluating the Good
Samaritan pilot program under this Act.
(b) Inclusions.--The report under subsection (a) shall include--
(1) a description of--
(A) the number, types, and objectives of Good
Samaritan permits granted pursuant to this Act; and
(B) each remediation project authorized by those
Good Samaritan permits;
(2) qualitative and quantitative data on the results
achieved under the Good Samaritan permits before the date of
issuance of the report;
(3) a description of--
(A) any problems encountered in administering this
Act; and
(B) whether the problems have been or can be
remedied by administrative action (including amendments
to existing law);
(4) a description of progress made in achieving the
purposes of this Act; and
(5) recommendations on whether the Good Samaritan pilot
program under this Act should be continued, including a
description of any modifications (including amendments to
existing law) required to continue administering this Act.
<all> | Good Samaritan Remediation of Abandoned Hardrock Mines Act of 2022 | A bill to promote remediation of abandoned hardrock mines, and for other purposes. | Good Samaritan Remediation of Abandoned Hardrock Mines Act of 2022 | Sen. Heinrich, Martin | D | NM |
569 | 953 | S.4401 | Government Operations and Politics | First Opportunity for Information to Americans Act or the FOIA Fix Act
This bill bars certain foreign nationals and entities from obtaining U.S. government records under the Freedom of Information Act.
The bill specifically prohibits an agency from making records available to specified requesters, including an entity that is a subsidiary of an entity with a principal place of business or headquarters located in China, Russia, North Korea, Iran, Cuba, Syria, or Venezuela.
Further, the bill sets penalties for knowingly assisting, conspiring, or abetting a request for information on behalf of an individual or entity that is prohibited from receiving it. | To modify the Freedom of Information Act, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``First Opportunity for Information to
Americans Act'' or the ``FOIA Fix Act''.
SEC. 2. FOIA REQUESTS.
Section 552 of title 5, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (3)(A), by inserting ``or
paragraph (9)'' after ``subparagraph (E)''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(9)(A) Except as provided in subparagraph (D), an agency may not
make any record available under this subsection to any requester that--
``(i) is an individual who is not a citizen of the United
States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
``(ii) is an entity that does not have a principal place of
business or headquarters located in a State, the District of
Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States;
or
``(iii) is an entity that is a subsidiary of an entity with
a principal place of business or headquarters located in--
``(I) the People's Republic of China;
``(II) the Russian Federation;
``(III) the Democratic People's Republic of Korea;
``(IV) the Islamic Republic of Iran;
``(V) the Republic of Cuba;
``(VI) the Syrian Arab Republic; or
``(VII) the regime of Nicolas Maduro in Venezuela.
``(B) Knowingly assisting, conspiring, or abetting a request for
information under this section on behalf of an individual or entity
that is prohibited from receiving the information under subparagraph
(A) is punishable by a fine of up $10,000 per violation and not more
than 1 year in prison.
``(C) Each agency shall promulgate regulations as necessary to
carry out subparagraph (A).
``(D) Subparagraph (A) shall not apply to a requester that is
seeking official copies of the immigration court proceedings of the
requester.
``(10) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an
agency may determine the manner in which a request is fulfilled under
this subsection if the agency has a reasonable belief that fulfilling
the request in the manner requested by the requester--
``(A) is likely to result in the exposure of material or
information that is not responsive to the request, including
any data describing the structure, data elements,
interrelationships, or other characteristics of electronic
records otherwise responsive to the request; or
``(B) poses a material security risk to the agency or
another entity in the Federal Government.''; and
(2) in subsection (b)--
(A) in paragraph (8), by striking ``or'' at the
end; and
(B) in paragraph (9), by striking the period at the
end and inserting ``; or''; and
(C) by adding at the end the following:
``(10) records or information, such as blueprints,
schematics, formulae, technical expertise, or other similar
information that is susceptible to reverse engineering--
``(A) the disclosure of which is likely to damage
the interests of the United States;
``(B) that is materially related to the study of an
emerging or foundational technology identified by the
Department of Commerce; and
``(C) for which the interest of the public in
disclosure does not outweigh the interests described in
subparagraph (A).''.
<all> | FOIA Fix Act | A bill to modify the Freedom of Information Act, and for other purposes. | FOIA Fix Act
First Opportunity for Information to Americans Act | Sen. Rubio, Marco | R | FL |
570 | 3,560 | S.4258 | Commerce | Competition and Transparency in Digital Advertising Act This bill limits certain large digital advertising companies from owning multiple types of advertising exchanges or brokerages and imposes certain duties with respect to the interests of the customers of such brokerages. Advertising exchanges and brokerages generally facilitate advertisers and publishers in buying and selling advertising inventory through an automated bidding process. Specifically, companies with more than $20 billion in annual digital advertising revenue are prohibited from owning more than one type of service within the digital advertising marketplace. For example, a company, such as Google, may not own a digital advertising exchange and provide software that assists publishers of online advertisements in selling advertising space on their websites. Additionally, companies with more than $5 billion in annual digital advertising revenue that provide brokerage services to buyers or sellers of digital advertisements must act in the best interest of their brokerage customers. The bill also establishes transparency and privacy requirements for such brokerages. The bill provides for enforcement of these requirements by the Department of Justice, state attorneys general, and private right of action.
| To prevent conflicts of interest and promote competition in the sale
and purchase of digital advertising.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Competition and Transparency in
Digital Advertising Act''.
SEC. 2. DIGITAL ADVERTISING TRADING TRANSPARENCY AND COMPETITION.
The Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 12 et seq.) is amended by inserting
after section 8 (15 U.S.C. 19) the following:
``SEC. 8A. COMPETITION AND TRANSPARENCY IN DIGITAL ADVERTISING.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Brokerage customer.--The term `brokerage customer'
means a person who has purchased or sold digital
advertisements, or directly related goods or services, through
a buy-side brokerage or a sell-side brokerage.
``(2) Buy-side brokerage.--The term `buy-side brokerage'
means a person in the business of effecting transactions on
digital advertising exchanges, including by offering software
or services that assist in serving or displaying digital
advertisements, for other buyers.
``(3) Digital advertisement.--The term `digital
advertisement' means an advertisement that is served
electronically over a computer network, including the internet.
``(4) Digital advertising exchange.--The term `digital
advertising exchange' means a person who constitutes,
maintains, or provides a marketplace for or facilitates
bringing together buyers and 1 or more sellers of digital
advertisements, or for otherwise performing with respect to
digital advertising the functions commonly performed by a
digital advertising marketplace.
``(5) Digital advertising revenue.--The term `digital
advertising revenue' means the greater of--
``(A) global revenue derived from or directly
related to the operation of a digital advertising
exchange, a buy-side brokerage, or a sell-side
brokerage; or
``(B) the greater of--
``(i) the sum of the clearing prices of all
digital advertisements bought or sold from or
through a digital advertising exchange;
``(ii) the total value of the gross
advertising spending managed by a buy-side
brokerage; or
``(iii) the total value of the gross
advertising sales managed by a sell-side
brokerage.
``(6) Divestiture deadline.--The term `divestiture
deadline' means the later of--
``(A) 30 days after the date on which the Attorney
General approves or denies a required divestiture; or
``(B) 30 days after the expiration of any
applicable waiting period under section 7A.
``(7) Effective date.--The term `effective date' means the
date that is 1 year after the date of enactment of this
section.
``(8) Own.--The term `own' means to own, operate, or
control, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part.
``(9) Person.--The term `person' includes--
``(A) any subsidiary of an entity; and
``(B) any corporate parent of an entity.
``(10) Required divestiture.--The term `required
divestiture'--
``(A) means a divestiture, sale, or other
transaction undertaken to comply with any provision of
this Act; and
``(B) does not include any action required by a
court of the United States.
``(11) Sell-side brokerage.--The term `sell-side brokerage'
means a person in the business of effecting transactions on
digital advertising exchanges, including by offering software
or services that assist in serving or displaying digital
advertisements, for other sellers.
``(12) Third-party.--The term `third-party' means, for each
person subject to this Act, an entity that--
``(A) neither owns nor is owned by that person; and
``(B) is not affiliated with the person through
direct or indirect ownership or control.
``(b) Prohibitions.--No person with more than $20,000,000,000 (as
adjusted each year on January 1 by an amount equal to the percentage
increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index, as determined by the
Department of Labor or its successor) in digital advertising revenue
during the previous calendar year may, after the effective date--
``(1) own a digital advertising exchange if that person
owns either a sell-side brokerage or a buy-side brokerage, or
is a seller of digital advertising space;
``(2) own a sell-side brokerage if that person owns a buy-
side brokerage; or
``(3) own a buy-side brokerage or a sell-side brokerage if
that person is also a buyer or seller of digital advertising
space.
``(c) Requirements.--Any person with more than $5,000,000,000 (as
adjusted each year on January 1 by an amount equal to the percentage
increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index, as determined by the
Department of Labor or its successor) in digital advertising revenue
during the previous calendar year shall be subject to, as of the
effective date, the following requirements:
``(1) Best interest duty.--A buy-side brokerage or sell-
side brokerage shall, in the course of providing services as a
brokerage, use reasonable diligence, care, and skill to act in
the best interests of their brokerage customers, and may not
put their own interests ahead of those of their brokerage
customers.
``(2) Best execution duty.--A buy-side brokerage or sell-
side brokerage shall seek the most favorable terms reasonably
available under the circumstances for each order transaction of
the brokerage customer.
``(3) Transparency requirements.--
``(A) In general.--Upon written request from a
brokerage customer, a buy-side brokerage or sell-side
brokerage shall supply to that brokerage customer,
within a reasonable time, information sufficient to
permit the brokerage customer to verify compliance of
the brokerage with its obligations under paragraphs (1)
and (2).
``(B) Contents.--The information described in
subparagraph (A) shall include, if requested and to the
extent such information is collected by the brokerage
in the ordinary course of business--
``(i) in the case of a sell-side brokerage
providing information to a sell-side brokerage
customer--
``(I) a unique and persistent
identifier that identifies each unique
digital advertising space for sale;
``(II) for each identifier
described in subclause (I), all bids
received, and, for each bid received,
the bid submitted to the digital
advertising exchange on behalf of the
buy-side brokerage customer, the
winning price, the uniform resource
locator or other property identifier at
the lowest level of granularity, the
identity of the digital advertising
exchange or other digital advertising
venue returning the bid, date, time
that the bid response was received in
microseconds or a lower level of
granularity, web domain associated with
the advertising creative, the
advertising creative size and format,
and whether the bid won the seller's
impression;
``(III) the nature of any data
collected or derived from the brokerage
customer or any user or customer of the
brokerage customer, and the ways in
which that data is used by the sell-
side brokerage;
``(IV) the order or bid routing
practices or processes, including any
material exceptions to the standard
practice of the brokerage; and
``(V) the source and nature of any
compensation paid or received in
connection with transactions; and
``(ii) in the case of a buy-side brokerage
providing information to a buy-side brokerage
customer--
``(I) all bids won by the buy-side
brokerage customer, and for each bid
won, the maximum allowed bid of the
advertiser, if any, the uniform
resource locator or other property
identifier at the lowest level of
granularity, date, the digital
advertising exchange, the web domain
associated with the advertising
creative, the advertising creative size
and format, the winning price, the bid
submitted to the digital advertising
exchange on behalf of the buy-side
brokerage customer, and, if possible,
whether the ad served and whether the
ad rendered;
``(II) the order or bid routing
practices or processes; and
``(III) the source and nature of
any compensation paid or received in
connection with transactions.
``(C) Retention of records.--Brokerages shall
retain the records specified in subparagraph (B), where
applicable and when collected in the ordinary course of
business, until provided to a requesting brokerage
customer but not longer than 90 days. Brokerages shall
retain billing information for their brokerage
customers for not fewer than 12 months.
``(D) User privacy.--
``(i) In general.--When providing
information to a brokerage customer in response
to a request authorized by subparagraph (A),
the brokerage shall, to the greatest extent
possible consistent with the purpose of
subparagraph (A), anonymize, hash, or otherwise
render the information incapable of being tied
to an individual web user.
``(ii) Prohibiting tracking.--A brokerage
customer may not use data or information
received in response to a request made under
subparagraph (A) for any purpose other than--
``(I) verifying compliance of a
brokerage with its obligations under
paragraphs (1) and (2); or
``(II) bringing an action under
subsection (d)(3).
``(4) Firewalls.--
``(A) Buy-side and sell-side brokerages.--Buy-side
brokerages and sell-side brokerages shall establish,
maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures
reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the
obligations under this subsection.
``(B) Other persons.--Persons not subject to
prohibitions under subsection (b) shall establish,
maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures
reasonably designed to ensure that their buy-side
brokerage, sell-side brokerage, digital advertising
exchange, and role as a buyer or seller of digital
advertising, where applicable, operate separate and
independent from one another and transact business at
arm's length.
``(5) Fair access duty.--A digital advertising exchange
shall provide every buyer and seller in the exchange fair
access, including with respect to operations of the exchange,
co-location, any technology systems or data, information
related to transactions, service, or products offered, exchange
processes, and functionality.
``(6) Time synchronization.--A digital advertising
exchange, buy-side brokerage, or sell-side brokerage shall--
``(A) synchronize its business clocks at a minimum
to within a 2 milliseconds tolerance of the time
maintained by the atomic clock of the National
Institute of Standards and Technology; and
``(B) maintain the synchronization described in
subparagraph (A).
``(7) Data ownership.--All records pertaining to an order
solicited or submitted by a brokerage customer, and the
subsequent result of that order, shall remain the property of
that customer, including any bids solicited from or submitted
to any digital advertising exchange, unless the information is
otherwise publicly available.
``(8) Routing practices disclosure.--
``(A) In general.--Every sell-side brokerage and
buy-side brokerage shall--
``(i) make publicly available for each
calendar quarter a report on the order routing
practices of the sell-side brokerage or buy-
side brokerage, as applicable, for digital
advertisements during that quarter broken down
by calendar month; and
``(ii) retain the report described in
clause (i) posted on an internet website that
is free and readily accessible to the public
for 3-year period beginning on the date on
which the report is posted.
``(B) Format.--Reports made available pursuant to
subparagraph (A) shall--
``(i) be rendered in a format that makes
the reports readily informative to the average
brokerage customer; and
``(ii) include for the 10 venues to which
the largest number of total bid requests or bid
responses were routed for execution and for any
venue to which 5 percent or more of bid
requests or bid responses were routed for
execution--
``(I) the total number of bids
routed;
``(II) the total number of bids
executed;
``(III) the fill rate of bids;
``(IV) the average net execution
fee or rebate per 1,000 impressions;
``(V) the average time in
milliseconds between when a bid request
is sent and when a bid response is
received; and
``(VI) the value and form of any
compensation given in exchange for
routing or execution.
``(9) Certification.--A digital advertising exchange, buy-
side brokerage, or sell-side brokerage shall certify to the
Attorney General on an annual basis that the digital
advertising exchange has complied with the requirements under
this subsection.
``(d) Enforcement.--
``(1) Attorney general and state attorneys general.--
``(A) In general.--The Attorney General and State
attorneys general may bring an action on behalf of
persons in the United States injured in their business
or property by reason of any violation of this Act in
any district court of the United States in the district
in which the defendant resides or is found or has an
agent, without respect to the amount in controversy,
and shall--
``(i) in a case brought by the Attorney
General or a State attorney general, be
entitled to injunctive relief; and
``(ii) in a case brought by the Attorney
General, recover damages sustained by such
persons.
``(B) Damages.--
``(i) In general.--The court may award
under this subsection, pursuant to a motion by
the Attorney General promptly made, simple
interest on actual damages in accordance with
the requirements under subparagraph (A).
``(ii) No duplicative award.--A court may
not award any damages under this subparagraph
that are duplicative of damages awarded before
the date of the award under this subparagraph
in a separate civil action pertaining to the
same conduct and injured party.
``(iii) Payments.--A court awarding damages
to a person in a civil action after the date of
an award of damages under this subsection that
would be duplicative of damages awarded to the
Attorney General on behalf of the person shall
direct that such damages shall first be paid by
the Attorney General from amounts in the Fund
and, to the extent such damages are not fully
paid from amounts in the Fund, shall be paid by
the defendant.
``(C) Antitrust consumer damages fund.--
``(i) In general.--There is established in
the Treasury of the United States a fund to be
known as the `Antitrust Consumer Damages Fund'
(in this subsection referred to as the `Fund'),
which shall consist of amounts deposited under
clause (ii).
``(ii) Deposits and availability.--
Notwithstanding section 3302 of title 31,
United States Code, any amounts received by the
Attorney General under an award under this
subsection--
``(I) shall be deposited in the
Fund; and
``(II) shall be available to the
Attorney General, without further
appropriation, for distribution to
persons in the United States harmed by
the applicable violation of the Sherman
Act (15 U.S.C. 1 et seq.).
``(iii) Deposits into general fund.--
Effective on the day after the date that is 10
years after the date on which an award is
received under this paragraph, the unobligated
balances in the Fund of amounts that were
received under the award are rescinded and
shall be deposited in the general fund of the
Treasury.
``(2) Divestiture enforcement.--The Attorney General may
bring an action on behalf of the United States in any district
court of the United States in the district in which the
defendant resides or is found or has an agent, and may obtain
injunctive relief upon showing by a preponderance of the
evidence that the defendant has
``(A) violated a requirement of subsection (e); or
``(B) undertaken a required divestiture that
unnecessarily harms or threatens competition in any
market.
``(3) Private right of action.--
``(A) In general.--A brokerage customer harmed by a
knowing violation of subsection (c) by a person with
more than $20,000,000,000 (as adjusted each year on
January 1 by an amount equal to the percentage
increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index, as
determined by the Department of Labor or its successor)
in digital advertising revenue during the previous
calendar year may bring a civil action in an
appropriate court to obtain injunctive relief, where
appropriate, and recover damages in the amount of the
greater of--
``(i) $1,000,000 for each month in which a
violation of this Act occurred and reasonable
attorney's fees; or
``(ii) actual damages and reasonable
attorney's fees.
``(B) No class action waiver.--No person covered by
this Act may require a class action waiver for claims
under this Act, including for arbitration.
``(C) Timing.--A civil action for a violation of
subsection (b) may be brought at any time after the
later of--
``(i) the expiration of any applicable
divestiture deadline; or
``(ii) the expiration of the deadline in
subsection (e)(1) if no filing has been made.
``(e) Divestiture.--
``(1) Filing.--Any agreement or other document setting out
the terms of a required divestiture shall be filed with the
Attorney General not later than the later of--
``(A) the effective date; or
``(B) the earlier of--
``(i) 30 days after the date on which an
agreement making a required divestiture under
this Act is executed; or
``(ii) 180 days after meeting the criteria
specified in any paragraph of subsection (b).
``(2) Attorney general review.--The Attorney General shall
approve a required divestiture upon a showing by the person
making the divestiture that the terms of the divestiture,
including the qualifications of any counter parties thereto,
will not unnecessarily harm or threaten competition in any
market.
``(3) Timing.--
``(A) In general.--The Attorney General shall grant
or deny approval of a required divestiture, unless
agreed to by the parties, no later than the later of--
``(i) 60 days after receipt of all
information obtained pursuant to subparagraph
(5); or
``(ii) 60 days after receipt of the filing
made under subparagraph (1).
``(B) Completion.--A divestiture shall be completed
not later than the divestiture deadline.
``(4) Guidance.--The Attorney General shall--
``(A) not later than 120 days after the date of
enactment of this section, issue guidance on the
divestiture process under this subsection and the
certification requirement under subsection (c)(6); and
``(B) update the guidance described in subparagraph
(A) as the Attorney General determines is appropriate.
``(5) Compulsory process.--The Attorney General may request
or issue a civil investigative demand under section 3 of the
Antitrust Civil Process Act (15 U.S.C. 1312) for documents from
any person involved in a required divestiture to determine the
competitive effects of the divestiture.
``(f) Rules of Construction.--Nothing in this section shall--
``(1) prohibit a person from--
``(A) selling their own inventory of advertising
space if--
``(i) the inventory was not acquired solely
for the purposes of resale, except to monetize
the person's own content or intellectual
property; and
``(ii) the person does not also assist a
third-party in the sale or purchase of
advertising space, other than purchasing
advertising space from that person; or
``(B) buying inventory to market the products or
services of the person;
``(2) abridge or supersede any provision of or rules issued
pursuant to section 7A;
``(3) prohibit a person from, consistent with the antitrust
laws, entering into a joint venture or other collaboration to
prevent harm from spam, fraud, or other forms of abuse in
digital advertising; or
``(4) require the disclosure of information if such
disclosure would violate a law of the United States or a
foreign country.''.
<all> | Competition and Transparency in Digital Advertising Act | A bill to prevent conflicts of interest and promote competition in the sale and purchase of digital advertising. | Competition and Transparency in Digital Advertising Act | Sen. Lee, Mike | R | UT |
571 | 13,597 | H.R.8899 | Armed Forces and National Security | This bill requires the Defense Logistics Agency within the Department of Defense to give preference for the acquisition of food for military working dogs that is manufactured or produced in the United States by an entity that is based in the United States using only ingredients and materials that are grown, mined, manufactured, or produced in the United States. | To amend title 10, United States Code, to establish a preference for
domestically manufactured or produced food for military working dogs,
and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. PREFERENCE FOR DOMESTIC FOODS FOR MILITARY WORKING DOGS.
(a) In General.--Chapter 287 of title 10, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 3906. PREFERENCE FOR DOMESTIC FOODS FOR MILITARY WORKING DOGS.
``With respect to the acquisition of food for military working dogs
by the Defense Logistics Agency, the Director of the Defense Logistic
Agency shall give a preference for the acquisition of food that is
manufactured or produced--
``(1) in the United States;
``(2) by an entity that is based in the United States; and
``(3) using only ingredients and materials that are grown,
mined, manufactured, or produced in the United States.''.
(b) Clerical Amendment.--The table of chapters for chapter 287 of
title 10, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the
following new item:
``3906. Preference for domestic foods for military working dogs.''.
<all> | To amend title 10, United States Code, to establish a preference for domestically manufactured or produced food for military working dogs, and for other purposes. | To amend title 10, United States Code, to establish a preference for domestically manufactured or produced food for military working dogs, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To amend title 10, United States Code, to establish a preference for domestically manufactured or produced food for military working dogs, and for other purposes. | Rep. Slotkin, Elissa | D | MI |
572 | 9,649 | H.R.7657 | Government Operations and Politics | Reducing the Effects of the Cyberattack on OPM Victims Emergency Response Act of 2022 or the RECOVER Act of 2022
This bill provides lifetime identity protection coverage for individuals affected by previous federal agency data breaches. | To amend the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2017 to extend the
availability of identity protection coverage to individuals whose
personally identifiable information was compromised during recent data
breaches at Federal agencies, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Reducing the Effects of the
Cyberattack on OPM Victims Emergency Response Act of 2022'' or the
``RECOVER Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. IDENTITY PROTECTION COVERAGE FOR INDIVIDUALS AFFECTED BY
FEDERAL AGENCY DATA BREACHES.
Section 633(a) of title VI of division E of the Consolidated
Appropriations Act, 2017 (Public Law 115-31), as amended by section 630
of title VI of division D of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018
(Public Law 115-141), is amended--
(1) by striking ``(a) For fiscal years 2016 through 2026,''
and inserting ``(a) In General.--For fiscal year 2016 and each
fiscal year thereafter,'';
(2) by striking ``and'' at the end of paragraph (1); and
(3) by striking paragraph (2) and inserting the following:
``(2) is effective for the remainder of the life of the
affected individual; and
``(3) includes not less than $5,000,000 in identity theft
insurance.''.
<all> | RECOVER Act of 2022 | To amend the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2017 to extend the availability of identity protection coverage to individuals whose personally identifiable information was compromised during recent data breaches at Federal agencies, and for other purposes. | RECOVER Act of 2022
Reducing the Effects of the Cyberattack on OPM Victims Emergency Response Act of 2022 | Del. Norton, Eleanor Holmes | D | DC |
573 | 3,131 | S.717 | Environmental Protection | Undoing NEPA’s Substantial Harm by Advancing Concepts that Kickstart the Liberation of the Economy Act or the UNSHACKLE Act
This bill revises the environmental review process required under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), including by | To amend the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 to impose time
limits on the completion of certain required actions under the Act, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Undoing NEPA's Substantial Harm by
Advancing Concepts that Kickstart the Liberation of the Economy Act''
or the ``UNSHACKLE Act''.
SEC. 2. NATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL POLICY ACT MODIFICATIONS.
(a) Applicable Timelines.--Title I of the National Environmental
Policy Act of 1969 is amended--
(1) by redesignating section 105 (42 U.S.C. 4335) as
section 108; and
(2) by inserting after section 104 (42 U.S.C. 4334) the
following:
``SEC. 105. PROCESS REQUIREMENTS.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Federal agency.--The term `Federal agency' includes a
State that has assumed the responsibility of a Federal agency
under--
``(A) section 107; or
``(B) section 327 of title 23, United States Code.
``(2) Head of a federal agency.--The term `head of a
Federal agency' includes the governor or head of an applicable
State agency of a State that has assumed the responsibility of
a Federal agency under--
``(A) section 107; or
``(B) section 327 of title 23, United States Code.
``(b) Applicable Timelines.--
``(1) NEPA process.--
``(A) In general.--The head of a Federal agency
shall complete the NEPA process for a proposed action
of the Federal agency, as described in section
109(3)(B)(ii), not later than 2 years after the date
described in section 109(3)(B)(i).
``(B) Environmental documents.--Within the period
described in subparagraph (A), not later than 1 year
after the date described in section 109(3)(B)(i), the
head of the Federal agency shall, with respect to the
proposed action--
``(i) issue--
``(I) a finding that a categorical
exclusion applies to the proposed
action; or
``(II) a finding of no significant
impact; or
``(ii) publish a notice of intent to
prepare an environmental impact statement in
the Federal Register.
``(C) Environmental impact statement.--If the head
of a Federal agency publishes a notice of intent
described in subparagraph (B)(ii), within the period
described in subparagraph (A) and not later than 1 year
after the date on which the head of the Federal agency
publishes the notice of intent, the head of the Federal
agency shall complete the environmental impact
statement and, if necessary, any supplemental
environmental impact statement for the proposed action.
``(D) Penalties.--
``(i) Definitions.--In this subparagraph:
``(I) Director.--The term
`Director' means the Director of the
Office of Management and Budget.
``(II) Federal agency.--The term
`Federal agency' does not include a
State.
``(III) Final nepa compliance
date.--The term `final NEPA compliance
date', with respect to a proposed
action, means the date by which the
head of a Federal agency is required to
complete the NEPA process under
subparagraph (A).
``(IV) Head of a federal agency.--
The term `head of a Federal agency'
does not include the governor or head
of a State agency of a State.
``(V) Initial eis compliance
date.--The term `initial EIS compliance
date', with respect to a proposed
action for which a Federal agency
published a notice of intent described
in subparagraph (B)(ii), means the date
by which an environmental impact
statement for that proposed action is
required to be completed under
subparagraph (C).
``(VI) Initial nepa compliance
date.--The term `initial NEPA
compliance date', with respect to a
proposed action, means the date by
which the head of a Federal agency is
required to issue or publish a document
described in subparagraph (B) for that
proposed action under that
subparagraph.
``(VII) Initial noncompliance
determination.--The term `initial
noncompliance determination' means a
determination under clause (ii)(I)(bb)
that the head of a Federal agency has
not complied with the requirements of
subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).
``(ii) Initial noncompliance.--
``(I) Determination.--
``(aa) Notification.--As
soon as practicable after the
date described in section
109(3)(B)(i) for a proposed
action of a Federal agency, the
head of the Federal agency
shall notify the Director that
the head of the Federal agency
is beginning the NEPA process
for that proposed action.
``(bb) Determinations of
compliance.--
``(AA) Initial
determination.--As soon
as practicable after
the initial NEPA
compliance date for a
proposed action, the
Director shall
determine whether, as
of the initial NEPA
compliance date, the
head of the Federal
agency has complied
with subparagraph (B)
for that proposed
action.
``(BB)
Environmental impact
statement.--With
respect to a proposed
action of a Federal
agency in which the
head of the Federal
agency publishes a
notice of intent
described in
subparagraph (B)(ii),
as soon as practicable
after the initial EIS
compliance date for a
proposed action, the
Director shall
determine whether, as
of the initial EIS
compliance date, the
head of the Federal
agency has complied
with subparagraph (C)
for that proposed
action.
``(CC) Completion
of nepa process.--As
soon as practicable
after the final NEPA
compliance date for a
proposed action, the
Director shall
determine whether, as
of the final NEPA
compliance date, the
head of the Federal
agency has complied
with subparagraph (A)
for that proposed
action.
``(II) Identification; penalty;
notification.--If the Director makes an
initial noncompliance determination for
a proposed action--
``(aa) the Director shall
identify the account for the
salaries and expenses of the
office of the head of the
Federal agency, or an
equivalent account;
``(bb) beginning on the day
after the date on which the
Director makes the initial
noncompliance determination,
the amount that the head of the
Federal agency may obligate
from the account identified
under item (aa) for the fiscal
year during which the
determination is made shall be
reduced by 0.5 percent from the
amount initially made available
for the account for that fiscal
year; and
``(cc) the Director shall
notify the head of the Federal
agency of--
``(AA) the initial
noncompliance
determination;
``(BB) the account
identified under item
(aa); and
``(CC) the
reduction under item
(bb).
``(iii) Continued noncompliance.--
``(I) Determination.--Every 90 days
after the date of an initial
noncompliance determination, the
Director shall determine whether the
head of the Federal agency has complied
with the applicable requirements of
subparagraphs (A) through (C) for the
proposed action, until the date on
which the Director determines that the
head of the Federal agency has
completed the NEPA process for the
proposed action.
``(II) Penalty; notification.--For
each determination made by the Director
under subclause (I) that the head of a
Federal agency has not complied with a
requirement of subparagraph (A), (B),
or (C) for a proposed action--
``(aa) the amount that the
head of the Federal agency may
obligate from the account
identified under clause
(ii)(II)(aa) for the fiscal
year during which the most
recent determination under
subclause (I) is made shall be
reduced by 0.5 percent from the
amount initially made available
for the account for that fiscal
year; and
``(bb) the Director shall
notify the head of the Federal
agency of--
``(AA) the
determination under
subclause (I); and
``(BB) the
reduction under item
(aa).
``(iv) Requirements.--
``(I) Amounts not restored.--A
reduction in the amount that the head
of a Federal agency may obligate under
clause (ii)(II)(bb) or (iii)(II)(aa)
during a fiscal year shall not be
restored for that fiscal year, without
regard to whether the head of a Federal
agency completes the NEPA process for
the proposed action with respect to
which the Director made an initial
noncompliance determination or a
determination under clause (iii)(I).
``(II) Required timelines.--The
violation of subparagraph (B) or (C),
and any action carried out to remediate
or otherwise address the violation,
shall not affect any other applicable
compliance date under subparagraph (A),
(B), or (C).
``(E) Unexpected circumstances.--If, while carrying
out a proposed action after the completion of the NEPA
process for that proposed action, a Federal agency or
project sponsor encounters a new or unexpected
circumstance or condition that may require the
reevaluation of the proposed action under this title,
the head of the Federal agency with responsibility for
carrying out the NEPA process for the proposed action
shall--
``(i) consider whether mitigating the new
or unexpected circumstance or condition is
sufficient to avoid significant effects that
may result from the circumstance or condition;
and
``(ii) if the head of the Federal agency
determines under clause (i) that the
significant effects that result from the
circumstance or condition can be avoided,
mitigate the circumstance or condition without
carrying out the NEPA process again.
``(2) Authorizations and permits.--
``(A) In general.--Not later than 90 days after the
date described in section 109(3)(B)(ii), the head of a
Federal agency shall issue--
``(i) any necessary permit or authorization
to carry out the proposed action; or
``(ii) a denial of the permit or
authorization necessary to carry out the
proposed action.
``(B) Effect of failure to issue authorization or
permit.--If a permit or authorization described in
subparagraph (A) is not issued or denied within the
period described in that subparagraph, the permit or
authorization shall be considered to be approved.
``(C) Denial of permit or authorization.--
``(i) In general.--If a permit or
authorization described in subparagraph (A) is
denied, the head of the Federal agency shall
describe to the project sponsor--
``(I) the basis of the denial; and
``(II) recommendations for the
project sponsor with respect to how to
address the reasons for the denial.
``(ii) Recommended changes.--If the project
sponsor carries out the recommendations of the
head of the Federal agency under clause (i)(II)
and notifies the head of the Federal agency
that the recommendations have been carried out,
the head of the Federal agency--
``(I) shall decide whether to issue
the permit or authorization described
in subparagraph (A) not later than 90
days after date on which the project
sponsor submitted the notification; and
``(II) shall not carry out the NEPA
process with respect to the proposed
action again.''.
(b) Agency Process Reforms.--Section 105 of the National
Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.) (as added by
subsection (a)(2)) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(c) Prohibitions.--In carrying out the NEPA process, the head of
a Federal agency may not--
``(1) consider whether a proposed action or an alternative
to the proposed action considered by the head of the Federal
agency, including the design, environmental impact, mitigation
measures, or adaptation measures of the proposed action or
alternative to the proposed action, has an effect on climate
change;
``(2) with respect to a proposed action or an alternative
to the proposed action considered by the head of the Federal
agency, consider the effects of the emission of greenhouse
gases on climate change;
``(3) consider an alternative to the proposed action if the
proposed action is not technically or economically feasible to
the project sponsor; or
``(4) consider an alternative to the proposed action that
is not within the jurisdiction of the Federal agency.
``(d) Environmental Documents.--
``(1) EIS required.--In carrying out the NEPA process for a
proposed action that requires the preparation of an
environmental impact statement, the head of a Federal agency
shall produce for the proposed action not more than 1--
``(A) environmental impact statement;
``(B) if necessary, environmental assessment; and
``(C) record of decision.
``(2) EIS not required.--In carrying out the NEPA process
for a proposed action that does not require the preparation of
an environmental impact statement, the head of a Federal agency
shall produce for the proposed action not more than 1--
``(A) environmental assessment; or
``(B) finding of no significant impact.
``(e) Categorical Exclusions.--
``(1) In general.--Notwithstanding any other provision of
law and subject to paragraph (2), the head of a Federal agency
may, without further approval, use a categorical exclusion
under this title that has been approved by--
``(A)(i) another Federal agency; and
``(ii) the Council on Environmental Quality; or
``(B) an Act of Congress.
``(2) Requirements.--The head of a Federal agency may use a
categorical exclusion described in paragraph (1) if the head of
the Federal agency--
``(A) carefully reviews the description of the
proposed action to ensure that it fits within the
category of actions described in the categorical
exclusion; and
``(B) considers the circumstances associated with
the proposed action to ensure that there are no
extraordinary circumstances that warrant the
preparation of an environmental assessment or an
environmental impact statement.
``(3) Extraordinary circumstances.--If the head of a
Federal agency determines that extraordinary circumstances are
present with respect to a proposed action, the head of the
Federal agency shall--
``(A) consider whether mitigating circumstances or
other conditions are sufficient to avoid significant
effects of the proposed action; and
``(B) if the head of the Federal agency determines
that those significant effects can be avoided, apply a
categorical exclusion to the proposed action.
``(f) Reuse of Work; Documents Prepared by Qualified 3rd Parties.--
``(1) In general.--In carrying out the NEPA process for a
proposed action--
``(A) subject to paragraph (2), the head of a
Federal agency shall--
``(i) use any applicable findings and
research from a prior NEPA process of any
Federal agency; and
``(ii) incorporate the findings and
research described in clause (i) into any
applicable analysis under the NEPA process; and
``(B) a Federal agency may adopt as an
environmental impact statement, environmental
assessment, or other environmental document to achieve
compliance with this title--
``(i) an environmental document prepared
under the law of the applicable State if the
head of the Federal agency determines that the
environmental laws of the applicable State--
``(I) provide the same level of
environmental analysis as the analysis
required under this title; and
``(II) allow for the opportunity of
public comment; or
``(ii) subject to paragraph (3), an
environmental document prepared by a qualified
third party chosen by the project sponsor, at
the expense of the project sponsor, if the head
of the Federal agency--
``(I) provides oversight of the
preparation of the environmental
document by the third party; and
``(II) independently evaluates the
environmental document for the
compliance of the environmental
document with this title.
``(2) Requirement for the reuse of findings and research.--
The head of a Federal agency may reuse the applicable findings
and research described in paragraph (1)(A) if--
``(A)(i) the project for which the head of the
Federal agency is seeking to reuse the findings and
research was in close geographic proximity to the
proposed action; and
``(ii) the head of the Federal agency determines
that the conditions under which the applicable findings
and research were issued have not substantially
changed; or
``(B)(i) the project for which the head of the
Federal agency is seeking to reuse the findings and
research was not in close geographic proximity to the
proposed action; and
``(ii) the head of the Federal agency determines
that the proposed action has similar issues or
decisions as the project.
``(3) Requirements for creation of environmental document
by qualified 3rd parties.--
``(A) In general.--A qualified third party may
prepare an environmental document intended to be
adopted by a Federal agency as the environmental impact
statement, environmental assessment, or other
environmental document for a proposed action under
paragraph (1)(B)(ii) if--
``(i) the project sponsor submits a written
request to the head of the applicable Federal
agency that the head of the Federal agency
approve the qualified third party to create the
document intended to be adopted by a Federal
agency as the environmental impact statement,
environmental assessment, or other
environmental document; and
``(ii) the head of the Federal agency
determines that--
``(I) the third party is qualified
to prepare the document; and
``(II) the third party has no
financial or other interest in the
outcome of the proposed action.
``(B) Deadline.--The head of a Federal agency that
receives a written request under subparagraph (A)(i)
shall issue a written decision approving or denying the
request not later than 30 days after the date on which
the written request is received.
``(C) No prior work.--The head of a Federal agency
may not adopt an environmental document under paragraph
(1)(B)(ii) if the qualified third party began preparing
the document prior to the date on which the head of the
Federal agency issues the written decision under
subparagraph (B) approving the request.
``(D) Denials.--If the head of a Federal agency
issues a written decision denying the request under
subparagraph (A)(i), the head of the Federal agency
shall submit to the project sponsor with the written
decision the findings that served as the basis of the
denial.
``(g) Multi-Agency Projects.--
``(1) Definitions.--In this subsection:
``(A) Cooperating agency.--The term `cooperating
agency' means a Federal agency involved in a proposed
action that--
``(i) is not the lead agency; and
``(ii) has the jurisdiction or special
expertise such that the Federal agency needs to
be consulted--
``(I) to use a categorical
exclusion; or
``(II) to prepare an environmental
assessment or environmental impact
statement, as applicable.
``(B) Lead agency.--The term `lead agency' means
the Federal agency selected under paragraph (2)(A).
``(2) Agency designation.--
``(A) Lead agency.--In carrying out the NEPA
process for a proposed action that requires
authorization from multiple Federal agencies, the heads
of the applicable Federal agencies shall determine the
lead agency for the proposed action.
``(B) Invitation.--The head of the lead agency may
invite any relevant State, local, or Tribal agency with
Federal authorization decision responsibility to be a
cooperating agency.
``(3) Responsibilities of lead agency.--The lead agency for
a proposed action shall--
``(A) as soon as practicable and in consultation
with the cooperating agencies, determine whether a
proposed action requires the preparation of an
environmental impact statement; and
``(B) if the head of the lead agency determines
under subparagraph (A) that an environmental impact
statement is necessary--
``(i) be responsible for coordinating the
preparation of an environmental impact
statement;
``(ii) provide cooperating agencies with an
opportunity to review and contribute to the
preparation of the environmental impact
statement and environmental assessment, as
applicable, of the proposed action, except that
the cooperating agency shall limit comments to
issues within the special expertise or
jurisdiction of the cooperating agency; and
``(iii) subject to subsection (c), as soon
as practicable and in consultation with the
cooperating agencies, determine the range of
alternatives to be considered for the proposed
action.
``(4) Environmental documents.--In carrying out the NEPA
process for a proposed action, the lead agency shall prepare
not more than 1 of each type of document described in paragraph
(1) or (2) of subsection (d), as applicable--
``(A) in consultation with cooperating agencies;
and
``(B) for all applicable Federal agencies.
