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Summarize: FPS Faces Challenges Ensuring Contract Guards Have Been Properly Trained and Certified before Being Deployed to Federal Facilities Some FPS Contract Guards Have Not Received Required Training on Responding to Active-Shooter Scenarios According to FPS officials, the agency has required its guards to receive training on how to respond to an active-shooter scenario since 2010. However, as our 2013 report shows, FPS faces challenges providing active-shooter response training to all of its guards. We were unable to determine the extent to which FPS’s guards have received active-shooter response training, in part, because FPS lacks a comprehensive and reliable system for guard oversight (as discussed below). When we asked officials from 16 of the 31 contract guard companies we contacted if their guards had received training on how to respond during active-shooter incidents, responses varied.companies we interviewed about this topic: For example, of the 16 contract guard officials from eight guard companies stated that their guards had received active-shooter scenario training during FPS orientation; officials from five guard companies stated that FPS had not provided active-shooter scenario training to their guards during the FPS- provided orientation training; and officials from three guard companies stated that FPS had not provided active-shooter scenario training to their guards during the FPS- provided orientation training, but that the topic was covered at some other time. Without ensuring that all guards receive training on how to respond to active-shooter incidents, FPS has limited assurance that its guards are prepared for this threat. According to FPS officials, the agency provides guards with information on how they should respond during an active-shooter incident as part of the 8-hour FPS-provided orientation training. FPS officials were not able to specify how much time is devoted to this training, but said that it is a small portion of the 2-hour special situations training. According to FPS’s training documents, this training includes instructions on how to notify law enforcement personnel, secure the guard’s area of responsibility, and direct building occupants according to emergency plans as well as the appropriate use of force. Some FPS Contract Guards Have Not Received Required Screener Training As part of their 120 hours of FPS-required training, guards must receive 8 hours of screener training from FPS on how to use x-ray and magnetometer equipment. However, in our September 2013 report, we found that FPS has not provided required screener training to all guards. Screener training is important because many guards control access points at federal facilities and thus must be able to properly operate x-ray and magnetometer machines and understand their results. In 2009 and 2010, we reported that FPS had not provided screener training to 1,500 contract guards in one FPS region. In response to those reports, FPS stated that it planned to implement a program to train its inspectors to provide screener training to all its contract guards by September 2015. Information from guard companies we contacted indicate that guards who have never received this screener training continue to be deployed to federal facilities. An official at one contract guard company stated that 133 of its approximately 350 guards (about 38 percent) on three separate FPS contracts (awarded in 2009) have never received their initial x-ray and magnetometer training from FPS. The official stated that some of these guards are working at screening posts. Officials at another contract guard company in a different FPS region stated that, according to their records, 78 of 295 (about 26 percent) guards deployed under their contract have never received FPS’s x-ray and magnetometer training. These officials stated that FPS’s regional officials were informed of the problem, but allowed guards to continue to work under this contract, despite not having completed required training. Because FPS is responsible for this training, according to guard company officials, no action was taken against the company. Consequently, some guards deployed to federal facilities may be using x- ray and magnetometer equipment that they are not qualified to use─thus raising questions about the ability of some guards to execute a primary responsibility to properly screen access control points at federal facilities. FPS Lacks Effective Management Controls to Ensure Contract Guards Have Met Training and Certification Requirements In our September 2013 report, we found that FPS continues to lack effective management controls to ensure that guards have met training and certification requirements. For example, although FPS agreed with our 2012 recommendations to develop a comprehensive and reliable system to oversee contract guards, it still has not established such a system. Without a comprehensive guard management system, FPS has no independent means of ensuring that its contract guard companies have met contract requirements, such as providing qualified guards to federal facilities. Instead, FPS requires its guard companies to maintain files containing guard-training and certification information. The companies are then required to provide FPS with this information each month. In our September 2013 report, we found that 23 percent of the 276 guard files we reviewed (maintained by 11 of the 31 guard companies we interviewed) lacked required training and certification documentation. As shown in table 1, some guard files lacked documentation of basic training, semi-annual firearms qualifications, screener training, the 40-hour refresher training (required every 3 years), and CPR certification. FPS has also identified guard files that did not contain required documentation. FPS’s primary tool for ensuring that guard companies comply with contractual requirements for guards’ training, certifications, and qualifications is to review guard companies’ guard files each month. From March 2012 through March 2013, FPS reviewed more than 23,000 guard files. It found that a majority of the guard files had the required documentation but more than 800 (about 3 percent) did not. FPS’s file reviews for that period showed files missing, for example, documentation for screener training, initial weapons training, CPR certification, and firearms qualifications. As our September 2013 report explains, however, FPS’s process for conducting monthly file reviews does not include requirements for reviewing and verifying the results, and we identified instances in which FPS’s monthly review results did not accurately reflect the contents of guard files. For instance, FPS’s review indicated that required documentation was present for some guard files, but for some of those files we were not able to find (for example) documentation of training and certification, such as initial weapons training, DHS orientation, and pre- employment drug screenings. As a result of the lack of management controls, FPS is not able to provide reasonable assurance that guards have met training and certification requirements. FPS Continues to Face Challenges with Assessing Risk at Federal Facilities We found in 2012 that FPS did not assess risks at the 9,600 facilities under the control and custody of GSA in a manner consistent with federal standards, although federal agencies paid FPS millions of dollars to assess risk at their facilities. Our March 2014 report examining risk assessments at federal facilities found that this is still a challenge for FPS and several other federal agencies. Federal standards such as the National Infrastructure Protection Plan’s (NIPP) risk management framework and ISC’s RMP call for a risk assessment to include a threat, vulnerability, and consequence assessment. Risk assessments help decision-makers identify and evaluate security risk and implement protective measures to mitigate risk. Moreover, risk assessments play a critical role in helping agencies tailor protective measures to reflect their facilities’ unique circumstances and enable them to allocate security resources effectively. Instead of conducting risk assessments, FPS uses an interim vulnerability assessment tool, referred to as the Modified Infrastructure Survey Tool (MIST), with which it assesses federal facilities until it develops a longer- term solution. According to FPS, MIST allows it to resume assessing federal facilities’ vulnerabilities and recommend countermeasures— something FPS has not done consistently for several years. MIST has some limitations. Most notably, it does not assess consequence (the level, duration, and nature of potential loss resulting from an undesirable event). Three of the four risk assessment experts we spoke with generally agreed that a tool that does not estimate consequences does not allow an agency to fully assess risks. FPS officials stated that it intends to eventually incorporate consequence into its risk assessment methodology and is exploring ways to do so. MIST was also not designed to compare risks across federal facilities. Consequently, FPS does not have the ability to comprehensively manage risk across its portfolio of 9,600 facilities and recommend countermeasures to federal tenant agencies. As of April 2014, according to an FPS official, FPS had used MIST to complete vulnerability assessments of approximately 1,200 federal facilities in fiscal year 2014 and have presented approximately 985 of them to the facility security committees. The remaining 215 assessments were under review by FPS. FPS Has Begun Some Initiatives, but Most GAO Recommendations Have Not Been Fully Implemented FPS has begun several initiatives that, once fully implemented, should enhance its ability to protect the more than 1 million federal employees and members of the public who visit federal facilities each year. Since fiscal year 2010, we have made 31 recommendations to help FPS address its challenges with risk management, oversight of its contract guard workforce, and its fee-based funding structure. DHS and FPS have generally agreed with these recommendations. As of May 2014, as shown in table 2, FPS had implemented 6 recommendations, and was in the process of addressing 10 others, although none of the 10 have been fully implemented. The remaining 15 have not been implemented. According to FPS officials, the agency has faced difficulty in implementing many of our recommendations because of changes in its leadership, organization, funding, and staffing levels. Contact Information For further information on this testimony, please contact Mark Goldstein at (202) 512-2834 or by email at [email protected]. Individuals making key contributions to this testimony include Tammy Conquest, Assistant Director; Geoff Hamilton; Jennifer DuBord; and SaraAnn Moessbauer. Related GAO Products Federal Facility Security: Additional Actions Needed to Help Agencies Comply with Risk Assessment Methodology Standards. GAO-14-86. Washington, D.C.: March 5, 2014. Homeland Security: Federal Protective Service Continues to Face Challenges with Contract Guards and Risk Assessments at Federal Facilities. GAO-14-235T. Washington, D.C.: December 17, 2013. Homeland Security: Challenges Associated with Federal Protective Service’s Contract Guards and Risk Assessments at Federal Facilities. GAO-14-128T. Washington, D.C.: October 30, 2013. Federal Protective Service: Challenges with Oversight of Contract Guard Program Still Exist, and Additional Management Controls Are Needed. GAO-13-694. Washington, D.C.: September 17, 2013. Facility Security: Greater Outreach by DHS on Standards and Management Practices Could Benefit Federal Agencies. GAO-13-222. Washington, D.C.: January 24, 2013. Federal Protective Service: Actions Needed to Assess Risk and Better Manage Contract Guards at Federal Facilities. GAO-12-739. Washington, D.C.: August 10, 2012. Federal Protective Service: Actions Needed to Resolve Delays and Inadequate Oversight Issues with FPS’s Risk Assessment and Management Program. GAO-11-705R. Washington, D.C.: July 15, 2011. Federal Protective Service: Progress Made but Improved Schedule and Cost Estimate Needed to Complete Transition. GAO-11-554. Washington, D.C.: July 15, 2011. Homeland Security: Protecting Federal Facilities Remains a Challenge for the Department of Homeland Security’s Federal Protective Service. GAO-11-813T. Washington, D.C.: July 13, 2011. Federal Facility Security: Staffing Approaches Used by Selected Agencies. GAO-11-601. Washington, D.C.: June 30, 2011. Budget Issues: Better Fee Design Would Improve Federal Protective Service’s and Federal Agencies’ Planning and Budgeting for Security, GAO-11-492. Washington, D.C.: May 20, 2011. Homeland Security: Addressing Weaknesses with Facility Security Committees Would Enhance Protection of Federal Facilities, GAO-10-901. Washington, D.C.: August 5, 2010. Homeland Security: Preliminary Observations on the Federal Protective Service’s Workforce Analysis and Planning Efforts. GAO-10-802R. Washington, D.C.: June 14, 2010. Homeland Security: Federal Protective Service’s Use of Contract Guards Requires Reassessment and More Oversight. GAO-10-614T. Washington, D.C.: April 14, 2010. Homeland Security: Federal Protective Service’s Contract Guard Program Requires More Oversight and Reassessment of Use of Contract Guards. GAO-10-341. Washington, D.C.: April 13, 2010. Homeland Security: Ongoing Challenges Impact the Federal Protective Service’s Ability to Protect Federal Facilities. GAO-10-506T. Washington, D.C.: March 16, 2010. Homeland Security: Greater Attention to Key Practices Would Improve the Federal Protective Service’s Approach to Facility Protection. GAO-10-142. Washington, D.C.: October 23, 2009. Homeland Security: Preliminary Results Show Federal Protective Service’s Ability to Protect Federal Facilities Is Hampered by Weaknesses in Its Contract Security Guard Program, GAO-09-859T. Washington, D.C.: July 8, 2009. This is a work of the U.S. government and is not subject to copyright protection in the United States. The published product may be reproduced and distributed in its entirety without further permission from GAO. However, because this work may contain copyrighted images or other material, permission from the copyright holder may be necessary if you wish to reproduce this material separately.

Summary: Recent incidents at federal facilities demonstrate their continued vulnerability to attacks or other acts of violence. As part of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), FPS is responsible for protecting federal employees and visitors in approximately 9,600 federal facilities under the control and custody the General Services Administration (GSA). To help accomplish its mission, FPS conducts facility security assessments and has approximately 13,500 contract security guards deployed to federal facilities. FPS charges fees for its security services to federal tenant agencies. This testimony discusses challenges FPS faces in (1) ensuring contract security guards deployed to federal facilities are properly trained and certified and (2) conducting risk assessments at federal facilities. It is based on GAO reports issued from 2009 through 2014 on FPS's contract guard and risk assessment programs. To perform this work, GAO reviewed FPS and guard company data and interviewed officials about oversight of guards. GAO compared FPS's and eight federal agencies' risk assessment methodologies to ISC standards that federal agencies must use. GAO selected these agencies based on their missions and types of facilities. GAO also interviewed agency officials and 4 risk management experts about risk assessments. The Federal Protective Service continues to face challenges ensuring that contract guards have been properly trained and certified before being deployed to federal facilities around the country. In September 2013, for example, GAO reported that providing training for active shooter scenarios and screening access to federal facilities poses a challenge for FPS. According to officials at five guard companies, their contract guards have not received training on how to respond during incidents involving an active shooter. Without ensuring that all guards receive training on how to respond to active-shooter incidents at federal facilities, FPS has limited assurance that its guards are prepared for this threat. Similarly, an official from one of FPS's contract guard companies stated that 133 (about 38 percent) of its approximately 350 guards have never received screener training. As a result, guards deployed to federal facilities may be using x-ray and magnetometer equipment that they are not qualified to use raising questions about their ability to fulfill a primary responsibility of screening access control points at federal facilities. GAO was unable to determine the extent to which FPS's guards have received active-shooter response and screener training, in part, because FPS lacks a comprehensive and reliable system for guard oversight. GAO also found that FPS continues to lack effective management controls to ensure its guards have met its training and certification requirements. For instance, although FPS agreed with GAO's 2012 recommendations that it develop a comprehensive and reliable system for managing information on guards' training, certifications, and qualifications, it still does not have such a system. Additionally, 23 percent of the 276 contract guard files GAO reviewed did not have required training and certification documentation. For example, some files were missing items such as documentation of screener training, CPR certifications, and firearms qualifications. Assessing risk at federal facilities remains a challenge for FPS. GAO found in 2012 that federal agencies pay FPS millions of dollars to assess risk at their facilities, but FPS is not assessing risks in a manner consistent with federal standards. In March 2014, GAO found that this is still a challenge for FPS and several other agencies. The Interagency Security Committee's (ISC) Risk Management Process for Federal Facilities standard requires federal agencies to develop risk assessment methodologies that, among other things, assess the threat, vulnerability, and consequence to undesirable events. Risk assessments help decision-makers identify and evaluate security risks and implement protective measures. Instead of conducting risk assessments, FPS uses an interim vulnerability assessment tool, referred to as the Modified Infrastructure Survey Tool (MIST) to assess federal facilities until it develops a longer-term solution. However, MIST does not assess consequence (the level, duration, and nature of potential loss resulting from an undesirable event). Three of the four risk assessment experts GAO spoke with generally agreed that a tool that does not estimate consequences does not allow an agency to fully assess risks. Thus, FPS has limited knowledge of the risks facing about 9,600 federal facilities around the country. FPS officials stated that consequence information in MIST was not part of the original design, but they are exploring ways to incorporate it.

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Write a title and summarize: Terpenoid synthases create diverse carbon skeletons by catalyzing complex carbocation rearrangements, making them particularly challenging for enzyme function prediction. To begin to address this challenge, we have developed a computational approach for the systematic enumeration of terpenoid carbocations. Application of this approach allows us to systematically define a nearly complete chemical space for the potential carbon skeletons of products from monoterpenoid synthases. Specifically, 18758 carbocations were generated, which we cluster into 74 cyclic skeletons. Five of the 74 skeletons are found in known natural products; some of the others are plausible for new functions, either in nature or engineered. This work systematizes the description of function for this class of enzymes, and provides a basis for predicting functions of uncharacterized enzymes. To our knowledge, this is the first computational study to explore the complete product chemical space of this important class of enzymes. Terpenoids, which have diverse carbon skeletons, are an important class of natural products [1–3]. To date, more than 63,000 different terpenoids have been reported [4]. In nature, most cyclic terpenoids are created by terpenoid synthases (sometimes called terpenoid cyclases [5]), which catalyze the cyclizations of linear terpenes such as geranyl diphosphate through carbocation rearrangements [6]. The cyclized carbocationic intermediates are ultimately quenched by phosphorylation, deprotonation, or hydration to yield products (Fig 1). The intrinsic reactivity of carbocations plays an important role in the outcome of cyclization [7–9]. Terpenoids are classified as monoterpenes (C10), sesquiterpenes (C15), diterpenes (C20), sesterterpenes (C25), triterpenes (C30) and sesquarterpenes (C35) according to the number of C5 isoprenoid units incorporated into their carbon skeletons. Rapid advances in DNA sequencing provide an opportunity to discover enzymes involved in creating both previously characterized and novel terpenoid natural products. The gap between sequenced genes and reliable functional annotations is enormous and increasing. For example, the Structure-Function Linkage Database (version 2014) [10] assigns 2778 enzyme sequences to the terpene synthase subgroup of the isoprenoid synthase 2 superfamily (Mg-dependent), of which 2540 (91%) are annotated as having ‘unknown’ function. Thus, the functions of the large majority of these enzymes remain uncharacterized. Inferring enzyme function from protein sequence is challenging in general [11], and is likely to be particularly difficult for enzymes involved in terpenoid biosynthesis, because 1) the potential product chemical space is huge, and 2) single point mutations can alter product specificity [12]. In previous work, we have predicted enzyme substrates and products from protein sequence by using a combination of bioinformatics and structural modeling [13,14]. In order to apply similar methods to terpene synthases, a first major challenge is simply to enumerate the possible enzyme activities that could exist among the uncharacterized enzymes. Defining the possible substrates is trivial (C5, C10, C15, etc.), although there have been investigations into the catalytic mechanisms of a few terpene synthases [6], no previous attempts have been made to systematically define the possible products, due to the complexity of the problem. In this work, we systematically enumerate thousands of potential monoterpenoid carbocationic intermediates, by using computer simulations. To present the complex results in a simple manner, we organize the carbocationic intermediates according to their cyclic ring structures and the locations of double bonds within the carbocycles. We identify 74 such cyclic product skeletons, among which (at least) 5 are represented among characterized monoterpenoid natural products. Among the remaining skeletons, several appear to be plausible albeit hypothetical monoterpene skeletons, in the sense that they can be connected to the linear substrate by a relatively small number of carbocation rearrangements known to occur in terpene synthases. Thus, although natural products with these skeletons do not appear to have been reported, they may be found among the products of the many currently uncharacterized terpene synthases, or be accessible via enzyme engineering. Our simulations perform virtual carbocation rearrangements in the gas phase (Figs 2 and 3 and S1 Movie), allowing the enumeration of all carbocations that follow from cyclization of the linear allylic monoterpene carbocation. Five reaction types are considered (Fig 2b): 1) intramolecular alkylation of double bonds; 2) alkyl shifts (excluding 1,2-methyl shifts); 3) hydride shifts; 4) 1,2-methyl shifts; 5) proton transfers. All five types of reactions were carried out for each carbocationic intermediate (details see Methods). The energies of product carbocations were evaluated by semi-empirical quantum mechanics to ensure their thermo-stability at room temperature (0 kcal/mol relative energy filter, see Methods). The ‘Simplified Molecular Input Line Entry System’ (SMILES), which describes the chemical structures using ASCII strings (Fig 2a; details see Methods), is used to eliminate duplicate product carbocations. The output of our simulation is a carbocationic reaction network, where nodes are intermediates and edges are reactions (Fig 3; it should be noted that not all of the intermediates and edges are shown, for simplicity). To validate our code, we designed an alkane carbocation enumeration experiment for C5-C10, where linear alkane carbocations are used as the reactants (details see Methods). We expect that the output will contain all alkane carbocation isomers. We then manually drew all the carbocationic isomers for C5-C10 and compared with the output of our code. As expected, consistent results are obtained (S2 Table). The total number of monoterpene carbocations obtained by our simulation is 18758, connected by 123093 virtual reactions (the number of edges). To organize the chemical space of carbocations in a simple manner, we define skeletons for the neutralized carbocation with the saturated alkyl side chains removed (Fig 1). When we group carbocations in this way, 74 cyclized skeletons are found. These cyclized skeletons can be divided into five groups: 1) one ring plus one double bond; 2) two rings containing bridged carbons; 3) two fused rings; 4) two rings linked by a spiro carbon; and 5) two separated rings (Fig 4). To date, only five monoterpene skeletons are associated with EC numbers (by IUBMB; see red skeletons in Fig 4 and S3 Table), all of which can be found among the 74 skeletons found by our automated approach. Interestingly, none of the known skeletons belong to the groups that have two rings joined at a spiro carbon or two separated rings. More broadly, although we cannot claim to have performed an exhaustive search, we have not identified any known natural products for 69 of the skeletons. Do the 5 skeletons with EC numbers have any features that distinguish them from the 69 unobserved skeletons? Are any of these alternative skeletons plausible, in terms of representing backbone structures that might in the future be identified among monoterpene natural products, among the many that undoubtedly remain unidentified at present; or that might be accessible by enzyme engineering? The stability of carbocations is an important consideration. For example, secondary carbocations are avoided in most of the terpene synthase reactions. To begin to address this issue, albeit in a somewhat simplistic manner, we applied more stringent energy filters in an attempt to eliminate less stable carbocations. As desired, the fraction of secondary carbocations decreased as we made the energy cutoff more stringent (S1 Fig and S1 Table). Specifically, with the original 0 kcal/mol energy cutoff (energies are relative to the geranyl carbocation, in kcal/mol), 48% are secondary carbocations. With -5 and -10 kcal/mol energy cutoffs, the fraction of secondary carbocations decrease to 33% and 16%, respectively. When applying these two more stringent energy cutoffs, the number of cyclic skeletons identified decreased from 74 to 38 and 35 cyclic skeletons, respectively (S2 Fig). Notably, no skeletons containing two separated rings were found, probably because they are unstable. Fig 5 maps the skeletons onto two variables, specifically the logarithm of the number of carbocations associated with each skeleton [log (ncarbocation) ], versus the number of reaction steps in the shortest route to obtaining the skeleton from the linear reactant. The number of carbocations associated with a skeleton is largely related to the number of possible substitution patterns and stereoisomers associated with each skeleton. This number is also strongly correlated with the number of reaction steps. The product skeletons associated with known EC numbers (in red) are located primarily in the top-left corner of the plot. Monoterpene skeletons that can only be accessed through a large number of transformations (5 or greater) do not appear to be represented among known natural products, although more than 5 rearrangement steps are required for the product formation of some sesquiterpenoid synthases, e. g. epi-isozizaene synthase. Seven skeletons are accessible in" step 4" of Fig 5, the step immediately following the first cyclization step. Of these, 3 have associated EC numbers; the remaining 4 skeletons would seem to be excellent candidates for currently uncharacterized monoterpenoid natural products or for enzyme engineering, although we cannot of course prove this. It should be noted that some of the skeletons may not be accessible because high-energy intermediates and transition states are involved, e. g. the methylenecycloheptane skeleton at “step 4” (it is not found in the simulation with -5 kcal/mol energy cutoff). To explore whether the predicted skeletons are stable compounds, we manually searched the chemical database PubChem [15] (S4 Table). All the skeletons are found, implying that all these predicted skeletons are stable. The top 30 most populated skeletons are shown in S5 Table. To visualize the complicated carbocation reaction network, we developed a web application called ‘Search C+’ (available at http: //carbocation. jacobsonlab. org: 8080/; an example query can be found in S4 Fig). Users can search the carbocation virtual library based on chemical similarity [16]. Once a monoterpene carbocation is found, potential reaction routes can be automatically displayed. Users can also identify the neighboring carbocations of a query carbocation in a local network view (the complete network is too large to display). To predict potential reaction routes for monoterpene carbocations, we performed graph traversal on the obtained carbocation reaction network. Most carbocations can be accessed via multiple reaction routes, and we keep only the shortest route for each precursor carbocation. To predict the best route, one must obtain accurate reaction energies by performing QM/MM or QM cluster calculations in the presence of enzyme [17,18], which is beyond the scope of the current work. Recently, Lobb generated ~1000 C7 carbocation intermediates and transition states by searching reaction types similar to this work, followed by geometry optimizations with DFT methods [19]. A similar approach, including explicitly identifying and optimizing transition states, would be valuable for the terpenoid carbocation intermediates considered here, but the computational cost would be rather high at the present time. Although previous theoretical studies have provided insights into the reaction mechanism for a number of known mono-, sesqui- and diterpenes [6], this is the first computational study to systematically explore the complete chemical space of monoterpenoid carbocations. It should be noted that non-classical carbocations are not considered in our algorithm and only one conformer is retained for each carbocation. As a critical first step towards enzymatic activity prediction for terpenoid synthases, we have created a computational algorithm to systematically enumerate plausible carbocationic intermediates and the product carbon skeletons that can formed from them. For monoterpenoid synthases (C10), we have run many iterations of the algorithm to identify intermediates and product skeletons that can result from enzymatic transformations proceeding through multiple intermediates. The results encompass all monoterpene synthase activities described by EC numbers, as well as other plausible product skeletons that we speculate could be created by one of the many uncharacterized putative terpene synthase enzymes or by engineered enzymes. It may be possible to systematically explore the chemical space of sesquiterpene cyclases (C15) in an analogous manner, although clearly this will be challenging. Recently, a semi-automatic algorithm has been applied to the generation of sesquiterpene carbocations from the humulyl cation (the 1,11-cyclized intermediate) [20]. However, the computational cost of such an algorithm is high, the output of the algorithm seems to consist of less than 200 carbocations, and some of the known carbocations are not explicitly located [20]. Other algorithms [21] without using quantum mechanics may enumerate highly unstable carbocations. In our on-going work to apply the methods described here to sesquiterpene carbocations, we have already enumerated millions of possible product-precursor structures. Although the methods described here are computationally efficient, the exponential increase in the number of possible carbocations with chain length makes it unlikely that we can perform such a systematic exploration of diterpenoid or larger carbocations. In a previous study [22], the graph-based enumeration of organic small molecules containing C, N, O, S, and halogens was performed for up to 17 heavy atoms, and 166 billion molecules were obtained (without considering stereochemistry). However, an alternative approach, appropriate for product prediction of terpene cyclases with crystallographic structures (or sufficiently accurate homology models), is to adapt iGen to create carbocations in the active site of an enzyme. The advantage is that one can eliminate" on the fly" those carbocations that do not fit in the site or are electrostatically incompatible, thus reducing the combinatorial explosion. Thus, in principle, the automatic enumeration algorithm may allow the prediction of novel terpenoid skeletons, which was previously impossible [13,14]. As a first proof-of-concept, we have recently used such an approach to facilitate discovery of a novel sesquiterpene synthase [23]. The iGen algorithm for systematically enumerating carbocations is illustrated in Fig 2a. The reactant carbocation intermediates (input structures) undergo carbocation rearrangements according to a set of predefined reaction types (Fig 2b; resonance structures are also generated). The input structures can be any carbocations. In the simulations for the monoterpene carbocations, we initiate the calculations with three cyclic carbocation intermediates, i. e., two 1,6-cyclized intermediates, differing in stereochemistry, and a 1,7-cyclized intermediate (Fig 3 shows an example starting from one of the 1,6-cyclized intermediates). The first two reaction steps, i. e. trans/cis isomerization of the linear carbocation and the cyclization of the cis linear carbocation, are not shown in Fig 3 for simplicity. We use two key iterations to generate all possible products for a given reactant carbocation (S5 Fig): 1) iterations on atoms of the reactant; 2) iterations on reaction types. Atoms of the reactant carbocation are placed in a reactive atom list, except for the carbocation atom and its three bonded atoms. For each atom in the reactive atom list (iterations on atoms), iGen checks whether this atom fits the features for any of the predefined reaction types; for example, if the reactive atom is a carbon atom in a double bond, it fits the reaction type 1 (e. g., iteration 13 in S5 Fig). Virtual reactions are performed by changing the connectivity of the reactant carbocation. The structure-class of the Schrӧdinger software [24], which has built-in functions such as “addBond”, “deleteBond” and “setFormalCharge”, is used to facilitate the molecular connectivity operations. The resulting carbocations are energy-minimized using molecular mechanics (MM) and quantum mechanics (QM) calculations. The role of the MM minimization is to obtain reasonable geometries of the products after changing the molecular connectivity (S5 Fig). Further semi-empirical QM minimizations, using the RM1 semi-empirical method of the MOPAC package [25], are used to eliminate high-energy carbocations (specific cutoffs described below). Duplicate carbocations are identified and eliminated by using Simplified Molecular Input Line Entry System (SMILES strings), which describes chemical structures using ASCII strings. The obtained product carbocations then become reactant carbocations in the next round. This process runs repeatedly until no new carbocations can be generated, or other user-defined criteria such as the maximum round number are reached. The QM energy cutoff is set to 0. 0 kcal/mol (relative to the linear reactant GPP cation). For long-range hydride-shift and proton transfer reactions, a C-H distance-cutoff 5. 0 Å is used for these two reaction types after Round 5 (long-range hydride shift and proton transfer sometimes occur in enzymatic reactions, mediated by active site residues or water). However, such reactions normally only occur in the first few steps, e. g., 5-epi-aristolochene synthase [26] and selina-4 (15), 7 (11) -diene synthase [27]. iGen is written in Python and takes advantage of the Python API of the Schrӧdinger software [24], which has many built-in functions such as a SMILES string calculator and MM minimizer. For carbocations generated in the first five rounds, conformational sampling is performed by using a Monte Carlo sampling approach implemented in the MacroModel software [24]. Each conformer undergoes virtual reactions as described above. We did not perform full conformational sampling for all the carbocations, as this significantly increases computational costs. We expect that generating more conformers may lead to larger numbers of stereo-isomers among the products but not necessarily more product skeletons. To improve chemical space sampling, we added a ‘stereochemistry module’, which enables the generation of more stereoisomers for a given carbocation conformer. For example, for the conformer described in iteration 1 of S5 Fig, where the H1-C2-C3-C4 dihedral angle is close to zero degrees, it is not clear which stereoisomer is more favorable. In such cases, the ‘stereochemistry module’ generates both stereoisomers via Cartesian coordinate operations. We first calculate the transformation vectors: 1) two orthogonal vectors (with opposite signs) of the plane defined by the sp2 cation atom are calculated; 2) the final position (Cartesian coordinates) of the reactive atom is determined by the orthogonal vector multiplied by a default bond length; 3) the transformation vector is the difference between the coordinates of the final position and the current position of the reactive atom. If the reactive atom is carbon (reaction types 1,2 and 4), the coordinates of the atoms bonded to this reactive atom will also be changed via the same vectors as the reactive atom. In this work, the dihedral angle range to invoke the ‘stereochemistry module’ is set to be [-45°~+45°]. We performed a validation test by enumerating all possible C5-C10 alkane carbocation isomers. By running iGen with reaction types 2–4 (alkyl shift, hydride shift and methyl shift) on a linear alkane carbocation, all the isomers of that alkane carbocation will be generated. It should be noted that reaction types 1 and 5 do not apply to alkane carbocations. We then manually drew all possible C5-C10 alkane carbocations, and compared with the iGen output (S2 Table). QM calculations are not performed in these tests, because many of the alkane carbocations containing -CH2+ are unstable in the QM calculations.

Title: Defining the Product Chemical Space of Monoterpenoid Synthases Summary: Terpenoids, as one of the largest classes of natural products, provide complex carbocycle structures for many drugs (e. g. taxol) and prodrugs. The diverse carbocycle structures arise from complex carbocation rearrangements catalyzed by terpenoid synthases. Many putative terpene synthase enzymes identified in genome sequencing efforts remain functionally uncharacterized, and some of these will undoubtedly have novel products, potentially including previously undiscovered carbocycles. In this work, we present a computational approach that systematically enumerates all plausible carbocations of monoterpenoid synthases in order to define and organize the potentially large product chemical space of this important class of enzymes.

