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ML Foundations Development 23

__label__positive \nReset Password Free Sign Up\n\n\nRemove ads\nDon't know (0)\nKnow (0)\nremaining cards (0)\n\nPass complete!\n\n\"Know\" box contains:\nTime elapsed:\nrestart all cards\n\n\n\u00a0 Normal Size \u00a0 \u00a0 Small Size show me how\n\nPharmacology ch 1-10\n\n1a. Pharmacology Midterm review ch 1-10\n\nWhat is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? blood flow\nWhat term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? agonist\nWhat can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? enzymes, transport proteins, and nucleic acids\nBy what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? induction\nWhat form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? nonionized\nWhat term is used to decribe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? synergism\nWhat term is used to describe the phemomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? ceiling effect\nWhat term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? affinity\nWhat is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? pharmacokinetics\nWhat term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? anaphylactic reaction\nAn all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n)______ effect. systemic\nFrom what two organs are most drugs eliminated? kidney and liver\nWhat happens during an oxidative metabolic reaction? The drug loses an electron and gains an oxygen atom.\nHow does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.\nWhat is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? alcohol\nWhy are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.\nIf a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? 12 hours\nIn what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.\nWhat does bioavailability reflect? The fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue.\nWhat does the abbreviation ADME stand for? absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination\nWhat is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? anaphylaxis\nWhat is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? killing the bacteria without harming the patient.\nWhat bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? folic acid biosynthesis\nWhich of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? metabolism\nWhich of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome.\nWhat are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit.\nWhat is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.\nBy which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? 20th\nWhich of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome? vancomycin\nWhich statement regarding linezolis (Zyvox) is incorrect? It should be stored in clear glass containers.\nWhat was the first true class of antibiotics? sulfonamides\nWhat term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? empirical\nWhich of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes? tetracyclines\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? erythromycin\nWhat are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? aerobic\nWhat is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes\nWhat type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? sepsis\nWhy should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic? to prevent cross-contamination\nWhen this drug is dispensed, a \"Do not drink alcohol\" sticker must be attached to the container. metronidazole\nHow do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? improved activity against gram-negative bacteria\nWhy is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.\nWhich of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), protease inhibitor (PI), and fusion inhibitor\nWhat is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.\nWhat is an example of a chronic viral infection? herpes\nHow can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.\nWhich of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? griseofulvin\nWhat is a route by which most common viruses spread? direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water, ingalation of airborne particles, and exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or comtaminated equipment\nWhat pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? herpes and HIV\nWhat is a common target of fungal infections? nails\nWhat is another name for an individual virus particle? virion\nWhat is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? pulse dosing (one week per month)\nWhich of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir\nWhich drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? penicillin\nWhich of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? amantadine\nWhich of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? enfuvirtide\nWhat aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? permeability\nWhat term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocyles with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? immunoglobulin\nPatients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? viroconazole\nHow are fungal and human cells similar? They both have a defined nucleus\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a nucloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? abacavir\nWhich of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? sumatriptan (Imitrex)\nWhich local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? cocaine\nWhich of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and meperidine\nWhich of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? naloxone (Narcan)\nWhich narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? morphine\nWhat is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? hypertension\nWhat neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? epinephrine\nWhat is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? succinylcholine (Quelicin)\nWhat class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? anticholinesterases\nWhich of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously? ketamine (Ketalar)\nWhat class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? triptans\nFollowing injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? pain perception\nWhich of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? benzodiazepines\nWhat is the most inportant action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure\nWhat are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? afferent and efferent\nWhich drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), and butorphanol (Stadol)\nWhat did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the \"fifth\" vital sign? pain\nWhat term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? dependence\nWhat ate the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? mu, kappa, delta\nWhich of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? fentanyl (Actiq)\nFluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain\nWhat drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? disulfiram (Antabuse)\nWhich monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? selegiline (Eldepryl)\nTardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? antipsychotics\nWhich two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? dopamine and serotonin\nWhich or the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being \"atypical\"? olanzapine (Zyprexa)\nWhich of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, and sweating\nWhich of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? amitriptyline\nWhich class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? MAOIs\nWhich of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? benztropine (Cogentin)\nWith which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? bipolar mood disorder\nWhich drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? buproprion\nWhich of the following antianziety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? buspirone (Buspar)\nWhich of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diphenhydramine\nWhat class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? benzodiazepines\nWhat system can be adversely affected by lithium and how? gastrointestinal-nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; neuromuscular-tremors; weight- weight gain; renal- increased thirst and urination\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? imipramine\nDuring which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? stages III and IV\nWhat term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient? endogenous\nWhat drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? divalproex (Depakote)\nWhich of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? gingko\nWhat dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? levodopa (Doplar)\nWhich pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)\nWhich anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? gabapentin (Neurontin)\nWhat is a characteristic pathologic feature in the midbrain of patients with Parkinson's disease? Lewy Bodies\nWhat are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? sedation and some degradation of cognitive process\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? valproic acid (Depakene)\nWhat class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? acetylcholinesterase inhibitors\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? diazepam (Valium)--GABA\nWhat combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? Sinemet\nWhat is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? They can alter the metabolism of other drugs\nWhat term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? status epiepticus\nThe prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? above age 60\nWhich drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? atomoxetine (Strattera)\nWhich drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and baclofen\nWhich anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? ethosuximide (Zarontin)\nWith what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? absence seizure\nWhich neurotranmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? dopamine\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium)\nWhat two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? GABA and glutamate\nWhich of the following medication is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? cromolyn sodium\nWhich of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? codeine\nWhat is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal diturbances, and increased appetite and weight gain\nIn what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? 35-55%\nWhich of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? asthma\nWhich of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? status asthmaticus\nWhich repiratory medication listed below is an inhaled coricosteroid? fluticasone (Flovent)\nWith which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medication, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? nebulizer\nAn asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? 2\nWhat is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? clemastine (Tavist Allergy)\nDornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? bronchitis and cystic fibrosis\nWhat are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? dizziness and diarrhea\nWhich of the following forms of nicotine replacement therapy is only available by prescription? nicotine nasal spray\nWhich of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? tiotropim (Spiriva)\nWhich of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin. Rimactine), ciproflozacin (Cipro), and rifapentine (Priftin)\nWhich of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? ipratropium (Atrovent)\nWhat is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? peak expiratory flow rate (PAOR)\nWhich of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? guaifesesin (Mucinex)\nWhat is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, and sedation\nWhat class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? beta blockers\nWhat drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? lactulose (Enulose)\nWhich medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? nitazoxanide (Alinia)\nWhich of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? infliximab (Remicade)\nWhat three drugs given together are used to treat H. pyloric-induced peptic ulcers? bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)\nWhich drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? sucralfate (Carafate)\nWhich drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid)\nWhich drug below acts on 5-HT-4 receptors and is used to treat constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome? tegaserod (Zelnorm)\nWhich drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? docusate-senna (Senokot-S)\nWhat is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? constipation\nWhich histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? cimetidine (Tagamet)\nIf abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)\nWhat is another term for heartburn? gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)\nBy what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, and solubility\nFor the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyethylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)\nvWhich drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? diphonoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)--C-V\nWhat receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? dopamine\nWhat is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to panceratic insufficiency? pancrelopase (Creon-10)\nWhich of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? ondansetron (Zofran)\nWhat is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? intestinal parasites (tapeworms)\nWhat GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? ulcerative colitis\nCreated by: danz\n