``(5) Prohibitions.--
``(A) In general.--A cooperating agency may not
evaluate an alternative to the proposed action that has
not been determined to be within the range of
alternatives considered under paragraph (3)(B)(iii).
``(B) Omission.--If a cooperating agency submits to
the lead agency an evaluation of an alternative that
does not meet the requirements of subsection (c), the
lead agency shall omit the alternative from the
environmental impact statement.
``(h) Reports.--
``(1) NEPA data.--
``(A) In general.--The head of each Federal agency
that carries out the NEPA process shall carry out a
process to track, and annually submit to Congress a
report containing, the information described in
subparagraph (B).
``(B) Information described.--The information
referred to in subparagraph (A) is, with respect to the
Federal agency issuing the report under that
subparagraph--
``(i) the number of proposed actions for
which a categorical exclusion was issued during
the reporting period;
``(ii) the length of time the Federal
agency took to issue the categorical exclusions
described in clause (i);
``(iii) the number of proposed actions
pending on the date on which the report is
submitted for which the issuance of a
categorical exclusion is pending;
``(iv) the number of proposed actions for
which an environmental assessment was issued
during the reporting period;
``(v) the length of time the Federal agency
took to complete each environmental assessment
described in clause (iv);
``(vi) the number of proposed actions
pending on the date on which the report is
submitted for which an environmental assessment
is being drafted;
``(vii) the number of proposed actions for
which an environmental impact statement was
issued during the reporting period;
``(viii) the length of time the Federal
agency took to complete each environmental
impact statement described in clause (vii); and
``(ix) the number of proposed actions
pending on the date on which the report is
submitted for which an environmental impact
statement is being drafted.
``(2) NEPA costs.--
``(A) In general.--Not later than 1 year after the
date of enactment of this subsection, the Chair of the
Council on Environmental Quality and the Director of
the Office of Management and Budget shall jointly
develop a methodology to assess the comprehensive costs
of the NEPA process.
``(B) Requirements.--The head of each Federal
agency that carries out the NEPA process shall--
``(i) adopt the methodology developed under
subparagraph (A); and
``(ii) use the methodology developed under
subparagraph (A) to annually submit to Congress
a report describing--
``(I) the comprehensive cost of the
NEPA process for each proposed action
that was carried out within the
reporting period; and
``(II) for a proposed action for
which the head of the Federal agency is
still completing the NEPA process at
the time the report is submitted--
``(aa) the amount of money
expended to date to carry out
the NEPA process for the
proposed action; and
``(bb) an estimate of the
remaining costs before the NEPA
process for the proposed action
is complete.''.
(c) Legal Reforms.--Section 105 of the National Environmental
Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.) (as amended by subsection
(b)) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(i) Judicial Review.--
``(1) Standing.--Notwithstanding any other provision of
law, a plaintiff may only bring a claim arising under Federal
law seeking judicial review of a portion of the NEPA process if
the plaintiff pleads facts that allege that the plaintiff has
personally suffered, or will likely personally suffer, a
direct, tangible harm as a result of the portion of the NEPA
process for which the plaintiff is seeking review.
``(2) Statute of limitations.--
``(A) In general.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law and except as provided in subparagraph
(B)(ii), a claim arising under Federal law seeking
judicial review of any portion of the NEPA process
shall be barred unless it is filed not later than the
earlier of--
``(i) 150 days after the final agency
action under the NEPA process has been taken;
and
``(ii) if applicable, an earlier date after
which judicial review is barred that is
specified in the Federal law pursuant to which
the judicial review is allowed.
``(B) New information.--
``(i) Consideration.--A Federal agency
shall consider for the purpose of a
supplemental environmental impact statement new
information received after the close of a
comment period if the information satisfies the
requirements for a supplemental environmental
impact statement under the regulations of the
Federal agency.
``(ii) Statute of limitations based on new
information.--If a supplemental environmental
impact statement is required under the
regulations of a Federal agency, a claim for
judicial review of the supplemental
environmental impact statement shall be barred
unless it is filed not later than the earlier
of--
``(I) 150 days after the
publication of a notice in the Federal
Register that the supplemental
environmental impact statement is
final; and
``(II) if applicable, an earlier
date after which judicial review is
barred that is specified in the Federal
law pursuant to which the judicial
review is allowed.
``(C) Savings clause.--Nothing in this paragraph
creates a right to judicial review.
``(3) Remedies.--
``(A) Preliminary injunctions and temporary
restraining orders.--
``(i) In general.--Subject to clause (ii),
in a motion for a temporary restraining order
or preliminary injunction against a Federal
agency or project sponsor in a claim arising
under Federal law seeking judicial review of
any portion of the NEPA process, the plaintiff
shall establish by clear and convincing
evidence that--
``(I) the plaintiff is likely to
succeed on the merits;
``(II) the plaintiff is likely to
suffer irreparable harm in the absence
of the temporary restraining order or
preliminary injunction, as applicable;
``(III) the balance of equities is
tipped in the favor of the plaintiff;
and
``(IV) the temporary restraining
order or preliminary injunction is in
the public interest.
``(ii) Additional requirements.--A court
may not grant a motion described in clause (i)
unless the court--
``(I) makes a finding of
extraordinary circumstances that
warrant the granting of the motion;
``(II) considers the potential
effects on public health, safety, and
the environment, and the potential for
significant negative effects on jobs
resulting from granting the motion; and
``(III) notwithstanding any other
provision of law, applies the
requirements of Rule 65(c) of the
Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
``(B) Permanent injunctions.--
``(i) In general.--Subject to clause (ii),
in a motion for a permanent injunction against
a Federal agency or project sponsor a claim
arising under Federal law seeking judicial
review of any portion of the NEPA process, the
plaintiff shall establish by clear and
convincing evidence that--
``(I) the plaintiff has suffered an
irreparable injury;
``(II) remedies available at law,
including monetary damages, are
inadequate to compensate for the
injury;
``(III) considering the balance of
hardship between the plaintiff and
defendant, a remedy in equity is
warranted;
``(IV) the public interest is not
disserved by a permanent injunction;
and
``(V) if the error or omission of a
Federal agency in a statement required
under this title is the grounds for
which the plaintiff is seeking judicial
review, the error or omission is likely
to result in specific, irreparable
damage to the environment.
``(ii) Additional showing.--A court may not
grant a motion described in clause (i) unless--
``(I) the court makes a finding
that extraordinary circumstances exist
that warrant the granting of the
motion; and
``(II) the permanent injunction
is--
``(aa) as narrowly tailored
as possible to correct the
injury; and
``(bb) the least intrusive
means necessary to correct the
injury.''.
(d) Other Reforms.--Title I of the National Environmental Policy
Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.) is amended by inserting after
section 105 (as amended by subsection (c)) the following:
``SEC. 106. EPA REVIEW.
``(a) Definition of Federal Agency.--In this section, the term
`Federal agency' includes a State that has assumed the responsibility
of a Federal agency under--
``(1) section 107; or
``(2) section 327 of title 23, United States Code.
``(b) EPA Comments.--The Administrator of the Environmental
Protection Agency (referred to in this section as the `Administrator')
may comment on a draft or final submission of an environmental impact
statement from any Federal agency.
``(c) Technical Assistance.--The Administrator may, on request of a
Federal agency preparing a draft or final environmental impact
statement, provide technical assistance in the completion of that
environmental impact statement.
``SEC. 107. PROJECT DELIVERY PROGRAMS.
``(a) Definition of Agency Program.--In this section, the term
`agency program' means a project delivery program established by a
Federal agency under subsection (b)(1).
``(b) Establishment.--
``(1) In general.--The head of each Federal agency,
including the Secretary of Transportation, shall carry out a
project delivery program.
``(2) Assumption of responsibility.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), the
head of each Federal agency shall, on request of a
State, enter into a written agreement with the State,
which may be in the form of a memorandum of
understanding, in which the head of each Federal agency
may assign, and the State may assume, the
responsibilities of the head of the Federal agency
under this title with respect to 1 or more projects
within the State that are under the jurisdiction of the
Federal agency.
``(B) Exception.--The head of a Federal agency
shall not enter into a written agreement under
subparagraph (A) if the head of the Federal agency
determines that the State is not in compliance with the
requirements described in subsection (c)(4).
``(C) Additional responsibility.--If a State
assumes responsibility under subparagraph (A)--
``(i) the head of the Federal agency may
assign to the State, and the State may assume,
all or part of the responsibilities of the head
of the Federal agency for environmental review,
consultation, or other action required under
any Federal environmental law pertaining to the
review or approval of a specific project;
``(ii) at the request of the State, the
head of the Federal agency may also assign to
the State, and the State may assume, the
responsibilities of the head of the Federal
agency under this title with respect to 1 or
more projects within the State that are under
the jurisdiction of the Federal agency; but
``(iii) the head of the Federal agency may
not assign responsibility for any conformity
determination required under section 176 of the
Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7506).
``(D) Procedural and substantive requirements.--A
State shall assume responsibility under this section
subject to the same procedural and substantive
requirements as would apply if that responsibility were
carried out by the Federal agency.
``(E) Federal responsibility.--Any responsibility
of a Federal agency not explicitly assumed by the State
by written agreement under subparagraph (A) shall
remain the responsibility of the Federal agency.
``(F) No effect on authority.--Nothing in this
section preempts or interferes with any power,
jurisdiction, responsibility, or authority of an
agency, other than the Federal agency for which the
written agreement applies, under applicable law
(including regulations) with respect to a project.
``(G) Preservation of flexibility.--The head of the
Federal agency may not require a State, as a condition
of participation in the agency program of the Federal
agency, to forego project delivery methods that are
otherwise permissible for projects under applicable
law.
``(H) Legal fees.--A State assuming the
responsibilities of a Federal agency under this section
for a specific project may use funds awarded to the
State for that project for attorneys' fees directly
attributable to eligible activities associated with the
project.
``(c) State Participation.--
``(1) Participating states.--Except as provided in
subsection (b)(2)(B), all States are eligible to participate in
an agency program.
``(2) Application.--Not later than 270 days after the date
of enactment of this section, the head of each Federal agency
shall amend, as appropriate, regulations that establish
requirements relating to information required to be contained
in any application of a State to participate in the agency
program, including, at a minimum--
``(A) the projects or classes of projects for which
the State anticipates exercising the authority that may
be granted under the agency program;
``(B) verification of the financial resources
necessary to carry out the authority that may be
granted under the agency program; and
``(C) evidence of the notice and solicitation of
public comment by the State relating to participation
of the State in the agency program, including copies of
comments received from that solicitation.
``(3) Public notice.--
``(A) In general.--Each State that submits an
application under this subsection shall give notice of
the intent of the State to participate in an agency
program not later than 30 days before the date of
submission of the application.
``(B) Method of notice and solicitation.--The State
shall provide notice and solicit public comment under
this paragraph by publishing the complete application
of the State in accordance with the appropriate public
notice law of the State.
``(4) Selection criteria.--The head of a Federal agency may
approve the application of a State under this section only if--
``(A) the regulatory requirements under paragraph
(2) have been met;
``(B) the head of the Federal agency determines
that the State has the capability, including financial
and personnel, to assume the responsibility; and
``(C) the head of the State agency having primary
jurisdiction over the project enters into a written
agreement with the head of the Federal agency as
described in subsection (d).
``(5) Other federal agency views.--If a State applies to
assume a responsibility of the Federal agency that would have
required the head of the Federal agency to consult with the
head of another Federal agency, the head of the Federal agency
shall solicit the views of the head of the other Federal agency
before approving the application.
``(d) Written Agreement.--A written agreement under subsection
(b)(2)(A) shall--
``(1) be executed by the Governor or the top-ranking
official in the State who is charged with responsibility for
the project;
``(2) be in such form as the head of the Federal agency may
prescribe;
``(3) provide that the State--
``(A) agrees to assume all or part of the
responsibilities of the Federal agency described in
subparagraphs (A) and (C) of subsection (b)(2);
``(B) expressly consents, on behalf of the State,
to accept the jurisdiction of the Federal courts for
the compliance, discharge, and enforcement of any
responsibility of the Federal agency assumed by the
State;
``(C) certifies that State laws (including
regulations) are in effect that--
``(i) authorize the State to take the
actions necessary to carry out the
responsibilities being assumed; and
``(ii) are comparable to section 552 of
title 5, including providing that any decision
regarding the public availability of a document
under those State laws is reviewable by a court
of competent jurisdiction; and
``(D) agrees to maintain the financial resources
necessary to carry out the responsibilities being
assumed;
``(4) require the State to provide to the head of the
Federal agency any information the head of the Federal agency
reasonably considers necessary to ensure that the State is
adequately carrying out the responsibilities assigned to the
State;
``(5) have a term of not more than 5 years; and
``(6) be renewable.
``(e) Jurisdiction.--
``(1) In general.--The United States district courts shall
have exclusive jurisdiction over any civil action against a
State for failure to carry out any responsibility of the State
under this section.
``(2) Legal standards and requirements.--A civil action
under paragraph (1) shall be governed by the legal standards
and requirements that would apply in such a civil action
against the head of a Federal agency had the head of the
Federal agency taken the actions in question.
``(3) Intervention.--The head of a Federal agency shall
have the right to intervene in any action described in
paragraph (1).
``(f) Effect of Assumption of Responsibility.--A State that assumes
responsibility under subsection (b)(2) shall be solely responsible and
solely liable for carrying out, in lieu of and without further approval
of the head of the Federal agency, the responsibilities assumed under
subsection (b)(2), until the agency program is terminated under
subsection (k).
``(g) Limitations on Agreements.--Nothing in this section permits a
State to assume any rulemaking authority of the head of a Federal
agency under any Federal law.
``(h) Audits.--
``(1) In general.--To ensure compliance by a State with any
agreement of the State under subsection (d) (including
compliance by the State with all Federal laws for which
responsibility is assumed under subsection (b)(2)), for each
State participating in an agency program, the head of a Federal
agency shall--
``(A) not later than 180 days after the date of
execution of the agreement, meet with the State to
review implementation of the agreement and discuss
plans for the first annual audit;
``(B) conduct annual audits during each of the
first 4 years of State participation; and
``(C) ensure that the time period for completing an
annual audit, from initiation to completion (including
public comment and responses to those comments), does
not exceed 180 days.
``(2) Public availability and comment.--
``(A) In general.--An audit conducted under
paragraph (1) shall be provided to the public for
comment.
``(B) Response.--Not later than 60 days after the
date on which the period for public comment ends, the
head of the Federal agency shall respond to public
comments received under subparagraph (A).
``(3) Audit team.--
``(A) In general.--An audit conducted under
paragraph (1) shall be carried out by an audit team
determined by the head of the Federal agency, in
consultation with the State, in accordance with
subparagraph (B).
``(B) Consultation.--Consultation with the State
under subparagraph (A) shall include a reasonable
opportunity for the State to review and provide
comments on the proposed members of the audit team.
``(i) Monitoring.--After the fourth year of the participation of a
State in an agency program, the head of the Federal agency shall
monitor compliance by the State with the written agreement, including
the provision by the State of financial resources to carry out the
written agreement.
``(j) Report to Congress.--The head of each Federal agency shall
submit to Congress an annual report that describes the administration
of the agency program.
``(k) Termination.--
``(1) Termination by federal agency.--The head of a Federal
agency may terminate the participation of any State in the
agency program of the Federal agency if--
``(A) the head of the Federal agency determines
that the State is not adequately carrying out the
responsibilities assigned to the State;
``(B) the head of the Federal agency provides to
the State--
``(i) a notification of the determination
of noncompliance;
``(ii) a period of not less than 120 days
to take such corrective action as the head of
the Federal agency determines to be necessary
to comply with the applicable agreement; and
``(iii) on request of the Governor of the
State, a detailed description of each
responsibility in need of corrective action
regarding an inadequacy identified under
subparagraph (A); and
``(C) the State, after the notification and period
provided under subparagraph (B), fails to take
satisfactory corrective action, as determined by the
head of the Federal agency.
``(2) Termination by the state.--A State may terminate the
participation of the State in an agency program at any time by
providing to the head of the applicable Federal agency a notice
by not later than the date that is 90 days before the date of
termination, and subject to such terms and conditions as the
head of the Federal agency may provide.
``(l) Capacity Building.--The head of a Federal agency, in
cooperation with representatives of State officials, may carry out
education, training, peer-exchange, and other initiatives as
appropriate--
``(1) to assist States in developing the capacity to
participate in the agency program of the Federal agency; and
``(2) to promote information sharing and collaboration
among States that are participating in the agency program of
the Federal agency.
``(m) Relationship to Locally Administered Projects.--A State
granted authority under an agency program may, as appropriate and at
the request of a local government--
``(1) exercise that authority on behalf of the local
government for a locally administered project; or
``(2) provide guidance and training on consolidating and
minimizing the documentation and environmental analyses
necessary for sponsors of a locally administered project to
comply with this title and any comparable requirements under
State law.''.
(e) Prohibition on Guidance.--No Federal agency, including the
Council on Environmental Quality, may reissue the final guidance of the
Council on Environmental Quality entitled ``Final Guidance for Federal
Departments and Agencies on Consideration of Greenhouse Gas Emissions
and the Effects of Climate Change in National Environmental Policy Act
Reviews'' (81 Fed. Reg. 51866 (August 5, 2016)) or substantially
similar guidance unless authorized by an Act of Congress.
(f) Definitions.--Title I of the National Environmental Policy Act
of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4331 et seq.) (as amended by subsection (a)(1)) is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 109. DEFINITIONS.
``In this title:
``(1) Environmental assessment.--The term `environmental
assessment' has the meaning given the term in section 1508.9 of
title 40, Code of Federal Regulations (or a successor
regulation).
``(2) Environmental impact statement.--The term
`environmental impact statement' means a detailed statement
required under section 102(2)(C).
``(3) NEPA process.--
``(A) In general.--The term `NEPA process' means
the entirety of every process, analysis, or other
measure, including an environmental impact statement,
required to be carried out by a Federal agency under
this title before the agency undertakes a proposed
action.
``(B) Period.--For purposes of subparagraph (A),
the NEPA process--
``(i) begins on the date on which the head
of a Federal agency receives an application for
a proposed action from a project sponsor; and
``(ii) ends on the date on which the
Federal agency issues, with respect to the
proposed action--
``(I) a record of decision,
including, if necessary, a revised
record of decision;
``(II) a finding of no significant
impact; or
``(III) a categorical exclusion
under this title.
``(4) Project sponsor.--The term `project sponsor' means a
Federal agency or other entity, including a private or public-
private entity, that seeks approval of a proposed action.''.
(g) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Policy review.--Section 309 of the Clean Air Act (42
U.S.C. 7609) is repealed.
(2) Surface transportation project delivery program.--
Section 327 of title 23, United States Code, is amended--
(A) in subsection (a)(1), by striking ``The
Secretary'' and inserting ``Subject to subsection (m),
the Secretary''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(m) Sunset.--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided under paragraph (2),
the authority provided by this section terminates on the date
of enactment of this subsection.
``(2) Existing agreements.--Subject to the requirements of
this section, the Secretary may continue to enforce any
agreement entered into under this section before the date of
enactment of this subsection.''.
SEC. 3. ATTORNEY FEES IN ENVIRONMENTAL LITIGATION.
(a) Administrative Procedure.--Section 504(b)(1) of title 5, United
States Code, is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (E), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in subparagraph (F), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(G) `special factor' does not include knowledge,
expertise, or skill in environmental litigation.''.
(b) United States as Party.--Section 2412(d)(2) of title 28, United
States Code, is amended--
(1) in subparagraph (H), by striking ``and'' at the end;
(2) in subparagraph (I), by striking the period at the end
and inserting ``; and''; and
(3) by adding at the end the following:
``(J) `special factor' does not include knowledge,
expertise, or skill in environmental litigation.''.
<all> | UNSHACKLE Act | A bill to amend the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 to impose time limits on the completion of certain required actions under the Act, and for other purposes. | UNSHACKLE Act
Undoing NEPA’s Substantial Harm by Advancing Concepts that Kickstart the Liberation of the Economy Act | Sen. Lee, Mike | R | UT |
574 | 4,939 | S.4897 | Education | Student Loan Reform Act of 2022
This bill makes various changes to the federal student loan system, including by imposing a penalty on institutions of higher education for borrowers who default on student loans and prohibiting new Federal Direct PLUS Loans from being made to student loan borrowers (with an exception for parent borrowers and covered health care students) on or after July 1, 2023. The bill also addresses expressive activities (e.g., peacefully assembling, distributing literature, or carrying signs) on campuses. | To make reforms at institutions of higher education.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Student Loan Reform Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. PLUS LOAN REFORMS.
(a) In General.--Section 455(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965
(20 U.S.C. 1087e(a)) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``(4) Termination and restriction of authority to make
federal direct plus loans.--
``(A) Termination of authority to make federal
direct plus loans to graduate or professional students
who are not covered healthcare students.--
Notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B,
for any period of instruction beginning on or after
July 1, 2023, a graduate or professional student
(except for a covered healthcare student) shall not be
eligible to receive a Federal Direct PLUS Loan under
this part for the student's graduate or professional
studies.
``(B) Exception for parent borrowers and covered
healthcare students.--Notwithstanding any provision of
this part or part B, for any period of instruction
beginning on or after July 1, 2023 and for any parent
borrower of a Federal Direct PLUS loan or any covered
healthcare student--
``(i) the maximum annual amount of any
Federal Direct PLUS Loan shall not exceed
$10,000; and
``(ii) the maximum aggregate lifetime
amount of any Federal Direct PLUS Loans shall
not exceed $40,000.
``(C) Covered healthcare student.--In this
paragraph, the term `covered healthcare student'
means--
``(i) a student who is in a course of study
to--
``(I) become a Doctor of Allopathic
Medicine, Doctor of Osteopathic
Medicine, Doctor of Dentistry, Doctor
of Optometry, Doctor of Podiatric
Medicine, Doctor of Naturopathic
Medicine, Doctor of Naturopathy, Doctor
of Veterinary Medicine, Doctor of
Pharmacy, or Doctor of Chiropractic; or
``(II) earn a doctoral degree in
clinical psychology or a masters or
doctoral degree in health
administration; and
``(ii) a student who is in a course of
study to become a nurse who will have the same
scope of practice as a doctor or degree program
described in clause (i).''.
(b) Report.--
(1) In general.--By not later than 3 years after the date
of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Education shall
submit a report to Congress offering recommendations on other
critical STEM-based professions with a high return on
investment for which graduate and professional students should
be allowed to access Federal Direct PLUS Loans under part D of
title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.1087a et
seq.) for their graduate and professional studies.
(2) Considerations.--In carrying out paragraph (1), the
Secretary shall consider--
(A) how expanding Federal Direct PLUS Loans to
graduate and professional students as described in
paragraph (1) would benefit low-income students; and
(B) how Congress could index the maximum amount of
Federal Direct PLUS Loans for each graduate or
professional student borrower to the median earnings
for graduates of the borrower's program of study at the
borrower's institution of higher education, or the
borrower's program of study at a peer institution of
higher education.
(3) Definition of stem-based.--In this subsection, the term
``STEM-based'' means based in science, technology, engineering,
or mathematics.
SEC. 3. LOAN DEFAULT PENALTY.
Section 454 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1087d(a)) is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)--
(A) in paragraph (5), by striking ``and'' after the
semicolon;
(B) by redesignating paragraph (6) as paragraph
(8); and
(C) by inserting after paragraph (5) the following:
``(6) provide that the institution accepts the loan default
penalty requirements under subsection (d);''; and
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(d) Loan Default Penalty Requirements.--
``(1) In general.--Beginning with the second fiscal year
that begins after the date of enactment of the Student Loan
Reform Act of 2022, and each succeeding fiscal year, each
institution of higher education participating in the direct
student loan program under this part shall remit to the
Secretary, at such times as the Secretary may specify, a
student loan default penalty, as determined under paragraph
(2).
``(2) Student loan default penalty.--For each fiscal year,
the student loan default penalty shall be an amount equal to 25
percent of the total amount of loans under this part received
for attendance at the institution--
``(A) that entered into default loan status in the
previous fiscal year;
``(B) for which a borrower entered default loan
status for the first time; and
``(C) for which the borrower did not exit default
loan status within the first 60 days after entering
such status.''.
SEC. 4. INSTITUTIONAL RESPONSIBILITY FOR LOAN REPAYMENT.
Section 454 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1087d(a)), as amended by section 3, is further amended--
(1) in subsection (a), by inserting after paragraph (6) the
following:--
``(7) provide that the institution accepts the
institutional responsibility guarantee requirements under
subsection (e); and'';
(2) by adding at the end the following:
``(e) Institutional Responsibility Guarantee.--
``(1) In general.--Beginning with respect to loans under
this part that are disbursed during the first award year that
begins after the date of enactment of the Student Loan Reform
Act of 2022, and each succeeding fiscal year, each institution
of higher education participating in the Direct student loan
program under this part shall provide a written agreement to
the Secretary asserting that the institution will remit to the
Secretary, at such times as the Secretary may specify, an
institutional responsibility payment, as determined under
paragraph (2).
``(2) Institutional responsibility payment.--The
institutional responsibility payment shall be, for each
borrower who was enrolled in the institution, an amount equal
to the lesser of--
``(A) a percentage of the total outstanding balance
of that borrower that was received for attendance at
the institution by that borrower that is equal to 1
percent for each $1000 of the total amount under this
part received for attendance at the institution by that
borrower; or
``(B) 50 percent of the total outstanding balance
of that borrower that was received under this part for
attendance at the institution by that borrower.
``(3) Use of institutional responsibility payment.--The
Secretary shall apply all of an institutional responsibility
payment received under this subsection for a borrower to the
outstanding Direct student loan obligation of such student, and
shall notify the student of the reduction in the balance of the
student's Direct student loan obligations.
``(4) Total outstanding balance.--In this subsection, the
term `total outstanding balance' means the total amount of
loans under this part--
``(A) that have gone into default status and remain
unpaid after a period of 10 years or more; and
``(B) that remain unpaid after the period described
in subparagraph (A) and after the Secretary has
exhausted attempts to recover repayment from the
borrower, including through wage garnishment under
section 488A, an administrative offset under section
3716 of title 31, United States Code, a Federal salary
offset, or any other legal means through which the
Secretary may recover repayment of Federal student
loans.''.
SEC. 5. LIMIT ON ADMINISTRATIVE STAFF.
(a) Program Participation Agreement.--Section 487(a) of the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1094(a)) is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(30) The institution will agree to the limit on
administrative staff requirements described in section 487C.''.
(b) Limit on Administrative Staff.--Part G of title IV of the
Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088 et seq.) is amended by
inserting after section 487B the following:
``SEC. 487C. LIMIT ON ADMINISTRATIVE STAFF.
``(a) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Administrative staff.--The term `administrative
staff'--
``(A) means staff whose duties are primarily non-
academic, non-instructional, and non-research;
``(B) includes any institutional support staff,
such as human resources, marketing, public relations,
government relations, executive, administrative, or
managerial staff;
``(C) includes student services staff, such as
diversity, equity, and inclusion staff;
``(D) includes members of the academic
administration, such as deans or provosts; and
``(E) excludes grounds and maintenance staff,
cafeteria staff, healthcare practitioners, campus
security, religious clergy supported by the
institution, and information technology support staff.
``(2) Covered institution.--
``(A) In general.--The term `covered institution'--
``(i) means an institution that--
``(I) charged an amount for
undergraduate tuition and fees equal to
or greater than $20,000 for an academic
year after the date of enactment of the
Student Loan Reform Act of 2022, as
determined by the Secretary on an
annual basis; and
``(II) for the first covered year,
had 200 or more individuals serving as
administrative staff; and
``(ii) excludes--
``(I) an institution that is
controlled by or that is closely
identified with the tenets of a
particular religious organization, as
described in section 106.12(c) of title
34, Code of Federal Regulations (as in
effect on the date of enactment of the
Student Loan Reform Act of 2022); and
``(II) an institution that is a
medical school, as determined by the
Secretary.
``(B) Special rule.--If an institution charges
separate amounts of undergraduate tuition and fees and
for in-State and out-of-State students, the amount of
tuition and fees for the purposes of this paragraph
shall be determined based on the amount that is an
average of in-State and out-of-State undergraduate
tuition and fees.
``(3) First covered year.--The term `first covered year',
when used with respect to a covered institution, means the
first academic year after the date of enactment of the Student
Loan Reform Act of 2022 for which the institution's
undergraduate tuition and fees exceeded $20,000, as determined
in accordance with paragraph (2).
``(b) In General.--Beginning for the second academic year after the
date of enactment of the Student Loan Reform Act of 2022, a covered
institution that participates in a program under this title shall be
required--
``(1) each year of a school's participation in a program
under this title, to reduce 10 percent of administrative staff
at the institution, as compared to the total amount of such
administrative staff at the institution in the first covered
year, until the completion of the 5th year of such reductions,
at which time the institution shall be required to demonstrate
to the Secretary that the institution has reduced 50 percent of
the administrative staff at the institution, as compared to the
administrative staff at the institution in the first covered
year;
``(2) to ensure that after the completion of the 5-year
period described in paragraph (1), the institution shall not
increase the number of administrative staff at the institution
by more than 1 percent annually for the remainder of the
institution's participation in a program under this title;
``(3) to eliminate administrative staff in the order
specified under subsection (c); and
``(4) to submit an annual certification to the Secretary
asserting that the institution meets the requirements of
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3).
``(c) Priority for Administrative Staff Reductions.--An institution
shall reduce administrative staff in the following order:
``(1) First, reducing diversity, equity, and inclusion
staff by not less than 95 percent.
``(2) Second, reducing executive or management staff.
``(3) Third, reducing human resources staff.''.
SEC. 6. AFFIRMATIVE ACTION.
(a) Institution of Higher Education.--The term ``institution of
higher education'' has the meaning given that term in section 102 of
the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002).
(b) Prohibition on Preferential Treatment or Discrimination.--An
institution of higher education receiving Federal funds shall not grant
preferential treatment to, or discriminate against, any individual or
group on the basis of race, color, ethnicity, or national origin,
including treatment or discrimination related to employment and student
admissions.
SEC. 7. CRITICAL RACE THEORY.
(a) Definitions.--
(1) Institution of higher education.--The term
``institution of higher education'' has the meaning given that
term in section 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20
U.S.C. 1002).
(2) Race-based theory.--The term ``race-based theory''
means a theory that--
(A) any race is inherently superior or inferior to
any other race;
(B) the United States is a fundamentally racist
country;
(C) the Declaration of Independence or the
Constitution of the United States is a fundamentally
racist document;
(D) an individual's moral worth is determined by
the race of the individual;
(E) an individual, by virtue of the race of the
individual, is inherently racist or oppressive, whether
consciously or unconsciously; or
(F) an individual, because of the race of the
individual, bears responsibility for the actions
committed by members of the race of the individual.
(b) Prohibition on Award of Funds to Certain Institutions of Higher
Education.--No Federal funds may be awarded to an institution of higher
education if such institution compels teachers or students to affirm,
adhere to, adopt, or profess race-based theories or beliefs contrary to
title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d et seq.).
(c) Rules of Construction.--
(1) Protected speech not restricted.--Nothing in this
section shall be construed to restrict the speech of a student,
a teacher, or any other individual outside of an instructional
setting of an institution of higher education.
(2) Access to materials for the purpose of research or
independent study.--Nothing in this section shall be construed
to prevent an individual from accessing materials that advocate
race-based theories for the purpose of research or independent
study.
SEC. 8. EXCISE TAXES ON CERTAIN COLLEGES AND UNIVERSITIES.
(a) Excise Tax on Certain Large Private College and University
Endowments.--
(1) In general.--Subchapter H of chapter 42 of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by adding at the end the
following new section:
``SEC. 4969. EXCISE TAX ON CERTAIN LARGE PRIVATE COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY
ENDOWMENTS.
``(a) Tax Imposed.--There is hereby imposed on each specified
applicable educational institution for the taxable year a tax equal to
1 percent of the aggregate fair market value of the assets of the
institution at the end of the preceding taxable year.
``(b) Specified Applicable Educational Institution.--For purposes
of this subchapter, the term `specified applicable educational
institution' means any applicable educational institution, other than
an institution which is religious in nature, the aggregate fair market
value of the assets of which at the end of the preceding taxable year
(other than those assets which are used directly in carrying out the
institution's exempt purpose) is at least $2,500,000,000.
``(c) Other Terms.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) Assets.--The rules of section 4968(d) shall apply.
``(2) Student.--The rules of section 4968(b)(2) shall
apply.''.
(2) Clerical amendment.--The table of sections for
subchapter H of chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986
is amended by adding at the end the following new item:
``Sec. 4969. Excise tax on certain large private college and university
endowments.''.
(b) Failure To Distribute Endowment Assets.--
(1) In general.--Subchapter H of chapter 42 of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986, as amended by subsection (a), is amended
by adding at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 4970. FAILURE TO DISTRIBUTE ENDOWMENT ASSETS.
``(a) Tax Imposed.--There is hereby imposed on the undistributed
excess endowment amount of each specified applicable educational
institution for the taxable year, which has not been distributed before
the first day of the second (or any succeeding) taxable year following
such taxable year (if such first day falls within the taxable period),
a tax equal to 30 percent of such undistributed excess endowment amount
remaining undistributed at the beginning of such second (or succeeding)
taxable year. The tax imposed by this section shall not apply to the
undistributed excess endowment amount of a specified applicable
educational institution to the extent that the foundation failed to
distribute any amount solely because of an incorrect valuation of
assets, if--
``(1) the failure to value the assets properly was not
willful and was due to reasonable cause,
``(2) such amount is distributed as qualifying
distributions by the institution during the allowable
distribution period,
``(3) the institution notifies the Secretary that such
amount has been distributed as qualifying distributions to
correct such failure, and
``(4) such distribution is treated, by reason of subsection
(e)(2), as made out of the undistributed income for the taxable
year for which a tax would (except for this paragraph) have
been imposed under this subsection.
``(b) Additional Tax.--In any case in which an initial tax is
imposed under subsection (a) on the undistributed excess endowment
amount of any specified applicable educational institution for any
taxable year, if any portion of such amount remains undistributed at
the close of the taxable period, there is hereby imposed a tax equal to
100 percent of the amount remaining undistributed at such time.
``(c) Undistributed Excess Endowment Amount.--For purposes of this
section, the term `undistributed excess endowment amount' means, with
respect to any specified applicable educational institution for any
taxable year as of any time, the amount by which--
``(1) the distributable amount for such taxable year,
exceeds
``(2) the qualifying distributions made before such time
out of such distributable amount.
``(d) Distributable Amount.--For purposes of this section, the term
`distributable amount' means, with respect to any specified applicable
educational institution for any taxable year, an amount equal to 5
percent of the aggregate fair market value of the assets of the
institution at the end of the preceding taxable year. The rules of
section 4968(d) shall apply for purposes of this section.
``(e) Qualifying Distributions.--For purposes of this section--
``(1) In general.--The term `qualifying distribution' has
the meaning given such term in section 4942(g).
``(2) Other rules.--The rules of subsections (h) and (i) of
section 4942 shall apply.
``(f) Taxable Period; Allowable Distribution Period.--The rules of
paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 4942(j) shall apply for purposes of
this section.''.
(2) Clerical amendment.--The table of sections for
subchapter H of chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of
1986, as amended by subsection (a), is further amended by
adding at the end the following new item:
``Sec. 4970. Failure to distribute endowment assets.''.
(c) Establishment of Excise Tax on Excessive Tuition.--
(1) In general.--Subchapter H of chapter 42 of the Internal
Revenue Code of 1986, as amended by subsections (a) and (b), is
amended by adding at the end the following new section:
``SEC. 4970A. EXCISE TAX ON EXCESSIVE TUITION.
``(a) Tax Imposed.--There is hereby imposed on each applicable
institution of higher education for the taxable year a tax equal to 20
percent of the total amount of excessive tuition received by such
applicable institution of higher education during such taxable year.
``(b) Excessive Tuition.--
``(1) In general.--In this section, the term `excessive
tuition' means, with respect to any individual enrolled at the
undergraduate level in the applicable institution of higher
education during any taxable year, the amount (if any) equal to
the excess of--
``(A) the amount of undergraduate tuition and fees
paid by such individual to such applicable institution
of higher education during such taxable year, over
``(B) $40,000.
``(2) Tuition and fees.--For purposes of paragraph (1)(A),
the term `tuition and fees' has the same meaning given the term
`qualified tuition and related expenses' under section
25A(f)(1).
``(c) Applicable Institution of Higher Education.--In this section,
the term `applicable institution of higher education' means an
institution of higher education as defined in section 102 of the Higher
Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002) that is not--
``(1) an institution which is controlled by or which is
closely identified with the tenets of a particular religious
organization; or
``(2) a medical school, as described in section
487C(a)(2)(A)(ii)(II) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.''.
(2) Clerical amendment.--The table of sections for
subchapter H of chapter 42 of such Code, as amended by
subsections (a) and (b), is amended by adding at the end the
following new item:
``Sec. 4970A. Excise tax on excessive tuition.''.
(d) Transfer of Funds.--The Secretary of the Treasury (or such
Secretary's delegate) shall from time to time transfer from the general
fund of the Treasury to the Secretary of Commerce amounts equal to the
increase in revenues by reason of the enactment of subsections (a),
(b), and (c), for the purpose of expanding opportunities relating to
employer-led apprenticeship programs and on-the-job workforce training.
Such funds shall be available until expended to carry out such
activities through grants, cooperative agreements, contracts and other
arrangements, with States and other appropriate entities.
(e) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after the date of enactment of this
Act.
SEC. 9. BAN ON REQUIRING FAFSA FOR FAMILIES WHO ARE NOT USING FEDERAL
STUDENT AID.
Section 487(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C.
1094(a)), as amended by section 5, is further amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(31) The institution will not require or pressure any
prospective, accepted, or enrolled student at the institution
to submit a Free Application for Federal Student Aid under
section 483 if such student does not wish to apply for or
accept Federal student aid.''.
SEC. 10. CAMPUS FREE SPEECH RESTORATION.
(a) Protection of Student Speech and Association Rights.--Section
112(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1011a(a)) is
amended--
(1) by redesignating paragraph (2) as paragraph (4); and
(2) by inserting after paragraph (1) the following:
``(2) It is the sense of Congress that--
``(A) every individual should be free to profess, and to
maintain, the opinion of such individual in matters of religion
or philosophy, and that professing or maintaining such opinion
should in no way diminish, enlarge, or affect the civil
liberties or rights of such individual on the campus of an
institution of higher education; and
``(B) no public institution of higher education directly or
indirectly receiving financial assistance under this Act should
limit religious expression, free expression, or any other
rights provided under the First Amendment to the Constitution
of the United States.
``(3) It is the sense of Congress that--
``(A) free speech zones and restrictive speech codes are
inherently at odds with the freedom of speech guaranteed by the
First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States;
``(B) bias reporting systems are susceptible to abuses that
may put them at odds with the freedom of speech guaranteed by
the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States;
and
``(C) no public institution of higher education directly or
indirectly receiving financial assistance under this Act should
restrict the speech of such institution's students through
improperly restrictive zones, codes, or bias reporting
systems.''.
(b) Campus Speech Policies at Institutions of Higher Education.--
Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et. seq.)
is amended--
(1) in section 487(a), as amended by sections 5 and 9, by
adding at the end the following:
``(32) In the case of an institution that is--
``(A) a public institution, the institution will
comply with the expressive activity protections
described in section 493E; and
``(B) not a public institution, the institution
will comply with the policies in section 493F.''; and
(2) in part G, by inserting after section 493D the
following:
``SEC. 493E. CAMPUS SPEECH POLICIES AT PUBLIC UNIVERSITIES.
``(a) Definition of Expressive Activities.--
``(1) In general.--In this section, the term `expressive
activity' includes--
``(A) peacefully assembling, protesting, speaking,
or listening;
``(B) distributing literature;
``(C) carrying a sign;
``(D) circulating a petition; or
``(E) other expressive rights guaranteed under the
First Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States.
``(2) Exclusions.--In this section, the term `expressive
activity' does not include unprotected speech (as defined by
the precedents of the Supreme Court of the United States).