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Summarize: The present application is a continuation of co-pending patent application Ser. No. 715,591, filed Mar. 25, 1985, now U.S. Pat. No. 4,657,025. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION This invention relates to an instrument for generating an alarm when a resting patient's heart rate or respiratory rate varies from previously established values. This device is useful in monitoring patients with fluctuating heart and respiratory rates which may be indicative of potential life threatening emergencies, such as Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS), nocturnal apnea, suffocation, and certaian diseases of the heart which causes rapid or diminished cardiac rates. Present instruments used to monitor apnea and bradycardia rely on two separate sensors that attach physically to the patient. These devices restrict the patient's movements, and are very uncomfortable especially when used on neonatal infants. In addition, the complexity of obtaining positive mechanical probes attached to the patient and the electrical connections required. Make the use of these sensors cumbersome and ineffective due to the danger of separation of the probes from the patient. The complexity of these instruments also requires professional operators for best results to operate the device. In a previous patent application, Ser. No. 129,588, I have described a device that is non-invasive and is placed on any part of a conventional bed or crib where the patient rests to monitor the heart and breathing functions. The present invention describes a single sensor which is sensitive to both the heart beat and breathing functions. An improved electronic circuit has been achieved which takes advantage of the dual sensor capabilities to detect deviations of these functions. The electronic circuit is capable of producing an alarm when a deviation from present limits occurs. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION Available electronic heart and breathing monitors employ two separate transducers to obtain data, one for the heart and one for the breathing functions. These sensors, Re: Harway, Jr. et al., U.S. Pat. No. 4,033,332; Bashman, U.S. Pat. No. 3,898,981, are coupled to the patient by mechanical means. Heart monitors employ electronic probes attached to the patient. Breathing monitors use special mechanical devices to activate the sensors. The monitoring control device produces an alarm when there is a deviation of heart or breathing function different from the norm set by the attending nurse or the operator of the instrument. In many instances, in the presently available devices, a signal processing circuit converts the signal produced by the sensors in a format manageable by the operator and compatible with the overall electrical circuit of the device. In monitoring the heart signal, for example, the circuit is designed to detect the heart beat rate and uses this digital data to activate an electronic counter which is sensitive to a time period. When a deviation of the heart beat rate varies from a predetermined value, the circuit that senses the rate, triggers an alarm signal. The sensor for detecting and monitoring breathing employs a similar circuit. These techniques are very useful for obtaining certain diagnostic data of cardiac functions and the breathing mechanism. In my invention, however, the diagnostic application is not of primary consideration except for detecting SIDS. My invention is concerned with monitoring deviations of these functions from a predetermined norm which may be indicative of the onset of SIDS. For this application, my invention may be fabricated with less sophistication to achieve a more versatile use, resulting in an instrument which is reliable and easily operable by an inexperienced operator. My invention utilizes a single transducer to detect both the heart beat and breathing rates. These signals are combined electronically and the circuit detects the integrated energy of the two signals. A simple electronic circuit detects deviation of the combined integrated power. A deviation from a normal integrated energy is sensed, and when it is more or less, an alarm signal is generated to alert an attendant. The transducer and associated circuitry for the complete functioning of the device is housed in an apparatus of approximately 16 cubic inches. The apparatus can contain, in addition to the transducer, the electronic battery power supply, a radio transmitter or a direct line to transmit the alarm signal to a remote station. This apparatus is placed on the normal bed or normal crib of the patient without physical coupling to the patient. A small radio receiver can be placed away from the apparatus to receive the alarm signal and produce an audible or visual alarm. In the application of my invention, where it is necessary to obtain or display individual data of only the heart beat rate, or the breathing rate, the apparatus provides these outputs. These functions are accomplished by employing electric filtering to separate the two different signals. The literature teaches that there are transducers available that are able to detect very minute movements of the body produced by the acceleration of the blood as it moves in the circulatory system. Data from these transducers can only be obtained when the body is freely suspended and can move uninterrupted by friction. Cunningham and Danders, Bibliography Cardial, 19, pages 1-6, 1967, constructed a bed-like structure which floated on air bearings to detect the blood movement and obtained ballistocardiogram (BCG) readings of the heart function. The air bearing construction allowed the bed-like structure to be freely suspended and isolated from ambient mechanical movement of the pavement. An accelerometer was used to detect the heart functions. According to Starr and Nordergroad, American Heart Journal, 64, pages 79-100, 1962, ballistocardiographic techniques require that the mass of the bed be extremely small. The body weight of the patient being observed should be at least ten times greater than the bed on which he lays. Other workers in this field have concluded that if ballistocardiography is used as a non-invasive technique for obtaining heart data, the bed or other structures, such as chairs, tables, or platform used by the patient, must be considered as part of the special equipment required by the system. This limitation has made the use of ballistocardiography expensive and impractical. The most successful transducers employed in ballistocardiograms have been those used to detect acceleration by means of piezo-resistive techniques. Transducers of this type have a natural frequency range above that which can detect heart beat, about 1.2 Hertz. This characteristic makes their use cumbersome, and require sophisticated electronic circuitry for adopting them for the low frequency necessary to detect heart rates. I have also found that available transducers are not effective to produce a signal of the heart beat in combination with the breathing rate of a patient for monitoring these two functions at the same time. In addition, Re: Starr, in The Harvey Lectures, page 199, delivered January 1947 and Curtis, H. J., The Design of the Ballis tocardiograph, Am J Physiol 142: 1-11, 1944, concluded that breathing functions have a deleterious effect on heart monitoring in ballistocardiography. In conjunction with the present invention, I have invented a new type of transducer capable of detecting these two functions simultaneously in an efficient manner. The transducer consists of a small cylindrical magnet which is surrounded by an electrical coil so that when the coil is made to move, it produces an electrical current proportional to the movement of the body, and generates a voltage proportional to the frequency of the relative movement between the coil and the magnet assembly. The magnet and associated pole pieces are held fixed to the transducer container or case, which rests on the patient's bed. A thin cylindrical rigid structure is filled with liquid which rests on a flexible liquid seal or membrane which is attached to the coil assembly. The liquid forms an incompressible medium which produces a force on the surface of the movable membrane and hence also on the coil assembly. This transducer, in which the vertical liquid column loads the coil assembly, efficiently senses vertical movement. I have found experimentally that this characteristic is very effective in detecting the body movements caused by the heart beat and breathing, since heart and breathing functions mainly produce vertical movement of the bed and mattress on which a subject lies. This transducer is placed on a conventional bed where the patient lies, attached only by gravity. The transducer can be placed away from the patient for example at rear of the patient's feet. The bed need not be isolated from the floor. Thus the bed is not a component part of the system as it is in the case of ballistocardiogram devices and thus the transducer and its associated circuitry and other types of monitors can be placed on any bed. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a drawing illustrating the novel heart and breathing rate transducer. FIG. 2 is a schematic diagram of the novel electronic circuitry of the invention used to amplify and process the electrical signal produced by the heart and breathing rate transducer to obtain an alarm signal. FIG. 3 is a schematic diagram of the unprocessed wave form produced by the heart and breathing rate transducer. FIG. 4 is a schematic diagram of the wave shape of FIG. 3 after it has been rectified. FIG. 5 is a curve indicating the various triggering voltage points to produce an alarm signal. FIG. 6 is a representative view of the invention as may be used for a general application to monitor the heart and breathing functions of a patient. DESCRIPTION OF THE PREFERRED EMBODIMENT FIG. 1 is an illustrative drawing of a Motion Detection Transducer which I have invented to detect the minute movements of a patient lying in a conventional bed. The patient's natural coupling with the mattress where he rests produces a movement throughout the mattress which is sensed by the transducer. The design of the transducer enhances sensitivity in one direction, namely the vertical direction, which is the direction of most of the mattress movement due to heart and respiratory action of a person lying on the mattress. This design allows for an improved signal-to-noise ratio compared to sensors that have omnidirectional sensitivity, as it is evident in Hawley, et al., U.S. Pat. No. 3,270,565. The physical and mechanical aspects of this sensor may be described as follows: Given a narrow cylindrical column of liquid hermetically enclosed. Let the column stand vertically on a platform freely movable in all three axes. Apply a force on the platform along the vertical axis. This force in turn accelerates the column of liquid in the upward direction. However, since the liquid is enclosed, the upward acceleration creates an increase in pressure at the lower end of the thin column while producing a lower pressure at the top of the column. The pressure produced is proportional to the height of the column and the density of the liquid. The change in pressure produces a force which may be detected by an electromagnetic device. When a force is applied to the platform in the horizontal direction, it creates in turn an acceleration in the thin column of liquid in a sideways direction. The force produced by this action is similar to that obtained by having the force in the vertical direction, except that the pressure produced in the horizontal direction is much less because the configuration of the liquid in the horizontal direction is only the result of the effective diameter of the thin column of liquid. I have found experimentally that the thinner the column is made, the greater is the directional sensitivity in the direction of the column. I also have found experimentally that the sensor I have invented enhances signals produced by the vertical movement of a person resting in bed, and attenuates those signals that are off vertical. Ambient mechanical noises which affect the movement of the bed omnidirectionally are suppressed. Therefore, the resultant signal-to-noise ratio of my sensor is improved. A better understanding of the construction of the transducer may be obtained by referring to FIG. 1. The case or container 1, which may be constructed of such material as aluminum, encloses the sensor mechanism and provides terminal electrical connections 2. The sensor mechanism consists of an enclosure 3 which houses a magnet 4 mounted in a magnetic flux conducting pole piece 8. Coil 5 is supported by cylindrical tube 5a which surrounds magnet 4. The cup-shaped pole piece 8 forms part of the magnetic circuit to produce a radial magnetic flux in the air gap in which the coil and its support 5a are mounted, so that the flux lines are cut when the coil and its support move vertically in the air gap. The structure described thus far is similar to the magnetic and voice coil system of a loudspeaker. Flexible elements 6 and 6a are connected to wires 7 and 7a which bring the output electrical signal to terminals 2. Cylindrical tube 5a is attached to flexible membrane 9, which may be constructed of a very thin material such as Mylar having a thickness of about 0.001 inches. Membrane 9 centers coil 5 around the magnet and prevents contact with the magnet during operation. Membrane 9 also makes a hermetical seal with enclosure 3 and the vertical column 10. Column 10, which can be a hollow tube made of a suitable material such as aluminum, is sealed at the top by a mechanical fixed seal or cap 11. Column 10 is totally filled with liquid 12. The liquid employed may be water, aqueous solutions of salt or increased specific gravity, organic solutions, or other substance such as mercury, which is more efficient because of its higher specific gravity. Cylindrical tube 13 is attached to the top of pole piece 8, which in turn is attached to membrane 9 and column 10 to produce a rigid assembly. The attaching medium may consist of a suitable cement such as an epoxy compound. Tube 5a is attached to membrane 9 using the same type cement. During the operation of my motion detector transducer, the device is placed on a conventional mattress, which may be covered by a conventional sheet or blanket, where a patient is resting. The patient's heart and breathing functions create a rhythmic movement on the mattress. The mattress movement produces a force in liquid 12 perpendicular to the surface of the mattress. The force of the liquid is transmitted through the rigid column 10 and reacts with the flexible membrane 9, which in turn creates a movement of coil 5 resulting in the generation of a current which is proportionate to the amplitude of the movement of the mattress and exhibits the same frequency as the combined frequencies of the heart and breathing functions. The current generated by the transducer is fed to an electronic circuit for processing. An alternate explanation of the mode of operation is that the weight of the liquid column resting on the movable coil assembly represents a mass loading of the system which lowers the natural resonant frequency thereof to the vicinity of the frequency of the signals of interest. These frequencies are approximately 1-2 Hz for heart signals and approximately 0.3 Hz for respiration signals. Also the mass loading of the moving coil tends to hold the coil stationary if the case 1 is moved by an external force such as the aforementioned body functions. The resultant relative movement between the magnet assembly and the coil assembly will produce an output signal at terminals 2. Turning to FIG. 2, which is an electrical schematic diagram of the invention, motion detection transducer 14 is connected to a low frequency amplifier 15 to amplify the A.C. voltage signal produced by transducer 14 when monitoring a patient. Diode 16 rectifies the signal so that only the positive element is reproduced. Bias network 17 supplies a positive bias voltage to the anode of diode 16 such that very low D.C. signals are blocked. The bias network 17 thus acts as an adjustable threshold regulator to block low amplitudes caused by ambient noises which may be picked up by the transducer 14. The output of diode 16 is fed to a low pass filter 18 which allows only frequencies of about 4 Hertz or less pass and cuts off frequencies much above 4 Hertz. Attenuator 19 is used as a sensitivity control to set the signal output at a manageable level for the remaining circuit. Light indicator 20a is a light emitting diode which is energized to the proper voltage to indicate proper signal output. Indicator 20a can also be used to indicate that the monitor is in operation since it flickers at heart beat frequency of the patient. Inverting amplifier 20 is a low frequency amplifier which acts as a low power amplifier to distribute this signal to different circuits. Diode 21 allows minus potential only to flow to the succeeding circuitry. Control 22 serves as a bias regulator for diode 21 and permits minus polarity potential above the setting of control 22 to enter integrator 23 through switch 16 and also prevents leakage of the stored charge on storage capacitor 24. Integrator 23 consists of resistors 25, 25a and 25b, and storage capacitor 24. Capacitor 24 is charged negatively at every D.C. pulse produced by the action of the heart beat and breathing functions sensed by transducer 14. The sum of the pulsed voltages is related to the frequency of the pulses, e.g., the higher the pulse frequency the higher is the voltage stored in capacitor 24. Resistors 25, 25a and 25b limit the buildup of this voltage for any given time depending on the RC time constant of this circuit. The negative voltage generated in integrator 23 is fed to a low voltage detector 26. Detector 26 consists of an operational amplifier op-amp 27 of the 741 type which has been biased positive by variable resistor 28 to balance the output voltage of integrator 23 and produce a negative voltage output of op-amp 27 during a steady state frequency sensed, nominally 72 heart beats and 14 breathings per minute, by transducer 14. Resistors 29, 30 and 31 form a feedback signal network voltage divider and reduce the effect of a large offset current of op-amp 27. Low voltage detector 26 achieves gain higher than 5,000 and goes to an overload condition by a very small voltage input differential. This feature makes this circuit able to trigger relay 32 when there is a very small decrease in the absolute value of the negative voltage stored on capacitor 24 of integrator 23. The decrease in absolute negative voltage is due to the reduction of the frequency of the heart beat and breathing sensed by transducer 14. For instance, if the heart beat decreases to about 40 beats and the breathingg rate to about 8 beats per minute, the voltage integration resulting in capacitor 24 is reduced to a critical point of about -2 volts to trigger op-amp 27 from a minus potential output to full power plus potential output. Diode 33 allows flow of the positive potential to activate relay 32. Relay contacts 34 are activated by relay 32 and closes the circuit of terminal 35 and 36. High gain inverting amplifier 37 is also fed by integrator 23. Variable resistor 38 and voltage divider resistors 39, 40 and 41 are chosen to maintain op-amp 42 at a plus bias potential of about +6 volts. If the heart beat and breathing functions increase, for instance, to about 110 and 25 respectively, the voltage integrated is increased and capacitor 24 obtains an absolute voltage in excess of the minus 6 volts which obtains under normal heart and respiration rates. For example with increased heart and respiration rates, the negative voltage on capacitor 24 may go to 7 or 8 volts. This action changes the bias voltage of op-amp 42 negatively which results in a positive output voltage. This triggering action causes a flow of positive current through diode 43 which activates relay 44. Switch 45 is activated by relay 44 and closes the circuit to terminals 35 and 36. The circuitry of the two detectors 26 and 37 is similar except that in the case of the low voltage detector 26, the integrator voltage is applied to the positive input terminal of op-amp 27 from adjustable resistor 25a and in the high voltage detector 37 the integrator voltage from adjustable resistor 25b is applied to the negative input of op-amp 42. This difference in inputs is what produces the difference in function of these two otherwise similar circuits. It should be noted that the circuit of FIG. 2 can be easily modified to accommodate positive voltages on storage capacitor 24. If diode 21 is reversed in polarity, positive voltage pulses would be applied to the integrator. The two detector circuits would then be modified to detect changes in the positive integrator voltage. Also, other types of detectors could be used instead of those shown. One other type would be Schmitt trigger circuits. These circuits could be designed to trigger and actuate the alarms when the critical high and low voltages on integrator 23 obtain. The values indicated in FIG. 2 for the capacitor and the resistors are only for explanatory purposes. These values can vary to conform with parameters chosen for the application of the device. The value of heart beat and breathing indicated are also to show some practical limits. For instance, adjusting the value of resistance 25b and 38 allows adjustment for triggering op-amp 42 at different frequency rates of heart and breathing actions which are above those of the patient at rest. Adjusting resistor 25a and 28 allows triggering points of op-amp 27 blow those of the patient at rest. FIG. 5 shows this application in a graph form. The use of the very high gain non-inverting op-amp 27 and inverting op-amp 42 are electronic circuits that employ single op-amps to accomplish comparator functions combined with the triggering action to gate and amplify small signals. For instance, the change over from negative output to positive output of op-amp 27 and 42 is caused by a very small voltage differential on the input going from a positive to a less positive voltage of about 0.001. This small voltage differential is grated and amplified over 5,000 times at high slew triggering rates. The negative current that goes through diode 21 is channeled through switches 46, 47 and 48 to integrator 23. Band pass filter 49 allows to pass only frequencies associated with the heart beat. These may be of the order of from 45 to 250 beats per minute. Band pass filter 50 allows to pass only frequencies associated with breathing. These may be of the order of 6 to 40 breathing cycles per minute. If switch 46 is closed and all other switches are open the two bandpass filters are out of the circuit and the output of diode 21 comprising both heart and respiration signals is applied to the integrator 23. Switches 47 and 51, when in the closed position and switch 46 in the open position, inserts respiration bandpass filter 49 between the diode 21 and integrator 23. Similarly if switches 48 and 52 are closed and switch 46 in the open position the heart bandpass filter 50 will be inserted between the diode 21 and the integrator, allowing only heart frequency signals to enter integrator circuit 23. This arrangement of switches allows the instrument to be used as a monitor for the combination of heart and breathing functions; heart function only or breathing function only. The control of these switches may be done from the outside of the alarm device. A visual monitor 53 which may consist of an oscilloscope or a strip chart recorder is connected by means of switch 53a to examine the wave shape produced by transducer 14 after being electronically processed. Visual monitor 53 can monitor the combined frequencies of the heart and breathing functions when switch 46 is conducting; the heart beat only when switches 48 and 52 are conducting; and the breathing only when switches 47 and 51 are conducting. Radio transmitter 54 can be connected to terminals 35 and 36 to transmit the alarm signals generated by amplifiers 27 and 42. In applications where the heart and breathing monitor is to be used in a private house, it may be more advantageous to eliminate from FIG. 2 the circuits associated with bandpass filters 49 and 50 and the visual monitor 53. These features may make the device unnecessarily more complex and expensive for such applications. However these features may be advisable for hospital applications. The dc power supply needed to operate the monitor device has not been shown in the schematic diagram. This can be obtained from a conventional ac power source which has been rectified and the voltage adjusted to conform with the electronic component used. A battery power supply can also be used. In this manner the instrument which is placed on the bed where the patient rests is self-powered and eliminates power wiring to be attached to the bed structure. The battery can also be of the rechargeable type which can be recharged using house current without taking the battery out of the enclosure. Turning to FIG. 3, it is a schematic of the unprocessed wave form from transducer 14. The high frequency wave form contains heart beat pulses 55 and ambient noises 56. In noises 56 there is also some signal that is related to the diagnostic condition of the heart function. However, this information is not the object of this invention, and is not discussed here. The breathing rate, low frequency 57 is shown by a dotted line with enclosed pulses 55. Turning to FIG. 4, it is a schematic of the wave shape shown in FIG. 3 after it has been rectified by diode 16. Rectified wave 58 corresponds to the unrectified wave 55. Rectified wave, shown in dotted lines 60 corresponds to the unrectified wave 57. Rectified wave 59 has a lower amplitude than the corresponding wave 56. This is a result of adjusting bias network 17 of FIG. 2 and setting the threshold of the rectified voltage to a suitable level. Turning to FIG. 5, it is curve of the various triggering voltage points to produce an alarm signal for the circuit of FIG. 2. The negative voltage generated by integrator 23 is shown by curve 61. The curve 61 between the voltages -V2 and -V3 is generated by the voltage integrated by integrator 23 when transducer 14 is placed on the bed where the patient is resting. The patient's normal heart beat and breathing actions may fluctuate slightly during time t3 without causing a triggering action on amplifiers 27 and 42. This condition may last for an indefinite time if the patient's activity remains normal. The portion of the curve designated by -V1 and -V2 shows a period t2 during which time the absolute value of the voltage is declining due to the onset of apnea or bradycardia, or both. This condition slows the heart beat and the breathing period, resulting in a diminished voltage integration, as shown. If this condition continues for a period designated as t2, the triggering voltage -V1 is reached and amplifier 27 goes to the triggering mode producing a signal in terminals 35 and 36. The time interval t2 is normally adjusted to be 10 to 20 seconds. The adjustment of the time interval t2 is accomplished by adjusting the bias voltage of amplifier 27 with variable resistor 28. This adjustment is done by the operator of the alarm device in accordance with the needs of the patient. For instance, if the patient is a small child with suspected SID syndrome, it is advisable to adjust the variable resistor 28 so that the alarm triggers about 10 seconds after the attack of apnea. The knob operating resistor 28, now shown in the drawing, may be calibrated in units of time to guide the operator. If the patient has an increase in the action of the heart beat or breathing, integrator 23 charges to a higher absolute voltage designated by -V3. At this point, amplifier 42 will go to the triggering mode and produce an alarm signal to terminal 35 and 36. The alarm signal of the low activity and high activity of the patient are shown in FIG. 2 to terminate a the same point, i.e., terminals 35 and 36. However, these two signals, not shown in FIG. 2, may be separated if so desired. Amplifier 42 will also trigger an alarm signal if the high activity is caused by a physical movement of the patient which generates sufficient voltage in integrator 23. The curve portion designated as t4 indicates the time interval required for integrator 23 to reach the required triggering voltage. This time interval is also varied, similarly as t2, by the operator of the alarm device who can adjust variable resistor 38 which controls the bias triggering voltage of amplifier 42. The curve designated as t5 shows that the alarm stays on for an indefinite time until the alarm device is deactivated. Turning to FIG. 6, conventional bed 62 depicted as a conventional double size bed, supports a conventional mattress 63. Patient 64 rests on a portion of mattress 63. Heart and breathing monitor 65 is placed on one extreme portion of the mattress, which may be covered by a conventional sheet or blanket. Monitor 65 contains the electronics of FIG. 2 as well as the transducer of FIG. 1 to detect apnea and bradycardia, excessive heart and breathing rates and high activity physical movements that can cause damage to the patient. Radio transmitter 54 transmits, through antenna 66, an alarm signal when the above conditions are sensed by transducer 14 located within monitor 65. Radio receiver 67 receives the alarm signal and produces an audible sound which is generated in speaker 68. Electrical lights 69 may be made to flash to give a visual display that the alarm has been tripped.. The number of light indicators can vary depending on the application of the instrument. Using conventional electrical circuitry, not shown in FIG. 6, radio transmitter 54 can transmit a coded signal identifying the location of the bed. This coded information may be decoded by conventional circuitry, not shown in FIG. 6, in receiver 67 and the proper light will flash to indicate the location of the patient requiring attention. This feature can be used in locations where more than one patient is being monitored an the radio receiver is located at a central point. The double size conventional bed 62 has been depicted to indicate the large area of sensitivity of monitor 65. It further depicts that monitor 65 does not require body coupling with the patient in order to sense the heart and breathing functions. Therefore, it can operate within large areas of mattresses. Mattress areas of conventional double and single bed sizes, hospital beds, baby cribs, incubator cribs and the like are within the scope of this invention and monitor device. While the invention has been shown and described with reference to a specific embodiment and electronic processing, it is not limited to the configuration of electronic circuitry and components used for the specific circuits shown in the preferred embodiment, since other alternate electronic circuits and mechanical construction can produce satisfactory results. It should be obvious to those skilled in the state-of-the-art that various changes and modifications can be made to this specific embodiment without departing from the spirit and scope of this invention.

Summary: A device for sensing heart and breathing rates in a single transducer and having electronic and filtering circuits to process the electrical signal generated by the transducer. The transducer is an electromagnetic sensor constructed to enhance sensitivity in the vertical direction of vibration produced on a conventional bed by the action of patient's heart beat and breathing functions and achieves sufficient sensitivity with no physical coupling between the patient resting in bed and the sensor placed on the bed away from the patient. The electronic circuits integrates the electrical energy generated by the sensor that pertains to cardiac and breathing information and sets off an alarm when pre-set circuits of these functions have been surpassed. The device has applications in monitoring SID Syndrome and non-ambulatory patients.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Children's Hope Act of 2003''. SEC. 2. TAX CREDIT FOR CONTRIBUTIONS TO EDUCATION INVESTMENT ORGANIZATIONS. (a) In General.--Subpart B of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (relating to other credits) is amended by inserting after section 30A the following new section: ``SEC. 30B. CONTRIBUTIONS TO EDUCATION INVESTMENT ORGANIZATIONS. ``(a) In General.--There shall be allowed as a credit against the tax imposed by this chapter for the taxable year the aggregate amount of qualified contributions for the taxable year. ``(b) Limitation.--The amount allowed as a credit under subsection (a) for a taxable year shall not exceed $100 ($200 in the case of a joint return). ``(c) Qualified Contributions.--For purposes of this section-- ``(1) In general.--The term `qualified contribution' means a charitable contribution (as defined by section 170(c)) to an education investment organization. ``(2) Education investment organization.--The term `education investment organization' means any organization described in section 170(c)(2) if-- ``(A) normally not less than 90 percent of the annual cash contributions to such organization are disbursed in the form of grants to students for qualified elementary and secondary education expenses, and ``(B) not less than \1/2\ of such disbursements are to students who are eligible for free or reduced-cost lunches under the school lunch program established under the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act. ``(3) Qualified elementary and secondary education expenses.--The term `qualified elementary and secondary education expenses' has the meaning given such term by section 530(b)(4), except that `child' shall be substituted for `beneficiary' and `a child' shall be substituted for `the designated beneficiary of the trust' in clauses (i) and (iii) of subparagraph (A). ``(4) State credit must be taken first.-- ``(A) No credit shall be allowed to a taxpayer under this section for a taxable year unless, for the taxable year, the taxpayer is allowed on the taxpayer's State tax return the minimum State qualified scholarship tax credit (as defined in section 3 of the Children's Hope Act of 2003). ``(B) No credit shall be allowed to a taxpayer under this section for such taxable year for any contributions that were taken into account for purposes of such State qualified scholarship tax credit. ``(d) Special Rules.-- ``(1) Denial of double benefit.--No deduction shall be allowed under any provision of this chapter for any expense for which a credit is allowed under this section. ``(2) Time when contributions deemed made.--For purposes of this section, a taxpayer shall be deemed to have made a contribution to an education investment organization on the last day of the preceding taxable year if the contribution is made on account of such taxable year and is made not later than the time prescribed by law for filing the return for such taxable year (not including extensions thereof).''. (b) Scholarships From Education Investment Organizations Excluded From Income.--Section 74 of such Code (relating to prizes and awards) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection: ``(d) Scholarships From Education Investment Organizations.--Gross income does not include amounts received as a scholarship from an education investment organization (as defined in section 30B(c)(2)) for qualified elementary and secondary education expenses (as defined in section 30B(c)(3)). Such scholarship shall not be taken into account for purposes of determining eligibility for any Federal program.''. (c) Clerical Amendment.--The table of sections for such subpart B is amended by inserting after the item relating to section 30A the following new item: ``Sec. 30B. Contributions to education investment organizations.''. (d) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2004. SEC. 3. FEDERAL SCHOLARSHIP TAX CREDIT CONDITIONED ON STATE QUALIFIED SCHOLARSHIP TAX CREDIT. (a) In General.--For purposes of section 30B(e) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (as added by section 2 of this Act) a scholarship tax credit shall not be treated as a State qualified scholarship tax credit unless the requirements of subsection (b) are met. (b) Requirements Relating to State Qualified Scholarship Tax Credit.-- (1) In general.--For purposes of subsection (a), the requirements of this subsection are met only if-- (A) the tax credit is for an amount of not less than $250 per taxpayer and is allowed against the State income tax (property tax for those States that don't have income tax) for the amount of voluntary cash contributions made by the taxpayer during the taxable year to a school tuition organization described in paragraph (2), (B) the excess of such credit over tax liability may be carried forward for not more than five years, (C) if the taxpayer does not require, as a condition of the contribution, that the contribution must benefit a specific child, and (D) such credit is not allowable for direct donations to private schools. (2) School tuition organization.--For purposes of paragraph (1), a school tuition organization is described in this paragraph if such organization-- (A) is an organization operating in the State and is described in section 501(c)(3), and is exempt from tax under section 501(a), of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, (B) expends at least 90 percent of its annual cash contributions for educational scholarships or tuition grants to children to allow them to attend any qualified school chosen at the sole discretion of their parents, and (C) disburses at least 90 percent of its annual cash contributions within one year of their receipt. (3) Qualified school.--For purposes of paragraph (2), the term ``qualified school'' means any elementary school or secondary school that is located in the State in which the taxpayer resides and does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, handicap, familial status, or national origin and that satisfies the requirements prescribed by State law for such schools as of December 31, 2004. (4) Educational scholarships or tuition grants.--The term ``educational scholarship or a tuition grant'' means any scholarship or grant awarded for qualified elementary and secondary education expenses (as defined in section 530(b)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986). (c) State.--For purposes of this section, the term ``State'' means any of the several States.

Title: To amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide for a credit which is dependent on enactment of State qualified scholarship tax credits and which is allowed against the Federal income tax for charitable contributions to education investment organizations that provide assistance for elementary and secondary education Summary: Children's Hope Act of 2003 - Amends the Internal Revenue Code to provide for a credit ($100, $200 for joint return) which is dependent on enactment of State qualified scholarship tax credits and which is allowed against the Federal income tax for charitable contributions to education investment organizations (as defined by this Act) that provide qualifying assistance for elementary and secondary education. Excludes from gross income amounts received from an education investment organization for qualified elementary and secondary education expenses.