__label__positive \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n178 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\nWhat is the MOA of amphotericin B?\nBinds to ergosterol component of fungal cell membrane and alters permeability to allow leakage of ions and other intracellular components\nWhat is the basis for selective toxicity of amphotericin B?\n\nWhat can cause cytotoxicity?\nGreater selectivity for fungal membranes because they contain ergosterol instead of cholesterol;\n\nbinding of cholesterol component in mammalian cells\nWhat is the MOA of Flucytosine (5FC)?\n5FC is transported into fungal cells by a perm ease and is then converted to fluorouracil. The metabolite 5-FdUMP is formed and inhibits thymidylate synthetase stopping DNA synthesis\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity of Flucytosine?\nperm ease affected by this drug is not found in mammalian cells\nWhat is the MOA for Azole antifungals (ketoconazole)?\nInhibits P450 isoenzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol. Inhibition of ergosterol production results in deficient fungal membranes with increased permeability and leakage of cellular components/inhibition of fungal growth\nWhat is the MOA for Capsofungin?\ninhibits synthesis of an essential cell wall component (beta-1,3-D-glucan) in aspergillus species resulting in osmotic fragility and fungal death\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity for Capsofungin?\nIt targets the cell wall, which humans don't have\nWhat is the MOA of griseofulvin?\nInteracts with the fungal cell wall microtubules to disrupt the mitotic spindle and inhibit mitosis.\nWhere does griseofulvin accumulate?\nin infected keratin-containing tissues creating unfavorable growth conditions\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity for griseofulvin?\nTargets cell walls, which are not present in humans\nWhat is the MOA of Terbinafine?\nInhibits squalene epoxidase which is an essential enzyme in fungal sterol synthesis. Produces a deficiency of ergosterol and an accumulation of squalene inside the fungal cell resulting in death.\nWhat is the MOA of Nystatin?\nare polyene abx similar in structure and MOA to amphotericin B (alters cell membrane permeability)\nWhat is the basis of selectivity for nystatin?\nsimilar to amphotericin B\nAmphotericin B can be either fungicidal or fungostatic depending on.....\ntissue concentration achieved and organisms susceptability\nWhat is the broadest spectrum anti fungal?\namphotericin B\nWhat is the DOC (anti fungal) for immunocompromised patients?\namphotericin B\nIs amphotericin B effective against meningitis? What routes of administration are there?\nachieves nontherapeurtc elves in CSF with/without inflammation however in some cases, IV administration may produce therapeutic levels for cryptococal meningitis\nWhat are the indications for the use of the liposomal formulations of Amphotericin B?\nPatients who cannot tolerate or fail the conventional IV formulation or for renal impairment where unacceptable toxicity occurs.\n\nIncludes: invasive aspergillosis, neutropenic pts with fungal infection, candidiasis, etc.\nWhat are some advantages to using the liposomal formulation of Amphotericin B?\nIncreased circulation time and reaches higher concentrations in vascularized areas (inflammation, infection, tumors) while being essentially impermeable to normal tissues;\n\nLocalizes the drug at disease sites and allows drug levels to be increased several times higher than amounts achieved with free drug from conventional products;\n\nintended to reduce serious renal toxicity by decreasing binding of drug in renal tissues\nWhen you are going to use the amphotericin B, what pretreatments would you want to use?\nNSAIDs, antihistamines, and steroids\nWhat is the major toxicity associated with amphotericin B?\nnephrotoxicity (decreased GFR And creatinine clearance, K+ loss)\nWhat is the mechanism of synergism between flucytosine and amphotericin B?\n\nIs this combination efficacious for meningitis?\nAmphotericin B alters the membrane permeability to flucytosine.\n\nyes- effective against cryptococcus neorformans and candidia\nAre systemic azole antifungals fungicidal or fungistatic?\n\nAre they broad or narrow spectrum?\nboth depending on dose;\n\nBroad spectrum treatment for systemic mycoses\nWhich azole anti fungal is effective against meningitis? What is the route?\nfluconazole (excellent penetration info CSF)\n\noral tablets, suspensions or IV injections\nWhy is concurrent use of amphotericin B with azole antifungals contraindicated?\nazoles contraindicate the actions of amphotericin B\nWhat are the indications for which fluconazole is the DOC?\ncryptococcal meningitis, serious systemic candidiasis (URI, peritonitis, pneumonia), and coccidiodomycosis\nWhat are the two serious ADRs associated with itraconazole?\nRisk of CHF in pts with existing heart disease; hepatic dysfunction\nDescribe the method of pulse dosing of itraconazole for onychomycosis.\neach pulse is 200mg BID for one week per month;\n\nneed 2 for fingernails, 3-4 for toenails (grow slower)\nSymptoms of endocrine disorders associated with the use of ketoconazole include:\n\nWhat is the mechanism that causes these symptoms?\ngynecomastia, impotence, loss of libido, menstrual irregularities;\n\ninhibits gonadal steroid synthesis in humans\nYou don't want to take ketoconazole with things that ____ gastric acidity or with ______ since it is required for dissolution and absorption.\ndecrease, food\nKetoconazole can ______ the P450 system and cause....\ninhibit; toxicity of other drugs\nWhich other azole anti fungal possibly has hepatic effects and needs to be monitored?\nWhich other azole anti fungal causes hepatic dysfunction and has strong warnings against liver failure?\nVoriconazole is the first line agent for the treatment of what three conditions?\nacute invasive aspergillosis * (in pts over 12)\n\nesophageal candidiasis\n\nnonneutropenic pts with candidemia or deep tissue candida infection\nWhat are the two indications for Posoconazole?\nprophylaxis of invasive aspergillosis and candidiasis who are severely immunocompromized;\n\noropharyngeal candidiasis\nEchinocandins have potent activity against ____ and ___ except for which 3 species?\naspergillosis; candidiasis\n\ncandida neoformans, zygomycetes, fusarium\nCapsofungin is used to treat what 4 conditions?\nAspergillosis, esophageal candidiasis, disseminated candida infections, empirical tx of presumed fungal infections in febrile neutropenic patients\nWhat is the DOC for secondary prophylaxis of PCP?\nIs primary prophylaxis (in HIV+ pts) recommended/done for candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis infections?\nWhat is the strongest recommendation of ART in a TB patient?\nPts with CD4 cell counts less than 50 cells/mm and it should be initiated within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment.\nWhat are the major toxicities associated with indinavir and what precautions must be taken?\nacute nephrolitiasis;\n\nensure adequate hydration, drinking about 1.5L of liquids per 24 hours\nWhat is the advantage of using the combination product Combivir compared to dosing with the two individual components? (antiretroviral drug)\nhas synergistic antiretroviral activity and is taken without regard to meals.\nWhat is the parameter used to decide whether ART regimens should be modified?\nregular monitoring of the viral load, CD4+ T cell count and pts clinical condition\nWhat are the 6 classic ADRs associated with Antiretroviral agents?\nlactic acidosis, hepatomegaly with steatosis, hyperglycemia, rash, hyperlipidemia, GI intolerance\nWhat are the three major characteristics of all preferred ART Regimens?\nuse at least 3 drugs; use a combination of drugs with different MOAs, and are class sparing\nWhat is the spectrum of activity of Griseofulvin?\nWhat are the indications for Griseofulvin?\nonly active aginst dermatophytes (trichophytan, microsporum and epidermophyton) and in the treatment of severe tinea infections that dont respond to other antifungals\nWhat are some ADRs with Griseofulvin\nGI distress, photosensitivity, possible antabuse reaction with alcohol\nWhat are some symptoms of an Antabse reactioin?\ntachycardia and flushing\nHow may the oral absorption of Grisofulvin be enhanced?\nUsing ultra-fine crystalline preps and eating with high fat meals\nWhere does Griseofulvin distribute to?\nkeratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails)\nHow long must therapy with griseofulvin be continued for?\nuntil normal tissue replaces infected tissue (weeks to months)\nWhat is the current clinical use of amantadine and rimantadine?\nagainst influenza A virus\nWhat is the oral availability for ACY (acyclovir) and DHPG (gangciclovir)?\nDescribe how Acyclovir is given via IV to avoid nephrotoxicity.\nGiven by a slow infusion over at least 1 hour with adequate hydration. Make sure to establish sufficient urine flow over the 1st 2 hours post-infusion\nHow does the spectrum of activity for gangciclovir differ from acyclovir?\nthe same but also effective against CMV\nWhat is the boxed warning for gangciclovir and what are the resulting hematological effects?\nmyelosuppression. Monitor for neutropenia, anemia and thrombocytopenia\nWhat is the action and indication for penciclovir dermatological cream?\nAntiviral activity against HSV-1 and HSV-2; indicated for treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in adults (cold sores)\nWhat is the DOC for tx of PCP pneumonia?\n\nAlternate agent (mod-severe)?\nAlternate agent (mild-mod)?\nTMP-SMX, IV pentamidine, atovaquone\nWhat is the DOC for post-exposure primary prophylaxis?\nvaricella-zoster immune globulin ASAP for at least 3 weeks\nWhat is the DOC for varicella infection?\nWhat is the spectrum of activity for Terbinafine?\nWhat are the indications for Terbinafine?\ntx of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernail due to dermatophytes (superior to griseofulvin)\nWhat are the ADR of Terbinafine?\nGI distress, ageusia, asx elevation of liver enzymes, less commonly neutropenia, derm eruptions and ophthalmic complaints\nHow may oral absorption of terbinafine be enhanced?\ntake with food to increase bioavailability\nHow do the distribution properties of terbinafine relate to the clinical uses?\nhighly lipophilic with slow elimination from skin and adipose tissue\nHow long must therapy of terbinafine be continued?\ntreatment can last weeks to months\nWhat are the three preparations of ciclopirox and what are their indications?\nCream/lotion= tinea infections;\n\nshampoo=seborrheic dermatitis\n\nnail lacquer= nail infections\nWhat are the preparations of nystatin and what are they used for?\nTopical (cream, ointment, powder)= superficial cutaneous candida;\n\nOral (swish and swallow)= oral/mucous membrane candidiasis\n\nOral tablet= intestinal candida\n\nVaginal tablet= vulvovaginal candidiasis\nWhat are the preparations and clinical uses of Clotrimazole?\nOTC cream or solution= tinea infections\n\nOTC intravaginal cream= VVC\n\nRx buccal tablet= tx and prophylaxis of oropharyngeal candidiasis\nWhat are the preparations and clinical uses of Miconazole?\nIntravaginal cream and suppository= VVC\n\ntopical cream= cutaneous candidiasis\nWhat is the clinical use of Butoconazole?\nWhat is the DOC for trichomoniasis? What infections can Trich cause?\n\nvaginitis, NG urethritis, prostatitis\nWhat is the preferred regimen of Metronidazole for use against trichomonas?\n\nWhat is the alternative regimen\n2g PO single dose;\n\n500mg BID x 7 days\nIf treatment failure occurs with metrondiazole, what do you want to do?\n\nwhat do you want to take metronidazole with and what do you want to avoid?\n\nIf you are allergic to metronidazole, what do you want to do?\ntx with a single 2 g dose once daily x 5 days;\n\nfood; alcohol;\n\ndesensitize the pt\nWhat is the proposed MOA of mebendazole?\nselectively and irreversibly inhibits glc uptake in susceptible adult intestinal-dwelling helminthes; also a spindle poison that induces chromosome nondisjunction\nWhat is mebendazole indicated for?\npinworms (worms in general)\nWhen treating a pt with pinworms with mebendazole, what other things must be taken into consideration?\nrepeat dosing may be needed adn may need to treat family members in close contact. Also hygiene precautions need to be taken to prevent reinfection\nWhat organisms are susceptible to acyclovir?\nHSV-1/2, varicella and ebstein barr\nWhy is CMV resitant to acyclovir?\nit lacks a specific viral thymidine kinase\nWhat are the 4 groups of patients for whome ART is recommended regardless of CD4 cell count?\npregnancy, Hx of an AIDS-defining illness, HIV-associated nephropathy, HIV/hepatitis B coinfection\nWhat is the CD4+ t cell count associated with the strongest ART recomendation?\n<350 cells/mm3\nWhat are the specific toxicities associated with Zidovudine?\nmyelosuppression, neutropenia, severe anemia\nWhat is the resulting drug interaction of Zidovudine with ganciclovir?\nadditive hematology toxicity\nWhat is the major boxed warning for nevirapine?\nsevere, life-threatening skin reactions (steven-johnson syndrome, Toxic epidermal necrolysis) and potentially fatal hepatotoxicity\nState what effect the following drugs have on the P450 system:\n\n\n\nstrong inhibitor\nWhich ART drug inhibits the P450 system but is also a substrate for the enzyme (3A4) so induces of 2A4 may decrease the concentration of this drug?\nWhen using Zidovudine during pregnancy, what is the route of administration and when is it given?\nIV; at onset of labor until delivery\nWhen using Zidovudine in the infant, what is the route of administration and what are the treatment recommendations?\nOral; 2x daily as soon after birth as possible (within 6-12 hours) and continues for up to 6 weeks\nFor the post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV, what is the duration of all regiments used?\n\nWhat is the basic regimen?\n\nWhat is a reason for using the expanded regimen?\n\nWhat is the preferred expanded regimen?\n4 weeks;\n\nZDV + lamivudine;\n\nfor exposures posing an increased risk of transmission or where resistance to one or more of the agents is known or suspected;\n\nbasic regimen plus lopinavir/ritonavir\nWhat is the DOC for primary prophylaxis of Pneumocystic jirovecci pneumonia?\n\nWhat are the alternative regimens?\n\ndapsone, dapsone plus pyrimethamine (plus leucovorin), Aerosolized pentamidine or atovaquone\nWhat other parasitic infection is covered by the DOC for the treatment of PCP pneumonia? (TMP-SMZ)\nWhat is the regimen used for prophylaxis of PCP and toxoplasmosis when tolerance to TMP-SMZ occurs?\ndapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovorin\nWhat is the DOC for the tx of toxoplasmosis?\npyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine plus leucovorin\nWhy is leucovorin included in the treatment for toxoplasmosis?\nto prevent megaloblastic anemia effects that can occur from the pyrimethamine\nWhat is the major toxicity of sulfadiazine and what precaution must be taken?\nneutropenia, interstitial nephritis, crystalluria and nephrolitiasis.\n\ndrink 2-3L of fluid/day to decrease risk of crystalluria\nWhat is the alternative regimen for toxoplasmosis (for those allergic to sulfas)\npyrimethamine plus leucovorin plus clindamycin\nWhat is the MOA for pyrimethamine?\ninhibits dihydrofolate reductase preventing the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active form tetrahydrofolate. Activity is highly selective for DHFR from plasmodium or toxoplasma parasites\nWhat is the clinical uses for pyrimethamine?\nchemoprophylaxis of malaria; and as part of the treatment for toxoplasmosis\nWhat are some precautions that need to be taken when using pyrimethamine?\nmay cause folate deficiency (give leucovorin), may also precipitate hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients\nWhat is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?\nWhat is the DOC for oropharyngeal candidiasis?\nWhat is the DOC for cryptococcal meningitis?\namphotericin B plus flucytosine\nWhat is the DOC for aspergillosis?\nFor the treatment of TB in HIV patients, what are the induction phase drugs and how long are they used?\n\nHow about the continuation phase?\n8 weeks; INH, RIF (or RBN), PZA and EMB;\n\n18 weeks; either INH and RIF (or RBN) every day (((OR))) INH and RIF 3x weekly\nIs the use of DOT strongly recommended for HIV pts undergoing tx for TB?\nWhat is the preferred rifamycin drug used when a protease inhibitor-based ART regimen is to be used? Why?\nRifabutin; less potent 3A4 inducer\nWhat is the preferred agent for the primary prophylaxis of mycobacterium avium complex in adults with HIV?\nclarithromycin (or azithro)\nWhat is the the preferred agent for the treatment of an active MAC infection?\nclarithromycin with ethambutol. Addition of rifabutin may be considered (but need to think about DIs)\nWhat is the recommendations for the primary prophylaxis of CMV?\nnot generally recommended\nWhat is the treatment of CMV retinitis?\nganciclovir intraocular impant and valganciclovir PO\nWhat are the disadvantages of the ganciclovir ocular implant?\ncannot prevent CMV infection in the contralateral eye or systemic infection which is why concurrent PO treatment is needed\nWhat are some alternative therapies for treatment of cytomegalovirus?\nIV ganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir\nWhat are the dosing recommendations for cidofovir and why?\nonce weekly;has a very long intracellular half-life\nWhat major ADR is associated with cidofovir? What precautions are needed to be taken?\nnephrotoxicity (dose-limited);\n\nadequate hydration with NS and concurrent probenecid (along with avoiding other nephrotoxic drugs)\nWhat is the DOC for secondary prophylaxis of CMV?\nWhat is the MOA for Zanamavir?\nselective inhibition of influenza virus neuraminidase.\nWhat is the function of viral neuraminidase?\nallows viral release from infected cells, prevents virus aggregation and decreases viral inactivation by mucus\nWhat are the indications for zanamavir?\nuncomplicated acute illness due to influenza A or B in pts >7 years old who have had sx less than 2 days\nWhich antiviral is also used for prevention of influenza illness in pts over 5 years old?\nWhat is the route of administration of zanamavir?\n\nWhat is the dose and course of treatment?\noral inhalation using a diskhaler devise\n\n2 inhalations BID x 5 days\nWhen is Zanamavir treatment not recommended?\nin pts with underlying airway disease due to risk of severe bronchospasm\nWhat is the MOA of Oseltamavir?\nOral prodrug which is converted by hepatic esterases to the active agent in vivo (oseltamivir carboxylate) which then inhibits viral neuraminidase altering virus partical release and aggregation\nWhat are the indications for Oseltamavir?\nType A and B influenza infections in pts over 1 year of age who have had sx for less than 2 days\nWhat is the route of administration for Oseltamavir?\noral suspension\nWhat are the major toxicities/ADRs with Oseltamavir?\nWhat are the 4 major goals of ART therapy\nreduction of HIV-related morbidity/mortality and to increase duration/QOL;\n\nRestoration and preservation of immunologic fxn;\n\nMaximal and durable suppression of viral load (goal=to suppress to undetectabe levels after 3-6 mo of tx);\n\nPrevent HIV transmission\nWhat is the spectrum of antiviral activity for Ribavirin?\nactive vs RSV and some activity vs Influenza A and B (low efficacy when given PO)\nWhat are the indications of Ribavirin?\nTx of severe lower respiratory tract infections due to RSV in hospitalized infants and young children (not adults!)\nWhat is the method of administration of Ribavirin?\nAerosol given via a generator, mechanically-ventilated through ET tube, via oxygen hood/tent/face mask\nWhat are some serious problems that result from the mode of administration of Ribavirin?\nDrug precipitation in ET tube and ventilators has caused inadequate ventilation and gas exchange with sudden deterioration of respiratory function;\n\nis also absorbed systemically and accumulates in RBCs decreasing their half-life to 40 ays\nRibavirin is contraindicated in which patients?\n\nWhat are precautions that need to be taken?\nPregnant women and male partners of pregnant women.\n\nChild-bearing aged women must use effective contraception during therapy and for 6 mo post-tx\nWhat toxicity can Ribavirin cause in caregivers with reactive airway diseases?\nbronchospasm and chestpain\nWhat is the MOA for palivizumab?\nmonoclonal Ab that neutralizes and has fusion-inhibitor activity against RSV and inhibits RSV replication\nWhat are the indications for Palivizumab?\nprevention of serious lower resp tract disease caused by RSV in high risk ped patients (premies, bronchopulm dysplasia pts, hemodynamically significant congestive heart disease pts)\nWhat is the dosing of Palivizumab?\n15 mg/kg once a month during RSV season IM in anterolateral thigh\nWhat are the toxcities associated with Efavirenz (given once daily)?\nRash, CNS/Psych symptoms, Teratogenicity in pregnancy, other symptoms (diarrhea, fever, and cough in ped pts)\nWhat are some symptoms of acute primary HIV infections?\nfever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, myagia/arthralgia, diarrhea (similar to flu, mono, etc and even asx)\nWhat is the first step in the MOA of Acyclovir?\n\nWhat are the subequent steps that form the ACY-triphosphates?\nacyclovir is a synthetic acyclic guanosine analog that is posphorylated in the viral-infected cell by the viral enzyme thymidine kinase;\n\nmonophosphate form is converted by host cell to the diphosphate and triphosphate forms. ACYTP competes with the endogenous substrate deoxyguanosine triphosphate as the substrate for viral DNA polymerase\nWhat is the basis for selective toxicity of acyclovir?\nreaction occurs 100x more rapidly inside the virus-infected cell that non-infected host cells\nWhat are the effects of Acyclovir on viral DNA polymerase?\nACYTP is incorporated into the viral DNA causing premature chain termination; ACYTP inactivates viral DNA polymerase but is less reactive towards the host DNA polymerase\nWhat is the first step of the MOA of ganciclovir?\n\nWhat occurs in CMV-infected cells?\n\nWhat are the subsequent steps that form the final product?\nProdrug which is converted intracellularly to an active triphosphate form.\n\nA viral protein kinase is responsible for the initial phosphorylation of ganciclovir and the subsequent phosphorylation steps to the active form.\n\nsame as acyclovir (?-look up)\nWhat are the effects of ganciclovir on DNA polymerase?\ncompetitive inhibition of viral DNA polymerase and direct incorporation into viral DNA which terminates DNA elongation\nWhat is the active drug produced from famciclovir?\nWhat are the indications (4) for acyclovir?\nInitial and recurrent mucosal and cutaneous HSV1/2 and VAV infections in immunocompromised pts;\n\nsevere initial genital herpes in immunocompetent pts;\n\ninitial and recurrent genital herpes in adults (PO);\n\nAcute tx of herpes zoster in immunocompetent adults (PO)\nHow is the oral availability of Famciclovir different from the active drug penciclovir?\n\nWhere does the conversion of the prodrug form occur?\nis well absorbed;\n\nliver and gut wall\nFamciclovir (and active drug) are indicated for...\nacute treatment of herpes zoster, genital herpes in immunocompetent pts, and recurrent mucocutaneous HSV infections in HIV-infected pts\nWhat is the active drug produced from Valacyclovir?\nHow is the oral availability different in valacyclovir compared to acyclovir?\nPO availability increases 3-5x resulting in increased acyclovir concentrations\nWhat are the indications for valacyclovir (and active drug form)?\nacute tx of herpes zoster, genital herpes in immunocompetent pts, recurrent mucocutaneous HSV infections in HIV-infected pts\nWhat is the major clinical uses of Foscarnet sodium?\nCMV retinitis in AIDS pts, tx of acyclovir-resistant or ganciclovir-resistant mucocutaneous herpes virus infections in immunocompromised pts\nWhat is the 3rd line tx for CMV retinitis in AIDS pts?\nWhat are the two boxed warnings for Foscarnet?\nrenal dysfunction and seizures\nWhat are the two boxed warnings for Cidofovir?\nnephrotoxicity and neutropenia\nWhat is the major risk factor for developing seizures when using foscarnet?\nlow serum calcium\nWhy does hypocalcemia occur when using foscarnet?\n\nWhat are some symptoms?\nchelation of divalent cations may cause the hypocalcemia;\n\nperioral tingling, numbness/paresthesias in lower extremities and seizures\nWhat precautions must be taken when giving Cidofovir to prevent nephrotoxicity?\ngive via a slow IV infusion with probenecid and IV saline prehydration\nWhat are the major clinical uses of ophthalmic antiherpetic agents (Trifluridine)\nPrimary keratoconjunctviitis and recurrent epithelial keratitis due to HSV1/2, epithelial keratitis that has not repsonded to topical idoxuridine or when ocular toxicity or hypersensitivity to this drug occurs, and in kids over 6 for tx of corneal inflammation due to HSV\nWhat are the major boxed warnings associated with abacavir?\n\nWhy is rechallenge contraindicated?\nhypersensitivity reactions (fever, skin, rash, NVD, etc), lactic acidosis, severe hepatomegaly with steatosis;\n\nsevere outcomes (hypotension, hepatic failure and renal failure), anaphylaxis or death can occur\nWhat are class sparing regimens/what is the idea behind it?\nIdea is that if you use only 2 of the 3 classes of hte preferred regimen, you have 'spared' one class in this category and you can use the spared one in the next regimen because resistance wont have been developed\nWhat are preferred regimens (definition)?\ntreatments that have been shown to have optimal and durable virologic efficacy, have favorable tolerability and toxicity profiels are easy to use\nWhy can viral load serve as a marker for improved clinical outcome due to ART?\ntrials have shown a significant association between a decrease in plasma viremia and improved clinical outcome\nViral load reduction to below limits of assay detection in an ART-naive pt usually occurs within the first _____ weeks of therapy.\nWhat levels are generally very high in acute HIV infections?\nYou can dx an HIV infection even though there are no Abs formed against the virus in early infections by testing for...\nWhat are the two major toxicities associated with didanosine?\npancreatitis and fatal lactic acidosis\nWhich drugs have significant DIs with didanosine and what occurs?\n\nRibavirin (increases intracellular levels of active metabolite of didanosine)\n\nTenofovir (increases didanosine levels)\nDidanosine is formulated as a ________ bead that degrades in acid and needs to be taken on a......\ndelayed-release capsule/enteric coated;\n\nIntrapartum IV zidovudine is recommended for all HIV-infected pregnant women regardless of.....\ntheir antepartum regimen to reduce perinatal transmission of HIV\nFor women who are receiving a stavudine-containing antepartum regimen, this drug should be ______ during labor while IV zidovudine is being administered.\nFor women who have received antepartum ARV drugs but have suboptimal viral suppression near delivery, what is recommended?\nIf the confirmatory HIV test is positive in a women who had an unknown status at presentation of labor, what do you want to do?\ngive infant ARV drugs for 6 weeks\nART Regimen #1 contains what 2 classes of drugs?\n\nWhat drugs were specified in the notes?\n\nWhat class does this spare?\none NNRTI and two NRTI's;\n\nefavirenz plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\n\nTenofovir is a...... (ART drug class)......\nnucleotide RTI\nEmtricitabine is a ......(ART drug class).........\nnucleoside RTI\nART regimen #4 contains which drug classes?\n\nWhat drugs were specified in the notes?\n\nWhat classes does this spare?\nINSTI plus 2 NRTIs;\n\nRaltegravir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\n\nIn boosted regimens, Ritonavir is used at a lower dose that is not antiretroviral but is at a level that does what? This is so that.....\ninhibits the P450 system; it blocks the metabolism of another PI drug so the combined use results in a 20x increase in plasma levels\nART Regimens #2 and #3 contain which drug classes?\n\nWhich 2 regimens were listed in the notes?\n\nWhat classes were spared?\nRitonavir boosted PI plus NRTIs;\n\nRitonavir-boosted atazanavir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\nRitonavir-boosted darunavir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;

__label__positive Mean absolute deviation. What does it mean?\n\n35 teachers like this lesson\nPrint Lesson\n\n\nSWBAT use mean absolute deviation to make assumptions about the variability in the data.\n\nBig Idea\n\nThe students will be working with mean and learning about variablility. They will be making connections to real life applications to help assist them in making a connection to mean absolute deviation.\n\nDo Now\n\n10 minutes\n\nStudents will be looking at a set of data in a table and be asked to find the mean.\u00a0 I will be looking to see if they can add all the data values and divide by the number of values.\u00a0 I will also be taking note to see who can combine data values to make their calculations easier. (SMP 7).\u00a0 My goal is to get the students to see that when numbers are repeated they can simplify their calculations by multiplying first and then putting less numbers into the calculator. \u00a0 After they have found the mean, I want them to put the data into a line plot.\u00a0 The reason I\u2019m doing this is because the students will need to have a visual of the distance from the mean in order to calculate the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 A line plot will be the best visual for this.\u00a0 You could even ask the students what display would best represent the data.\u00a0 Since it is numerical they may say stem and leaf, histogram, or line plot.\u00a0 From there I would ask them which best shows how to find the mean?\u00a0 They should be able to tell you line plot. (SMP 2) \u00a0\n\nTools: calculator\n\nWhat does MAD mean?\n\n60 minutes\n\nVocabulary :\u00a0 Give students the definition of mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 Allow them time to write it down and then ask them to translate it into their own words.(SMP 1)\u00a0 Partner share their version of the definition.\n\n(I\u2019m listening to for them to say:\u00a0 I know we will have to find the mean and if we are finding the average of the distance from the mean, we will probably have to subtract)\u00a0 In order to get them to think this way, I may say \u00a0\n\n \u2022 How do we find the mean?\n \u2022 When looking to find the distance between two points, what action is taking place?\n \u2022 If I\u2019m find the average distance, what is the key word here to let us know what is going on?\n\nDirect Instruction:\n\nUse slide #5 as a visual to show the data points in relationship to the mean.\u00a0 Discuss how far each value is from the mean in both directions.\u00a0 Ask them if it is possible to have a negative distance? (SMP2)\n\nSlide 6: The steps to finding the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 I\u2019ve provided the steps to help the struggling students keep track of where they are in the problem.\u00a0 The steps will be provided for them in their notes.\u00a0 Show the students how they already came up with the process on their own when they translated the definition into their own words\n\nSlide 7, 8, 9:\u00a0 These slides take them through each step to show them how to find the MAD.\u00a0 Students should be able to complete step 1 on their own (finding the mean).\u00a0 Be sure to have students tell you what the mean, means.\u00a0 Understanding what they are answering\u00a0 and\u00a0 if their answer is reasonable supports SMP 6 (attending to precision). Next, the students will be finding the distance from the mean.\u00a0 I would have them use the line plot they created as a visual to \u201csee\u201d the distance.\u00a0 Finally, step 3 has them finding the average of the distances.\u00a0 Since students have worked with variability before (quartiles), I would ask them to describe what the MAD represents (SMP 2).\u00a0 Students should be saying that the mean consistently represents the data because the MAD is close to zero.\u00a0 Or that there is little variability within the data set. Or there is a small spread of data.\n\nIf needed, you may need to remind the students about variability in the box plots.\u00a0 We looked at box plots and their interquartile range which is another way to describe variability.\u00a0\n\nSlide 10:\u00a0 Now it is time for students to do this on their own.\u00a0 Before starting, have a whole group discussion on the steps to find MAD.\u00a0 Allow students time to complete the problem before going over it.\u00a0 As students complete the work, they can check with a partner.\u00a0 During this time, the partners should be discussing what they found, how they found it, and whether their answer seems reasonable.\u00a0 Also, they should provide a description of the data according the MAD.\n\n\nThe students can do one of several activities using the MAD activity power point.\u00a0 The slides can be turned in to an Around the room, Numbered Heads together, or Show down activity.\u00a0 Each slide has the students calculating MAD.\n\nQuestion 2:\u00a0 The students have to find the MAD of 2 data sets and then compare them.\u00a0 This slide will be good to see if students really understand what the MAD is describing.\u00a0 Watch to make sure students find the MAD for both data values and then write sentences to compare their variability.\u00a0\n\nQuestion 4:\u00a0 Students may be confused by this as they are not really finding the MAD.\u00a0 The question asks them find amount of data points that are 1 standard deviation from them mean.\u00a0 For students that are having difficulty understanding this, I would have them draw a line plot to \u201csee\u201d the data values.\u00a0 They will need to find the mean first.\u00a0\n\nQuestion 6:\u00a0 this question will be a challenge.\u00a0 Students will need to calculate the MAD.\u00a0 On top of that, they will need to know what twice the MAD means.\u00a0 In this case, MAD = 4.5 so twice the MAD = 9.\u00a0 Then they need to find out if any data values are 9 points from the mean (33.1), yes there are two (48 and 23).\u00a0 This is a great question to see if students really understand the different numbers.\u00a0 Working through the language with the students will be helpful.\u00a0 If using as an ATR, I would have this question by me so I could help them work through the problem.\u00a0 If using as a team activity, then I would use this question in my final wrap up.\u00a0\n\nTools: Calculator, whiteboards and markers if needed\n\n\n15 minutes\n\nUse questions 2, 4, 6 from the MAD activity to go over as whole group instruction. Each of these questions have a little something extra that students had to think about when trying to solve them. \u00a0 Allow students to come to the board to show how they solved the problems.\u00a0 Students should be given time to think aloud at the board to discuss their strategies.\u00a0 Ask the audience (students not at the board) to comment on their classmates work.\u00a0 Did they solve it the same way?\u00a0 Did they use a different strategy or did they come up with a different solution?\n\nToday\u2019s lesson objective was to learn how to find the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 Wrap up by asking the students:\n\n \u2022 What are the steps to finding the mean absolute deviation.\n \u2022 What does the MAD describe? Give an example of a MAD that has little variability?\u00a0 Give an example of MAD that has a large variability?\n \u2022 Use the data set and find the MAD?\u00a0 (in power point)\n\nTools: Calculator