``(b) Expressive Activities at an Institution.--
``(1) In general.--Each public institution of higher
education participating in a program under this title may not
prohibit, subject to paragraph (2), a person from freely
engaging in noncommercial expressive activity in a generally
accessible outdoor area on the institution's campus if the
person's conduct is lawful.
``(2) Restrictions.--An institution of higher education
described in paragraph (1) may not maintain or enforce time,
place, or manner restrictions on an expressive activity in a
generally accessible outdoor area of the institution's campus
unless the restriction--
``(A) is necessary to achieve a compelling
governmental interest;
``(B) is the least restrictive means of furthering
that compelling governmental interest;
``(C) is based on published, content-neutral, and
viewpoint-neutral criteria;
``(D) leaves open ample alternative channels for
communication; and
``(E) provides for spontaneous assembly and
distribution of literature.
``(3) Application.--The protections provided under
paragraph (1) do not apply to expressive activity in an area on
an institution's campus that is not a generally accessible
outdoor area.
``(4) Nonapplication to service academies.--This section
shall not apply to an institution of higher education whose
primary purpose is the training of individuals for the military
services of the United States, or the merchant marine.
``(c) Causes of Action.--
``(1) Authorization.--The following persons may bring an
action in a Federal court of competent jurisdiction to enjoin a
violation of subsection (b) or to recover compensatory damages,
reasonable court costs, or reasonable attorney fees:
``(A) The Attorney General.
``(B) A person claiming that the person's
expressive activity rights, as described in subsection
(b)(1), were violated.
``(2) Actions.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
in an action brought under this section, the Federal court
shall decide de novo all relevant questions of fact and law,
including the interpretation of constitutional, statutory, and
regulatory provisions, unless the parties stipulate otherwise.
In an action brought under this subsection, if the court finds
a violation of subsection (b), the court--
``(A) shall--
``(i) enjoin the violation; and
``(ii) if a person whose expressive
activity rights were violated brought the
action, award the person--
``(I) not less than $500 for an
initial violation; and
``(II) if the person notifies the
institution of the violation, $50 for
each day the violation continues after
the notification if the institution did
not act to discontinue the cause of the
violation; and
``(B) may award a prevailing plaintiff--
``(i) compensatory damages;
``(ii) reasonable court costs; or
``(iii) reasonable attorney fees.
``(d) Statute of Limitations.--
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (3), an
action under subsection (c) may not be brought later than 1
year after the date of the violation.
``(2) Continuing violation.--Each day that a violation of
subsection (b) continues after an initial violation of
subsection (b), and each day that an institution's policy in
violation of subsection (b) remains in effect, shall constitute
a continuing violation of subsection (b).
``(3) Extension.--For a continuing violation described in
paragraph (2), the limitation described in paragraph (1) shall
extend to 1 year after the date on which the most recent
violation occurs.
``(e) Federal Review of Speech Policies.--
``(1) No eligibility for funds.--
``(A) In general.--No public institution of higher
education shall be eligible to receive funds under this
Act, including participation in any program under this
title, if the Secretary determines that the
institution--
``(i) maintains a policy that infringes
upon the expressive rights of students under
the First Amendment to the Constitution of the
United States; or
``(ii) maintains or enforces time, place,
or manner restrictions on an expressive
activity in a generally accessible outdoor area
of the institution's campus that do not comply
with subparagraphs (A) through (E) of
subsection (b)(2).
``(B) Court review.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, the Secretary's determinations under
this subsection shall be reviewed de novo with respect
to all relevant questions of fact and law, including
the interpretation of constitutional, statutory, and
regulatory provisions, unless the parties stipulate
otherwise.
``(2) Designation of an employee to receive complaints.--
The Secretary shall designate an employee in the Office of
Postsecondary Education of the Department to receive complaints
from students or student organizations at a given public
institution of higher education, or from any other person or
organization, regarding policies at the institution--
``(A) that infringe upon the expressive rights of
students under the First Amendment to the Constitution
of the United States; or
``(B) that maintain or enforce time, place, or
manner restrictions on an expressive activity in a
generally accessible outdoor area of the institution's
campus that do not comply with subparagraphs (A)
through (E) of subsection (b)(2).
``(3) Complaint.--A complaint submitted under subparagraph
(2)--
``(A) shall include the provision of the
institution's policy the complainant believes either
infringes upon the expressive rights of students under
the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States or maintains or enforces time, place, or manner
restrictions on an expressive activity in a generally
accessible outdoor area of the institution's campus
that does not comply with subparagraphs (A) through (E)
of subsection (b)(2), along with any evidence regarding
the operation and enforcement of such policy the
complainant deems relevant; and
``(B) may include an argument as to why the policy
in question either infringes upon the expressive rights
of students under the First Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States or maintains or
enforces time, place, or manner restrictions on an
expressive activity in a generally accessible outdoor
area of the institution's campus that does not comply
with subparagraphs (A) through (E) of subsection
(b)(2).
``(4) System of review.--
``(A) First stage review.--
``(i) Request for response.--Not later than
7 days after the date of receipt of a complaint
under paragraph (2), the Secretary shall review
the complaint and request a response to the
complaint from the institution.
``(ii) Institution response.--Not later
than 30 days after the date the Secretary
requests a response under clause (i), the
institution shall--
``(I) certify to the Secretary that
the institution has entirely withdrawn
the policy that occasioned the
complaint;
``(II) submit a revised policy for
review by the Secretary; or
``(III) submit a defense of the
policy that occasioned the complaint.
``(iii) Availability to complainant.--
``(I) In general.--Not later than 7
days after the date of receipt of a
revised policy or defense of the
original policy as submitted by the
institution pursuant to clause (ii),
the Secretary shall make available to
the complainant a copy of such revised
policy or defense.
``(II) Response by complainant.--
Not later than 60 days after the date
of receipt of a revised policy or
defense of the original policy under
subclause (I), the complainant may
submit to the Secretary a response to
the revised policy or defense of the
original policy.
``(III) Submission to the
institution of response.--Not later
than 7 days after the date of receipt
of a response under subclause (II), the
Secretary shall submit to the
institution a copy of such response.
``(iv) Determinations.--If the institution
declines to entirely withdraw the policy that
occasioned the complaint and either submits a
revised policy for review or submits a defense
of the policy that occasioned the complaint,
the Secretary shall, not later than 60 days
after the date of the deadline for a response
by the complaint as described in clause
(iii)(II), make one of the following
determinations:
``(I) Determine that the complaint
in question has insufficient merit to
proceed to Second Stage Review
described in subparagraph (B).
``(II) Determine that the complaint
in question has sufficient merit to
proceed to Second Stage Review
described in subparagraph (B).
``(v) Notification.--Not later than 7 days
after the date the Secretary makes a
determination under clause (iv), the Secretary
shall notify the institution and the
complainant of such determination.
``(vi) End.--The determination under clause
(iv) shall constitute the end of First Stage
Review.
``(B) Second stage review.--
``(i) In general.--In a Second Stage
Review, the Secretary shall notify the
institution and the complainant of the
commencement of the Second Stage Review, and
shall give the institution the option of
entirely withdrawing the policy that occasioned
the complaint or submitting a revised policy
for review within 30 days of the commencement
of the Second Stage Review. In such
notification submitted to the institution and
complainant, the Secretary shall indicate the
relevant sections of the institution's policy
in question and explain why these sections may
be out of compliance.
``(ii) Determination.--Not later than 90
days from the commencement of the Second Stage
Review, the Secretary shall determine whether
the policy that occasioned the complaint, or
the revised policy submitted during the First
Stage Review, or the revised policy submitted
within the first 30 days of the Second Stage
Review, is in violation of student rights under
the First Amendment to the Constitution of the
United States or of the restrictions on the
regulation of speech by time, place, and manner
set forth in this section, thereby ending
Second Stage Review.
``(iii) Investigation.--During Second Stage
Review, the Secretary may conduct an
investigation in which further information may
be sought or requested from the complainant,
the institution, or any other source the
Secretary determines pertinent.
``(iv) Certification of withdrawal.--At any
point during the Second Stage Review, the
institution in question may certify to the
Secretary that it has entirely withdrawn the
policy that occasioned the complaint, thereby
ending the Second Stage Review.
``(v) Notification and justification.--If
the Secretary determines by the conclusion of
Second Stage Review that the policy that
occasioned the complaint or the revised policy
submitted for review during First Stage Review
or Second Stage Review is consistent with the
expressive rights of students under the First
Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States and the restrictions on the regulation
of speech by time, place, and manner set forth
in this Act--
``(I) the Secretary shall notify
the complainant and the institution of
such determination not more than 7 days
after the date of the determination;
and
``(II) the Secretary shall explain
and justify such determination in a
written decision citing relevant legal
precedent, copies of which shall be
sent to the complainant, the
institution, and made available for
public inspection, including for online
reading by the public.
``(C) Determination that institution is out of
compliance.--
``(i) In general.--If, upon completion of
the Second Stage Review, the Secretary
determines that the policy that occasioned the
complaint, or the revised policy submitted for
review during the First Stage Review or Second
Stage Review, violates the First Amendment to
the Constitution of the United States or the
restrictions on the regulation of speech set
forth in this section, the Secretary shall
notify the complainant and the institution not
more than 7 days after the date of completion
of Second Stage Review that the institution is
out of compliance with the requirements for
receiving funds under this Act, including
participation in any program under this title,
but will be granted a grace period of 120 days
to return to compliance before being formally
stripped of eligibility.
``(ii) Posting; explanation; final
review.--As part of the notification under
clause (i), the Secretary shall--
``(I) require the institution to
post the determination of the Secretary
on the website of the institution
within 2 clicks of the homepage,
without a paywall, email login, or
other restriction to access;
``(II) explain and justify the
determination of the Secretary in a
written decision citing relevant legal
precedent, copies of which shall be
sent to the complainant, the
institution, and made available for
public inspection, including for online
reading by the public; and
``(III) inform the institution that
Final Review has begun and that the
institution must either certify to the
Secretary that it has entirely
withdrawn the policy that occasioned
the complaint, or submit a revised
policy for review to the Secretary not
later than 60 days after the date of
receipt of notice of the conclusion of
Second Stage Review.
``(D) Final review.--
``(i) In general.--If an institution
submits a revised policy for review as
described in subparagraph (C)(ii)(III), the
Secretary shall review such revised policy and
determine not later than 120 days after the
date of commencement of Final Review whether
the revised policy is consistent with the
expressive rights of students under the First
Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States and with the restrictions on the
regulation of speech by time, place, and manner
set forth in this Act.
``(ii) Determination of compliance.--If the
Secretary determines, as described in clause
(i), that the revised policy is consistent with
the expressive rights of students under the
First Amendment to the Constitution of the
United States and with the restrictions on the
regulation of speech by time, place, and manner
set forth in this Act, the Secretary shall
notify the complainant and the institution of
such determination not more than 7 days after
the date the determination is made, thereby
ending the final Stage Review.
``(iii) Determination of violation.--If the
Secretary determines, as described in clause
(i), that the revised policy violates the
expressive rights of students under the First
Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States or the restrictions on the regulation of
speech by time, place, and manner set forth in
this Act, the Secretary shall--
``(I) notify the complainant and
the institution of such determination
not more than 7 days after the date the
determination is made, thereby ending
the final Stage Review; and
``(II) explain and justify the
determination in a written decision
citing relevant legal precedent, copies
of which shall be sent to the
complainant, the institution, and made
available for public inspection,
including for online reading by the
public.
``(E) Loss of eligibility.--
``(i) In general.--If the Secretary
determines, during the Final Stage Review, that
the institution's policy in question violates
the expressive rights of students under the
First Amendment to the Constitution of the
United States or the restrictions on the
regulation of speech by time, place, and manner
set forth in this Act, the Secretary shall--
``(I) notify the complainant and
the institution not more than 7 days
after the date of the determination
that the institution will lose
eligibility to receive funds under this
Act, including participation in any
program under this title, in accordance
with this subparagraph;
``(II) notify the institution that
the loss of eligibility shall go into
effect beginning with any student
notified of acceptance for admission to
the institution during the academic
year subsequent to the academic year
during which the determination is made,
and that no restoration of eligibility
for ineligible students in subsequent
academic years will occur prior to the
beginning of the third academic year
subsequent to the academic year during
which the determination is made;
``(III) explain and justify the
determination in a written decision
citing relevant legal precedent, copies
of which shall be sent to the
complainant, the institution, and made
available for public inspection,
including for online reading by the
public; and
``(IV) require the institution to
post the determination of the Secretary
on the website of the institution,
within two clicks of the homepage,
without a paywall, email login, or
other restriction to access.
``(ii) Continued eligibility.--Each student
enrolled at the institution during the academic
year in which eligibility is lost as described
in this subparagraph, and each student notified
of acceptance for admission to the institution
during the academic year in which eligibility
is lost as described in this subparagraph,
shall continue to be eligible to participate,
through the institution, in programs funded
under this Act during the 5-year period after
the date of the loss of eligibility.
``(F) Restoration of eligibility.--
``(i) In general.--Not later than 7 days
after the loss of eligibility under
subparagraph (E), the Secretary shall inform
the institution that it may restore
eligibility, either by certifying to the
Secretary that it has entirely withdrawn the
policy that precipitated loss of eligibility,
or by submitting a revised policy for review at
any time following the failure of the Final
Review.
``(ii) Review of revised policy.--The
Secretary shall review a revised policy
submitted for review after the loss of
eligibility and determine not later than 120
days after the date the revised policy is
submitted whether it is consistent with the
expressive rights of students under the First
Amendment to the Constitution of the United
States and with the restrictions on the
regulation of speech by time, place, and manner
set forth in this Act.
``(iii) Investigation.--While conducting a
review to restore eligibility under this
subparagraph, the Secretary may conduct an
investigation in which further information may
be sought or requested from the institution, or
any other source the Secretary determines
pertinent.
``(iv) Written decision.--In making a
determination of whether a revised policy
submitted for review after the loss of
eligibility is either consistent or
inconsistent with the expressive rights of
students under the First Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States and with the
restrictions on the regulation of speech by
time, place, and manner set forth in this Act,
the Secretary shall explain and justify the
determination in a written decision citing
relevant legal precedent, copies of which shall
be sent to the complainant, the institution,
and made available for public inspection,
including for online reading by the public.
``(v) Limit on review.--The Secretary may
conduct not more than 1 review to restore
eligibility for a single institution in any
given academic year.
``(vi) Restoration.--If an institution
certifies to the Secretary that the policy that
precipitated the loss of eligibility has been
entirely withdrawn, or if Secretary determines
that the revised policy submitted for review is
consistent with the expressive rights of
students under the First Amendment to the
Constitution of the United States and with the
restrictions on the regulation of speech by
time, place, and manner set forth in this Act,
the institution's eligibility to receive funds
under this Act, including participation in any
program under this title, shall be restored not
earlier than the beginning of the third
academic year following the year in which
notification of loss of eligibility was
received.
``(G) Good faith representation.--
``(i) In general.--The Secretary shall
inform any institution undergoing review of its
campus speech policies that it expects the
institution to represent its policies, along
with any proposed revisions in such policies,
in good faith.
``(ii) Misrepresentation.--
``(I) Complaints.--A student,
student organization, or any other
person or organization may file, with
the employee in the Office of
Postsecondary Education of the
Department designated by the Secretary
under paragraph (2) to receive
complaints, a complaint that an
institution has substantially
misrepresented its speech policies, or
withheld information requested by the
Secretary during an investigation, or
attempted to circumvent the review
process by reinstituting a policy under
review in a substantially similar form
without informing the Secretary.
``(II) Loss of eligibility.--If the
Secretary determines upon
investigation, or after receiving a
complaint under subclause (I), that an
institution has substantially
misrepresented its speech policies, or
withheld information requested by the
Secretary during an investigation, or
attempted to circumvent the review
process by reinstituting a policy under
review in a substantially similar form
without informing the Secretary, the
institution shall lose eligibility to
receive funds under this Act, including
participation in any program under this
title.
``(iii) Loss of eligibility.--If an
institution loses eligibility under clause
(ii), the Secretary shall notify the
institution, not later than 7 days after the
determination, that the loss of eligibility
shall go into effect beginning with any student
notified of acceptance for admission to the
institution during the academic year subsequent
to the academic year during which the
determination is made, and that no restoration
of eligibility for students admitted in
subsequent academic years will occur prior to
the beginning of the third academic year
subsequent to the academic year during which
the determination is made.
``(f) Retaliation Prohibited.--
``(1) In general.--No person may intimidate, threaten,
coerce, or discriminate against any individual because the
individual has made a report or complaint, testified, assisted,
or participated or refused to participate in any manner in an
investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this section.
``(2) Specific circumstances.--
``(A) Exercise of first amendment rights.--The
exercise of rights protected under the First Amendment
to the Constitution of the United States does not
constitute retaliation prohibited under paragraph (1).
``(B) Code of conduct violation for materially
false statement.--Charging an individual with a code of
conduct violation for making a materially false
statement in bad faith in the course of a grievance
proceeding under this section does not constitute
retaliation prohibited under paragraph (1). A
determination regarding responsibility, alone, is not
sufficient to conclude that any party made a materially
false statement in bad faith.
``SEC. 493F. CAMPUS SPEECH POLICIES AT PRIVATE UNIVERSITIES.
``(a) In General.--Each private institution of higher education
eligible to receive funds under this Act, including any program under
this title, shall--
``(1) post in one place on the website of the institution
all policies that pertain to the protection and regulation of
the expressive rights of students, including the right to
submit a complaint under this section, within 2 clicks of the
homepage, without a paywall, email login, or other restriction
to access;
``(2) include a copy of such policies in a handbook
distributed to new students; and
``(3) send a copy of--
``(A) such policies to the employee of the
Department designated by the Secretary to receive such
policies; and
``(B) any updates to such policies to such employee
not later than 60 days after the date of a change to
such policies.
``(b) Responsibility for Full Policy Disclosure.--Each private
institution of higher education described in subsection (a) shall
include with the copy of the policies described in subsection (a)--
``(1) a statement affirming that all policies pertinent to
the protection and regulation of the expressive rights of
students have been disclosed in the manner required by this
section, along with an acceptance of contractual obligation to
publicly disclose all such policies; and
``(2) a statement affirming that publication of such
policies as required by this section establishes a contractual
obligation on the part of the institution to its students to
maintain and enforce the disclosed policies, and only those
policies, in matters pertaining to the protection and
regulation of the expressive rights of students.
``(c) Cause of Action.--
``(1) Authorization.--A student claiming that a private
institution of higher education in which the student is
enrolled has violated any requirement or contractual obligation
imposed by this section may bring an action in a Federal court
of competent jurisdiction to enjoin such violation or to
recover compensatory damages, reasonable court costs, or
reasonable attorney fees.
``(2) Actions.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
in an action brought under this subsection, the Federal court
shall decide de novo all relevant questions of fact and law,
including the interpretation of constitutional, statutory, and
regulatory provisions, unless the parties stipulate otherwise.
In an action brought under this subsection, if the court finds
a violation of subsection (b), the court--
``(A) shall--
``(i) enjoin the violation; and
``(ii) award the student--
``(I) not less than $500 for an
initial violation; and
``(II) if the student notifies the
institution of the violation, $50 for
each day the violation continues after
the notification if the institution did
not act to discontinue the cause of the
violation; and
``(B) may award a prevailing plaintiff--
``(i) compensatory damages;
``(ii) reasonable court costs; or
``(iii) reasonable attorney fees.
``(d) Secretarial Requirements.--
``(1) Designation of an employee.--The Secretary shall
designate an employee in the Office of Postsecondary Education
in the Department who shall--
``(A) receive and compile updated copies of all
policies pertaining to the protection and regulation of
the expressive rights of students at private
institutions of higher education that receive funds
under this section, including any programs under this
title;
``(B) preserve all records of such policies for a
period of not less than 10 years and make such
policies, and the dates they were disclosed, modified,
or withdrawn, available for public inspection,
including for online reading by the public;
``(C) receive complaints from students, student
organizations, or from any other person or
organization, that believes a private institution of
higher education has not disclosed a policy pertaining
to the protection and regulation of the expressive
rights of students as required by this section, is
enforcing a policy pertaining to the expressive rights
of students that has not been disclosed as required by
this section, or has failed to make and publish a
statement affirming contractual responsibility for full
policy disclosure, or affirming contractual
responsibility for the enforcement of speech policies,
as required by this section;
``(D) not more than 7 days after the date of
receipt of a complaint under subparagraph (C), review
the complaint and request a response from the
institution;
``(E) undertake an investigation, in response to a
complaint under subparagraph (C) or at the Secretary's
independent initiative, to determine whether a private
institution of higher education has failed to disclose
a policy pertaining to the protection and regulation of
the expressive rights of students as required by this
section, is enforcing a policy pertaining to the
expressive rights of students that has not been
disclosed as required by this section, or has failed to
make and publish a statement affirming contractual
responsibility for full policy disclosure, or affirming
contractual responsibility for the enforcement of
speech policies, as required by this section; and
``(F) determine, not later than 120 days after the
date of receipt of a complaint or 120 days after the
date of the start of an investigation opened at the
Secretary's independent initiative, whether the private
institution of higher education in question has failed
to disclose a policy pertaining to the protection and
regulation of the expressive rights of students as
required by this section, is enforcing a policy
pertaining to the expressive rights of students that
has not been disclosed as required by this section, or
has failed to make and publish a statement affirming
contractual responsibility for full speech policy
disclosure, or affirming contractual responsibility for
the enforcement of speech policies, as required by this
section.
``(2) Loss of eligibility.--
``(A) In general.--If the Secretary determines that
a private institution of higher education has failed to
disclose a policy pertaining to the protection and
regulation of the expressive rights of students as
required by this section, is enforcing a policy
pertaining to the expressive rights of students that
has not been disclosed as required by this section, or
has failed to make and publish a statement affirming
contractual responsibility for full speech policy
disclosure, or affirming contractual responsibility for
the enforcement of speech policies, as required by this
section, the Secretary shall notify the institution
and, if applicable, the complainant, not more than 7
days after the date of such determination, that the
institution is out of compliance with the requirements
for receiving funds under this Act, including
participation in any program under this title, but will
be granted a grace period of 60 days to return to
compliance before formally losing eligibility for
receiving funds under this Act, including participation
in any program under this title.
``(B) Specifications in notification.--As part of
the notification under subparagraph (A), the Secretary
shall specify which policies need to be disclosed and
which statements affirming contractual responsibility
for speech policy disclosure and contractual
responsibility for speech policy enforcement need to be
made and published in order for eligibility to be
restored.
``(C) Notification of loss of eligibility.--
``(i) In general.--If the Secretary
determines that, 60 days after being notified
that it is out of compliance as described in
subparagraph (A), the institution has failed to
return to compliance by making the appropriate
speech policy disclosures, or statement
affirming contractual responsibility for full
speech policy disclosure, or statement
affirming contractual responsibility for speech
policy enforcement, the Secretary shall notify
the institution and, if applicable, the
complainant, not more than 7 days after the
date of such determination--
``(I) that the institution will
lose eligibility to receive funds under
this Act, including participation in
any program under this title;
``(II) that the loss of eligibility
shall go into effect beginning with any
student notified of acceptance for
admission to the institution during the
academic year subsequent to the
academic year during which the
determination is made, and that no
restoration of eligibility for
ineligible students in subsequent years
will occur prior to the beginning of
the third academic year subsequent to
the academic year during which the
determination is made; and
``(III) that the institution shall
post the determination of the Secretary
on the website of the institution,
within two clicks of the homepage,
without a paywall, email login, or
other restriction to access.
``(ii) Continued eligibility.--Each student
enrolled at the institution during the academic
year in which eligibility is lost as described
in this subparagraph, and each student notified
of acceptance for admission to the institution
during the academic year in which eligibility
is lost as described in this subparagraph,
shall continue to be eligible to participate,
through the institution, in programs funded
under this Act during the 5-year period after
the date of the loss of eligibility.
``(3) Restoration of eligibility.--
``(A) In general.--Not later than 7 days after the
loss of eligibility under paragraph (2), the Secretary
shall inform the institution that it may restore
eligibility by making the appropriate speech policy
disclosures, or statement affirming contractual
responsibility for full speech policy disclosure, or
statement affirming contractual responsibility for
speech policy enforcement, as directed by the Secretary
in conformity with this section.
``(B) Review.--The Secretary shall review any
policy disclosures, or statement affirming contractual
responsibility for full speech policy disclosure, or
statement affirming contractual responsibility for
speech policy enforcement, and determine whether they
are sufficient to restore eligibility for receiving
funds under this Act, including participation in any
program under this title, not later than 120 days after
the date of receipt of such disclosures or statement.
``(C) Investigation.--While conducting a review to
restore eligibility under this paragraph, the Secretary
may conduct an investigation in which further
information may be sought or requested from the
institution, or any other source the Secretary
determines pertinent.
``(D) Restoration.--If the Secretary determines
that the institution under review to restore
eligibility under this paragraph has made the policy
disclosures, and issued the statement affirming
contractual responsibility for full speech policy
disclosure, and the statement affirming contractual
responsibility for speech policy enforcement, as
required by this section, the institution's eligibility
to receive funds under this Act, including
participation in any program under this title, shall be
restored not earlier than the beginning of the third
academic year following the year in which notification
of loss of eligibility was received.
``(E) Limit on review.--The Secretary may conduct
not more than 1 review to restore eligibility for a
single institution in any given academic year.
``(e) Nonapplication to Certain Institutions.--This section shall
not apply to an institution of higher education that is controlled by a
religious organization.''.
SEC. 11. SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of this Act, or the application of such provision
to any person or circumstance, is held to be unconstitutional, the
remainder of this Act, and the application of the remaining provisions
of this Act to any person or circumstance shall not be affected.
<all> | Student Loan Reform Act of 2022 | A bill to make reforms at institutions of higher education. | Student Loan Reform Act of 2022 | Sen. Cotton, Tom | R | AR |
575 | 13,903 | H.R.818 | Agriculture and Food | Giving Increased Variety to Ensure Milk Into the Lives of Kids Act or the GIVE MILK Act
This bill revises the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) to allow WIC participants (or the parent or guardian of such participants) to elect to be issued nonfat milk, 1% low-fat milk, 2% reduced-fat milk, or whole milk. | To amend the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 to allow certain participants
in the special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and
children to elect to be issued a variety of types of milk, including
whole milk, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Giving Increased Variety to Ensure
Milk Into the Lives of Kids Act'' or the ``GIVE MILK Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Most Americans, including most children and
adolescents, consume on average only about half of the
recommended amounts of dairy foods daily.
(2) Milk is a source of many nutrients essential to health,
and is the leading source of and is a source of twelve
essential nutrients (calcium, phosphorus, vitamin A, vitamin D
(in fortified products), riboflavin, vitamin B12, protein,
potassium, zinc, choline, magnesium, and selenium) in the diets
of children and adolescents, including three nutrients of
public health concern: vitamin D, calcium, and potassium.
(3) Dairy foods are associated with improved bone health, a
lower risk of type 2 diabetes, a beneficial or neutral effect
on blood pressure, and may help reduce the risk of
cardiovascular disease, coronary heart disease, and stroke.
(4) In a September 2019 report on beverage recommendations
for early childhood, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics,
American Academy of Pediatric Dentists, American Academy of
Pediatrics, and the American Heart Association found that--
(A) medical professionals are in agreement that
whole milk is good for childhood development between
ages one and two;
(B) skim and low-fat milk are recommended for young
children;
(C) plant-based, non-dairy milks are not
recommended for young children; and
(D) an expert panel under the study recognized that
there has been recent research and discussion regarding
the role of dairy fat in healthy dietary patterns but
in the absence of clear evidence justifying a departure
from current recommendations, such expert panel chose
to remain consistent with current guidance recommending
whole milk for most children ages 12 to 24 months and
fat-free (skim) or low-fat (1 percent) milk for
children ages 2 years and older.
(5) The 2020 through 2025 Dietary Guidelines for Americans
recommendation of the number of dairy servings for young
children is--
(A) 1.5 to 2 servings for 12 to 23 months; and
(B) 2 servings for 24 months.
SEC. 3. WIC ELECTION FOR TYPE OF MILK.
(a) Election for Type of Milk.--Section 17(f) of the Child
Nutrition Act of 1966 (7 U.S.C. 1431(f)) is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``(27) Election for type of milk.--
``(A) In general.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, in the case of an individual
participating in the program authorized by this section
who is issued milk by the Secretary, such individual
(or the parent or guardian of such individual) may
elect to be issued nonfat milk, low-fat milk, reduced
fat milk, or whole milk.
``(B) Election.--The Secretary shall issue the type
of milk elected by an individual under subparagraph (A)
to such individual.''.
(b) Revision of Regulations.--The Secretary of Agriculture shall
revise regulations in accordance with the amendments made by this
section, including revision of section 246.10 of title 7, Code of
Federal Regulations.
<all> | GIVE MILK Act | To amend the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 to allow certain participants in the special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children to elect to be issued a variety of types of milk, including whole milk, and for other purposes. | GIVE MILK Act
Giving Increased Variety to Ensure Milk Into the Lives of Kids Act | Rep. Keller, Fred | R | PA |
576 | 5,182 | S.1836 | Transportation and Public Works | Fixing Infrastructure Damaged by Disasters Act
This bill expands the allowable uses of funds available to states for repairing federal-aid highways and other roadways damaged by natural disasters and catastrophic failures.
At the request of the governor and with approval of the Department of Transportation, a state may use funds for emergency maintenance projects (including those considered heavy or routine maintenance) that are necessary due to a natural disaster or catastrophic failure. Additionally, the bill increases the percent of funds a state may use for projects to protect public safety or to maintain or protect roadways from a disaster or catastrophic failure.
The bill also includes within the scope of natural disasters blizzards, ice storms, and wildfires. | To amend title 23, United States Code, to provide eligibility for
certain emergency maintenance projects under the emergency relief
program, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Fixing Infrastructure Damaged by
Disasters Act''.
SEC. 2. EMERGENCY RELIEF.
Section 125 of title 23, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(1), by inserting ``blizzard, ice
storm, wildfire,'' before ``flood'';
(2) in subsection (d), by inserting after paragraph (3) the
following:
``(4) Emergency maintenance.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of this section, on the request of a Governor of a
State and with the approval of the Secretary, the cost of an
emergency maintenance project that is necessary due to an event
described in subsection (a), including maintenance that would
be considered heavy or routine maintenance, but for the event,
shall be an eligible expense under this section.''; and
(3) in subsection (g)--
(A) by striking ``The Secretary'' and inserting the
following:
``(1) In general.--Except as provided in paragraph (2), the
Secretary''; and
(B) by adding at the end the following:
``(2) Waiver.--On the request of a Governor of a State, the
Secretary may increase the amount under paragraph (1) to not
more than 25 percent.''.
<all> | Fixing Infrastructure Damaged by Disasters Act | A bill to amend title 23, United States Code, to provide eligibility for certain emergency maintenance projects under the emergency relief program, and for other purposes. | Fixing Infrastructure Damaged by Disasters Act | Sen. Cornyn, John | R | TX |
577 | 10,840 | H.R.6710 | Health | This bill requires the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to report to Congress on barriers to the domestic manufacturing of imported active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug products, and devices that are critical to public health.
The report must recommend strategies to overcome such barriers. The FDA may, to the extent appropriate, implement the strategies. | To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through
the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, to submit to Congress a report on
barriers, including regulatory inefficiencies, to domestic
manufacturing of active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug
products, and devices, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. REPORT AND RECOMMENDATION ON BARRIERS TO DOMESTIC
MANUFACTURING OF MEDICAL PRODUCTS.
(a) Report to Congress.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of Health and Human Services
(in this section referred to as the ``Secretary''), acting through the
Commissioner of Food and Drugs, shall submit to Congress a report on
barriers, including regulatory inefficiencies, to domestic
manufacturing of active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug
products, and devices that are--
(1) imported from outside of the United States; and
(2) critical to the public health during a public health
emergency declared by the Secretary under section 319 of the
Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247d).
(b) Content.--Such report shall--
(1) identify factors that limit the manufacturing of active
pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug products, and devices
described in subsection (a); and
(2) recommend specific strategies to overcome the
challenges identified under paragraph (1).
(c) Implementation.--The Secretary may, to the extent appropriate,
implement the strategies recommended under subsection (b)(2).
(d) Definition.--In this section, the term ``active pharmaceutical
ingredient'' has the meaning given to such term in section 744A of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 379j-41).
<all> | To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, to submit to Congress a report on barriers, including regulatory inefficiencies, to domestic manufacturing of active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug products, and devices, and for other purposes. | To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, to submit to Congress a report on barriers, including regulatory inefficiencies, to domestic manufacturing of active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug products, and devices, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To direct the Secretary of Health and Human Services, acting through the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, to submit to Congress a report on barriers, including regulatory inefficiencies, to domestic manufacturing of active pharmaceutical ingredients, finished drug products, and devices, and for other purposes. | Rep. Herrell, Yvette | R | NM |
578 | 4,287 | S.4635 | Health | Comprehensive Care for Dual Eligible Individuals Act
This bill provides states with the option to establish a separate health care program for individuals who are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid. Programs must provide a core package of covered benefits to address the individualized medical, behavioral, long-term care, and social needs of enrollees, including all basic Medicare and Medicaid benefits. States may receive federal matching payments in accordance with a specified formula; the bill provides funds for the Federal Coordinated Health Care Office to implement the bill. | To amend the Social Security Act to establish an optional State-
administered program to provide fully integrated, comprehensive,
coordinated care for full-benefit dual eligible individuals under the
Medicare and Medicaid programs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Comprehensive Care
for Dual Eligible Individuals Act''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents for this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Establishment of All Inclusive Medicare-Medicaid Program for
Full-Benefit Dual Eligible Individuals.
``TITLE XXII--ALL INCLUSIVE MEDICARE-MEDICAID (AIM) PROGRAM FOR FULL-
BENEFIT DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS
``Sec. 2201. Purpose; General requirements.
``Sec. 2202. Eligibility.
``Sec. 2203. Enrollment.
``Sec. 2204. Benefits.
``Sec. 2205. Beneficiary protections.
``Sec. 2206. Federal administration.
``Sec. 2207. Selection and role of AIM-administering entities.
``Sec. 2208. Program financing.
``Sec. 2209. Accountability and oversight.
``Sec. 2210. Definitions; miscellaneous provisions.
Sec. 3. MedPAC study and report.
SEC. 2. ESTABLISHMENT OF ALL INCLUSIVE MEDICARE-MEDICAID PROGRAM FOR
FULL-BENEFIT DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS.
(a) In General.--The Social Security Act is amended by adding at
the end the following new title:
``TITLE XXII--ALL INCLUSIVE MEDICARE-MEDICAID (AIM) PROGRAM FOR FULL-
BENEFIT DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS
``SEC. 2201. PURPOSE; GENERAL REQUIREMENTS.
``(a) Purpose.--The purpose of this title is to provide, at the
option of a State, for a program implemented and administered by the
State of comprehensive, coordinated care for individuals eligible for
benefits under the Medicare program under title XVIII and for full
benefits under the Medicaid program under title XIX in order to improve
quality, control costs, address health disparities, and support
independence, community participation, and quality of life.
``(b) Requirement for Approved AIM Program Application.--A State
may not be approved to implement an AIM program under this title
unless, consistent with the process specified for approval of AIM
programs under subsection (c)--
``(1) the State has completed, in a pre-printed format and
manner specified by the Secretary, a notice of intent to
establish such a program not earlier than 3 years after the
date on which the State submits the notice of intent to the
Secretary, and which includes a plan for such a program (or the
State is working with the Federal Coordinated Health Care
Office to transition an integrated care program of the State
into an AIM program under this title); and
``(2) the Secretary has received assurances, satisfactory
to the Secretary, that the proposed State AIM program and its
plan (or, in the case of a State working with the Federal
Coordinated Health Care Office to transition an integrated care
program of the State into an AIM program under this title, the
State AIM program after such transition is completed) meet the
applicable requirements for such a program under this title,
including the requirements specified in subsection (c).
``(c) General Requirements.--The requirements specified in this
subsection for an AIM program of a State are as follows:
``(1) Eligibility and enrollment.--The program provides for
eligibility and enrollment of AIMP-eligible individuals under
the program in accordance with sections 2202 and 2203.
``(2) Benefits.--The program provides for benefits for AIMP
enrollees under the program in accordance with section 2204.
``(3) Beneficiary protections.--The program provides for
beneficiary protections for AIMP enrollees under the program
that are not less than those required under section 2205.
``(4) Coordinating and integration of benefits.--The
program provides for the coordination and integration of
benefits by AIM-administering entities in accordance with
section 2205.
``(5) Program accountability.--The program provides for
accountability in administration and financing in accordance
with section 2208.
``(6) Other requirements.--The program meets such other
requirements as the Secretary may establish to carry out this
title.
``(d) Program Approval Process.--The Secretary shall establish a
process for the initial approval of AIM programs of States based on the
process used for approval of waivers under section 1115 with respect to
title XIX. The process established under this subsection shall include
at least the following elements:
``(1) Notice of intent.--
``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (B), the
State submits to the Secretary a notice of intent to
establish the AIMP.
``(B) Conditions for transparent process.--The
Secretary shall not accept a notice of intent submitted
under subparagraph (A) unless, before the date of such
submission, the State--
``(i) has provided a period of not less
than 90 days for notice and public comment on
the proposed establishment of the program in
the State;
``(ii) has held at least 2 public meetings
regarding the establishment of the program; and
``(iii) has conducted relevant consultation
with any relevant tribal authorities of
Federally recognized Indian tribes located in
the State.
``(2) Federal readiness review completed.--At least 1 year
before the identified initial implementation date for an AIM
program in a State, the State has passed a review by the
Secretary of the State's readiness to implement the program.
``(3) State readiness review of aim-administering
entities.--After a State passes the Federal readiness review
under paragraph (2), the State shall conduct a review of the
proposed AIM-administering entities under proposed AIMP
contracts with the State with respect to their readiness to
administer the program for benefits for AIMP enrollees assigned
to such entities. Such review--
``(A) shall include elements specified by the
Secretary, including a network adequacy review;
``(B) may include activities such as a desk review,
separate network validation review, and site visit; and
``(C) must be passed by an AIMP-administering
entity before any outreach or marketing of or by that
entity is permitted under a State AIM program.
``(e) Technical Assistance Planning Grants.--
``(1) Eligibility.--A State that has provided a notice of
intent under subsection (d)(1) to implement an AIM program is
eligible for funding assistance with technical planning
necessary to implement the program. Such funding shall be
provided in amounts of up to $10,000,000 per State, and under
such conditions as the Secretary shall specify.
``(2) Use of funds.--Funding made available to a State
under this subsection may be used to assist the State with the
staffing, information technology, planning and evaluation, and
initial implementation of the AIM program in the State for
expenses incurred during the 3-year period that begins on the
date the State submits a notice of intent under subsection
(d)(1).
``(3) Funding.--For the purpose of providing funding
assistance under this subsection, there is appropriated, out of
any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, such sums
as may be necessary to carry out this subsection.
``SEC. 2202. ELIGIBILITY.
``(a) In General.--In this title, the term `AIMP-eligible
individual' means, with respect to an AIMP-participating State, an
individual who--
``(1) is 21 years of age or older;
``(2) is entitled (or eligible to be enrolled) under part A
or part B, or both, of title XVIII;
``(3) subject to subsection (c), is eligible for medical
assistance under the State plan (including a waiver thereof)
under title XIX as a full-benefit dual eligible individual; and
``(4) meets such income and asset standards as the State
may establish for the AIM program in accordance with subsection
(d) (and which shall be applied in addition to the income and
asset standards the individual is required to meet for purposes
of eligibility for medical assistance under the State plan (or
a waiver) under title XIX).
``(b) Process for Determination of Eligibility.--Except as
otherwise provided in this title, the determination of whether an
individual is an AIMP-eligible individual with respect to the AIM
program of a State shall be made in accordance with the processes used
to determine the individual's eligibility for medical assistance under
the State plan (or waiver thereof) under title XIX of the State.
``(c) Flexibility Permitted.--
``(1) Geographic scope.--
``(A) Statewide.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), an AIMP-participating State shall
provide for the implementation of its AIM program on a
statewide basis.