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Summarize: TSA's Head Of Security 'Removed' From Office, Says House Panel Enlarge this image toggle caption Mel Evans/AP Mel Evans/AP Updated at 7 a.m. Tuesday The head of security for the Transportation Security Administration, Kelly Hoggan, has been removed from his position after a hearing about the agency's management, the House Oversight Committee says. On Tuesday, Secretary for Homeland Security Jeh Johnson confirmed on NPR's Morning Edition that Hoggan is being removed from his post. "We've got to ensure aviation security and the safety of the American travel public," Johnson said. "I've made it clear to TSA that we should not shortcut that." In an email obtained from the TSA, Administrator Peter Neffenger announced a series of leadership changes on Monday. The position that Hoggan had held since 2013 will temporarily be taken by Darby LaJoye, who is currently deputy assistant administrator. The changes come as fliers complain about long, slow airport screening lines. That problem "has many parts," as NPR's Brian Naylor has reported: More people are traveling, and there are fewer screeners. The May 12 hearing looked into attrition as well as management accountability. The committee says Hoggan received more than $90,000 in bonuses between November 2013 and November 2014, "despite significant security vulnerabilities." Lawmakers accused TSA of surreptitiously giving the payments in $10,000 increments, NBC News reports. NBC adds that during the hearing, Administrator Neffenger said that he did not think the "level of bonus is justified," but that he didn't have plans to fire Hoggan. Here's more from the Two-Way on what TSA plans to work on going forward: "Congress gave the TSA authority to hire more than 700 new screeners, who are expected by mid-June, and the agency is redeploying others. It will also be making additional use of canine teams to help screen passengers, as well as stepping up marketing of the TSA Pre-Check program, which allows passengers who undergo a background check and pay $85 to go through expedited screening." "I want the American public to know that we're aggressively focused on this and working with Congress to get the resources the TSA needs," Johnson, the secretary for homeland security, said Tuesday. In Monday's email, Neffenger said he had put in place a new leadership team at Chicago O'Hare International, infamous for travel delays, and said he had appointed Rod Allison, director of the Federal Air Marshal Service, as the deputy chief of operations. LaJoye, taking Hoggan's position "effective immediately," has worked as federal security director at Los Angeles International Airport and John F. Kennedy International Airport in New York. What is a 'Smurf' A smurf is a colloquial term for a money launderer. Also refers to one who seeks to evade scrutiny from government agencies by breaking up a transaction involving a large amount of money into smaller transactions that are below the reporting threshold. The term is derived from the cartoon characters known as The Smurfs. BREAKING DOWN 'Smurf' In order to prevent money laundering by criminals involved in illegal activities that involve large sums of cash, such as drugs and extortion, countries like the United States and Canada require that a currency transaction report be filed by a financial institution handling a transaction that exceeds $10,000 in cash. Therefore, a criminal group with $50,000 in cash to launder may use several smurfs to deposit anywhere from $5,000 to $9,000 in a number of accounts that are geographically dispersed. This would be below the reporting threshold. (CNN) Kelly Hoggan, the Transportation Security Administration's assistant administrator for the Office of Security Operations, has been removed from his position in the wake of congressional scrutiny. The change was announced Monday night by the House Oversight Committee's official Twitter account. UPDATE: Kelly Hoggan has been removed from his position as head of security at TSA, following our hearing on May 12 on mismanagement at TSA. — Oversight Committee (@GOPoversight) May 23, 2016 "UPDATE: Kelly Hoggan has been removed from his position as head of security at TSA, following our hearing on May 12 on mismanagement at TSA," the committee tweeted. The House Oversight Committee conducted a hearing on TSA's operations on May 12. At the hearing the TSA Administrator, Peter Neffenger, was questioned why Hoggan was given $90,000 in bonuses when security lines were not improving. His agency is on the defensive after three former TSA employees testified that they were retaliated against after "directed reassignments," where employees who have highlighted wrongdoing within the administration are shifted to other assignments. Read More Breaking News Emails Get breaking news alerts and special reports. The news and stories that matter, delivered weekday mornings. The embattled Transportation Security Administration was slammed Thursday for improperly giving one official a $90,000 bonus, long lines at the nation's airports and retaliation against workers who complain about poor treatment. Lawmakers accused the TSA of disguising the payment to Kelly Hoggan by doling it out in nine chunks of $10,000 instead of one lump sum — a strategy known as “smurfing.” He received this bonus even as the screeners he supervised failed a test to detect mock explosives and banned weapons. “Those bonuses were given to somebody who oversees a part of the operation that was in total failure,” said Rep. Jason Chaffetz, R-Utah, House Oversight and Government Reform Committee, on Thursday. TSA Administrator Peter Neffenger said Hoggan was awarded the bonus under his predecessor and that he’s put in checks to make sure this doesn’t happen again. “I don’t think that level of bonus is justified, period,” Neffenger said. Kelly Hoggan was named the Assistant Administrator for the Office of Security Operations in May 2013 Transportation Security Administration The congressional panel zeroed in on TSA's practices as the agency faces strident criticism over long lines at security checkpoints that result in passengers missing their flights, an unusually high employee turnover and burnout and charges of widespread waste, fraud and managerial abuse of power. Last year, an inspector general testified the agency has problems with technology, procedure and human errors and that "layers of security were simply missing." Related: TSA Whistleblowers Fault 'Lord of the Flies' Culture at Agency Neffenger, who took over the role last summer, has found himself in the position of trying to fix a problem-plagued agency even as some in Congress argue it needs a complete overhaul. It is also an agency that internally has low morale as controversies continue to buffet TSA. Neffenger has worked to issue policies clarifying roles, scrutinizing bonuses and reassignments and moving to fix security lapses. It may not be enough. “Your attempts on training and recruiting will be a failure and I told you that when you came in. It is a huge failing government program,” Rep. John Mica, R-Florida told Neffenger on Thursday. Lawmakers were especially galled at the idea that TSA officials received hefty bonuses even though the agency is reviled by much of the public because of its chronic inability to move travelers efficiently through airport security. Related: Lawmakers to Airlines: Drop Baggage Fees to Shorten TSA Lines Homeland Security Inspector John Roth, who appeared with Neffenger before the House Oversight and Government Reform Committee, said the payments to Hoggan were “clearly an attempt” to get around the $10,000 bonus limit. They were made over a 13-month period ending in November 2014. “The intent was to hide,” Roth said. “The individual responsible for that is no longer employed by the TSA.” But when asked if he planned to fire Hoggan, who makes $181,500 as the TSA’s assistant administrator for the office of security administrations, Neffenger said no. Coast Guard Vice Commandant Peter Neffenger testifies on Capitol Hill in Washington, Wednesday, June 10, 2015. Jacquelyn Martin / AP file “I currently do not have a plan to remove Mr. Hoggan,” he said. “I have not seen any direct misconduct by Mr. Hoggan in the time that I’ve been here.” That answer did not satisfy some lawmakers. “You have your $100,000-a-year people standing around” while poorly-paid TSA screeners have to contend with masses of travelers, Mica said. “We’re screwing the guy that’s doing the work.” Mica, who helped create the federal agency that safeguards U.S. airports and now favors privatizing the TSA, conceded that reforming the agency is a tall order. “I think you’re a good guy to be sent in to clean up the mess,” Mica said. “But sometimes the leader is fed mushrooms…you’re being fed this information by people who are trying to protect their rear ends.” A Transportation Security Administration (TSA) officer inspects items from a piece of luggage at Los Angeles International Airport in 2013. Mario Anzuoni / Reuters file Noting that the TSA attrition rate for screeners is 10 percent, Mica said, “This not a thinking organization.” The White House, however, contends the Republican-led Congress shares some of the blame for the shortage of screeners that has resulted in lengthy lines for travelers. "Certainly some of the challenges that they’re facing right now could be alleviated if they got all of the funding that we would like to see them have," spokesman Josh Earnest said Wednesday. "So once again, a problem that people have noticed can be traced back pretty directly to the inability of Republicans in Congress to govern the country."

Summary: Travelers who have experienced out-of-control airport lines and maddening security glitches may be glad to hear that TSA security chief Kelly Hoggan is out of a job-but less pleased to hear that he received $90,000 in bonuses. The House Oversight Committee tweeted Monday night that Hoggan, security chief since 2013, has been removed from his job following a May 12 hearing on mismanagement at the agency, NPR reports. At the hearing, TSA Administrator Peter Neffenger was asked why Hoggan-who was paid $181,500 a year-received the hefty bonuses at a time when security lines were not improving and embarrassing security holes were exposed. The bonuses to Hoggan were paid in $10,000 monthly increments up to November 2014 in what lawmakers described as a clear example of "smurfing" to disguise the payments, NBC News reports. Neffenger told the committee the bonuses were paid before he took charge and he won't let such payouts happen again. "I don't think that level of bonus is justified, period," he said. Darby LaJoye, Hoggan's deputy, will be interim security chief. Amid heavy criticism for long security lines snarling travel nationwide, the TSA has promised to add more screeners. Neffenger also promised "more focused leadership and screening operations at critical airports in the national transportation system" in a TSA memo seen by CNN.

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Summarize: CIA Director Mike Pompeo said the U.S. will continue to take steps to disrupt the North Korean economy and pressure the regime. Carolyn Kaster/AP Pompeo: U.S. making 'no concessions' to North Korea CIA Director Mike Pompeo says the U.S. won't be making any "concessions" to North Korea ahead of any talks with President Donald Trump. North Korean leader Kim Jong Un must "continue to allow us to perform our military-necessary exercises on the peninsula, and then he’s got to make sure that he leaves on the table that discussion for denuclearization,” Pompeo said on “Fox News Sunday.” Story Continued Below “These are real achievements,” he added. “These are conditions that the North Korean regime has never submitted to in exchange for conversations.” Any discussions between Trump and Kim will “play out over time,” Pompeo said, but the first negotiations would likely set the tone for what arrangements will be deemed acceptable. “Make no mistake about it,” he said. “While these negotiations are going on, there will be no concessions made.” The Global Politico Susan B. Glasser’s weekly podcast takes you backstage in a world disrupted. Email Sign Up By signing up you agree to receive email newsletters or alerts from POLITICO. You can unsubscribe at any time. In the meantime, Pompeo said, the U.S. will continue to take steps to disrupt the North Korean economy and pressure the regime. “Those [efforts] will continue," he added, "and we will see how the talks and negotiation proceed." Warren: 'I'm not running for president' Sen. Elizabeth Warren insisted Saturday that she is not running for the White House in 2020, but the Massachusetts Democrat repeatedly dodged on whether she would serve her full six-year term if she wins reelection to the Senate this November. “I am in this fight to retain my Senate seat in 2018. That's where I'm focused," Warren told NBC's "Meet the Press" host Chuck Todd, in an interview scheduled to air in full on Sunday. "That's where I'm going to stay focused. I'm not running for president." Story Continued Below Asked repeatedly whether she would serve a full six-year term if reelected, Warren said she is not running for president and would fight "for the people of Massachusetts, and for the people across this country." Warren, who was courted by progressive activists to run for president in 2016 and is widely expected to win reelection in 2018, has consistently tried to tamp down speculation on any White House aspirations. Morning Score newsletter Your guide to the permanent campaign — weekday mornings, in your inbox. Email Sign Up By signing up you agree to receive email newsletters or alerts from POLITICO. You can unsubscribe at any time. During the 2016 cycle, Republican Sens. Rand Paul, Marco Rubio, Ted Cruz and Lindsey Graham all campaigned in their party's presidential primary season — along with Sen. Bernie Sanders (I-Vt.), who ran for the Democratic nomination. Warren recently has ignited a fight in the Senate's Democratic Caucus over changes to the 2010 Dodd-Frank financial regulations, passed in the wake of the global financial crisis, and has repeatedly criticized President Donald Trump. Sen. Jeff Flake Jeffrey (Jeff) Lane FlakeThe Hill's Morning Report — Sponsored by Better Medicare Alliance — Expensive and brutal: Inside the Supreme Court fight ahead Collins, Murkowski to play pivotal role in Supreme Court abortion battle Senate passes mammoth farm bill MORE (R-Ariz.) called for a Republican to challenge President Trump Donald John TrumpMike Huckabee: If Trump nominated Moses to the Supreme Court Dems would still be unhappy Trump admin likely to detain migrant families for months during immigration proceedings: report ICE chief to protesters: We're not the ones separating families MORE in the 2020 election on Sunday during an interview with NBC's Chuck Todd on "Meet the Press." "Do you think he needs to be challenged from somebody who espouses your views?" Todd asked Flake. "Yes, I do. I do. I mean, it would be a tough go in a Republican primary. The Republican Party is the Trump party right now. But that's not to say it will stay that way," Flake said. ADVERTISEMENT The retiring Arizona has long been one of Trump's chief critics in the Republican Party, often lashing out at the president for his immigration and economic policies, as well as for his bombastic rhetoric. He criticized the Trump administration when announcing he would not run again for Senate Flake made similar comments earlier this month, and would not rule out a 2020 challenge to Trump. “I do think the president will have a challenge from the Republican Party, I think there should be,” Flake said. “I also think that there will be an independent challenge, particularly if the Democrats insist on putting somebody up from the far left of the party.” Flake has stoked speculation about a potential 2020 bid with an upcoming visit to New Hampshire. Meanwhile, Trump last night jumped into full campaign mode at a rally in Pennsylvania for GOP congressional candidate Rick Saccone. Trump spent most of the event touting his accomplishments as president, and revealing his new campaign slogan "Keep America Great." "The tax bill was so massive, bigger than [Ronald] Reagan, biggest one done," Trump said. It is so big, he added, that "we are calling it tax reform" instead of a tax cut. "This is where a nonpolitician is good. For 40 years they couldn't pass anything," the president continued. Trump is poised to face off against one of several Democratic hopefuls in 2020, which may include Sens. Elizabeth Warren Elizabeth Ann WarrenSenate Dems ask FEMA to extend Puerto Rico shelters Senate confirms Trump's pick to lead US forces in Afghanistan Anti-establishment fervor grips Dems MORE (D-Mass.), Kamala Harris Kamala Devi HarrisBlack senators introduce anti-lynching bill Anti-establishment fervor grips Dems Gillibrand calls to eliminate ICE: 'Get rid of it, start over' MORE (D-Calif.) or Bernie Sanders Bernard (Bernie) SandersOcasio-Cortez: Democrats feared they'd lose their jobs if they backed me Democrats can kiss swing voters goodbye with progressive ballot Black senators introduce anti-lynching bill MORE (I-Vt.). Allowing one person to have nearly total control over tariffs is “not the way to do business,” Sen. Jeff Flake (R-Ariz.) said. Jacquelyn Martin/AP Photo Flake pushes bill to block Trump tariffs Sen. Jeff Flake is pushing legislation to block President Donald Trump’s new tariffs on steel and aluminum, declaring he won’t back any exemptions put forward by the administration. “The problem is, when you say, ‘All right, let’s have tariffs. But let’s couple that with uncertainty,’ that’s almost worst. I mean, those are dual poisons to the economy,” the Arizona Republican said Sunday on NBC’s “Meet the Press.” “You know, tariffs are awful. Tariffs married to uncertainty is probably even worse.” Story Continued Below Allowing one person to have nearly total control over tariffs is “not the way to do business,” Flake said. While it would be difficult for Congress to reach a majority on a bill to block the tariffs, it has to try, he said, citing congressional success in the 1970s overriding President Jimmy Carter’s tariffs on oil. Sign up for Morning Trade A speed read on global trade news — weekday mornings, in your inbox. Email Sign Up By signing up you agree to receive email newsletters or alerts from POLITICO. You can unsubscribe at any time. With Trump's trade moves, Flake said it's becoming harder to make the case that the Republican Party is the party of free trade. “Free trade is rarely popular out on the stump,” he said. “But usually, after the campaign, the Congress gets together and says, ‘All right. Let’s pass trade promotion authority’ or ‘Let’s pass this trade agreement.’ I think we’re going completely in the wrong direction.” Massachusetts Sen. Elizabeth Warren Elizabeth Ann WarrenOvernight Finance: Wells Fargo could pay B fine Dems seek info on loans to Kushner House to vote on IRS reform bills Fed vice chair heading before Congress Dems demand information on Kushner Wall Street loans Warren rakes in millions for campaign, driven by small donors MORE (D) on Saturday said she is not running for president, but refused to pledge to serve out a full six-year term in the Senate if reelected in 2018. In the interview airing Sunday on "Meet the Press", Warren repeated herself several times when pressed by host Chuck Todd on whether she planned to serve another six years in the Senate. ADVERTISEMENT "So look, I am not running for president of the United States. I am running for the United States Senate," Warren said. "But let me actually make a — underline a point on this one, and that is we can't just be a party that says, 'Oh, we're paying attention about what happens every four years.' And I know there's a lot of anxiety, particularly on the Democratic side, about how we are going to deal with Donald Trump in 2020," she added. "I take it as a no you're not pledging to serve your full six-year term if you win reelection?" Todd asked in response. "I already told you. I have no intention of running for the United States, for president," she responded. "This government is working better and better and better for a thinner and thinner slice at the top. I am in these fights, and I am in this fight to retain my Senate seat in 2018. That's where I'm focused. That's where I'm going to stay focused. I'm not running for president." "So no pledge, though, on the six years?" Todd asked, one last time. "I am not running for president," Warren responded firmly. The liberal senator annoyed some of her more centrist colleagues in the Senate this week with a tweet attacking several Democrats who joined with Republicans on a bill deregulating some of the country's largest banks. “It’s just unbelievable that Elizabeth Warren would not only attack her colleagues but also use this opportunity to raise money for her campaign,” one Democratic aide said this week. She has been a vocal opponent of President Trump Donald John TrumpInfowars' Alex Jones blasts Trump over airstrikes: 'He's crapping all over us' McCain to Trump: Airstrikes alone won't achieve objectives in Syria Top general: US did not notify Russia on Syria targets MORE, and stirred rumors of a potential 2020 bid.

Summary: Sen. Elizabeth Warren says she's not running for president in 2020, but another six-year term as senator? That she wouldn't confirm, Politico reports. "I am in this fight to retain my Senate seat in 2018," she said on Meet the Press when Chuck Todd asked whether she'd complete another six years. "That's where I'm focused.... I'm not running for president." Todd asked one last time: "So no pledge, though, on six years?" And she said, per the Hill, "I am not running for president." Around the talk show dial: Sen. Jeff Flake wants to see a GOP primary challenger in 2020 who espouses his views, the Hill reports. "I mean, it would be a tough go in a Republican primary," he says on Meet the Press. "The Republican Party is the Trump party right now. But that's not to say it will stay that way." Flake is also pressing for legislation to stop President Trump's tariffs, per Politico. "You know, tariffs are awful," he says. "Tariffs married to uncertainty is probably even worse." CIA Director Mike Pompeo says North Korea will get no concessions before talks with President Trump, Politico reports. "Make no mistake about it," he says on Fox News Sunday. "While these negotiations are going on, there will be no concessions made." Pompeo adds there's nothing to fear from new Russian nukes. "We are following and tracking all of this closely, as are our brothers at the Department of Defense," Politico quotes him as saying.

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Summarize: BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION 1. Field of the Invention The invention relates to water flotation devices designed to support a human for recreational and/or exercise purposes. 2. Description of the Related Art There are several types of flotation devices for the pool and other various types of bodies of water. These devices typically include floating chairs, inflatable rafts, inner-tubes and large rigid foam pieces. These flotation devices are cumbersome, rigid and limit one's movement in the water. For instance, devices requiring inflation necessitate the need for either an external air pump or a person to manually inflate the device with air from their lungs. This proves to be cumbersome and in the latter case, exhausting. Once the device is inflated, pin hole leaks can develop which allow air to escape causing them to deflate and gradually become less effective in their continued use, at which point the flotation device must either be re-inflated or the hole must be patched. Other drawbacks to existing floatational devices are that they hold the majority of one's body above the surface of the water which reduces the effect of the water on the body. This would allow one's body to become very hot while also greatly reducing the movement of the body for propulsion and/or exercise purposes. U.S. Pat. No. 5,307,527, issued to Schober on May 3, 1994, discloses a pool chair adapted to be partially submerged in a swimming pool. The chair is designed to rest along the perimeter of the pool so that it is held in an upright, stationary position in order to allow a user to sit on the seat with the user's lower torso and legs submerged in the water while the user's head is above the water. Not withstanding the fact that the pool chair overcomes the limitation of holding the majority of one's body above the surface of the water, nonetheless, it is accomplished with a cumbersome and rigid construction which limits one's mobility throughout the pool due to the chair's dependency on the edge of the pool. With respect to inner-tube type recreational devices, U.S. Pat. No. 5,295,885, issued to Karl on Mar. 22, 1994, discloses an attachable/detachable hammock-like seat designed to engage the central opening of the inner-tube to support users as they sit across the inner-tube's central opening. A user's head, arms and shoulders are over one end of the tube, with the feet over the other end. Unlike the Schober patent, this invention holds the majority of one's body above the surface of the water. In addition, the inflatable inner-tube device is subject to pin hole leaks which would allow air to escape, thus presenting a problem to the user; either re-inflate the inner-tube or patch the hole for continued use. It would be an improvement on the current art to create a flotation device that is not cumbersome, rigid or limits one's movement in the water while holding the majority of one's body below the surface of the water. A benefit of holding one's body below the surface of the water would be to increase the effect of the water on the body such as preventing one's body from becoming very hot and to also increase the movement of the body for propulsion and/or exercise purposes. A device that overcomes the shortcomings as just described for a flotation device is not disclosed in the prior art. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION It is an aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device to form a floating seat that is adaptable to a cylindrical foam water flotation toy that can be easily inserted for use and that can be easily removed for storage. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device to form a floating seat that overcomes the problem of air leaks. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that can utilize readily available ETHAFOAM or similar closed cell cylindrical foam flotation materials such as products sold under the trademark WATER NOODLE. Another aspect of the invention is to provide a flotation device that can utilize the commercially available WATER NOODLE or similar products and incorporate them into the flotation device without requiring cutting or otherwise altering the WATER NOODLE. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device such as a seat or raft that is flexible to accommodate a wide variety of body shapes and sizes. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that forms a floating seat which provides the user with a range of body positions from sitting upright to supine. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that forms a floating seat that allows unrestricted use of a user's arms and legs for propulsion and exercise purposes. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that forms a floating seat that allows the user's body to float while being mostly submerged in the water, thereby obtaining an even greater cooling effect on the user. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that forms a floating seat having excellent stability to accommodate user comfort. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that can be mass produced using readily available material. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that is durable and long lasting. Another aspect of the invention is to provide a floatation device that is very easy to get into and out of. It is still another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that can be easily stored compact yet readied for use without the need for filling the device with air. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that is inexpensive to produce. It is another aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that is lightweight yet sturdy. It is a final aspect of the invention to provide a flotation device that is inherently buoyant due to the insertion of one or more cylindrical tubes of a closed cell foam. The invention is a flotation device that comprises a flexible fabric having at least one sleeve whereby a positive flotation cylinder of foam can be easily inserted thus rendering the device with sufficient buoyancy to float a user of average size and weight. The flexible fabric can be fashioned in a variety of shapes such as a chair or a raft. When shaped as a chair, the flexible fabric further comprises a bottom seat and a seat back such that the floating chair configuration takes shape when the pieces are joined together. In addition, a sleeve is provided. The sleeve having a hollow interior is preferably cut out separately. However, the sleeve could be made from the seat back by folding the uppermost portion of the sleeve end of the seat back over and securing to a predetermined position on the seat back. This provides a hollow interior and allows a cylindrical foam piece to be inserted to form the floating chair configuration. The flotation device comprises a material that is flexible and water resistant. When the flexible material is configured as a raft, a plurality of sleeves is provided such that sufficient buoyancy is obtained to float an average sized and weight user at a comfortable position in the water. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a perspective view of the flotation device fitted with a cylindrical foam tube to form a floating seat. FIG. 2 is a side view of the flotation device. FIG. 3 is a top view of the flotation device. FIG. 4 is an unassembled view of the flotation device. FIG. 5 is a side view of the flotation device in use supporting a bather. FIG. 6 is a top view of the flotation device in use. FIG. 7 is a side view of the flotation device showing an alternative position of the user floating with the device. FIGS. 8 is a perspective view of an alternative embodiment of attachment device fitted with a plurality of cylindrical foam tubes to form a floating raft. FIG. 8A, C show details of the construction method used to make the flotation device. FIG. 8b is a detail of an alternative embodiment to the headrest sleeves. FIG. 9 is an unassembled view of the alternative embodiment of the flotation device. FIG. 10 is an assembled view of a variation of the alternative embodiment of the floatation device shown in FIG. 8. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION Recently, a new water toy has found its ways to beaches and swimming pools that even adults found fun to use. The WATER NOODLE and its progeny is a foam cylindrical tube, approximately 25/8 inches in diameter and about 64 inches long, that is used to provide a swimmer with positive flotation. Most of the products are made from ETHAFOAM, the closed cell foam manufactured by Dow Chemical, or other closed cell foam that can provide positive flotation and withstand the rigors of children using it as a toy. It was recognized by the inventor that this device could be used for the construction of commonly used water flotation devices such as a chair or a raft. By enabling the use of foam tubes to provide buoyancy, the resulting structures were immune from the effects of pin-hole punctures. Given the inherent durability of ETHAFOAM, only severe punishment might result in some of the foam material tearing loose. In fact, this type of foam is approved by the U.S. Coast Guard for use in life vests due to excellent buoyancy and durability properties. FIG. 1 is a perspective view of the preferred embodiment of the flotation device 10 fitted with a single foam tube 20 to form a floating seat. Other configurations of device 10 are addressed below. Furthermore, other conceivable variations not included in this specification using in combination a reconfigured flotation device 10 and one or more foam tubes 20 are within the scope of the invention. Flotation device 10 is preferably made out of a water resistant mesh material that is lightweight while allowing for flexibility and strength. A polyester mesh material is preferable because of its availability, cost and resistance to UV light and pool chemicals. A close hole pattern of about 1/8 inches is preferred to avoid accidental catching of bathing suit buttons, fingers, etc. However, other materials such as canvas or nylon, that can be easily fabricated into shapes disclosed herein and are suitable for use in marine environments would be acceptable. Foam tube 20 is inserted into preformed sleeve 12 through opening 90. Sleeve 12 is sized to allow easy insertion of piece 20 which is to be inserted until both ends 22 are extending out from opening 90 at approximately equal distances while forming a general U-shape. Undersizing the length of sleeve 12 compared to tube 20 also accounts for variations in length of tube 20 that may occur from brand to brand. The dimensions of sleeve 12 are not critical but should be sized so that tube 20 can be easily inserted and removed, even when device 10 is wet. The preferred diameter of sleeve 12 is approximately 3 inches with the total length less that the usual length of a typical tube 20 such that several inches of tube 20 extend equidistantly on either side of device 10. Seat bottom 14 prevents spreading of floatation device 10 by holding sleeve 12 in a U-shaped pattern, which in turn holds flotation device 10 in the same U-shaped pattern because of its general U-shape configuration. Once the chair is formed and placed in the water, the user can then sit in device 10 as if it were a chair as shown in FIGS. 5 and 6. In addition to using the device in an upright position, the user may also lay on the top of invention 10 in a supine position and still be supported as shown in FIG. 7. Referring to FIG. 5 and 6 again, while in an upright position, the user has unrestricted use of arms and legs for propulsion and/or exercise purposes because device 10 allows the user's body to float while being mostly submerged in the water. FIG. 2 is a side view of the flotation device 10 fitted with foam tube 20 to form a floating seat. With respect to sides 16 of seat back 64 (shown in FIG. 1), the depth of edge 22 in relation to edge 42 is selected so that the user's knees are slightly above the buttocks when positioned in the water. This position allows the user's body to bend in its natural places providing comfort while also placing the body's center of gravity in a desirable location for stability. Edge 24 represents where side 16 and seat bottom 14 are joined together. The length of edge 24 is selected to permit the user's knees to hang over the front section of seat bottom 14 while the user's backside is resting against seat back 64. The flexible characteristics of the material used in construction allow invention 10 to accommodate a wide variety of body shapes and sizes. Edge 24 is preferably about 20 inches; edge 22 is preferably about 14 inches; edge 42 is preferably about 1 inch; front edge of seat 14 is preferably about 24 inches; and the back edge 25 is preferably about 14 inches. However, these dimensions are not critical and can be changed substantially without adversely affecting the overall performance of the device. FIG. 3 is a top view of attachment device 10 fitted with tube 20 to form a floating seat. As viewed from this position, seat bottom 14 is generally of a trapezoid shape. A trapezoid shape allows seams 24 and 25 to be attached in a straight seam, thus permitting easier assembly. The U-shape dimensions of invention 10 allow foam piece 20 to naturally conform to the user's sides and provides a buoyant support located between the mid to upper back of the user. FIG. 4 is an unassembled view of attachment device 10. Device 10 is preferably made up of three pieces; seat bottom 14, sleeve 12, and seat back 64. However, seat back 64 has two sides 16 extending from it. Sleeve 12, as an alternative method may be part of seat back 64 section. In other words, sleeve 12 could be formed out of the material extending from the top of seat back 64. To form sleeve 12, side 72 is joined with side 70 and then sewn in place with binding tape. Preferably, all sewn seams as well as all edges use binding tape to ensure durability. Likewise, side 76 is joined with side 74 and then sewn in place. The remaining two sides to be joined together and sewn are sides 80 with sides 82. This completes the construction of attachment device 10 so that foam piece 20 is now ready to be inserted through sleeve 12 to form the floating chair. The preferred method of sewing is to use a folding attachment that folds the edges together and covers the edges with binding tape that is also folded over the edge by use of the folder. A polyester thread such as a 90 series type is preferred. This type of thread is frequently used to stitch together luggage. A close locked stitch using 8 stitches per inch provides a good solid seam. Acceptable alternatives to sewing would be heat sealing, gluing and ultrasonic fusion. FIG. 8 is a perspective view of an alternative embodiment of device 10 fitted with a plurality of cylindrical foam tubes 20 to form a floating raft. Two of the three foam pieces 20 are not visible because they are inserted through openings 100 of float sleeves 101. Ends 103 of sleeves 101 are enclosed to prevent foam tubes 20 from being inserted too far through sleeves 101. Foam tube 20' is used in its full length as a headrest pillow and is bent in order to insert through headrest sleeves 120. Head rest sleeves 120 are approximately 12 to 18 inches long and are sized to allow easy insertion of foam piece 20. Optional headrest sleeve 121 can be used to held hold foam tube 20' in place and keep it within sleeves 120. Positioning of headrest sleeves 120 allows bend 21 to be approximately even with end 132 of floating bed 130. Furthermore, headrest sleeves 120 are attached to float sleeves 101 and float bed 130 with the use of binding tape 150. All sleeves are cut out individually. As shown in FIGS. 8A, C, sleeve 101 is cut into a piece approximately 11 by 68 inches. This piece is folded and run through a folder attachment on sewing machine at the same time as bed portion 130, thereby connecting the two pieces. As the progression up the edge occurs, sleeve 120 is inserted in its desired location with binding tape 150. Rather than use sleeves 120 and 121, loops 421 could be substituted as shown in FIG. 8B. Preferably binding tape 150 is the type manufactured by Bechik Products, Inc. The 11/4 inch tape provides a finished edge that is approximately 11/16 of an inch. This type of tape is frequently used in the mattress industry to provide the edges of a mattress. This tape is very durable with a high strength to weight ratio. The binding tape is applied by an automatic feed attachment that is fastened to the sewing machine. The mesh material and binding tape are folded together and stitched in one motion. These sewing techniques are well known in the art. Float bed 130 is approximately equal in length to foam tube 20, that is about 64 inches long. The width of floating bed 130 is wide enough to allow for a wide range of body shapes and sizes, preferably about 22 inches. This size of device 10 provides a comfortable and stable flotation aid for most people. Binding tape is applied along top end 132 and bottom end 134 as protection for the mesh material used in the construction of attachment device 10. Floating sleeves 101 are approximately equal in length to foam tube 20. Sleeves are separate pieces of material and are sized to allow for easy insertion of foam tube 20 as in the preferred embodiment. Floating end caps 103 are part of floating sleeves and are necessary to prevent foam tubes 20 from sliding completely through after being inserted through opening 100. Likewise, binding tape 150 is used to secure floating sleeve 101 to floating bed 130. Also, binding tape 150 is used to enclose endcap 103. FIG. 9 is an unassembled view of the alternative embodiment of the flotation device 10. Device 10 in this configuration is made up of six pieces; floating bed 130, a left and right floating sleeve 101, and a left, right floating sleeve 120 and optional top sleeve 120'. The six pieces are all attached with binding tape 150. FIG. 10 is an assembled view of a variation of the alternative embodiment of the floatation device shown in FIG. 8. In this embodiment, which is preferable with respect to simplicity of manufacture and user comfort, bent foam tube 20' is eliminated. However, a user would have to cut a foam tube 20 to fit sleeve 630 which is approximately 22 inches. Sleeve 630 is also fitted with end cap 103' which functions the same as floating end caps 103. While there have been described what are at present considered to be the preferred embodiments of this invention, it will be obvious to those skilled in the art that various changes and modifications may be made therein without departing from the invention and it is, therefore, aimed to cover all such changes and modifications as fall within the true spirit and scope of the invention.