__label__positive 66 terms\n\n\nexam 3\nthe best descriptive term for the resident biota is\nresident biota is absent form the\nvirulence factors include\ntoxins, enzymes, capsules\nthe specific action of hemolysinsis to\ndamage red blood cells\nthe ______ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptom\nperiod of incubation\na short period early in a disease that manifests with general malaise and achiness in the\na __________ is a passive animal transporter of pathogens\nmechanical vector\nan example of noncommunicatble infection is\na positive antibody test for HIV would be a _____________ of infection\nthe term infection refers to\nmicroorganisms colonizing the body\nnonspecific chemical defenses include\nlysozyme, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat, skin's acidic pH and fatty acid, stomach hydrochloric acid\nacquired specific immunity involves the response of\nB and T lymphocytes\nrespiratory tract\nthe human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota\nduring, and immediately after birth\nwhat is not a symptom of type I hypersensitivity\ncontact dermititis\nthe region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the\nvariable region\nthe blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are\nan infectious agent that originated from outside the body is called\nwhat white blood cell comprises of 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic and can migrate into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages\nan endotoxin is\nindicative of gram negative organisms\nwhich of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition\nthe four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include what\nredness, pain, warmth, swelling\nwhat process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens?\nclonal expansion\nthe leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called\nan example of artificial passive immunity would be\ngiving a person immune serum globulins to chicken pox virus after exposure to the disease\nsomeone who is inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to other is a\nan inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a\nthe study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is\nwhat are four factors that may cause my normal flora to be different than yours\ndiet, birth entry, environment, exposure to disease\nwhat is the first defensive cell to respond\nPMN (neutrophil--phagocytosis)\nwhat is the largest portal to the body\nthe respiratory portal is largest entry way\n--biggest way is actually through the eyes not from breathing directly\nwhich is most likely to get you sick: a low infectious dose or a high infectious dose?\nwhy is the skin a good defense line\nwaterproof; has multiple layers; acidic; dry; keratinized\nhow do defensins work\nthey do not move, are in with cilia and they act as a spike to break cell wall which in turn causes lysis\nwhat are the granulocytes\nmast cells\nwhat are the agranulocytes\nB & T cells\nNK cells\nwhich cells contain histamine\nbasophils and eosinophils, mast cells\nwhat are the three major lymph nodes\naxillary, lingual, cervical\nWhat organ filters blood and looks for pathogens\nIs inflammation a good or bad thing\nwhen no bacteria is present, inflammation needs to be under control because eventually tissue damage will happen to healthy tissue\nwhen bacteria is present, inflammation should be allowed for some time to help get bacteria under control\nwhat are the stages of inflammation\ninjury/immediate, vascular reactions, edema/pus formation, resolution/scar formation\nan example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is\nlysozyme in saliva\nwhich nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea\nciliary lining\nwhich of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes\nwhich of the following is not a lymphoid tissue\nthyroid gland\nwhat is included in GALT\npeyer's patches\nmonocytes are _________ leukocytes that develop into _________\nagranular, macrophages\nan example of an exogenous pyrogen is\n_____________ interferon is secreted by ________ and is involved in destroying viruses\nalpha, NKC\nIn humans, B cells mature in the _____ and T cells mature in the ___________\nbone marrow, thymus\nsmall, simple molecules are _____ antigens\nthe cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as\nT ________ cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells\nTc cells are important in controlling\nvirus infections\nwhich cells can serve as an antigen-presenting cell (APCs)\nB cells\ndendritic cells\na vaccine that contains part of virusesiscalled\nwidespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called\nherd immunity\npollen is which type of allergen\nb cells are responsible for which allergies\nasthma and anaphylaxis\nthe contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the\nprovocative dose\nthe direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of\nallergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils\ntheoretically, type ______ blood can be donated to all persons because it lacks __________\nO, antigens\nan example of a type III immune complex disease is\nserum sickness\ntype II hypersensitivities are due to\ncomplement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies\nrheumatoid arthritis is an _____ that affects the ________\nautoimmune disease, joints\nwhich disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology\nDiGeorge syndrome

__label__positive Take the 2-minute tour \u00d7\n\nLet $X$ be the vector space of all Lebesgue-measurable functions $f:\\left[a,b\\right]\\rightarrow\u211d$ such that $\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx<\\infty$ (Lebesgue integral). Then we can define an equivalence relation on $X$ as follows: $f \\cong g$ if $f(x)=g(x)$ almost everywhere on $\\left[a,b\\right]$. Then we construct equivalence classes $\\tilde{f}=\\{g\\in X:f\\cong g\\}$, and the vector space of these equivalence classes is $L^{2}[a,b]$, on which we define the norm $||\\tilde{f}||_{1}=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$ (Lebesgue integral). Now some of these equivalences classes are rather special: they contain a continuous function in them, so this is the natural choice for a representative of the equivalence class. Let $D\\subseteq L^{2}[a,b]$ be the subspace containing these special equivalence classes. My basic question is, if we assign the equivalence classes in $D$ their continuous representatives, what are the natural representatives of the other equivalence classes?\n\nWe can make this more precise. Let $C[a,b]$ be the vector space of continuous functions $f:\\left[a,b\\right]\\rightarrow\u211d$, endowed with a norm $||f||_{2}=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$ (Riemann or Lebesgue integral). Then the norm-completion of this space is in fact $L^{2}[a,b]$. The upshot of all this is that $D$ is dense in $L^{2}[a,b]$, and we have a norm-respecting isomorphism $T:(D,||\\cdot||_{1})\\rightarrow(C[a,b] , ||\\cdot||_{2})$ defined by $T(\\tilde{f})\\in \\tilde{f}$ (assigning each element of $D$ its continuous representative). So now the question becomes, does there exist a continuous linear extension $S$ of $T$ defined on all of $L^{2}[a,b]$ such that $S|_{D}=T$ and $S(\\tilde{f})\\in \\tilde{f}$ ? Well, $T$ is a bounded linear transformation (with operator norm 1) defined on a dense subspace, so it meets all the conditions of the BLT theorem other than the fact that its codomain is not a Banach space. Thus we have to expand $C[a,b]$ to a larger subspace of $X$, so that the codomain of $T$ becomes complete.\n\nThere are two potential ways to do this, depending on whether we define the norm $||\\cdot||_{2}$ in terms of Riemann or Lebesgue integrals. If we use Riemann integrals, we would need a subspace of $X$ consisting of Riemann-integrable functions, so we would have to answer the following in order to establish completeness: if $f_{n}\\rightarrow f$ with respect to the the $||\\cdot||_{2}$ (where $f$ need not be continuous), is $f$ necessarily Riemann integrable? (My first instinct is no, because Riemann-integrability requires boundedness, and you can have a sequence of continuous functions with ever-increasing bounds, so that the limit is unbounded). If we use Lebesgue integrals, we would need to ensure that two distinct elements of the subspace cannot have zero distance, so we would have to answer the following: if $f_{n}\\rightarrow f$ and $g_{n}\\rightarrow g$ with respect to the $||\\cdot||_{2}$ norm (where $f$ and $g$ need not be continuous) and $f(x)=g(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b]$, then are $f$ and $g$ necessarily the same function? (Again I fear the answer is no, because perhaps you can have a sequence of continuous functions that converges to a function with a removable discontinuity).\n\nI know I've included a lot of convoluted detail, but my fundamental question is relatively simple: can we replace the equivalence classes in $L^{2}[a,b]$ with natural representative functions, using continuous representatives where possible? Or to put it another way: does there exist a subspace $Y$ of $X$ containing $C[a,b]$, on which we can define a norm which will make it isomorphic to $L^{2}[a,b]$?\n\nEDIT: As Gerald has pointed out, a simpler way to phrase my question is that I want a lifting of $L^{2}[a,b]$ or more generally $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$.\n\nAny help would be greatly appreciated.\n\nThank You in Advance.\n\nshare|improve this question\nEven for the slightly more general case of equivalence classes containing piecewise continuous functions I don't see a natural way to proceed. How do we decide between $1_{(0, 1]}$ and $1_{[0, 1)}$ for example? \u2013\u00a0 Qiaochu Yuan Jan 1 '12 at 0:03\nDepending on one's ulterior goals, it might be useful to relate this to Sobolev space business. Let's look at the circle, instead of $[a,b]$, to dodge endpoint issues. Then $L^2(S^1)$ consists of constants + image of Sobolev space $H^2(S^1)$ under $d^2/dx^2$. By Sobolev imbedding/inequality, $H^2(S^1)$ is contained in $C^o(S^1)$, so functions in the \"space of equivalence classes\" $H^2(S^1)$ have a unique continuous representative. (Not all continuous functions are in $H^2$...) Then $L^2(S^1)$ is the image, plus constants. (If this direction is of interest, it is easy to elaborate...) \u2013\u00a0 paul garrett Jan 1 '12 at 0:10\nYemon, I mean something much more restrictive. I want $Y$ to be endowed with the specific norm $||f||=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$, but I'm open to this integral being either Riemann or Lebesgue. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 1 '12 at 2:28\nPaul, I don't think I know enough to know whether or not Sobolev spaces is the direction I want to go in, but I can tell you my ulterior motive: quantum mechanics. $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$ is a space of equivalence classes, but in QM you need to actually evaluate wavefunctions at points, so you need to choose representatives. In most common situations, the wavefunction is required to be continuous, so you choose a continuous representative out of an equivalence class that has one. But if you don't have continuity (which is possible!), the question becomes how can you choose a representative? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 1 '12 at 16:27\nI would imagine that in practice it is not actually necessary to evaluate wave functions at every single point in order to do quantum mechanics. For instance, one can often proceed by interpreting all the equations of quantum mechanics in a distributional sense rather than a pointwise sense (note that the theory of distributions are very well adapted to linear PDE of the type encountered in QM). In many cases, the formal computations that appeared to require some regularity hypotheses can often be extended to the distributional setting by duality or a limiting argument. \u2013\u00a0 Terry Tao Jan 2 '12 at 18:44\n\n4 Answers 4\n\nYes and no.\n\nThe yes part is the Zorn lemma: consider the set of all subspaces $L\\supset C[a,b]$ in the vector space of measurable square integrable functions such that no two functions in $L$ are equivalent partially ordered by inclusion. Since the union of any linearly ordered chain of such subspaces is such subspace again, we have a maximal such subspace $L$. It is easy to check that each square integrable function $f$ is equivalent to some function in $L$ (otherwise $\\text{span\\,}(L,f)$ is a bigger subspace).\n\nThe no part has been spelled out by Simon: no such subspace is any more reasonable or easier to put one's hands on than the Hamel basis of $\\mathbb R$.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nFedja, what guarantee is there that $L$ is complete? If you have a sequence of continuous functions which converges to a square-integrable function $f$ (in the L2 norm), what guarantee is there that $f$ is actually in $L$, not just equivalent to some function in $L$? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:06\nWhat do you mean? Equivalent functions are indistinguishable in $L^2$ and the limit in $L^2$ is defined up to a set of measure $0$. So, the function in $L$ that is the unique representative of the corresponding limit class is a limit of the sequence in the $L^2$-norm. Pointwise convergence has nothing to do with it. \u2013\u00a0 fedja Jan 4 '12 at 1:02\nSmall remark: Simon has withdrawn his original statement, although it seems like it should still be true \u2013\u00a0 Yemon Choi Jan 7 '12 at 2:44\n\nA \"lifting\" is exactly a choice of one element of each equivalence class. When done on $L^\\infty$, you want not only linear combinations of representatives to be representatives, but also products. There is a literature on this question. For example:\n\nTopics in the Theory of Lifting (Ergebnisse der Mathematik und ihrer Grenzgebiete. 2. Folge) by Alexandra Ionescu Tulcea and C. Ionescu Tulcea\n\nAlso found in the book: in a certain precise sense (which I don't remember) lifting is impossible for $L^p$ with $p<\\infty$.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nGerald, I think Tulcea's text is out of print. Do you know whether lifting is possible for $L^{2}$ is possible if we only require that linear combination of representatives yields representatives? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:18\n\nOne way to partially answer your last question might be the following. To each $f\\in L^2(a,b)$, first associate its Lebesgue primitive $F(x)=\\int_a ^x f(t)dt$, then define $Tf$ as one of the four Dini derivatives of $F$, e.g. $$ Tf(x)=\\limsup _{h\\to 0^+}h^{-1}(F(x+h)-F(x)).$$ Then $Tf=Tg$ everywhere if $f=g$ almost everywhere, $Tf=f$ almost everywhere, and $Tf$ is continuous if $f$ is equivalent to a continuous function. Thus the map $T$ associates to all members of a class of equivalence in $L^2$ the same function, which is the continuous representative of the class when it exists. An additional advantage is that the method is 'constructive'.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n@ Piero D'Ancona: It seems to me that the construction you give does not make $T$ linear since $T(-f)=-Tf$ need not hold. Consider for example $f:t\\mapsto 1+\\sin(t^{-1})$ on $[0,1]$ with $f(0)=0$. Would taking the average of the upper and lower Dini derivatives be a cure? \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 2 '12 at 18:06\nPiero, assuming the linearity issue raised by TaQ can be resolved, this looks promising. But can Dini derivatives be defined for functions of more than one variable? I was just considering $L^{2}[a,b]$ for simplicity, but what I'm really interested in is $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$. How would you define $T$ for that? Perhaps you could use the Hardy-Littlewood maximal operator defined here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hardy-Littlewood_maximal_operator But you again face the issue: Wikipedia claims it's nonlinear. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 0:41\nActually, it seems to me that defining $T$ on $L^2[0,1]$ by $f\\mapsto\\frac12(D^+\\int_0f+D_+\\int_0f)$ does not make it linear either. Here $(\\int_0f)(t)=\\int_0^tf$, and $D^+$ and $D_+$ denote the upper and lower Dini derivatives from the right. But, as Terry Tao and Dmitri Pavlov have already pointed out, I also agree with the opinion that there is no need to get point values for the purpose of quantum mechanics. \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 3 '12 at 18:41\nI wonder if you could use the Lebesgue differentiation theorem. Let $F(B)$ be the Lebesgue integral of $F$ over the open ball $B$, and let $Tf(x)=\\lim{|B|\\to 0}\\frac{F(B)}{|B|}$ where the limit is taken over open balls centered at $x$. Then $Tf=f$ almost everywhere, and thus $T$ chooses a unique representative out of each equivalence class, but does $T$ assign continuous representatives to the equivalence classes that have them, and is $T$ linear? If that doesn't work, is there anything we can do with the Hardy-Littlewood maximal operator? Does anyone know why it's not linear? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:55\nThen you do not get a vector space of functions since $+\\infty$ and $-\\infty$ cannot be added. \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 5 '12 at 18:45\n\nWell, there is a general sense in which your question can be answered in the affirmative. X = L^2 is a Banach space, and every Banach space X can be represented linearly and isometrically as a subspace of the continuous functions on a compact Hausdorff space K. The points of K are the continuous linear functionals on X. You deal with point functopns, not equivalence classes, but you have greatly extended the space of points.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n... it should read \"continuous linear functionals of norm <= 1\" ... \u2013\u00a0 Fred Dashiell Jan 2 '12 at 4:04\nI suppose this makes sense from a quantum mechanics standpoint; $X$ can consists of the vectors in the ket space, and $K$ can consist of normalized vectors (or \"rays\") in the bra space. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 1:27\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n