``(B) Phase-in permitted on a time-limited basis.--
An AIMP-participating State may provide for the
implementation of its AIM program not on a statewide
basis so long as the program is phased in
geographically in a manner so that it is implemented
statewide no later than the 4th year of implementation,
except that the Secretary may permit a longer phase-in
period due to extenuating circumstances.
``(2) New population phase-in permitted.--
``(A) Carve-outs not permitted.--Except as provided
in subparagraph (B), an AIMP-participating State may
not deny eligibility under its AIM program to
subpopulations of AIMP-eligible individuals and shall
enroll all AIMP-eligible individuals under the program
without the application of any waiting lists.
``(B) Time-limited exception permitted.--The
Secretary may allow States to phase in the enrollment
of certain subpopulations over a specified period, not
to exceed a period of 4 years.
``(3) Pace continuation permitted.--Nothing in this title
shall be construed as preventing an AIMP-participating State
from continuing to offer a Program of All-Inclusive Care for
the Elderly (PACE) under section 1894 or 1934.
``(d) Income and Asset Standards.--
``(1) Income eligibility floor.--In no case shall an AIMP-
participating State have an income eligibility threshold under
its AIM program that is less than 73 percent of the official
poverty line (as defined by the Office of Management and
Budget, and revised annually in accordance with section 673(2)
of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981) applicable to
a family of the size involved or, if greater, the income
threshold applied during the fiscal year preceding the year in
which this title is enacted.
``(2) Asset threshold floor.--In no case shall an AIMP-
participating State apply an asset threshold for eligibility
for a fiscal year that is less than the following:
``(A) For first fiscal year.--For the 1st fiscal
year (or portion of a fiscal year) in which the AIM
program is implemented in the State, the greater of--
``(i) $2,000; and
``(ii) the asset eligibility standard
applied under the State plan (including a
waiver thereof) under title XIX for a full-
benefit dual eligible individual during the
fiscal year preceding the fiscal year in which
this title is enacted.
``(B) For subsequent fiscal year.--For a subsequent
fiscal year, the minimum asset threshold applied under
this paragraph for the previous fiscal year increased
(and rounded to the nearest $10) by the annual increase
in the consumer price index for all urban consumers
(United States city average).
``(3) Flexibility.--Nothing in this subsection shall be
construed as limiting the ability of an AIMP-participating
State to increase the income eligibility threshold, asset
eligibility threshold, or income or asset disregards, including
by allowing buy-ins or spenddowns, above the minimum levels
required under this subsection.
``(4) Eligibility threshold.--The income and asset
thresholds that a State establishes under this subsection shall
be applied under the State AIM program to determine whether an
individual is an AIMP-eligible individual without regard to
whether the individual elects to enroll, or is enrolled, in the
State AIM program.
``(e) Use of Streamlined Eligibility Determination and Enrollment
Processes.--
``(1) In general.--Each AIMP-participating State shall use
streamlined eligibility and enrollment processes in order to
promote continuity and incentivize States that invest in
improving quality and costs, including those specified in this
subsection.
``(2) Specific streamlined eligibility required.--Each
AIMP-participating State shall utilize the following with
respect to streamlining the eligibility determination and
enrollment of individuals in the State's AIM program:
``(A) 12-month continuous eligibility.
``(B) Use of electronic data matches with trusted
third-party sources (such as the Social Security
Administration or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance
Program) to verify eligibility under the State AIM
program both for initial eligibility applications and
for renewals.
``(C) Streamlined eligibility recertification every
12 months, including--
``(i) for individuals who have been
determined eligible and enrolled, only
requiring submission of information on any
changes to their financial or disability status
(instead of submitting an entire renewal
application);
``(ii) with respect to verification of
eligibility, initially using of available
information to auto-verify eligibility;
``(iii) if additional information is needed
for renewal of eligibility, using pre-populated
forms and allowing submission of information
online, in person, by telephone, fax, or mail;
and
``(iv) using a standard reconsideration
period of 90 days from the time of termination
of coverage.
``(3) Use of deeming.--Each AIMP-participating State shall
use deemed eligibility for a period of not less than 6 months.
``(4) Data sharing on enrollment.--Under an AIMP contract,
an AIMP-participating State, the Secretary, and AIM-
administering entities shall routinely and frequently share
data among themselves with regard to eligibility and enrollment
of individuals under AIM programs. Such data sharing may
include monthly changes in program enrollment and eligibility,
beneficiary opt-out rates, and other changes specified by the
Secretary.
``(f) Rule of Construction of Continuation as a Medicare and
Medicaid Beneficiary for Purposes Other Than Benefits.--The fact that
an individual qualifies as an AIMP-eligible individual shall not be
construed as removing the individual's status as an individual entitled
to benefits under title XVIII or XIX, but insofar as the individual
becomes an AIMP enrollee entitled to benefits under this title, such
entitlement to benefits under titles XVIII and XIX shall be considered
as met through the provision of benefits under this title.
``SEC. 2203. ENROLLMENT.
``(a) Beneficiary Choice.--In an AIMP-participating State under its
AIM program, an AIMP-eligible individual may select (in a manner
specified by the State consistent with this section) to receive
benefits through any of the following:
``(1) The State AIM program.
``(2) A PACE program (if available to the individual in the
State).
``(3) A combination of Medicare fee-for-service program
(under parts A, B, and D, as applicable, of title XVIII) and
medical assistance under title XIX (whether delivered through
fee-for-service or managed care, as provided by the State under
such title).
``(b) Initial Assignment at Time of Program Implementation or
Initial Enrollment.--An AIMP-participating State may provide that all
AIMP-eligible individuals in the State who are not enrolled in a PACE
program under section 1894 or 1934 and who do not make an affirmative
selection under subsection (a)(3) shall be deemed to have elected to
enroll in the AIM program of the State.
``(c) Coordination of Selection and Enrollment With Medicare
Enrollment Processes.--The process for selection and enrollment of
AIMP-eligible individuals in AIM programs shall be consistent and
coordinated with the processes for enrollment in Medicare Advantage
plans under part C of title XVIII during open and special enrollment
periods. Such processes shall, consistent with section 423.38(c) of
title 42, Code of Federal Regulations (or any successor regulation) and
any other applicable regulations, provide--
``(1) a special enrollment period for individuals who--
``(A) are dually eligible individuals enrolled in
fee-for-service Medicare when the State AIM program is
first established to permit such individuals to elect
to enroll in the State AIM program; or
``(B) become AIMP-eligible individuals; and
``(2) for the right of an AIMP-enrolled individual to
disenroll from the AIM program and to otherwise to make changes
in the selection in enrollment described in subsection (a).
``(d) Assistance in Enrollment Choice.--An AIMP-participating State
must contract with 1 or more independent enrollment brokers, at least 1
of which is a nonprofit, community-based organization, and all of which
are approved by the Secretary, to assist AIMP-eligible individuals in
understanding the AIM program and making enrollment choices under this
section in the same manner as such brokers are permitted with respect
to enrollment of individuals under its State plan under title XIX (or
waiver thereof), except that no individual sales commissions shall be
permitted (including to the extent such commissions may otherwise be
permitted by brokers and employed or captive agents under the Medicare
Advantage program under part C of title XVIII).
``(e) Construction Regarding Continued Medicaid Use of Managed
Care.--Nothing in this subsection shall be construed as affecting the
authority of an AIMP-participating State to require, in the case of an
AIMP-eligible individual who makes the election described in subsection
(a)(3) (or otherwise opts-out of enrollment in the AIM program and into
benefits under title XIX), to obtain benefits for covered services
under title XIX through participation in a managed care plan or
arrangement.
``(f) Assignment of Enrollees to AIMP-Administering Entities.--
``(1) In general.--An AIMP-eligible individual enrolled
under an AIM program shall be provided with a choice of the
AIMP-administering entity to which the individual is assigned
for purposes of obtaining benefits under the program.
``(2) Initial assignment at time of program implementation
or initial enrollment.--
``(A) In general.--In the case of an AIMP-eligible
individual who, at the time of enrollment under an AIM
program, is enrolled in an integrated program for
individuals dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid
participating in the Financial Alignment Initiative of
the Federal Coordinated Health Care Office, or enrolled
in a Medicare Advantage plan that is a highly
integrated dual eligible special needs plan or a fully
integrated dual eligible special needs plan, the State
AIM program may initially assign the individual to the
AIMP-administering entity for such Medicare Advantage
plan (or, in the case of an AIMP-eligible individual
who, at the time of enrollment under an AIM program, is
enrolled in an integrated program for individuals
dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid participating
in the Financial Alignment Initiative of the Federal
Coordinated Health Care Office, to the AIMP-
administering entity designated by the State), or
another AIMP-administering entity, if necessary if--
``(i) the provider network of such entity
under the AIM program is substantially similar
to the network used under the plan offered by
the entity that the individual is enrolled in
prior to such assignment; and
``(ii) the individual is provided with--
``(I) at least 1 written notice of
such assignment at least 60 days in
advance of the effective date of the
assignment; and
``(II) at least 1 phone call
notifying the individual of the
assignment in advance of the effective
date of the assignment.
``(B) Continuity of care.--To the extent possible
to prevent disruption and promote continuity of care, a
State AIM program shall seek to ensure that individuals
described in subparagraph (A) are assigned to the AIMP-
administering entity that offers the plan or program in
which the individual is enrolled in prior to the
individual's transfer to, and enrollment in, the State
AIM program.
``(C) Conditional initial assignment for other
aimp-eligible individuals.--In the case of an AIMP-
eligible individual who, at the time of enrollment
under a State AIM program is enrolled in a Medicare
Advantage plan that is operating as an AIMP-
administering entity other than a plan described in
subparagraph (A), or is enrolled in a Medicaid managed
care plan offered by the same entity that is operating
as an AIMP-administering entity in the State AIM
Program, the State AIM program may initially assign the
individual to that AIMP-administering entity if--
``(i) the provider network of such entity
under the State AIM program is substantially
similar to the network used under the Medicare
Advantage plan or Medicaid managed care plan
offered by the entity that the individual is
enrolled in prior to such assignment; and
``(ii) the individual is provided with--
``(I) at least 1 written notice of
such assignment at least 60 days in
advance of the effective date of the
assignment; and
``(II) at least 1 phone call
notifying the individual of the
assignment in advance of the effective
date of the assignment.
``(3) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this subsection
shall be construed as--
``(A) preventing an individual from choosing to be
assigned to a different participating AIMP-
administering entity;
``(B) preventing an individual from changing their
assignment to an AIMP-administering entity or from
opting-out of participating in the State AIM program;
or
``(C) constraining or changing the authority of a
State under the State plan under title XIX or under a
waiver of such plan to require a Medicaid-eligible
individual to enroll with a managed care entity if the
individual chooses not to participate in the AIM
Program.
``(4) Choice of enrollment from fee-for-service medicare.--
An AIMP-eligible individual who, as of the date on which a
State first implements the State AIM program, is enrolled in
the Medicare fee-for-service program under title XVIII, may
elect to enroll in the State AIM Program through a special
enrollment period established for such individuals, consistent
with the requirements of section 423.38(c)(4) of title 42, Code
of Federal Regulations (or a successor regulation).
``(g) Effect of Enrollment on Medicare and Medicaid Payments to
States.--Except as provided in this title, in the case of an individual
who is enrolled as an AIMP enrollee under a State AIM program under
this title, during the period of such enrollment payment to the State
under this title shall be instead of the payment amounts which would
otherwise be payable under title XVIII or XIX for items and services
furnished to the enrollee.
``(h) Outreach and Enrollment Support.--
``(1) Funding.--For the purpose of providing funding
assistance to AIMP-participating States for outreach to, and
enrollment support of, AIMP-eligible individuals, there is
appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise
appropriated, such sums as may be necessary for each fiscal
year beginning with the first fiscal year that begins on or
after the date of enactment of this title.
``(2) Use of funds.--An AIMP-participating State shall use
funds provided to the State under this subsection for outreach
to, and enrollment support of, AIMP-eligible individuals, that
includes the following:
``(A) Distributing outreach and enrollment
materials printed in accessible language formats
(including primary languages, Braille, large print, and
alternative texts).
``(B) Engaging community-based organizations to
conduct outreach to, and provide enrollment assistance
for, AIMP-eligible individuals.
``(C) Referring AIMP-eligible individuals to the
State long-term care ombudsman, the qualified nonprofit
AIM Ombudsman selected for the AIM program under
section 2205(c), and other beneficiary support entities
for enrollment assistance and information.
``SEC. 2204. BENEFITS.
``(a) Covered Benefits.--
``(1) In general.--A State AIM program shall provide a core
package of covered benefits to address medical, behavioral,
long-term care, and social needs of AIMP enrollees in
accordance with an individual assessment and plan of care. Such
core package of available benefits shall include the following:
``(A) Medicare benefits.--All benefits available
under parts A, B, and D of title XVIII, including with
respect to benefits available under such part D,
coverage of the 6 protected classes and 2 drugs from
each class.
``(B) Medicaid mandatory benefits.--All benefits
otherwise required to be provided to AIMP-eligible
individuals under title XIX in the State if they were
not AIMP enrollees.
``(C) Historic benefits.--All Medicaid services and
benefits offered as of 1 year prior to the enactment of
this title, as required by section 2204(d).
``(D) Drugs.--All prescription drugs and covered
outpatient drugs available under the State Medicaid
program, including any such drugs that are available
under a prescription drug plan under part D of title
XVIII.
``(E) Additional services.--An AIMP-participating
State may, with approval from the Federal Coordinated
Health Care Office, make available under the State AIM
program additional behavioral health, social, and
supportive services that enable flexibility to achieve
person-centered outcomes in the most cost-effective
setting.
``(2) Limitation on benefit carve-outs.--The Secretary may
permit a State AIM program to exclude benefits for some
services under paragraph (1)(C) if the Secretary determines
that such an exclusion is essential for the State to implement
the AIM program but such exclusion may not extend over a period
of longer than 4 years.
``(b) Benefit Assessment Process.--
``(1) Assessment tool and plan of care.--
``(A) Development.--Not later than 18 months after
the date of the enactment of this title, the Secretary,
in consultation with State agencies administering State
plans or waivers under title XIX and with input from
other stakeholders, shall develop and publish a robust,
comprehensive standard assessment tool for use by all
AIM programs in evaluating the condition and needs of
AIMP enrollees for benefits under the program.
``(B) Application to plan of care.--Each AIM
program shall provide for an assessment for each AIMP
enrollee, using such standard assessment tool, to form
a basis for the enrollee's plan of care under the
program. Such an assessment shall be conducted at least
annually, and when a triggering event (as defined by
the Secretary) affecting the enrollee's need for care
occurs.
``(C) Application of grievance and appeals
procedures.--Disagreements concerning the plan of care
for an AIM enrollee shall be subject to grievance and
appeal rights under section 2205(b).
``(2) Standard assessment tool.--The standard assessment
tool under paragraph (1) shall--
``(A) contain a required set of core elements, to
which States and AIMP-administering entities may add
additional requirements so long as the requirements a
State or AIMP administering entity uses contain at a
minimum the core set of elements;
``(B) cover multiple domains, including medical,
functional, behavioral, and social domains; and
``(C) be applicable to the full range of AIMP
enrollees, including individuals with serious mental
illness and with needs for assistance with activities
of daily living.
``(c) State Provision of Covered Benefits.--
``(1) Use of tiered-benefit model.--An AIMP-participating
State may establish a tiered-benefit design structure for
benefits so that specialized benefits may be available to meet
the needs of specific subpopulations of AIMP enrollees so long
as such tiering--
``(A) only applies to benefits described in
subparagraph (E) of subsection (a)(1) and does not
limit the coverage of core covered benefits described
in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of such subsection; and
``(B) is no more restrictive than the benefit
structure in place in the State under title XIX in the
year before the date of the enactment of this title.
``(2) In-lieu-thereof alternative services permitted.--An
AIMP-participating State may permit AIMP-administering entities
to cover benefits for cost-effective alternative services
(known as `in lieu of services') instead of benefits for
services otherwise included under the AIM program but in no
case shall an AIMP enrollee be required to use such alternative
services.
``(3) Continuity of services.--
``(A) In general.--Except as provided in
subparagraph (B), during the first 6 months of an AIM
enrollee's enrollment in an AIM program (or for such
longer period as the AIM program may provide) an AIMP-
participating State shall continue to provide access to
all medically necessary covered items and services and
providers (for continuity of care) that were being
provided at the time of enrollment.
``(B) Exception.--Subparagraph (A) shall not apply
in cases in which it is determined by the State, and
agreed to by the Secretary, that the AIMP enrollee was
not eligible for such services at the time of
enrollment or was enrolled in the AIM program due to
error or fraud.
``(d) Maintenance of Effort.--As a condition for approval of an AIM
program of a State, the State shall maintain levels of benefits for AIM
enrollees under the program that are not less than the level of
benefits under its State plan (including under a waiver) under title
XIX for full-benefit dual eligible individuals as of fiscal year 2021,
as of the fiscal year before the fiscal year in which this title is
enacted, or as of the fiscal year before the 1st fiscal year in which
the program is implemented in the State, whichever fiscal year has the
highest level of benefits.
``(e) Administration of Benefits Through AIM-Administering
Entities.--AIMP-participating States shall provide for the coordination
of, and the responsibility for the delivery of covered services through
AIM-administering entities under an AIM contract under section 2207.
``SEC. 2205. BENEFICIARY PROTECTIONS.
``(a) In General.--Except as otherwise provided, the beneficiary
protections applicable to individuals enrolled under plans under parts
C and D of title XVIII and under a State plan under title XIX shall
apply in a manner specified by the Secretary to AIMP enrollees under an
AIM program under this title and are in addition to beneficiary
protections provided under this title.
``(b) Application of Grievances and Internal and External Appeals
Under AIMP Contracts.--The rights of individuals with respect to
internal and external complaints and appeals processes shall be
specified in the contract between the AIMP-participating State and an
AIMP-administering entity. Such processes shall, at a minimum,
incorporate relevant rights and processes from the requirements for
plans under parts C and D of title XVIII as well as requirements for
Medicaid managed care organizations under title XIX.
``(c) Requirement for Qualified AIM Ombudsman Program.--
``(1) In general.--As a condition for approval of an AIM
program for a State under this title--
``(A) the State shall have established and have
ready for implementation not later than 18 months prior
to implementing the AIM program, a qualified nonprofit
AIM Ombudsman program run by a community-based
organization for such AIM program; and
``(B) the State, before implementation of its AIM
program, shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the
Secretary (through an application of certification
process specified by the Secretary) that its AIM
Ombudsman program has the capacity to carry out its
functions in the State, including that the program has
the independence, expertise, and adequate resources in
place to serve AIMP-eligible individuals and AIMP
enrollees under the State AIM program.
``(2) Qualifications for qualified aim ombudsman program.--
``(A) In general.--In order to be a qualified AIM
Ombudsman program, such program must meet the
requirements of this subsection for such a program.
``(B) Construction.--Nothing in this subsection
shall be construed as preventing a qualified AIM
Ombudsman program from being structured as part of
another protection service (including those specified
in paragraph (3)), so long as such other protection
service meets the requirements of this subsection for a
qualified AIM Ombudsman program.
``(3) Coordination with other beneficiary protection
services.--A qualified AIM Ombudsman program shall coordinate
with State and Federal beneficiary protection services,
including the following:
``(A) Demonstration Ombudsman Programs Serving
Medicare-Medicaid Enrollees.
``(B) Managed Care Beneficiary Support Systems.
``(C) Long-Term Care Ombudsman Programs.
``(D) Disability Protection and Advocacy Programs.
``(4) Core services.--A qualified AIM Ombudsman program for
an AIMP-participating State shall have authority to provide the
following core services with respect to the AIM program in the
State:
``(A) Individual assistance (including consumer
education and empowerment, assistance with and
representation in beneficiary appeals, fair hearings,
and grievances, guidance regarding plan and provider
selection, and support during enrollment and
disenrollment) for AIMP-eligible individuals
considering enrollment in the State AIM program and for
AIMP enrollees in such program.
``(B) Systemic monitoring and reporting to the
State regarding compliance with applicable
requirements.
``(5) Providing reports to consumer advisory boards.--A
qualified AIM Ombudsman program for a State shall provide, on a
timely basis, any reports it produces to the consumer advisory
boards (established under subsection (e)) for the State and
shall make them publicly available.
``(6) Funding and oversight.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary shall oversee and
administer Federal funding directly to qualified AIM
Ombudsman programs established by States.
``(B) Funding level.--For the purpose of providing
funding to qualified AIMP Ombudsman programs in each
State over a period of 3 fiscal years, there is
appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not
otherwise appropriated, not less than $1,000,000, and
not more than $5,000,000. The Secretary shall determine
the funding for each such program based on the
estimated number of AIMP-eligible individuals in each
State.
``(C) Supplemental funding.--Nothing in this
paragraph shall be construed as preventing an AIMP-
participating State from providing supplemental funding
for the qualified AIM Ombudsman program for the State.
``(d) Beneficiary Advisory Council.--Each AIMP-participating State
shall have in operation a Beneficiary Advisory Council to advise the
State regarding the treatment of AIMP-eligible individuals and AIMP
enrollees under this title. The composition and specific functions and
authority of such a Council shall be delineated in readiness review
requirements specified by the Secretary in carrying out paragraphs (2)
and (3) of section 2201(d).
``(e) Consumer Advisory Boards.--
``(1) In general.--Each AIMP-participating State and each
AIMP-administering entity in each such State shall establish a
consumer advisory board that will provide regular feedback to
the State or governing board of the entity, respectively, on
issues of care of AIMP enrollees under the AIM program in that
State or through that entity, respectively.
``(2) Composition; functions.--Each such consumer advisory
board shall--
``(A) meet at least quarterly;
``(B) be comprised of members who--
``(i) may be subject to approval by the
Secretary and the AIMP-participating State;
``(ii) are AIMP enrollees;
``(iii) are family members and other
caregivers for AIMP enrollees; and
``(iv) are chosen in a manner that reflects
the demographic diversity of the population of
AIMP enrollees, including with respect to race,
ethnicity, age, and urban and rural
populations, and which includes individuals
with disabilities;
``(C) meet the requirements for member advisory
committees under section 438.110 of title 42, Code of
Federal Regulations; and
``(D) file and make publicly available an annual
report that includes at least information on--
``(i) the dates for its meetings held
within the reporting year;
``(ii) the names of board members invited
and of those members in attendance at each such
meeting; and
``(iii) the agenda and minutes for each
such meeting.
``SEC. 2206. FEDERAL ADMINISTRATION.
``(a) Primary Administration Through the Federal Coordinated Health
Care Office.--
``(1) In general.--The Secretary shall carry out this title
through the Federal Coordinated Health Care Office, except that
with respect to payments under section 2208, the Secretary may
delegate such authority to the Administrator of the Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services.
``(2) Appropriations.--There are hereby appropriated to the
Secretary to carry out this title, out of any funds in the
Treasury not otherwise appropriated--
``(A) for each of fiscal years 2022, 2023, and
2024, $100,000,000; and
``(B) for each succeeding fiscal year, $30,000,000.
``(b) Standards and Process.--
``(1) Federal standards.--In carrying out this title, the
Secretary shall specify a minimum set of Federal standards,
including standards relating to access to care, quality of
care, beneficiary protections, marketing and enrollment,
grievances and appeals, and procurement.
``(2) Transparency in rulemaking.--In implementing the
provisions of this title, to the extent practical, the
Secretary shall utilize notice and comment rulemaking to ensure
transparency for stakeholders.
``(3) Application of knowledge gained from demonstration
projects and contract management teams under the financial
alignment initiative.--The Secretary shall carry out this title
taking into account the knowledge gained from the use of
contract management teams in demonstration projects under the
Financial Alignment Initiative for Medicare-Medicaid Enrollees
administered by the Federal Coordinated Health Care Office.
``(c) Direct-Hire Authority.--In carrying out this title, the
Secretary (acting through the Federal Coordinated Health Care Office)
shall have direct-hire authority to the extent required to implement
and administer this title on a timely basis.
``SEC. 2207. SELECTION AND ROLE OF AIM-ADMINISTERING ENTITIES.
``(a) Requirements for State Selection of AIM-Administering
Entities.--The Secretary, in consultation with States, shall develop
(not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this title) a
set of standardized requirements for the selection of qualified
organizations to serve as AIMP-administering entities in the AIM
programs in each AIMP-participating State.
``(b) Application of Criteria for the Qualification and Selection
of AIMP-Administering Entities.--
``(1) In general.--Each AIM program in an AIMP-
participating State shall be implemented through contracts
entered into by the AIMP-participating State and organizations
that qualify as AIMP-administering entities under this title. A
contract with an AIMP-administrating entity shall require the
entity to assume 2-sided financial risk in return for payment
for the arrangement and delivery of covered benefits to AIMP
enrollees assigned to the entity under the program.
``(2) Specification of criteria.--The Secretary and AIMP-
participating States shall establish basic national criteria
for the qualification and selection of organizations to be
AIMP-administering entities. Such criteria shall take into
account the prior experience (including under both the Medicare
program under title XVIII and Medicaid programs under title
XIX) of such an organization in serving the population of AIMP-
eligible individuals as well as other criteria, including the
following:
``(A) The organization's experience serving AIMP-
eligible individuals in that State (or another State),
including the organization's experience in providing
covered services described in section 2204(a)(1)
(including long-term services and supports and
behavioral health services) to such individuals, and in
integrating all of those services and supports for such
individuals in that State (or another State).
``(B) The organization's performance on key quality
measures in providing such services, such as on
measures of key health outcomes and enrollee
satisfaction.
``(C) The adequacy of the organization's provider
network in ensuring timely access to care.
``(D) The organization's demonstrated experience in
implementing models of care for the full range of such
services, including with respect to non-medical
services described in section 2204(a)(1).
``(3) Additional state-specific criteria.--Nothing in this
subsection shall be construed as preventing a State, with the
approval of the Secretary, from applying additional criteria or
requirements regarding health care quality, equity, or access
on AIMP-administering entities specific to quality, equity, or
access, so long as such requirements and criteria--
``(A) can be applied consistently to all AIMP-
administering entities; and
``(B) are made available for public comment prior
to being imposed.
``(4) Application of medical loss ratio requirements.--
``(A) In general.--Any AIMP contract between an
AIMP-participating State and an AIMP-administering
entity to administer benefits under an AIM program
shall include a requirement that the medical loss ratio
under the AIM program shall not be not less than a
percentage (not less than 85 percent) specified by the
State and that the entity shall return to the State
payment amounts that result in the medical loss ratio
being below such percentage.
``(B) Special rules.--If an administering entity
who is contracting with a participating State to
administer a program under this title is an entity
bearing 2-sided risk, the State shall establish with
the approval of the Secretary a mechanism comparable to
a medical loss ratio target to ensure appropriate
spending on services by the entity.
``(c) State Procurement Process for AIMP-Administering Entities.--
``(1) In general.--Each AIMP-participating State shall be
responsible for establishing and implementing a process for the
procurement and selection of AIMP-administering entities for
the State AIM program, subject to the approval of the
Secretary. The Secretary shall not approve such a process
unless the State demonstrates to the Secretary's satisfaction
that the process results in the selection of AIMP-administering
entities that meet the requirements of this title and are
qualified to serve the needs of AIMP enrollees in the State
under the State's AIM program. An AIMP-participating State may
add additional requirements specific to quality, equity, or
access that further the State's overall integrated care
strategy and goals, so long as such requirements are posted for
public comment and approved by the Federal Coordinated Health
Care Office.
``(2) Separate procurement process required for initial
procurement.--For the initial procurement executed to establish
an AIM program in an AIMP-participating State, the State shall
not combine its AIM administering entity procurement process
with a procurement process that is also used for procurement
under the State plan or waiver under title XIX and shall select
AIM administering entities through a standalone procurement
process.
``(d) Payments to AIM-Administering Entities.--Each AIMP-
participating State shall make payments to AIM-administering entities
under a risk-adjusted payment model that--
``(1) reflects the risk of the population of AIMP enrollees
served by each entity;
``(2) ensures that there are appropriate resources to serve
the AIMP enrollees in the State; and
``(3) protects against any adverse selection of AIMP
enrollees by entities.
``SEC. 2208. PROGRAM FINANCING.
``(a) Payments to States With AIM Programs.--
``(1) For program benefits.--
``(A) In general.--From the sums appropriated under
paragraph (3), the Secretary shall pay to each AIMP-
participating State for each quarter in a fiscal year
(beginning with the first fiscal year that begins after
the date of enactment of this title), an amount equal
to the Federal AIMP matching percentage (as defined in
subsection (b)(1)) of the total amount expended during
the quarter as AIMP assistance (as defined in
subparagraph (B).
``(B) AIMP assistance defined.--In this title, the
term `AIMP assistance' has the meaning given the term
`medical assistance' under section 1905(a), except that
in applying such term under this subparagraph--
``(i) the services described in section
2204(a)(1) shall be substituted for the
services described in paragraph (1) and the
subsequent paragraphs of such section 1905(a);
``(ii) an AIMP enrollee shall be treated as
an individual referred to in the matter in
section 1905(a) before paragraph (1) of such
section; and
``(iii) the exclusion in the subdivision
(B) following the last paragraph of the first
sentence of section 1905(a) shall not apply.
``(2) For administrative expenses.--In addition to the
amount paid for each quarter in a fiscal year to an AIMP-
participating State under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall
pay to each such State for each quarter in a fiscal year
(beginning with the first fiscal year that begins after the
date of enactment of this title), from the sums appropriated
under paragraph (3), not less than 50 percent of the total
amount expended during such quarter as found necessary by the
Secretary for the proper and efficient administration of the
State AIM program under this title.
``(3) Appropriation.--There is appropriated, out of any
money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, such amounts
as may be required to provide payments to States under this
section, reduced by any amounts made available from the
Medicare trust funds under paragraph (5).
``(4) Relation to other payments.--Payment amounts provided
under this subsection are in addition to payments provided
under other provisions of this title.
``(5) Relation to medicare trust funds.--There shall be
made available for application under this title from the
Federal Hospital Insurance Trust Fund (under section 1817) and
from the Federal Supplementary Medical Insurance Trust Fund
(under section 1841) (and from the Medicare Prescription Drug
Account (under section 1860D-16) within such Trust Fund) such
amounts as the Secretary determines appropriate, taking into
account the reductions in payments from such Trust Funds and
Account that are attributable to the coverage of AIMP enrollees
under AIM programs under this title.
``(b) Federal AIMP Matching Percentage.--
``(1) In general.--In this section, the term `Federal AIMP
matching percentage' means, for an AIMP-participating State for
a fiscal year, 100 percent minus the State contribution
percentage (as defined in paragraph (2)) for the State and
fiscal year.
``(2) State contribution percentage formula.--
``(A) In general.--In this section, the term `State
contribution percentage' means, subject to adjustment
under the subsequent provisions of this paragraph, with
respect to an AIMP-participating State for--
``(i) the 1st fiscal year of the AIM
program in the State, the base AIMP State
percentage computed under subsection (c); or
``(ii) a subsequent fiscal year, the State
contribution percentage under this paragraph
for the previous fiscal year adjusted in
accordance with subparagraph (B) or (C), as
applicable.
``(B) Annual adjustment based on changes in
expenditures.--For an AIMP-participating State for a
fiscal year after such 1st fiscal year, if the
expenditures for AIMP assistance for which payment is
made under subsection (a)(1) under the State AIM
program for the second previous fiscal year--
``(i) are not greater than 110 percent, or
less than 90 percent, of the AIMP assistance
expenditures for the previous fiscal year,
there shall be no adjustment for the fiscal
year involved under this subparagraph;
``(ii) is greater than 110 percent of the
AIMP assistance expenditures for the previous
fiscal year, the adjustment under this
subparagraph for the fiscal year involved shall
be an increase in the State contribution
percentage of 1 percentage point for each
multiple of 10 percentage points by which such
AIMP assistance expenditures exceed 110
percent; or
``(iii) is less than 90 percent of the AIMP
assistance expenditures for the previous fiscal
year, the adjustment under this subparagraph
for the fiscal year involved shall be a
decrease in the State contribution percentage
of 1 percentage point for each multiple of 10
percentage points by which such AIMP assistance
expenditures is less than 90 percent.
``(C) Additional adjustments for exceptions.--The
Secretary shall provide a process by which adjustments
may be made to the State contribution percentage to
take into account increases and decreases in AIMP
expenditures described in clause (ii) or (iii) of
subparagraph (B) in which the adjustments under such
clauses would not apply, such as in cases of a
significant increase or decrease in AIMP enrollees, a
declaration of a national emergency that impacts on
AIMP expenditures under this title, or a significant
cost increase beyond the control of the State, as
determined by the Secretary.
``(c) Baseline Expenditure and Percentage Computations.--
``(1) In general.--Using the data reported under paragraph
(2):
``(A) Computation of base aimp percentages.--For
the base Federal fiscal year (as defined in paragraph
(3)), the Secretary shall compute and publish for each
State--
``(i) the base AIMP State percentage (as
defined in subparagraph (B)) for the State and
such fiscal year; and
``(ii) the Federal AIMP matching percentage
for the State and such fiscal year.
``(B) Base aimp state percentage defined.--In this
section, the `base AIMP State percentage' means the
amount equal to the ratio (expressed as a percentage)
of--
``(i) the sum of--
``(I) the amount of the State share
of expenditures under title XIX for
medical assistance during the base
Federal fiscal year attributable to
full-benefit dual eligible individuals;
and
``(II) the amount of the payment
made to the Federal Government during
the base Federal fiscal year under
section 1935(c) (commonly referred to
as the `part D clawback') attributable
to such individuals; to
``(ii) the sum of--
``(I) the total expenses paid under
title XVIII that are attributable to
full-benefit dual eligible individuals
for services (or periods of coverage)
occurring the base Federal fiscal year
(as estimated by the Secretary); and
``(II) the total amount expended on
items and services described in section
2204(a)(1) paid under title XIX
(including any waivers under title XI)
for full-benefit dual eligible
individuals in the base Federal fiscal
year.
``(C) Adjustments to base aimp percentages.--With
respect to the base AIMP State percentages and the
Federal AIMP matching percentages otherwise computed
under this paragraph for the base Federal fiscal year,
the Secretary shall adjust such percentages to take
into account material changes in the programs under
titles XVIII and XIX between the base Federal fiscal
year and the first fiscal year for which AIM programs
may be implemented under this title insofar as such
material changes have a direct material impact on AIMP
expenditures relating to AIMP-eligible individuals.
``(2) Data reporting for baseline computations.--Each
State, in its application for approval of its AIM program,
shall provide the Secretary (in such form and manner as the
Secretary may require) such financial data (including detailed
and aggregate, historical and projected expenditures data) on
its expenditures under title XIX as the Secretary may require
to carry out the computations required under this section. The
Secretary shall share with the State, in a process defined by
the Secretary, Medicare expenditure data (including detailed
and aggregate historical and projected expenditures data) for
services and benefits for full-benefit dual eligible
individuals in such State.
``(3) Base federal fiscal year defined.--In this section,
the term `base Federal fiscal year' means the Federal fiscal
year that is the second preceding fiscal year to the 1st fiscal
year for which AIM programs may be implemented under this
title.
``(d) Reinvestment of Shared Savings.--
``(1) In general.--
``(A) In general.--If, with respect to a fiscal
year, an AIMP-participating State has expenditures
under this title for AIMP assistance that for the
preceding fiscal year, are less than 85 percent of the
expenditures for such assistance under the State AIM
program for the second preceding fiscal year, the
Secretary shall ensure that for each quarter in the
following fiscal year, the State spends at least the
shared savings amount determined for the State for the
fiscal year on 1 or more of the core applications
described in paragraph (3). Amounts expended by a State
to meet the requirement of the preceding sentence shall
not be subject to any Federal matching payments under
this title.
``(B) Shared savings amount defined.--In this
subsection, the term `shared savings amount' means,
with respect to an AIMP-participating State for a
fiscal year, the amount by which the AIMP assistance
expenditures for the fiscal year is less than 85
percent of the expenditures for such assistance under
the State AIM program for the second preceding fiscal
year.
``(2) Application of shared savings.--The Secretary shall
issue guidance outlining allowable use of the shared savings
payments under paragraph (1). Under such guidance, the
Secretary shall outline the types of services and benefits for
which a State has the authority to apply the payments for the
benefit of consumers who are AIMP-eligible individuals. Such
guidance shall permit the use of such payments consistent with
the core applications described in paragraph (3) and with
paragraph (4), and may be used for existing State-funded health
programs or new health-related initiatives that serve full-
benefit dual eligible individuals under this title.
``(3) Core applications.--The core applications described
in this paragraph for such consumers are as follows:
``(A) Consumer power and choice.--To provide such
consumers more information and control over their
health care and community support options.
``(B) Equity and access to care.--To improve access
to, and quality of, care across populations, advance
health equity for consumers, and reduce health
disparities and eliminate barriers to care.
``(C) Prevention and wellness.--To strive to better
enable such consumers to receive individualized health
care that is outcomes-oriented and focused on
prevention, wellness, recovery and maintaining
independence.
``(D) Pay for performance.--To employ purchasing
and payment methods that encourage and reward service
quality and cost-effectiveness by linking
reimbursements for services to such consumers to
common, evidence-based quality performance measures,
including patient satisfaction.
``(E) Innovative advancement.--To implement
innovative and technological advancements that
facilitate such consumers remaining in the community.
``(F) Service integration.--To increase integration
of services with social needs to improve health
outcomes for such consumers.
``(G) State personnel.--To hire additional State
personnel to carry out this title.
``(H) Capacity building.--To expand capacity in
providing services to such consumers, such as in--
``(i) community-based care; and
``(ii) caregiver assistance.
``(I) Improve enrollment policies and process.--To
improve the ability to enroll in the State AIMP program
through streamlining enrollment policies and processes.
``(J) Increase education for providers and
beneficiaries.--To ensure providers and beneficiaries
understand the State AIMP program and the choices
available under such program.
``(K) Improve data collection regarding racial
disparities and health inequities.--To ensure
appropriate data is collected and used to determine
program inequities.
``(L) Other services and initiatives.--Other
services and initiatives approved by the Secretary that
serve full-benefit dual eligible individuals under this
title.
``(4) Limitation on payment to aimp-administering
entities.--An AIMP-participating State may use payments under
this subsection for an AIMP-administering entity only if the
State demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the Secretary, that
the State's AIM program provides appropriate maintenance of
access to and quality of care based on the requirements imposed
by the State on the applicable AIMP-administering entities.
``(e) Application of Medicaid Payment Methodologies Financing
Limitations for the Non-Federal Share of Expenditures.--
``(1) In general.--Except as the Secretary may otherwise
provide through notice and comment regulation, the following
provisions of title XIX (and related regulations) shall apply
to AIMP-participating States' expenditures in the AIM program
in a manner similar to the manner in which such provisions
apply under title XIX:
``(A) Section 1903(d) (relating to estimated
payments, recovery of overpayments, disallowance of
provisions).
``(B) Section 1903(w) (relating to provider-related
donations, health care related taxes, and broad-based
health care related taxes).
``(C) Section 1903(w)(6) (relating to certified
public expenditures and intergovernmental transfers).
``(D) Other provisions relating to deferral of
payments, preventing fraud and abuse, and ensuring
program integrity.
``(2) Processes and forms.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary shall establish
appropriate forms and processes (including expenditure
reconciliation processes) for submission of information
on State expenditures under this title in a manner
similar to the processes used for purposes of payments
to States under title XIX, but through the use of such
alternative forms as may be appropriate in implementing
this title.
``(B) Reporting of estimated expenditures by
quarter.--An AIMP-participating State shall estimate
matchable expenditures (including both total
expenditures as well as the estimated Federal share of
those expenditures) and separately report these
expenditures by quarter for each fiscal year for its
AIM program. The Secretary shall make Federal funds
available based upon the State's estimate, as approved
by the Secretary.
``(C) Reporting and reconciliation of actual
expenditures on a quarterly basis.--Not later than 30
days after the end of each quarter, each AIMP-
participating State shall submit to the Secretary (on
an appropriate form) a quarterly expenditure report,
showing expenditures made in the quarter just ended
under its AIM program. The Secretary shall reconcile
expenditures so reported with Federal funding
previously made available to the State under this
section and include the reconciling adjustment in the
finalization of the grant award to the State.