Summary: A flotation device that converts an existing flexible round foam flotation piece into a floating seat for recreational and/or exercise purposes. The flotation device is water resistant, lightweight, flexible and easy to carry and store. The round flotation piece, commonly known as a noodle, is inserted through a sleeve in the flotation device wherein the floating seat then takes shape. Due to the flexible characteristics of the invention, a wide range of body shapes and sizes provide a comfortable and stable flotation aid that allows the user to remain mostly submerged in the water with unrestricted movement of the arms and legs. In addition to the floating chair concept, other configurations utilizing the round flotation piece are possible by utilizing a reconfigured attachment device. For example, a flotation device can be made to form a floating raft by using a plurality of sleeves to mate with three round flotation pieces.

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Summarize: BACKGROUND AND SUMMARY The present invention relates to a pull-out guide for a dish rack of a dishwasher, which includes a guide rail, which can be secured on the basic structure of the dishwasher, and a running rail, which can be connected to a grid-like dish rack including wires, and a center rail, which increases the pull-out length. A number of embodiments of pull-out guides of the generic type are known. Dish racks of dishwashers, in the fully loaded state, may have a high overall weight, which has to be supported by the pull-out guides on both longitudinal sides of the dish rack. Accordingly, the question of how to fasten a dish rack on the running rails of pull-out guides has a lot of importance attached to it. It is not just a matter here of meeting the fundamental requirement of making it possible for a dish rack to be reliably retained by the pull-out guides even in the fully loaded state; rather, it is also sought for the dish rack to be retained in as stable a position as possible even when the pull-out guide has been pulled out to the full extent. Thus, the invention provides a pull-out guide, which ensures that a dish rack of a dishwasher is retained in a dimensionally stable and largely torsionally rigid manner, particularly when the pull-out guide has been pulled out to the full extent. This object is achieved according to the invention in that the running rail is provided with two rows of clamp-like retaining means, located one above the other, in which can be secured two horizontally running wires of a dish rack, the wires being located one above the other. This design results in load dissipation of the weight of the dish rack to a pull-out guide which extends over a long length, as seen in the direction of displacement of the pull-out guide, and also takes place in two different planes, in which case a dish rack is retained in an extremely dimensionally stable and inherently rigid manner. Since the retaining means form a constituent part of the running rail, this also results, from the point of view of installation, in an extremely straightforward mechanism of fastening a dish rack on a corresponding running rail. Depending on the configuration of the retaining means, it may possibly also be necessary, for position-securing purposes, to use one or more clamps, which ensure a form-fitting connection between the dish rack and a running rail. These additional retaining clamps, however, serve merely for fixing the position of the dish rack relative to the running rail, and are not subjected to loading by the forces transmitted to the running rail from the dish rack. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS Illustrated embodiments of the invention will be described in more detail hereinbelow and are illustrated in the accompanying drawings, in which: FIG. 1 shows a highly schematic illustration, in perspective, of a dishwasher with a pull-out guide which is fastened therein and carries a dish rack. FIG. 2 shows, on an enlarged scale in relation to FIG. 1, a partial illustration in particular of a running rail of the pull-out guide, as seen from the side of the dish rack. FIG. 3 shows, on an enlarged scale in relation to FIG. 1, an illustration of the region of connection between the dish rack and the running rail, prior to a retaining clamp being fitted in order to fix the position of the dish rack relative to the running rail. FIG. 4 shows an illustration corresponding to FIG. 3, with the retaining clamp in the operative position. FIG. 5 shows a rear view of the pull-out guide prior to a retaining clamp being fitted. FIG. 6 shows a rear view corresponding to FIG. 5, with retaining clamps fitted. FIG. 7 shows a perspective illustration exclusively of the running rail of a pull-out guide according to FIGS. 1-6. FIG. 8 shows an illustration which corresponds essentially to FIG. 1 and depicts a further illustrated embodiment of the invention. FIG. 9 shows a perspective illustration of the running rail of the pull-out guide according to FIG. 8. FIG. 10 shows a rear view of the running rail according to FIG. 9. FIG. 11 shows a rear view of the pull-out guide according to FIG. 8 with the dish rack fastened on the running rail. FIG. 12 shows a partial view of the front end region of a running rail according to FIGS. 8-11 with the corresponding front end of a ball cage for guiding a center rail, which increases the pull-out length. DETAILED DESCRIPTION In FIG. 1, 1 is used to designate, in a highly schematic illustration, a dishwasher in which a dish rack 3 is guided in a longitudinally displaceable manner via a pull-out guide, which is designated overall by 2. The pull-out guide 2 comprises a guide rail 4, a center rail 5 and a running rail 6, the center rail 5 increasing a pull-out length of the pull-out guide 2 to the effect that the dish rack 3 can be pulled all the way out in front of the basic structure of the dishwasher 1, as is indicated in FIG. 1. The dish rack 3 includes wires, and has a plurality of horizontally running wires 3 a and a multiplicity of wires 3 b, which are connected to the wires 3 a and determine the shape of the dish rack 3. Such a construction of a dish rack is known in general and, to this extent, need not be explained in any more detail here. In conjunction with the present invention, the running rail 6 of the pull-out guide 2 is provided with two rows, of clamp-like retaining means 7 which, are located one above the other. In the case of the illustrated embodiment according to FIGS. 1-7, the guide 2 has a substantially C-shaped cross section and can thus be positioned in the horizontal direction on two parallel and horizontally running wires 3 a of the dish rack 3, the wires being located at equal intervals one above the other. The C-shaped retaining means 7 are bounded in each case by a bottom and a top flange 7 a and are closed off in the rear side by wall parts 7 b or 7 c of the running rail 2. This results in the above-mentioned cross-section in the C-shaped configuration of these retaining means 7. The rows of the retaining means 7, as has already been mentioned, are spaced apart from one another by the same interval as two horizontal wires 3 a of a dish rack 3 which are located one above the other. Moreover, the rows of the retaining means 7 run substantially over the entire length of the running rail 6, and this results, overall, in a dish rack being retained in a very stable and torsionally rigid manner relative to the running rail 6. To avoid undesired relative displacement between the dish rack 3 and running rail 6, use can be made of at least one retaining clamp 8, which engages over the horizontally running wires 3 a from the side directed away from the running rail 6 and is clipped on the bottom of the two horizontal wires 3 a, for example, and has its top end region, which is formed as a securing hook 8 a, engaging in the top peripheral region of the running rail 6, in a notched portion 6 a which is provided there. Moreover, the width of the retaining clamp 8 is selected such that it corresponds to the clear distance between two adjacent wires 3 b of the dish rack 3, these wires running at right angles to the horizontal wires 3 a, and is located between two adjacent wires 3 b. This ensures a form-fitting coupling between the running rail 6, on the one hand, and the dish rack 3, on the other hand. One such retaining clamp 8 would suffice to fix the dish rack relative to the running rail 6, but unavoidable tolerances mean that it is expedient to use two such retaining clamps 8 in the end regions of the running rail 6, as is shown in the illustrated embodiments according to FIGS. 1-7. FIG. 4 shows two such retaining clamps 8 in the installed state; FIG. 5 shows, as seen from the rear side of the running rail 6, the installation situation of such a retaining clamp 8 shortly prior to connection to the running rail 6, while FIG. 6 shows two retaining clamps 8 in the definitively installed state. In the case of the illustrated embodiment of the invention according to FIGS. 8-12, the same components as in the illustrated embodiment according to FIGS. 1-7 have been provided with the same designations. As can clearly be seen in FIG. 8, a dish rack 3 is guided in a dishwasher 1 such that it can be displaced longitudinally via a telescopic pull-out guide 2. The pull-out guide 2, in turn, includes a guide rail 4, which can be secured on the basic structure of the dishwasher 1, a running rail 6, on which the dish rack 3 is retained, and a center rail 5, which increases the pull-out length. The significant difference of the illustrated embodiment according to FIGS. 8-12 in relation to the illustrated embodiment according to FIGS. 1-7 is that the clamp-like retaining means 7 have a substantially U-shaped cross section, in which case the horizontally running wires 3 a of the dish rack 3 can be introduced in the vertical direction into these clamp-like retaining means. To prevent the dish rack 3 from being raised up accidentally, securing lugs 9 are preferably provided in the region of the top row of the retaining means 7, these securing lugs positioning themselves in the horizontal direction over a horizontally running wire 3 a introduced into the top row of the retaining means 7, and being capable of being angled laterally as a whole out of this locking position and otherwise being connected to the running rail 6. This means that a vertical movement of the dish rack 3 relative to the running rail 6 is prevented in practice. To avoid longitudinal displacement of the dish rack 3 and the running rail 6 relative to one another, the running rail 6 is provided, on its side which is directed toward the dish rack 3, this being shown particularly clearly in FIG. 9, with two supporting side pieces 10 which project in the direction of the dish rack 3 and, in the installed state, position themselves between two wires 3 b of the dish rack. Overall, this is an extremely straightforward way of fixing the dish rack 3 in a form-fitting manner in relation to the running rail 6. To make it easier for a horizontally running wire 3 a of a dish rack 3 to be introduced into the top row of the retaining means 7, the securing lugs 9 are provided, on their top sides, with wedge-shaped guide webs 11. As a result of this configuration, a horizontally running wire 3 a of a dish rack 3 first of all pushes the securing lugs 9 out of the region of introduction into the retaining means 7 to the extent that the horizontally running wire 3 a can be introduced into these retaining means 7. When the wire 3 a then moves below the bottom plane of the securing lugs 9, the latter are no longer subjected to lateral deflection and move back into their securing position. In both illustrated embodiments, the running rail 6 is in the form of a single-piece plastic part. The running rail 6 here is dimensioned such that that region of the running rail 6 which is directed toward the dish rack 3, in the pushed-in state, substantially completely covers the guide rail 4, which is mounted on the basic structure of the dishwasher, and the center rail 5, which increases the pull-out length. This reduces the risk of these rail parts becoming contaminated. Moreover, in both illustrated embodiments, a stop lamella 13 located in the displacement path of a ball cage 12 of the center rail 5 (see FIG. 12 ) is integrally formed at least at the front end of the running rail 6, this stop lamella being provided with a certain amount of resilience by a plurality of incisions 13 a. This stop lamella 13 provides a damping end stop for the ball cage 12. It is possible for the stop lamella 13 to be extruded on to the running rail from a relatively soft plastic or to be fitted thereon in the form of a separate component. As a result of the fact that a dish rack 3 is connected to the running rail 6 via two horizontally running wires 3 a located one above the other, the connection is provided with a high level of stability, and is distinguished in particular by high torsional rigidity. This makes it advantageously possible, without having to accept any stability-related problems, to use relatively thin wires 3 a and 3 b in the production of a dish rack 3, as a result of which both the production costs and the weight of the dish rack 3 itself can be lowered.

Summary: A pull-out guide for a dish rack of a dishwasher includes a guide rail which can be fixed to the body of a dishwasher, and a running rail which can be connected to a grid-like dish rack which is composed of wires, and a central rail which increases the pull-out length. The running rail is provided with two rows of clamp-like holders which lie one above the other and in which two wires of a dish rack which lie one above the other and run horizontally can be fixed, with the result that the dish rack is held in a dimensionally stable manner.

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Write a title and summarize: David Olatukunbo Alaba (* 24. Juni 1992 in Wien) ist ein österreichischer Fußballspieler, der seit 2009 für die österreichische Nationalmannschaft spielt und mit dem FC Bayern München 2013 und 2020 das Triple aus Meisterschaft, Pokal und der UEFA Champions League gewonnen hat, dazu jeweils den UEFA Super Cup und die FIFA-Klub-Weltmeisterschaft. Alaba besuchte das Polgargymnasium in Wien; er absolvierte seine fußballerische Ausbildung beim FK Austria Wien, bei dem er bereits als 15-Jähriger auf der Auswechselbank der Bundesligamannschaft saß und in der zweiten Mannschaft eingesetzt wurde. Mit 16 Jahren wechselte er nach Deutschland zum FC Bayern München, seit der Winterpause 2009/10 steht er im Kader der Profimannschaft, abgesehen von einer halbjährigen Leihe zur TSG Hoffenheim. Als offensiver und defensiver Außenbahnspieler meist auf der linken Seite, Innenverteidiger, zentraler Mittelfeldspieler sowie "Zehner" einsetzbar, gilt Alaba als vielseitiger Spieler. Seit der Saison 2014/15 wurde ihm auch mehrmals die Neuinterpretation der Position des Liberos zugeschrieben. == Leben Alabas Mutter stammt von den Philippinen, sein Vater George aus Nigeria. Sein Vater war früher Rapper und hatte Ende der 1990er Jahre als männlicher Part des Pop-Dance-Duos Two in One einige Erfolge - ihr Indian Song stand 1999 auf Platz 2 der österreichischen Charts - und arbeitete bis 2011 als DJ in Wiener Clubs. Alaba ist wie seine Schwester Rose, die 2011 in die Popstars-Girlgroup BFF aufgenommen wurde, in Wien geboren und aufgewachsen. Anfang Dezember 2019 wurde er Vater eines Sohnes. == Karriere === Vereine ==== Jugend Bis zu seinem zehnten Lebensjahr spielte Alaba beim Verein seines Heimatviertels Aspern im 22. Wiener Gemeindebezirk Donaustadt, dem SV Aspern, und wechselte danach - auf Wunsch seines Vaters, der sein Talent erkannt hatte - in den 10. Bezirk Wien-Favoriten in die Kooperationsschule des FK Austria Wien und in deren Nachwuchsabteilung. Anschließend wurde er an der "Frank-Stronach-Akademie" aufgenommen. Unter Trainer Georg Zellhofer kam Alaba als 15-Jähriger am 18. Jänner 2008 im Vorbereitungsspiel gegen das FAC-Team für Wien zum ersten Einsatz in der Profimannschaft der Wiener Austria. Im folgenden Trainingslager der Profimannschaft in Spanien folgten drei weitere Einsätze in Vorbereitungsspielen. Unter dem neuen Trainer Dietmar Constantini wurde Alaba am 13. April 2008 für das Auswärtsspiel beim SCR Altach als Ersatzspieler erstmals in der Bundesliga aufgeboten, ohne dass er zum Einsatz kam. Noch in derselben Woche absolvierte er dann sein erstes Spiel für die zweite Mannschaft in der Ersten Liga, der zweithöchsten Spielklasse Österreichs. ==== FC Bayern München (2008-2010) Im Sommer 2008 wechselte er in die Nachwuchsabteilung des FC Bayern München. Dort kam er zum Saisonauftakt in der B-Junioren-Bundesliga für die U17 beim 3:1-Heimsieg gegen Eintracht Frankfurt zum Einsatz und erzielte zwei Tore. Bereits zwei Wochen später beim Auswärtsspiel in Ulm wurde er jedoch nach einer Tätlichkeit vom Platz gestellt und anschließend für mehrere Spiele gesperrt. Nach Ablauf der Sperre spielte er ab Anfang Oktober als 16-Jähriger meist schon für die U19 in der A-Junioren-Bundesliga, für die er bei seinem zweiten Einsatz am 25. Oktober 2008 über 90 Minuten spielte und das letzte Tor zum 8:0-Sieg über den SSV Jahn Regensburg beisteuerte. Wie von Trainer Hermann Gerland bereits im Oktober 2008 angekündigt, Alaba zur Spielzeit 2009/10 in die zweite Mannschaft integrieren zu wollen, setzte sein Nachfolger Mehmet Scholl dies in die Tat um. Nachdem er leichte Blessuren überstanden hatte, spielte Alaba ab August 2009 regelmäßig als Stammspieler für die Bayern-Amateure in der 3. Liga. Vereinzelt trainierte er auch schon mit der ersten Mannschaft unter Louis van Gaal und kam dort in Testspielen zum Einsatz. Mit der Einwechslung in der 59. Minute im Viertelfinale des DFB-Pokals gegen die SpVgg Greuther Fürth am 10. Februar 2010 erhielt er - mit 17 Jahren und 232 Tagen als bisher jüngster Spieler - seinen ersten Einsatz in einem Pflichtspiel der Profimannschaft des FC Bayern München. Zwei weitere Debüts folgten kurz darauf; zunächst sein erstes Erstligaspiel am 6. März 2010 im Bundesligaspiel des FC Bayern gegen den 1. FC Köln, als er ab der 73. Minute den verletzten Diego Contento ersetzte. Drei Tage später stand er in der Champions League im Achtelfinale gegen den AC Florenz in der Startelf. Damit ist er auch der jüngste zum Einsatz gekommene Spieler der Bayern in der Champions League. Bayerns Vorstandschef Karl-Heinz Rummenigge lobte Alaba, der die meisten Ballkontakte hatte: "Er hat sehr gut gespielt. Man hat ihm überhaupt nicht angesehen, dass es sein erstes Spiel für Bayern München von Anfang an war." Alaba wurde von Trainer van Gaal bei den Profis nicht auf seiner angestammten Position im Mittelfeld, sondern als linker Abwehrspieler eingesetzt. "Er ist ein linker Außenverteidiger, auch wenn er selbst das nicht denkt", betonte van Gaal. Mit den Bayern gewann er 2010 das Double aus deutscher Meisterschaft und Pokal und zog ins Finale der Champions League ein. Letzteres ging allerdings mit 0:2 gegen Inter Mailand verloren, wobei Alaba nicht zum Einsatz kam. Kurz nach seinem 18. Geburtstag unterschrieb Alaba am 30. Juni 2010 bei den Bayern einen Profivertrag über drei Jahre. ==== TSG Hoffenheim (2010/11) In der Winterpause 2010/11 wechselte Luiz Gustavo von der TSG 1899 Hoffenheim zum FC Bayern München. Im Gegenzug wechselte Alaba leihweise für die Rückrunde nach Hoffenheim. Am 23. Jänner 2011 (19. Spieltag) erzielte er mit seinem Treffer zum 2:2 im Heimspiel gegen den FC St. Pauli sein erstes Bundesligator. Für Hoffenheim absolvierte er 17 Bundesligaspiele, bei denen er zwei Tore erzielte. ==== FC Bayern München (2011-2021) In der Sommerpause 2011 verlängerte Alaba seinen Vertrag beim FC Bayern bis 2015. Zur Saison 2011/12 kehrte er zu den Bayern zurück und spielte, häufig als Einwechselspieler, in der Hinrunde in allen Wettbewerben. Dies änderte sich in der Rückrunde, in der er Rafinha aus der Stammelf verdrängte. Am 23. Oktober 2011 erzielte er bei der 1:2-Niederlage gegen Hannover 96 sein erstes Bundesligator für den FC Bayern. Ende 2011 wurde er von den Trainern der österreichischen Bundesliga zum Spieler des Jahres gewählt. Er war der jüngste Spieler und erst der dritte im Ausland spielende, der diese Wahl gewonnen hatte. Mit 19 Jahren, neun Monaten und 21 Tagen ist der Wiener der bisher jüngste Spieler der Bayern, der die 50-Spiele-Marke erreicht hat; er löste Georg Schwarzenbeck ab, der dies 1968 im Alter von 20 Jahren und 17 Tagen geschafft hatte. Alaba hatte in der Saison 2011/12 30 Einsätze, bei denen er zwei Tore erzielte. Ende April 2012 erreichte Alaba mit Bayern München das Finale der Champions League. Er spielte in beiden Halbfinalspielen gegen Real Madrid durch, erzielte den ersten Treffer im Elfmeterschießen, war allerdings für das Endspiel gegen Chelsea (Bayern verlor im Elfmeterschießen mit 3:4) wegen drei gelber Karten im laufenden Wettbewerb gesperrt. Er kam in dieser Champions-League-Saison auf elf Einsätze. Im Juli 2012 zog er sich in einem Testspiel gegen die SSC Neapel einen Ermüdungsbruch im linken Fuß zu. Am 11. Oktober 2012 gab er in einem Testspiel während einer Länderspielpause gegen die SpVgg Unterhaching sein Comeback. Nach einem Kurzeinsatz im folgenden Bundesligaspiel bei Fortuna Düsseldorf kehrte Alaba wieder in die Startformation zurück; er wurde in allen restlichen Spielen der Hinrunde über die volle Spielzeit eingesetzt. Am 5. Dezember 2012 schoss Alaba im Spiel gegen BATE Baryssau in der 83. Minute beim Stand von 3:0 sein erstes Champions-League-Tor. Im Bundesligaspiel am 9. Februar 2013 gegen FC Schalke 04 erzielte er seinen ersten Doppeltorerfolg in der Bundesliga. Am 28. Spieltag sicherte er sich frühzeitig mit dem FC Bayern die Meisterschaft. Nachdem er bei den Champions-League-Endspielen 2010 und 2012 nicht zum Einsatz gekommen war, bestritt er im Mai als erster Österreicher ein Champions-League-Finale. Der FC Bayern gewann im Londoner Wembley-Stadion mit 2:1 gegen Borussia Dortmund. Durch den DFB-Pokalsieg gegen den VfB Stuttgart wenige Tage später gewann Alaba somit das Triple. Am 27. Spieltag der Saison 2013/14 stand der FC Bayern München mit Alaba rechnerisch als deutscher Meister fest, so früh wie keine Mannschaft zuvor seit Bestehen der Bundesliga. Für das DFB-Pokal-Finale 2014 fiel er aufgrund einer Bauchmuskelzerrung aus, die er sich kurz zuvor im Training zugezogen hatte. Im Champions-League-Spiel gegen den AS Rom am 5. November 2014 zog sich Alaba einen Teilriss des Innenbandes sowie eine Innenmeniskusverletzung im rechten Knie zu, fiel bis zur Winterpause aus und kehrte danach wieder in die Mannschaft zurück. Bei einem Länderspiel der österreichischen Nationalmannschaft am 31. März 2015 gegen Bosnien-Herzegowina zog sich Alaba einen Innenbandriss zu und fiel bis zum Saisonende aus. Am 4. Oktober 2015 erhielt Alaba beim 5:1-Heimsieg über Dortmund nach 105 Bundesligaspielen ohne Verwarnung erstmals wieder eine Gelbe Karte. Am 16. April 2016 gelang ihm mit dem 3:0-Sieg über Schalke 04 als jüngster Spieler des FC Bayern sein 100. Bundesligasieg. Am 7. Mai 2016 wurde er mit den Münchnern zum vierten Mal in Folge deutscher Meister. Zudem gewann er mit dem Pokalsieg am 21. Mai 2016 im Endspiel gegen Borussia Dortmund (4:3 im Elfmeterschießen) zum vierten Mal das Double und 2017 mit dem FC Bayern die fünfte deutsche Meisterschaft in Folge, dem in den beiden Folgejahren zwei weitere folgten. Aufgrund der verletzungsbedingten Ausfälle der Innenverteidiger Niklas Süle, Lucas Hernandez und Benjamin Pavard spielte Alaba ab dem 10. Spieltag der Saison 2019/20, dem letzten Spiel des Cheftrainers Niko Kovac, in der Innenverteidigung. An seiner Stelle übernahm Alphonso Davies die Linksverteidigerposition. Auch unter Kovac' Nachfolger Hansi Flick blieb diese Konstellation bestehen. Sowohl Alaba als auch Davies wurden in der Winterpause vom Kicker auf ihren Positionen in der Rangliste des deutschen Fußballs als eine der besten Spieler eingestuft. 2020 gewann er seinen insgesamt neunten Bundesligatitel und stellte damit den Rekord von Franck Ribery ein. Nach dem Gewinn des DFB-Pokals und der UEFA Champions League 2019/20 gelang ihm nach 2013 erneut das Triple mit dem FC Bayern. Am 1. Dezember 2020 bestritt Alaba beim 1:1 gegen Atletico Madrid sein 400. Pflichtspiel für Bayern München und führte die Mannschaft erstmals als Kapitän an. Alabas Vertrag beim FC Bayern München wurde bis zum 30. Juni 2021 verlängert. Am 16. Februar 2021 gab Alaba bekannt, den Vertrag danach nicht mehr verlängern zu wollen. === Nationalmannschaft Nachdem sich Alaba bereits in der österreichischen U17 hatte auszeichnen können, wurde er im Alter von 17 Jahren am 12. August 2009 von Andreas Herzog erstmals in die U-21-Nationalmannschaft berufen, in der er am 5. September 2009 im Spiel gegen Schottland debütierte und zum 1:0-Sieg mit der Vorlage zu diesem Tor beitrug. Es folgten drei Einsätze über 90 Minuten, zweimal gegen Albanien (9. September und 13. November 2009) und einmal gegen Aserbaidschan (10. Oktober 2009). Herzog zeigte sich von seinem Können begeistert: "Der Bursche ist schon sehr weit. Ein wunderbarer Linksfuß mit tollen Bewegungen und mit 17 Jahren schon sehr reif. Er ist ein Juwel, ein Segen für den österreichischen Fußball." Zu seinem ersten Einsatz in der A-Nationalmannschaft kam Alaba am 14. Oktober 2009 unter Teamchef Dietmar Constantini im WM-Qualifikationsspiel Österreichs gegen Frankreich bei der 1:3-Niederlage im Stade de France - in der 80. Spielminute wurde er für Christian Fuchs eingewechselt. Mit seinem Alter von 17 Jahren und 112 Tagen galt er als der jüngste Nationalspieler in der Geschichte der österreichischen Nationalmannschaft, bis eine Recherche 2020 ergab, dass Torhüter Ernst Joachim bei seinem Debüt am 4. November 1917 exakt 172 Tage jünger war. Hintergrund für den frühen Einsatz war der Umstand, dass er theoretisch auch für die Philippinen oder Nigeria hätte auflaufen können und deswegen frühzeitig für Österreich spielen sollte, um daraufhin für keinen anderen Verband mehr spielberechtigt zu sein. Teamchef Constantini begründete seinen Einsatz unter anderem damit, dass er Deutschland zuvorkommen wollte, obwohl eine Abwerbung durch den DFB gemäß den zu diesem Zeitpunkt geltenden FIFA-Statuten frühestens zu Alabas 23. Geburtstag möglich gewesen wäre. Am 26. Oktober 2009 äußerte sich Alaba in einem Interview mit dem deutschen Sportmagazin kicker selbst zu den Gerüchten: "Es gab zwar im Sommer eine Anfrage der Philippinen, aber Nigeria hat sich nie gemeldet. Und Deutschland wäre sowieso nie ein Thema gewesen. Da habe ich gar keinen Bezug dazu." Ende Mai 2010 spielte Alaba für die U-19-Nationalmannschaft beim EM-Qualifikationsturnier gegen die Schweiz, Serbien und Dänemark und half damit dem österreichischen Team, sich für die U-19-Europameisterschaft 2010 in Frankreich zu qualifizieren, für die er am 5. Juli 2010 von Trainer Andreas Heraf in den 18-Mann-Kader berufen wurde. Bei der knappen 2:3-Auftaktniederlage gegen England erzielte Alaba den Anschlusstreffer zum 1:2. Auch bei der 0:5-Niederlage gegen Frankreich kam er zum Einsatz. Das dritte Gruppenspiel absolvierte er jedoch nicht mehr, da er für den FC Bayern II in der 3. Liga antreten musste. Ab August 2010 spielte er zunächst wieder für die U-21-Auswahl. Am 16. Oktober 2012 erzielte Alaba im Rahmen der Qualifikation zur Weltmeisterschaft 2014 gegen die Auswahl Kasachstans mit dem Treffer zum 3:0 in der 71. Minute sein erstes Länderspieltor für die A-Nationalmannschaft. Auch in den Qualifikationsspielen gegen die Färöer, Irland und Schweden und im Rückspiel gegen Irland 2013 gehörte er zu den Torschützen. Am 12. Mai 2016 berief Nationaltrainer Marcel Koller David Alaba in den EM-Kader 2016. Als Stammspieler bestritt er alle drei Gruppenspiele, schied mit dem Team aber mit nur einem Punkt als Tabellenletzter aus. == Erfolge == Sonstiges Alaba gehört wie seine Familie zur protestantischen Freikirche der Siebenten-Tags-Adventisten. In München besucht er regelmäßig die Gottesdienste der evangelikalen Hillsong Church. Er machte auf die Bedeutung des Glaubens für sein Leben mehrfach in der Öffentlichkeit aufmerksam. Als Motto gibt er aus: "Meine Kraft liegt in Jesus!" Im Film Und vorne hilft der liebe Gott (2016) von David Kadel ist David Alaba einer der Hauptdarsteller, neben Spielern wie Davie Selke, Jürgen Klopp, Daniel Didavi, Anthony Ujah, Sven Schipplock, Elias Kachunga, Roger de Oliveira Bernardo und Heiko Herrlich. Gemeinsam mit Trainer Andreas Wölkhammer trainierte Alaba in der Saison 2008/09 die U11-Mannschaft des FC Bayern München. Alaba ist bekennender Fan des türkischen Rekordmeisters Galatasaray Istanbul. So wünscht er diesem Verein regelmäßig vor wichtigen Spielen über seinen Twitter-Account oder per Videobotschaft viel Erfolg. Darüber hinaus sieht er sich manche Champions-League-Spiele der Istanbuler zusammen mit Galatasaray-Fans in München an. David Alaba stellte mehrere Rekorde auf: Er war bis dahin der jüngste Spieler des FC Bayern München, der im DFB-Pokal, der Champions League und der Bundesliga zum Einsatz kam. Der Bundesliga-Rekord wurde am 13. April 2013 von Pierre Emile Hojbjerg unterboten. Im Dezember 2011 wurde er von den Trainern der österreichischen Bundesliga als bisher jüngster Spieler zu Österreichs Fußballer des Jahres gewählt. In den Jahren 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015 und 2016 konnte er diese Auszeichnung erneut für sich entscheiden. 2013 und 2014 wurde er zu Österreichs Sportler des Jahres gewählt. Der Tiroler Landeshauptmann Günther Platter begrüßte David Alaba während eines Trainingslagers des österreichischen Fußballteams auf Englisch: "How do you do?", woraufhin Alaba antwortete: "Sie können ruhig deutsch mit mir reden, ich bin Österreicher." Platter, der sich entschuldigte und zugab, "kein Fußballexperte" zu sein, sei möglicherweise von einem vorangegangenen Gespräch verwirrt worden, das Alaba mit dem ÖFB-Conditioning-Coach Roger Spry auf Englisch geführt habe, berichteten die Medien. Die Wiener Soul-Band 5/8erl in Ehr'n widmete dem Vorfall das Lied Alaba, How do you do? das sich mit Homophobie und Rassismus in Österreich auseinandersetzt. Am Ende des dazugehörigen Musikvideos sagt David Alaba in gebrochenem Englisch: "Yes, we does!" In der am 26. Oktober 2017 erschienenen Kino-Komödie Fack ju Göhte 3 war Alaba an der Seite seiner Teamkollegen vom FC Bayern München, Mats Hummels und Joshua Kimmich als Statist zu sehen.