__label__positive SAP HCM Interview Questions\n\nSAP HCM Interview Questions\n\nList The Various Components Of The Enterprise Structure In Systems, Applications, And Products (SAP) In Human Capital Management (HCM)?\n\nThe components of the enterprise structure in SAP HCM are given as follows:\n\n 1. Client\n 2. Company code\n 3. Personnel area\n 4. Personnel subarea\n\nWhat Is Client In The SAP System?\n\nIn the SAP R/3 (R stands for Real-time) system, a client is an organization and a legal entity. A client is positioned at the highest level among all the organizational units. It contains the master data of various business processes, such as customers, products, and vendors. A three-digit number is used to represent clients in the SAP R/3 system.\n\nWhat Is Company Code?\n\nA company code is a unique four-character alphanumeric code that represents a legally independent enterprise.\n\nWhat Is Personnel Area?\n\nA personnel area is a subunit of company code. It is identified as an organizational unit representing an area in an enterprise, which is organized according to personnel administration, time management, and payroll accounting criteria. It is represented as a four-character alphanumeric code. For example, the personnel area code for a corporation is CORP.\n\nWhat Are Personnel Subareas?\n\nA personnel subarea is a part of personnel area, which can be subdivided according to the geographical location or the strategic line of business. It is represented as a four-character alphanumeric code. For example, if the branches or locations of an organization are defined as personnel area, then its departments, such as HR and ADMIN, are the personnel subareas of the organization.\n\nWhat Is SAP HCM Workflow?\n\nThe SAP HCM Workflow automates business processes and assigns tasks to appropriate person at the right time.\n\nWhat Do You Mean By Infotypes In SAP HCM?\n\nInfotypes are referred to as system-controlled characteristics of employees. Information related to employee is stored in the form of Infotypes,\n\nwhich are represented by a four-digit numeric code given as follows:\n\n 1. 0000 for actions\n 2. 0001 for organizational assignment\n 3. 0002 for personal data\n 4. 0003 for payroll status\n\nWhat Are Features In SAP HCM?\n\nFeatures are decision trees customized in the Implementation Guide (IMG) screen in SAP HCM that are made up of technical fields whose values are defaulted in the easy access.\n\nHow Do You Hire A New Employee?\n\nA new employee is hired with the PA40 transaction code. After that, all the Infotypes are maintained for the employee by using the PA30 transaction code.\n\nWhat are the three administrators ?\n\nThe three administrators are :\n\n 1. Personnel Administrator \u00a0\n 2. Payroll Administrator\n 3. Time Administrator\n\nHow does any company use an organizational plan?\n\nThe company organization structure and reporting structure is represented through the organization plan. The active plan version is the current plan version and the other plan versions are considered as various planning Stages. Used for manpower planning. Normally plan version\"01\" is always made the active plan version.\n\nWhat is an evaluation path?\n\nAn evaluation path describes a chain of relationships that exists between individual organizational objects in the organizational plan.\n\nYou can maintain evaluation paths on img -> Personnel Management ->Organization Management-> Basic Settings-> Maintain Evaluation Paths .\n\nWhat is the difference between a job and a position?\n\nJob is not concrete, it is is generic.(Eg: Manager, Assistant Manager, Consultant). Positions are related to persons .Position is concrete and specific which are occupied by Persons. (Eg: Manager \u2013 Finance , Consultant \u2013 SAP HR).\n\nWhat are Dynamic Actions? Give few examples?\n\nDynamic actions when triggered by the system. They are result of some personnel action. If changes are made (personnel action) to the personnel data of an info type, then has an effect on the data of a second info type, the system automatically displays the info type. One of the main purposes of the dynamic action (of the system) is to have a consistent and coherent data. These actions are started automatically by the system, unlike the Personnel actions which you start by yourself. The best example is when an action is carried out like hiring; it needs to populate a set of info types. In the initial entry of details in info type 0000 is personnel action. Then the system automatically displays next info types- which are result of dynamic action.\n\nSAP HCM Training\n\nWhat is the difference between Indian and US Payroll?\n\nDoes each of them have their own ITs and the taxation differs? Yes, since the Benefits which are more important in US. In US unemployment tax will come. Garnishments will come, Residence taxation, Work tax and others.\n\nHow can we evaluate wage types indirectly ?\n\nYou must define the characteristics of the wage-type to be evaluated indirectly. To do this, go to the IMG under Payroll *: Reimbursements, Allowances and Perks \u00ae Maintain Wage Type Characteristics.\n\nIn this activity, if the wage type has to be Indirectly Evaluated, you must first assign INVAL in the Indirect eval.module field.\n\nThen, you must assign the Module variant(A,B,C,D) for the wage type.Now when you populate the Basic Pay infotype (0008), the configured wage types will get defaulted, and those wage types configured for INVAL will also have their amounts defaulted.\n\nWhat ways are there to perform pay scale reassignment ?\n\nYou can reassign pay scale to any position through position maintenance(PO13). Go to change planned compensation and reassign the pay scale to the desired position.\n\n \u2022 Simple and extended pay increases\n \u2022 Simple Standard Pay Increase\n \u2022 Go to reporting. In the Program field enter report RPU51000.\n \u2022 The selection screen for the report is displayed.\n\nIn the Pay Scale Group, Pay Scale Level and Wage Type fields, enter the employees who should receive a standard pay increase. Enter the date from which the Customizing settings should be changed. In the Increase and Rounding sections, enter the necessary data, for example, an increasing amount or an increase percentage rate.\n\nThe amount of the indirectly valuated wage types is adjusted according to the data in the Customizing settings. No new infotype records have been created in the Basic Pay infotype (0008).\n\nExtended Standard Pay Increase\n\nIn the Program field enter report RPITRF00.In the Selection section, enter the selection criteria you want to use to effect an extended standard pay increase.\n\nChoose Batch Input.\n\nIf you do not select Batch Input, the pay scale reclassification will only be simulated. A results log is displayed, that you can evaluate as required.If necessary, enter the pay scale structure for which you want to effect a standard pay increase.\n\nProcess the batch input session.\n\nThe payments for the selected employees have been adjusted in accordance with the data specified in Customizing. New infotype records have been created in the Basic Pay infotype (0008).\n\nWhat is the employee subgroup grouping for primary wage types used for?\n\nYou can use these groupings to specify which wage types may be entered for which employee subgroups.\n\nThrough which T-Code you are able to create a remuneration statement?\n\nPC00_Mxx_CEDT (xx - denotes the molga for a country)\n\nHow can you define default wage types for the Basic Pay Infotype?\n\nThe system can suggest a default wage type for basic pay (IT0008), to do this appropriate wage type must be included in a wage type model. Here you define the default wage types and the sequence how they should appear in the infotype Basic Pay and whether you can overwrite the defaulted wage type or not.\n\nPersonnel Management -> Personnel Administration -> Payroll data -> Basic Pay -> Wage Type ->\n\nRevise Default Wage Types\n\nAfter setting wage type model, LGMST feature needs to be defined. Feature LGMST has two return values: firstly, the maximum number of wage types that can be entered in the Basic Pay infotype (IT0008), and secondly, the wage type model the system is to use, which was defined above.\n\nTo access feature LGMST use following SPRO path or transaction PE03.\n\nSPRO: Personnel Management -> Personnel Administration -> Payroll data -> Basic Pay -> Wage Type -> Enterprise Structure for Wage Type Model\n\nIn which feature, default wage type is defined for Basic Pay Infotype?\n\n\nHow does the system know when to trigger retroactive accounting for a particular employee?\n\nRetroactive accounting recognition consists of four steps:\n\n \u2022 If you edit an infotype that is relevant to retroactive accounting, the system enters the start date of the changed infotype record in the following fields of infotype 0003 Payroll Status:\n\n \u2022 Earliest MD change (earliest master data change since last payroll run)\n \u2022 MD chng.bonus (earliest payroll-relevant master data change (bonus)). This field is only displayed for specific country groupings, it is not displayed for all personnel numbers.\n\n \u2022 During the next regular payroll run or correction run (off-cycle payroll type B), the system determines whether the date in the Earliest MD change and (if applicable) MD chng.bonus fields comes before the date in the Accounted to field.\n \u2022 If this is the case, the system performs retroactive accounting. It starts with the payroll period in which the date entered in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields occurs. The system recalculates all payroll periods that lie between the date in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields and the date in the Accounted to field.\n \u2022 The system deletes the date in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields\n\nWhat activities are possible when the payroll control record is set to \u201cReleased for Payroll\u201d?\n\nIf you choose the function Release Payroll from the menu, you are prevented from changing infotype data records if such changes affect the past or present. This lock applies to the personnel numbers included in the payroll area concerned. Changes that affect the future are still permitted. You must execute this function in the menu before starting the payroll. If the status of the payroll control record was previously Exit Payroll, the Release Payroll function also has the effect of increasing the period in the payroll control record by 1.\n\nCan a posting run be deleted?\n\nYes It can be reversed before the Bank transfer.Once the transfer is done the payments need to be adjusted in the next payments.\n\nDifference between PCR and CAP?\n\nDifference between PCR and CAP is mentioned below:\n\nPCR - The Personnel Calculation rule allows how one wage type is to be processed in different ways in payroll accounting.\n\nCAP - CAP is Collective Agreement Provision based on which the different groups of Employees are eligible for different kinds of pay scale structures and benefits and so on. CAP is based on the following components :\n\n 1. Pay scale type\n 2. Pay scale area\n 3. Employee subgroup grouping for CAP\n 4. Pay Scale Group and Pay Scale Level\n\nAn employee subgroup grouping for collective agreement provisions combines subgroups which are governed by the same valid collective agreement provisions. A provision is a specific labor law regulation within the collective agreement.\n\nNaming convention for wage types\n\nThe following naming conventions are used for wage types:\n\n \u2022 /0** \u2013 valuation bases\n \u2022 /1** \u2013 cumulation of gross amount\n \u2022 /2** \u2013 averages\n \u2022 /3** \u2013 country-specific, usually for social insurance\n \u2022 /4** \u2013 country-specific, usually for tax\n \u2022 /5** \u2013 legal net\n \u2022 /7** \u2013 wage/salary plus ER shares\n \u2022 /8** \u2013 \u00a0factoring\n \u2022 /84* \u2013 cost accounting\n \u2022 /A** \u2013 outgoing wage types in retroactive accounting period\n \u2022 /Z** \u2013 incoming wage types from the previous period\n\nDo you know in OM -> copy plan version?\n\n\u00a0To copy plan version use the Tcode: RE_RHCOPL00.\n\nThis report is only for copying objects from one plan version to another plan version to keep updated structures Always only one plan version would be active which is current. This report does not help to copy any master data.\n\nCan a posting run be deleted?\n\nYes, It can be reversed before the Bank transfer. Once the transfer is done the payments need to be adjusted in the next payments.\n\nWhat activities are possible when the payroll control record is set to \"Released for Payroll \"?\n\nWhen you set the status to Released for payroll you cant make any change to master data. Its actually released for payroll.\n\nIs it possible to branch directly from the payroll log to master data and time data maintenance\n\nYes, you can go in separate sessions.\n\nPayroll Results\n\nHow do you post the payroll results to FICO? I created one symbolic account and assigned the same to Salaries GL Account and then completed the other configuration steps needed to complete the procedure.\n\nHowever, when I tried to run the simulation for posting to FICO, I got the message \u201cDocument is not generated\u201d.\n\nIf you have selected \u201cOutput Log\u201d at the beginning of your configuration procedure, it will tell you at the bottom part what went wrong.\n\nDeduction Wage Type\n\nWe have a deduction wage type displayed in the window of our pay slip that shows a negative value.This causes problems and we have tried several measures to correct this including conversion rule 16 for our wage type in the same window but so far, without any success. How can we correct or delete the negative sign?\n\nYou can review OSS Note 406977.\n\nThis is a collective note of issues with RPCEDTx0 with examples of problems and solutions.\n\nPayroll Simulation\n\nHow do I correct the payroll simulation entry and check the correctness of our master data? What if one hundred employees get rejected due to error 167-process health plans? What does the following error mean: \u201cNo entry for plan DENT/cost variant. FMDN/key////x00000000000000\u201d ?\n\nYou should check for the cost element associated and the validity of cost rule for this plan. To do this, check your configuration under Benefits>Plans>Health Plans>Define cost variant and define cost rules.\n\nPayroll Simulation\n\nWhy is the system not picking up the values changed this month by default during payroll simulation? However, when I tried last month\u2019s retro date, it picks up correctly. How can this issue be corrected?\n\nYou can check the \u201cEarliest MD (master data) change\u201d date on infotype 0003. If you have done that already and payroll simulation still doesn\u2019t function by default, then there is a problem with your infotype and/or wage type retro settings. Check table T582A.\n\nSingle Payroll\n\nIs it possible to configure a single payroll to pay an individual in multiple currencies?\n\nNo. The system can be configured to pay in multiple currencies but not to pay an individual in multiple currencies.\n\n\nI need to capture a reason in the \"additional payment\" IT0015. The reason code is \u201csave\u201d in this infotype. I tried to capture for reason an Example to ADDWT 9999 if Reason ADDWT9998. How can I check the reason in IT0015 for accuracy?\n\nYou can try using this to start with: \u2018TABLE P0015 > VARGB PREAS\u2019\n\nThen, use the variable key to define the different reasons.\n\nWhich characteristics does a day with day type 1 have?\n\nIts OFF and Paid\n\n\nYou have to mention the retro active accounting date in IT 0003 in the relevant field. Otherwise it will take the earlier hiring date.\n\nIs it possible to branch directly from the payroll log to maser data and time data maintenance?\n\nYes you can go in separate sessions.\\\n\nWhat Do You Understand By Personnel Structure?\n\nPersonnel structure is defined as the structure of employees in an organization. It comprises employee groups and employee subgroups.\n\nThe employee group allows you to divide employees into groups and define their relationship to the enterprise.\n\nFollowing are some important organizational functions that can be performed using an employee group:\n\nCreating default values when data is input, such as creating default values for the payroll accounting area or basic pay of the employee\n\nCreating a criteria of selection to be used during evaluations\n\nCreating a unit to be used for authorization check.\n\nWhat Is Shift Planning?\n\nShift Planning is a component of Personnel Time Management. It is used to plan the shift time and location of the employees according to their qualification and the number of job requirements. The document used to record this information is called planned shift document, which is also known as roster.

__label__positive \n\nLooking For Something at vustudents.ning.com? Click Here to Search\n\n\n+ Link For Assignments, GDBs & Online Quizzes Solution\n\n\n\n\n\nYe can share your paper here.\n\n\n+ How to Join Subject Study Groups & Get Helping Material?\n\n\n\nSee Your Saved Posts Timeline\n\nViews: 285\n\n\n\n\n\n+ Click Here To Join (Our facebook study Group)\n\nReplies to This Discussion\n\n: Mgt301 24/feb @8am ....bacho wala paper aya ... mcqs 100% past paers se ... short long questions 10 ae .. jis m ager ap sales wale ho tu bohat ezly paper kr sakte ho ... advertising k 2 question the ... market mixing ka ek ...or baqi agramm shagramm\n\nMgt301 40 mcq mostly 25 to 37.10q from past paper mcq difficult confusion Waly thy subjective easy tha.direct marketing.cut price effect on company,difeence b/w prsnl selling and advertisig,new products price stgy,VMS mn coperat n adminstrator,2 conceptual thy.time shortage agaye thi\n\nkindly share the past paper file\n\nkoi tu share kr dyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy\n\n\ncurrent solved papers hainye\n\nMGT301 final term papers\n\nAre Services different from products?..If yes then HOW?\nDefine Business Market...What are the characteristics of Business Market\nWhat do u understand by business market and Business buying process?\nWhat are the three main steps which planners should think about?\n\nTotal 32 questions\n28 mcq's mostly from past papers, 4 subjective ques\u00a0\nWhy it is important to divide international market into segments? (3 marks)\nWhat are the uses of market research? (3 marks)\nWhat are the advantages and disadvantages of micro-environment marketing? (5 marks)\nsorry I forget 1 question of 5 marks\n\nMGT 301\nTotal question 32\nTotal mcq 28\nTwo question 3 marks\nTwo question 5 marks\n22 mcqs old papers and 6 mcqs new\u00a0\nwhat is a difference between idea generation and idea screening 3 marks\nNew product development related question 3 marks\nDefine the marketing research and describe four marketing research 5 marks\nlast question 5 marks\n\n\n\nWhat do u understand by business market and Businesss buying process?\n\nWhat are the three main steps which planners should think about?\n\nIf a comapny ABC is goin to launch a new product in tareget market They are looking the name of goods and what is the good characteristics of goods?\nMarketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by\nwhat is the individual difference of adoption of innovation?\nsorry i forget 1 question of 3marks\n\nAdvantages of Adoption innovation 3 Marks\nExplain the Research process n characteristic 3 Marks\nResearch Groups and why important for the marketer 5 marks.\nif a company want s new business start and he decide to enter in the market how n why and why need to brand name. 5 Marks\n\n\nToday mgt 301 paper\n\nSocial media ke definition + three site names of social media.A company give full serives\u00a0 why explain.E_marketing definition.\n\n\n\nMgt301 4th March, 11:00am\n\n40 Mcqs: 5 mcqs were from past papers and the rest of them were from handouts.\n\n\nAdvertising styles.\n\nSocial media marketing.\n\nPricing techniques in small and large organizations.\n\nA statement was given. Identify distribution technique and explain.\n\nFor attraction of customer, what new marketing strategies should be followed by retailers.\n\nPersonal selling technique.\n\nList down 3 search engines.\n\nWrite down 3 social marketing sites.\n\nPaper was easy overall.\n\nBest of luck.\n\n1. As a manager your target is promotion of product. Describe the steps.\n\n2. What is difference between E-commerce, E-Marketing and E-Business.\n\njazak allah khair\n\nAssalam o alikum\n\nmgt301 modules 1-5\n\n\nAssalam o alikum\n\n\n(5 marks)\n\n==>\" Consumers are making purchase decisions based on recommendations from social networks\u201d. Do you agree with this statement in the context of current digital age?\n\n==>Define public relations and explain what are the major public relations decisions which marketers have to take?\n\n==>Enlist all promotional tools and explain any one of them in detail.\n\n==>Enlist the steps involved in channel design decisions and explain the types of intermediaries available for channel design decisions.\n\n==>Define discount and allowance pricing strategy. Explain what are the four types of discounts that can be used to adjust prices?\n\n\n(3 marks)\n\n==>Briefly describe the term \"E-marketing\"\n\n==>Direct mail marketing involves sending offers, announcements, reminder, and other items to customers on their specific address. What could be the advantages of direct mail marketing?\n\n==>Describe different situations where organizations can practice the sales promotion technique.\n\n==>If the Samsung company unexpectedly cuts the\u00a0 prices of its LCDs to one third. As a buyer how would you perceive this price cut?\n\n==>Companies keep various objectives while setting the pricing strategies for their products. State any two marketing objectives that affect the pricing decisions.\n\n\n\nToday Top Members\u00a0\n\n\u00a9 2020 \u00a0 Created by + M.Tariq Malik. \u00a0 Powered by\n

__label__positive Correct the mistakes 1.the pyramids are in the is a hourglass.3. tne mark is a student.4.i have got a is an earth is a planet.7.they have got a old car.\n\n\n\u041e\u0442\u0432\u0435\u0442\u044b \u0438 \u043e\u0431\u044a\u044f\u0441\u043d\u0435\u043d\u0438\u044f\n\n\n1. The pyramids are in Egypt.\n2. It's an hourglass.\n3. Mark is a student.\n4. I have got the milk. (\u0438\u043b\u0438 \u0431\u0435\u0437 the)\n5. It is\u00a0a house.\n\n6. The Earth is a planet.\n\n7. They have got an old car.\n\n\u0412\u0440\u043e\u0434\u0435 \u0431\u044b \u0442\u0430\u043a...