``(3) Rule of construction.--Nothing in this title shall be
construed as constraining or limiting the authority of the
Secretary, the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &
Medicaid Services, the Inspector General of the Department of
Health and Human Services, or the Comptroller General of the
United States, to conduct routine and targeted program and
financial management audits and other oversight activities of
funds expended under this title, including oversight activities
relating to the allowable use of funds.
``(f) Option for Multi-Year Investment Initiative.--The Secretary
may specify a process by which an AIM-participating State may elect to
participate in a multi-year investment initiative during the first 3-
year period in which the State participates in the AIM program. Under
such option, an AIM-participating State shall be eligible for
additional Federal financial participation (as determined by the
Secretary) for expenditures under this title that do not exceed an
annual budget target established for the State, based on the
expenditures of the State used to determined the base AIMP State
percentage under subsection (c)(1)(B), and increased for the 2d and 3rd
years of such period, by 9.99 percent over the budget target
established for the preceding year.
``SEC. 2209. ACCOUNTABILITY AND OVERSIGHT.
``(a) Quality Assessment.--To ensure that full-benefit dual
eligible individuals receive high quality care and to encourage quality
improvement under AIM programs, each AIM-participating State shall
establish a quality incentive program that uses financial rewards,
penalties, or both that are meaningful enough to influence the
administering entity's behavior and is approved by the Federal
Coordinated Health Care Office. Each AIM program will be expected to
tie financial incentives to performance either in the form of quality
withholds or incentives, such as making additional quality payments to
an AIMP-administering entity that achieves quality or equity goals or
the withholding of a portion of a capitation payment to an entity that
fails to achieve such goals. Each AIM-participating State shall
publicly post and seek comment on its proposed quality incentive
program prior to submitting to the Federal Coordinated Health Care
Office for approval.
``(b) Monitoring and Program Evaluation.--
``(1) Consolidated reporting requirements for aim-
administering entities.--The Secretary and each AIMP-
participating State shall define and specify in the contract
for each AIMP-administering entity under this title a
consolidated reporting process that ensures the provision of
the necessary data on diagnosis, HEDIS measures, encounter
reports, enrollee satisfaction, and evidence-based measures and
other information as may be useful in order to monitor each
AIMP-administering entity's performance under the AIMP
contract.
``(2) Evaluation.--The Secretary and each AIMP-
participating State shall develop processes and protocols for
collecting (or ensuring that AIMP-administering entities
collect) and reporting to the Secretary and the State the data
needed for an evaluation by the Secretary to measure the impact
of AIMP-administering entities, the effectiveness of the
process in enrolling AIMP-eligible individuals under the AIM
program, and the effectiveness of the AIM program in reducing
disparities, improving quality of care, and advancing health
equity.
``(3) Collaborative evaluation.--The Secretary and AIMP-
participating States shall collaborate on and coordinate during
any evaluation activity conducted under this subsection.
``(c) Administrative Oversight Responsibilities.--
``(1) State role.--Each AIMP-participating State shall be
responsible for day-to-day oversight of the AIMP-administering
entities providing services with respect to AIMP enrollees
under the AIMP contract with the State under its AIM program.
Such oversight shall include the following activities:
``(A) Conducting a comprehensive readiness review
of each entity (as required under section 2201(d)).
``(B) Monitoring compliance of the entity with the
terms of its AIMP contract under the AIM program,
including--
``(i) ensuring adherence to and protection
of enrollee rights as provided under this
title;
``(ii) monitoring the entity to ensure it
authorizes, arranges, coordinates, and provides
all covered and medically necessary services
(as required under this title) to AIMP
enrollees receiving benefits administered by
the entity, in accordance with the requirements
of the AIMP contract; and
``(iii) ensuring compliance with applicable
reporting requirements under this title.
``(C) Reviewing, approving, and monitoring--
``(i) the entity's network adequacy;
``(ii) the outreach and orientation
materials and procedures of the entity;
``(iii) the complaint and appeals
procedures carried out by the entity;
``(iv) the utilization management functions
of the entity;
``(v) the entity's adherence to required
continuity of care provisions under section
2204(c)(3);
``(vi) the entity's use of required
standard assessment tool under section 2204(b);
``(vii) the entity's informational
materials, particularly for those individuals
who will be assigned to the entity under
section 2203(f); and
``(viii) the entity's use of streamlined
eligibility processes under this title.
``(D) Conducting monthly (or more frequent)
performance review meetings with the entity.
``(E) Conducting periodic audits of the entity,
including at least an annual independent external
review and an annual site visit.
``(F) Receiving and responding to complaints about
the entity.
``(G) Conducting annual surveys of AIMP enrollees
and providing the entity with written results of such
surveys.
``(H) Applying 1 or more sanctions (such as those
provided under title XIX), which may include
termination of the contract, if the State or the
Secretary determines that the entity is in material
violation of any of the terms of the AIMP contract.
``(2) Federal oversight role.--
``(A) In general.--The Secretary shall be
responsible for the oversight of AIMP-participating
States. Such oversight shall include activities
developed through engagement with stakeholders,
including consumer advocates, and shall include at the
least the following activities:
``(i) Monitoring the process to select
organizations to serve as AIMP-administering
entities under the AIM program.
``(ii) Conducting a thorough readiness
review of the State (before readiness reviews
for such organizations) under section
2201(d)(2).
``(iii) Ensuring, including through
complaint tracking and secret shopping, the
State creates and maintains a highly
functional, dedicated AIMP Ombudsman program
under section 2205(c).
``(iv) Ensuring, through direct monitoring,
State oversight of compliance of AIMP-
administering entities with the terms of their
AIMP contracts under the AIM program.
``(v) Reviewing eligibility and enrollment
processes and procedures.
``(vi) Monitoring State data systems to
ensure they are sufficient for providing timely
data on program performance.
``(vii) Ensuring payment rates to AIMP-
administering entities under the AIMP contract
are actuarially sound, including by
establishing a rate setting process established
through rulemaking whereby, at a minimum--
``(I) States and the Secretary
provide AIMP-administering entities
with comprehensive and timely data as
part of the rate setting process and
procurement, including historical
Medicaid and Medicare cost and
utilization data for full-benefit dual
eligible individuals by region and
including detailed categories of
service;
``(II) States may elect to share
the final rate certification package
provided to the Secretary with AIMP-
administering entities; and
``(III) an opportunity for public
input is established for annual rate
setting or when rates are significantly
modified whereby stakeholders,
including patient advocacy groups,
health care providers, and AIMP-
administering entities, can provide
feedback to the Secretary prior to rate
approval.
``(viii) Coordinating periodic audits of
the State with respect o its AIM program.
``(ix) Conducting regular meetings with the
State.
``(x) Applying discretionary action, if
warranted.
``(xi) Ensuring regular engagement with
dually eligible individuals and their
caregivers.
``(B) Compliance authority.--If the Secretary finds
with respect to a State AIM program that the State
failed to achieve the appropriate performance levels or
compliance with the activities required under
subparagraph (A), the Secretary shall take such action
as is necessary to address and correct the State
failures, which may include, to the extent the
Secretary determines appropriate, 1 or more of the
following:
``(i) Developing in consultation with the
State, a corrective compliance plan for
achieving appropriate performance levels or
compliance.
``(ii) Remedial education and supervised
training.
``(iii) Imposition of penalties or
sanctions.
``(iv) Removal of the State from the AIM
program.
``(3) State-federal partnership role through joint contract
management teams (cmt).--
``(A) Establishment.--The Secretary shall, jointly
with each AIMP-participating State, establish a Joint
Contract Management Team (in this paragraph referred to
as a `CMT') following the model used in the
demonstration projects conducted under the Financial
Alignment Initiative for Medicare-Medicaid Enrollees
administered by the Federal Coordinated Health Care
Office.
``(B) Composition and structure.--
``(i) In general.--Each CMT shall include
at least 1 contract officer from the Centers
for Medicare & Medicaid Services and at least 1
contract officer from the AIMP-participating
State, each of whom is authorized and empowered
to represent the Secretary and the State,
respectively, about all aspects of the AIMP
contract with an AIMP-administering entity
under the AIM program of the State.
``(ii) Lead.--The representation from the
Federal Government shall be led by the
individual from the Federal Coordinated Health
Care Office who is assigned to work with the
State, who will bring in additional
individuals, as appropriate.
``(iii) State lead.--The representation
from the AIMP-participating State shall be led
by the Director of the State Medicaid program
under title XIX (or such Director's designee)
who will bring in additional individual to
represent the State, as appropriate.
``(C) Responsibilities of cmt.--Each CMT for a
State shall act as a liaison among the AIMP-
administering entity, the Secretary, and the State for
the duration of the AIMP contract with such entity and
shall serve to facilitate communications and operations
among the 3 parties. Each CMT shall, among other
functions--
``(i) receive and respond to complaints;
``(ii) conduct quarterly meetings among the
parties;
``(iii) establish a mechanism for ongoing
consumer engagement;
``(iv) coordinate requests for assistance
from the entity and assign Federal and State
staff with appropriate expertise to provide
technical assistance to the entity;
``(v) make best efforts to resolve any
issues applicable to the parties; and
``(vi) monitor any discretionary action by
the State or the Secretary under the provisions
of the AIMP contract.
``SEC. 2210. DEFINITIONS; MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS.
``(a) Definitions.--In this title:
``(1) Terms relating to aimp.--
``(A) AIMP-administering entity.--The term `AIMP-
administering entity' means an organization that has
been determined to meet the requirements for such an
entity under this title and has an AIMP contract with
an AIMP-participating State under this title.
``(B) AIMP assistance.--The term `AIMP assistance'
has the meaning given such term in section
2208(a)(1)(B).
``(C) AIMP contract.--The term `AIMP contract' is a
contract described in section 2207(b)(1).
``(D) AIMP-eligible individual.--The term `AIMP-
eligible individual' has the meaning given such term in
section 2202(a).
``(E) AIMP enrollee.--The term `AIMP enrollee'
means an individual who is enrolled in an AIM program
under this title.
``(F) AIMP-participating state.--The term `AIMP-
participating State' means a State administering an AIM
program under this title.
``(G) AIM program; aimp.--The terms `AIM program'
and `AIMP' mean, with respect to a State, the program
established by the State under this title.
``(2) Other definitions.--
``(A) Full-benefit dual eligible individual.--The
term `full-benefit dual eligible individual' has the
meaning given such term in section 1935(c)(6) but
without the application of subparagraph (A)(i) of such
section.
``(B) Federal coordinated health care office.--The
term `Federal Coordinated Health Care Office' means the
office established under section 2602 of the Patient
Protection and Affordable Care Act.
``(C) Medicaid managed care organization.--The term
`medicaid managed care organization' has the meaning
given that term in section 1903(m)(1)(A) and includes a
prepaid inpatient health plan, as defined in section
438.2 of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations (or any
successor regulation) and a prepaid ambulatory health
plan, as defined in such section (or any successor
regulation).
``(b) Miscellaneous Provisions.--
``(1) Relation to other requirements.--Except as otherwise
provided under this title or by regulation, the requirements of
title XIX shall apply under an AIM program in relation to AIMP-
eligible individuals, AIMP enrollees, and the provision of
benefits under an AIM program, in the same manner as such
requirements apply with respect to individuals eligible for
medical assistance who are enrolled in under a medicaid managed
care organization.
``(2) Limitation on waiver authority.--Except as provided
in this title, the Secretary is not authorized (under section
1115, 1115A, or otherwise) to waive the requirements specified
in this title.''.
(b) Conforming Amendments to Medicare.--
(1) Enrollment.--Section 1851(a) of the Social Security Act
(42 U.S.C. 1395w-21(a)) is amended by adding at the end the
following new paragraph:
``(4) Additional enrollment option for certain full-benefit
dual eligible individuals.--Full-benefit dual eligible
individuals may also be eligible to enroll under a State AIM
program under title XXII.''.
(2) Prohibition.--During the period in which an AIM program
is fully implemented in an AIMP-participating State under title
XXII, AIMP-eligible individuals in the State may not enroll in
a managed Medicare and other integrated duals product (other
than a PACE program).
(c) Conforming Amendments to Medicaid.--
(1) Preventing duplicate payments.--Section 1903(i) of the
Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396(i)) is amended--
(A) by striking ``or'' at the end of paragraph
(26);
(B) by striking the period at the end of paragraph
(27) and inserting ``; or''; and
(C) by inserting after paragraph (27) the following
new paragraph:
``(28) with respect to any amount expended for medical
assistance for an individual who is an AIMP enrollee under a
State AIM program under title XXII, except specifically
permitted under such title.''.
(2) Note: Additional conforming amendments to be provided.
(d) Conforming Amendment.--Section 2602(d) of the Patient
Protection and Affordable Care Act (42 U.S.C. 1315b(d)) is amended by
adding at the end the following:
``(9) To be primarily responsible for the Federal
administration of title XXII of the Social Security Act.''.
(e) Other Conforming Amendments.--Section 1101(a)(1) of the Social
Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1301(a)(1)) is amended--
(1) by striking ``XIX, and XXI'' and inserting ``XIX, XXI,
and XXII''; and
(2) by striking ``XIX and XXI'' and inserting ``XIX, XXI,
and XXII''.
SEC. 3. MEDPAC STUDY AND REPORT.
(a) Study.--The Medicare Payment Advisory Commission shall conduct
a study for purposes of making recommendations regarding how to improve
health care and other support needs of individuals who are eligible for
and are receiving medical assistance for the payment of medicare cost-
sharing under a State Medicaid program pursuant to clause (i), (iii),
or (iv) of section 1902(a)(10)(E) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
1396a(a)(10)(E)).
(b) Report.--Not later than 18 months after the date of enactment
of this Act, the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission shall submit to
Congress a report on the study conducted under subsection (a), together
with recommendations for such legislation and administrative action as
the Commission determines to be appropriate.
<all> | Comprehensive Care for Dual Eligible Individuals Act | A bill to amend the Social Security Act to establish an optional State-administered program to provide fully integrated, comprehensive, coordinated care for full-benefit dual eligible individuals under the Medicare and Medicaid programs, and for other purposes. | Comprehensive Care for Dual Eligible Individuals Act | Sen. Brown, Sherrod | D | OH |
579 | 11,041 | H.R.351 | Agriculture and Food | COLA's Don't Count Act of 2021
This bill revises requirements for determining eligibility and benefits under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP, formerly known as the food stamp program) to exclude household income received from certain cost-of-living adjustments and supplementary payments under the Social Security Act. | To amend the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 to exclude from income, for
the purpose of determining eligibility and benefits, income received
from cost of living adjustments made under titles II and XVI of the
Social Security Act and from supplementary payments received under
section 1616 of such Act.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``COLA's Don't Count Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. AMENDMENT.
Section 5(d) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C.
2014(d)) of such Act--
(1) in paragraph (18) by striking ``and'' at the end,
(2) by redesignating paragraph (19) as paragraph (20), and
(3) by inserting after paragraph (18) the following:
``(19) income attributable to cost of living adjustments
received under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. 401 et seq.), and supplementary payments received under
section 1616 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1382e); and''.
SEC. 3. EFFECTIVE DATE.
This Act and the amendments made by this Act shall take effect on
October 1, 2021.
<all> | COLA’s Don’t Count Act of 2021 | To amend the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 to exclude from income, for the purpose of determining eligibility and benefits, income received from cost of living adjustments made under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act and from supplementary payments received under section 1616 of such Act. | COLA’s Don’t Count Act of 2021 | Rep. Moore, Gwen | D | WI |
580 | 11,488 | H.R.7766 | Environmental Protection | Trust the Science Act
This bill directs the Department of the Interior to remove protections for the gray wolf under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA). Specifically, the bill requires Interior to reissue the final rule titled Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removing the Gray Wolf (Canis lupus) From the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and published on November 3, 2020.
The rule removed the gray wolf in the lower 48 United States, except for the Mexican wolf (C. l. baileyi) subspecies, from the endangered and threatened species list. However, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California vacated the rule on February 10, 2022. As a result, the gray wolf reattained the protection status it had prior to the rule's promulgation.
The bill also prohibits the reissuance of the rule from being subject to judicial review. | To require the Secretary of the Interior to reissue regulations
removing the gray wolf from the list of endangered and threatened
wildlife under the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Trust the Science Act''.
SEC. 2. REMOVING THE GRAY WOLF FROM THE LIST OF ENDANGERED AND
THREATENED WILDLIFE.
Not later than 60 days after the date of enactment of this section,
the Secretary of the Interior shall reissue the final rule entitled
``Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removing the Gray Wolf
(Canis lupus) From the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife'' and
published on November 3, 2020 (85 Fed. Reg. 69778).
SEC. 3. NO JUDICIAL REVIEW.
Reissuance of the final rule under section 2 shall not be subject
to judicial review.
<all> | Trust the Science Act | To require the Secretary of the Interior to reissue regulations removing the gray wolf from the list of endangered and threatened wildlife under the Endangered Species Act of 1973. | Trust the Science Act | Rep. Boebert, Lauren | R | CO |
581 | 8,446 | H.R.1917 | Emergency Management | Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects Act
This act makes an entity seeking assistance under a hazard mitigation assistance program eligible to receive such assistance for certain projects already in progress.
Specifically, this act covers a project that
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) must have determined that the project qualifies for a categorical exclusion, is compliant with applicable floodplain management and protection of wetland regulations and criteria, and does not require consultation under any other environmental or historic preservation law or regulation or involve any extraordinary circumstances.
FEMA must report to Congress, within 180 days of enactment and annually thereafter for three years, on use of the authority under this act.
Such authority terminates three years after enactment. | [117th Congress Public Law 332]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 136 STAT. 6119]]
Public Law 117-332
117th Congress
An Act
To modify eligibility requirements for certain hazard mitigation
assistance programs, and for other purposes. <<NOTE: Jan. 5,
2023 - [H.R. 1917]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled, <<NOTE: Hazard
Eligibility and Local Projects Act. 42 USC 5170c note.>>
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects
Act''.
SEC. 2. AUTHORITY TO BEGIN IMPLEMENTATION OF ACQUISITION AND
DEMOLITION ASSISTANCE PROJECTS.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Administrator.--The term ``Administrator'' means the
Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
(2) Covered project.--The term ``covered project'' means a
project that--
(A) is an acquisition and demolition project for
which an entity began implementation, including planning
or construction, before or after requesting assistance
for the project under a hazard mitigation assistance
program; and
(B) qualifies for a categorical exclusion under the
National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 ( 42 U.S.C.
4321 et seq.).
(3) Hazard mitigation assistance program.--The term ``hazard
mitigation assistance program'' means--
(A) any grant program authorized under section 203
of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency
Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5133);
(B) the hazard mitigation grant program authorized
under section 404 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster
Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5170c);
and
(C) the flood mitigation assistance program
authorized under section 1366 of the National Flood
Insurance Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4104c).
(b) Eligibility for Assistance for Covered Projects.--
(1) In general.--An entity seeking assistance under a hazard
mitigation assistance program may be eligible to receive that
assistance for a covered project if--
(A) the entity--
(i) complies with all other eligibility
requirements of the hazard mitigation assistance
program for acquisition or demolition projects,
including extinguishing all incompatible
encumbrances; and
[[Page 136 STAT. 6120]]
(ii) complies with all Federal requirements
for the covered project; and
(B) <<NOTE: Determination.>> the Administrator
determines that the covered project--
(i) qualifies for a categorical exclusion
under the National Environmental Policy Act of
1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.);
(ii) is compliant with applicable floodplain
management and protection of wetland regulations
and criteria; and
(iii) does not require consultation under any
other environmental or historic preservation law
or regulation or involve any extraordinary
circumstances.
(2) Costs incurred.--An entity seeking assistance under a
hazard mitigation assistance program shall be responsible for
any project costs incurred by the entity for a covered project
if the covered project is not awarded, or is determined to be
ineligible for, assistance.
(c) Applicability.--This Act shall apply to covered projects started
on or after the date of enactment of this Act.
(d) Report.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of
this Act, and annually thereafter for 3 years, the Administrator shall
submit to Congress a report on use of the authority under this Act,
including--
(1) how many applicants used the authority;
(2) how many applicants using the authority successfully
obtained a grant;
(3) how many applicants were not able to successfully obtain
a grant;
(4) the reasons applicants were not able to obtain a grant;
and
(5) the extent to which applicants using the authority were
able to comply with all necessary Federal environmental,
historic preservation, and other related laws and regulations.
(e) Termination.--The authority provided under this Act shall cease
to be effective on the date that is 3 years after the date of enactment
of this Act.
Approved January 5, 2023.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--H.R. 1917 (S. 1877):
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
HOUSE REPORTS: No. 117-170, Pt. 1 (Comm. on Transportation and
Infrastructure).
SENATE REPORTS: No. 117-205 (Comm. on Homeland Security and Governmental
Affairs) accompanying S. 1877.
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD:
Vol. 167 (2021):
Nov. 3, 4, considered and passed
House.
Vol. 168 (2022):
Dec. 14, considered and passed
Senate, amended.
Dec. 21, House concurred in Senate
amendment.
<all> | Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects Act | To modify eligibility requirements for certain hazard mitigation assistance programs, and for other purposes. | Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects Act
Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects Act
Hazard Eligibility and Local Projects Act | Rep. Fletcher, Lizzie | D | TX |
582 | 6,380 | H.R.9121 | Taxation | Qualified Agricultural Carbon Sequestration Act of 2022
This bill allows certain qualified applicants (i.e., farms) a new tax credit for the abatement and sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions related to certain agricultural activities.
The bill requires the Department of the Treasury to establish a qualified agricultural carbon sequestration and abatement program to consider and award certifications for farms eligible for the credit. | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to establish a tax credit
for abatement and sequestration of carbon dioxide equivalent through
agricultural methods.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Qualified Agricultural Carbon
Sequestration Act of 2022''.
SEC. 2. QUALIFIED AGRICULTURAL CARBON SEQUESTRATION CREDIT.
(a) In General.--Subpart D of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by inserting after
section 45Z the following new section:
``SEC. 45AA. QUALIFIED AGRICULTURAL CARBON SEQUESTRATION CREDIT.
``(a) In General.--For purposes of section 38, in the case of a
qualified applicant, the qualified agricultural carbon sequestration
credit for the taxable year is an amount equal to the sum of--
``(1) the carbon dioxide equivalent abatement credit,
``(2) the carbon dioxide equivalent sequestration credit,
and
``(3) the early adopter credit.
``(b) Carbon Dioxide Equivalent Abatement Credit.--
``(1) In general.--The amount of the carbon dioxide
equivalent abatement credit for the taxable year shall be equal
to the applicable dollar amount per metric ton of qualified
carbon dioxide equivalent abatement by a qualified applicant.
``(2) Qualified carbon dioxide equivalent abatement.--For
purposes of this subsection, the term `qualified carbon dioxide
equivalent abatement' means the amount (not less than zero)
equal to--
``(A) the amount of carbon dioxide equivalent
emitted into the atmosphere by the qualified applicant
during the counterfactual baseline year, minus
``(B) the amount of carbon dioxide equivalent
emitted into the atmosphere by such farm during the
taxable year.
``(3) Applicable dollar amount.--
``(A) For purposes of this subsection, the
applicable dollar amount shall be an amount equal to--
``(i) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2022 and before 2027, the
dollar amount established by linear
interpolation between $22.66 and $50 for each
calendar year during such period, and
``(ii) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2026, an amount equal to
the product of $50 and the inflation adjustment
factor determined under section 43(b)(3)(B) for
such calendar year, determined by substituting
`2025' for `1990'.
``(B) Rounding.--The applicable dollar amount
determined under subparagraph (A) shall be rounded to
the nearest cent.
``(4) Limitation.--For purposes of this subsection, the
carbon dioxide equivalent abatement credit shall only be
allowed in each taxable year subsequent to the counterfactual
baseline year.
``(c) Carbon Dioxide Equivalent Sequestration Credit.--
``(1) In general.--The amount of the carbon sequestration
credit for any taxable year shall be an amount equal to the sum
of--
``(A) the qualifying amount, plus
``(B) an amount equal to the sum of any carbon
sequestration allotment for such taxable year.
``(2) Qualifying amount.--For purposes of this subsection,
the term qualifying amount means--
``(A) in the case of a taxable year for which
qualified carbon sequestration by a qualified applicant
is greater than zero, 10 percent of the applicable
dollar amount per metric ton of such qualified carbon
sequestration by such applicant, and
``(B) in the case of a taxable year for which
qualified carbon sequestration by a qualified applicant
is equal to or less than zero, 0 percent of such
applicable dollar amount.
``(3) Applicable dollar amount.--
``(A) In general.--The applicable dollar amount
shall be an amount equal to--
``(i) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2022 and before 2027, the
dollar amount established by linear
interpolation between $12.83 and $35 for each
calendar year during such period, and
``(ii) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2026, an amount equal to
the product of $35 and the inflation adjustment
factor for such calendar year determined under
section 43(b)(3)(B) for such calendar year,
determined by substituting `2025' for `1990'.
``(B) Rounding.--The applicable dollar amount
determined under paragraph (1) shall be rounded to the
nearest cent.
``(4) Carbon sequestration allotment.--For purposes of this
subsection, the term `carbon sequestration allotment' means,
for each of the 9 taxable years subsequent to any taxable year
described in paragraph (1)(A), an amount equal to the amount
described in such paragraph.
``(5) Qualified carbon sequestration.--
``(A) In general.--For purposes of this subsection,
the term `qualified carbon sequestration' means the
amount (not less than zero) equal to--
``(i) the stock of soil organic carbon
stored in the soil of the qualified farm during
the taxable year, minus
``(ii) the stock of soil organic carbon
stored in the soil of such farm during the
preceding taxable year.
``(B) First year.--For purposes of the first
taxable year beginning after the date on which a
taxable entity after the date the taxpayer becomes a
qualified applicant, the taxable year described in
subparagraph (A)(ii) shall be the counterfactual
baseline year.
``(6) Recapture.--The Secretary shall, by regulations,
provide for recapturing the benefit of any carbon sequestration
credit allowable under this subsection with respect to any
carbon which ceases to be sequestered in a manner consistent
with the requirements under this section for a period of not
less than 10 years.
``(d) Early Adopter Credit.--
``(1) In general.--The amount of the early adopter credit
for any taxable year shall be an amount equal to the applicable
dollar amount per metric ton of early adopter carbon
sequestration.
``(2) Early adopter carbon sequestration.--For purposes of
this subsection, the term `early adopter carbon sequestration'
means the amount (not less than zero) equal to--
``(A) the stock of soil organic carbon stored in
the soil of the qualified farm during the taxable year,
minus
``(B) the average stock of soil organic carbon
stored in the soil of other farms in the county in
which such qualified farm is located during the taxable
year.
``(3) Credit may be taken only once.--The credit under this
subsection may only be taken with respect to a qualified farm
in the first year a credit is allowed to such farm under this
section.
``(4) Applicable dollar amount.--
``(A) In general.--The applicable dollar amount
shall be an amount equal to--
``(i) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2022 and before 2027, the
dollar amount established by linear
interpolation between $12.83 and $35 for each
calendar year during such period, and
``(ii) for any taxable year beginning in a
calendar year after 2026, an amount equal to
the product of $35 and the inflation adjustment
factor for such calendar year determined under
section 43(b)(3)(B) for such calendar year,
determined by substituting `2025' for `1990'.
``(B) Rounding.--The applicable dollar amount
determined under paragraph (1) shall be rounded to the
nearest cent.
``(e) Qualified Applicant.--For purposes of this section, the term
`qualified applicant' means a farm (including the taxpayer with
operational control over sequestration on such farm, or a third party
project developer or aggregator acting on the taxpayer's behalf) which
has been certified by the Secretary pursuant to subsection (f).
``(f) Qualified Agricultural Carbon Sequestration and Abatement
Program.--
``(1) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the date
of enactment of this section, the Secretary, after consultation
with the Secretary of Agriculture, shall establish a qualified
agricultural carbon sequestration and abatement program to
consider and award certifications for qualified applicants
eligible for credits under this section.
``(2) Application.--An applicant under this subsection
shall submit an application containing such information as the
Secretary may require, including information required for the
selection described in paragraph (3).
``(3) Selection.--In determining which applicants to
certify under this subsection, the Secretary shall do the
following:
``(A) Certify the manner and methods by which the
taxpayer will measure the amount of carbon dioxide
equivalent abatement and sequestration. Such manner and
methods shall be consistent with current best
practices, with measured changes independently verified
by the Secretary of Agriculture as--
``(i) real,
``(ii) additional,
``(iii) based on a realistic and credible
baseline,
``(iv) quantified, monitored, reported, and
verified,
``(v) having a clear and transparent chain
of custody,
``(vi) representing permanent emissions
reductions,
``(vii) assessed and mitigated against
potential increase in emissions elsewhere,
``(viii) only counted once towards a
mitigation obligation, and
``(ix) causing no net harm.
``(B) Assess and approve independent greenhouse gas
crediting programs which register projects and credits
involving qualified farms.
``(4) 5-year certification.--A certification under
paragraph (3) shall be valid for a period of 5 years after the
date such certification is issued.
``(g) Counterfactual Baseline Year.--For purposes of this section,
the term `counterfactual baseline year' means the year in which the
Secretary certifies a qualified applicant under subsection (f).
``(h) Requirements Regarding Carbon Dioxide Equivalent.--The credit
under this section shall apply only with respect to carbon dioxide
equivalent the abatement or sequester of which is--
``(1) within the United States or a possession of the
United States, and
``(2) measured on a qualified farm and verified using the
methods or independent greenhouse gas crediting programs
certified by the Secretary under subsection (f)(3).
``(i) Regulations.--Not later than 14 months after the date of
enactment of this section, the Secretary shall, after consultation with
the Secretary of Agriculture, prescribe such regulations and guidance
as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out this section, including
regulations or guidance to--
``(1) establish the method and frequency by which soil
samples are taken from qualified farms to determine the amount
of carbon which is sequestered in the soil of such farms,
``(2) provide rules for the treatment of credits in cases
where a qualified farm is sold or transferred to another person
subsequent to the baseline year, and
``(3) provide rules for the early adopter credit in
subsection (d).''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--
(1) Section 38(b) of such Code is amended by striking
``plus'' at the end of paragraph (37), by striking the period
at the end of paragraph (38) and inserting ``, plus'', and by
adding at the end the following new paragraph:
``(39) the qualified agricultural carbon sequestration
credit determined under section 45AA(a).''.
(2) The table of sections for subpart D of part IV of
subchapter A of chapter 1 of such Code is amended by inserting
after the item relating to section 45Z the following new item:
``Sec. 45AA. Qualified agricultural carbon sequestration credit.''.
(c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall
apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2022.
<all> | Qualified Agricultural Carbon Sequestration Act of 2022 | To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to establish a tax credit for abatement and sequestration of carbon dioxide equivalent through agricultural methods. | Qualified Agricultural Carbon Sequestration Act of 2022 | Rep. Ryan, Tim | D | OH |
583 | 13,982 | H.R.1713 | Families | This bill requires the Department of Health and Human Services to study and report on adoption outcomes and the factors, including parental substance use disorder, affecting such outcomes. | To amend the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and Adoption Reform
Act of 1978 to require a study and report on adoption outcomes and the
factors affecting those outcomes, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. STUDY AND REPORT ON SUCCESSFUL ADOPTIONS.
Section 204 of the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and
Adoption Reform Act of 1978 (42 U.S.C. 5114) is amended to read as
follows:
``SEC. 204. STUDY AND REPORT ON SUCCESSFUL ADOPTIONS.
``(a) Study.--The Secretary shall conduct a study (directly or by
grant to, or contract with, public or private nonprofit research
agencies or organizations) on adoption outcomes and the factors
(including parental substance use disorder) affecting those outcomes.
``(b) Report.--Not later than the date that is 36 months after the
date of the enactment of the Stronger Child Abuse Prevention and
Treatment Act the Secretary shall submit a report to Congress that
includes the results of the study required under subsection (a).''.
<all> | To amend the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and Adoption Reform Act of 1978 to require a study and report on adoption outcomes and the factors affecting those outcomes, and for other purposes. | To amend the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and Adoption Reform Act of 1978 to require a study and report on adoption outcomes and the factors affecting those outcomes, and for other purposes. | Official Titles - House of Representatives
Official Title as Introduced
To amend the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and Adoption Reform Act of 1978 to require a study and report on adoption outcomes and the factors affecting those outcomes, and for other purposes. | Rep. Smucker, Lloyd | R | PA |
584 | 4,755 | S.2538 | Health | Alternatives to Opioids in the Emergency Department Reauthorization Act of 2021 or the ALTO Reauthorization Act of 2021
This bill reauthorizes through FY2026 a grant program for developing and implementing alternatives to opioids for pain management in hospitals and emergency departments. | To reauthorize a program of grants to hospitals and emergency
departments to develop, implement, enhance, or study alternatives to
opioids for pain management, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Alternatives to Opioids in the
Emergency Department Reauthorization Act of 2021'' or the ``ALTO
Reauthorization Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. REAUTHORIZATION OF EMERGENCY ALTERNATIVES TO OPIOIDS PROGRAM.
Section 7091 of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act (42
U.S.C. 294i note) is amended--
(1) in the section heading, by striking ``demonstration'';
(2) in the headings of subsections (a) and (b), by striking
``Demonstration'' each place it appears;
(3) in subsections (a)(1) and (b), by striking
``demonstration'' each place it appears;
(4) in subsection (f)--
(A) by striking ``Not later than 1 year after
completion of the demonstration program under this
section'' and inserting ``Not later than the end of
each of calendar years 2022 and 2028''; and
(B) by striking ``demonstration'' after ``results
of the''; and
(5) in subsection (g), by striking ``2019 through 2021''
and inserting ``2022 through 2026''.
<all> | ALTO Reauthorization Act of 2021 | A bill to reauthorize a program of grants to hospitals and emergency departments to develop, implement, enhance, or study alternatives to opioids for pain management, and for other purposes. | ALTO Reauthorization Act of 2021
Alternatives to Opioids in the Emergency Department Reauthorization Act of 2021 | Sen. Booker, Cory A. | D | NJ |
585 | 14,506 | H.R.7595 | Immigration | Victims Of Immigration Crime Engagement Restoration Act or as the VOICE Restoration Act
This bill establishes the Victims of Immigration Crime Engagement Office within U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The office shall provide assistance to victims of crimes committed by non-U.S. nationals (aliens under federal law) who are present in the United States without lawful immigration status. | To establish the Victims of Immigration Crime Engagement Office within
the Department of Homeland Security, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Victims Of Immigration Crime
Engagement Restoration Act'' or as the ``VOICE Restoration Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) In April 2017, the United States Department of Homeland
Security launched the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
(ICE) Victims of Immigration Crime Engagement Office (VOICE) in
response to the Executive Order 13768 issued by President
Donald J. Trump entitled Enhancing Public Safety in the
Interior of the United States, which directed DHS to create an
office to support victims of crimes committed by criminal
aliens.
(2) In June 2021, the United States Department of Homeland
Security terminated VOICE pursuant to the Executive order on
the Revision of Civil Immigration Enforcement Policies and
Priorities issued by President R. Joseph Jr.
SEC. 3. VICTIMS OF IMMIGRATION CRIME ENGAGEMENT OFFICE.
(a) Establishment.----There is established the Victims of
Immigration Crime Engagement Office (hereinafter in this Act referred
to as ``VOICE'') within the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement,
which shall provide assistance to victims of crimes committed by aliens
present in the United States without lawful status under the
immigration laws, in addition to witnesses and legal representatives of
individuals acting at the request of a victim or witness.
(b) Duties.--The duties of VOICE are to do the following:
(1) Use a victim-centered approach to acknowledge and
support persons who are victims or witnesses described in
subsection (a) and their families.
(2) Promote awareness of available services to such
persons.
(3) Build collaborative partnerships with community
stakeholders assisting such persons.
(c) Assistance.--- The types of assistance authorized to be
provided by VOICE to such persons impacted by crimes committed by
aliens described in subsection (a) includes--
(1) the establishment and operation of a dedicated toll-
free VOICE Hotline to answer questions from victims;
(2) local contacts to help with unique requests from such
persons;
(3) access to social service professionals able to refer
victims to resources and service providers;
(4) assistance signing up to receive automated custody
status information regarding an alien described in subsection
(a) held in custody; and
(5) additional criminal or immigration history may be
available about an illegal alien to victims or their families.
(d) Report.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, VOICE shall publish quarterly reports to
Congress, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the President of the
United States studying the effects of the victimization by aliens
described in subsection (a) present in the United States.
<all> | Victims Of Immigration Crime Engagement Restoration Act | To establish the Victims of Immigration Crime Engagement Office within the Department of Homeland Security, and for other purposes. | VOICE Restoration Act
Victims Of Immigration Crime Engagement Restoration Act | Rep. Bergman, Jack | R | MI |
586 | 4,328 | S.4584 | Public Lands and Natural Resources | Canyon's Law
This bill prohibits the preparing, placing, installing, setting, deploying, or otherwise using an M-44 device on public land. An M-44 device is defined as a device designed to propel sodium cyanide when triggered by an animal, including any device that may be commonly known as an M-44 ejector device or an M-44 predator control device.
No later than 30 days after the enactment of this bill, any federal, state, or county agency that has prepared, placed, installed, set, or deployed an M-44 device on public land shall remove each such device from such land. | To prohibit the use of M-44 devices, commonly known as ``cyanide
bombs'', on public land, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as ``Canyon's Law''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Sodium cyanide is the highly toxic pesticide active
ingredient used in M-44 devices, also known as ``cyanide
bombs'', and is used to kill wolves, coyotes, foxes, and wild
dogs suspected of preying on livestock and poultry.
(2) Sodium cyanide is registered for restricted use under
the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7
U.S.C. 136 et seq.) as a Category One acute toxicant, the most
hazardous Environmental Protection Agency classification
available, due to the harm it poses to people and the
environment.
(3) Poisoning by sodium cyanide leads to central nervous
system depression, cardiac arrest, respiratory failure,
paralysis, and blindness.
(4) The Environmental Protection Agency authorizes the use
of M-44 devices nationwide, and in recent years, M-44s were
used in Colorado, Idaho, North Dakota, Nebraska, New Mexico,
Nevada, Oklahoma, Texas, Utah, Virginia, West Virginia, and
Wyoming.
(5) In 2017, an M-44 device exposed an Idaho child to a
sublethal dose of sodium cyanide with subsequent short-term and
long-term medical complications. Two Wyoming children were also
exposed to the poison from another M-44 device. Three family
dogs died in these two separate incidents.
(6) The indiscriminate M-44 device commonly harms nontarget
wildlife and people; at least 42 people have accidentally
triggered a cyanide bomb causing exposure to cyanide gas and
injuries since 1984.
(7) M-44 devices kill targeted animals only 53 percent of
the time. Thousands of nontarget species of animals have been
killed by M-44s, including bald eagles, golden eagles, gray
wolves, black bears, grizzly bears, bobcats, fishers, and
family dogs.
(8) Despite the United States Fish and Wildlife Service
determining in 1993 that M-44 devices could kill endangered
species like the California Condor, the use of the M-44
continues in areas where endangered species are found and
continues to result in the deaths of endangered species.
SEC. 3. USE OF M-44 DEVICES ON PUBLIC LAND PROHIBITED.
(a) In General.--Preparing, placing, installing, setting,
deploying, or otherwise using an M-44 device on public land is
prohibited.
(b) Removal.--Not later than 30 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act, any Federal, State, or county agency that has
prepared, placed, installed, set, or deployed an M-44 device on public
land shall remove each such M-44 device from public land.
(c) Definitions.--In this Act:
(1) M-44 device.--
(A) In general.--The term ``M-44 device'' means a
device designed to propel sodium cyanide when triggered
by an animal.
(B) Common names.--The term ``M-44 device''
includes any device that may be commonly known as an
``M-44 ejector device'' or an ``M-44 predator control
device''.
(2) Public land.--The term ``public land'' means any
Federal land under the administrative jurisdiction of a public
land management agency.
(3) Public land management agency.--The term ``public land
management agency'' means each of, or a combination of, the
following:
(A) The National Park Service.
