Q:

When is a torsionfree subgroup contained in a torsionfree direct summand?

Let $F$ be a torsionfree subgroup of a commutative group $G$. Are there nontrivial conditions known under which there exists a torsionfree direct summand of $G$ containing $F$?

I would already be happy with such a condition in case $F$ is free or $G$ is of finite type.
Motivation:
We consider a property $\mathcal{P}$ of graded rings and its behaviour under coarsening. Given an epimorphism of commutative groups $\psi:G\rightarrow H$ and a $G$-graded ring $R$ with $G$-graduation $(R_g)_{g\in G}$, the $\psi$-coarsening  $R_{[\psi]}$ of $R$ is the $H$-graded ring with underlying ring the ring underlying $R$ and with $H$-graduation given by $(R_{[\psi]})_h=\bigoplus_{g\in\psi^{-1}(h)}R_g$ for $h\in H$.
Suppose we know that $\mathcal{P}$ is reflected by $\psi$-coarsening for every $\psi$, i.e., if $R_{[\psi]}$ has $\mathcal{P}$ then so does $R$, and that if $\ker(\psi)$ is a torsionfree direct summand of $G$ then $\mathcal{P}$ is respected by $\psi$-coarsening, i.e., if $R$ has $\mathcal{P}$ then so does $R_{[\psi]}$.
Then, we want to know whether $\mathcal{P}$ is also respected by $\psi$-coarsening if $\ker(\psi)$ is torsionfree but not necessarily a direct summand of $G$. And this would follow immediately if $\ker(\psi)$ is contained in a torsionfree direct summand of $G$.

A:

Here is a counter-example in the case when $G$ is 2-generated. Let $G=<a>\times <b>$ where $a$ has finite order $p>1$ and $b$ has infinite order. Let $H=<c>$, where $c=ab^p$. Then the infinite cyclic group $H$ is not contained in a free factor of $G$. Indeed, otherwise, $c$ admits $p$-th root: $c=x^p$. Then $x=a^n b$, but $x^p=(a^{pn} b^p)=b^p$. Contradiction.  
Edit: Here are details for Will's comments:
Suppose that $G=T\times R$, where $T$ is the torsion subgroup of $G$. 
Let $F\subset G$ be a torsion-free subgroup. 
Assume now that $F\subset \tilde{F}$, where $\tilde{F}$ is a 
direct torsion-free factor of $G$. Then it is easily seen that $G=T\times \tilde{F} \times L$. Thus, $G/F\cong T\times (\tilde{F}/F) \times L$ and the sequence
$$
0\to T\to G/F\to G/<F,T>\to 0
$$ 
clearly splits. Conversely, suppose that the above sequence splits. Then $G/F=T\times R$. Taking preimage of $1\times R$ under the homomorphism 
$G\to G/F\to T\times R$, we obtain a torsion-free subgroup $\tilde{F}\subset G$ which contains $F$. By construction $T$ maps isomorphically to $G/\tilde{F}$. Thus, $G=T\times \tilde{F}$. qed  