__label__positive Take the tour \u00d7\n\nI'm trying to prove that a set of all sets does not exist, meaning that the following does not exist: $$ D = \\{ S \\mid S \\text{ is a set} \\} $$ I can use Cantor's Theorem and the proof of cardinality of sets which says that if $A\u2286B$ then $A\u2264B$. But I'm stuck with where to go next.\n\nshare|improve this question\nadd comment\n\n2 Answers\n\nup vote 7 down vote accepted\n\nIf there were a set $D$ containing every set $S$ as an element, consider the power set $P(D)$. The elements of $P(D)$ are subsets of $D$, so in particular they are sets, so we must have $P(D) \\subseteq D$. Why does this contradict Cantor's Theorem?\n\nOne more technical push: if $\\iota: A \\hookrightarrow B$ is an injection of nonempty sets, then there is a surjection $s: B \\rightarrow A$. To define $s$, let $a_0 \\in A$. Then for $b \\in B$, if $b$ lies in the image $\\iota(A)$ then we must have $b = \\iota(a)$ for a unique $a$, and we set $\\sigma(b) = a$. If $b$ does not lie in $\\iota(A)$, we set $\\sigma(b) = a_0$. (For the cognoscenti: this does not use the Axiom of Choice. The converse does.)\n\nshare|improve this answer\nIt contradicts Cantor's Theorem because Cantor's Theorem says that the set of all subsets of a set must have a greater carindality than the set itself. But what D implies is that the set of all subsets of D is a subset of D, but because the cardinality of P(D) > D, we know that it's wrong. \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:40\nIs my explanation correct? Do I need to formalize that more? \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:52\nWhat you've said is correct. Some people might prefer more attention paid to subtleties in the meaning of $A \\leq B$ for sets: this means (right?) that there is an injection $\\iota: A \\rightarrow B$; $A < B$ means $A \\leq B$ and $A \\not \\equiv B$: there is no bijection between them. What Cantor's Theorem says is that there is no surjection $s: D \\rightarrow P(D)$.... \u2013\u00a0 Pete L. Clark Jul 24 at 20:53\nBy the second paragraph in my answer, this implies that $P(D) \\not \\leq D$. To get from this to $P(D) > D$ you need (I believe) to use cardinal trichotomy, i.e., that for any two sets $A$ and $B$, either $A < B$, $A \\equiv B$ or $A > B$, but this uses The Axiom of Choice. However, we don't need this since we already have both $P(D) \\leq D$ and $P(D) \\not \\leq D$: contradiction. I don't know whether cardinal trichotomy is something you can make use of, so I phrased my answer so as to avoid it. \u2013\u00a0 Pete L. Clark Jul 24 at 20:56\nThanks Pete, I'm fine with keeping this simple as I haven't learned about The Axiom of Choice yet. If possible, can you expand on the subtleties of this proof? I think I have the overall concept right, but I'm missing some details that make it rigorous. \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:58\nadd comment\n\nSince you seem to have an \"is a set\" predicate, I assume you are not using standard ZFC set theory. Not a problem. I also assume you are not necessarily prohibiting set self-membership. Much easier then, without using Cantor's theorem or cardinality, is to first assume to the contrary the existence of your $D$. Then select the subset $R$ of $D$ consisting of those and only those sets are that are not elements of themselves. This leads to the well known contradiction from Russell's Paradox since $R$, the so-called Russell Set, would also itself be a set. So, $D$, as defined here, cannot exist.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nadd comment\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n

__label__positive Forum Thread: How to Use the Pythagorean Theorem to Solve Word Problems.\n\nApply the Pythagorean Theorem\nToday we are going to look at applying the Pythagorean Theorem.\nExample problem. A 12 foot ladder is placed four feet from the base of a wall,\nhow far up the wall will the ladder reach?\n\nRules of working with a word problems in Geometry.\nFirst rule is that you always draw a picture.\nGet out your marker and draw a scenario of what this situation looks like.\nThen I want you to label it.\nTake all the information and label the picture, and since this is the Pythagorean Theorem.\n\nWe will identify where is A where is B and where is C and then we will plug everything into the Pythagorean Theorem, and solve for the unknown.\n\nSo let's go through the steps.\n\nLet's draw a picture. We have a wall and we have a ladder leaning against the wall. (Draws this) and now let's label what we know.\n\nWe know this is a 12 foot ladder, and it is placed four feet from the base of the wall.\n\nThat means my four feet is here. (points to bottom of triangle) and I have the right angle here.\n\nNow opposite the right angle is the hypotenuse or C that means the floor is B so A is missing.\n\nI have now identified A, B, and C.\n\nApply the Pythagorean Theorem.\n\nSo let's square these out, four squared is 16, and 12 squared is 144 ,and I don't know my A squared.\n\nNow, let's subtract 16 from both sides.\nTo undo a square you take the square root so the square root of 128, so to find the square root of 128\n\nMake a factor tree.\nA = 8 is how far up the ladder will reach.\n\nYou could also get the decimal version by originally taking the square root of 128 on your calculator, but the exact answer is 8 square 2. Hope this was helpful.\n\nPythagorean Theorem word problems\n\nPythagorean Theorem word problems Directions for solving Pythagorean Theorem word problems. Includes many example word problems,and video tutorials\n\nBe the First to Respond\n\nShare Your Thoughts\n\n \u2022 Hot\n \u2022 Active

__label__positive Psychodynamic Assumptions Flashcards Preview\n\nPsychology C1 > Psychodynamic Assumptions > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Psychodynamic Assumptions Deck (22):\n\nWhat are the 3 assumptions of the psychodynamic approach?\n\nInfluence of childhood experiences\nThe unconscious mind\nTripartite personality\n\n\nWhat is the Id?\n\n~Pleasure principle\nAims to gain pleasure and gratification at any cost\nUnconscious part of our personality\nPresent at birth\n\n\nWhat is the Ego?\n\n~Reality principle\nBalances the demands of the Id in a socially acceptable way\nConscious rational part of the mind\nDevelops around age 2\n\n\nWhat is the Superego?\n\nA persons sense of right as wrong as well as their ideal self\nSeeks to perfect and civilise behaviour\nLearned through identifying with ones parents, peers etc\nDevelops around age 4\n\n\nThe Id and the superego are often in conflict, how does the Ego resolve this?\n\nIt acts as a referee by considering the consequences of actions\n\n\nWhat does each stage of the psychosexual stages represent?\n\nThe fixation of libido (sexual drives\\instincts) on a different area of the body\n\n\nProblems at any psychosexual stage can lead to what?\n\nA child being fixated at the part of the body associated with this stage which will have an effect on personality\n\n\nHow can fixation occur?\n\nThrough frustration (when a stage is not resolved because the child\u2019s needs have not been met) OR overindulgence (when the needs of the child are over satisfied)\n\n\nWhat are the 5 psychosexual stages?\n\nOral (0-18 months)\nAnal (18 months- 3 years)\nPhallic (3-5 years)\nLatency (5 years- puberty)\nGenital (puberty onwards)\n\n\nAt each psychosexual stage what is the libido focus?\n\nOral- mouth: focus on breastfeeding\nAnal- anus: focus on potty training\nPhallic-genitals: masturbation and the Oedipus Complex\nLatency-little/no sexual motivation- focus on understanding the world and developing relationships\nGenital- genitals and heterosexual intercourse\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of overindulgence and frustration at the oral and anal stage?\n\nOverindulgence: they are fed too much or too often, as adults they may be optimistic or too dependent on others\nFrustration: aggressive adults or full of envy\n\nOverindulgence: messy, disorganised\nFrustration: overly tidy, possessive\n\n\nWhat are the 3 different levels of consciousness?\n\nThe conscious\nThe preconscious\nThe unconscious\n\n\nWhat is the conscious mind?\n\nWhat we are currently thinking and feeling and aware of. Logical and rational\n\n\nWhat is the preconscious mind?\n\nThe level just under the surface: what we are not currently thinking about by could be aware of it if we thought about it- similar to memories\n\n\nWhat is the unconscious mind?\n\nCannot be directly accessed, it is irrational and ruled by pleasure seeking\nIt is where all our repressed thoughts and feelings and contained\n\n\nWhat is a Freudian slip?\n\nWhen you say something accidentally which reveals something you are unaware of. It can happen when things which are unavailable to the conscious mind seep through and have an effect in our behaviour\n\n\nWhat are ego defence mechanisms?\n\nWhen conflicts between the id, ego and superego create anxiety, the ego protects itself using ego-defence mechanisms. These defences can cause disturbed behaviour if over used\n\n\nAside from ego defence mechanisms, what are 3 other types of defence mechanisms?\n\nDisplacement: transfer of impulses from one person or object to another\nProtection: undesirable thoughts are attributed to someone else\nRepression: pushing painful memories deep down into our unconscious mind, so they are effectively forgotten\n\n\nWhat is the libido focus at the phallic stage?\n\nThe Oedipus complex\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the phallic stage?\n\nSelf assured, vain and problems with sexuality\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the latency stage?\n\nNo fixation as no pleasure focus\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the genital stage?\n\nWell-developed adult personality

__label__positive Question DetailsNormal\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\nQuestion posted by\n\nQuestion 1\n\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies obsolete adversely affect the economy.\n\n\n\nQuestion 2\n\nAn organizational feasibility analysis consists of judging the management's prowess (skill) and resource sufficiency.\n\n\n\nQuestion 3\n\nFor an entrepreneur, the advantages of becoming a franchisee include ALL below EXCEPT:\n\na. A proven product within an established market\n\n\u00a0b. franchisor's ongoing support\n\nc. cost of the franchise\n\nd. availability of financing\n\nQuestion 4\n\nThe purpose of a business plan is not to force an entrepreneur to systematically think through the new venture.\n\n\n\nQuestion 5\n\nThe reason given most commonly for becoming an entrepreneur is having a passion for the business.\n\n\n\n\nQuestion 6\n\nThe reason for planning growth of an entrepreurial firm is:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scale to lower buying costs and production costs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scope to expand product lines\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Ability to attract and retain talented employees\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market leadership\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\nQuestion 7\n\nExpression of an entrepreneurial idea is not copyrightable, but the actual idea\u00a0is copyrightable.\n\n\n\nQuestion 8\n\nThe entrepreneurial process always includes ALL of the following EXCEPT\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Developing business ideas.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Deciding to be an entrepreneur\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Planning to go public\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial firm\n\nQuestion 9\n\nGenerally, industries are more attractive when the threat of substitutes is ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0High\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0neutral (neither high or low)\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for manufacturing firms and low for service firms\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for service firms and low for manufacturing firms\n\nQuestion 10\n\nIn general, industries are more attractive when the ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are high\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the forces is neutral-neither low nor high\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is high\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is low\n\nQuestion 11\n\nFinding ways to avoid need for external funding through creativity or any means necessary is called \"seeding.\"\u00a0\n\n\n\nQuestion 12\n\nWhich of the following statements about target markets is incorrect?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If you don\u2019t know who your target customers are, you won't be able to assess whether you are meeting their needs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Targeting your market is simply defining who your primary customer will be.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0By focusing on a target market, a firm can usually avoid head-to-head competition with competitive leaders and can serve a specialized market.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0A target market is a place within a larger market segment that represents a narrower group of customers with similar needs.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0It's easter to be \"all things to all people\" than to focus on a narrower market.\n\nQuestion 13\n\nRewards-based \"crowdfunding\" raises money for entrepreneurs in exchange for equity in the business.\n\n\n\nQuestion 14\n\n________ is the process of determining whether a business idea is viable\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Feasibility analysis\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Opportunity recognition\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Viability analysis\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Achievability analysis\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Scenario analysis\n\nQuestion 15\n\nAccording to the textbook, how do well-managed firms respond to the five forces that determine industry profitability?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They switch industries if the forces are too compelling.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They focus on one force intently and excel by overcoming that force.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They overcome each of the forces.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They ignore the forces.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They try to position their firms in a way that avoids or diminishes the forces.\n\nQuestion 16\n\nMarketing action that results in a product being thought of differently by consumers is called:\u00a0(choose one)\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0consumer commercialization\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0skimming\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0market segmentation\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0penetration\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0repositioning\n\n\nQuestion 17\n\nIn most industries, the major determinant of industry profitability is the level of competition among the firms already competing in the industry.\n\n\n\nQuestion 18\n\nOnce a firm decides to enter an industry and chooses a market in which to compete, it must gain an understanding of its competitive environment. This challenge can be undertaken by completing a(n) ________ analysis.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Business\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Industry\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Competitor\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market\n\nQuestion 19\n\n\u00a0The most important thing an entrepreneur can do to build a strong ethical culture is to lead by example.\n\n\n\nQuestion 20\n\nA complete misread of the customer is usually not fatal to business success if the business model is ambitious.\n\n\n\nQuestion 21\n\nWhich of the following is not an attribute of an attractive industry?\n\nA.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is young rather than old\n\nB.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is not crowded\n\nC.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is late rather than early in its life cycle\n\nD.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is important to the customer\n\nE.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is fragmented rather than concentrated\n\nQuestion 22\n\nWhich ONE of the following most is important for an entrepreneur to be successful?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Intelligence Quotient\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Desire to be wealthy\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Emotional Intelligence\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic Intelligence\n\nQuestion 23\n\nA potential entrepreneurial opportunity is limited by its \"window of opportunity.\"\n\n\n\nQuestion 24\n\nMulti-level marketing (MLM) is often criticized because:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Some multi-level marketing (MLM) firms focus more on getting new distributors rather than selling products\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing usually doesn't give exclusive rights to an area or territory.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing (MLM) is often compared to a \"pyramid scheme\" since the market can become saturated as new distributors are added.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0None of the above\n\nAvailable Solution\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\n \u2022 This solution has not purchased yet.\n \u2022 Submitted On 21 Jan, 2018 06:58:18\nSolution posted by\n1. 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__label__positive 69 terms\n\nMuscular System\n\nWhat are the three muscle types in the body?\nskeletal, cardiac, smooth\nWhat is the endomysium?\na thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber\nWhat is the perimysium?\nconnective tissue that surrounds groups of 10-100 individual muscle fibers separating them into bundles called fascicles.\nWhat is the epimysium?\nConnective tissue layer(outside muscle); an overcoat of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle\nWhere are smooth muscles found in the body?\nwalls of hollow organs (except heart) in the digestive system, blood vessels, and urinary system\nHow is cardiac muscle contraction regulated?\ninvoluntary contraction\nWhat are the functions of muscle?\nproducing movement, maintaining posture, stabilizing joints and generating heat\nWhat is the sarcolemma?\nspecialized plasma membrane of muscle cells\nWhat is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?\nstores calcium\nWhat is myosin?\nThick filament protein with a head and elongated tail, the heads form cross bridges with the thin filaments during muscle contraction\nWhat is actin?\nThin filament protein. Twisted into a double helix and appears like a double-stranded chain of pearls. Contains the myosin-binding site.\nWhat is the neurotransmitter for muscle contraction?\nacetylcholine (ACh)\nWhat is the energy needed for muscle contraction?\nstored ATP\nWhat types of muscles are involuntary?\nsmooth and cardiac\nWhat types of muscle are striated?\nskeletal and cardiac\nWhat type of muscle is voluntary?\nWhat type of muscle has intercalated discs?\nWhere is glycogen stored in the muscle cells?\nin glycosomes\nWhat is the cytoplasm of the muscle cell?\nWhat is the light area of the sarcomere?\nI Band\nWhat structure attaches a bone to a muscle?\nWhat proteins are on actin?\ntropomysin and troponin (in skeletal muscle)\nWhat is the H Band?\nthe center part of the sarcomere that gets smaller when a muscle contracts and appears when the muscle relaxes\nWhat ion stimulates the contraction of muscle?\nWhat is the function of skeletal muscle?\nmovement of bones\nWhat type of muscle forms most of the heart?\nWhat type of muscle exhibits autorhythmicity (beats with a steady rhythm)?\nWhat type of muscle forms the walls of hollow internal structures?\nWhat type of muscles have a striped appearance?\nskeletal and cardiac\nWhat is the contractile unit of muscle?\nWhat is another name for a muscle cell?\nmuscle fiber\nWhat is the ability of an electrical impulse to stimulate a muscle cell to contract?\nWhat is the ability of muscle cells to shorten and generate a pulling force?\nWhat is the muscles' ability to be stretched back to its original length by contraction of an opposing muscle?\nWhat is a cross bridge?\nThe connection of a myosin head group to an actin filament during muscle contraction (the sliding filament theory)\nWhat is the ability of a muscle to recoil after being stretched?\nA sarcomere is the distance between two __ ?\nZ discs\nThe thicker filaments are the ________filaments.\nBoth actin and myosin are found in the _______band.\nWhat is troponin?\na regulatory protein that moves tropomyosin aside & exposes myosin binding sites when Ca+ is released during muscle contraction\nWhat causes the striations of skeletal muscles?\nArrangements of myofilaments\nWhat are striations?\nthe light and dark stripes in skeletal and cardiac muscles\nTrue or False--The sliding filament model of contraction involves actin and myosin sliding past each other but not shortening.\nWhat is tropomyosin?\nIt is a long, fibrous protein that winds around the actin polymer, blocking all the myosin-binding sites.\nWhat is myoglobin?\nA protein that holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells?\nWhat is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?\nWhat is sarcoplasm?\nthe cytoplasm of a striated muscle fiber\nWhat is the neuromuscular junction?\npoint of contact between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell\nWhat is glycogen?\na complex carbohydrate consisting of stored glucose molecules in skeletal muscles; breaks down to release glucose when it is needed for energy.\nList the structures in order from largest to smallest -sarcomere, myofibrils, muscle, actin & myosin, muscle fibers, fascicle\nmuscle, fascicles, muscle fibers, myofibrils, sarcomere, actin & myosin\nWhat is a fascicle?\nWhat is the origin of a muscle?\nless moveable of the two bones is considered to be the starting point of the muscle\nWhat is the insertion of a muscle?\nthe end of a muscle attached to a movable part\nWhat is an aponeurosis?\nBroad, flat, sheet like connective tissue that connects muscles to a bone or another muscle\nWhat is a myofilament?\nthreadlike structures found in myofibrils which aid in contraction, composed of myosin (thick) and actin (thin)\nWhat is the M-line?\nsupporting proteins that hold the thick filaments together in the H zone\nWhat is a cross bridge?\nWhat is the sliding filament theory?\ntheory that actin filaments slide toward each other during muscle contraction, while the myosin filaments are still\nWhat is titin?\nelastic protein, keeps thick and thin filaments aligned\nWhat is acetylcholine?\nneurotransmitter that diffuses across a synapse and produces an impulse in the cell membrane of a muscle cell\nWhat is the function of calcium ions in muscle contraction?\nwhen released from the SR, they stimulate the reaction leading to muscle contraction by attaching to regulatory proteins on actin.\nWhat is an action potential?\nElectrical impulse that travels down the axon triggering the release of neurotransmitters\nsliding filament model\nneuromuscular junction\nmuscle fiber\nmuscle attachments\nLabel the skeletal muscle