(B) The United States Fish and Wildlife Service.
(C) The Bureau of Land Management.
(D) The Bureau of Reclamation.
(E) The Forest Service.
<all> | Canyon’s Law | A bill to prohibit the use of M-44 devices, commonly known as "cyanide bombs", on public land, and for other purposes. | Canyon’s Law | Sen. Merkley, Jeff | D | OR |
587 | 1,187 | S.1137 | Crime and Law Enforcement | Gay and Trans Panic Defense Prohibition Act of 2021
This bill generally prohibits a federal criminal defendant from asserting, as a defense, that the nonviolent sexual advance of an individual or a perception or belief of the gender, gender identify or expression, or sexual orientation of an individual excuses or justifies conduct or mitigates the severity of an offense. | To amend title 18, United States Code, to prohibit gay and trans panic
defenses.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Gay and Trans Panic Defense
Prohibition Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds that--
(1) the American Bar Association has urged the Federal
Government to take legislative action to curtail the
availability and effectiveness of the ``gay panic'' and ``trans
panic'' defenses, which seek to partially or completely excuse
crimes such as murder and assault on the grounds that the
sexual orientation or gender identity of the victim is
provocation enough for the violent reaction of the defendant;
(2) gay and trans panic legal defenses, which continue to
be raised in criminal proceedings in Federal courts across the
United States, are surprisingly long-lived historical
artifacts, remnants of a time when widespread public antipathy
was the norm for lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer
(referred to in this Act as ``LGBTQ'') individuals;
(3) gay and trans panic defenses characterize sexual
orientation and gender identity as objectively reasonable
excuses for loss of self-control, and thereby illegitimately
mitigate the responsibility of a perpetrator for harm done to
LGBTQ individuals;
(4) gay and trans panic defenses appeal to irrational fears
and hatred of LGBTQ individuals, thereby undermining the
legitimacy of Federal criminal prosecutions and resulting in
unjustifiable acquittals or sentencing reductions;
(5) the use of gay and trans panic defenses is entirely
incompatible with the express intent of Federal law to provide
increased protection to victims of bias-motivated crimes,
including crimes committed against LGBTQ individuals;
(6) continued use of these anachronistic defenses
reinforces and institutionalizes prejudice at the expense of
norms of self-control, tolerance, and compassion, which the law
should encourage, and marks an egregious lapse in the march of
the United States toward a more just criminal justice system;
and
(7) to end the antiquated notion that LGBTQ lives are worth
less than others and to reflect modern understanding of LGBTQ
individuals as equal citizens under law, gay and trans panic
defenses must end.
SEC. 3. PROHIBITION ON GAY AND TRANS PANIC DEFENSES.
(a) In General.--Chapter 1 of title 18, United States Code, is
amended by adding at the end the following:
``Sec. 28. Prohibition on gay and trans panic defenses
``(a) Prohibition.--No nonviolent sexual advance or perception or
belief, even if inaccurate, of the gender, gender identity or
expression, or sexual orientation of an individual may be used to
excuse or justify the conduct of an individual or mitigate the severity
of an offense.
``(b) Past Trauma.--Notwithstanding the prohibition in subsection
(a), a court may admit evidence, in accordance with the Federal Rules
of Evidence, of prior trauma to the defendant for the purpose of
excusing or justifying the conduct of the defendant or mitigating the
severity of an offense.''.
(b) Technical and Conforming Amendment.--The table of sections for
chapter 1 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the
end the following:
``28. Prohibition on gay and trans panic defenses.''.
(c) Report.--The Attorney General shall submit to Congress an
annual report that details prosecutions in Federal court involving
capital and noncapital crimes committed against LGBTQ individuals that
were motivated by the victim's gender, gender identity or expression,
or sexual orientation.
<all> | Gay and Trans Panic Defense Prohibition Act of 2021 | A bill to amend title 18, United States Code, to prohibit gay and trans panic defenses. | Gay and Trans Panic Defense Prohibition Act of 2021 | Sen. Markey, Edward J. | D | MA |
588 | 14,316 | H.R.823 | Congress | No Vote, No Raise Act
This bill eliminates automatic pay adjustments for Members of Congress. | To eliminate automatic pay adjustments for Members of Congress, and for
other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``No Vote, No Raise Act''.
SEC. 2. ELIMINATION OF AUTOMATIC PAY ADJUSTMENTS FOR MEMBERS OF
CONGRESS.
(a) In General.--Paragraph (2) of section 601(a) of the Legislative
Reorganization Act of 1946 (2 U.S.C. 4501(2)) is repealed.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--Section 601(a)(1) of such Act (2 U.S.C.
4501) is amended--
(1) by striking ``(a)(1)'' and inserting ``(a)'';
(2) by redesignating subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) as
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), respectively; and
(3) by striking ``, as adjusted by paragraph (2) of this
subsection''.
SEC. 3. EFFECTIVE DATE.
This Act and the amendments made by this Act shall take effect on
December 31, 2022.
<all> | No Vote, No Raise Act | To eliminate automatic pay adjustments for Members of Congress, and for other purposes. | No Vote, No Raise Act | Rep. Latta, Robert E. | R | OH |
589 | 11,704 | H.R.3509 | Commerce | Safe Gun Storage Act of 2021This bill requires safety standards for firearm locks and safes. Under such standards, firearm locks must be reasonably designed to (1) prevent the firearm from discharging while the lock is activated, and (2) prevent unauthorized access to the firearm. Further, firearm safes must be reasonably designed to (1) secure firearms, and (2) prevent unauthorized access to the safe through physical manipulation or damage. | To amend the Consumer Product Safety Act to direct the Consumer Product
Safety Commission to establish consumer product safety standards for
firearm locks and firearm safes, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Safe Gun Storage Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY STANDARDS FOR FIREARM LOCKS AND FIREARM
SAFES.
(a) In General.--The Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2051 et
seq.) is amended by adding at the end the following:
``SEC. 43. CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY STANDARDS FOR FIREARM LOCKS AND
FIREARM SAFES.
``(a) Establishment of Standards.--
``(1) Rulemaking required.--
``(A) Rulemaking proceeding.--Notwithstanding
section 3(a)(5)(E), the Commission shall initiate a
rulemaking proceeding under section 553 of title 5,
United States Code, within 90 days after the date of
the enactment of this section to establish--
``(i) a consumer product safety standard
for firearm locks; and
``(ii) a consumer product safety standard
for firearm safes.
``(B) Final rule.--Notwithstanding any other
provision of law, including chapter 5 of title 5,
United States Code, the Commission shall promulgate
final consumer product safety standards under this
paragraph within 12 months after the date on which the
Commission initiates the rulemaking proceeding under
subparagraph (A).
``(C) Effective date.--Each final consumer product
safety standard promulgated under this paragraph shall
take effect 6 months after the date on which such
standard is promulgated.
``(2) Requirements for firearm lock standard.--The standard
for firearm locks promulgated under paragraph (1) shall require
firearm locks that--
``(A) are sufficiently difficult for an
unauthorized user to de-activate or remove; and
``(B) prevent the discharge of the firearm unless
the firearm lock has been de-activated or removed.
``(3) Requirements for firearm safe standard.--The standard
for firearm safes promulgated under paragraph (1) shall require
firearm safes that reliably secure firearms from unauthorized
users, and include reliable security features, quality, and
construction to reliably prevent unauthorized users from
gaining access to a firearm by damaging or physically
manipulating the safe.
``(b) Certain Provisions Not To Apply.--
``(1) Provisions of this act.--Sections 7 and 9 of this Act
do not apply to the rulemaking proceeding under paragraph (1)
of subsection (a).
``(2) Chapter 5 of title 5.--Except for section 553,
chapter 5 of title 5, United States Code, does not apply to
this section.
``(3) Chapter 6 of title 5.--Chapter 6 of title 5, United
States Code, does not apply to this section.
``(4) National environmental policy act.--The National
Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.) does
not apply to this section.
``(c) No Effect on State Law.--Notwithstanding section 26 of this
Act, this section does not annul, alter, impair, affect, or exempt any
person subject to a consumer product safety standard promulgated under
subsection (a)(1) from complying with any provision of the law of any
State or any political subdivision thereof, except to the extent that
such provision is inconsistent with any such standard, and then only to
the extent of the inconsistency. A provision of the law of a State or a
political subdivision thereof is not inconsistent with a consumer
product safety standard promulgated under subsection (a)(1) if such
provision affords greater protection to individuals with respect to
firearms than is afforded by such standard.
``(d) Enforcement.--Notwithstanding subsection (b)(1), the consumer
product safety standards promulgated by the Commission under subsection
(a)(1) shall be enforced under this Act as if such standards were
consumer product safety standards described in section 7(a).
``(e) Definitions.--In this section:
``(1) Firearm.--The term `firearm' has the meaning given
the term in section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code.
``(2) Firearm lock.--The term `firearm lock' means any
disabling or locking device that is not built into the firearm
at the time of manufacture and that is designed to prevent the
firearm from being discharged unless the device has been
deactivated or removed.
``(3) Firearm safe.--The term `firearm safe' means a
container that is advertised to be used to store a firearm and
that is designed to be unlocked only by means of a key, a
combination, or other similar means.''.
(b) Conforming Amendment.--Section 1 of the Consumer Product Safety
Act is amended by adding at the end of the table of contents the
following:
``Sec. 43. Consumer product safety standards for firearm locks and
firearm safes.''.
SEC. 3. AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.
There are authorized to be appropriated to the Consumer Product
Safety Commission $2,000,000 to carry out the provisions of section 43
of the Consumer Product Safety Act, as added by section 2, such sums to
remain available until expended.
<all> | Safe Gun Storage Act of 2021 | To amend the Consumer Product Safety Act to direct the Consumer Product Safety Commission to establish consumer product safety standards for firearm locks and firearm safes, and for other purposes. | Safe Gun Storage Act of 2021 | Rep. Jayapal, Pramila | D | WA |
590 | 9,799 | H.R.1804 | Environmental Protection | Community Cleanup Act
This bill expands existing notice and publication requirements related to remedial action plans for Superfund sites (sites contaminated with hazardous substances).
Specifically, the bill requires the notice and analysis of a proposed plan to be transmitted to the highest ranking official of the local government with jurisdiction over the facility subject to the plan. During the public comment period, written and oral comments may be submitted regarding the use of the facility at issue after the remedial action is taken.
Notice of the final remedial action plan must be transmitted to the local government officials with jurisdiction over the facility at issue.
Finally, the bill expands the minimum publication requirements for proposed and final plans to include (1) an announcement via a radio or television station in the broadcast area surrounding the facility at issue, (2) digital or social media publications, and (3) a posting to the website of the person proposing to adopt a plan for remediation (e.g., the state or Environmental Protection Agency website). | To amend the public participation requirements of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Community Cleanup Act''.
SEC. 2. PUBLIC PARTICIPATION.
(a) Proposed Plan.--Section 117(a) of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42
U.S.C. 9617(a)) is amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking ``.'' at the end and
inserting ``, including the highest ranking official of the
local government with jurisdiction over the facility subject to
the plan.''; and
(2) in paragraph (2), by inserting ``(including comments
regarding use of the facility at issue after remedial action is
taken)'' after ``written and oral comments''.
(b) Final Plan.--Section 117(b) of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9617(b))
is amended by inserting ``, and transmitted to all local, elected
officials with jurisdiction over the facility subject to the plan,''
after ``available to the public''.
(c) Publication.--Section 117(d) of the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9617(d))
is amended--
(1) by inserting ``and require'' after ``publication shall
include''; and
(2) by striking ``general circulation.'' and inserting
``general circulation (if available), announcement sent to a
radio station, or television station, the broadcast area of
which includes the community surrounding the facility at issue,
relevant and appropriate digital or social media publications,
and posting to the website of the President, State, or other
person who, as appropriate, is proposing to adopt a plan for
remediation under section 104, 106, 120, or 122.''.
<all> | Community Cleanup Act | To amend the public participation requirements of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, and for other purposes. | Community Cleanup Act | Rep. Carter, Earl L. "Buddy" | R | GA |
591 | 732 | S.4246 | Transportation and Public Works | Advanced Aviation Infrastructure Modernization Act or the AAIM Act
This bill establishes a pilot grant program to support advanced air mobility (AAM) infrastructure. AAM infrastructure refers to an air transportation system that transports individuals and property between points in the United States in both controlled and uncontrolled airspace using certain aircraft, including remotely piloted, autonomous, or vertical take-off and landing aircraft.
The Department of Transportation (DOT) must award planning grants for AAM infrastructure to (1) state, local, or tribal governments; (2) airport sponsors; (3) transit agencies; (4) port authorities; (5) metropolitan planning organizations; or (6) consortia of such entities. Entities that receive these grants must develop a comprehensive plan for AAM infrastructure, including vertiports (sites that support the landing, takeoff, loading, and other operations of vertical take-off and landing aircraft). Topics covered in the plan must address matters such as identifying locations for AAM infrastructure and available sources of funding. DOT must brief Congress about the plans it receives. The briefing must include an evaluation of the planned or proposed locations for vertiports and a description of best practices or lessons learned through the review of comprehensive plans.
Grants may not be awarded after September 30, 2023.
The Government Accountability Office must conduct a study on the interests, roles, and responsibilities of federal, state, local, and tribal government affected by AAM aircraft and operations. | To direct the Secretary of Transportation to establish a pilot program
to provide grants related to advanced air mobility infrastructure, and
for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Advanced Aviation Infrastructure
Modernization Act'' or the ``AAIM Act''.
SEC. 2. ADVANCED AIR MOBILITY INFRASTRUCTURE PILOT PROGRAM.
(a) Establishment.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall establish a pilot program to
provide grants that assist an eligible entity to plan for the
development and deployment of infrastructure necessary to facilitate
AAM operations, locally and regionally, within the United States.
(b) Planning Grants.--
(1) In general.--The Secretary shall provide grants to
eligible entities to develop comprehensive plans under
paragraph (2) related to AAM infrastructure.
(2) Comprehensive plan.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 1 year after
receiving a grant under this subsection, an eligible
entity shall submit to the Secretary a comprehensive
plan, including the development of potential public use
and private vertiport infrastructure, in a format
capable of being published on the website of the
Department of Transportation.
(B) Plan contents.--The Secretary shall establish
content requirements for comprehensive plans submitted
under this subsection, which shall include not less
than 1 of the following as many of the following:
(i) The identification of planned or
potential public use and private vertiport
locations.
(ii) A description of infrastructure
necessary to support AAM operations.
(iii) A description of types of planned or
potential AAM operations and forecast for
proposed vertiport operations, including
estimates for initial operations and future
growth.
(iv) The identification of physical and
digital infrastructure required to meet any
standards for vertiport design and performance
characteristics established by the Federal
Aviation Administration (as in effect on the
date on which the Secretary issues a grant to
an eligible entity), including modifications to
existing infrastructure and ground sensors,
electric charging or other fueling
requirements, electric utility requirements,
wireless and cybersecurity requirements, fire
safety, perimeter security, and other necessary
hardware or software.
(v) A description of any hazard associated
with planned vertiport infrastructure, such as
handling of hazardous materials, batteries, or
other fuel cells, charging or fueling of
aircraft, aircraft rescue and firefighting
response, and emergency planning.
(vi) A description of potential
environmental effects of planned or potential
construction or siting of vertiports.
(vii) A description of how planned or
potential vertiport locations, including new or
repurposed infrastructure, fit into State and
local transportation systems and networks,
including--
(I) connectivity to existing public
transportation hubs and intermodal and
multimodal facilities;
(II) opportunities to create new
service to rural areas and areas
underserved by air transportation; or
(III) opportunities to utilize
existing aviation infrastructure, such
as airports and heliports, for AAM
operations.; or
(IV) any potential conflict with
existing aviation infrastructure that
may arise from the potential location
of the vertiport.
(viii) A description of how vertiport
planning will be incorporated in State or
metropolitan planning documents.
<DELETED> (ix) The identification of the
process an eligible entity will undertake to
ensure an adequate level of engagement with any
potentially impacted community for each planned
vertiport location and planned or anticipated
AAM operations, such as engagement with
communities in rural areas, underserved
communities, individuals with disabilities, or
racial and ethnic minorities.</DELETED>
(ix) The identification of the process an
eligible entity will undertake to ensure an
adequate level of engagement with any
potentially impacted community for each planned
or potential vertiport location and planned or
anticipated AAM operations, such as engagement
with communities in rural areas, underserved
communities, Tribal communities, individuals
with disabilities, or racial and ethnic
minorities.
(x) The identification of the actions
necessary for an eligible entity to undertake
the construction of a vertiport, such as
planning studies to assess existing
infrastructure or newly identified areas of AAM
integration, environmental studies, studies of
projected economic benefit to the community,
lease or acquisition of an easement or land for
new infrastructure, and activities related to
other capital costs.
(xi) The identification of State, local, or
private sources of funding an eligible entity
may use to assist with the construction or
operation of a vertiport.
(xii) The identification of existing
Federal aeronautical and airspace requirements
that must be met for the eligible entity's
planned vertiport location.
(xiii) A description of how the eligible
entity will include opportunities for small
business concerns owned and controlled by
socially and economically disadvantaged
individuals to compete, on an equal basis, for
contracts or subcontracts related to the
design, development, construction, or operation
of a proposed vertiport.
(3) Application.--To apply for a grant under this
subsection, an eligible entity shall provide to the Secretary
an application in such form, at such time, and containing such
information as the Secretary may require.
(4) Selection.--
(A) In general.--In awarding grants under this
subsection, the Secretary shall consider the following:
(i) Geographic diversity.
(ii) Diversity of the proposed models of
infrastructure financing and management.
(iii) Diversity of anticipated or planned
AAM operations.
(iv) The need for comprehensive plans
that--
(I) facilitate ensure the safe and
efficient integration of AAM operations
into the National Airspace System;
(II) improve transportation safety,
connectivity, and access in both rural
and urban regions in the United States;
(III) leverage existing public
transportation systems and intermodal
and multimodal facilities or newly
identified areas of AAM integration;
(IV) reduce surface congestion and
the environmental impacts of
transportation;
(V) grow the economy and create
jobs in the United States; and
(VI) encourage community engagement
when planning for AAM-related
infrastructure.
(B) Priority.--The Secretary shall prioritize
awarding grants under this subsection to eligible
entities that partner to applications that capture as
many items in paragraph (2)(B) as possible and to
eligible entities that collaborate with commercial AAM
entities, institutions of higher education, research
institutions, or other relevant stakeholders to develop
and prepare a comprehensive plan.
(C) Minimum allocation to rural areas.--The
Secretary shall ensure that not less than 20 percent of
the amounts made available under subsection (c) are
used to award grants to eligible entities that submit a
comprehensive plan under paragraph (2) that is related
to infrastructure located in a rural area.
(5) Grant amount.--Each grant made under this subsection
shall be made in an amount that is not more than $1,000,000.
(6) Briefing.--
(A) In general.--Not later than 180 days after the
first comprehensive plan is submitted under paragraph
(2), and every 180 days thereafter through September
30, 2024 September 30, 2025, the Secretary shall
provide a briefing to the appropriate committees of
Congress on the comprehensive plans on each of the
comprehensive plans submitted to the Secretary under
such paragraph.
(B) Contents.--The briefing required under
subparagraph (A) shall include--
(i) an evaluation of all planned or
proposed planned or potential vertiport
locations included in the comprehensive plans
submitted under paragraph (2) and how such
planned or proposed planned or potential
vertiport locations may fit into the overall
United States transportation system and
network; and
(ii) a description of lessons or best
practices learned through the review of
comprehensive plans and how the Secretary will
incorporate any such lessons or best practices
into Federal standards or guidance for the
design and operation of AAM infrastructure and
facilities.
(c) Authorization of Appropriations.--
(1) Authorization.--There are authorized to be appropriated
to the Secretary to carry out this section $12,500,000 for each
of fiscal years 2022 and 2023 fiscal years 2023 and 2024, to
remain available until expended.
(2) Administrative expenses.--Of the amounts made available
under paragraph (1), the Secretary may retain up to 1 percent
for personnel, contracting, and other costs to establish and
administer the pilot program under this section.
(d) Termination.--
(1) In general.--No grant may be awarded under this section
after September 30, 2023 September 30, 2024.
(2) Continued funding.--Funds authorized to be appropriated
pursuant to subsection (c) may be expended after September 30,
2023 September 30, 2024--
(A) for grants awarded prior to September 30, 2023
September 30, 2024; and
(B) for administrative expenses.
(e) Definitions.--In this Act:
(1) Advanced air mobility; aam.--The terms ``advanced air
mobility'' and ``AAM'' mean a transportation system that
transports individuals or property between points in the United
States using aircraft with innovative capabilities, including
aircraft that use 2 or more lift or thrust units to generate
powered lift and control during vertical takeoff or landing,
that may be piloted, remotely piloted, or autonomous, including
those powered by electric or hybrid driven propulsion
alternative propulsion, in both controlled and uncontrolled
airspace.
(2) Appropriate committees of congress.--The term
``appropriate committees of Congress'' means the Committee on
Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate.
(3) Commercial aam entities.--The term ``commercial AAM
entities'' means--
(A) manufacturers of aircraft, avionics, propulsion
systems, and air traffic management systems related to
AAM;
(B) intended commercial operators of AAM aircraft
and systems; and
(C) intended commercial operators and developers of
vertiports.
(4) Eligible entity.--The term ``eligible entity'' means--
(A) a State, local, or Tribal government, including
a political subdivision thereof;
(B) an airport sponsor;
(C) a transit agency;
(D) a port authority;
(E) a metropolitan planning organization; or
(F) any combination or consortium of the entities
described in subparagraphs (A) through (E).
(5) Metropolitan planning organization.--The term
``metropolitan planning organization'' has the meaning given
such term in section 5303(b) of title 49, United States Code.
(6) Rural area.--The term ``rural area'' means an area
located outside a metropolitan statistical area (as designated
by the Office of Management and Budget).
(7) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of Transportation.
(8) State.--The term ``State'' means a State of the United
States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin
Islands, American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, and
Guam.
(9) Vertiport.--The term ``vertiport'' means a designated
location used or intended to be used to support AAM operations,
including the landing, takeoff, loading, taxiing, parking, and
storage of aircraft developed for AAM operations.
SEC. 3. GAO STUDY AND REPORT.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Comptroller General of the United States
shall--
(1) conduct a study on the interests, roles, and
responsibilities of Federal, State, local, and Tribal
governments affected by AAM aircraft and operations; and
(2) submit to the appropriate committees of Congress a
report on the study, including the Comptroller General's
findings and conclusions.
(b) Requirements.--In conducting the study required under
subsection (a), the Comptroller General shall review the following:
(1) The state of the law as of the enactment of this Act
with respect to Federal authority over operations of AAM
aircraft systems in the national airspace system.
(2) The state of the law as of the enactment of this Act
with respect to State, local, and Tribal authority over
operations of AAM aircraft in the national airspace system.
(3) Potential gaps between authorities under paragraphs (1)
and (2).
(4) Proposals to facilitate the safe and financially viable
growth and development of the AAM industry and integration of
AAM aircraft into the national airspace system.
Calendar No. 646
117th CONGRESS
2d Session
S. 4246
_______________________________________________________________________ | AAIM Act | A bill to direct the Secretary of Transportation to establish a pilot program to provide grants related to advance air mobility infrastructure, and for other purposes. | AAIM Act
Advanced Aviation Infrastructure Modernization Act
AAIM Act
Advanced Aviation Infrastructure Modernization Act | Sen. Padilla, Alex | D | CA |
592 | 6,583 | H.R.5401 | Energy | Nuclear Waste Task Force Act of 2021
This bill directs the Environmental Protection Agency to establish a task force that must evaluate the implications of amending the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 to remove exemptions from environmental laws for spent nuclear waste and high-level radioactive waste in order to enable consent-based siting of disposal and storage solutions for such waste. The task force must provide a clear explanation of what constitutes consent-based siting. In addition, the task force may provide participation grants to help environmental justice communities on issues relating to the storage and disposal of such waste. | To establish a task force on the implications of amending the Atomic
Energy Act of 1954 to remove exemptions from environmental laws for
spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste to allow for
consent-based siting of geologic repositories.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Nuclear Waste Task Force Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. TASK FORCE.
(a) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) Environmental justice community.--The term
``environmental justice community'' means a community with a
significant representation of communities of color, low-income
communities, or Tribal and indigenous communities that
experiences, or is at risk of experiencing, higher or more
adverse human health or environmental effects, as compared to
other communities.
(2) EPA representative.--The term ``EPA representative''
means the member of the Task Force appointed under subsection
(c)(2)(B)(i).
(3) High-level radioactive waste.--The term ``high-level
radioactive waste'' has the meaning given the term in section 2
of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 U.S.C. 10101).
(4) Indian tribe.--The term ``Indian Tribe'' means an
Indian tribe included on the list published by the Secretary of
the Interior under section 104 of the Federally Recognized
Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 5131).
(5) Spent nuclear fuel.--The term ``spent nuclear fuel''
has the meaning given the term in section 2 of the Nuclear
Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 U.S.C. 10101).
(6) Task force.--The term ``Task Force'' means the task
force established under subsection (b).
(b) Establishment.--The Administrator of the Environmental
Protection Agency shall establish a task force, to be known as ``Task
Force on the Implications of Amending the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 to
Remove Exemptions from Environmental Laws for Spent Nuclear Fuel And
High-Level Radioactive Waste to Allow for Consent-Based Siting of
Geologic Repositories''--
(1) to continue the work of the 2012 Blue Ribbon Commission
on America's Nuclear Future, which found that consent was
necessary to successfully arrive at permanent disposal sites
for nuclear waste; and
(2) to analyze the implications of amending the Atomic
Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.) to remove
exemptions from environmental laws for spent nuclear fuel from
commercial reactors and high-level radioactive waste from
defense and commercial origins in order to create a consent-
driven pathway to addressing the disposal challenges of
commercial and defense nuclear waste.
(c) Membership.--
(1) In general.--The Task Force shall include a balanced
representation of--
(A) Federal, State, Tribal, and local government
agencies;
(B) nongovernmental organizations;
(C) unions; and
(D) the private sector.
(2) Members.--
(A) In general.--The Task Force shall be composed
of not more than 30 members who represent entities
that--
(i) are currently affected by the storage,
treatment, or management of commercial or
defense nuclear waste; or
(ii) have cognizable and well-understood
interests in the objectives of the Task Force.
(B) Federal members.--Not more than 5 members of
the Task Force shall be representatives of the Federal
Government, of whom--
(i) 1 shall be appointed by the
Administrator of the Environmental Protection
Agency to represent the Environmental
Protection Agency;
(ii) 1 shall be appointed by the Secretary
of Energy to represent the Department of
Energy;
(iii) 1 shall be appointed by the Nuclear
Regulatory Commission to represent the Nuclear
Regulatory Commission;
(iv) 1 shall be appointed by the Director
of the White House Office of Science and
Technology Policy to represent the White House
Office of Science and Technology Policy; and
(v) 1 shall be appointed by the Secretary
of Transportation to represent the Department
of Transportation.
(C) Non-federal members.--
(i) In general.--Except as provided in
clause (ii), the EPA representative shall
appoint the non-Federal members of the Task
Force.
(ii) State government representatives.--
(I) In general.--The EPA
representative shall select not fewer
than 7 States, representing a
geographical balance from across the
United States, the governments of which
shall be represented on the Task Force.
(II) Appointment.--The Governor of
a State selected under subclause (I),
or an appropriate agency of the State,
such as a State department of ecology
or State environment department, if the
Governor determines it to be
appropriate, shall appoint the
representative of the State government
who shall serve on the Task Force.
(iii) Other non-federal members.--
(I) Geographic and historical
balance.--In selecting the non-Federal
members of the Task Force, the EPA
representative shall ensure--
(aa) a geographical balance
among the non-Federal members
from across the United States;
and
(bb) a balance of
historical concerns with
respect to nuclear waste.
(II) Interests.--In selecting the
non-Federal members of the Task Force,
the EPA representative shall ensure
that not fewer than 18 members are
selected from among representatives
of--
(aa) Indian Tribes;
(bb) national environmental
interest groups;
(cc) regional environmental
justice groups;
(dd) industry;
(ee) labor organizations;
(ff) professional
societies; and
(gg) safety- and health-
related organizations.
(D) Selection of chair.--The non-Federal members of
the Task Force appointed under subparagraph (C) shall
select the Chair of the Task Force from among the non-
Federal members.
(3) Compensation; expenses.--
(A) Compensation.--A member of the Task Force shall
serve without compensation.
(B) Expenses.--A member of the Task Force shall
receive reimbursement from the Administrator of the
Environmental Protection Agency at the applicable
Federal per diem rate for all out-of-pocket expenses
incurred in carrying out the duties of the Task Force.
(d) Grants.--Subject to the approval of the Federal members of the
Task Force appointed under subsection (c)(2)(B), the Chair of the Task
Force may provide participation grants to task force members from
underresourced communities, environmental justice communities, or
nonprofit organizations that are located in environmental justice
communities and represent and work on behalf of environmental justice
communities with respect to issues relating to the storage and disposal
of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste.
(e) Duties.--
(1) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Task Force shall submit to Congress
and the President a report, in unclassified form, that--
(A)(i) provides a clear explanation of what
constitutes ``consent-based siting''; and
(ii) includes recommendations on how consent-based
siting could be practically implemented;
(B) describes and evaluates, taking into
consideration the consent-based siting recommendations
of the 2012 Blue Ribbon Commission for America's
Nuclear Future--
(i) the implications of amending the Atomic
Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.) to
remove exemptions from environmental laws, such
as the Solid Waste Disposal Act (42 U.S.C. 6901
et seq.) (commonly known as the ``Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976''), for
spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive
waste, while maintaining Federal minimum
standards;
(ii) the likely allocations of precise
regulatory responsibilities under any amendment
to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C.
2011 et seq.) described and evaluated under
clause (i); and
(iii) the timeframe necessary for
developing regulations in accordance with
clause (ii) and subparagraph (C); and
(C) includes recommendations for appropriate
legislative and regulatory changes based on the matters
described and evaluated under subparagraph (B).
(2) Notice and comment.--
(A) In general.--In preparing the report under
paragraph (1), the Task Force shall provide public
notice and an opportunity for comment on the matters
described in paragraph (1).
(B) Requirement.--To ensure sufficient opportunity
for timely public input on the matters described in
paragraph (1), the Task Force shall provide not fewer
than 3 opportunities for public comment under
subparagraph (A), including--
(i) 1 opportunity on the East Coast;
(ii) 1 opportunity on the West Coast; and
(iii) 1 opportunity in the middle region of
the United States.
<all> | Nuclear Waste Task Force Act of 2021 | To establish a task force on the implications of amending the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 to remove exemptions from environmental laws for spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste to allow for consent-based siting of geologic repositories. | Nuclear Waste Task Force Act of 2021 | Rep. Levin, Mike | D | CA |
593 | 2,112 | S.4870 | Native Americans | Tule River Tribe Reserved Water Rights Settlement Act of 2022
This bill authorizes, ratifies, and confirms a specified water rights settlement agreement entered into by the Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, the South Tule Independent Ditch Company, and the Tule River Association, thus satisfying claims to water rights in California. Additionally, the bill establishes and provides funding for a settlement trust fund. | To approve the settlement of the water right claims of the Tule River
Tribe, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE; TABLE OF CONTENTS.
(a) Short Title.--This Act may be cited as the ``Tule River Tribe
Reserved Water Rights Settlement Act of 2022''.
(b) Table of Contents.--The table of contents of this Act is as
follows:
Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.
Sec. 2. Purposes.
Sec. 3. Definitions.
Sec. 4. Ratification of 2007 Agreement.
Sec. 5. Tribal Water Right.
Sec. 6. Tule River Tribe trust accounts.
Sec. 7. Funding.
Sec. 8. Transfer of land into trust.
Sec. 9. Satisfaction of claims.
Sec. 10. Waivers and releases of claims.
Sec. 11. Enforceability Date.
Sec. 12. Binding effect; judicial approval; enforceability.
Sec. 13. Miscellaneous provisions.
Sec. 14. Antideficiency.
SEC. 2. PURPOSES.
The purposes of this Act are--
(1) to achieve a fair, equitable, and final settlement of
claims to water rights in the State of California for--
(A) the Tule River Tribe; and
(B) the United States, acting as trustee for the
Tribe;
(2) to authorize, ratify, and confirm the 2007 Agreement
entered by the Tribe, the South Tule Independent Ditch Company,
and the Tule River Association, to the extent that the 2007
Agreement is consistent with this Act;
(3) to authorize and direct the Secretary--
(A) to execute the 2007 Agreement; and
(B) to take any other actions necessary to carry
out the 2007 Agreement in accordance with this Act;
(4) to authorize funds necessary for the implementation of
the 2007 Agreement and this Act; and
(5) to authorize the transfer of certain lands to the
Tribe, to be held in trust.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) 2007 agreement.--The term ``2007 Agreement'' means--
(A) the agreement dated November 21, 2007, as
amended on April 22, 2009, between the Tribe, the South
Tule Independent Ditch Company, and the Tule River
Association, and exhibits A-F attached thereto; and
(B) any amendment to the Agreement referred to in
subparagraph (A) (including an amendment to any
exhibit) that is executed to ensure that the 2007
Agreement is consistent with this Act.
(2) Court.--The term ``Court'' means the United States
District Court for the Eastern District of California, unless
otherwise specified herein.
(3) Divert; diversion.--The terms ``divert'' and
``diversion'' mean to remove water from its natural course or
location by means of a ditch, canal, flume, bypass, pipeline,
conduit, well, pump, or other structure or device, or act of a
person.
(4) Downstream water users.--The term ``Downstream Water
Users'' means--
(A) the Tule River Association and its successors
and assigns;
(B) the South Tule Independent Ditch Company and
its successors and assigns; and
(C) any and all other holders of water rights in
the South Fork Tule River Basin.
(5) Enforceability date.--The term ``Enforceability Date''
means the date described in section 11.
(6) OM&R.--
(A) In general.--The term ``OM&R'' means operation,
maintenance, and replacement.
(B) Inclusions.--The term ``OM&R'' includes--
(i) any recurring or ongoing activity
relating to the day-to-day operation of a
project;
(ii) any activity relating to scheduled or
unscheduled maintenance of a project; and
(iii) any activity relating to repairing or
replacing a feature of a project.
(7) Reservation; tule river reservation.--The terms
``Reservation'' and ``Tule River Reservation'' mean the
reservation of lands set aside for the Tribe by the Executive
Orders of January 9, 1873, October 3, 1873, and August 3, 1878,
including lands added to the Reservation pursuant to section 8.
(8) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary
of the Interior.
(9) South tule independent ditch company.--The term ``South
Tule Independent Ditch Company'' means the nonprofit mutual
water company incorporated in 1895, which provides water
diverted from the South Fork of the Tule River to its
shareholders on lands downstream from the Tule River
Reservation.
(10) Tribal water right.--The term ``Tribal Water Right''
means the water rights ratified, confirmed, and declared to be
valid for the benefit of the Tribe as set forth and described
in the 2007 Agreement and this Act.
(11) Tribe.--The term ``Tribe'' means the Tule River Indian
Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California, a federally
recognized Indian Tribe.
(12) Trust fund.--The term ``Trust Fund'' means the Tule
River Indian Tribe Settlement Trust Fund established under
section 6(a).
(13) Tule river association.--
(A) In general.--The term ``Tule River
Association'' means the association formed by agreement
in 1965, the members of which are representatives of
all pre-1914 appropriative and certain riparian water
right holders of the Tule River at and below the
Richard L. Schafer Dam and Reservoir.
(B) Inclusions.--The term ``Tule River
Association'' includes the Pioneer Water Company, the
Vandalia Irrigation District, the Porterville
Irrigation District, and the Lower Tule River
Irrigation District.
(14) Water development project.--The term ``Water
Development Project'' means a project for domestic, commercial,
municipal, and industrial water supply, including but not
limited to water treatment, storage, and distribution
infrastructure, to be constructed, in whole or in part, using
monies from the Trust Fund.
SEC. 4. RATIFICATION OF 2007 AGREEMENT.
(a) Ratification.--
(1) In general.--Except as modified by this Act and to the
extent that the 2007 Agreement does not conflict with this Act,
the 2007 Agreement is authorized, ratified, and confirmed.
(2) Amendments.--If an amendment to the 2007 Agreement, or
to any exhibit attached to the 2007 Agreement requiring the
signature of the Secretary, is executed in accordance with this
Act to make the 2007 Agreement consistent with this Act, the
amendment is authorized, ratified, and confirmed.
(b) Execution.--
(1) In general.--To the extent the 2007 Agreement does not
conflict with this Act, the Secretary shall execute the 2007
Agreement, including all exhibits to, or parts of, the 2007
Agreement requiring the signature of the Secretary.
(2) Modifications.--Nothing in this Act prohibits the
Secretary, after execution of the 2007 Agreement, from
approving any modification to the 2007 Agreement, including any
exhibit to the 2007 Agreement, that is consistent with this
Act, to the extent that the modification does not otherwise
require congressional approval under section 2116 of the
Revised Statutes (25 U.S.C. 177) or any other applicable
provision of Federal law.
(c) Environmental Compliance.--
(1) In general.--In implementing the 2007 Agreement and
this Act, the Secretary shall comply with all applicable
provisions of--
(A) the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C.
1531 et seq.);
(B) the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969
(42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.), including the implementing
regulations of that Act; and
(C) other applicable Federal environmental laws and
regulations.
(2) Compliance.--
(A) In general.--In implementing the 2007 Agreement
and this Act, the Tribe shall prepare any necessary
environmental documents, consistent with all applicable
provisions of--
(i) the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16
U.S.C. 1531 et seq.);
(ii) the National Environmental Policy Act
of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4231 et seq.), including the
implementing regulations of that Act; and
(iii) all other applicable Federal
environmental laws and regulations.
(B) Authorizations.--The Secretary shall--
(i) independently evaluate the
documentation submitted under subparagraph (A);
and
(ii) be responsible for the accuracy,
scope, and contents of that documentation.
(3) Effect of execution.--The execution of the 2007
Agreement by the Secretary under this section shall not
constitute a major Federal action for purposes of the National
Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.).
(4) Costs.--Any costs associated with the performance of
the compliance activities under this subsection shall be paid
from funds deposited in the Trust Fund, subject to the
condition that any costs associated with the performance of
Federal approval or other review of such compliance work or
costs associated with inherently Federal functions shall remain
the responsibility of the Secretary.
SEC. 5. TRIBAL WATER RIGHT.
(a) Confirmation of Tribal Water Right.--
(1) In general.--The Tribal Water Right is ratified,
confirmed, and declared valid.
(2) Quantification.--The Tribal Water Right includes the
right to divert and use or permit the diversion and use of up
to 5,828 acre-feet per year of surface water from the South
Fork Tule River, as described in the 2007 Agreement and as
confirmed in the decree entered by the Court pursuant to
subsections (b) and (c) of section 12.
(3) Use.--Any diversion, use, and place of use of the
Tribal Water Right shall be subject to the terms and conditions
of the 2007 Agreement and this Act.
(b) Trust Status of Tribal Water Right.--The Tribal Water Right--
(1) shall be held in trust by the United States for the use
and benefit of the Tribe in accordance with this Act; and
(2) shall not be subject to loss through non-use,
forfeiture, abandonment, or other operation of law.
(c) Authority of the Tule River Tribe.--
(1) In general.--The Tule River Tribe shall have the
authority to allocate and distribute the Tribal Water Right for
use on the Reservation in accordance with the 2007 Agreement,
this Act, and applicable Federal law.
(d) Administration.--
(1) No alienation.--The Tribe shall not permanently
alienate any portion of the Tribal Water Right.
(2) Purchases or grants of land from indians.--An
authorization provided by this Act for the allocation,
distribution, leasing, or other arrangement entered into
pursuant to this Act shall be considered to satisfy any
requirement for authorization of the action by treaty or
convention imposed by section 2116 of the Revised Statutes (25
U.S.C. 177).
(3) Prohibition on forfeiture.--The non-use of all or any
portion of the Tribal Water Right by any water user shall not
result in the forfeiture, abandonment, relinquishment, or other
loss of all or any portion of the Tribal Water Right.