Title: David Alaba Summary: David Alaba ist ein Fussballspieler aus Österreich, der aktuell beim FC Bayern München spielt. Er wurde im Jahr 1992 in Wien geboren. Seine Mutter kommt von den Philippinen, sein Vater ist Nigerianer und war früher mal Rapper. Alaba spielt meistens in der Verteidigung, kann aber auch im Mittelfeld eingesetzt werden. Er wurde sechs Mal zu Österreichs Fussballer des Jahres gewählt. Mit acht Jahren begann Alaba beim kleinen SV Aspern zu spielen. Das ist ein Verein aus einem Stadtteil von Wien. Später trat er der Jugendmannschaft von Austria Wien bei. Mit knapp 17 Jahren wechselte er dann zum deutschen Rekordmeister, dem FC Bayern München. Anfangs hatte er Mühe sich gegen die Profis bei Bayern durchzusetzen, meist spielte er nur in der Zweiten Mannschaft. Für ein Jahr wurde er an die TSG 1899 Hoffenheim ausgeliehen, wo er 17 Spiele machte und zwei Tore erzielte. Dann setze ihn der damalige Bayern-Trainer Jupp Heynckes öfters auch bei den Profis ein. In der Folgesaison 2012/13 war er dann bereits ein wichtiger Bestandteil der Bayern-Mannschaft, die in einem Jahr alle wichtigen Pokale gewinnen konnte: Die Champions League, den DFB-Pokal und die Bundesliga. Wenn eine Mannschaft das schafft, redet man von einem "Triple". Auch in den Jahren danach war Alaba noch sehr erfolgreich mit dem FC Bayern. Sein erstes Spiel für die Nationalmannschaft machte er bereits im Jahr 2009 gegen Frankreich. Damals war er der jüngste Spieler, der je für Österreich aufgelaufen war. Als Kind spielte er schon seit er 11 Jahre alt war in den Junioren-Mannschaften des ÖFB. Sein bisher grösster Erfolg mit der Nationalmannschaft war die Qualifikation für die Europameisterschaft 2016, wo die Mannschaft jedoch in der Gruppenphase scheiterte. David Alaba ist ein gläubiger Christ und Mitglied in einer Freikirche. Sein Motto lautet "Meine Kraft liegt in Jesus!". Alaba besitzt ausserdem ein Modeunternehmen und ist ein Fan des türkischen Fussballvereins Galatasaray Istanbul.

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Write a title and summarize: The homeostasis of meristems in flowering plants is maintained by cell-to-cell communication via CLE (CLAVATA3/EMBRYO SURROUNDING REGION-related) peptide hormones. In contrast, cell signals that regulate meristem activity remains elusive in bryophytes that maintain apical meristems in the gametophyte (haploid) body and undergo a gametophyte-dominant life cycle. We here show that MpCLE1 confines the proliferative activity of gametophytic meristem and affects the overall size of gametangiophores (reproductive organs) in Marchantia polymorpha, which is in sharp contrast with the meristem-promoting function of its ortholog TDIF/CLE41/CLE44 in Arabidopsis vascular meristems. Expression analysis suggests that MpCLE1 and its receptor gene MpTDR are expressed in distinct patterns across the apical meristem. These data suggest that local CLE peptide signaling may have had a role in regulating cell proliferation in the shoot meristem in the ancestral land plant and acts in both sporophytic and gametophytic meristems of extant plants. Land plants have evolved unique peptide hormones to control various physiological processes including development and stress responses [1,2]. A notable example is CLE (CLAVATA3/EMBRYO SURROUNDING REGION-related) family peptides involved in various developmental contexts in flowering plants, such as stem cell maintenance in meristems, vascular development, seed formation and growth control in response to environmental cues [3,4]. The 12–13 amino acid CLE peptides are proteolytically processed from precursor proteins encoded by CLE genes [5–7]. CLE peptide hormones undergo post-translational modification such as proline hydroxylation and arabinosylation during maturation [8]. Mature CLE peptides bind to specific membrane receptors that transmit signals to direct cell behavior, thereby manifesting cell-to-cell communication [9,10]. For example, the leucine-rich repeat receptor kinase CLV1 (CLAVATA1) is a receptor for the CLV3 peptide in Arabidopsis, participating in the stem cell homeostasis in the shoot apical meristem [11–13]. A phylogenetically related receptor, TDR/PXY (TDIF RECEPTOR/PHLOEM INTERCALATED WITH XYLEM), mediates TDIF (tracheary element differentiation inhibitory factor) peptide signaling essential for stem cell maintenance in the vasculature [14]. CLV3 and TDIF peptides possess characteristic residues for exclusive interaction with their specific receptors [15] and represent two major subclasses of CLE peptide family. Comparative genomics studies have revealed that the repertoire of developmental regulatory genes is conserved among land plants even though body plans vary among different groups [16–18]. All land plants undergo alternation of generations where the both haploid (gametophyte) and diploid (sporophyte) phases develop multicellular bodies and one of the two phases is dominant depending on the plant lineage. Phylogenetically, the monophyletic, diploid-dominant vascular plants either nest within a bryophyte grade, or are sister to a clade of bryophytes that possess haploid-dominant life cycles. In both types of body plans, meristems function as the source of growth by continually providing new undifferentiated cells. This is achieved by functional zonation of meristems: one or few pluripotent stem cells act as a source of rapidly proliferating cells that often undergo specific division orientations giving rise to differentiating cells [19]. CLE peptides function in shoot, root and vascular meristems of Arabidopsis and other vascular plants, by controlling cell division and differentiation. TDIF, encoded by CLE41/44 in Arabidopsis, is involved in three aspects of vascular cell behavior: inhibition of cell differentiation, enhancement of proliferation and control of cell division orientation [5,20,21]. TDR/PXY encodes a leucine-rich repeat receptor kinase (LRR-RK) of which extracellular LRR domain forms a superhelical structure that binds TDIF at its inner surface [8,22–24]. We have previously reported that the TDIF activity in vascular development is conserved in most vascular plants [25]. However, the biological function of TDIF/CLE, as with any other peptide hormones, is poorly understood in bryophytes. An intriguing question is whether the TDIF/CLE peptides in bryophytes control the meristem activity in the gametophytic body. We here investigated the role for TDIF/CLE peptide in the liverwort Marchantia polymorpha, a model bryophyte species [26,27]. Like many other developmental regulatory genes, the CLE gene family is conserved among land plants [28]. The M. polymorpha genome encodes two CLE genes, MpCLE1 and MpCLE2, belonging to two distinct subclasses (H-type including TDIF and R-type including CLV3, respectively) of the CLE family based on the initial amino acid in the mature peptide hormone motif (Fig 1A, S1 Fig) [25,29]. In addition, two distinct receptors for the CLE peptides, MpTDR and MpCLV1 are encoded in the M. polymorpha genome (Fig 1B) [29]. In contrast, the moss Physcomitrella patens has only R-type CLE genes and CLV1-type receptors. Thus, M. polymorpha provides a model system for studying TDIF/H-type CLE signaling in bryophyte development. To test if MpCLE1 is functionally equivalent to AtCLE41, a TDIF-encoding gene of Arabidopsis, we generated gain-of-function alleles in Arabidopsis. The effects of constitutive TDIF expression in Arabidopsis have been previously observed [5,15,20,30]. In the first leaves of 14-day-old seedlings, xylem vessels are formed along the leaf vein in wild type (S2 Fig) but it can be fragmented when AtCLE41 is driven by the constitutive 35S promoter (S2 Fig; 35S: AtCLE41). In addition, hypocotyl stele thickening can be enhanced in 35S: AtCLE41 plants compared to wild type (S2 Fig). Along with these vascular phenotypes, overall plant growth can be significantly reduced in 35S: AtCLE41 plants (S2 Fig). In contrast, 35S: MpCLE1 plants did not exhibit any of these phenotypes (S2 Fig) despite the expression level of MpCLE1 in this line being comparable to that of AtCLE41 in the 35S: AtCLE41 line (S2 Fig). We further examined CLE bioactivities by peptide treatment assays [5,31]. Treatment with 5 μM TDIF caused xylem fragmentation and stele thickening resembling AtCLE41 overexpression phenotypes (S2 Fig). In contrast, MpCLE1 peptide treatment did not induce these effects (S2 Fig). Similar results were obtained in assays with 20 μM peptide (S2 Fig). Collectively, these data indicate that MpCLE1 cannot functionally replace AtCLE41/TDIF in Arabidopsis. To elucidate the discrepancy between the phylogenetic and functional relationships of MpCLE1 and AtCLE41, we performed amino-acid swapping between the two peptides, which differ at four residues (Fig 1C; MpCLE1 and AtCLE41). We synthesized four MpCLE1 peptide variants in which one of the four residues is changed to that of the AtCLE41 peptide (Fig 1C; MpCLE1-2E/-3V/-5S/-11S, respectively). In addition, hydroxyprolines were incorporated in an MpCLE1 variant (MpCLE1-Hyp) to mimic the natural structure of TDIF (Fig 1C; O indicates hydroxyproline). Among these MpCLE1-variants, MpCLE1-3V and MpCLE1-5S enhanced stele thickening (Fig 1D) and suppressed xylem differentiation in the leaf vein (Fig 1E). These data indicate that MpCLE1 is indeed a TDIF-type CLE gene although a minor amino-acid substitution is required to convert MpCLE1 into a functional peptide in Arabidopsis. Since the MpCLE1-type residues (Fig 1C; N3 and A5) differ from all other known CLEs in land plants, acquisition of these residues in MpCLE1 may have occurred in the liverwort lineage. We next analyzed the biological function of MpCLE1 in M. polymorpha. M. polymorpha is a thalloid liverwort and the body (thallus) grows at the apical notches which are indeterminate apical meristems and bifurcate periodically. For the clonal propagation, disc-shaped small progenies called gemmae are formed in gemmae cups that develop at the dorsal side of the thallus near the apical notch (Fig 2A). When mature gemmae were cultivated for 14 days on solid medium supplemented with MpCLE1 peptide, the overall growth of plants was slightly reduced, and thallus lobes were twisted (S3 Fig). Similar and marginally stronger phenotypes were observed with MpCLE1-Hyp peptide (S3 Fig). Unexpectedly, the effects of TDIF were even stronger than those of MpCLE1 peptides (S3 Fig). Transgenic lines overexpressing either MpCLE1 or AtCLE41 formed small and convoluted thalli (Fig 2A and 2B, S3 Fig). Quantification of the area of thalli showed significant reduction of growth in the MpCLE1 overexpression lines (Fig 2C). In addition, MpCLE1 overexpression lines produced fewer gemmae cups and did not form gametangiophores even 2 months after far-red light induction (S3 Fig). To verify the minimal functional domain of MpCLE1, we produced overexpression lines with C-terminal deletions (MpCLE11-420 and MpCLE11-417). The former contains the 12 amino-acid CLE peptide motif while the latter lacks the C-terminal asparagine residue of the peptide motif, an essential residue for CLE peptide activities [5,23,24]. As expected, MpCLE11-420 overexpression but not MpCLE11-417 overexpression exhibited growth defects (S3 Fig), supporting the notion that the 12 amino-acid CLE peptide is the functional domain of MpCLE1. To elucidate the cytological function of MpCLE1, we analyzed apical meristem anatomy in 14-day-old plants grown from gemmae. In wild-type meristems, a single apical cell produces derivatives in four planes—dorsal, ventral and two lateral—and each of these primary derivatives undergoes a stereotypical pattern of divisions producing a' merophyte' [27,32]. Cell divisions within merophytes produce a pattern of cells in the mature thallus, that when viewed in longitudinal section, appear as rows of cell files emanating from the apical meristem. In longitudinal sections of wild-type plants (Fig 2D), proliferative region, which can be characterized by vertical cell division planes in internal tissues, is approximately 200 μm from the tip of the thallus (bracket in Fig 2E). In contrast, the proliferative region in MpCLE1 overexpression plants was reduced to less than 100 μm from the tip (bracket in Fig 2F), with cell differentiation/expansion occurring at a position closer to the apex, resulting in a distortion of thallus growth. We also examined meristem anatomy in transverse sections (Fig 3A–3C). Consecutive transverse sections of wild-type and MpCLE1 overexpression plants were compared at same positions relative to a basal position “0 μm” at which the two lobes flanking the meristem merged (Fig 3C). In wild type, small cytoplasmically dense cells are persistently observed in all sections examined (0–180 μm) while MpCLE1 overexpression plants initiate cell expansion at the 40 μm position, and larger cells are observed compared to wild type throughout the sections resulting a thickened dorsi-ventral axis (Fig 3A and 3B). Collectively, these data demonstrate MpCLE1 overexpression reduces the size of the proliferative region in the apical notch. A loss-of-function MpCLE1 allele (Mpcle1-GT85) was generated via gene targeting (S4 Fig). Fourteen-day-old Mpcle1-GT85 plants grown from gemmae formed convoluted thalli, with the thallus periphery curled upward and the apical notches growing downward (epinastically) into the medium. Unlike MpCLE1 overexpression plants, overall growth was not reduced (S4 Fig). To gain a better understanding of the effects of the loss of MpCLE1, we examined the anatomy of Mpcle1-GT85 plants. In longitudinal sections of Mpcle1-GT85 plants, the proliferative region was expanded (n = 2; 266 and 232 μm in length) compared to 200 μm in wild type (bracket in Fig 4A), although the proliferative region was not as clear as in the wild type due to the less organized cell division plane orientation. In contrast, the timing of cell differentiation in epidermal tissue on the dorsal side is not significantly altered in the mutant since the air chamber development started at similar positions from the apical cells (Fig 4A). Complementation analysis was performed by introducing a 6. 2 kb genetic fragment spanning MpCLE1 into the knock-out line, designated as Mpcle1-GT85 gMpCLE1. Compared to the knock-out mutant, the complementation line had a proliferative region similar in size to that of wild type in both internal (n = 2; 198 and 196 μm) and epidermal tissues, but the orientation of cell division planes in internal tissues is still less organized than in wild type (Fig 4B). Curled thalli were also observed in the complementation line (S4 Fig). Thus, additional genomic regulatory components might be required to fully complement the phenotype. In consecutive transverse sections, dorsi-ventral thickening of thalli was observed in Mpcle1-GT85 plants compared to the complementation line (Fig 4C and 4D). In the consecutive sections, cell expansion continued until the 320 μm position in Mpcle1-GT85 while it ceased at 200 μm in wild type and the complementation line (S5 Fig). These data suggest that MpCLE1 acts to suppress proliferative activity at the apical notch. Gametangiophores, specialized reproductive structures, are extensions of the vegetative thalloid body and the proliferative activity of apical meristem. Mpcle1-GT85 plants developed larger antherodiophores (male gametangiophores) than wild type (Fig 5A and 5B). Consistent with the increased proliferation in vegetative thalli, stalks are thicker in Mpcle1-GT85 plants compared to wild type (1. 12 ± 0. 14 mm v. s. 0. 65 ± 0. 14 mm, mean ± S. D., n = 10) and are composed of more cells in cross sections (Fig 5C and 5D). The diameter of the antheridial receptacle was also increased in both longitudinal and transverse axes in Mpcle1-GT85 (Fig 5E and 5F, S6 Fig). The mutant receptacles were thicker and contained larger antheridia, which can reach 1. 12 mm in length at the maxima (mean ± S. D. = 0. 80 ± 0. 14 mm, n = 28) in contrast to wild-type antheridia of 0. 70 mm in length at the maxima (mean ± S. D. = 0. 55 ± 0. 08 mm, n = 17) in our observation (Fig 5G–5J), which is consistent to Higo et al. [33]. The complementation line developed normal antheridiophores and antheridia of 0. 66 mm in length at the maxima (mean ± S. D. = 0. 56 ± 0. 08 mm, n = 19) (S4 Fig). Gametangiophore overgrowth was also consistently observed in archegoniophores of female Mpcle1-GT85 plants obtained by cross with Tak-2, without affecting the branching pattern of fingered-lobes (Fig 6H and 6I). These observations support the notion that MpCLE1 negatively controls the proliferative activity in apical meristems. To examine the ligand-receptor relationship between TDIF and TDR in M. polymorpha, we analyzed the physiological function of the TDR ortholog, MpTDR, by generating a knock-out line via homologous recombination (S4 Fig; Mptdr-GT400). Similar to Mpcle1-GT85,21-day-old Mptdr-GT400 thalli were curled upward at the periphery (Fig 6A). In this mutant background, introduction of an MpCLE1 overexpression transgene did not alter thallus morphology (Fig 6B). The area of thalli was not significantly changed between Mptdr-GT400 and MpCLE1 overexpression in Mptdr-GT400 background (Fig 6C), indicating that MpCLE1 activity is dependent on MpTDR. Consistently, development of Mptdr-GT400 thalli was insensitive to 10 μM TDIF, the most effective MpCLE1-type peptide in our assays (Fig 6D–6G). The archegoniophores of Mptdr-GT400 plants were larger than wild type, resembling the female Mpcle1-GT85 phenotype (Fig 6H–6J). Introduction of MpCLE1 overexpression did not significantly alter the archegoniophore morphology of Mptdr-GT400 (Fig 6K). Collectively, these data indicate that MpCLE1 acts through MpTDR to restrict the proliferative activity in the meristems of M. polymorpha. To analyze the expression patterns of MpCLE1 and MpTDR, we constructed GUS-reporter lines using 5 kb of genomic sequence upstream of the MpCLE1 and MpTDR coding sequences, respectively. GUS signal for both MpCLE1 and MpTDR promoters was first detected in the apical notches in 5-day-old gemmalings (Fig 7A and 7B). In 10-day-old gemmalings, proMpCLE1: GUS signal was also detected along the midrib in addition to the signals at the apical notches (S7 Fig). Both proMpCLE1: GUS and proMpTDR: GUS signals were observed in the developing antheridiophores suggesting that MpCLE1 signaling is functional during the development of antheridiophores (S7 Fig). In longitudinal sections, proMpCLE1: GUS signal was detected in a small area around the apical cell in 5-day-old gemmalings (Fig 7C). In contrast, proMpTDR: GUS signal was detected in the dorsal part in the apical meristem (Fig 7D), suggesting that MpCLE1 signaling may operate within the apical meristem. Since the expression of proMpTDR: GUS was observed in cells close to the apical cell, the expression domains of MpCLE1 and MpTDR could partially overlap. The influence of MpCLE1 signaling on the expression domains was examined by peptide treatment. In 5-day-old gemmalings grown in the presence of 10 μM MpCLE1-Hyp or TDIF peptide, proMpCLE1: GUS signals were not conspicuously affected, while proMpTDR: GUS signals appeared more intense than in the control, however, no change in expression levels was detected in fluorometric quantification assays (S7 Fig). In whole-mount in situ hybridization (WISH) assays, MpCLE1 expression was detected at the apical notches of 7-day-old gemmalings (S8 Fig). MpEF1α-as signal was detected throughout the thallus and strongly in apical notches while MpEF1α-s was not, consistent with Althoff et al. [34] (S8 Fig). Collectively, these data suggest that the MpCLE1 peptide signal may move from a ventral region towards more dorsal regions, with a maximum potential response, i. e. MpTDR expression, near the apical cell. In this work, we show that TDIF-type CLE peptide signaling restricts proliferative activity in the meristem and the overall size of reproductive organs in the liverwort M. polymorpha although development of apical cell, merophyte, or cell division markers such as labile cyclin-GUS is important to unambiguously quantify the change of proliferative activity and its location in the meristem [35]. TDIF has been known as a positive regulator of meristem activity in vascular plants, but conversely MpCLE1/TDIF acts as a negative regulator in M. polymorpha. This function resembles CLV3 peptides in flowering plants. In Arabidopsis clv3 mutants, the shoot and floral meristems are enlarged, resulting in club-shaped siliques and additional floral organs [36]. Tomato mutants and cultivars deficient in CLV3 signaling have excess floral organs and fasciated fruits [37]. In monocots, loss of CLV signaling enhances the meristem activity, which results in the increase of floral organ number in rice and kernel row number in maize [38–43]. Since the reproductive structures are determinate in these plants, the effects of enhanced proliferative activities are more conspicuous than effects on vegetative growth. Correlation of proliferative activity in the meristem and reproductive structure size was also found in Mpcle1 mutant that exhibits gametangiophore enlargement along with the enhanced proliferative activity. In contrast to the phenotypes in flowering plants, the gametangiophores of the M. polymorpha mutants did not form an excess number of reproductive structures, such as additional lobes in the receptacles or fasciated stalks. The lobes and stalks are both sexual extensions of thallus and the numbers of these structures depend on the branching of the meristems during gametangiophore development. Thus, the control of proliferative activity by MpCLE1 signaling is uncoupled from meristem branching. In addition to the functional similarity, the expression pattern of MpCLE1 relative to its receptor gene, MpTDR, also resembles to that of CLV3 relative to CLV1 in Arabidopsis, in which the peptide ligand is expressed at/around stem cells while the receptor is expressed in a neighboring region (Fig 7E) [44,45]. In Arabidopsis, receptor expression in the partially overlapping domain with the ligand is thought to establish different cell fates among neighboring target cells [11,12,46]. In M. polymorpha, proliferative cells in the dorsal region of apical meristem could also interpret MpCLE1 signals from apical cells as a positional cue. However, the morphological phenotypes of knock-out and overexpression mutants for MpCLE1 were found more significantly in the internal tissue. Further identification of downstream signaling components that suppress proliferative activity would clarify the role of MpCLE1-mediated communication in meristem homeostasis. The slow but continued thallus growth in MpCLE1 overexpression lines indicates that ectopic MpCLE1 does not terminate stem cell activity, and indeed apical cells are maintained in overexpression lines. This contrasts with Arabidopsis CLV3 overexpression, which terminates shoot growth by abolishing stem cells in the meristem [12,13] and with Arabidopsis TDIF mutants that lose vascular stem cells at a certain frequency [47]. Loss of MpCLE1 also resulted in abnormal cell division planes in the meristem, similar to both loss and ectopic expression of TDIF in Arabidopsis [21,22]. Therefore, the cellular function of MpCLE1 signaling appears to be a combination of CLV3 and TDIF signaling observed in Arabidopsis. Likewise, it was recently demonstrated that CLV3 orthologs in P. patens also regulate both cell proliferation and cell division orientation planes in gametophore shoots and that this function is conserved in Arabidopsis [48]. Coupled with our results, these observations hint that perhaps the ancestral functions of both the TDIF and CLV3 pathways may have encompassed regulation of both cell proliferation and cell division orientation planes. Since TDIF and TDR are genetically conserved in vascular plants, lack of TDIF and TDR in the moss P. patens suggests that TDIF signaling has been lost within the moss lineage. Thus, TDIF signaling is not an indispensable regulatory module for P. patens development despite its significant contribution to M. polymorpha development, perhaps due to the major differences in body plan between mosses and liverworts [49]. In contrast, M. polymorpha retains both TDIF (MpCLE1) and CLV3 (MpCLE2) orthologs suggesting each possesses unique functions in liverworts. Our work reveals a general association of CLE peptide signaling with both gametophytic and sporophytic meristems in land plants although it’s still unclear if CLE is involved in the control of sporophytic meristems in bryophytes. Meristems in both generations evolved in the ancestral land plant and are not present in algae which do not possess CLE peptide signaling. One major difference in the body plans of these organisms is that the land plant body is built from meristems with 3 or more cutting faces, whereas algal bodies are largely constructed from modifications of filamentous growth so that three-dimensional co-ordination of cell behavior is not required. Thus, mechanisms to focus and control meristem growth evolved concomitantly with meristems, with one mechanism being via CLE peptide-based cell-to-cell communication. Phylogenetic analysis was performed as described previously [25]. Sequences for phylogenetic analysis were summarized in S1 Table. The sequences were first aligned with Clustal X and Bayesian phylogenetic analyses were performed on the alignments using MrBayes 3. 2. 1 [50]. Columbia-0 (Col-0) line of Arabidopsis thaliana and Takaragaike-1 (Tak-1) and BC3-38 lines of M. polymorpha were used as wild type in phenotypic analyses and as the genetic background for transgenic lines. Growth conditions for Arabidopsis and observation methods of vasculature were as described previously [14]. M. polymorpha plants were grown at 22°C on half-strength Gamborg B5 medium (pH 5. 5,1. 4% agar) under continuous light. For the induction of gametangiophores, far-red light was supplemented. For the observation of antheridia, antheridial receptacles were dissected with forceps under a stereoscopic microscope (Stemi 2000-CS, Zeiss, Jena, Germany). To measure the area of thalli, gemmae were grown on the half-strength Gamborg B5 medium for 14 days and images of plants were analyzed using ImageJ. Peptides were synthesized by Fmoc chemistry with a peptide synthesizer (CS136XT, CSBio, CA, USA). Analytically pure peptides were obtained by reverse-phase HPLC. Primers, plasmids and transgenic plants are summarized in S2 Table and S3 Table [51–54]. Transformation of M. polymorpha was performed using spores (cross between Tak-1 and Tak-2) or regenerating thalli according to Ishizaki et al. [51] and Kubota et al. [52]. Homologous recombination-mediated gene targeting was performed according to Ishizaki et al. [53]. Transformation of Arabidopsis was performed with the floral dip method [55]. Total RNA was extracted from 11-day-old Arabidopsis seedlings with RNeasy plant mini kit (Qiagen, Hilden, Germany). Three independent RNA samples were used for cDNA synthesis with SuperScript III first-strand synthesis system (Thermo Fisher Scientific, MA, USA). Two technical replicates are made for each RNA sample and the average was used as a single data point. Primers used for qPCR are described in S2 Table. The qPCR assay was performed on a LightCycler 96 system (Roche) using KAPA SYBR FAST qPCR kit (KAPA BIOSYSTEMS, MA, USA). Amounts of cDNA input to the qPCR reactions were normalized by the AtTUA4 expression levels. For the comparison of AtCLE41 and MpCLE1 gene expression levels, the expression levels were normalized by performing qPCR using 10 pg of cloning plasmid (pENTR-AtCLE41 or pENTR-MpCLE1) as template. Mean values of 3 samples ± S. D. were indicated. GUS staining was performed according to Ishizaki et al. [51]. Briefly, M. polymorpha gemmalings grown on agar medium were directly submerged in X-Gluc assay solution containing 50mM sodium phosphate buffer (pH 7. 2), 1mM potassium-ferrocyanide, 1mM potassium-ferricyanide, 10mM EDTA, 0. 01% Triton X-100 and 1mM 5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-β-D-glucuronic acid. After vacuum infiltration, samples were incubated for 3–12 hours at 37°C in dark. GUS-stained samples were cleared with ethanol and mounted with clearing solution (chloral hydrate-glycerol-water, 8: 1: 2) before imaging with light microscope (Axio Imager. A2, Zeiss). For histological analyses, GUS-stained samples were rinsed with water before fixation. At least 2 independent transgenic lines were examined for each experiment and representative images are shown. Fluorometric quantification of GUS activity was performed according to Ishizaki et al. [56] with minor modifications. Three biological replicates were sampled. For each replicate, 5 gemmalings (5–10 mg in total) grown for 5 days on the half-strength Gamborg B5 medium with or without 10 μM peptide were collected in a microtube, frozen with liquid nitrogen and homogenized with micropestle in 100 uL of GUS extraction buffer, containing 50 mM sodium phosphate (pH 7. 2), 10 mM 2-mercaptothanol, 1 mM EDTA and 0. 01% Triton X-100. Debris was removed by centrifugation at 13,000 rpm for 5 min at 4°C. Protein concentration was measured using 5 uL of the protein solution using the TaKaRa Bradford Protein Assay Kit (Takara, Kyoto, Japan) with the low-concentration protocol according to the manufacturer’s instructions. For the GUS enzyme reaction, 40 μl of each protein solution (ca 30 μg protein), 50 μl of the GUS extraction buffer and 10 μl of 10 mM 4-methylumbelliferyl β-D-glucuronide (MUG) was mixed in a microtube and incubated at 37°C for 40 min. The reaction was stopped by adding 900 μl of 200 mM sodium carbonate. Fluorescence (460 nm emission/360 nm excitation) of liberated 4-methylumbelliferone (MU) was measured on a microplate reader (Synergy LX, BioTek, VT, USA) and normalized by the protein concentration. For preparation of plastic sections, plant samples were trimmed with a razor blade and fixed in FAA solution (50% ethanol: 10% formalin: 5% acetic acid in water). Fixed samples were embedded into Technovit 7100 resin (Heraeus Kulzer, Wehrheim, Germany) and 4 μm sections were prepared with a rotary microtome (RM2235, Leica, Heidelberg, Germany). Sections were stained with 0. 02% toluidine blue or with 0. 002% Safranin-O solution for GUS-stained samples and then mounted with Entellan New (Merck Millipore, MA, USA). WISH was performed by modifying a protocol for Arabidopsis seedlings [57]. For the preparation of RNA probes, MpCLE1 and MpEF1α genes were cloned into pCRII vector (Thermo Fisher) by PCR from M. polymorpha cDNA using primers indicated in S2 Table. Digoxygenin-labeled ribo-probes were synthesized using SP6/T7 RNA polymerases (DIG RNA Labeling Kit, Roche, Basel, Switzerland) after digestion with Xho I/BamH I restriction enzymes, respectively. For the preparation of plant samples, 10-day-old gemmalings were fixed in a 1: 1 mixture of heptane and fixative (4% paraformaldehyde (PFA), 15% DMSO and 0. 1% Tween- 20 in water) for 45 min on a rotary shaker at room temperature (RT). Following fixation, tissues were placed in 100% methanol twice for 5 min and 100% ethanol three times for 5 min to remove chlorophyll and incubated for 30 min in a 1: 1 mixture of ethanol and Histo-Clear. After treatment of 100% ethanol, tissues were rehydrated in 75% ethanol (v/v in water), 50% ethanol (v/v in phosphate buffered saline; PBS) and 25% ethanol (v/v in PBS) for 10 min each. Tissues were refixed in the fixative for 20 min and rinsed twice for 10 min in PBST (0. 1% v/v Tween-20 in PBS) at RT. For permeabilization of cell wall, tissues were treated with 0. 1% cellulase (final concentration 100 μg/ml) and 0. 2% macerozyme (final concentration 200 μg/ml) for 30 min at RT and with proteinase K (final concentration 125 μg/ml) for 30 min at RT. After stopping the permeabilization with glycine (final concentration 2mg/ml), tissues were refixed in the fixative and rinsed in PBST for 10 min at RT. For labeling, tissues were hybridized with the DIG-probes (150 μg/ml) in the hybridization solution (50% formamide in 5×saline-sodium citrate buffer (SSC) containing 0. 1% Tween-20,0. 1 mg/ml heparin and 0. 1mg/ml herring sperm DNA) for 16 hours at 55°C. The probe mixture was denatured prior to use for 10 min at 80°C. Hybridized tissues were rinsed in 4×SSC three times for 15 min at 55°C, 0. 1×SSC three times for 20 min at 55°C and maleic acid buffer (MAB) for 5 min at RT. After washing excessive probe, tissues were incubated in 0. 1% boheringer blocking reagent in maleic acid buffer (BBR-MAB) for 30 min at RT, the 1: 2,000 diluted anti-digoxigenin-AP Fab fragments (Roche) in BBR-MAB for 2 hours at RT and 0. 05% (v/v) Tween-20 in MAB three times for 15 min at RT. Bound ribo-probe was detected by overnight staining with nitroblue tetrazolium (Roche) and bromo-chloro-indolyl phosphate (Roche) for overnight at 4°C. Stained tissues were photographed under a stereoscopic microscope (MZ16F, Leica).