__label__positive Sunday, February 2, 2014\n\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce? (Fill In Blanks)\n\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce?\u00a0\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce?\nCross-section of Flower\nFill in the Blanks\n\n[Asexual Reproduction in Plants]\n\n1. The ability of plant cells to give rise to whole plant is called as ____.\n\n2. In Asexual reproduction the gametes are ______ (formed/not formed).\n\n3. In yeasts, ____ is the most common type of asexual reproduction.\n\n4. In grafting, the union occurs through formation of ____ between the two grafts.\n\n5. The process of formation of spores is called ____.\n\n6. Asexual reproduction method in spirogyra is called _______.\n\n7. Orchids and Ornamental Plants are generally reprodued asexually. One of the common vegetative propagation technique used for these plants is _______.\n\n[Sexual Reproduction in Plants]\n\n8. Plants like Hibiscus and mustard have ________ (bisexual/unisexual) flowers.\n\n9. In sexual reproduction, the male and female gametes fuse together and form a ____.\n\n10. Ovule develops from a cushion like part of the ovary ____.\n\n11. Pollen grains of a flower transfer to the stigma of the carpel of the same flower is called ____.\n\n12. Fertilization occurs ________ (inside/outside) the ovary.\n\n13. Ovary grows rapidly and ripens to forms a fruit, while the seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under suitable condition. This process is known as __________.\n\n[Sexual Reproduction in Animals]\n\n14. The male gametes are called _______\n\n15. The zygote undergoes multiple divisions, which are _____ (mitotic/meiotic) type.\n\n16: Earthworm is an organism of ____________ type i.e. it contains reproductive organs of both male and female genders.\n\n17: In male frog, thousands of spermatozoa are discharged in a group, which is called as ____.\n\n[Human Reproductive System]\n\n18. The period of sexual maturation is called ________\n\n19. The male hormone secreted by testes to regulate production of sperms is called ______\n\n20. The gestation period in human beings is _____.\n\n21. Two Fallopian tube unite into an elastic bag like structure known as ___________.\n\n22. Fertilization occurs in the ________(ovary/ Fallopian tube) of female genital tract.\n\n23. The Embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of a\nspecial tissue called ________\n\n24. The stage which marks the end of menstruation in the woman is called _________.\n\n25. Female sex hormones are _____ and ____________ which are produced in ovary.\n\n26. Surgical methods of contraception are ________ and __________.\n\n1: Totipotency\n2: not formed\n3: budding\n4: parents\n5: sporulation\n6: fragmentation\n7: tissue culture\n8: bisexual\n9: zygote\n10. placenta\n11. self pollination\n12. inside\n13. Germination\n14: sperms\n15: mitotic\n16: hermaphrodite\n17: Milt\n18: puberty.\n19: testosterone\n20: 40 weeks\n21: uterus\n22: fallopian tube\n23: placenta\n24: menupause\n25: oestrogen, progesterone\n26: vasectomy and tubectomy\n\nNo comments:\n\nPost a Comment