SEC. 6. TULE RIVER TRIBE TRUST ACCOUNTS.
(a) Establishment.--The Secretary shall establish a trust fund, to
be known as the ``Tule River Indian Tribe Settlement Trust Fund'', to
be managed, invested, and distributed by the Secretary and to remain
available until expended, withdrawn, or reverted to the general fund of
the Treasury, consisting of the amounts deposited in the Trust Fund
under subsection (c), together with any interest earned on those
amounts, for the purpose of carrying out this Act.
(b) Accounts.--The Secretary shall establish in the Trust Fund the
following Accounts:
(1) The Tule River Tribe Water Development Projects
Account.
(2) The Tule River Tribe OM&R Account.
(c) Deposits.--The Secretary shall deposit--
(1) in the Tule River Tribe Water Development Projects
Account established under subsection (b)(1), the amounts made
available pursuant to section 7(a)(1); and
(2) in the Tule River Tribe OM&R Account established under
subsection (b)(2), the amounts made available pursuant to
section 7(a)(2).
(d) Management and Interest.--
(1) Management.--On receipt and deposit of funds into the
accounts in the Trust Fund pursuant to subsection (c), the
Secretary shall manage, invest, and distribute all amounts in
the Trust Fund in accordance with the investment authority of
the Secretary under--
(A) the first section of the Act of June 24, 1938
(52 Stat. 1037, chapter 648; 25 U.S.C. 162a);
(B) the American Indian Trust Fund Management
Reform Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 4001 et seq.); and
(C) this section.
(2) Investment earnings.--In addition to the deposits under
subsection (c), any investment earnings, including interest,
credited to amounts held in the Trust Fund are authorized to be
used in accordance with subsections (e) and (h).
(e) Availability of Amounts.--Amounts appropriated to, and
deposited in, the Trust Fund, including any investment earnings,
including interest, shall be made available to the Tribe by the
Secretary beginning on the Enforceability Date and subject to the
requirements set forth in this section.
(f) Withdrawals.--
(1) Withdrawals under the american indian trust fund
management reform act of 1994.--
(A) In general.--The Tribe may withdraw any portion
of the amounts in the Trust Fund on approval by the
Secretary of a Tribal management plan submitted by the
Tribe in accordance with the American Indian Trust Fund
Management Reform Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 4001 et seq.).
(B) Requirements.--In addition to the requirements
under the American Indian Trust Fund Management Reform
Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 4001 et seq.), the Tribal
management plan under this paragraph shall require that
the Tribe shall spend all amounts withdrawn from the
Trust Fund, and any investment earnings accrued through
the investments under the Tribal management plan, in
accordance with this Act.
(C) Enforcement.--The Secretary may carry out such
judicial and administrative actions as the Secretary
determines to be necessary to enforce the Tribal
management plan under this paragraph to ensure that
amounts withdrawn by the Tribe from the Trust Fund
under this paragraph are used in accordance with this
Act.
(2) Withdrawals under expenditure plan.--
(A) In general.--The Tribe may submit to the
Secretary a request to withdraw amounts from the Trust
Fund pursuant to an approved expenditure plan.
(B) Requirements.--To be eligible to withdraw
amounts under an expenditure plan under this paragraph,
the Tribe shall submit to the Secretary an expenditure
plan for any portion of the Trust Fund that the Tribe
elects to withdraw pursuant to this subparagraph,
subject to the condition that the amounts shall be used
for the purposes described in this Act.
(C) Inclusions.--An expenditure plan under this
paragraph shall include a description of the manner and
purpose for which the amounts proposed to be withdrawn
from the Trust Fund will be used by the Tribe in
accordance with subsections (e) and (h).
(D) Approval.--The Secretary shall approve an
expenditure plan submitted under this paragraph if the
Secretary determines that the plan--
(i) is reasonable; and
(ii) is consistent with, and will be used
for, the purposes of this Act.
(E) Enforcement.--The Secretary may carry out such
judicial and administrative actions as the Secretary
determines to be necessary to enforce an expenditure
plan to ensure that amounts disbursed under this
paragraph are used in accordance with this Act.
(g) Effect of Section.--Nothing in this section gives the Tribe the
right to judicial review of a determination of the Secretary relating
to whether to approve a Tribal management plan under subsection (f)(1)
or an expenditure plan under subsection (f)(2) except under subchapter
II of chapter 5, and chapter 7, of title 5, United States Code
(commonly known as the ``Administrative Procedure Act'').
(h) Uses.--Amounts from the Trust Fund may only be used by the
Tribe for the following purposes:
(1) The Tule River Tribe Water Development Projects Account
may only be used to plan, design, and construct Water
Development Projects on the Tule River Reservation, and for the
conduct of related activities, including for environmental
compliance in the development and construction of projects
under this Act.
(2) The Tule River Tribe OM&R Account may only be used for
the OM&R of Water Development Projects.
(i) Liability.--The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury
shall not be liable for the expenditure or investment of any amounts
withdrawn from the Trust Fund by the Tribe under paragraphs (1) and (2)
of subsection (f).
(j) Title to Infrastructure.--Title to, control over, and operation
of any project constructed using funds from the Trust Fund shall remain
in the Tribe.
(k) Operation, Maintenance, & Replacement.--All OM&R costs of any
project constructed using funds from the Trust Fund shall be the
responsibility of the Tribe.
(l) No Per Capita Distributions.--No portion of the Trust Fund
shall be distributed on a per capita basis to any member of the Tribe.
(m) Expenditure Report.--The Tule River Tribe shall annually submit
to the Secretary an expenditure report describing accomplishments and
amounts spent from use of withdrawals under a Tribal management plan or
an expenditure plan under this Act.
SEC. 7. FUNDING.
(a) Funding.--Out of any funds in the Treasury not otherwise
appropriated, the Secretary of the Treasury shall transfer to the
Secretary--
(1) for deposit in the Tule River Tribe Water Development
Projects Account $518,000,000, to be available until expended,
withdrawn, or reverted to the general fund of the Treasury; and
(2) for deposit in the Tule River Tribe OM&R Account
$50,000,000, to be available until expended, withdrawn, or
reverted to the general fund of the Treasury.
(b) Fluctuation in Costs.--
(1) In general.--The amounts authorized to be appropriated
under subsection (a) shall be increased or decreased, as
appropriate, by such amounts as may be justified by reason of
ordinary fluctuations in costs occurring after November 1,
2020, as indicated by the Bureau of Reclamation Construction
Cost Index--Composite Trend.
(2) Construction costs adjustment.--The amounts authorized
to be appropriated under subsection (a) shall be adjusted to
address construction cost changes necessary to account for
unforeseen market volatility that may not otherwise be captured
by engineering cost indices as determined by the Secretary,
including repricing applicable to the types of construction and
current industry standards involved.
(3) Repetition.--The adjustment process under this
subsection shall be repeated for each subsequent amount
appropriated until the amount authorized, as adjusted, has been
appropriated.
(4) Period of indexing.--The period of indexing adjustment
under this subsection for any increment of funding shall end on
the date on which the funds are deposited into the Trust Fund.
SEC. 8. TRANSFER OF LAND INTO TRUST.
(a) Transfer of Land to Trust.--
(1) In general.--Subject to valid existing rights, and the
requirements of this subsection, all right, title, and interest
of the United States in and to the land described in paragraph
(2) shall be held in trust by the United States for the benefit
of the Tribe as part of the Reservation upon the Enforceability
Date, provided that the Tribal fee land described in paragraph
(2)(C)--
(A) is free from any liens, encumbrances, or other
infirmities; and
(B) has no existing evidence of any hazardous
substances or other environmental liability.
(2) Lands to be held in trust.--The land referred to in
paragraph (1) is the following:
(A) Bureau of land management lands.--
(i) Approximately 26.15 acres of land
located in T. 22 S., R. 29 E., sec. 35, Lot 9.
(ii) Approximately 85.50 acres of land
located in T. 22 S., R. 29 E., sec. 35, Lots 6
and 7.
(iii) Approximately 38.77 acres of land
located in--
(I) T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 30,
Lot 1; and
(II) T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 31,
Lots 6 and 7.
(iv) Approximately 154.9 acres of land
located in T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 34, N\1/
4\SW\1/4\ and SW\1/4\SW\1/4\, Lots 2 and 3.
(v) Approximately 40.00 acres of land
located in T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 34, NE\1/
4\SE\1/4\.
(vi) Approximately 375.17 acres of land
located in--
(I) T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 35,
S\1/2\NE\1/4\, N\1/2\SE\1/4\, and SE\1/
4\SE\1/4\, Lots 3, 4, and 6; and
(II) T. 23 S., R. 30 E., sec. 2,
S\1/2\NE\1/4\, Lots 6 and 7.
(vii) Approximately 60.43 acres of land
located in--
(I) T. 22 S., R. 30 E., sec. 35,
SW\1/4\SW\1/4\; and
(II) T. 23 S., R. 30 E., sec. 2,
Lot 9.
(viii) Approximately 15.48 acres of land
located in T. 21 S., R. 30 E., sec. 31 in that
portion of the NW\1/4\ lying between Lots 8 and
9.
(ix) Approximately 29.26 acres of land
located in T. 21 S., R. 30 E., sec. 31, Lot 7.
(B) Forest service lands.--Approximately 9,037
acres of land comprising the headwaters area of the
South Fork Tule River watershed located east of and
adjacent to the Tule River Indian Reservation, and more
particularly described as follows:
(i) Commencing at the northeast corner of
the Tule River Indian Reservation in T. 21 S.,
R. 31 E., sec. 16, Mount Diablo Base and
Meridian, running thence east and then
southeast along the ridge of mountains dividing
the waters of the South Fork of the Tule River
and Middle Fork of the Tule River, continuing
south and then southwest along the ridge of
mountains dividing the waters of the South Fork
of the Tule River and the Upper Kern River
until intersecting with the southeast corner of
the Tule River Indian Reservation in T. 22 S.,
R. 31 E., sec. 28, thence from such point north
along the eastern boundary of the Tule River
Indian Reservation to the place of beginning.
(ii) The area encompasses--
(I) all of secs. 22, 23, 26, 27,
34, 35, and portions of secs. 13, 14,
15, 16, 21, 24, 25, 28, 33, and 36, in
T. 21 S., R. 31 E.; and
(II) all of secs. 3 and 10, and
portions of secs. 1, 2, 4, 9, 11, 14,
15, 16, 21, 22, 27, and 28, in T. 22
S., R. 31 E.
(C) Tribally owned fee lands.--
(i) Approximately 300 acres of land known
as the McCarthy Ranch and more particularly
described as follows:
(I) The SW\1/4\ and that portion of
the SE\1/4\ of sec. 9 in T. 22 S., R.
29 E., Mount Diablo Base and Meridian,
in the County of Tulare, State of
California, according to the official
plat thereof, lying south and west of
the center line of the South Fork of
the Tule River, as such river existed
on June 9, 1886, in the County of
Tulare, State of California; excepting
therefrom an undivided one-half
interest in and to the oil, gas,
minerals, and other hydrocarbon
substances in, on, or under such land,
as reserved by Alice King Henderson, a
single woman, by Deed dated January 22,
1959, and Recorded February 18, 1959,
in Book 2106, page 241, Tulare County
Official Records.
(II) An easement over and across
that portion of the SW\1/4\ of sec. 10
in T. 22 S., R. 29 E., Mount Diablo
Base and Meridian, County of Tulare,
State of California, more particularly
described as follows:
(aa) Beginning at the
intersection of the west line
of the SW\1/4\ of sec. 10, and
the south bank of the South
Tule Independent Ditch; thence
south 20 rods; thence in an
easterly direction, parallel
with such ditch, 80 rods;
thence north 20 rods, thence
westerly along the south bank
of such ditch 80 rods to the
point of beginning; for the
purpose of--
(AA) maintaining
thereon an irrigation
ditch between the
headgate of the King
Ditch situated on such
land and the SW\1/4\
and that portion of the
SE\1/4\ of sec. 9 in T.
22 S., R. 29 E., lying
south and west of the
centerline of the South
Fork of the Tule River,
as such river existed
on June 9, 1886, in the
County of Tulare, State
of California; and
(BB) conveying
therethrough water from
the South Fork of the
Tule River to the SW\1/
4\ and that portion of
the SE\1/4\ of sec. 9
in T. 22 S., R. 29 E.,
lying south and west of
the centerline of the
South Fork of the Tule
River, as such river
existed on June 9,
1886.
(bb) The easement described
in item (aa) shall follow the
existing route of the King
Ditch.
(ii) Approximately 640 acres of land known
as the Pierson/Diaz property in T. 22 S., R. 29
E., sec. 16, Mount Diablo Base and Meridian, in
the County of Tulare, State of California,
according to the official plat thereof.
(iii) Approximately 375.44 acres of land
known as the Hyder property and more
particularly described as follows:
(I) That portion of the S\1/2\ of
sec. 12 in T. 22 S., R. 28 E., Mount
Diablo Base and Meridian, in the County
of Tulare, State of California,
according to the official plat thereof,
lying south of the County Road known as
Reservation Road, excepting therefrom
an undivided one-half interest in all
oil, gas, minerals, and other
hydrocarbon substances as reserved in
the deed from California Lands, Inc.,
to Lovell J. Wilson and Genevieve P.
Wilson, recorded February 17, 1940, in
book 888, page 116, Tulare County
Official Records.
(II) The NW\1/4\ of sec. 13 in T.
22 S., R. 28 E., Mount Diablo Base and
Meridian, in the County of Tulare,
State of California, according to the
official plat thereof, excepting
therefrom the south 1200 feet thereof.
(III) The south 1200 feet of the
NW\1/4\ of sec. 13 in T. 22 S., R. 28
E., Mount Diablo Base and Meridian, in
the County of Tulare, State of
California, according to the official
plat thereof.
(iv) Approximately 157.22 acres of land
situated in the unincorporated area of the
County of Tulare, State of California, known as
the Trailor property, and more particularly
described as follows: The SW\1/4\ of sec. 11 in
T. 22 S., R. 28 E., Mount Diablo Base and
Meridian, in the unincorporated area of the
County of Tulare, State of California,
according to the official plat thereof.
(v) Approximately 89.45 acres of land known
as the Tomato Patch in that portion of the
SE\1/4\ of sec. 11 in T. 22 S., R. 28 E., Mount
Diablo Base and Meridian, in the County of
Tulare, State of California, according to the
Official Plat of the survey of such land on
file in the Bureau of Land Management at the
date of the issuance of the patent thereof, and
more particularly described as follows:
Beginning at the southeast corner of T. 22 S.,
R. 28 E., sec. 11, thence north and along the
east line of such sec. 11, 1342 feet, thence
south 83 44' west 258 feet, thence north 84
30' west 456 feet, thence north 65 28' west
800 feet, thence north 68 44' west 295 feet,
thence south 71 40' west 700 feet, thence
south 56 41' west 240 feet to the west line of
the SE\1/4\ of such sec. 11, thence south 0
21' west along such west line of the SE\1/4\ of
sec. 11, thence west 1427 feet to the southwest
corner of such SE\1/4\ of sec. 11, thence south
89 34' east 2657.0 feet to the point of
beginning, excepting therefrom--
(I) a strip of land 25 feet in
width along the northerly and east
sides and used as a County Road; and
(II) an undivided one-half interest
in all oil, gas, and minerals in and
under such lands, as reserved in the
Deed from Bank of America, a
corporation, dated August 14, 1935,
filed for record August 28, 1935, Fee
Book 11904.
(vi) Approximately 160 acres of land known
as the Smith Mill in the NW\1/4\ of the NE\1/
4\, the N\1/2\ of the NW\1/4\, and the SE\1/4\
of the NW\1/4\ of sec. 20 in T. 21 S., R. 31
E., Mount Diablo Base and Meridian, in the
County of Tulare, State of California,
according to the official plat thereof.
(vii) Approximately 35 acres of land
located within the exterior boundaries of the
Tule River Reservation known as the Highway 190
parcel, with the legal description as follows:
That portion of T. 21 S., R. 29 E., sec. 19,
Mount Diablo Base and Meridian, in the County
of Tulare, Sate of California, according to the
official plat thereof, and more particularly
described as follows: Commencing at a point in
the south line of the N\1/2\ of the S\1/2\ of
such sec. 19, such point being south 89 54'
47'' east, 1500.00 feet of the southwest corner
of such N\1/2\, thence north 52 41' 17'' east,
1602.80 feet to the true point of beginning of
the parcel to be described, thence north 32
02' 00'' west, 1619.53 feet to a point in the
southeasterly line of State Highway 190 per
deeds recorded May 5, 1958, in Book 2053, pages
608 and 613, Tulare County Official Records,
thence north 57 58' 00'' east, 232.29 feet,
thence north 66 33' 24'' east, 667.51 fee,
thence departing the southeasterly line of such
Highway 190, south 44 53' 27'' east, 913.62
feet, thence south 85 53' 27'' east, 794.53
feet, thence south 52 41' 17'' west, 1744.64
feet to the true point of beginning.
(viii) Approximately 61.91 acres of land
located within the exterior boundaries of the
Tule River Reservation known as the Shan King
property, with the legal description as
follows:
(I) Parcel 1: Parcel No. 1 of
parcel map no. 4028 in the County of
Tulare, State of California, as per the
map recorded in Book 41, page 32 of
Tulare County Records.
(II)(aa) Parcel 2: That portion of
T. 21 S., R. 29 E., sec. 19, Mount
Diablo Base and Meridian, in the County
of Tulare, State of California,
described as follows: Commencing at a
point in the south line of the N\1/2\
of the S\1/2\ of such sec. 19, such
point being south 89 54' 58'' east,
1500.00 feet of the southwest corner of
such N\1/2\, thence north 52 41' 06''
east, 1602.80 feet to the southwesterly
corner of the 40.00 acre parcel shown
on the Record of Survey recorded in
Book 18, page 17, of Licensed Surveys,
Tulare County Records, thence, north
32 01' 28'' west, 542.04 feet along
the southwesterly line of such 40.00
acre parcel to the true point of
beginning of the parcel to be
described, thence, continuing north 32
01' 28'' west, 1075.50 feet to the
northwesterly corner of such 40.00 acre
parcel, thence north 57 58' 50'' east,
232.31 feet along the southeasterly
line of State Highway 190, thence north
66 34' 12'' east, 6.85 feet, thence,
departing the southeasterly line of
State Highway 190 south 29 27' 29''
east, 884.73 feet, thence south 02 59'
33'' east, 218.00 feet, thence south
57 58' 31'' west, 93.67 feet to the
true point of beginning.
(bb) The property described in item
(aa) is subject to a 100 foot minimum
building setback from the right-of-way
of Highway 190.
(III) Parcel 3: That portion of T.
21 S., R. 29 E., sec. 19, Mount Diablo
Base and Meridian, County of Tulare,
State of California, described as
follows: Beginning at a point in the
south line of the N\1/2\ of the S\1/2\
of such sec. 19, such point being south
89 54' 47'' east, 1500.00 feet of the
southwest corner of such N\1/2\, thence
north 7 49' 19'' east, 1205.00 feet,
thence north 40 00' 00'' west, 850.00
feet to a point in the southeasterly
line of State Highway 190, per deeds
recorded May 5, 1958, in Book 2053,
pages 608 and 613, Tulare County
Official Records, thence, north 57 58'
00'' east, 941.46 feet, along the
southeasterly line of such Highway 190,
thence departing the southeasterly line
of such Highway 190, south 32 02' 00''
east, 1619.53 feet, thence south 52
41' 17'' west, 1602.80 feet to the
point of beginning, together with a
three-quarters (\3/4\) interest in a
water system, as set forth in that
certain water system and maintenance
agreement recorded April 15, 2005, as
document no. 2005-0039177.
(ix) Approximately 18.44 acres of land
located within the exterior boundaries of the
Tule River Reservation known as the Parking Lot
4 parcel with the legal description as follows:
That portion of the land described in that
Grant Deed to Tule River Indian Tribe, recorded
June 1, 2010, as document number 2010-0032879,
Tulare County Official Records, lying within
the following described parcel: beginning at a
point on the east line of the NW\1/4\ of sec. 3
in T. 22 S., R. 28 E., Mount Diablo Meridian,
lying south 0 49' 43'' west, 1670.53 feet from
the N\1/4\ corner of such sec. 3, thence (1)
south 89 10' 17'' east, 46.50 feet; thence (2)
north 0 49' 43'' east, 84.08 feet; thence (3)
north 33 00' 00'' west, 76.67 feet to the
south line of State Route 190 as described in
that Grant Deed to the State of California,
recorded February 14, 1958, in Volume 2038,
page 562, Tulare County Official Records;
thence (4) north 0 22' 28'' east, 73.59 feet
to the north line of the SE\1/4\ of the NW\1/4\
of such sec. 3; thence (5) south 89 37' 32''
east, along such north line, 89.77 feet to the
center-north sixteenth corner of such sec. 3;
thence (6) south 0 49' 43'' west, along such
east line of the NW\1/4\ of such sec. 3, a
distance of 222.06 feet to the point of
beginning. Containing 0.08 acres, more or less,
in addition to that portion lying within Road
284. Together with the underlying fee interest,
if any, contiguous to the above-described
property in and to Road 284. This conveyance is
made for the purpose of a freeway and the
grantor hereby releases and relinquishes to the
grantee any and all abutter's rights including
access rights, appurtenant to grantor's
remaining property, in and to such freeway.
Reserving however, unto grantor, grantor's
successors or assigns, the right of access to
the freeway over and across Courses (1) and (2)
herein above described. The bearings and
distances used in this description are on the
California Coordinate System of 1983, Zone 4.
Divide distances by 0.999971 to convert to
ground distances.
(b) Terms and Conditions.--
(1) Existing authorizations.--Any Federal land transferred
under this section shall be conveyed and taken into trust
subject to valid existing rights, contracts, leases, permits,
and rights-of-way, unless the holder of the right, contract,
lease, permit, or right-of-way requests an earlier termination
in accordance with existing law. The Bureau of Indian Affairs
shall assume all benefits and obligations of the previous land
management agency under such existing rights, contracts,
leases, permits, or rights-of-way, and shall disburse to the
Tribe any amounts that accrue to the United States from such
rights, contracts, leases, permits, or rights-of-ways after the
date of transfer from any sale, bonus, royalty, or rental
relating to that land in the same manner as amounts received
from other land held by the Secretary in trust for the Tribe.
(2) Improvements.--Any improvements constituting personal
property, as defined by State law, belonging to the holder of a
right, contract, lease, permit, or right-of-way on lands
transferred under this section shall remain the property of the
holder and shall be removed not later than 90 days after the
date on which the right, contract, lease, permit, or right-of-
way expires, unless the Tribe and the holder agree otherwise.
Any such property remaining beyond the 90-day period shall
become the property of the Tribe and shall be subject to
removal and disposition at the Tribe's discretion. The holder
shall be liable for the costs the Tribe incurs in removing and
disposing of the property.
(c) Withdrawal of Federal Lands.--
(1) In general.--Subject to valid existing rights,
effective on the date of enactment of this Act, all Federal
lands within the parcels described in subsection (a)(2) are
withdrawn from all forms of--
(A) entry, appropriation, or disposal under the
public land laws;
(B) location, entry, and patent under the mining
laws; and
(C) disposition under all laws pertaining to
mineral and geothermal leasing or mineral materials.
(2) Expiration.--The withdrawals pursuant to paragraph (1)
shall terminate on the date that the Secretary takes the lands
into trust for the benefit of the Tribe pursuant to subsection
(a)(1).
(d) Technical Corrections.--Notwithstanding the descriptions of the
parcels of land in subsection (a)(2), the United States may, with the
consent of the Tribe, make technical corrections to the legal land
descriptions to more specifically identify the parcels to be exchanged.
(e) Survey.--
(1) Unless the United States or the Tribe requests an
additional survey for the transferred land or a technical
correction is made under subsection (d), the description of
land under this section shall be controlling.
(2) If the United States or the Tribe requests an
additional survey, that survey shall control the total acreage
to be transferred into trust under this section.
(3) The Secretary or the Secretary of Agriculture shall
provide such assistance as may be appropriate--
(A) to conduct additional surveys of the
transferred land; and
(B) to satisfy administrative requirements
necessary to accomplish the land transfers under this
section.
(f) Date of Transfer.--The Secretary shall issue trust deeds for
all land transfers under this section by not later than 10 years after
the Enforceability Date.
(g) Restriction on Gaming.--Lands taken into trust pursuant to this
section shall not be considered to have been taken into trust for, nor
eligible for, class II gaming or class III gaming (as those terms are
defined in section 4 of the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (25 U.S.C.
2703)).
(h) Status of Water Rights on Transferred Lands.--Any water rights
associated with lands transferred pursuant to subparagraphs (A) through
(C) of subsection (a)(2) shall be held in trust for the Tribe but shall
not be included in the Tribal Water Right.
SEC. 9. SATISFACTION OF CLAIMS.
The benefits provided under this Act shall be in complete
replacement of, complete substitution for, and full satisfaction of any
claim of the Tribe against the United States that is waived and
released by the Tribe under section 10(a).
SEC. 10. WAIVERS AND RELEASES OF CLAIMS.
(a) In General.--
(1) Waivers and releases of claims by the tribe and the
united states as trustee for the tribe.--Subject to the
reservation of rights and retention of claims set forth in
subsection (c), as consideration for recognition of the Tribe's
Tribal Water Right and other benefits described in the 2007
Agreement and this Act, the Tribe and the United States, acting
as trustee for the Tribe, shall execute a waiver and release of
all claims for the following:
(A) All claims for water rights within the State of
California based on any and all legal theories that the
Tribe or the United States acting as trustee for the
Tribe, asserted or could have asserted in any
proceeding, including a general stream adjudication, on
or before the Enforceability Date, except to the extent
that such rights are recognized in the 2007 Agreement
and this Act.
(B) All claims for damages, losses, or injuries to
water rights or claims of interference with, diversion,
or taking of water rights (including claims for injury
to lands resulting from such damages, losses, injuries,
interference with, diversion, or taking of water
rights) within California against the State, or any
person, entity, corporation, or municipality, that
accrued at any time up to and including the
Enforceability Date.
(2) Waiver and release of claims by the tribe against the
united states.--Subject to the reservation of rights and
retention of claims under subsection (c), the Tribe shall
execute a waiver and release of all claims against the United
States (including any agency or employee of the United States)
for water rights within the State of California first arising
before the Enforceability Date relating to--
(A) water rights within the State of California
that the United States, acting as trustee for the
Tribe, asserted or could have asserted in any
proceeding, including a general stream adjudication,
except to the extent that such rights are recognized as
part of the Tribal Water Right under this Act;
(B) foregone benefits from nontribal use of water,
on and off the Reservation (including water from all
sources and for all uses);
(C) damage, loss, or injury to water, water rights,
land, or natural resources due to loss of water or
water rights (including damages, losses, or injuries to
hunting, fishing, gathering, or cultural rights, due to
loss of water or water rights, claims relating to
interference with, diversion, or taking of water, or
claims relating to a failure to protect, acquire,
replace, or develop water, water rights, or water
infrastructure) within the State of California;
(D) a failure to establish or provide a municipal
rural or industrial water delivery system on the
Reservation;
(E) damage, loss, or injury to water, water rights,
land, or natural resources due to construction,
operation, and management of irrigation projects on the
Reservation and other Federal land and facilities
(including damages, losses, or injuries to fish
habitat, wildlife, and wildlife habitat);
(F) failure to provide for operation, maintenance,
or deferred maintenance for any irrigation system or
irrigation project;
(G) failure to provide a dam safety improvement to
a dam on the Reservation;
(H) the litigation of claims relating to any water
rights of the Tribe within the State of California;
(I) the negotiation, execution, or adoption of the
2007 Agreement (including exhibits A-F) and this Act;
(J) the negotiation, execution, or adoption of
operational rules referred to in Article 3.4 of the
2007 Agreement in connection with any reservoir
locations, including any claims related to the
resolution of operational rules pursuant to the dispute
resolution processes set forth in the Article 8 of the
2007 Agreement, including claims arising after the
Enforceability Date; and
(K) claims related to the creation or reduction of
the Reservation, including any claims relating to the
failure to ratify any treaties and any claims that any
particular lands were intended to be set aside as a
permanent homeland for the Tribe but were not included
as part of the present Reservation.
(b) Effectiveness.--The waivers and releases under subsection (a)
shall take effect on the Enforceability Date.
(c) Reservation of Rights and Retention of Claims.--Notwithstanding
the waivers and releases under subsection (a), the Tribe and the United
States, acting as trustee for the Tribe, shall retain--
(1) all claims relating to the enforcement of, or claims
accruing after the Enforceability Date relating to water rights
recognized under the 2007 Agreement, any final court decree
entered in the Federal District Court for the Eastern District
of California, or this Act;
(2) all claims relating to the right to use and protect
water rights acquired after the date of enactment of this Act;
(3) claims regarding the quality of water under--
(A) the Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601
et seq.), including claims for damages to natural
resources;
(B) the Safe Drinking Water Act (42 U.S.C. 300f et
seq.);
(C) the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
U.S.C. 1251 et seq.) (commonly referred to as the
``Clean Water Act''); and
(D) any regulations implementing the Acts described
in subparagraphs (A) through (C);
(4) all claims for damage, loss, or injury to land or
natural resources that are not due to loss of water or water
rights, including hunting, fishing, gathering, or cultural
rights; and
(5) all rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, and
powers not specifically waived and released pursuant to this
Act or the 2007 Agreement.
(d) Effect of 2007 Agreement and Act.--Nothing in the 2007
Agreement or this Act--
(1) affects the authority of the Tribe to enforce the laws
of the Tribe, including with respect to environmental
protections or reduces or extends the sovereignty (including
civil and criminal jurisdiction) of any government entity;
(2) affects the ability of the United States, acting as
sovereign, to carry out any activity authorized by law,
including--
(A) the Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601
et seq.);
(B) the Safe Drinking Water Act (42 U.S.C. 300f et
seq.);
(C) the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
U.S.C. 1251 et seq.);
(D) the Solid Waste Disposal Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 et
seq.); and
(E) any regulations implementing the Acts described
in subparagraphs (A) through (D);
(3) affects the ability of the United States to act as
trustee for any other Indian Tribe or an allotee of any other
Indian Tribe;
(4) confers jurisdiction on any State court--
(A) to interpret Federal law relating to health,
safety, or the environment;
(B) to determine the duties of the United States or
any other party under Federal law regarding health,
safety, or the environment;
(C) to conduct judicial review of any Federal
agency action; or
(D) to interpret Tribal law; or
(5) waives any claim of a member of the Tribe in an
individual capacity that does not derive from a right of the
Tribe.
(e) Tolling of Claims.--
(1) In general.--Each applicable period of limitation and
time-based equitable defense relating to a claim described in
this section shall be tolled for the period beginning on the
date of enactment of this Act and ending on the Enforceability
Date.
(2) Effect of subsection.--Nothing in this subsection
revives any claim or tolls any period of limitation or time-
based equitable defense that expired before the date of
enactment of this Act.
(3) Limitation.--Nothing in this section precludes the
tolling of any period of limitations or any time-based
equitable defense under any other applicable law.
(f) Expiration.--
(1) In general.--This Act shall expire in any case in which
the Secretary fails to publish a statement of findings under
section 11 by not later than--
(A) 8 years from the date of enactment of this Act;
or
(B) such alternative later date as is agreed to by
the Tribe and the Secretary, after providing reasonable
notice to the State of California.
(2) Consequences.--If this Act expires under paragraph
(1)--
(A) the waivers and releases under subsection (a)
shall--
(i) expire; and
(ii) have no further force or effect;
(B) the authorization, ratification, confirmation,
and execution of the 2007 Agreement under section 4
shall no longer be effective;
(C) any action carried out by the Secretary, and
any contract or agreement entered into pursuant to this
Act, shall be void;
(D) any unexpended Federal funds appropriated or
made available to carry out the activities authorized
by this Act, together with any interest earned on those
funds, and any water rights or contracts to use water
and title to other property acquired or constructed
with Federal funds appropriated or made available to
carry out the activities authorized by this Act shall
be returned to the Federal Government, unless otherwise
agreed to by the Tribe and the United States and
approved by Congress; and
(E) except for Federal funds used to acquire or
construct property that is returned to the Federal
Government under subparagraph (D), the United States
shall be entitled to offset any Federal funds made
available to carry out this Act that were expended or
withdrawn, or any funds made available to carry out
this Act from other Federal authorized sources,
together with any interest accrued on those funds,
against any claims against the United States--
(i) relating to--
(I) water rights in the State of
California asserted by--
(aa) the Tribe; or
(bb) any user of the Tribal
Water Right; or
(II) any other matter covered by
subsection (a)(2); or
(ii) in any future settlement of water
rights of the Tribe.
SEC. 11. ENFORCEABILITY DATE.
The Enforceability Date shall be the date on which the Secretary
publishes in the Federal Register a statement of findings that--
(1) to the extent that the 2007 Agreement conflicts with
the Act, the 2007 Agreement has been amended to conform with
this Act;
(2) the 2007 Agreement, so revised, includes waivers and
releases of claims set forth in section 10 and has been
executed by the parties, including the United States;
(3) a final judgment and decree approving the 2007
Agreement and binding all parties to the action has been
entered by the Court, and all appeals have been exhausted;
(4) all of the amounts authorized to be appropriated under
section 7(a) have been appropriated and deposited in the
designated accounts; and
(5) the waivers and releases under section 10(a) have been
executed by the Tribe and the Secretary.
SEC. 12. BINDING EFFECT; JUDICIAL APPROVAL; ENFORCEABILITY.
(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the Secretary has
executed the 2007 Agreement, the Attorney General of the United States
shall file suit in the Court requesting the entry of a final judgement
and decree approving the Tribal Water Right and the 2007 Agreement. The
Tribe and the Downstream Water Users shall be named as parties to the
suit.
(b) Judicial Approval.--The Court shall have exclusive jurisdiction
to review and determine whether to approve the 2007 Agreement, and over
any cause of action initiated by any party to the 2007 Agreement
arising from a dispute over the interpretation of the Agreement or this
legislation, and any cause of action initiated by any party to the 2007
Agreement for the enforcement of Agreement.
(c) Operation Rules.--The Court shall have jurisdiction over any
cause of action initiated by any party to the 2007 Agreement arising
from the failure of the parties to reach agreement on operation rules
for any reservoir and shall establish a procedure under which a
mediator is appointed by the Court to assist the parties in resolving
issues regarding operation rules for any reservoir. If the Court
appointed mediation does not, after a reasonable amount of time as
determined by the Court, result in an agreed set of reservoir operation
rules, the Court shall determine which set of reservoir operation rules
shall govern operation of the reservoir by determining which of the
proffered set of operation rules, if implemented, would be the most
effective by meeting the criteria set forth in section 8.2.B(3)(a) of
the 2007 Agreement. Once the Court selects operation rules pursuant to
the standard set forth above, such rules shall thereafter control and
shall be implemented by the parties pursuant to the terms directed by
the Court.
SEC. 13. MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS.
(a) Waiver of Sovereign Immunity by the United States.--Nothing in
this Act waives the sovereign immunity of the United States.
(b) Other Tribes Not Adversely Affected.--Nothing in this Act
quantifies or diminishes any land or water right, or any claim or
entitlement to land or water, of an Indian Tribe, band, or community
other than the Tribe.
(c) Effect on Current Law.--Nothing in this Act affects any
provision of law (including regulations) in effect on the day before
the date of enactment of this Act with respect to pre-enforcement
review of any Federal environmental enforcement action.
(d) Conflict.--In the event of a conflict between the 2007
Agreement and this Act, this Act shall control.
SEC. 14. ANTIDEFICIENCY.
The United States shall not be liable for any failure to carry out
any obligation or activity authorized by this Act, including any
obligation or activity under the 2007 Agreement if adequate
appropriations are not provided by Congress expressly to carry out the
purposes of this Act.
<all> | Tule River Tribe Reserved Water Rights Settlement Act of 2022 | A bill to approve the settlement of the water right claims of the Tule River Tribe, and for other purposes. | Tule River Tribe Reserved Water Rights Settlement Act of 2022 | Sen. Padilla, Alex | D | CA |
594 | 658 | S.2517 | Environmental Protection | Defense of Environment and Property Act of 2021
This bill revises the scope, jurisdiction, and requirements of the Clean Water Act.
It specifies the types of water bodies that are navigable waters and therefore receive protection. It defines navigable waters as waters of the United States that are (1) navigable-in-fact; or (2) permanent, standing, or continuously flowing bodies of water that form geographical features commonly known as streams, oceans, rivers, and lakes that are connected to waters that are navigable-in-fact.
The bill limits the jurisdiction of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) over such waters, including by stating that ground water is under the jurisdiction of states. The bill prohibits the EPA from using a significant nexus test to determine federal jurisdiction over navigable waters and waters of the United States.
The bill nullifies the Migratory Bird rule and a 2008 guidance document about the definition of waters under the jurisdiction of the Clean Water Act. The bill prohibits the EPA and the Corps from issuing new rules or guidance that expands or interprets the definition of navigable waters unless expressly authorized by Congress.
Federal agencies must obtain consent from private property owners to collect information about navigable waters on their land. If regulations relating to navigable waters or waters of United States diminish the value of a property, then the federal government must pay the property owner an amount equal to twice the value of the loss. | To amend the Federal Water Pollution Control Act to clarify the
definition of navigable waters, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Defense of Environment and Property
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. NAVIGABLE WATERS.
(a) In General.--Section 502 of the Federal Water Pollution Control
Act (33 U.S.C. 1362) is amended by striking paragraph (7) and inserting
the following:
``(7) Navigable waters.--
``(A) In general.--The term `navigable waters'
means the waters of the United States, including the
territorial seas, that are--
``(i) navigable-in-fact; or
``(ii) permanent, standing, or continuously
flowing bodies of water that form geographical
features commonly known as streams, oceans,
rivers, and lakes that are connected to waters
that are navigable-in-fact.
``(B) Exclusions.--The term `navigable waters' does
not include (including by regulation)--
``(i) waters that--
``(I) do not physically abut waters
described in subparagraph (A); and
``(II) lack a continuous surface
water connection to navigable waters;
``(ii) man-made or natural structures or
channels--
``(I) through which water flows
intermittently or ephemerally; or
``(II) that periodically provide
drainage for rainfall; or
``(iii) wetlands without a continuous
surface connection to bodies of water that are
waters of the United States.''.
(b) Jurisdiction of EPA and Corps of Engineers.--Title V of the
Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C. 1361 et seq.) is
amended--
(1) by redesignating section 520 as section 521; and
(2) by inserting after section 519 the following:
``SEC. 520. JURISDICTION OF THE ADMINISTRATOR AND SECRETARY OF THE
ARMY.
``(a) EPA and Corps Activities.--An activity carried out by the
Administrator or the Corps of Engineers shall not, without explicit
State authorization, impinge upon the traditional and primary power of
States over land and water use.
``(b) Aggregation; Wetlands.--
``(1) Aggregation.--Aggregation of wetlands or waters not
described in clauses (i) through (iii) of section 502(7)(B)
shall not be used to determine or assert Federal jurisdiction.
``(2) Wetlands.--Wetlands described in section
502(7)(B)(iii) shall not be considered to be under Federal
jurisdiction.
``(c) Judicial Review.--If a jurisdictional determination by the
Administrator or the Secretary of the Army would affect the ability of
a State or individual property owner to plan the development and use
(including restoration, preservation, and enhancement) of land and
water resources, the State or individual property owner may obtain
expedited judicial review not later than 30 days after the date on
which the determination is made in a district court of the United
States, of appropriate jurisdiction and venue, that is located within
the State seeking the review.
``(d) Treatment of Ground Water.--Ground water shall--
``(1) be considered to be State water; and
``(2) not be considered in determining or asserting Federal
jurisdiction over isolated or other waters, including
intermittent or ephemeral water bodies.
``(e) Prohibition on Use of Significant Nexus Test.--
``(1) Definition of significant nexus test.--In this
subsection, the term `significant nexus test' means an analysis
to determine whether a water has a significant nexus (as
defined in subsection (c) of section 328.3 of title 33, Code of
Federal Regulations (as in effect on August 29, 2015)) to a
water described in paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (a)
of that section (as in effect on that date), or any similar
analysis.