Title: Control of proliferation in the haploid meristem by CLE peptide signaling in Marchantia polymorpha Summary: Land plants undergo an alternation of generations where both haploid and diploid phases develop multicellular bodies. Their growth relies on the activity of meristems at the growing tips of their bodies. Here we show a CLE peptide hormone acts as an intercellular signal controlling proliferative activity in the apical meristem of Marchantia polymorpha. Our finding reveals a general association of CLE peptide signaling with meristem homeostasis, a feature that evolved in the ancestral land plant, in both haploid and diploid phases.

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Write a title and summarize: Gastrointestinal nematode infections, such as Haemonchus contortus and Mecistocirrus digitatus, are ranked in the top twenty diseases affecting small-holder farmers' livestock, yet research into M. digitatus, which infects cattle and buffalo in Asia is limited. Intestine-derived native protein vaccines are effective against Haemonchus, yet the protective efficacy of intestine-derived M. digitatus proteins has yet to be determined. A simplified protein extraction protocol (A) is described and compared to an established method (B) for protein extraction from H. contortus. Proteomic analysis of the H. contortus and M. digitatus protein extracts identified putative vaccine antigens including aminopeptidases (H11), zinc metallopeptidases, glutamate dehydrogenase, and apical gut membrane polyproteins. A vaccine trial compared the ability of the M. digitatus extract and two different H. contortus extracts to protect sheep against H. contortus challenge. Both Haemonchus fractions (A and B) were highly effective, reducing cumulative Faecal Egg Counts (FEC) by 99. 19% and 99. 89% and total worm burdens by 87. 28% and 93. 64% respectively, compared to the unvaccinated controls. There was no effect on H. contortus worm burdens following vaccination with the M. digitatus extract and the 28. 2% reduction in cumulative FEC was not statistically significant. However, FEC were consistently lower in the M. digitatus extract vaccinates compared to the un-vaccinated controls from 25 days post-infection. Similar, antigenically cross-reactive proteins are found in H. contortus and M. digitatus; this is the first step towards developing a multivalent native vaccine against Haemonchus species and M. digitatus. The simplified protein extraction method could form the basis for a locally produced vaccine against H. contortus and, possibly M. digitatus, in regions where effective cold chains for vaccine distribution are limited. The application of such a vaccine in these regions would reduce the need for anthelmintic treatment and the resultant selection for anthelmintic resistant parasites. Infections with blood-feeding gastrointestinal nematodes, such as Haemonchus contortus and Mecistocirrus digitatus, cause significant animal welfare and production losses globally [1], [2]. The latter is an important blood-sucking nematode of cattle in Asia and Central America [3]. In Asia and Africa, where resource-poor small holder farming is more common, gastrointestinal nematode infections of livestock are ranked in the top twenty diseases of livestock affecting the farmers ability to maintain food security and contribute to economic growth [4]. Control of these parasites is currently achieved by the regular use of anthelmintics: However, this approach leads to the inevitable development of anthelmintic resistance [5]. In Tamil Nadu, India, a recent survey (Dicker et al, unpublished) found evidence of widespread inefficacy of albendazole, levamisole and ivermectin against H. contortus in sheep and goats. As such, novel control strategies, such as vaccines, are urgently needed to enable resource-poor small-holder farmers in Tamil Nadu to control parasite infections in their livestock to ensure their food security. Substantial progress has been made in identifying several antigens from H. contortus which, in their native form, stimulate sufficiently high levels of protective immunity (70–95% reductions in faecal egg output) in the ovine host to indicate that vaccination is feasible [6]–[9]. Much previous work by other authors has focused on proteins or protein complexes expressed on the surface of the worm gut which are exposed to the blood meal and, hence, antibody ingested with it. The antigens generally, but not in all cases, show protease activity and the antibody is thought to mediate protective immunity by blocking the activity of enzymes involved in blood meal digestion within the parasite [10]. The recent increase in genomic data for nematodes such as Caenorhabditis elegans, H. contortus, hookworms and the trematode Fasciola hepatica has allowed identification of novel candidate vaccine antigens whilst proteomics analysis has aided in the identification of post-translational modifications which affect protein folding and protein immunogenicity [11]–[13] (http: //nematode. net/NN3_frontpage. cgi). Compared to H. contortus, very little is known about M. digitatus, with only 25 nucleotide sequences, 12 genes and 38 protein entries present on NCBI (http: //www. ncbi. nlm. nih. gov/, 31st May 2013) and no information on the potential for vaccination as an alternative to anthelmintics. Proteomics has been used to investigate other potential vaccine candidates such as excretory/secretory products from adult Ostertagia ostertagi and H. contortus and larval Teladorsagia circumcincta [14]–[17]. No proteomic comparison has been made between extracts from different blood-feeding nematodes but this approach should readily identify if potential vaccine candidates are shared by related species. Given that anaemia and a reduction in weight gain caused by the haematophagous activity of adult stages seem to be the most important pathogenic effects of M. digitatus infection in calves and are similar to those observed during infection with Haemonchus placei in calves and H. contortus in sheep and goats [2], [18], we sought to compare native protein vaccine preparations, enriched for intestinal surface proteins by Concanavalin A lectin affinity binding [19] from H. contortus and M. digitatus using proteomics, and to evaluate the protective efficacy of the latter against H. contortus challenge in sheep as a prelude to vaccine trials in buffalo in India. Cross-protection has been previously shown to occur in trials conducted in sheep which had been immunized with native Ostertagia protein fractions but challenged with H. contortus; the Ostertagia antigens cross-protected efficiently against Haemonchus [20], as such cross-protection between M. digitatus and H. contortus was believed to be likely. All experimental procedures were approved by the Moredun Research Institute Experiments and Ethics committee (Experiment number E31/12) and were conducted under the legislation of a UK Home Office License (60/3825) in accordance with the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act of 1986. Adult M. digitatus were collected post mortem from abomasa of cattle collected at an abattoir in Salem, India. Adult Haemonchus contortus were obtained from a donor lamb following standard methods as described in Smith & Smith [8]. All parasites were stored at −20°C in 1 X PBS until required. Protein extraction from M. digitatus was carried out in India with the resulting protein extract transported to Moredun Research Institute (MRI) whilst maintaining a cold chain; H. contortus proteins were purified at MRI. Proteins were extracted using a protocol based on the method in [21]. The parasites were washed several times in 1 X Tris buffered saline (TBS) at a ratio of 10 ml per g dried worms and the worm pellet then homogenised on ice using a chilled pestle and mortar followed by a chilled glass hand homogeniser directly in a 1. 0% v/v Triton X-100 buffer. The homogenate was then centrifuged at 2500 X G for 20 mins at 4°C. The supernatant was removed and filter sterilised through a 0. 45 µM filter before being mixed with ConA lectin-agarose (Vector laboratories) on a rotary mixer at 4°C for 1 hour. The Protein-ConA-agarose complex was allowed to settle under gravity at 4°C and the supernatant removed. This washing procedure was repeated on 3 occasions using a 0. 25% v/v Triton X-100 buffer and then bound proteins were eluted by using a buffer containing 200 mM α Methyl-D-mannopyranoside and 200 mM α Methyl-D-glucopyranoside. The resultant protein solutions were subsequently passed through a 0. 22 µM filter. The H. contortus extract made using this method was named Hc extract A. A second H. contortus extract was made following the method in [20], [19], and is referred to as Hc extract B. Briefly, with centrifugation between each step, adult parasites were extracted in PBS to remove water soluble proteins, then the resultant pellet extracted in PBS/Tween 20 to solubilise membrane-associated proteins with the final pellet solubilised with PBS containing 1. 0%v/v Triton X-100. The solution was pumped through a column containing ConA lectin-agarose (Vector laboratories). After thorough washing in a 0. 25% v/v Triton X-100 buffer, the column bound proteins were eluted using a buffer containing 200 mM α Methyl-D-mannopyranoside and 200 mM α Methyl-D-glucopyranoside. Protein concentration was estimated using a Pierce BCA Protein Assay Kit (Thermo Scientific), according to the manufacturer' s instructions. An aliquot of each of the M. digitatus and H. contortus protein elutions were concentrated using the Amicon Ultracel centrifugal filters (Millipore) with a 10 KDa cut off, before a final estimation of protein concentration was obtained. To determine the complete protein profile from each parasite, individual non-reduced Novex NuPAGE 4–12% Bis-Tris gels (Life Technologies) for M. digitatus and H. contortus in 1 X MOPS buffer (Invitrogen) were run at 200 V for 45 mins following the manufacturers' protocols. 2. 19 µg and 3. 29 µg M. digitatus protein and 2. 11 µg and 3. 17 µg Hc extract A were loaded in NuPAGE LDS sample buffer with the PageRuler Unstained Broad Range Protein Ladder (Fermentas) loaded alongside to allow estimation of protein band size. The gel was stained with SimplyBlue Safestain (Invitrogen) and de-stained with distilled water according to the manufacturer' s instructions. Liquid chromatography-electrospray ionisation-tandem mass spectrometry (LC-ESI-MS/MS) was carried out on the proteins contained in one complete lane from each species at the MRI Proteomics facility using the method as described previously in Wheelhouse et al [22] to provide an estimate of the relative abundance of each protein. Mascot generic files were generated and submitted to a local database server, utilising ProteinScape version 2. 1 (Bruker Daltonics), to perform database searches against the NCBI non-redundant eukaryotic database (http: //www. ncbi. nlm. nih. gov/) and the NEMBASE4 nucleotide database (http: //www. nematodes. org/nembase4/index. shtml), using the MASCOT (Matrix science) search algorithm. The carbamidomethyl (C) modification was fixed whilst the Deamidated (NQ) and Oxidation (M) modifications were variable, peptide and fragmentation mass tolerance values were set at 0. 5 Da, allowing for a single 13C isotope. Peptide matches were compiled into a protein list compilation (PLC) search result and the quality of proteins inspected manually. Proteins with three or more peptides, or two peptides and with a Molecular Weight Search (MOWSE) score greater than or equal to 90, were deemed significant if at least two different peptides were observed to contain an unbroken run of 4 ‘b’ or ‘y’ ions. The NCBI or NEMBASE protein hit identity for all selected proteins (those passing the quality checks) was determined and the number of identical proteins in each of the databases for both H. contortus and M. digitatus determined. Proteins identified as mammalian, trypsin or keratin were removed from the analysis. Subsequently, to determine the identity of individual bands of interest, visible bands were excised from a second gel which had been loaded with 3. 29 µg M. digitatus extract and 3. 17 µg Hc extract A in NuPAGE LDS sample buffer and run as described above to provide identification of individual bands. These individual bands were subjected to LC-ESI-MS/MS and MASCOT searches against both the NCBI non-redundant eukaryotic database and the NEMBASE4 nucleotide database carried out, as described previously. The quality of the protein matches was manually inspected as described for the PLC results. A vaccine trial comparing the efficacy of the Hc extract A and M. digitatus protein extract against Hc extract B and an unvaccinated control group was undertaken, following standard methods as described in Smith and Smith [8]. Briefly, groups (n = 7) of indoor housed, parasite free lambs, matched for sex and weight, were vaccinated sub-cutaneously three times, three weeks apart with a dose of 40 µg/mL of protein extract (either Hc extract A, Hc extract B or M. digitatus extract) in TBS with VAX Saponin adjuvant (Guinness Chemical Products Ltd) at a final concentration of 1 mg/mL. The unvaccinated control group received VAX Saponin adjuvant in TBS only. On the third vaccination day all lambs were challenged with 5000 H. contortus L3s suspended in water per os. From fourteen days post challenge, twice weekly faecal egg counts (FECs) using a modified technique as described in Jackson [23], were carried out on faecal samples obtained per rectum. Individual cumulative FEC were estimated by utilising the area under the curve calculation with the linear trapezoidal rule. The mean cumulative FEC for each group was subsequently calculated. Sheep were euthanized on day 35 post challenge, when it was anticipated that all worms present had reached patency, and worms recovered following methods described in Patterson et al [24]. Mean total, male and female worm burdens were calculated for each group. Statistical analysis of the FEC and worm burden results was carried out following the guidelines set out in Coles et al [25], data was analysed using Minitab (version 15). The non-parametric Kruskal-Wallis test, followed by Pairwise Mann-Whitney tests, with adjusted P values for multiple comparisons (Bonferroni correction), was used to determine whether statistically significant differences in worm burdens and cumulative FEC were present between the vaccinated groups compared to the unvaccinated control group. S. E. M., range and percentage efficacy (P. E.) for the group mean worm burdens and group mean cumulative FEC were calculated; the P. E. for each vaccinated group was calculated relative to the unvaccinated controls. 2. 85 µg M. digitatus extract and 2. 83 µg Hc extract A in NuPAGE LDS sample buffer were heated at 70°C for 10 mins, then loaded onto a 4–12% Bis-Tris gel (Life Technologies) in 1 X MES buffer (Invitrogen) and run at 200 V for 50 mins following the manufacturers' protocols. 8 µL PageRuler Prestained Protein Ladder (Fermentas) was run alongside the samples, before being removed with a scalpel. The gel was transferred onto a nitrocellulose membrane (Invitrogen) for 1 hour using the XCell blot module, washed twice in a 50 mM Tris, 2. 5M NaCl, 0. 25% Tween20 pH 7. 4 buffer (TNT) before being blocked overnight in TNT. 200 µL sera from each Md extract vaccinated lamb taken 7 days after the third vaccination was pooled together then diluted 1 in 200 in TNT. The blot was incubated in the diluted sera for 1 hour then washed for 10 mins three times in TNT. Monoclonal mouse anti goat/sheep IgG-HRP1 (Sigma-Aldrich) was diluted 1 in 1000 and the blot incubated in it for 1 hour, followed by three 10 mins washes in TNT. Finally the blot was visualised by incubation in DAB reagent (Sigma-Aldrich) until bands became visible. The relative abundances of different proteins are shown in Figure 1, whilst the identities of individual protein detected in H. contortus and M. digitatus (Figure 2) are shown in Tables 1 and 2 respectively. The most frequently identified hits in the H. contortus NCBInr database (representing 22. 7% of the results each) were for aminopeptidase, such as H11 and apical gut membrane polyproteins including the P100GA and P46GA2 proteins (Figure 1). Aminopeptidases were also the most prevalent hit in the M. digitatus NCBInr database (37. 5%), and the third most prevalent search result (12. 9%) in the H. contortus NEMBASE nucleotide database. Protein disulphide isomerases and aminopeptidases was the most frequently identified hit (25% each) in the M. digitatus NEMBASE nucleotide database. The most frequently identified hit (32. 3%) in the H. contortus NEMBASE nucleotide database was protein disulphide isomerase, which also accounted for 13. 6% of the protein identities from the H. contortus NCBInr database search. Zinc metallopeptidases were identified more often from the H. contortus database searches, representing 13. 64% and 16. 1% of the significant hits from the NCBInr and NEMBASE nucleotide searches, respectively, compared to the M. digitatus database searches (0% and 6. 3%, respectively). In both the H. contortus and M. digitatus database search results, homologues of other potential vaccine candidates were identified frequently (Figure 1) and included glutamate dehydrogenase [26] and the P100GA proteins [27]. Potential vaccines candidates only identified from H. contortus include a 24 kDa excretory/secretory protein [28], aspartyl protease precursor [9] and P46GA2 [27]. Only one potential vaccine component was solely identified from the M. digitatus whole lane analysis; a galectin protein 5 identified from the NEMBASE4 nucleotide database search. Between 16 and 41 peptides identified as cysteine proteases (including cathepsins) were present in database searches from both M. digitatus and H. contortus; however none of the proteins passed the quality checks. The proteomic analyses of the individual bands from H. contortus and M. digitatus protein extracts, excised from a 4–12% Bis Tris gel (Figure 2A) emphasised the similarity between the two parasites, an observation enhanced by the demonstrable antigenic cross-reactivity of the two extracts (Figure 2B). The putative identities for these protein bands are shown in Tables 1 and 2; further details of the proteomic results for these bands can be found in Tables S1 and S2, respectively. Hc1 and 2 and Md4 are all putative zinc metallopeptidases whilst Hc4, Md3,5 and 6 are all microsomal aminopeptidases or H11: It is possible that Md3, at 220 kDa, is a dimer of either Md5 or 6. Hc7, at approx 47 kDa, and Md9, at approx 45 kDa share a putative protein identity of P100GA whilst Hc8 and Md10 both migrated at approximately 40 kDa and had putative identities of aspartyl proteases. However, other proteins also gave significant matches to these bands indicating that each band may comprise more than one protein, so the identity of these bands could not be confirmed. Hc9 was identified as a Galectin 5, whilst no M. digitatus bands were identified as galectins. Combined with the previous, whole lane, analysis this indicates Galectin 5 may be present in both species. Two H. contortus bands (Hc3 and 11) and five M. digitatus bands (Md1,2, 11,12 and 13) returned results either as no significant hits or hypothetical or uncharacterized proteins. Figure 3 shows the average FECs for each group obtained from twice weekly per rectum faecal samples from day 14 to day 34 post challenge, with the error bars representing the standard error of the mean (S. E. M.) for each group. Both the H. contortus vaccine preparations (Hc extracts A and B) elicited similar levels of significant protection against H. contortus challenge. The percentage efficacy of the Hc extracts A and B, as determined by group average cumulative FEC, was 99. 19%, and 99. 89% respectively (Table 3) with the reductions in total worm burdens being 87. 28% and 93. 64% respectively (Table 4). Both the H. contortus vaccine preparations appeared to be more effective against females than males, reducing the worm burden by 94. 23% and 79. 54% (Hc extract A females and males) and 98. 46% and 88. 48% (Hc extract B females and males) compared to the unvaccinated controls (Table 4). All cumulative FEC and worm burden reductions for Hc extract A and B vaccinated groups were statistically significant (P<0. 0167) compared to the unvaccinated controls, with the P value adjusted for multiple comparisons using Bonferroni correction. Figure 3 shows that, although there was an indication that vaccination with M. digitatus derived proteins against H. contortus challenge reduced the group mean FEC slightly; the cumulative FEC P. E. of 28. 20% (Table 3) was not statistically significant. The Md extract vaccinated group average FEC was always lower than the controls; between day 67 and 76 post infection, the FECR was between 24. 3% and 39. 2% compared to the unvaccinated controls (Figure 3). Average group male and total worm burdens were higher (i. e. negative P. E.) in the Md extract vaccinated group compared to the unvaccinated controls whilst the 14. 62% reduction in group mean female worm burden was not statistically significant (Table 4). The main aim of this work was to compare, using proteomic analyses, the major gut membrane proteins from the closely related haematophagous nematodes, H. contortus (affecting sheep and goats) and M. digitatus (affecting cattle and buffalo), both of which impose significant constraints on livestock production in tropical and subtropical regions of the world. Gut membrane proteins have proven vaccine efficacy in H. contortus [6], and a recent study showed that vaccination of calves with native parasite gut membrane glycoproteins obtained from H. contortus conferred protection against both H. placei and H. contortus [29]. This work, and a previous study [20], indicate that good cross-nematode species protection could be stimulated by vaccination with gut membrane proteins derived from closely related species. Due to their similar haematophagous life cycle, it is possible that cross protection against M. digitatus could be achieved utilising a vaccine developed against H. contortus [2], [29]. If vaccination is going to be a viable method of control for both H. contortus and M. digitatus for resource-poor small-holder farmers then the vaccine production method should be cheap without a requirement for specialist and expensive laboratory equipment. This enables local production with minimal dependency on an extensive cold chain. In this paper we describe such a method. Then, the resulting protein extracts from both M. digitatus and H. contortus were analysed by proteomics to determine whether similar, known candidate vaccine antigens were present in each extract. Finally the protein extracts were tested in a vaccine trial in sheep against H. contortus challenge. Several reports have described the purification of protective antigens from the intestine of Haemonchus, and they share the need for successive saline and detergent extractions, high speed centrifugation steps and specialist chromatography equipment [19], [30]–[33]. Redmond et al [21] used a simple detergent extract followed by affinity chromatography over Con A lectin to isolate a variety of glycoproteins from C. elegans. ConA lectin has a strong affinity for the microvillar surface of the Haemonchus intestine [6], [8] and was used in [21] to isolate similar antigens from C. elegans, antibody to which cross reacted with numerous H. contortus gut antigens. Here, we used the same technique to prepare antigen extracts from H. contortus and M. digitatus with the modification that the Con A lectin chromatography step was replaced by a simpler protocol of mixing the extract directly with the affinity medium, with an incubation and wash protocol, as described in the materials and methods. The proteomic analyses described underline that this simple method is effective for the isolation of an extract which is highly enriched for intestinal proteins from nematodes and that its composition did not differ obviously from extract B, by comparison to an analysis described by Sherlock [33]. The protein components of each vaccine were determined by both LC-ESI-MS/MS of whole gel lanes (Figure 1) and on individual bands which were excised from the gels (Figure 2A) and then analysed using LC-ESI-MS/MS (Table 1, Haemonchus and 2, Mecistocirrus). Analysis of the whole gel slices was performed to ensure all proteins present in the extracts would be identified, not just those in sufficient abundance to create a visible band on the gel, whilst the identity of individual bands was determined by excising these from a second gel. There was a broad agreement between these datasets but there tended to be more unidentified or hypothetical protein bands in the analyses from M. digitatus compared to H. contortus, probably as a result of a lack of specific sequence data for the former. The precise identification of M. digitatus proteins is likely to be hampered by low genomic coverage of M. digitatus and resultant peptide matches with lower percentage sequence coverage and MOWSE scores [34]. Nonetheless, the results of this analysis indicate that similar proteins were extracted from adult H. contortus and M. digitatus and, as such, further validation work on the individual proteins identified from M. digitatus would be a worthwhile step towards developing a multivalent native vaccine for use in areas where co-infection of livestock with Haemonchus species and M. digitatus occurs. Despite some differences in the migration pattern of the protein bands from M. digitatus and H. contortus, as shown in Figure 2, the analyses here indicate that both extracts are quite similar in terms of protein functions identified. For example, aminopeptidases including H11, zinc metallopeptidases, and protein disulphide isomerases were prominent in both extracts. Many of these proteins have been associated with varying levels of protection against H. contortus and other nematodes in vaccine trials [6], [9]. H11 is an insoluble gut membrane glycoprotein of approx 110 kDa involved in blood meal digestion in H. contortus and is the most effective vaccine candidate in H. contortus, giving greater than 90% reduction in worm burden [30]. The presence of aminopeptidases, including H11, in M. digitatus indicates that, as a blood feeder like H. contortus, it may also be amenable to the gut antigen vaccination approach. In addition, both extracts contained homologues of zinc metalloproteases, which had been shown previously to be a major component of a host-protective protein complex H-gal-GP [35]. Zinc metallopeptidases were prevalent in the H. contortus database searches, representing 13. 64% and 16. 1% of the significant hits from the NCBInr and NEMBASE nucleotide searches, respectively and were barely detectable in the M. digitatus equivalents (0% and 6. 3%, respectively). Somewhat surprisingly, there were very few hits to cysteine proteases (none of which passed the proteomic quality checks) despite their apparent abundance in EST datasets from the intestine of H. contortus [36], [37]. This anomaly may reflect differences in transcript abundance compared to translation into an actual protein. Gut derived cysteine proteases have been shown to be useful immunogens in H. contortus and in human hookworms, which are also blood-feeders [38], [39]. Protein disulphide isomerases were particularly prominent in both datasets; they play important roles in protein folding, catalysing thiol-disulphide interchange which leads to protein disulphide bond formation. In C. elegans, they have a role in the formation of cuticular collagen network [14]. Although protein disulphide isomerases have been found in several nematodes and have been detected in ES [14], [15], [40], no report has linked them to the induction of protective immune responses as yet. Other putative vaccine candidates which have been studied in less detail in parasitic nematodes and which have been identified in this current study include: Glutamate dehydrogenase, the apical gut membrane polyproteins (P100GA and P46GA2), and a 24 kDa excretory/secretory (E/S) protein. Glutamate dehydrogenase has been identified from H. contortus and T circumcincta using Thiol-Sepharose affinity chromatography but, despite being the major 60 kDa component of the TSBP extract [7], it did not provide protection against infection [31]. Three proteins, P46GA1, P52GA1 and P100GA1 are encoded by the same gene in H. contortus, initially being expressed as a polyprotein [27] and together giving 60% and 50% reductions respectively in worm burden and faecal egg outputs in goats [41]. In this analysis, P100GA2 was identified from both H. contortus and M. digitatus whilst P46GA2 was only identified from H. contortus. Finally, a 24 kDa excretory/secretory protein was identified only from the H. contortus protein extract. In H. contortus, this 24 kDa E/S protein, together with a 15 kDa E/S protein reduced FECs by 32–77% and adult worm burden by 64–85% when tested as a vaccine in sheep [28]. Subsequent to the proteomic analysis, a vaccine trial, comparing the efficacy of the Md extract, Hc extracts A and B against H. contortus challenge, was undertaken. Both H. contortus vaccine preparations gave statistically significant levels of protection against homologous H. contortus challenge, compared to the unvaccinated controls as measured by cumulative FEC and worm burden. The levels of protection (reductions in FEC of 99. 19% and 99. 89% with Hc extract A and B respectively) exceeding figures of 80% efficacy in 80% of the flock predicted by Barnes et al [42] as necessary to provide better protection against infection and disease than standard anthelmintic based control strategies. However, this prediction was made using a computer model based on Trichostrongylus colubriformis, a less fecund nematode. These data indicate that the simplified method used to produce Hc extract A could form the basis for a locally produced vaccine against H. contortus in regions, such as India, where effective cold chains for vaccine distribution are limited, with the proviso that sufficient worm biomass can be harvested, either from donor animals or abattoir material. All the vaccine preparations tested here were more effective against female worms than their male counterparts, probably reflecting the extra nutritional demands imposed by egg production [43]. M. digitatus is not native to the U. K. so performing a protection trial using a crude M. digitatus protein extract against homologous challenge was not possible. Therefore, a heterologous challenge with H. contortus, which is part of the same Trichostrongylidae family and is also haematophagous, was chosen to determine whether protection could be achieved with M. digitatus protein extracts [18]. Previously, cross protection trials have been carried out using protein extracts from Ostertagia ostertagi and Teladorsagia circumcincta against H. contortus challenge and using H. contortus proteins against T. circumcincta, Trichostrongylus axei and Cooperia oncophora challenge [20], [44]. O. ostertagi proteins cross protected against H. contortus challenge by reducing FEC by 81–97% and worm burdens by 57–84% [20]. In comparison the results of cross-protection trials against T. circumcincta, Tr. axei and C. oncophora were mixed as H. contortus proteins did not provide any protection against infection with any of the aforementioned species, yet T. circumcincta proteins caused a significant reduction in FEC (though no effect on worm burdens) following challenge with H. contortus [44]. In this current trial, there was no effect on H. contortus worm burdens following vaccination with a M. digitatus vaccine extract and the 28. 2% reduction in cumulative FEC was not statistically significant. However, it is notable that the FEC were consistently lower in the M. digitatus extract vaccinates compared to the challenge controls from 25 days post-infection. A trial is now in progress in India to determine whether M. digitatus proteins provide protection against M. digitatus challenge. The failure to obtain evidence of effective cross-protection was somewhat surprising given the evidence from prior studies discussed above and that the parasites are closely related and obligate blood feeders. Moreover, the immunoblot data shown in Figure 2 confirms that there is strong antigenic cross reactivity between the H. contortus and M. digitatus extracts. Perhaps the explanation lies in the relative abundance or absence of specific components when the two vaccine extracts are compared. For example, there is solid evidence that the zinc metallopeptidases contribute to vaccine-induced immunity against Haemonchus but these were much less abundant in M. digitatus (Figure 1) and the 24 kDa Haemonchus ES protein, associated with strong protective immune responses [28] was not detected in the M. digitatus extract.

Title: Proteomic Analysis of Mecistocirrus digitatus and Haemonchus contortus Intestinal Protein Extracts and Subsequent Efficacy Testing in a Vaccine Trial Summary: Parasitic worms infecting the intestines of grazing livestock cause economic losses and welfare problems. Infection is predominantly controlled by wormers, the indiscriminate use of which has led to drug-resistance problems in the worms infecting livestock on which many of the world' s resource-poor farmers are dependent. New and cheap control methods are needed. Vaccination with protein extracts from the parasite Haemonchus contortus reduces the burden of infection and some work has indicated that cross-protection between closely related parasites is possible. Typically, these extracts are made using relatively sophisticated centrifugation and chromatography equipment as well as needing refrigeration capabilities. In this study, the authors show that equally efficacious extracts can be prepared using a very simplified protocol not requiring these specialist facilities. Proteomic analyses demonstrated the close similarity between protein extracts from both H. contortus and Mecistocirrus digitatus and vaccine trials in sheep showed that the simplified extraction protocol resulted in an equally efficacious vaccine compared to the more complex methods described prior to this work. Antigenic cross-reactivity was demonstrated between extracts from the two species; the M. digitatus extract gave a slight reduction in worm egg output when used to vaccinate sheep challenged with H. contortus.

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Summarize: By. Daily Mail Reporter. Dangerous joke: Police say Angela Timmons, pictured, 54, who works at Virginia Colleges in Spartanburg County, texted her daughter just after 10 a.m. claiming she 'could hear gun shots being fired inside the school' A South Carolina woman was arrested today after an April Fools Day prank went terribly wrong. Police say Angela Timmons, 54, who works at Virginia Colleges in Spartanburg County, texted her daughter just after 10 a.m. claiming she 'could hear gun shots being fired inside the school.' However, the daughter, April Timmons, who lives in New York couldn't get hold of her mom after receiving the message and, c-oncerned, the 34-year-old proceeded to call 911 to report the incident. Sheriff's deputies swarmed the college where they discovered that no shooting had occurred. Sheriff Chuck Wright told WPTV that he was expecting to find a serious situation as he approached the school. 'I'm thinking Columbine High School, Sandy Hook, Virginia Tech,' he said. However, the daughter soon called back after receiving a second text from her mom explaining that it was a prank. When questioned by Spartanburg County Sheriff's Office deputies, Angela Timmons, who works in 'financial planning' for the school, according to her Facebook page, said she sent the text as a joke. She said she'sent the text as an April Fools joke and that she has done such jokes on April Fools in the past.' In the message, Timmons claimed to her daughter that she was 'hiding in a bathroom for her own safety.' Scene: Sheriff's deputies swarmed the college, pictured, after the call but arrived to learn that no shooting had occurred. Worried: The daughter, April Timmons, right, who lives in New York couldn't get hold of her mom, left, after receiving the message and, concerned, the 34-year-old proceeded to call 911. According to investigators, there was 'no record' on Timmons' cell phone indicating that she revealed to her daughter that the text 'was only a joke.' Wright said he was relieved there wasn't really a shooting but he said was very disappointed at the woman's poor choice. 'Text someone and tell them their tire's flat, that's funny,' Wright said. 'We're talking about death. It's real. The people of Sandy Hook, when they see this online they're not going to think it's very funny. I don't think it's very funny.' He said his deputies responded to the scene very quickly and were prepared to give their lives to save students and staff. Timmons was arrested and booked into the Spartanburg county Detention Center. She is being held there on charges including aggravated breach of peace and disturbing a school

Summary: Police say Angela Timmons, 54, who works at Virginia Colleges in Spartanburg County, South Carolina, texted her daughter just after 10 a.m. Tuesday claiming she 'could hear gun shots being fired inside the school' However, the daughter, April Timmons, who lives in New York, couldn't get hold of her mom after receiving the message. Concerned, the 34-year-old proceeded to call 911 to report the incident. Sheriff's deputies rushed to the school expecting a massacre but learned it was a prank. Timmons was arrested and booked into the county jail on charges including aggravated breach of peace and disturbing a school.