__label__positive Question DetailsNormal\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\nQuestion posted by\n\nQuestion 1\n\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies obsolete adversely affect the economy.\n\n\n\nQuestion 2\n\nAn organizational feasibility analysis consists of judging the management's prowess (skill) and resource sufficiency.\n\n\n\nQuestion 3\n\nFor an entrepreneur, the advantages of becoming a franchisee include ALL below EXCEPT:\n\na. A proven product within an established market\n\n\u00a0b. franchisor's ongoing support\n\nc. cost of the franchise\n\nd. availability of financing\n\nQuestion 4\n\nThe purpose of a business plan is not to force an entrepreneur to systematically think through the new venture.\n\n\n\nQuestion 5\n\nThe reason given most commonly for becoming an entrepreneur is having a passion for the business.\n\n\n\n\nQuestion 6\n\nThe reason for planning growth of an entrepreurial firm is:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scale to lower buying costs and production costs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scope to expand product lines\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Ability to attract and retain talented employees\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market leadership\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\nQuestion 7\n\nExpression of an entrepreneurial idea is not copyrightable, but the actual idea\u00a0is copyrightable.\n\n\n\nQuestion 8\n\nThe entrepreneurial process always includes ALL of the following EXCEPT\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Developing business ideas.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Deciding to be an entrepreneur\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Planning to go public\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial firm\n\nQuestion 9\n\nGenerally, industries are more attractive when the threat of substitutes is ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0High\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0neutral (neither high or low)\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for manufacturing firms and low for service firms\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for service firms and low for manufacturing firms\n\nQuestion 10\n\nIn general, industries are more attractive when the ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are high\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the forces is neutral-neither low nor high\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is high\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is low\n\nQuestion 11\n\nFinding ways to avoid need for external funding through creativity or any means necessary is called \"seeding.\"\u00a0\n\n\n\nQuestion 12\n\nWhich of the following statements about target markets is incorrect?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If you don\u2019t know who your target customers are, you won't be able to assess whether you are meeting their needs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Targeting your market is simply defining who your primary customer will be.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0By focusing on a target market, a firm can usually avoid head-to-head competition with competitive leaders and can serve a specialized market.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0A target market is a place within a larger market segment that represents a narrower group of customers with similar needs.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0It's easter to be \"all things to all people\" than to focus on a narrower market.\n\nQuestion 13\n\nRewards-based \"crowdfunding\" raises money for entrepreneurs in exchange for equity in the business.\n\n\n\nQuestion 14\n\n________ is the process of determining whether a business idea is viable\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Feasibility analysis\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Opportunity recognition\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Viability analysis\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Achievability analysis\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Scenario analysis\n\nQuestion 15\n\nAccording to the textbook, how do well-managed firms respond to the five forces that determine industry profitability?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They switch industries if the forces are too compelling.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They focus on one force intently and excel by overcoming that force.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They overcome each of the forces.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They ignore the forces.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They try to position their firms in a way that avoids or diminishes the forces.\n\nQuestion 16\n\nMarketing action that results in a product being thought of differently by consumers is called:\u00a0(choose one)\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0consumer commercialization\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0skimming\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0market segmentation\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0penetration\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0repositioning\n\n\nQuestion 17\n\nIn most industries, the major determinant of industry profitability is the level of competition among the firms already competing in the industry.\n\n\n\nQuestion 18\n\nOnce a firm decides to enter an industry and chooses a market in which to compete, it must gain an understanding of its competitive environment. This challenge can be undertaken by completing a(n) ________ analysis.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Business\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Industry\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Competitor\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market\n\nQuestion 19\n\n\u00a0The most important thing an entrepreneur can do to build a strong ethical culture is to lead by example.\n\n\n\nQuestion 20\n\nA complete misread of the customer is usually not fatal to business success if the business model is ambitious.\n\n\n\nQuestion 21\n\nWhich of the following is not an attribute of an attractive industry?\n\nA.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is young rather than old\n\nB.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is not crowded\n\nC.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is late rather than early in its life cycle\n\nD.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is important to the customer\n\nE.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is fragmented rather than concentrated\n\nQuestion 22\n\nWhich ONE of the following most is important for an entrepreneur to be successful?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Intelligence Quotient\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Desire to be wealthy\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Emotional Intelligence\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic Intelligence\n\nQuestion 23\n\nA potential entrepreneurial opportunity is limited by its \"window of opportunity.\"\n\n\n\nQuestion 24\n\nMulti-level marketing (MLM) is often criticized because:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Some multi-level marketing (MLM) firms focus more on getting new distributors rather than selling products\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing usually doesn't give exclusive rights to an area or territory.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing (MLM) is often compared to a \"pyramid scheme\" since the market can become saturated as new distributors are added.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0None of the above\n\nAvailable Solution\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\n \u2022 This solution has not purchased yet.\n \u2022 Submitted On 21 Jan, 2018 06:58:18\nSolution posted by\n1. 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__label__positive Med Surg Final.txt\n\nHome > Preview\n\nThe flashcards below were created by user Anonymous on FreezingBlue Flashcards.\n\n 1. In pulmonary edema the medical management will often include what?\n Furosemide (Lasix) IV, oxygen therapy , orthopenic position, and morphine sulfate to decrease respiratory rate.\n 2. What would the nursing interventions be for a patient with pulmonary edema, excess fluid volume, and altered tissue permeability?\n Assess indicators of patient\ufffds fluid volume status, such as breath sounds, skin turgor, and pedal/sacral/periorbital edema, mx I&O, administer diuretics as ordered, and weigh daily.\n 3. What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?\n Increased capillary pressure from left ventricular failure\n 4. What does sputum look like in pulmonary edema?\n Frothy, pink sputum\n 5. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with pulmonary edema?\n Low-sodium diet\n 6. What is pulmonary embolism?\n Foreign substance causing obstruction to the blood supply to lung tissue\n 7. What is the normal range for d-dimer?\n 8. How long is a pt on anticoagulant therapy for a pulmonary embolism?\n One year\n 9. What is the most definite method of diagnosing a pulmonary embolism?\n pulmonary angiogram\n 10. What is pulmonary edema?\n Accumulation of extravascular fluid in lung tissues and alveoli, caused by severe left ventricular dysfunction\n 11. What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema?\n Severe respiratory distress, frothy sputum, coughing, choking\n 12. Most pulmonary embolisms (PEs) originate from where?\n deep vein thrombosis (DVT)\n 13. Chest pain from pulmonary embolism (PE) is typically what?\n pleuritic and worsens upon inspiration\n 14. What is the medical management and nursing interventions of the patient with pulmonary embolism?\n Bed rest, administration of IV Heparin per protocol, semi-fowlers position, and oxygen per mask or nasal cannula.\n 15. What position will the nurse instruct the pt with emphysema to enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspnea periods?\n sitting on the side of the bed, leaning on an overbed table\n 16. A nurse is caring for a client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse checks the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed what?\n 17. What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing?\n Promote carbon dioxide elimination\n 18. The low pressure alarm sounds on the ventilator. The nurse checks the client then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm but is unsuccessful. What initial action will the nurse take?\n Ventilate the client manually\n 19. What does a pt w/emphysema become barrel chested?\n Because of over inflation of the lungs\n 20. How much fluid should a pt w/emphysema consume each day?\n 2-3 L\n 21. What effective breathing technique is used for a pt w/emphysema?\n Pursed-lip breathing\n 22. What does Peak-flow monitoring measure?\n how well air moves out of the lungs-during forceful exhalation\n 23. Which type of medication is used as rescue medication in acute asthma exacerbation\n Short-acting beta,-agonists.\n 24. Asthma is best characterized as what type of disease?\n an inflammatory disease\n 25. What are the nursing interventions for a pt with ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased lung expansion during an acute attack of asthma?\n Administer oxygen therapy as ordered, remain with patient during acute attack to decrease fear and anxiety, incorporate rest periods into activities and interventions, and maintain semi-fowlers position to facilitate ventilation.\n 26. How is TB spread?\n inhaling the TB bacteria after a person coughs, speaks, or sneezes\n 27. What is the most common etiologic factor for this diagnosis in patients with Tb who do are not compliant?\n little or no motivation to adhere to a long-term drug regimen\n 28. The appropriate nursing intervention for Mr. K age 40, diagnosed with active Tb would be what?\n place the patient in acid -fast bacilli (AFB) isolation precautions\n 29. What diagnostic test that will confirm TB?\n Sputum culture\n 30. What identifies the route of transmission of TB?\n The airborne route\n 31. A nurse is reading the results of a Mantoux skin test on a client with no documented health problems. The site has no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosed. What are the results of this test?\n 32. A nurse is caring for a client who had a Mantoux skin test implantation 48 hours ago on admission to the nursing unit and reads the result of the skin test as positive. What nursing action is priority?\n Report the findings\n 33. A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of TB is worried about the possibility of infecting the family and others. What information would help the client get the most reassurance?\n The family will be treated prophylactically and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 consecutive weeks of medication therapy.\n 34. A nurse has reinforced discharge teaching with a client who was diagnosed with TB and has been on medication for 1\ufffd weeks. Which statement shows that the client has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy\ufffd\n 35. A client with TB asks a nurse about precautions to take after discharge from the hospital to prevent infection of others. The nurse develops a response based on the understanding that TB is transmitted how?\n By droplet nuclei\n 36. A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with TB. What should the nurse plan to wear when performing this care?\n Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves.\n 37. A client with TB, whose status is being monitored in an ambulatory care clinic, asks the nurse when it is permissible to return to work. When does the nurse tell the pt he can return to work?\n After three sputum cultures are negative.\n 38. What type of isolation is recommended for a patient w/TB?\n Acid-fast bacillus\n 39. What type of masks do visitors of TB pts use?\n Particulate respiration mask\n 40. Which of the following statements accurately describe the disease tuberculosis (TB)? Most people who become infected with TB organism do not progress to the active disease stage.\n 41. Ms. C., age 45, is being evaluated to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis. Which finding is most closely associated with TB?\n Night Sweats\n 42. The health care workers for Ms. C., who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis, are instructed in methods of protecting themselves from contracting tuberculosis. The centers of disease controls and prevention currently recommend that health care workers who care for TB-Infected patients wear what?\n a small micron fitted filtration mask\n 43. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient following a left pneumonectomy. The nurse would avoid positioning the client how?\n On the side\n 44. What is the most common surgical treatment for lung cancer?\n 45. What is a pneumonectly?\n Surgical removal of a lung\n 46. The primary goal for the patient with bronchiectasis is that the patient will what?\n maintain removal of bronchial secretions.\n 47. What is bronchiectasis?\n Irreversible chronic dilation of bronchi that destroys bronchial elastic & muscular elements\n 48. What are the signs & symptoms of bronchiectasis?\n Dyspnea, cyanosis & clubbing of the fingers\n 49. What volume is O2 delivered to the pt with bronchiectasis?\n Low flow\n 50. What is the cure for bronchiectasis?\n Surgical removal of the lung\n 51. What is a cystectomy?\n Surgical removal of the bladder\n 52. What type of surgery is less invasive and less stressful for a pt with BPH?\n 53. How is tissue removed during TURP?\n Through the urethra\n 54. What type of catheter is used on a pt with TURP?\n Closed bladder irrigation\n 55. What type of solution is used in a closed bladder irrigation?\n An isotonic solution\n 56. What should the pt expect after prostatic surgery?\n 57. Why should catheter drainage tubes be checked frequently?\n For kinks that would occlude urine and cause bladder spasms\n 58. What diet is important for a pt with nephrotic syndrome?\n Protein replacement, low salt\n 59. What meds are used to treat nehprotic syndrome?\n Corticosteroids, loop diurectics\n 60. What is cystitis?\n Inflammation of the wall of the urinary bladder\n 61. What are the signs and symptoms of cystitis?\n Dysuria, urinary frequency and pyuria\n 62. Cystitis is confirmed by a u/a that reveals a bacterial count greater than what?\n 63. What is interstitial cystitis?\n A chronic pain disorder in the urinary bladder and surrounding region\n 64. What statement by the client with Cushing\ufffds syndrome indicates that the instructions related to dietary management were understood?\n \ufffdI can eat foods that contain potassium.\ufffd\n 65. What is a feature of Cushing syndrome?\n Increased susceptibility to infection\n 66. What causes Cushing Syndrome?\n Overstimulation of ACTH\n 67. What is hypokalema?\n Not enough potassium\n 68. What are the clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome?\n Moonface, buffalo hump\n 69. What is striae?\n A streak or linear scar that often results from stretching of the skin\n 70. In the pt with Cushings syndrome, what results in hyperglycemia?\n Impaired carbohydrate metabolism\n 71. What type of diet is indicated for a pt with Cushings syndrome?\n Low sodium, reduce calories and carbs, and high potassium\n 72. When a nurse notes that a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has lipodystrophy on both upper thights, what information should the nurse obtain from the client?\n Plan of injection rotation.\n 73. Which client complaint would alert the nurse to a possible hypoglycemic reaction?\n 74. After several diagnostic tests, a client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which symptom is indicative of this disorder?\n 75. What should the pt avoid when taking tolbutamide (Orinase) for diabetes mellitus?\n 76. What disorder caused by secretion of insufficient amounts of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?\n Diabetes insipidus\n 77. What is the main problem with diabetes mellitus type 2?\n Abnormal resistance to insulin action.\n 78. In caring for a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing an acute hyperglycemic reaction (diabetic ketoacidosis), what interventions would be appropriate?\n Insulin IV via infusion pump\n 79. What is diabetes insipidus?\n A disorder of the pituitary in which ADH is deficient\n 80. How much urine can a pt with diabetes insipidus lose in an hour?\n 81. What are the characteristics of diabetes insipidus?\n Polyuria and polydipsia\n 82. What is the normal serum sodium level?\n 83. What happens to urine specific gravity in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n it drops below 1.003\n 84. How much fluid should a pt with diabetes insipidus intake?\n 2600 ml\n 85. What causes polydipisa and polyuria related to diabetes?\n Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia\n 86. In planning care for a patient with type 2 diabetes admitted to the hospital with pneumonia, the nurse recognizes that the patient may have what?\n Sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for development of hyperosmolar coma\n 87. At what time of day is a diabetic pt at risk for hypoglycemia?\n In the late afternoon and at bedtime\n 88. What is a diabetic diet designed to do?\n Help normalize blood glucose through a balanced diet\n 89. What is an appropriate instruction or the pt with diabetes related to care of the feet?\n Inspect all surfaces of the feet daily\n 90. Which oral hypoglycemic works primarily by reducing hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels?\n Metformin (Glucophage)\n 91. What types of insulin are used in an insulin pump?\n Regular and rapid-acting\n 92. How long is the onset of regular insulin (Humulin R)?\n 30 minutes to an hour\n 93. How long is the onset of action of Lispro (Humalog)?\n 15 minutes\n 94. How long is the onset of action of NPH (Humulin N)?\n 2 hours\n 95. Why is caffeine restricted in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n Because it acts as a diuretic\n 96. What is deficient in a pt with diabetes insipidous?\n 97. What is diabetes mellitus?\n Improper metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins\n 98. When does insulin reach its peak level?\n 30 minutes after meals and returns to normal in 2-3 hours\n 99. What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 dibetes?\n Type 1 is insulin dependent (IDDM) and Type 2 is non insulin dependent (NIDDM)\n 100. What causes IDDM?\n Destruction of beta-cell function\n 101. What are the causes of NIDDM?\n Decreased tissue, overproduction of insulin, abnormal glucose regulation\n 102. How is glucose stored?\n As glycogen in the liver\n 103. What must be present for muscle cells and other body cells to utilize glucose?\n 104. What is hyperglycemia?\n Excess glucose in the bloodstream\n 105. How does the body get rid of excess glucose in the bloodstream?\n The kidneys will excrete it in urine, called glycosuria\n 106. What is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Fruity smell to the breath\n 107. What causes diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Acute insulin deficiency, decreased peripheral glucose utilization, increased fat mobilization and ketogenesis\n 108. What are the normal lab values for fasting blood sugar?\n 109. What amount is considered abnormal in an FBS?\n 126 or more\n 110. What does the HbA1c measure?\n The amount of glucose that has become incorporated into the hemoglobin within an erythrocyte\n 111. What is the normal lab value for HbA1c?\n 112. When is a postprandial blood sugar taken?\n 2 hours after a meal\n 113. What level may indicate the presence of DM in a PPBS?\n Plasma glucose over 160\n 114. What affects the accuracy of an oral glucose tolerance test?\n Adequate pt preparation and cooperation\n 115. What is the medical management for DM?\n Education, monitoring, meal planning, medication, exercise\n 116. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with DM?\n 45%-50% carbs, 10%-20% proteins, no more than 30% fats\n 117. What is important about food intake for pts with IDDM?\n It should be evenly distributed throughout the day\n 118. How long does exercise reduce insulin and increase glucose uptake?\n 72 hours\n 119. How often should blood glucose be monitored during the times of stress or illness?\n Every 1-2 hours\n 120. When should the pt with DM be instructed to contact their physician?\n When blood glucose level is 250 or more\n 121. When is insulin given intramuscularly?\n During diabetic ketoacidosis\n 122. What are the classifications of insulin?\n Rapid-acting, insulin apart, short-acting, intermediate acting, long acting\n 123. What is a \ufffdpeakless\ufffd insulin that provides a continous insulin level?\n 124. What is lipodystrophy?\n The loss of local fat deposits\n 125. How can a nurse prevent lipodystrophy?\n Administer insulin at room temp and rotate injection sites\n 126. How does a nurse prevent medication errors when administering insulin?\n Have the dose drawn in the syringe and checked by another nurse\n 127. What is hypoglycemia?\n Not enough glucose in the blood\n 128. What are the signs of hypoglycemia?\n Faintness, weakness, excessive perspiration, irritability, hunger, palpitations, trembling, drowsiness\n 129. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia?\n Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia\n 130. Why is insulin not injected into the muscle?\n Because it enters the bloodstream too quickly and can cause hypoglycemia\n 131. Which part of the body provides the fastest, least variable absorption?\n The abdomen\n 132. What is as close a substitute to a healthy, working pancrease?\n An insulin pump\n 133. What is a bolus of insulin?\n A quantity of insulin delivered to cover a carbohydrate meal\n 134. What is the function of metformin (glucophage)?\n It reduces hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels\n 135. What must a pt have for oral hypoglycemics to be effective?\n Some function insulin production\n 136. Why is calcium gluconate prescribed for a pt after a thyroidectomy?\n To treat hypocalcemic tetany\n 137. What nursing action is appropriate for a pt after a thyroidectomy who has developed hoarseness and a weak voice?\n Reassure the client that this is usually a temporary condition.\n 138. What would require the nurse\ufffds immediate attention when caring for a postop thyroidectomy pt?\n Laryngeal stridor\n 139. A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and monitoring for signs of thyroid storm. What manifestation is associated with this disorder?\n 140. What signs or symptoms should be reported immediately to the RN/MD for further evaluation in the pt who has undergone a thyroidectomy?\n Numbness in the fingers, Heart rate of 160, Noticeable arm twitching when you took patient's blood pressure\n 141. How is a pt placed after a thyroidectomy?\n Supine with pillows supporting the head and shoulders\n 142. What two conditions should the nurse monitor for after a thyroidectomy?\n Tetany and edema\n 143. What is Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n An abnormal spasm of the facial muscles elicited by light taps on the facial nerve\n 144. What condition will cause a pt to have a positive Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n 145. What is Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n A test in which a BP cuff is inflated to above systolic BP for 3 minutes.\n 146. What will happen with a positive Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n Carpal spasm in pts with hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia\n 147. What is a thyroid storm?\n A condition in which large amounts of thyroid hormones are released\n 148. What is administered for the emergency treatment of tetany?\n Calcium gluconate\n 149. When does a thyroid crisis generally occur?\n In the first 12 hours post op\n 150. What are the signs and symptoms of a thyroid crisis?\n Nausea, vomiting, severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism\n 151. What are the three goals of thyroid storm management?\n Induce normal thyroid state, prevent cardiovascular collapse, prevent excessive hyperthermia\n 152. What is a sign that damage to the laryngeal nerve may have occurred in a pt who has had a thyroidectomy?\n The pt is becoming increasingly hoarse.\n 153. What is hyperthyroidism?\n Overproduction of T4 and T3\n 154. What are the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism?\n Edema of the anterior portion of the neck, bulging eyes\n 155. What is the diet therapy for a patient with hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high n calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 156. What does a radioactive iodine uptake test determine?\n 157. How is the radioactive iodine given?\n By mouth to the fasting patient\n 158. What is important to obtain from a patient before a radioactive iodine uptake test?\n Allergies and signed consent\n 159. What drugs are given to treat hyperthyroid?\n PTU, methimazole (Tapazole)\n 160. What is the gold standard for treating hyperthyroidism?\n Ablation therapy using radioactive iodine\n 161. How often is the thyroid checked during a RAIU?\n 2, 6 & 24 hours\n 162. What type of diet is important for a pt w/hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high in calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 163. What is hypothyroidism?\n A condition in which the thyroid fails to secrete sufficient hormones, resulting in a slowing of all of the body\ufffds metabolic processes\n 164. What type of diet is important for a patient with hypothyroidism?\n High-protein, high-fiber, low-calorie\n 165. Appropriate nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include what?\n Encourage fluids\n 166. What is severe hypothyroidism called?\n 167. What should the nurse watch for in a pt w/hypothyroidism that could indicate cardiac involvement?\n Chest pain, dyspnea, changes in rate and rhythm.\n 168. Mr. A., age 71, is admitted with an exacerbation of COPD. He has dependent edema and ascites as well as dyspnea. A complication that may occur in CIPD is which some of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli are destroyed, resulting in pulmonary hypertension, blood returning to the right side of the heart, and signs and symptoms of right-sided HF is what?\n cor pulmonale\n 169. A patient with COPD asks why the heart is affected by the respiratory disease. The nurse\ufffds response to the patient is based on the knowledge that cor pulmonale is characterized by what?\n right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to increased pulmonary vascular resistance\n 170. Ineffective airway clearance related to tracheobronchial obstruction and/or secretions is a nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD. Which of the following are correct?\n Offer small, frequent, high-calorie, high-protein feedings. Encourage generous fluid intake. Have patient turn and cough every 2 hours;; teach effective coughing technique.\n 171. A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in evaluating the client?\n A hyper inflated chest on x-ray\n 172. Mr. F., age 52, had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are give to Mr. F. and his family. Which response, by written communication from Mr. F, or verbal response by the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be decalcified?\n It is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that conditions are stable.\n 173. What is orthopnea?\n A condition in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably\n 174. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n Crackles, SOB, pink-frothy sputum, orthopnea, pulmonary edema\n 175. What is the number one dysrhythmia that occurs with an arterial embolism?\n 176. What is the most serious type of dysrhythmia?\n Ventricular fibrillation\n 177. Why would a physician perform carotid massage on a patient with a diagnosis of rapid rate atrial fibrillation? The procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve to slow the heart rate.\n 178. What is atrial fibrillation?\n A very rapid production of atrial impulses characterized by an atrial rate of 350 to 600 beats per minute (atria fibrillates or quivers rather than contracts)\n 179. What is ventricular fibrillation?\n Occurs when the ventricular musculature of the heart is quivering\n 180. What happens during atrial fibrillation?\n The atria quivers instead of contracts\n 181. What is cardiomyopathy?\n A term used to describe a group of heart muscle diseases that primarily affects the structural or functional ability of the myocardium\n 182. What are the primary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Dilated (ventricular), hypertrophic (increased heart size), and restrictive (ventricular walls are rigid)\n 183. What are the secondary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Infective, metabolic, nutritional, alcohol, peripartum, drugs, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, \ufffdcrack\ufffd heart\n 184. What are the most common signs and symptoms of cardiomyopathy?\n Angina, syncope, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion\n 185. What is a dysrhythmia?\n Any cardiac rhythm that deviates from normal sinus rhythm\n 186. How is tachycardia characterized?\n Heartbeat of 100-150 or more per minute\n 187. How is bradycardia characterized?\n By a pulse rate of fewer than 60 beats per minute\n 188. What is supraventricular tachycardia?\n The sudden onset of a rapid heartbeat characterized by a pulse rate of 150-250 beats per minute.\n 189. What is an arterial aneurysm?\n An enlarged, dilated portion of an artery\n 190. Why is the aorta prone to aneurysm?\n Because it is continuously exposed to high pressures\n 191. What is the first priority of care for a patient with an aneurysm?\n Control of hypertension\n 192. What are the nursing interventions of a patient diagnose with acute infective endocarditis?\n Restricted activity for several weeks.\n 193. What is endocarditis?\n An infection of inflammation of the inner membranous lining of the heart, valves\n 194. What are the signs and symptoms of endocarditis?\n Flu-like symptoms, undue fatigue, chest pain, headaches, petechia, oral mucosa\n 195. What is cardiogenic shock?\n Pump failure; Complication of MI and heart failure\n 196. Why was the term \ufffdcongestive heart failure\ufffd changed to just \ufffdheart failure\ufffd?\n Because not every patient suffering from heart failure has pulmonary congestion\n 197. How is nitroglycerin administered?\n PO, 1 tablet every 5 minutes times 3.\n 198. What is the first step to determine why a patient isn\ufffdt compliant with their meds?\n Ask them why they aren\ufffdt taking their meds\n 199. What symptoms are seen in angina pectoris?\n Chest pain that radiates down the left arm, dypsnea, anxiety, apprehension, diaphoresis and nausea\n 200. What would you expect to see in a patient with suspected cocaine use?\n An enlarged heart\n 201. What should be assessed in a patient before they are sent to the cardiac cath lab?\n Any allergies\n 202. When is the hormone b-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) released?\n It\ufffds secreted by the heart in response to pressure overload as in a heart failure\n 203. What type of medication is nitroglycerin?\n A vasodilator \ufffd it will lower BP\n 204. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n 205. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 206. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 207. What should a postmyocardial patient being prepared for discharge be instructed to do?\n Begin a cardiac rehab program\n 208. What is the primary function of patient teaching following a myocardial infarction?\n To assist the patient to develop a healthy lifestyle\n 209. What is an important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with remote telemetry?\n Never remove telemetry and allow patient to shower unless physician has written the order to allow a shower\n 210. What is the name of the neurohormone released from the left ventricle in response to volume expansion and pressure overload that has emerged as the blood marker for the identification of individuals with CHF?\n B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)\n 211. What is the normal range for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?\n 0 to 100 pg/ml\n 212. What is a myocardial muscle protein released into circulation after myocardial injury and is useful in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?\n Tropin l\n 213. What typical vital signs will display in a patient presenting with a myocardial infarction?\n Hypertension, tachycardia, weakened pulse, temperature elevation\n 214. What cardiac markers is specific to the heart, not influenced by skeletal muscle trauma or renal failure, and rises 3 hours following a myocardial infarction?\n Troponin I\n 215. What nursing care is followed for a patient with myocardial infarction?\n Bedrest with commode privileges for 24 to 48 hours.\n 216. What breath sounds would a nurse expect to hear in a patient with myocardial infarction who suddenly becomes tachycardic and shows signs of air hunger?\n 217. What is a myocardial infarction?\n An occlusion of a major coronary artery\n 218. How long does it take myocardial cells to die?\n 4-6 hours\n 219. Jaundice results when there is an excess amount of what in the bloodstream?\n 220. What is the preferred diagnostic test for visualizing the biliary tree in a pt with jaundice?\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 221. What is multiple myeloma?\n Bone marrow cancer that metastasizes to the bone\n 222. What labs should the nurse monitor in a pt with multiple myeloma?\n Calcium\ufffdwatch for hypercalcemia\n 223. What is the best food item to administer with oral iron supplements?\n Orange juice\n 224. What nursing intervention should be incorporated into the plan of care for a child with aplastic anemia with WBC of 6000 and platelet of 27,000/mm?\n Encourage quiet play activities\n 225. What test is used to detect pernicious anemia?\n Schilling test\n 226. What would a nurse expect to specifically note with in a pt with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?\n Increased calcium level\n 227. What is a priority nursing intervention for the client with multiple myeloma?\n Encourage fluids\n 228. What intervention is a priority in the nursing plan of care for a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Monitor the client for bleeding\n 229. What medication is given to the patients with sickle cell anemia?\n IV Dulodid\n 230. What does anemia cause?\n Delivery of insufficient amounts of oxygen to tissues and cells\n 231. What is pernicious anemia?\n The absence of a glycoprotein intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa\n 232. What is thrombocytopenia?\n Blood platelets below 150,000\n 233. What is sickle cell anemia?\n An illness in which the blood cells shape in crescents and get stuck to one another and occlude vessels\n 234. What would the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment of a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Petechiae and purpura\n 235. What is an important nursing intervention goal to establish for a person who has iron deficiency anemia?\n Alternate periods of rest and activity to balance oxygen supply and demand\n 236. What is a nursing intervention for a pt during a sickle cell crisis?\n Administration of large doses of continuous opioid analgesics\n 237. What foods should be included in the diet of a pt with iron deficiency anemia?\n Dark green leafy veggies ad organ meats\n 238. In addition to the general symptoms of anemia, the pt with pernicious anemia also manifests what?\n Neurological symptoms\n 239. What statement by the pt with pernicious anemia would indicate the she has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI\ufffdll have to take B12 shots for the rest of m life.\ufffd\n 240. What type of data indicates that iron deficiency anemia is not currently managed effectively?\n 241. In a pt with sickle cell anemia, why does the sickling crisis not stop when oxygen therapy is started?\n when red cells sickle, they occlude small vessels, which causes more local hypoxia and more sickling\n 242. How is a pt positioned during a needle liver biopsy?\n Supine with the right arm over the head\n 243. What is the most common form of hepatitis, having an incubation period of 10-40 days.\n Hepatitis A\n 244. What snack choices would be appropriate for a pt suffering from acute pancreatitis?\n Reduced fat cheese and whole wheat crackers\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 246. How is the pt instructed to breathe during a needle liver biopsy?\n Exhale fully and not breathe while the needle is inserted\n 247. What causes jaundice in a pt?\n An excess of bilirubin\n 248. What is a needle liver biopsy?\n A test in which a needle is inserted into the liver between the 6 & 7 or 7 & 8 intercostal spaces\n 249. After a cholesysectomy, why would a pt complain about shoulder pain?\n Diaphragmatic irritation secondary to residual carbon dioxide\n 250. What is jaundice?\n The appearance of yellowish skin, discoloration of the sclera and mucous membranes\n 251. What is the best form of preventing hepatitis A & B?\n 252. What is a critical aspect nursing interventions following a liver transplantation?\n Monitor for infection\n 253. What vitamins are given intravenously with fluids for the dehydrated hepatitis pt?\n C (healing), B (assists liver to absorb vit), K (blood clotter)\n 254. What can happen to a pt after a liver transplant, who has liver disease secondary to viral hepatitis?\n They often experience reinfection of the transplanted liver with hepatitis B or C\n 255. What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?\n General malaise, aching muscles, headaches, chills, abdominal pain, dyspepsia, nausea, diarrhea and constipation.\n 256. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention in a pt with viral hepatitis and no appetite?\n Offer small, frequent meals\n 257. What immunosuppressant drug is utilized in the success of a liver transplant?\n 258. What are the major postop complications of a liver transplant?\n Rejection and infection\n 259. How is hepatitis diagnosed?\n A normal lab test will be negative for the presence of the antigen\n 260. How is hepatitis G spread?\n Unsafe tattooing or piercing; coinfection of Hepatitis C\n 261. How is hepatitis B spread?\n Through contaminated blood transfusion, direct contact with body fluids, sexual contact\n 262. What are the nursing interventions following a liver biopsy?\n Ensure that platelet, clotting or bleeding time or okay and report any abnormal lab values to the doc; observe for the symptoms of bleeding\n 263. How is hepatitis A spread?\n Through the fecal-oral route, usually by contaminated food\n 264. How is hepatitis E spread?\n Oral-fecal route; spreads through fecal contamination of water\n 265. Following a liver biopsy, how long is a pt to lay on their right side?\n A minimum of 2 hours to splint the puncture site\n 266. How is hepatitis D spread?\n Coinfection of hepatitis B\n 267. What infection control method would be priority to include in the plan of care to prevent hepatitis B in a pt considered to be at high risk for exposure?\n Hepatitis B vaccine\n 268. What type of hepatitis is contracted from contaminated food?\n Hepatitis A\n 269. What should the nurse encourage in order to provide adequate nutrition to a pt with viral hepatitis, who is complaining of loss of apetite?\n Increase intake of fluids\n 270. What signs or symptoms would a nurse expect to note in a pt with acute viral hepatitis?\n 271. What physician order would a nurse verify on the chart of a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Morphine sulfate for pain\n 272. What position will aggravate the pain in a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Lying flat\n 273. What foods are allowed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Toast, cereal, rice, tea, fruit, juice, and hard candies\n 274. What nursing interventions are included in planning care for a pt with metastatic cancer of the liver?\n Focus primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures\n 275. What is the treatment for cancer of the liver?\n 276. What do most pts already have when diagnosed with cancer of the liver?\n 277. What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis?\n Dyspepsia, changes in bowel habits, gradual weight loss, ascites, enlarged spleen and spider telangiectases\n 278. What causes ascites?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbumin\n 279. What is the number one drug of choice for alieving pain of pancreatitis?\n 280. What is cirrhosis?\n A chronic, degenerative disease of the liver in which the lobes are covered with fibrous tissue and the lobules are infiltrated with fat\n 281. What are the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis and cholelithiasis?\n Low grade fever, elevated leukocyte count, clay-colored stools that contain fat, dark amber urine\n 282. What is hepatic encephalopathy?\n Brain damage caused by liver disease where there is ammonia intoxication\n 283. What are the various forms of cirrhosis?\n Alcoholic, postnecrotic, primary biliary, secondary biliary, cardiac\n 284. What type of diet is prescribed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Very low protein to no protein diet\n 285. What is ascites?\n An accumulation of fluid and albumin in the peritoneal cavity\n 286. What is cholecystitis?\n An inflammation of the gallbladder\n 287. How can pain from pancreatitis be alleviated?\n By flexing the trunk, leaning forward from a sitting position, or by assuming the fetal position\n 288. Why is it especially important for the pt to cough and deep breathe postoperatively following an open cholecystectomy?\n The pt tends to take shallow breaths due to the placement of the incision\n 289. What will the administration of analgesic morphine cause in pts with acute pancreatitis?\n Spasms of the sphincter of Oddi\n 290. Hepatitis types B,C,D, & G are spread mainly through which routes?\n Blood transfusions, contaminated needles and instruments, direct contact with body fluids from infected people\n 291. What nursing diagnoses could be related to a liver needle biopsy?\n Pain, related to leakage of blood and bile into the peritoneal cavity\n 292. When caring for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy the nurse may give enemas, provide a low-protein diet, and limit physical activity. Why are these measures taken?\n To decrease the production of ammonia\n 293. In hepatic encephalopathy, what is the nurse assessing for when she requests the pt stretch out the arm and hyperextend the wrist with the fingers separated, relaxed, and extended to see whether rapid, irregular flexion and extension (flapping) of the wrist occur?\n 294. Which types of hepatitis now have vaccines for prevention?\n A & B\n 295. Why is a T-tube inserted during a cholecystectomy?\n To keep the duct open and allow drainage\n 296. What type of food is limited in a pt with advanced cirrhosis of the liver?\n 297. Following a laparoscopic cholecystecomty, what should the pt report?\n Bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision\n 298. Why is lactulose given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n It decreases the bowel\ufffds pH thus decreasing the production of bacteria within the bowel\n 299. What is the stool and urine color of a pt who is jaundiced?\n Dark tea-colored urine and clay-colored stools\n 300. When caring for a pt with acute pancreatitis, what lab reports may be anticipated?\n Hypoalbuminemia, hyperglycemia, and elevated hematocrit and leykocytosis\n 301. What is the nurses response to a pt with advanced cirrhosis who asks why his abdomen is so swollen?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal space\n 302. What labs are taken for cirrhosis?\n PT INR\n 303. What is the post op care for an open cholecystectomy?\n Monitor vital signs and observe dressing for exudates or hemorrhage\n 304. What is hepatitis?\n An inflammation of the liver resulting from several types of viral agents or exposure to toxic substances\n 305. How is hepatitis C spread?\n Needle sticks, contaminated blood transfusions\n 306. Why is neomycin given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n To reduce the bacterial flora of the colon\n 307. What is pancreatitis?\n Inflammation of the pancreas and may be acute or chronic\n 308. What types of drugs are avoided until the liver regains adequate function?\n Drugs that are normally detoxified in the liver\n 309. What is a cholesystectomy?\n A procedure to remove the gallbladder\n 310. What two major factors are most commonly associated with pancreatitis?\n Alcoholism and biliary tract disease\n 311. What are the signs and symptoms of pancreatitis?\n Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back; low-grade fever, vomiting, jaundice, weight loss, steatorrhea, and tachycardia\n 312. What is the primary use of nonabsorbable antibiotics as preparation for bowel surgery?\n To reduce the bacterial flora in the colon\n 313. What is the most important nursing intervention to decrease post op edema and pain in a male pt following an inguinal herniorraphy?\n Elevation of the scrotum with a support or small pillow\n 314. How is hernia reduced?\n Returned to its original position by manipulation\n 315. When can a temp colostomy be closed?\n 6 weeks to 3 months after the initial procedure\n 316. What is the treatment of diverticulus disease when muscle atrophy is responsible?\n Low-residue diet, stool softeners, and bed rest\n 317. How can dumping syndrome be relieved?\n Eating 6 small meals without fluids and by lying down after eating to slow the movement of food\n 318. What are the types of hernias?\n Ventral, femoral, inguinal and umbilical\n 319. What is a hernia?\n A protrusion of a viscus through an abnormal opening or a weakened area in the wall of a cavity\n 320. What is an incarcerate hernia?\n One that cannot be returned to its original position\n 321. What is the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn\ufffds disease?\n Ulcerative colitis is curable with a colectomy; Chrohn\ufffds often recurs after surgery\n 322. How would a stoma appear if a prolapse occurred?\n Protruding and swollen\n 323. Dumping syndrome is a disorder associated with what condition?\n Following gastric resection or peptic ulcer surgery\n 324. What is a nursing diagnosis for a pt with ulcerative colitis?\n Imbalanced nutrition, less than body related to bowel hyper\n 325. What is diverticulitis?\n The inflammation of one or more diverticula\n 326. What are the sings and symptoms of dumping syndrome?\n Diphoresis, nausea, vomiting, explosive diarrhea, borborygmi and dyspepsia\n 327. Which nursing measure will the nurse instruct the pt to follow to help prevent dumping syndrome?\n Limit the fluids taken with meals\n 328. What recommendations for food choices would you give a pt who has been diagnosed with diverticulosis as a result of muscle thickening and increased intracolonic pressure?\n Bran, fruits and vegetables\n 329. What are the difficulties of the hiatal hernia pt?\n Gastroesophageal reflux, heartburn, strangulation, infarction and ulceration\n 330. What is diverticulosis?\n The presence of pouchlike herniations\n 331. What is a hiatal hernia?\n A protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm\n 332. What symptoms will indicate the occurrence of dumping syndrome?\n Sweating and pallor\n 333. What is ulcerative colitis?\n Abcessess in the rectum and up through the large intestine\n 334. What is dumping syndrome?\n A condition of weakness and sweating following eating related to rapid emptying of the stomach\n 335. What is the treatment for diverticulus when muscle thickening is responsible?\n High-fiber diet of bran, fruits and veggies\n 336. What lab values are decreased as a sign of a fat embolism?\n Hemoglobin and hematocrit\n 337. What are the signs and symptoms of a fat embolism?\n Chest pain, localized muscle weakness, spasticity and rigidity, all especially if a pt has multiple broken bones\n 338. What medications are used to control RA?\n Antiinflammatory drugs and aspirin\n 339. When may a prothesis be fitted?\n 2 or 3 weeks post op\n 340. Besides joints, what other systems can RA affect?\n Lung, heart, blood vessels, muscles, eyes and skin\n 341. Why is it necessary to warp an amputated extremity?\n To facilitate proper fit and use of a prothesis\n 342. What type of disease is RA?\n A chronic, systemic disease that\ufffds also though of as an autoimmune disorder\n 343. How are flexion hip contractures prevented postoperatively?\n By raising the foot of the bed slightly\n 344. How much sleep is recommended for a pt with RA?\n 8-10 hours a nig and a 2 hour nap during the day\n 345. What is the most common type of fracture treated in the hospital?\n Hip fracture\n 346. How is a fat embolism formed?\n When a bone breaks, the fat deposits in the marrow are released into the bloodstream\n 347. What is an extracapsular fracture?\n When a fracture occurs outside of the hip joint capsule\n 348. What is an impacted fracture?\n Where one bone fragment is forcibly impacted into another bone fragment\n 349. What is compartment syndrome?\n The progressive development of arterial vessel compression and reduced blood supply to an extremity\n 350. What are signs of a hip fracture?\n Inability to move the leg voluntarily, and shortening or external rotation of the leg\n 351. What is a transverse fracture?\n A break that runs directly across the bone\n 352. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?\n inability to flex the fingers or toes, coolness of the extremity and absence of a pulse\n 353. What is an oblique fracture?\n A break along the slant of the bone at a 45 degree angle\n 354. What is an intrascapular fracture?\n When the femur is broken inside the joint\n 355. What is a comminuted fracture?\n The bone is splintered into three or more fragments at the site of the break\n 356. What is the maximum elevation for the head of bed on a hip fracture patient?\n 45 degrees\n 357. How high can a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated?\n No higher than the heart\n 358. What is a complete fracture?\n A fracture entirely through the bone\n 359. Why does phantom pain occur?\n Because the nerve tracks that register pain in the amputated area continue to send a message to the brain\n 360. What diagnostic tests are performed prior to an amputation?\n CBC, BUN, potassium levels, urinalysis\n 361. In a pt with gout, what is the fluid intake increased to?\n 2000 ml\n 362. What is gout?\n A metabolic disease resulting from an accumulation of uric acid in the blood\n 363. What is a greenstick fracture?\n An incomplete fracture; the bone is only broken on one side\n 364. What is a spiral fracture?\n Where the break coils around the bone\n 365. What are the three compartment of the knee?\n Medial (inside), lateral (outside), patello-femoral (kneecap)\n 366. What is a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty?\n A partial knee replacement\n 367. What is a knee arthroplasty?\n Total knee replacement\n 368. What is seen in patients with compartmental syndrome?\n Absence of pulsation in the affected extremity\n 369. When does physical therapy begin following a partial knee replacement?\n The first day after surgery\n 370. Who is a partial knee replacement recommended for?\n Select pts 50 years and older\n 371. What is colchine used for?\n To treat gout\n 372. Which diagnostic test is used to assist in the confirmation of RA?\n 373. Who is not a candidate for a partial knee replacement?\n Pts with RA or lupus\n 374. When can a pt bear weight on the leg following a prosthetic hip replacement?\n 6 weeks to 3 months\n 375. What causes gout?\n Eating too many organ meats, yeast, herring, mackerel and scallops\n 376. What is RA?\n Most serious form of arthritis and leads to severe crippling\n 377. What is the preoperative preparations focused on prior to an amputation?\n The pts physical and emotional status\n 378. When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated?\n In a pt with suspected brain tumor or ICP\n 379. What is the earliest sign of ICP?\n Change in level of consciousness\n 380. What happens to vital signs in ICP?\n Increased BP, decreased Pulse, decreased respirations\n 381. What is the first, most subtle clue to trouble in ICP?\n Pupils reacting sluggishly\n 382. What type of pupil should be reported immediately?\n A blown pupil\n 383. What is Cushing\ufffds response?\n Widened pulse pressure, increased systolic BP, & bradycardia\n 384. What type of respirations are related to the level of brainstem compression or failure?\n Sterterous or Cheyne-stokes\n 385. What is the first step to manage ICP?\n Ensuring adequate oxygenation to support brain function\n 386. What three types of medications are used to treat ICP?\n Osmotic diuretics, corticosteroids, and anticonvulsants\n 387. How is a pt with ICP placed?\n Head of bed 30-45 degrees to promote venous return\n 388. Why is hip flexion avoided in a pt with ICP?\n It causes increased pressure\n 389. What medication actually reduces ICP?\n 390. How should a pt with ICP breathe when moving?\n They should exhale\n 391. What is atelectasis?\n The collapse of lung tissue that prevents respiratory exchange of CO2 & O2 most often occurring after surgery\n 392. How often is incentive spirometer recommended for a pt with atelectasis?\n 10 x\ufffds every hour while awake\n 393. How does chemotherapy work?\n By interfering with the cells\ufffd ability to multiply or reproduce\n 394. What is a common problem for a pt receiving chemo?\n 395. What does a temp of 100 or more indicate in the pt receiving chemo?\n An impending infection\n 396. What is one of the most common complications of the mouth of a chemo pt?\n Swallowing problems and systemic infections\n 397. What should the chemo pt rinse their mouth with every 2-4 hours?\n Normal saline or sodium bicarbonate\n 398. What should the pt taking chemo do to prevent lung infection?\n Cough, deep breathe, use incentive spirometer\n 399. What two types of colony-stimulating factors can prevent or manage neutropenia?\n G-CSF & GM-CSF\n 400. Why is fatigue a major problem for pts on chemo who have anemia?\n Decreased oxygenation to tissues from the decreased hemoglobin\n 401. What is tumor lysis syndrome?\n Rapid lysis of malignant cells as a result of chemotherapy\n 402. When is a pillow placed under a pt\ufffds head postoperatively?\n After the pt is fully conscious\n 403. Why is the postop pts head of bed raised to a 45 degree angle?\n To prevent aspirating of vomit\n 404. What is the first thing a nurse should do if she notices her pt going into shock?\n Administer oxygen\n 405. What is dehiscence?\n Separation of a surgical incision or rupture of a wound closure\n 406. What are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis?\n Chest pain, fever, productive cough or dyspnea\n 407. What is the acceptable urine output level postoperatively?\n 30 ml per hour\n 408. Why is preoperative teaching important?\n Wound healing then occurs more rapidly\n 409. When is preoperative pt teaching completed?\n 1-2 days before surgery\n 410. What type of drugs reduce spasms of smooth muscles and decrease gastric, bronchial, and salivary secretions?\n 411. What is urticaria?\n Presence of wheals or hives in an allergic reaction\n 412. What are wheals?\n Round elevations of the skin that are white in the center and pale red peripherally\n 413. What are the clinical manifestations of urticaria?\n Pruritus, edema and burning pain\n 414. What drugs can provide relief from urticaria?\n Antihistamine and epinephrine\n 415. What is hypovolemic shock?\n Severe blood and fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body\n 416. What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?\n Cool, clammy skin, anxiety, confusion, decreased urine output\n 417. What medications are given to a pt to treat hypovolemic shock?\n Dopamine, dobutamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine\n 418. What causes hypovolemic shock?\n Blood loss from injuries, burns, diarrhea, vomiting\n 419. What is the most common sign of a UTI in an elderly patient?\n 420. What chronic conditions can predispose a pt to recurrent UTI\ufffds?\n DM, MS, spinal cord injuries, hypertension, kidney disease\n 421. What are the common signs and symptoms of a UTI?\n Urgency, frequency, burning, hematuria\n 422. What type of UTI is a bladder infection?\n 423. What type of UTI is a kidney infection?\n 424. What is urosepsis?\n Septic poisoning due to retention and absorption of urinary products in the tissues\n\nCard Set Information\n\nMed Surg Final.txt\n2010-02-23 02:57:29\nMed Surg Final Exam\n\nMed Surg Final Exam\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview

__label__positive Food-where does it come from Worksheet-3\n\nFood-where does it come from Worksheet-3\n\n\nFill in the blanks:\n\n 1. _______ is the other name of maize.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 2. In cold regions, people mostly drink ________ milk.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 3. Squirrels use their teeth to _______ food such as nuts.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 4. Wheat, rice etc are known as ________.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\n\nMultiple-Choice Question:\n\n 1. Identify the great French chemist who developed the process of \u201cpasteurization\u201d.\n\n(A) Charles Darwin\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\n(B) Louis Pasteur\n\n(C) Watson and Crick\n\n\n 1. The stem of potato plant is eaten as vegetable. There is a specific name given to the stem of potato plants. What is it?\n\n(A) Tuber\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Bulb\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Rhizome\n\n\n 1. Which of the following country produces almost half of the world\u2019s harvest of maize?\n\n(A) United States\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Australia\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Japan\n\n\n 1. Which of the following dairy product is prepared by churning fresh cream?\n\n(A) Ghee\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Butter\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Cheese\n\n\n 1. Animals that eat only plants and plant products are known as:\n\n(A) Herbivores\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Carnivores\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Omnivores\n\n\n 1. The mouth-part of butterflies and humming are shaped like ____ that helps them in sucking nectar from flowers.\n\n(A) Pipe\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Roll\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Straw\n\n\n 1. What kind of teeth do lions and tigers have that helps them to tear flesh?\n\n(A) Curved and pointed front teeth\n\n(B) Wide and blunt front teeth\n\n(C) Sharp and pointed front teeth (canines)\n\n\nMultiple Choice Questions: With More than one option:\n\n 1. Mark the plants whose flowers are consumed as food.\n\n(A) Broccoli\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (B) Ginger \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 (C) Potato\n\n(D) Garlic\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (E) Pumpkin\n\n\n 1. Chicken eggs are rich sources of:\n\n(A) Proteins\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Carbohydrates\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Fats\n\n(D) Minerals\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Vitamins\n\n\n 1. Mark the herbivorous animals.\n\n(A) Cow\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Rabbits\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Dog\n\n(D) Sheep\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Human being\n\n\n 1. Mark the omnivorous animals.\n\n(A) Human being\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Bear\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (C) Jackals\n\n(D) Giraffe\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Crow\n\n\n\n 1. We should eat same variety of food in order to stay healthy.\n 2. Different parts of a plant serve as the source of food.\n 3. Honey is a sweet liquid produced by bees from the nectar of flowers.\n 4. Animals depend on plants and other animals for their food.\n 5. Deer are herbivores.\n 6. All the animals have same feeding habits.\n\n\nAnswer key:\n\n 1. Corn\n 2. Yak\u2019s/ Yaks/ Yak\n 3. Gnaw\n 4. cereal/ cereals\n 5. (B)\n 6. (A)\n 7. (A)\n 8. (B)\n 9. (A)\n 10. (C)\n 11. (C)\n 12. (A,E)\n 13. (A,E)\n 14. (A,B,D)\n 15. (A,B,E)\n 16. False\n 17. True\n 18. True\n 19. True\n 20. True\n 21. False

__label__positive A Long and Illustrious History Test 5\n\nTime Left: 00:00:00\n\nYour Time: 00:00:00\n\nWhich Battle does the Bayeux Tapestry commemorate?\n\nWhich of the following countries were not on the allies side during the Second World War?\n\nWhich statement out of the following do you think about early 20th century Britain is NOT true?\n\nWhat was the name of the horrific battle of 1916 that had casualties over 60,000 British soldiers on the very first day?\n\nWho was elected Prime Minister in May 2010?\n\nWhat is the name of the modern political party which is sometimes referred by the name Tories?\n\nElizabeth-I was born to __________\n\nIn what way the balance of power between monarch and Parliament altered by the Bill of Rights?\n\nDuke of Wellington defeated Napoleon in 1815 which brought an end to the French Wars. Which of the following wars was that?\n\nSince which year did The Bill of Rights come into effect?\n\nWhich of the following statements is true about Anne Boleyn?\n\nWhich of these statements is true?\n\nFrom the given list of statements, identify the two factors that contributed to the emergence of a strong middle class in Britain.\n\nBritish army was eventually defeated by the North American colonists. In which year did Britain recognise these colonies?\n\nWilliam, Duke of Normandy lost his life in the Battle of Hastings.\n\nWhat is the term used for defining voting rights of every adult male and female?\n\nIs the statement below TRUE or FALSE?\n\nKingdoms of Anglo-Saxon communities were widespread in Wales and Scotland.\n\nSince how long were the Romans remained in Britain?\n\nIn which year was Margaret Thatcher first elected as Conservative MP?\n\nFill the gap with appropriate choice from the following. The prehistoric village of Skara Brae is situated in _____________.\n\nThe religious reforms of the Church of England that was introduced by Charles I, were agreed upon by the Puritans.\n\nA monastery on the Isle of Skye was founded by St Columba.\n\nNearly 28,000 Indian origin deportees from which country Britain admitted during 1970?\n\nWhat does it mean by Magna Carta?