``(2) Prohibition.--Notwithstanding any other provision of
law, the Administrator may not use a significant nexus test to
determine Federal jurisdiction over navigable waters and waters
of the United States.''.
(c) Applicability.--Nothing in this section or the amendments made
by this section affects or alters any exemption under--
(1) section 402(l) of the Federal Water Pollution Control
Act (33 U.S.C. 1342(l)); or
(2) section 404(f) of the Federal Water Pollution Control
Act (33 U.S.C. 1344(f)).
SEC. 3. APPLICABILITY OF AGENCY REGULATIONS AND GUIDANCE.
(a) In General.--The following regulations and guidance shall have
no force or effect:
(1) The final rule of the Corps of Engineers entitled
``Final Rule for Regulatory Programs of the Corps of
Engineers'' (51 Fed. Reg. 41206 (November 13, 1986)).
(2) The guidance document entitled ``Clean Water Act
Jurisdiction Following the U.S. Supreme Court's Decision in
`Rapanos v. United States' & `Carabell v. United States''' and
dated December 2, 2008 (relating to the definition of waters
under the jurisdiction of the Federal Water Pollution Control
Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.)).
(3) Any subsequent regulation of or guidance issued by any
Federal agency that defines or interprets the terms ``navigable
waters'' or ``waters of the United States''.
(b) Prohibition.--The Secretary of the Army, acting through the
Chief of Engineers, and the Administrator of the Environmental
Protection Agency shall not promulgate any rules or issue any guidance
that expands or interprets the definition of navigable waters unless
expressly authorized by Congress.
SEC. 4. STATE REGULATION OF WATER.
Nothing in this Act or the amendments made by this Act affects,
amends, or supersedes--
(1) the right of a State to regulate waters in the State;
or
(2) the duty of a landowner to adhere to any State nuisance
laws (including regulations) relating to waters in the State.
SEC. 5. CONSENT FOR ENTRY BY FEDERAL REPRESENTATIVES.
Section 308 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C.
1318) is amended by striking subsection (a) and inserting the
following:
``(a) In General.--
``(1) Entry by federal agency.--A representative of a
Federal agency shall only enter private property to collect
information about navigable waters if the owner of that
property--
``(A) has consented to the entry in writing;
``(B) is notified regarding the date of the entry;
and
``(C) is given access to any data collected from
the entry.
``(2) Access.--If a landowner consents to entry under
paragraph (1), the landowner shall have the right to be present
at the time any data collection on the property of the
landowner is carried out.''.
SEC. 6. COMPENSATION FOR REGULATORY TAKING.
(a) In General.--If a Federal regulation relating to the definition
of ``navigable waters'' or ``waters of the United States'' diminishes
the fair market value or economic viability of a property, as
determined by an independent appraiser, the Federal agency issuing the
regulation shall pay the affected property owner an amount equal to
twice the value of the loss.
(b) Administration.--Any payment provided under subsection (a)
shall be made from the amounts made available to the relevant agency
head for general operations of the Federal agency.
(c) Applicability.--A Federal regulation described in subsection
(a) shall have no force or effect until the date on which each
landowner with a claim under this section relating to that regulation
has been compensated in accordance with this section.
<all> | Defense of Environment and Property Act of 2021 | A bill to amend the Federal Water Pollution Control Act to clarify the definition of navigable waters, and for other purposes. | Defense of Environment and Property Act of 2021 | Sen. Paul, Rand | R | KY |
595 | 12,081 | H.R.4281 | International Affairs | Tibet Independence Act
This bill addresses and imposes sanctions relating to Tibet.
The bill states that it is U.S. policy to affirm that China's territorial claims over Tibet are invalid and without merit. It also authorizes the President to recognize Tibet as a separate and independent country.
The President must impose property- and visa-blocking sanctions on foreign persons that are knowingly responsible for or complicit in supporting the Chinese Communist Party's occupation of Tibet. | To impose sanctions on persons who are knowingly responsible for or
complicit in, or have directly or indirectly engaged in, supporting the
illegal occupation of Tibet, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Tibet Independence Act''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
Congress finds the following:
(1) Congress listed Tibet as a separate country from the
People's Republic of China in the Export-Import Bank Act
Amendments of 1986.
(2) The Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years
1992 and 1993 declares that Congress views Tibet as an
``occupied country'', and that China's control of Tibet remains
illegal under international law.
(3) The Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years
1992 and 1993 further establishes that ``it is the policy of
the United States to oppose aggression and other illegal uses
of force by one country against the sovereignty of another as a
manner of acquiring territory, and to condemn violations of
international law, including the illegal occupation of one
country by another''.
(4) The Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years
1994 and 1995 conveyed the Sense of Congress that ``the United
States should seek to establish a dialogue with those
recognized by Congress as the true representatives of the
Tibetan people, the Dalai Lama, his representatives and the
Tibetan Government in Exile''.
(5) On November 18, 2020, the United States House of
Representatives approved without objection H. Res. 697, which
``affirms the cultural and religious significance of the goal
of genuine autonomy for the people of Tibet and the deep bond
between the American and Tibetan people''.
(6) In 1951, the People's Republic of China coerced Tibetan
representatives to sign, under duress, an unlawful settlement
known as the Seventeen Point Agreement. This agreement states
that ``the Tibetan people have the right to exercise national
regional autonomy under the unified leadership of the Central
People's Government'' and additionally, that ``the central
authorities will not alter the existing political system in
Tibet''.
(7) The establishment of the independent state of Tibet
predates the 1951 Seventeen Point Agreement by many hundreds of
years.
(8) In rejecting the seven-decade long illegal occupation
of Tibet by the forces of the Chinese Communist Party, the
United States of America would provide relief to a long-
suffering people and reinforce its reputation as a strident
defender of global human rights.
(9) It would benefit the national security of the United
States to recognize Tibet, which comprises the original three
Tibetan provinces of Amdo, Kham, and U-Tsang, as a separate,
independent country.
SEC. 3. STATEMENT OF POLICY; AUTHORIZATION; SENSE OF CONGRESS.
(a) It is the policy of the United States to--
(1) acknowledge that Tibet was an independent country prior
to the People's Republic of China's illegal occupation of
Tibet's sovereign territory in 1951;
(2) affirm that all territorial claims by the People's
Republic of China over the area known as Tibet, which comprises
the original three Tibetan provinces of Amdo, Kham, and U-
Tsang, are invalid and without merit; and
(3) recognize that the democratically elected government of
Tibet, presently named as the Central Tibetan Administration,
is the only governing authority of Tibet.
(b) Authorization.--The President is authorized to recognize Tibet,
which comprises the original Tibetan provinces of Amdo, Kham, and U-
Tsang, as a separate, independent country, in accordance with
subsection (a), immediately upon enactment of this Act.
(c) Sense of Congress.--The President of the United States should
invite the incumbent Sikyong (President) of Tibet to the United States
for an official state visit no later than 1 year after the date of the
enactment of this Act.
SEC. 4. IMPOSITION OF SANCTIONS WITH RESPECT TO THE CONTINUED ILLEGAL
OCCUPATION OF TIBET.
(a) Imposition of Sanctions.--The President shall impose the
sanctions described in subsection (c) with respect to each foreign
person included in the most recent list submitted pursuant to
subsection (b).
(b) List of Persons.--
(1) Not later than 180 days after the date of the enactment
of this Act, the President shall submit to the appropriate
congressional committees a list of foreign persons, including
senior government officials, military leaders, and other
persons, who the President determines are knowingly responsible
for or complicit in, or have directly or indirectly engaged in,
supporting the Chinese Communist Party's illegal occupation of
Tibet.
(2) Updates of lists.--The President shall submit to the
appropriate congressional committees an updated list under
paragraph (1)--
(A) not later than 180 days after the date of the
enactment of this Act and annually thereafter for 5
years; or
(B) as new information becomes available.
(3) Form.--The list required by paragraph (1) shall be
submitted in unclassified form, but may include a classified
annex.
(c) Sanctions Described.--The sanctions described in this
subsection are the following:
(1) Blocking of property.--The President shall exercise all
of the powers granted to the President by the International
Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.) (except
that the requirements of section 202 of such Act (50 U.S.C.
1701) shall not apply) to the extent necessary to block and
prohibit all transactions in property and interests in property
of the person if such property and interests in property are in
the United States, come within the United States, or are or
come within the possession or control of a United States
person.
(2) Inadmissibility of certain individuals.--
(A) Ineligibility for visas, admission, or
parole.--A foreign person included in the most recent
list submitted pursuant to subsection (b) is--
(i) inadmissible to the United States;
(ii) ineligible to receive a visa or other
documentation to enter the United States; and
(iii) otherwise ineligible to be admitted
or paroled into the United States or to receive
any other benefit under the Immigration and
Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101 et seq.).
(B) Current visas revoked.--A foreign person
described in subparagraph (A) is also subject to the
following:
(i) Revocation of any visa or other entry
documentation regardless of when the visa or
other entry documentation is or was issued.
(ii) A revocation under clause (i) shall
take effect immediately and automatically
cancel any other valid visa or entry
documentation that is in the foreign person's
possession.
(3) Exception.--Sanctions under paragraph (2) shall not
apply to an alien if admitting or paroling the alien into the
United States is necessary to permit the United States to
comply with the Agreement regarding the Headquarters of the
United Nations, signed at Lake Success June 26, 1947, and
entered into force November 21, 1947, between the United
Nations and the United States, or other applicable
international obligations of the United States.
(d) Penalties.--The penalties provided for in subsections (b) and
(c) of section 206 of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act
(50 U.S.C. 1705) shall apply to a person who violates, attempts to
violate, conspires to violate, or causes a violation of regulations
promulgated to carry out subsection (a) to the same extent that such
penalties apply to a person who commits an unlawful act described in
section 206(a) of that Act.
(e) Exception To Comply With National Security.--The following
activities shall be exempt from sanctions under this section:
(1) Activities subject to the reporting requirements under
title V of the National Security Act of 1947 (50 U.S.C. 3091 et
seq.).
(2) Any authorized intelligence or law enforcement
activities of the United States.
(f) Waiver.--
(1) In general.--The President may waive, for one or more
periods not to exceed 90 days, the application of sanctions
imposed on a foreign person under this section if the
President--
(A) determines that such a waiver is in the
national interest of the United States; and
(B) not later than the date on which such waiver
will take effect, submits to the appropriate
congressional committees a notice of and justification
for such waiver.
SEC. 5. APPROPRIATE CONGRESSIONAL COMMITTEES DEFINED.
In this Act, the term ``appropriate congressional committees''
means--
(1) the Committee on Foreign Affairs and the Committee on
Financial Services of the House of Representatives; and
(2) the Committee on Foreign Relations and the Committee on
Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs of the Senate.
<all> | Tibet Independence Act | To impose sanctions on persons who are knowingly responsible for or complicit in, or have directly or indirectly engaged in, supporting the illegal occupation of Tibet, and for other purposes. | Tibet Independence Act | Rep. Perry, Scott | R | PA |
596 | 1,070 | S.1418 | Science, Technology, Communications | Bioeconomy Research and Development Act of 2021
This bill directs the Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP) to implement a National Engineering Biology Research and Development Initiative to advance societal well-being, national security, sustainability, and economic productivity and competitiveness. Among other activities, the initiative must include sustained support for research centers, individual investigators, technologies, and training.
The initiative shall include outreach to primarily undergraduate and minority-serving institutions about initiative opportunities, and shall encourage the development of research collaborations between research-intensive universities and such institutions.
The OSTP shall designate an interagency committee to coordinate initiative activities as appropriate.
The interagency committee shall submit triennial reports to Congress through FY2028 in support of the initiative.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) shall seek to enter into an agreement with the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine to conduct a review of, and make recommendations with respect to, the ethical, legal, environmental, safety, security, and other appropriate societal issues related to engineering biology research and development.
The NSF, National Institute of Standards and Technology, Department of Energy, Department of Defense, National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), Department of Agriculture, and Department of Health and Human Services shall carry out related activities as part of the initiative. | To provide for a coordinated Federal research initiative to ensure
continued United States leadership in engineering biology.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Bioeconomy Research and Development
Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. FINDINGS.
The Congress makes the following findings:
(1) Cellular and molecular processes may be used, mimicked,
or redesigned to develop new products, processes, and systems
that improve societal well-being, strengthen national security,
and contribute to the economy.
(2) Engineering biology relies on a workforce with a
diverse and unique set of skills combining the biological,
physical, chemical, and information sciences and engineering.
(3) Long-term research and development is necessary to
create breakthroughs in engineering biology. Such research and
development requires government investment as many of the
benefits are too distant or uncertain for industry to support
alone.
(4) Research is necessary to inform evidence-based
governance of engineering biology and to support the growth of
the engineering biology industry.
(5) The Federal Government has an obligation to ensure that
ethical, legal, environmental, safety, security, and societal
implications of its science and technology research and
investment follows policies of responsible innovation and
fosters public transparency.
(6) The Federal Government can play an important role by
facilitating the development of tools and technologies to
further advance engineering biology, including user facilities,
by facilitating public-private partnerships, by supporting risk
research, and by facilitating the commercial application in the
United States of research funded by the Federal Government.
(7) The United States led the development of the science
and engineering techniques that created the field of
engineering biology, but due to increasing international
competition, the United States is at risk of losing its
competitive advantage if it does not strategically invest the
necessary resources.
(8) A National Engineering Biology Initiative can serve to
establish new research directions and technology goals, improve
interagency coordination and planning processes, drive
technology transfer to the private sector, and help ensure
optimal returns on the Federal investment.
SEC. 3. DEFINITIONS.
In this Act:
(1) Biomanufacturing.--The term ``biomanufacturing'' means
the utilization of biological systems to develop new and
advance existing products, tools, and processes at commercial
scale.
(2) Engineering biology.--The term ``engineering biology''
means the application of engineering design principles and
practices to biological systems, including molecular and
cellular systems, to advance fundamental understanding of
complex natural systems and to enable novel or optimize
functions and capabilities.
(3) Initiative.--The term ``Initiative'' means the National
Engineering Biology Research and Development Initiative
established under section 4.
(4) Omics.--The term ``omics'' refers to the collective
technologies used to explore the roles, relationships, and
actions of the various types of molecules that make up the
cells of an organism.
SEC. 4. NATIONAL ENGINEERING BIOLOGY RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
INITIATIVE.
(a) In General.--The President, acting through the Office of
Science and Technology Policy, shall implement a National Engineering
Biology Research and Development Initiative to advance societal well-
being, national security, sustainability, and economic productivity and
competitiveness through--
(1) advancing areas of research at the intersection of the
biological, physical, chemical, data, and computational
sciences and engineering to accelerate scientific understanding
and technological innovation in engineering biology;
(2) advancing areas of biomanufacturing research to
optimize, standardize, scale, and deliver new products and
solutions;
(3) supporting social and behavioral sciences and economics
research that advances the field of engineering biology and
contributes to the development and public understanding of new
products, processes, and technologies;
(4) improving the understanding of engineering biology of
the scientific and lay public and supporting greater evidence-
based public discourse about its benefits and risks;
(5) supporting research relating to the risks and benefits
of engineering biology, including under subsection (d);
(6) supporting the development of novel tools and
technologies to accelerate scientific understanding and
technological innovation in engineering biology;
(7) expanding the number of researchers, educators, and
students and a retooled workforce with engineering biology
training, including from traditionally underrepresented and
underserved populations;
(8) accelerating the translation and commercialization of
engineering biology research and development by the private
sector; and
(9) improving the interagency planning and coordination of
Federal Government activities related to engineering biology.
(b) Initiative Activities.--The activities of the Initiative shall
include--
(1) sustained support for engineering biology research and
development through--
(A) grants to fund the work of individual
investigators and teams of investigators, including
interdisciplinary teams;
(B) projects funded under joint solicitations by a
collaboration of no fewer than two agencies
participating in the Initiative; and
(C) interdisciplinary research centers that are
organized to investigate basic research questions,
carry out technology development and demonstration
activities, and increase understanding of how to scale
up engineering biology processes, including
biomanufacturing;
(2) sustained support for databases and related tools,
including--
(A) support for curated genomics, epigenomics, and
other relevant omics databases, including plant and
microbial databases, that are available to researchers
to carry out engineering biology research in a manner
that does not compromise national security or the
privacy or security of information within such
databases;
(B) development of standards for such databases,
including for curation, interoperability, and
protection of privacy and security;
(C) support for the development of computational
tools, including artificial intelligence tools, that
can accelerate research and innovation using such
databases; and
(D) an inventory and assessment of all Federal
government omics databases to identify opportunities to
improve the utility of such databases, as appropriate
and in a manner that does not compromise national
security or the privacy and security of information
within such databases, and inform investment in such
databases as critical infrastructure for the
engineering biology research enterprise;
(3) sustained support for the development, optimization,
and validation of novel tools and technologies to enable the
dynamic study of molecular processes in situ, including
through--
(A) research conducted at Federal laboratories;
(B) grants to fund the work of investigators at
institutions of higher education and other nonprofit
research institutions;
(C) incentivized development of retooled industrial
sites across the country that foster a pivot to
modernized engineering biology initiatives; and
(D) awards under the Small Business Innovation
Research Program and the Small Business Technology
Transfer Program, as described in section 9 of the
Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 638);
(4) support for education and training of undergraduate and
graduate students in engineering biology, biomanufacturing,
bioprocess engineering, and computational science applied to
engineering biology and in the related ethical, legal,
environmental, safety, security, and other societal domains;
(5) activities to develop robust mechanisms for documenting
and quantifying the outputs and economic benefits of
engineering biology; and
(6) activities to accelerate the translation and
commercialization of new products, processes, and technologies
by--
(A) identifying precompetitive research
opportunities;
(B) facilitating public-private partnerships in
engineering biology research and development;
(C) connecting researchers, graduate students, and
postdoctoral fellows with entrepreneurship education
and training opportunities; and
(D) supporting proof of concept activities and the
formation of startup companies including through
programs such as the Small Business Innovation Research
Program and the Small Business Technology Transfer
Program.
(c) Expanding Participation.--The Initiative shall include, to the
maximum extent practicable, outreach to primarily undergraduate and
minority-serving institutions about Initiative opportunities, and shall
encourage the development of research collaborations between research-
intensive universities and primarily undergraduate and minority-serving
institutions.
(d) Ethical, Legal, Environmental, Safety, Security, and Societal
Issues.--Initiative activities shall take into account ethical, legal,
environmental, safety, security, and other appropriate societal issues
by--
(1) supporting research, including in the social sciences,
and other activities addressing ethical, legal, environmental,
and other appropriate societal issues related to engineering
biology, including integrating research on such topics with the
research and development in engineering biology, and
encouraging the dissemination of the results of such research,
including through interdisciplinary engineering biology
research centers described in subsection (b)(1);
(2) supporting research and other activities related to the
safety and security implications of engineering biology,
including outreach to increase awareness among Federal
researchers and Federally-funded researchers at institutions of
higher education about potential safety and security
implications of engineering biology research, as appropriate;
(3) ensuring that input from Federal and non-Federal
experts on the ethical, legal, environmental, safety, security,
and other appropriate societal issues related to engineering
biology is integrated into the Initiative;
(4) ensuring, through the agencies and departments that
participate in the Initiative, that public input and outreach
are integrated into the Initiative by the convening of regular
and ongoing public discussions through mechanisms such as
workshops, consensus conferences, and educational events, as
appropriate; and
(5) complying with all applicable provisions of Federal
law.
SEC. 5. INITIATIVE COORDINATION.
(a) Interagency Committee.--The President, acting through the
Office of Science and Technology Policy, shall designate an interagency
committee to coordinate activities of the Initiative as appropriate,
which shall be co-chaired by the Office of Science and Technology
Policy, and include representatives from the National Science
Foundation, the Department of Energy, the Department of Defense, the
National Aeronautics and Space Administration, the National Institute
of Standards and Technology, the Environmental Protection Agency, the
Department of Agriculture, the Department of Health and Human Services,
the Bureau of Economic Analysis, and any other agency that the
President considers appropriate (in this section referred to as the
``Interagency Committee''). The Director of the Office of Science and
Technology Policy shall select an additional co-chairperson from among
the members of the Interagency Committee. The Interagency Committee
shall oversee the planning, management, and coordination of the
Initiative. The Interagency Committee shall--
(1) provide for interagency coordination of Federal
engineering biology research, development, and other activities
undertaken pursuant to the Initiative;
(2) establish and periodically update goals and priorities
for the Initiative;
(3) develop, not later than 12 months after the date of the
enactment of this Act, and update every 3 years thereafter, a
strategic plan submitted to the Committee on Science, Space,
and Technology and the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the
House of Representatives and the Committee on Commerce,
Science, and Transportation and the Committee on Health,
Education, Labor, and Pensions of the Senate that--
(A) guides the activities of the Initiative for
purposes of meeting the goals and priorities
established under (and updated pursuant to) paragraph
(2); and
(B) describes--
(i) the Initiative's support for long-term
funding for interdisciplinary engineering
biology research and development;
(ii) the Initiative's support for education
and public outreach activities;
(iii) the Initiative's support for research
and other activities on ethical, legal,
environmental, safety, security, and other
appropriate societal issues related to
engineering biology including--
(I) an applied biorisk management
research plan;
(II) recommendations for
integrating security into biological
data access and international
reciprocity agreements;
(III) recommendations for
manufacturing restructuring to support
engineering biology research,
development, and scaling-up
initiatives; and
(IV) an evaluation of existing
biosecurity governance policies,
guidance, and directives for the
purposes of creating an adaptable,
evidence-based framework to respond to
emerging biosecurity challenges created
by advances in engineering biology;
(iv) how the Initiative will contribute to
moving results out of the laboratory and into
application for the benefit of society and
United States competitiveness; and
(v) how the Initiative will measure and
track the contributions of engineering biology
to United States economic growth and other
societal indicators;
(4) develop a national genomic sequencing strategy to
ensure engineering biology research fully leverages plant,
animal, and microbe biodiversity, as appropriate and in a
manner that does not compromise national security or the
privacy or security of human genetic information, to enhance
long-term innovation and competitiveness in engineering biology
in the United States;
(5) develop a plan to utilize Federal programs, such as the
Small Business Innovation Research Program and the Small
Business Technology Transfer Program as described in section 9
of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 638), in support of the
activities described in section 4(b)(3); and
(6) in carrying out this section, take into consideration
the recommendations of the advisory committee established under
section 6, the results of the workshop convened under section
7, existing reports on related topics, and the views of
academic, State, industry, and other appropriate groups.
(b) Triennial Report.--Beginning with fiscal year 2022 and ending
in fiscal year 2028, not later than 90 days after submission of the
President's annual budget request and every third fiscal year
thereafter, the Interagency Committee shall prepare and submit to the
Committee on Science, Space, and Technology of the House of
Representatives and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate a report that includes--
(1) a summarized agency budget in support of the Initiative
for the fiscal year to which such budget request applies, for
the following 2 fiscal years, for the then current fiscal year,
including a breakout of spending for each agency participating
in the Program, and for the development and acquisition of any
research facilities and instrumentation; and
(2) an assessment of how Federal agencies are implementing
the plan described in subsection (a)(3), including--
(A) a description of the amount and number of
awards made under the Small Business Innovation
Research Program and the Small Business Technology
Transfer Program (as described in section 9 of the
Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 638)) in support of the
Initiative;
(B) a description of the amount and number of
projects funded under joint solicitations by a
collaboration of no fewer than 2 agencies participating
in the Initiative; and
(C) a description of the effect of the newly funded
projects by the Initiative.
(c) Initiative Office.--
(1) In general.--The President shall establish an
Initiative Coordination Office, with a Director and full-time
staff, which shall--
(A) provide technical and administrative support to
the interagency committee and the advisory committee
established under section 6;
(B) serve as the point of contact on Federal
engineering biology activities for government
organizations, academia, industry, professional
societies, State governments, interested citizen
groups, and others to exchange technical and
programmatic information;
(C) oversee interagency coordination of the
Initiative, including by encouraging and supporting
joint agency solicitation and selection of applications
for funding of activities under the Initiative, as
appropriate;
(D) conduct public outreach, including
dissemination of findings and recommendations of the
advisory committee established under section 6, as
appropriate;
(E) serve as the coordinator of ethical, legal,
environmental, safety, security, and other appropriate
societal input; and
(F) promote access to, and early application of,
the technologies, innovations, and expertise derived
from Initiative activities to agency missions and
systems across the Federal Government, and to United
States industry, including startup companies.
(2) Funding.--The Director of the Office of Science and
Technology Policy, in coordination with each participating
Federal department and agency, as appropriate, shall develop
and annually update an estimate of the funds necessary to carry
out the activities of the Initiative Coordination Office and
submit such estimate with an agreed summary of contributions
from each agency to Congress as part of the President's annual
budget request to Congress.
(3) Termination.--The Initiative Coordination Office
established under this subsection shall terminate on the date
that is 10 years after the date of the enactment of this Act.
(d) Rule of Construction.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed to alter the policies, processes, or practices of individual
Federal agencies in effect on the day before the date of the enactment
of this Act relating to the conduct of biomedical research and advanced
development, including the solicitation and review of extramural
research proposals.
SEC. 6. ADVISORY COMMITTEE.
(a) In General.--The agency co-chair of the interagency committee
established in section 5 shall, in consultation with the Office of
Science and Technology Policy, designate or establish an advisory
committee on engineering biology research and development (in this
section referred to as the ``advisory committee'') to be composed of
not fewer than 12 members, including representatives of research and
academic institutions, industry, and nongovernmental entities, who are
qualified to provide advice on the Initiative.
(b) Assessment.--The advisory committee shall assess--
(1) the current state of United States competitiveness in
engineering biology, including the scope and scale of United
States investments in engineering biology research and
development in the international context;
(2) current market barriers to commercialization of
engineering biology products, processes, and tools in the
United States;
(3) progress made in implementing the Initiative;
(4) the need to revise the Initiative;
(5) the balance of activities and funding across the
Initiative;
(6) whether the strategic plan developed or updated by the
interagency committee established under section 5 is helping to
maintain United States leadership in engineering biology;
(7) the management, coordination, implementation, and
activities of the Initiative; and
(8) whether ethical, legal, environmental, safety,
security, and other appropriate societal issues are adequately
addressed by the Initiative.
(c) Reports.--Beginning not later than 2 years after the date of
enactment of this Act, and not less frequently than once every 3 years
thereafter, the advisory committee shall submit to the President, the
Committee on Science, Space, and Technology of the House of
Representatives, and the Committee on Commerce, Science, and
Transportation of the Senate, a report on--
(1) the findings of the advisory committee's assessment
under subsection (b); and
(2) the advisory committee's recommendations for ways to
improve the Initiative.
(d) Application of Federal Advisory Committee Act.--Section 14 of
the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.) shall not apply to
the Advisory Committee.
(e) Termination.--The advisory committee established under
subsection (a) shall terminate on the date that is 10 years after the
date of the enactment of this Act.
SEC. 7. EXTERNAL REVIEW OF ETHICAL, LEGAL, ENVIRONMENTAL, SAFETY,
SECURITY, AND SOCIETAL ISSUES.
(a) In General.--Not later than 6 months after the date of
enactment of this Act, the Director of the National Science Foundation
shall seek to enter into an agreement with the National Academies of
Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine to conduct a review, and make
recommendations with respect to, the ethical, legal, environmental,
safety, security, and other appropriate societal issues related to
engineering biology research and development. The review shall
include--
(1) an assessment of the current research on such issues;
(2) a description of the research gaps relating to such
issues;
(3) recommendations on how the Initiative can address the
research needs identified pursuant to paragraph (2); and
(4) recommendations on how researchers engaged in
engineering biology can best incorporate considerations of
ethical, legal, environmental, safety, security, and other
societal issues into the development of research proposals and
the conduct of research.
(b) Report to Congress.--The agreement entered into under
subsection (a) shall require the National Academies of Sciences,
Engineering, and Medicine to, not later than 2 years after the date of
the enactment of this Act--
(1) submit to the Committee on Science, Space, and
Technology of the House of Representatives and the Committee on
Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate a report
containing the findings and recommendations of the review
conducted under subsection (a); and
(2) make a copy of such report available on a publicly
accessible website.
SEC. 8. AGENCY ACTIVITIES.
(a) National Science Foundation.--As part of the Initiative, the
National Science Foundation shall--
(1) support basic research in engineering biology through
individual grants, collaborative grants, and through
interdisciplinary research centers;
(2) support research on the environmental, legal, ethical,
and social implications of engineering biology;
(3) provide support for research instrumentation for
engineering biology disciplines, including support for
research, development, optimization and validation of novel
technologies to enable the dynamic study of molecular processes
in situ;
(4) support curriculum development and research experiences
for secondary, undergraduate, and graduate students in
engineering biology and biomanufacturing; and
(5) award grants, on a competitive basis, to enable
institutions to support graduate students and postdoctoral
fellows who perform some of their engineering biology research
in an industry setting.
(b) Department of Commerce.--As part of the Initiative, the
Director of the National Institute of Standards and Technology shall--
(1) establish a bioscience research program to advance the
development of standard reference materials and measurements
and to create new data tools, techniques, and processes
necessary to advance engineering biology and biomanufacturing;
(2) provide access to user facilities with advanced or
unique equipment, services, materials, and other resources to
industry, institutions of higher education, nonprofit
organizations, and government agencies to perform research and
testing; and
(3) provide technical expertise to inform the potential
development of guidelines or safeguards for new products,
processes, and systems of engineering biology.
(c) Department of Energy.--As part of the Initiative, the Secretary
of Energy shall--
(1) conduct and support research, development,
demonstration, and commercial application activities in
engineering biology, including in the areas of synthetic
biology, advanced biofuel development, biobased materials, and
environmental remediation;
(2) support the development, optimization and validation of
novel, scalable tools and technologies to enable the dynamic
study of molecular processes in situ; and
(3) provide access to user facilities with advanced or
unique equipment, services, materials, and other resources,
including secure access to high-performance computing, as
appropriate, to industry, institutions of higher education,
nonprofit organizations, and government agencies to perform
research and testing.
(d) Department of Defense.--As part of the Initiative, the
Secretary of Defense shall--
(1) conduct and support research and development in
engineering biology and associated data and information
sciences;
(2) support curriculum development and research experiences
in engineering biology and associated data and information
sciences across the military education system, to include
service academies, professional military education, and
military graduate education; and
(3) assess risks of potential national security and
economic security threats relating to engineering biology.
(e) National Aeronautics and Space Administration.--As part of the
Initiative, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration shall--
(1) conduct and support basic and applied research in
engineering biology, including in synthetic biology, and
related to Earth and space sciences, aeronautics, space
technology, and space exploration and experimentation,
consistent with the priorities established in the National
Academies' decadal surveys; and
(2) award grants, on a competitive basis, that enable
institutions to support graduate students and postdoctoral
fellows who perform some of their engineering biology research
in an industry setting.
(f) Department of Agriculture.--As part of the Initiative, the
Secretary of Agriculture shall--
(1) support research and development in engineering
biology, including in synthetic biology and biomaterials;
(2) award grants through the National Institute of Food and
Agriculture; and
(3) support development conducted by the Agricultural
Research Service.
(g) Environmental Protection Agency.--As part of the Initiative,
the Environmental Protection Agency shall support research on how
products, processes, and systems of engineering biology will affect or
can protect the environment.
(h) Department of Health and Human Services.--As part of the
Initiative, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, as appropriate
and consistent with activities of the Department of Health and Human
Services in effect on the day before the date of the enactment of this
Act, shall--
(1) support research and development to advance the
understanding and application of engineering biology for human
health;
(2) support relevant interdisciplinary research and
coordination; and
(3) support activities necessary to facilitate oversight of
relevant emerging biotechnologies.
SEC. 9. RULE OF CONSTRUCTION.
Nothing in this Act shall be construed to require public disclosure
of information that is exempt from mandatory disclosure under section
552 of title 5, United States Code.
<all> | Bioeconomy Research and Development Act of 2021 | A bill to provide for a coordinated Federal research initiative to ensure continued United States leadership in engineering biology. | Bioeconomy Research and Development Act of 2021 | Sen. Markey, Edward J. | D | MA |
597 | 9,450 | H.R.5575 | Armed Forces and National Security | Department of Veterans Affairs Nurse and Physician Assistant Retention and Income Security Enhancement Act or the VA Nurse and Physician Assistant RAISE Act
This bill increases the maximum rate of basic pay for advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and registered nurses of the Department of Veterans Affairs. | To amend title 38, United States Code, to increase the rate of pay for
certain nurses and other medical positions of the Department of
Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Department of Veterans Affairs Nurse
and Physician Assistant Retention and Income Security Enhancement Act''
or the ``VA Nurse and Physician Assistant RAISE Act''.
SEC. 2. PAY FOR NURSES AND CERTAIN OTHER MEDICAL POSITIONS OF THE
DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS.
Section 7451 of title 38, United States Code, is amended--
(1) in subsection (a)(2)(C), by striking ``and physician
assistant'' and inserting ``physician assistant, and
podiatrist''; and
(2) in subsection (c), by striking paragraph (2) and
inserting the following:
``(2) The maximum rate of basic pay for any grade for a covered
position may not exceed--
``(A) in the case of an advanced practice nurse, the
maximum rate of basic pay established for positions in level I
of the Executive Schedule under section 5312 of title 5;
``(B) in the case of a physician assistant, the maximum
rate of basic pay established for positions in level I of the
Executive Schedule under section 5312 of title 5;
``(C) in the case of a registered nurse, the maximum rate
of basic pay established for positions in level II of the
Executive Schedule under section 5313 of title 5; and
``(D) in the case of any other covered position, the
maximum rate of basic pay established for positions in level IV
of the Executive Schedule under section 5315 of title 5.''.
<all> | VA Nurse and Physician Assistant RAISE Act | To amend title 38, United States Code, to increase the rate of pay for certain nurses and other medical positions of the Department of Veterans Affairs, and for other purposes. | Department of Veterans Affairs Nurse and Physician Assistant Retention and Income Security Enhancement Act
VA Nurse and Physician Assistant RAISE Act | Rep. Underwood, Lauren | D | IL |
598 | 3,801 | S.1095 | Armed Forces and National Security | Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021
This bill requires the Department of Veterans Affairs to disapprove courses of education provided by public institutions of higher learning if such institutions charge a higher rate for tuition and fees than in-state tuition for individuals who are entitled to educational assistance under the Survivors' and Dependents' Educational Assistance program. | [117th Congress Public Law 68]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]
[[Page 135 STAT. 1493]]
Public Law 117-68
117th Congress
An Act
To amend title 38, United States Code, to provide for the disapproval by
the Secretary of Veterans Affairs of courses of education offered by
public institutions of higher learning that do not charge veterans the
in-State tuition rate for purposes of Survivors' and Dependents'
Educational Assistance Program, and for other purposes. <<NOTE: Nov. 30,
2021 - [S. 1095]>>
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled, <<NOTE: Colonel John M.
McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021. 38 USC 101 note.>>
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition
Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021''.
SEC. 2. DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS DISAPPROVAL OF COURSES
OFFERED BY PUBLIC INSTITUTIONS OF HIGHER
LEARNING THAT DO NOT CHARGE VETERANS THE IN-
STATE TUITION RATE FOR PURPOSES OF SURVIVORS'
AND DEPENDENTS' EDUCATIONAL ASSISTANCE
PROGRAM.
(a) In General.--Section 3679(c) of title 38, United States Code, is
amended--
(1) in paragraph (1), by striking ``or 33'' and inserting
``33, or 35'';
(2) in paragraph (2), by adding at the end the following new
subparagraph:
``(D) An individual who is entitled to assistance under
section 3510 of this title.''; and
(3) in paragraph (6), by striking ``and 33'' and inserting
``33, and 35''.
(b) Conforming Amendments.--Section 3679(e) of such title is
amended--
(1) in paragraph (1)--
(A) in subparagraph (A), by striking ``or 33'' and
inserting ``, 33, or 35''; and
(B) in subparagraph (B), by striking ``or 33'' and
inserting ``33, or 35''; and
(2) in paragraph (2), by striking ``or 33'' and inserting
``33, or 35''.
[[Page 135 STAT. 1494]]
(c) <<NOTE: Applicability. Time period. 38 USC 3679 note.>>
Effective Date.--The amendments made by this Act shall take effect on
the date of the enactment of this Act and shall apply with respect to an
academic period that begins on or after August 1, 2022.
Approved November 30, 2021.
LEGISLATIVE HISTORY--S. 1095:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONGRESSIONAL RECORD, Vol. 167 (2021):
June 24, considered and passed Senate.
Nov. 15, considered and passed House.
DAILY COMPILATION OF PRESIDENTIAL DOCUMENTS (2021):
Nov. 30, Presidential remarks.
<all> | Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021 | A bill to amend title 38, United States Code, to provide for the disapproval by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs of courses of education offered by public institutions of higher learning that do not charge veterans the in-State tuition rate for purposes of Survivors' and Dependents' Educational Assistance Program, and for other purposes. | Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021
Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021
Colonel John M. McHugh Tuition Fairness for Survivors Act of 2021 | Sen. Moran, Jerry | R | KS |
599 | 7,066 | H.R.1300 | Transportation and Public Works | Infrastructure Expansion Act of 2021
This bill precludes absolute liability in any action against a property owner or contractor for projects that are federally owned or operated or are receiving federal financial assistance for infrastructure and transportation development for any injury associated with an elevation- or gravity-related risk occurring on those projects. In any such claim, a state shall apply a liability standard that considers the comparative negligence of the injured person, when such negligence is a proximate cause of an injury. | To preclude absolute liability in any action against a property owner
or contractor for projects receiving Federal financial assistance for
infrastructure and transportation development, and for other purposes.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the
United States of America in Congress assembled,
SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.
This Act may be cited as the ``Infrastructure Expansion Act of
2021''.
SEC. 2. PRESERVATION OF FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FOR INFRASTRUCTURE
AND TRANSPORTATION DEVELOPMENT.
(a) No Absolute Liability on Projects Receiving Federal Financial
Assistance.--For any project for which Federal financial assistance is
used, directly or indirectly, no action on the basis of absolute
liability may be instituted by a covered person against a property
owner or a party to a contract relating to the property that is the
subject of the project for any injury associated with an elevation or
gravity related risk occurring on that project. For any project for
which Federal financial assistance is used, a State shall, for any
claim brought by a covered person otherwise available against a
property owner or contractor for any injury associated with an
elevation or gravity related risk, apply a comparative negligence
liability standard that considers the comparative negligence of the
injured person, when such negligence is a proximate cause of an injury
to a person.
(b) Definitions.--In this section:
(1) The term ``absolute liability'' means liability for a
personal injury or death that is imposed without consideration
of the responsibility of the injured person, including failure
to follow safety instructions or safe work practices in
accordance with training provided, failure to utilize provided
safety equipment or devices, impairment by the use of drugs or
alcohol, or involvement in a criminal act, when such failure,
impairment, or act is a proximate cause of an injury to such
person.
(2) The term ``covered person'' means any person who
supervises or performs any work on or who is otherwise
affiliated with a project.
(3) The term ``elevation or gravity related risk'' means a
hazard related to the effects of gravity either due to the
difference between the elevation level of the required work and
a lower level or a difference between the elevation level where
the worker is positioned and the higher level of the materials
or load being hoisted or secured.
(4) The term ``project'' means the erection, demolition,
repairing, altering, painting, cleaning or pointing of a
highway, bridge, tunnel, airport, railway, bus or railroad
station, depot, pier, building, or any other structure owned or
operated by the Federal Government or for which Federal
financial assistance is used.
(5) The term ``State'' includes a port authority, transit
agency, public toll authority, metropolitan planning
organization, or other political subdivision of a State or
local government.
(c) Workers' Compensation Laws.--Nothing in this section shall be
construed to preempt any law of a State providing for workers'
compensation.
(d) Effective Date.--This section applies to claims arising from
projects in which a State or local government accepts Federal financial
assistance on or after January 1, 2021.
<all> | Infrastructure Expansion Act of 2021 | To preclude absolute liability in any action against a property owner or contractor for projects receiving Federal financial assistance for infrastructure and transportation development, and for other purposes. | Infrastructure Expansion Act of 2021 | Rep. Jacobs, Chris | R | NY |