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Summarize: Five people are believed to have died and seven injured after a high speed train caught fire and derailed in Strasbourg. The test train came off the tracks outside Eckwersheim, near Strasbroug, to the east of the country, and plunged into a river at around 6.15pm (local time). Nombreux blessés pris en charge par pompiers et samu pic.twitter.com/SKiF5mZ71Y — Aurélien Poivret (@AurelienPoivret) November 14, 2015 Nouveau blessé évacué pic.twitter.com/wiPlgsiWKJ — Aurélien Poivret (@AurelienPoivret) November 14, 2015 Vue aérienne du déraillement d'une rame TGV à Eckwersheim, à l'approche de Strasbourg. Sans doute des blesssés. pic.twitter.com/JUHzQEZZPB — France 3 Alsace (@F3Alsace) November 14, 2015 Dramatic pictures on social media showed the train upended and partially submerged in the water. There has not been any link established with the Paris attacks. A witness, a teenage girl having a lesson at a nearby riding school, told Dernieres Nouvelles A’Alsace (DNA) she saw the train catch fire and then overturn. It is believed the train may have struck a nearby bridge before catching fire.Emergency services have been deployed to the scene. Emergency services have been deployed and those injured airlifted to nearby hospitals. It is believed the crash occurred during a test run of the TGV train when the vehicle gained “excessive speed” according to sources speaking to AFP. Media playback is unsupported on your device Media caption President of French rail firm SNCF Guillaume Pepy: ''The railway family is in mourning'' A high-speed TGV train has derailed near the eastern French city of Strasbourg, killing at least 10 people, officials say. The crash happened during a test run in the town of Eckwersheim, on a new Paris-Strasbourg line. The train was carrying 49 railway technicians when it derailed, caught fire, and plunged into a canal. Eleven people suffered serious injuries. The derailment was due to "excessive speed", officials say. Pictures showed the locomotive partly submerged. Wreckage was also scattered in a field beside the track. Reports say the Paris-Strasbourg high-speed line is scheduled to open next year. Junior transport minister Alain Vidalies and Ecology Minister Segolene Royal will visit the scene, French media reported. Locomotive on new Paris-Strasbourg high-speed line left partly submerged in canal near German border after derailment At least ten people have been killed and several more injured after a train derailed and caught fire near Strasbourg, according to reports. Another 32 people were injured, 12 of them seriously. French environment minister Ségolène Royal said at the scene that a further five were unaccounted for. All those aboard the train were employees of national railway operator SNCF. The accident was caused by excessive speed, although it was too early to say why the train was travelling so quickly, the prefecture said. The train ended up near a bridge in the water of a roughly 130-ft wide canal. A police team of divers, helicopters and tens of rescue vehicles were sent to the scene in response to the crash. Facebook Twitter Pinterest The train in the water of the canal near the bridge in Eckwersheim, near Strasbourg. Photograph: Frederick Florin/AFP/Getty Images Reuters, citing local police and national railway company TGV, reported that the train was travelling on the new Paris-Strasbourg high-speed line on Saturday at Eckwersheim, near the German border. Pictures from a Reuters photographer showed the locomotive partly submerged in a canal alongside the tracks with train parts lying broken and detached in a field. Medical units, including police divers, attended the scene. The second section of the Paris-Strasbourg high-speed TGV line on which the crash happened is set to open for service in April 2016. DNA said its reporter had been told that an initial assessment had put the death toll at five people. The paper reported that the crash was not thought to be linked to terrorism. ECKWERSCHEIM, France (AP) — A high-speed train undergoing a test derailed, burst into flames, split apart and plunged into a canal in northeast France, killing at least seven people and gravely injuring at least 10 others in what officials said appeared to be an accident. Rescue vehicles park between a canal and the railway tracks after a high-speed train derailed in Eckwersheim, near Strasbourg, eastern France, Saturday Nov.14, 2015. An official says a high-speed train... (Associated Press) Rescue vehicles park between a canal and the railway tracks after a high-speed train derailed in Eckwersheim, near Strasbourg, eastern France, Saturday Nov.14, 2015. An official says a high-speed train... (Associated Press) There were no immediate indications that Saturday's crash into the Marne au Rhin canal had anything to do with the deadly terrorist attacks in Paris a day earlier, said spokeswoman Viviane Chevallier of the Bas-Rhin region. Authorities believe the TGV high-speed train, with 49 people on board, was going too fast and skipped off the tracks in the town of Eckwerscheim near the German border, she said. In a statement, French President Francois Hollande's office said the train was not running on a line used by commercial trains. His office said 10 people were gravely injured. Chevallier had said earlier 11 people were severely injured. Five helicopters were deployed to evacuate the injured to hospital in the nearby city of Strasbourg. Two government ministers were en route to the site.

Summary: More than seven people are dead and at least 10 "gravely" injured after a high-speed train derailed and crashed into a canal during a test run Saturday in France, the AP reports. According to the BBC, the train was testing a new rail line between Paris and Strasbourg with 49 people on board when it caught fire and hopped the track near the German border. A teen girl getting horse-riding lesson nearby reportedly witnessed flames coming from the train before it overturned, the Independent reports. Both the Guardian and BBC say the death toll in the crash is at least 10. And according to the Guardian, more than 30 people were injured-12 of them seriously. Everyone aboard the train at the time of the crash was an employee of the railway operator. Officials blame the crash on "excessive speed," the BBC reports. Though it's unclear why the train was going so fast, according to the Guardian. The AP reports there is no indication the crash had anything to do with the terrorist attacks in Paris on Friday. The Strasbourg-to-Paris line is scheduled to open next year, according to the BBC.

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Summarize: A married couple who dress each day in authentic 1950’s outfits are delighted to have reached the final of a national competition celebrating their pastime, overcoming years of torment. Frankie and Melanie Calland, from Howden le Wear in County Durham, are both addicted to dressing in the styles popular over half a century ago, and have suffered years of abuse over their unusual passion. However, the pair refused to be put off, and have now beaten hundreds of other hopefuls to reach the finals Mr Vintage UK and Miss Vintage UK; a national vintage fashion contest. Scroll down for video. As a child Melanie loved old photos with family members dressed in 50s clothing and soon started picking up vintage pieces from jumble sales and second hand shops. Both Melanie and Frankie, pictured with three of the couples five poodles, were individually addicted to clothes dating from the 40's and 50's and when they met it was a match made in heaven. When Melanie and Frankie met in 1988 they bonded over their love of the 1950s, particularly its fashions. Melanie, pictured, and Frankie have dressed every day in period clothing for over 20 years. Frankie, 49, and Melanie, 47, have dressed in authentic 1950s style clothing for over 20 years, despite having had eggs and bricks thrown at their house because of their appearance. 'In the past we'd get abused because of the way we looked. We had bricks and eggs thrown at our windows and abuse hurled at us in the street. At the very least we'd get stared at,’ Melanie laments. Both Melanie and Frankie were individually addicted to clothes dating from the 40's and 50's and when they met it was a match made in heaven. As a child Melanie loved old photos with family members dressed in 50s clothing and soon started picking up vintage pieces from jumble sales and second hand shops. The couple, who source their wardrobe through vintage fairs and shops, suffered years of abuse over their lifestyle choice. She went on to fashion college and soon afterwards met Frankie at a Rock n Roll club in 1988, who was also addicted to the fashion of the same era. The pair, who live with their five poodles, continue to dress each day in the style of the 40's and 50's, despite experiencing frightening bullying. In the end the abuse became so bad the couple felt they had no other option than to move house. But in the last couple of years Melanie and Frankie have noticed a sea change in people's attitudes towards them. She says: ‘We now get complimented and I have people asking me where I get my dresses and accessories from. They are genuinely interested and I think it's because it's all on trend at the moment - although Frankie and I have been dressing like this for more than 30 years.’ Melanie, who studied fashion at college, often buys vintage fabrics and sews her own clothes. Melanie spotted the UK vintage fashion competition on Facebook and decided to enter them both. Their incredible wardrobe has been built out of years of scouring vintage fairs with the dedicated couple, who together run fancy dress hire shop called Fantasia, even travelling as far as America to find original clothing. Melanie also buys vintage fabric and makes her own clothes. The couple will now move forward to the finals of Mr Vintage UK and Miss Vintage UK later this month. Recently she spotted the UK vintage fashion competition on Facebook and decided to enter them both. Frankie says: 'We thought it would be a bit of fun, and thought why not? After all it was right up our street.' The pair beat off hundreds of others, many younger than them, to earn their individual places into final which is being held at the Twinwood Festival in Bedfordshire on August 24. 'I don't know what will happen on the day but we're both excited about it. ‘Frankie’s going to wear a grey New Yorker suit from 1947 or a brown gabardine suit from 1952. ‘As for me I’ll wear a cream and black suit unless it’s boiling hot, then I’ll probably plump for a dress,’ Melanie says. ‘But at the end of the day we’ll just going for the fun of it. We love the way we dress and we wouldn't change it for the world. 'There's not much style around these days, everything seems so baggy and shapeless and it's all elastic, stretchy stuff which often doesn't look flattering. 'By comparison styles from 40's and 50's are so glamorous and that's why I love wearing them.'

Summary: When Frankie and Melanie met they bonded over their love of 1950s style. Now married, they have worn fashion of the era everyday for over 20 years. Have suffered vandalism and verbal taunts because of their appearance. Abuse forced the couple to move, but refused to give up on their passion. Pair have now won regional rounds of national vintage fashion competition. Will now compete in the finals of Mr and Miss Vintage UK later this month.

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Summarize: FIELD OF THE INVENTION The present invention relates generally to storage containers and the like, and more specifically to various sizes and configurations of storage bins. The different sizes are even multiples of one another, thus allowing an integral number of smaller bins to fit within the same area occupied by a single larger bin. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION The typical household kitchen includes various cupboards and drawers which serve to collect small quantities of different commodities (spices, etc.), and perhaps other articles as well. Oftentimes, such commodities and articles are placed on a single shelf of a cupboard or cabinet, and it can be difficult to find the specific spice or other article or object amid the congestion. Various devices have been developed as a response to the above problem, but generally do not provide a totally satisfactory solution. Lazy susan type units, wherein one or more shelves are constructed as a rotary unit, enable persons to access the rear portion of the shelves more easily, but still fail to compartmentalize the materials thereon to enable a person to find the desired substance more easily. Smaller storage drawers and cabinets have also been developed (primarily for hardware), but generally the drawers or bins of such units are all of equal size in a given cabinet, and cannot be exchanged for drawers of different sizes in order to hold larger or smaller objects. Thus, a need will be seen for modular storage bins, which bins may be provided in sizes equivalent to multiple integers of a smaller base size, in order to allow a whole number of the drawers to fit within a bin sleeve of standardized size. The bin sleeves or holders should be installable in virtually any position, either resting atop another object or secured to the side wall or underside of another object (shelf, cupboard, etc.). Preferably, the bins and sleeves are formed of a clear material, to enable a person to view the contents, and should have securing means to hold the individual bins within the appropriate sleeves, and/or dispensing means for bulk commodities or other material stored therein. Finally, the bins should be adaptable to food storage in the kitchen, pantry, or other suitable area, as well as to storage of other articles (e.g., hardware, fasteners, etc.) in the shop, garage, or other environment. DESCRIPTION OF THE PRIOR ART U.S. Pat. No. 4,714,305 issued to Robert S. Service on Dec. 22, 1987 describes a Spice Rack comprising a rack or shelf portion which telescopes vertically from an intermediate portion, which intermediate portion in turn telescopes horizontally from an outer case. No separate enclosed containers for various bulk goods are disclosed, and the complex action required to access the rack portion (extending the intermediate portion from the case and then raising the rack portion from the intermediate portion) is unlike the horizontally sliding or telescoping single action required of the present modular storage bins. Moreover, since all goods contained by the Service rack are in their own containers, Service does not disclose the use of transparent materials. U.S. Pat. No. 4,928,833 issued to Lee M. Huizenga on May 29, 1990 describes a Storage Organizer System And Means For Installing The Same. The system is based upon one or more horizontal bars secured to a wall; with at least two vertical panels being hung from the bar(s). One or more horizontal shelves are then installed between the vertical panels. No fully enclosed drawers or bins are disclosed, nor are any telescoping or horizontally sliding components disclosed, as provided by the present modular storage bins. Huizenga also does not provide for transparency of any of the panels or components. U.S. Pat. No. 4,951,826 issued to Rodney R. Tompkins on Aug. 28, 1990 describes a Compact Disc Display And Storage Board comprising a board with a plurality of first fastener components (Velcro-™) secured thereto. The cooperating fastener components are secured to the backs of the compact disc cases, allowing the cases to be removably affixed to the board. No closure means is provided over the board, no different sizes of bins or other units is described, and no transparent materials are disclosed by Tompkins, which features are provided by the present invention. U.S. Pat. No. 4,971,209 issued to Richard Todd on Nov. 20, 1990 describes a Bottle Storage And Serving Holder, comprising a unitary rack having an upper horizontal shelf with a series of holes therein. The holes are adapted for the support of inverted bottles placed therein. Todd does not disclose the use of transparent materials, as the bottle contents are readily visible in any case. No moving components (sliding drawers, dispensers, etc.) are disclosed by Todd, and the Todd holder is not adaptable for the storage of bulk commodities, as provided by the present modular storage bins. U.S. Pat. No. 5,368,203 issued to Rainer Friedrich et al. on Nov. 29, 1994 describes a Spice Rack With Magnetically Held Spice Containers. The containers comprise a series of jars or the like, with ferrous metal lids. The lids are held in position by a magnet installed within the rack. The spice jars are suspended from above by their metal lids, and are removed from the rack by pulling downward. No horizontally moving drawers or modular components are disclosed by Friedrich et al., and the only disclosure of transparent materials is in the jars themselves, and not in any component of the rack. The present modular storage bins do not rely upon any substantial metal components, magnetic or otherwise. U.S. Pat. No. 5,392,934 issued to Larry G. Fox on Feb. 28, 1995 describes an Apparatus And Method For Adjustably Supporting Furnishings On A Wall Surface. The apparatus comprises a horizontal rail secured to a wall, generally on the order of a chair rail or the like. A plurality of clips may be adjustably attached to the back of the article to be suspended from the rail, with the clips hooking to the upper edge of the rail. The present storage bins may be secured to a vertical surface such as a wall, or beneath an overlying shelf or the like, but are not adapted to use the Fox attachment system. U.S. Pat. No. D-300,887 issued to Paul R. Evans on May 2, 1989 describes a design for a Wall Unit, comprising a plurality of open horizontal shelves apparently of glass or other transparent material. No closure means is indicated for any of the shelves or other area of the Evans unit, and no removable modular bins or drawers are disclosed, as provided by the present invention. U.S. Pat. No. D-347,764 issued to Milton L. Cohen et al. on Jun. 14, 1994 describes a design for a Condiment Container, comprising a single unit having convex sides and a curvilinear upper portion. One embodiment includes dispensing holes therein. No modular units, transparent construction, closure means, or means of assembling multiple units in a unitary array, are disclosed by Cohen et al., which features are provided by the present modular storage bins. French Patent Publication No. 748,556 to Jmpexal E. G. and published on Jul. 6, 1933 describes a pantry cabinet or the like, comprising a plurality of shelves accessible by means of hinged doors. A plurality of differently sized drawers is also indicated, but there is no disclosure of any modular construction, whereby plural smaller drawers may be installed in the same space as a single larger drawer, as may be done with the present invention. Moreover, at least some of the smaller drawers of the present invention are completely closed with the exception of a dispensing opening, and may be formed of transparent material so the contents may be viewed, which features are not disclosed by the French patent publication. French Patent Publication No. 958,717 to Reinhard E. Seifert and published on Mar. 15, 1950 describes a medicine cabinet or the like, having a plurality of apparently adjustable open shelves therein. Only two closed drawers are apparently disclosed, with no modular interchangeability of differently sized components, no transparent construction, and no components adapted as sealed dispensing units, being disclosed by Seifert. Finally, French Patent Publication No. 1,451,610 to Jean P. Zaiger and published on Sep. 2, 1966 describes a cigarette lighter holder or the like, apparently comprising a generally rectangular and unitary structure formed of a transparent sheet material. Two apparently magnetic strips of material are located on one side of the device, apparently for securing the device to a metal surface. No modular construction of multiple bins is disclosed, nor is any means of closing the device, as provided by the present invention. None of the above noted patents, taken either singly or in combination, are seen to disclose the specific arrangement of concepts disclosed by the present invention. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION By the present invention, improved modular storage bins are disclosed. Accordingly, one of the objects of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins which may be provided in different sizes, with larger sizes being substantially integral multiples of the smaller sizes, whereby a plurality of smaller sized bins may be used in place of a single larger sized bin, in a standard sleeve unit. Another of the objects of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins which are adapted for the storage of bulk commodities or other materials or articles therein. Yet another of the objects of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins in which at least some bins are completely closed, with the exception of dispensing means at one end thereof. Still another of the objects of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins which are preferably formed of transparent sheet material, such as acrylic or other plastic. A further object of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins which are installable beneath an overlying surface or to the side of a vertical surface, and which may include a mounting plate for more secure attachment. An additional object of the present invention is to provide improved modular storage bins at least some of which bins include latching means engaging the bin sleeve or enclosure, and precluding inadvertent removal of the bins from the sleeve. A final object of the present invention is to provide improved storage bins for the purposes described which are inexpensive, dependable and fully effective in accomplishing their intended purpose. With these and other objects in view which will more readily appear as the nature of the invention is better understood, the invention consists in the novel combination and arrangement of parts hereinafter more fully described, illustrated and claimed with reference being made to the attached drawings. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a perspective view of a plurality of different sizes of the present storage bins, showing different mounting arrangements of the sleeves or holders for the bins with a household cabinet. FIG. 2 is a perspective view similar to FIG. 1, showing a plurality of differently sized bins and their sleeves or holders secured to the underside of a cabinet. FIG. 3 is a partially broken away perspective view of a bin holder or sleeve of the present invention and mounting plate therefor, showing a larger single bin insertable therein and further details. FIG. 4 is an exploded perspective view of a bin holder or sleeve partitioned to hold a half width bin and two quarter size bins, and the associated bins and details. FIG. 5 is an exploded perspective view of the front portion of a bin holder or sleeve and interlocking partitions providing for the placement of nine smaller bins therein, and a smaller closed bin adapted for the bulk storage of a spice or other commodity. therein. FIG. 6 is a broken away perspective view of a bin holder or sleeve with a half size and quarter size bin therein, showing details of the latching means for such bins. FIG. 7 is a perspective view of a pair of smaller closed bins adapted for bulk storage of spices or other goods, and showing the details of the dispensing means on the front of the bins. Similar reference characters denote corresponding features consistently throughout the several figures of the attached drawings. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE PREFERRED EMBODIMENT Referring now particularly to FIGS. 1 and 2 of the drawings, the present invention will be seen to relate to modular storage bins, with each such bin including a sleeve 10 and a plurality of drawers or bins therein. While all of the sleeves 10 are identical in size and configuration, the bins may be of different sizes, with the larger sizes being integral multiples of the smaller sizes. Thus, one sleeve 10 may include a single largest bin 12 therein, with such bins 12 adapted to fit closely within the interior of a sleeve 10. Another sleeve 10 may include two half bins 14, each having substantially one half the width of the sleeve 10, but being substantially equal in height to the sleeve interior. Yet another sleeve 10 may include four quarter size bins 16, with such quarter size bins 16 each having substantially one half the height of the interior of a sleeve 10, and being equal in width to that of a half size bin 14, i.e., half the width of a sleeve 10 interior. And still another sleeve 10 may include a total of nine bins 18, each having a width and a height of one third that of the sleeve 10 interior, thereby providing a three by three matrix of nine such one ninth size bins 18 in a single sleeve 10. It will also be seen that another sleeve 10 may be used to contain two vertically stacked quarter size bins 16, with a single half size bin 14 inserted beside the two quarter size bins 16. While the sleeves 10 may be merely placed atop an underlying surface, such as the countertop T or shelf S of FIG. 1, they may also be secured to the side or underside of a panel, as to the shelves S of FIG. 1. FIG. 2 provides a view of an efficient arrangement of such sleeves 10 and accompanying bins 12 through 18, as they might be installed along the underside of a kitchen or workshop cabinet C or the like. Various sleeve mounting or attachment means may be used, which are described further below. It will be seen that the present invention is not limited to the specific arrangement disclosed in FIGS. 1 and 2 of the drawings, but that the various bins 12 through 18 may be mixed and matched as desired to provide the degree of customizing of storage space and versatility desired by the user. FIG. 3 provides a detail view of the specific construction of a sleeve 10 and a full size bin 12, as well as a sleeve mounting means. The sleeve 10 is formed of a first side 20 and an opposite second side 22, and a top panel 24 and opposite bottom panel 26. Each of the sides and panels 20 through 26 has substantially the same width, thereby defining a substantially square cross section for the interior of the sleeve 10. The first and second ends 28 and 30 are open. FIG. 3 also discloses a mounting means for the sleeve 10, comprising a mounting plate 32 of metal or other suitable material, which may be secured to the side or underside of a panel or surface, such as the side of the shelves S or the underside of the cabinet C respectively of FIGS. 1 and 2. Mounting screws 34 or other means may be used to secure the mounting plate 32 to the desired location. The mounting plate 32 includes a first sheet of hook and loop fastening material 36 thereon, with a mating second sheet of such material 38 being provided on one of the sides or panels 20 through 26 of the sleeve 10 (e.g., on the top panel 24 for an underlying mounting, as shown in FIG. 3). This mounting plate system provides secure mounting for the sleeves 10, and for any bins 12 through 18 which may be inserted therein, particularly on uneven or other surfaces where an adhesive may not work properly. The hook and loop fastening means allows the sleeves 10 to be easily removed for cleaning or other purposes, as desired, yet provides good security for even loaded sleeves and bins secured thereby. It will be seen that other mounting means including mechanically or adhesively securing the sleeve directly to the mounting surface, may be used where suitable and/or desired. FIG. 3 also provides a view of a full size bin 12. Such bins 12 each comprise a first side 40, an opposite second side 42, a bottom panel 44, and opposite first and second end panels 46 and 48, with the top being open to provide for storage of bulk commodities or other articles therein, as desired. The sides 40 and 42, bottom panel 44, and second end panel 48 are dimensioned so as to fit closely within the interior dimensions of the sleeve 10, but may be slightly smaller than a precise fit in order to allow runners 50, side spacers 52 provided on both sides 40/42, but shown on only one side 42 for clarity in the drawing figure), and/or some other low friction means to be installed thereon to provide for ease of removing and inserting a full bin 12. While the sides 40/42, bottom panel 44, and end panel 48 are sized to fit within the sleeve 10 interior, it will be seen that the front panel 46 includes a flange 54 extending therefrom, which protrudes beyond the width and height of the full size bin 12 as defined by the sides 40/42 and bottom panel 44. The front panel 46 is dimensioned to match closely the exterior dimensions of the sleeve 10, so as to preclude excessive insertion of the bin 12 into the sleeve 10. Yet, the edge or flange 54 of the front panel 46 does not extend beyond the external dimensions of the sleeve 10, in order to provide a compact installation without the front panel flange 54 catching on a cabinet edge or the like to which the sleeve 10 may be mounted. To provide for ease of removal of the bin 12 from the sleeve 10, a handle or knob 56 may be provided on the front or first end panel 46 of the full size bin 12. This knob or handle 56 may also cooperate with latching means to positively retain the bin 12 within the sleeve 10, which latching means is discussed further below. FIG. 4 provides an exploded perspective view of a sleeve 10 which has been configured to contain a single half size bin 14 and two quarter size bins 16. Each of the bins 14/16 will be seen to be configured similarly to the full size bins discussed above. The half size bin 14 is formed of opposite first and second sides 58 and 60, a bottom panel 62, and opposite first and second end panels 64 and 66, with an open top. Each of the quarter size bins 16 includes opposite first and second sides 68/70, a bottom panel 72, and opposite first and second end panels 74 and 76. Both the half size and quarter size bins 14 and 16 may also include low friction means, such as bottom runners 50 and/or side spacers or buttons.52, in the manner of the full size bins 12, and each of the front panels 64/74 also includes an extended flange, respectively 54a and 54b, to preclude excessive insertion of the bins 14/16 into the bin sleeve 10. Due to the smaller cross sectional size particularly of the quarter size bin 16, the manufacture of such bins having a length equal to that of the full length of the sleeves 10, may result in a somewhat excessive length relative to the width of the bin 16. Accordingly, such quarter size bins 16 (and ninth size bins discussed further below) are preferably manufactured to have a length only half that of the length of the sleeves 10, as shown by their relative lengths in FIG. 4. Larger bins, such as the full size bins 12 and the half size bins 14, are preferably manufactured to have a length substantially the same as that of the bin sleeves 10. (It will be noted that the half size bin 14 of FIG. 4 appears to have a length only half that of the bin sleeve 10 of FIG. 4. Such half size bins 14 may be manufactured to half length, if desired, but may also have a full length if desired.) Each of the half size and quarter size bins 14/16 includes a handle or knob, respectively 56a/56b, scaled in proportion to the size of the front panel 64/74 of the respective bins 14/16. Otherwise the knobs 56/56a/56b of the bins 12/14/16 are similar polygonal shapes (preferably octagonal, although other shapes may be used), to provide uniformity of appearance between each of the different sizes of bins 12/14/16. As in the case of the full size bins 12f the knobs 56a/56b of the half and quarter size bins 14/16 may include latching means (described further below) providing for positive retention of the bins 14/16 within a sleeve 10. As each of the half size and quarter size bins 14/16 have a cross sectional area considerably less than that of a sleeve 10, some means must be provided to preclude unwanted lateral or vertical displacement of a bin 14/16 within a sleeve 10, particularly when only one such smaller bin 14/16 is placed therein. This is accomplished by means of a vertical partition 78, which is inserted within the sleeve 10 and which serves to divide the sleeve 10 interior laterally into two substantially equal portions. Thus, two half size bins 14 may be placed within a sleeve 10 and each may be withdrawn as desired, without the second such bin 14 being displaced to block the reinsertion of the withdrawn bin 14 when it is reinserted into the sleeve 10. A second horizontal partition 80 is provided between the vertical partition 78 and the side wall(s) 22 (and/or 20) of the sleeve 10, to provide vertical separation of two quarter size bins 16, in much the same manner. (It will be seen that the horizontal partition 80 may extend across the full width of the interior of the sleeve 10 and interlock with the vertical partition 78 to provide for four quarter size bins 16, if desired.) A variation on the above described horizontal and vertical partitions 78 and 80 is shown in FIG. 5, wherein four partitions 82 each having two elongate slots 84 therein, are assembled together in a two by two matrix of two horizontal and two vertical partitions 82. One pair of partitions 82 (e.g., the horizontally disposed pair) are positioned with their slots 84 facing rearwardly, while the other pair (e.g., the vertical pair) are positioned with their slots 84 facing forwardly. Thus, the slots 84 of the pairs of partitions 82 will interlock, to hold the partitions 82 immovably relative to one another. (The partitions 82 need only be half the length of the sleeve 10, as the ninth size bins 18 adapted to fit within the partition 82 spaces are preferably only half the length of the sleeve 10. However, the partitions 82 may be made full length, if desired.) In turn, the partition 82 assembly is inserted into a sleeve 10, thereby dividing the interior of the sleeve into a three by three matrix of nine separate volumes. The one ninth size bins 18 are adapted to fit closely within each of the nine interior spaces provided by the interlocking partitions 82 within the sleeve 10, with the partitions 82 precluding displacement of remaining bins 18 when one or more such bins 18 are removed from the sleeve 10. As noted above, the vertical and horizontal partitions 78 and 80, used to separate half size and quarter size bins 14 and 16 from one another within a sleeve 10, may also be slotted if appropriate (with the horizontal partition 80 extending the full width of the sleeve 10), to provide four quadrants for the insertion of four of the quarter size bins 16 therein. FIG. 6 provides a detailed view of the latching means provided for the full size, half size, and quarter size bins 12/14/16 to secure such bins positively within a sleeve 10. (While only a half size bin 14 and a quarter size bin 16 are shown, it will be understood that the principle of the latching means applies equally well to a full size bin 12.) Each bin 14/16 includes a rotary knob, respectively 56a/56b thereon, which knobs also serve as handles to facilitate the withdrawal of the bins 14/16 from a sleeve 10. Each of the knobs 56a/56b is mounted to a pin or shaft 86 which extends through the respective front panel 64/74 of each bin 14/16. This pin or shaft 86 is in turn secured to a latch lever 88 on the opposite or inner side of the front panel 64/74, with the knob 56a/56b being immovably affixed relative to the latch lever 88 by means of the connecting pin or shaft 86. The top panel 24 of the sleeve 10 includes a plurality of arcuately formed insets 90 therein, which are positioned and adapted to receive the distal ends of the latch levers 88. Preferably, three such slots or insets 90 are provided, with one centrally positioned between each side panel of the sleeve 10 and the other two positioned medially between the central inset and the respective side panel. Thus, the central inset or slot 90 is properly positioned to accept the latch lever of a single full size bin 12 which may be inserted into the sleeve 10, while the two insets 90 to either side are positioned to accept the latch lever 88 of a half width bin (i.e., a half size or quarter size bin 14/16). While such insets 90 are only shown in the top panel 24 of the sleeve 10, it will be understood that two such insets 90 may be provided in a horizontal sleeve partition 80 to either side of the central vertical partition 78, for securing the lowermost bins 16. FIG. 7 provides detailed perspective views of a pair of the smallest bins 18 of the present modular storage bins invention. Each of these bins 18 is formed of a first and an opposite second side 92 and 94, a top panel and an opposite bottom panel 96/98, and a first end panel and opposite second end panel 100/102. Thus, each of the one ninth sized bins 18 will be seen to comprise a completely enclosed box, excepting access as described below. Each of the smaller bins 18 includes a rotary dispensing knob or handle 104 disposed on the front panel 100 thereof. While these knobs 104 have essentially the same shape and rotary operation as the knobs or handles 56/56a/56b of the bins 12/14/16 discussed above, no latching means is provided with the knobs 104. Instead, a dispensing port 106 is provided through the front panel 100 of each bin 18, and offset from the hole or passage 108 generally centrally located in the front panel 100 for the knob pin 110. The knob 104 in turn includes three approximately equal arcuate areas, with one having a dispensing passage 112 therethrough which is essentially congruent to the dispensing port 106 of the front panel 100, another area having a plurality of smaller holes 114 therethrough, and a third area 116 being completely closed. Thus, a bin 18 may be filled with a bulk commodity (e.g., ground spices or the like) through the dispensing port 106 (or may dispense such commodity from the dispensing port 106), or alternatively may be used to shake such commodity from the small holes 114 in another sector of the knob 104 as desired by rotating the knob 104 to the desired position to locate the passage 112 or the holes 114 over the dispensing port 106. The bin 18 may be sealed by turning the knob 104 to position the closed sector 116 over the dispensing port 106, as desired. In summary, the above described modular storage bins and accompanying sleeve(s) will be seen to provide an extremely convenient means of storing and accessing a variety of goods, commodities, and other articles. The bins are extremely useful in the kitchen or pantry for the storage and dispensing of food products, with the open bins 12/14/16 providing easy access for the dispensing of relatively large quantities of goods through the open tops. The smallest bins 18 are particularly adapted for the containment of spices or other finely ground or powdered substances therein, which products may be dispensed in relatively large quantities through an open passage or alternatively shaken from the porous area of the front panel knob. All of the bins 12/14/16/18 have a unifying theme, in that they are each generally similarly shaped, even though their sizes differ. Each of the knobs 56/56a/56b, and even the dispensing knob 104, are similarly configured, preferably having an equal number of faces forming an equilateral polygonal shape. Each of the knobs also rotates to provide some function, i.e., the knobs 56/56a/56b rotate to provide latching or unlatching from their associated sleeve(s), while the knob 104 provides selective dispensing of a product contained within a bin 18, as described above. While the present bins 12/14/16/18 and their associated sleeves may be formed of virtually any suitable sheet material, it has been found that clear acrylic plastic provides a very economical, yet durable and easily cleaned material for the bins, which is also quite suitable for use in storing food products. Alternatively, translucent or opaque plastic or other material be used as desired. Such plastic sheet is also easily assembled with appropriate adhesives or solvents. The present bins and sleeves will also be found to provide an excellent storage system for small parts and components which may be stored in a garage, basement, and/or home workshop. The preferably clear plastic material enables the user to see readily the specific parts or components contained in each bin, at a glance. The specific sizes of the present bins result in practically no wasted space, no matter if a single full size bin 12, two half width bins 14, four quarter size bins 16, or nine of the smallest bins 18 are used, with the appropriate partitions providing the proper spacing between adjacent smaller bins. The partitions may be removed, replaced, or exchanged as desired, allow a bin sleeve 10 to accommodate a variety of differently sized bins as needed. Thus, the present modular storage bin system will be seen to be extremely versatile and valuable for the user thereof. It is to be understood that the present invention is not limited to the sole embodiment described above, but encompasses any and all embodiments within the scope of the following claims.

Summary: Modular storage bins provide for the bulk containment and storage of various commodities and goods, and are particularly useful in the kitchen or pantry for the storage of foods and spices. One or more identically sized open sleeves are installable beneath or alongside an existing cabinet or shelf, or alternatively may be placed atop an existing countertop or shelf. A mounting plate may be provided for additional attachment security for the sleeves, if desired. Each of the sleeves are adapted for the containment of one or more specially configured bins, with the bins being provided in various sizes. The largest bins have dimensions which are integral multiples of the smaller bins, i.e., the largest bins are two and three times the width and height of the intermediate sized and smallest bins. Thus, two half width bins, or a two by two matrix of four intermediate bins, or a three by three matrix of nine of the smallest bins may be installed in any given sleeve. The smallest bins are particularly adapted for use as spice containers, and are completely closed with the exception of a dispenser on one end. The bins and sleeves are preferably formed of a transparent material, thus enabling a user to view the quantity and type of goods contained therein. A latching mechanism may also be installed on at least some of the bins, to preclude inadvertent removal from the sleeve.

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Summarize: CROSS REFERENCE TO RELATED APPLICATIONS [0001] This application claims the benefit of U.S. provisional application 60/671,608, filed Apr. 15, 2005 and U.S. provisional application 60/679,616, filed May 10, 2005 FIELD OF THE INVENTION [0002] This invention relates to the field of training aids for batting a ball, and especially to devices for training the foot positions and body movements for batting a ball such as a baseball or softball. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION [0003] Numerous bat swing training aids have been devised for softball and baseball. Some of these include plates or mats placed on the ground beside a home plate, with foot placement indications for an address stance and swing stride. These aids vary in emphasis, mode of enforcement, intended result, safety, and other factors. However, none of them combines an ideal training result with safety, convenience, and practicality in the same way and to the same degree as the present invention. [0004] For example, a product called “stride guide” is a flat plate with foot placement and stride indicators and a rotating disk for the ball of the back foot. It has a raised edge behind the disk to enforce lifting of the back heel, thus shifting the user&#39;s weight forward. It has other raised edges to limit the stride of the lead foot. However, it does not require the user to step with the lead foot, rather than slide, it does not physically set both feet in toe alignment for the address stance, it does not physically align the lead foot perpendicularly to the pitch, it does not physically set the address stance width, it does not retain the back foot, and it does not limit the pivot range of the back foot. [0005] The present inventor feels that physical enforcement of address stance and stepping into the swing provides more definitive training and faster coaching than visual indicators alone, and that these physical enforcements make a stronger impression on a user&#39;s “muscle memory”. She also feels that physical limits on the back foot pivot range are important, both for training and safety, BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS [0006] The invention is explained in following description in view of the drawings that show: [0007] FIG. 1 is a perspective view of an embodiment of the invention [0008] FIG. 2 is a perspective view of a ground anchor [0009] FIG. 3 is a top view of the embodiment of FIG. 1. [0010] FIG. 4 is a side view of the embodiment of FIG. 1. [0011] FIG. 5 is a sectional view taken along section line 5 - 5 of FIG. 3. [0012] FIG. 6 is a sectional view taken along section line 6 - 6 of FIG. 3. [0013] FIG. 7 is a top view of left and right-handed configurations of the device relative to a home plate, with an extended lead portion of base. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION [0014] The inventor recognized that a better training aid would be useful in instructing softball and baseball users during batting practice to align their feet in the address stance, to avoid putting their feet too far apart, to lift the back heel, and to step toward the pitcher and shift their weight while swinging the bat. She devised a convenient and practical device for this purpose. In this description “front” or “forward” means toward the ball pitcher, “back” means away from the ball pitcher. Gender-specific pronouns are used for convenience only, and are intended to include both genders. [0015] The drawings illustrate an embodiment of a device for training the foot positions and body motions for batting a ball such as a baseball during the address stance, swing, and follow-through. It teaches proper foot orientation and stance width, swing stride, shifting of body weight, and proper back foot pivot. It comprises a base plate 12 with anchor holes 14 for ground anchors 15. A step plate 30 for the lead foot comprises a traction surface 32, a raised toe stop 36, and two raised foot guards 34. The step plate 30 is mounted to the base plate 12 at a selectable position provided by pegs 17 in alternate peg holes 16 as seen in FIG. 5. A swivel plate 31 for the back foot comprises a traction surface 32, a raised toe stop 36, and foot restraint straps 38, 39 arranged to hold the ball of the foot on the plate while allowing the heel to lift. The swivel plate 31 is mounted on the base plate 12 by a bearing 42 that allows rotation of the swivel plate 31 about a vertical axis. The bearing 42 may be recessed in the base plate 12 as in FIG. 6 so that the top surfaces of the step plate 30 and the swivel plate 31 are at approximately the same height. As an example of bearing 42 a ring of ball bearings captured between two race plates can be used. The base plate 12 may be divided in half along a hinge line 28 connected by a hinge 26 for compact folding. It may further comprise a handle 29 on each half for convenient carrying of the folded device. The handles 29 may be on the ends of the base plate 12, as shown, or on other parts of the edge. [0016] FIGS. 1 and 3 show a swiveled position 44 of the swivel plate 31 that occurs during a batter&#39;s swing. The swivel range is limited by swivel stops 18, 20, 22, 24 in the base plate. This prevents excess swiveling that overshoots the desired running position and could injure a user&#39;s ankle or knee. Two stop pegs 19 are inserted in a selected two of the stop holes 18, 20, 22, 24 depending on right or left-handed use. For a right-handed batter, swivel stop holes 18 and 20 are pegged. The peg in hole 18 stops the swivel plate 31 in alignment with the step plate 30 for the address stance. The peg in hole 20 stops the swivel during the swing. Swivel stop 20 provides a predetermined swivel angle such as 40 degrees. Optionally, a series of stop holes 20 (not shown) or another adjustable stop means (not shown) can be provided so the user can select a swivel angle within a range such as 20-90 degrees, for both hitting and bunting practice. [0017] The step plate 30 is adjustably mounted so users know where and how to begin their address stance. This prevents them from starting with their feet too far apart. A series of stance width adjustment holes 16 may be provided on the base plate 12. The step plate 30 may have a bottom surface with mounting pegs 17 extending downward for insertion into selected adjustment holes 16 as in FIG. 5. This allows the step plate 30 to be mounted on the base plate in a position that provides a natural stance for the user, such as approximately shoulder width apart from the swivel plate 31. [0018] The length of the baseplate(s) may be any selected length, with both halves being of equal or of unequal length as measured from the hinges. FIG. 7 shows a version of this device with a base 12 with one half that is larger in the forward direction. This extension provides extra space upon which the lead foot can step during the swing, as shown by footprints 46. The base may be asymmetric about the hinge 28, as shown in FIG. 7. Two handles 29 can be provided as shown that are equidistant from the hinge-line 28 at approximately a balance point when the base is folded. This brings the handles together in the folded position of the base for easy carrying, so that a latch is not needed to maintain the folded position. FIG. 7 shows a right-handed configuration 48 and left-handed configuration 50 of the device relative to a home plate 52. [0019] To use this device a user puts her back foot, which is the foot furthest from the pitcher into the swivel plate 31 up to the toe stop 36. Then she adjusts the toe strap 38 across the foot, and adjusts the ankle strap 39 over the foot and around the ankle. This retains the foot on the swivel plate 31 while allowing the heel to rise during the swing. The user puts her lead foot on the step plate 30 with her toe against the toe stop 36 and the leading side of the foot against a foot guard 34. The user is now standing on the two plates with her feet aligned with each other as shown by footprints 46 of FIG. 7. [0020] The user takes an address stance for swinging a bat at a pitched ball. The user steps forward towards the pitch, shifts body weight toward the pitch, lifts the back heel, and twists hips and shoulders toward the pitch, causing the swivel plate 31 to turn to its stop. Proper foot alignment is taught by placing one foot on the stepping plate 30 and one foot on the swivel plate 31. The user places each foot forward to the respective toe stop 36. This teaches the user to align the feet evenly. The front foot is placed against the forward-most foot guard so the foot is perpendicular to the pitch. The user&#39;s back foot is strapped on to the swivel plate with a toe strap across the toe area and an ankle strap around the ankle. The proper address stance width is important so the user does not overstep the swing. Stance width is set by adjusting the stepping plate 31 to the natural stance of the user by mounting the stepping plate pegs 17 in a selected pair of holes 16. [0021] Once the user has proper placement of her feet on the stepping plate 30 and the swivel plate 31, she is ready to begin her swing. The user will step over the foot guard 34 on the stepping plate 30, causing her weight to shift forward toward the ball. This will happen naturally when she steps, since the base plate 12 is lower than the stepping plate. It is important for the user to learn to step forward and not to slide the front foot forward, in order to ensure proper weight shift to the front leg. The foot guard 34 requires the user to lift the front foot a predetermined distance to clear the foot guard 34, thus training the user not to slide the foot. The base can be made long enough to receive the lead foot after it steps forward off of the stepping plate. The user&#39;s back foot stays against the toe stop 36. The heel of the back foot is raised, shifting weight to the ball of the foot as the user turns the foot and the swivel plate 31. [0022] This device is designed for practical manufacture. All plates 12, 30, and 31 can be fabricated from standard flat stock material using conventional machine tools or woodworking tools and methods, or they can be molded or otherwise formed. The step plate 30 and the swivel plate 31 can be formed in the same mold, including foot guards 34 on both plates, to reduce tooling cost. The materials for the construction of the various structural members of the device may be plastic, wood, metal, fiberglass, or other material having the required strength and preferably lightweight for easy portability. The peg holes 16, 18, 20, 22, 24 in the base plate may be lined with sleeves (not shown) to enable the pegs to be removed and replaced repeatedly without damaging the base plate 12. [0023] Holders for the anchors 15 may be provided on the base plate 12. For example, depressions 13 can be provided in the base 12 as shown in FIGS. 1, 3, and 4 to frictionally grip and hold the anchors in a stored position. Spring clips or other known holders can also be used. The anchors may have loops 41 as shown in FIG. 2 for easy manual pulling of the anchors from the ground. In this case, the anchors can be stored on the toe strap 38, without need for other holders. [0024] The step plate 30 has two lateral adjustment pegs 17 on the bottom, a non-skid upper surface 32, a toe stop 36, and a raised foot guard 34 on each side. One foot guard 34 is used for right-handed hitters and the other is used for left-handed hitters. To convert between right and left-handed hitters the step plate 30 is lifted from the base 12, rotated 180 degrees, and reset in the adjustment holes 16. [0025] The swivel plate 31 has a toe stop 31 with holes 40 for attaching the ankle strap 39. The toe strap 38 can be attached to the swivel plate as shown. Optionally two foot guards 34 can be provided on the swivel plate 31 as on the step plate 30 to prevent the back foot from slipping off the swivel plate 31. In this case, the toe strap 38 can be attached to the foot guards. To convert the swivel plate 31 between right-handed and left-handed hitters, the stop pegs 19 are removed, and the swivel plate is rotated 180 degrees, then the stop pegs 19 are placed into stop holes 18 and 20 for right-handed hitters or holes 22 and 24 for left-hand hitters. Optionally, the stop pegs 19 may be provided in the form of captured spring-loaded buttons in all of the stop holes 18, 20, 22, 24, that toggle between an extended and retracted position. [0026] The toe and ankle straps 38, 39 may be made of leather, fabric, plastic, or other appropriate material. The two ends of each strap should have the capability of being joined together and loosened to facilitate insertion and removal of the foot. The clasp for the straps may be a buckle, VELCRO brand fastener, cinch strap with ring, quick release buckle or simply a tie or some other appropriate clasp. The ankle strap 39 may or may not be crossed over the top of the foot. [0027] While various embodiments of the present invention have been shown and described herein, it will be obvious that such embodiments are provided by way of example only. Numerous variations, changes and substitutions may be made without departing from the invention herein. Accordingly, it is intended that the invention be limited only by the spirit and scope of the appended claims.

Summary: A device for practicing an address stance and ball-hitting motion in a sport such as softball. A batter stands on a step plate ( 30 ) and a swivel plate ( 31 ) mounted on a flat base ( 12 ). The plates have adjustable separation, and align the user&#39;s feet using toe stops ( 36 ). The step plate ( 30 ) has foot guards ( 34 ) that force the user to step towards the pitch. The swivel plate ( 31 ) rotates about a vertical axis, and has foot-retaining straps ( 38, 39 ) that allow the heel to lift. Swivel stops ( 18, 20 ) limit the rotation range between address alignment and a safe maximum swivel. The user learns to step toward the pitch and swivel the back foot while swinging the bat, turning the body, and shifting weight toward the pitch. The foot plates ( 30, 31 ) are reversible on the base ( 12 ) for right or left-handed use.

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Summarize: FIELD OF THE INVENTION This invention relates generally to devices for use as an amusement or during physical exercise, and more specifically to devices for wheel guiding and methods for controlling wheel movement thereof. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION In the past, various distractions have been available for people seeking an amusement or wanting to exercise and maintain a degree of less boredom. For example, head set radios and CD players are both commonly used by walkers and joggers, and free these people from the routine involved in their exercise. People commonly play games such as football, baseball, tennis and racquetball for physical exercise. Currently, most joggers, walkers and runners do not include games during their activity. As a result, motivation for performing their activity is weakened. People, rather than going along paths may use relatively expensive exercise machines. It is desirable to have less expensive devices for exercise purposes that will engage the interest of people. A portable exercise device that can be adjusted for use by children or adults of various heights is also desirable. In addition, people do not take advantage of other possibilities such as improving their hand and eye coordination, while continuing to maintain their physical activity. While sports activities provide the advantage of hand and eye coordination, they also require a level of skill that reduces the desirability of some people to pursue those sports. Therefore, there is a need for a product that can amuse people and can help people with lower degrees of skill and the desire to exercise without using exercise machines to do so and develop their motor skills. For many people, exercise is a boring activity that becomes a task rather than being fun. Again, a device that provides the ability to engage people in mentally challenging activities, provide fun and promote physical activity would be of great benefit to many people. Chasing a wheel provides such an activity. For the foregoing reasons, there is a need to provide devices for wheel guiding and methods for controlling wheel movement thereof. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION Accordingly, it is an object of this invention to provide improved devices for wheel guiding. It is a further object of this invention to provide improving devices for wheel guiding that are adjustable in dimension for use by people of different heights. It is a further object of this invention to provide improving methods for controlling wheel movement with wheel-guiding devices. PREFERRED EMBODIMENTS OF THE INVENTION In accordance with one embodiment of this invention, a wheel-guiding device comprises in combination a handle and a U-shaped member connected to the handle for guiding motion of a wheel. The U-shaped member is preferably in the form of a U-shaped frame. The handle has an extension portion for adjusting the length of the wheel-guiding device. The handle is at an angle to a plane of the U-shaped member. The handle is at a right angle to a plane of the U-shaped frame. The wheel-guiding device further comprises a wheel coupled to the U-shaped member to control movement of the wheel. The wheel has a rim portion and an opening located within the rim portion. In accordance with a second embodiment of this invention, a method of controlling movement of a wheel comprises providing a handle and a U-shaped member connected to the handle; and contacting a portion of the wheel with the U-shaped member for guiding motion of the wheel. The method further comprises the step of pushing an outer surface of the wheel with a portion of the U-shaped member to cause rotation and directional motion of the wheel. The method further comprises the step of surrounding the wheel with the U-shaped member for allowing free directional motion of the wheel. The method further comprises the steps of providing a hollow wheel; turning the handle to cause the U-shaped member to turn; inserting a portion of the U-shaped member inside the hollow wheel; and pushing the outer surface of the hollow wheel with a portion of the U-shaped member that is outside of the hollow wheel. In accordance with a third embodiment of this invention, a method of controlling movement of a wheel comprises providing a handle and a U-shaped member connected to the handle; and contacting a portion of the wheel with the U-shaped member for guiding motion of the wheel. The method further comprises the steps of providing a hollow wheel; pushing an inner surface of the hollow wheel with a portion of the U-shaped member to cause rotation and directional motion of the hollow wheel. The method further comprises the steps of providing a hollow wheel; turning the handle to cause the U-shaped member to turn; and inserting the U-shaped member inside the hollow wheel. The method further comprises the step of looping a portion of the U-shaped member around the hollow wheel so that an inner portion of the U-shaped member remains inside the hollow wheel for pushing the inner surface of the hollow wheel. In accordance with a fourth embodiment of this invention, a method of controlling movement of a wheel comprises providing a handle and a U-shaped member connected to the handle; and contacting a portion of the wheel with the U-shaped member for guiding motion of the wheel. The method further comprises the step of pulling on a portion of an outer surface of the wheel with a portion of the U-shaped member to cease wheel rotation. The method further comprises the steps of turning the handle to cause the U-shaped member to turn; and surrounding the wheel with the U-shaped member to both stop and pull the wheel. The method further comprises providing a hollow wheel; turning the handle to cause the U-shaped member to turn; inserting a portion of the U-shaped member inside the wheel; contacting a portion of an inner surface of the hollow wheel with the portion of the U-shaped member; and lifting the hollow wheel with the portion of the U-shaped member. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a perspective view of a wheel-guiding device and a hollow wheel where movement of the hollow wheel is provided by a U-shaped frame of the wheel-guiding device; FIG. 2 is a cross-section through 2 — 2 of a handle of the wheel-guiding device of FIG. 1 ; FIG. 3 is a downward view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1, showing potential motion directions of the hollow wheel on use of the wheel-guiding device; FIG. 4 is a perspective view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where the U-shaped frame is inside the hollow wheel and contacts an inner surface of the hollow wheel to provide movement; FIG. 5 is a perspective view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where a member of the U-shaped frame is in contact with an outer surface of the hollow wheel to provide movement; FIG. 6 is a perspective view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where a member of the U-shaped frame is inside the hollow wheel and a member of the U-shaped frame is in contact with an inner surface of the hollow wheel to provide movement; FIG. 7 is a perspective view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where the hollow wheel is stopped from moving by the U-shaped frame of the wheel-guiding device of FIG. 1 ; FIG. 8 is a downward view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where the hollow wheel is stopped from moving by the U-shaped frame of the wheel-guiding device of FIG. 1 ; and FIG. 9 is a perspective view of the wheel-guiding device and the hollow wheel of FIG. 1 where a member of the U-shaped frame contacts the inner surface of the hollow wheel and the handle is raised to stop movement by lifting up the hollow wheel; DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION Referring to FIGS. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 9 a wheel-guiding device 10 comprises a U-shaped frame 26 connected to a handle 22. The U-shaped frame 26 comprises a first member 28 essentially perpendicular to and adjacent to the handle 22 to form the first part of the U-shape. A second member 30 is adjacent to and co-planar with the first member 28, forming the second part of the U-shape. A third member 32 is adjacent to the second member 30 and co-planar with the first and second members 28, 30, forming the third part of the U-shape. While the length of the U-shape member 26 can be varied, in this embodiment a total length of about two feet is preferable. According to FIG. 1, the handle 22 is at right angles to the U-shaped frame 26. However, the handle 22 may also be at a more acute or obtuse angle to the plane of the U-shaped frame 26. The term “essentially perpendicular” means that the handle 22 is at a right, acute or obtuse angle to the plane of the U-shaped frame 26, but not co-planar with U-shaped frame 26. In FIGS. 1 and 2, in this embodiment, the handle 22 is extendable with an upper portion 20 of the handle 22 at an open end of the upper portion 20 of the handle 22 to allow for adjustment of the overall handle length for people of varying height. The upper portion 20 of the handle 22 has a moveable length adjustor 24 ( FIG. 2 ) to stop the handle 22 at the appropriate length for the height of the person intending to use the wheel-guiding device 10. In addition, the upper portion 20 of the handle 22 has a knob 18 ( FIGS. 1 and 2 ) that fits tightly over a closed end of the upper portion 20 of the handle 22 for gripping the wheel-guiding device 10. Therefore, the wheel-guiding device 10 is suitable for use by children and adults. Referring to FIGS. 1 and 3, a hollow wheel 12 is shown surrounded by the U-shaped frame 26 between the frame members 28, 30 and 32. The diameter of the hollow wheel 12 may vary and is preferably about 1 foot in this embodiment. The hollow wheel 12 has an outer surface 14 and an inner surface 16. The hollow wheel 12 is caused to rotate in a forward motion by pushing the U-shaped frame 26 against the outer surface 14 of the hollow wheel 12 ( FIG. 3 ). A person then continues to follow the motion of the hollow wheel 12 and apply a pushing force to continue its rotation. FIG. 3 indicates potential directions of motion of the hollow wheel 12 when a member of the U-shaped frame 26 pushes the hollow wheel 12 on the outer surface 14 of the hollow wheel 12. The directions shown in FIG. 3 include straight, left, right or U-turns. In addition, circles can be made. These changes in motion are accomplished by manipulation of the hollow wheel 12 with the wheel-guiding device 10 on various parts of the hollow wheel 12, and by altering the angle at which the wheel-guiding device 10 meets the hollow wheel 12. The faster the wheel-guide device is used by following the hollow wheel 12, the quicker the hollow wheel 12 moves, increasing the rate of physical exercise. The wheel-guiding device 10 provides challenges for manipulation of the hollow wheel 12, while improving eye and hand co-ordination skills. Referring to FIGS. 4, 5 and 6, alternative methods of manipulating the hollow wheel 12 illustrate how contact between a member of the U-shaped frame 26 and the outer surface 14 or the inner surface 16 of the hollow wheel 12 results in movement of the hollow wheel 12. In FIG. 4, the contact is between the first member 28 and the inner surface 16. In FIG. 5 the contact is between the first member 28 and the outer surface 14, and in FIG. 6 the contact is between the second member 30 and the inner surface 16. A pushing force of the handle 22 causes motion of the hollow wheel 12. For these embodiments, as shown in FIGS. 4, 5 and 6 contact is maintained between the hollow wheel 12 and the wheel-guiding device 10 during use, rather than allowing the hollow wheel 12 to move freely. An alternative embodiment of FIG. 4 allows for contact of the first member 28 at an edge of the inner surface 16 of the hollow wheel 12, rather than having the U-shaped frame 26 fully within the interior surface 16 of the hollow wheel 12. Similarly, an alternative embodiment of FIG. 5 allows for contact of the first member 28 at an outer edge 16 of the hollow wheel 12. In each case, the first member 28 ( FIGS. 4 and 5 ) can be withdrawn from the edge of the inner surface 16 after each pushing motion, allowing the hollow wheel 12 to move freely. Referring to FIGS. 7 and 8 motion of the hollow wheel 12 is stopped by contacting the outer surface 14 of the hollow wheel 12 with the second member 30 of the U-shaped frame 26. Greater control of the stopping motion is possible by contacting and surrounding the hollow wheel 12 between the members 28, 30 and 32 of the U-shaped frame 26. Other methods of contact between the outer surface 14 of the hollow wheel 12 and the wheel-guiding device 10 for stopping motion of the hollow wheel 12 are possible. In another embodiment of a method for stopping the hollow wheel 12, FIG. 9 illustrates the member 32 of the U-shaped frame 26 hooking the hollow wheel on the inner surface 16 of the hollow wheel 12, which is lifted by the upward motion of the handle 22 of the wheel-guiding device 10. Other methods of contact between the inner surface 16 of the hollow wheel 12 and the wheel-guiding device 10 for stopping motion of the hollow wheel 12 are possible. In summary, the present invention is directed to a wheel-guiding device. A number of embodiments showing methods of controlling motion in various directions and stopping motion of the hollow wheel with wheel-guiding devices are described. While the invention has been particularly shown and described with reference to preferred embodiments thereof, it will be understood by those skilled in the art that the foregoing and other changes in form and details may be made therein without departing from the spirit and scope of the invention. For example, there are alternative methods by which the telescoping effect can be accomplished. The handle can be of fixed length and the wheel-guiding device would then be available in different fixed lengths. The materials of construction of the wheel-guiding device may be metals or plastics. The hollow wheel and the knob may be made of plastics or rubbers. Plastic materials may include those, which glow in the dark as a safety precaution. A small light may be attached to the wheel-guiding device as a safety precaution. Dimensions of components of the U-shaped frame may be altered to accommodate different hollow wheels. The methods of causing hollow wheels to move may differ. Hollow wheels may be replaced by solid wheels or other essentially round structures.

Summary: A wheel-guiding device comprises a handle connected to a member of a U-shaped member and the handle is preferably essentially perpendicular to a plane of the U-shaped member for guiding the motion of a preferably wheel. The handle is extendable for adjusting the length of the wheel-guiding device. The wheel&#39;s motion is controlled with the wheel-guiding device by engaging the U-shaped member and pushing on the wheel with the wheel-guiding device causing the wheel to both rotate and move in various directions or to stop movement of the wheel.

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Summarize: Background To implement a changing and highly technical tax code, IRS publishes approximately 400 tax forms and accompanying instructions each year. More detailed guidance is provided in approximately 100 different publications. Frequent changes to the tax laws necessitate revisions to both forms and publications. The development and revision of tax forms and their accompanying instructions and publications are the responsibility of IRS’ Tax Forms and Publications Division. This division is made up of two branches, the Forms Branch and the Publications Branch. Tax forms and instructions are written by tax law specialists in the Forms Branch. Proposed new forms are reviewed by IRS’ Tax Forms Coordinating Committee (TFCC), which represents all major organizational units in IRS. TFCC provides a forum for all key IRS functions to help ensure that forms meet the overall needs of the agency without placing excessive burden on taxpayers. All new forms and major revisions to existing forms must be approved by TFCC. IRS’ Chief Counsel must also approve the forms to ensure their technical accuracy and consistency with laws and regulations. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is responsible for reviewing each tax form once every 3 years. The purpose of OMB’s review is to assess IRS’ compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. Among other things, this law compels OMB to evaluate the extent of burden imposed by IRS forms and to ensure that the federal paperwork burden for individuals is minimized. As a consequence, all new forms and major revisions to existing forms must also be reviewed by OMB. Tax law specialists in the Publications Branch write and revise publications. Some publications are designed to accompany specific forms, while others provide general information relating to a variety of forms. Because publications supplement information on forms and instructions, they are not subject to TFCC review or OMB approval. Publications are also periodically revised to reflect changes to the tax laws or forms. Each year, some publications are substantively revised through an intensive review by a team that includes tax law specialists, writer-editors, and technical reviewers associated with the publication’s subject matter. These publications are subjectively selected on the basis of circulation and the need for text revision. The objective of this revision is to make a major improvement in the quality and usefulness of the publication. In 1978, we issued a report citing the tension between IRS’ conflicting responsibilities to develop forms that are technically accurate, yet clear and readable. In that report, we noted that writer-editors and graphic experts played a limited role in the development of only a few forms and that, as a result, technical accuracy was favored at the expense of clarity. While acknowledging the importance of being accurate, we reported that the readability of these documents needed improvement. Our report recommended that IRS institutionalize a broader mix of writing and graphics design experts in a continuous review of forms and instructions. Since then, IRS has made greater use of its writer-editors and included more graphics in its forms and publications. Objectives, Scope, and Methodology Our objectives were to (1) evaluate IRS’ forms and publications development and revision process, (2) identify IRS’ efforts to improve this process, and (3) identify IRS’ initiatives to increase involvement of taxpayers in this process. To assess IRS’ process for developing and revising forms and publications, we examined the agency’s written procedures and discussed them with representatives from IRS’ Tax Forms and Publications Division, the unit with primary responsibility for issuing these documents. We also selected four forms and two publications and tracked their progress through the development and revision phase. We included forms and publications used by individuals and businesses as well as newly created forms and existing forms undergoing revision. To verify IRS’ written procedures and information obtained from IRS officials, we identified the actual steps taken in producing these documents and compared these activities to established procedures. To evaluate the reasonableness of IRS’ process for developing and revising forms and publications, we considered whether its procedures provided for clear lines of responsibility and accountability, specific timeframes, adequate management oversight, sufficient opportunities to evaluate suggestions from internal and external sources, and appropriate strategies for coping with sudden tax law changes. We also interviewed IRS officials involved in preparing these documents and asked them to discuss the development and revision process. To identify IRS’ efforts to improve the process and to increase taxpayers’ involvement in it, we interviewed IRS officials. In addition, we met with OMB officials to discuss OMB’s role in reviewing tax forms for compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. We also met with representatives from external professional organizations, which are concerned with the clarity and accuracy of IRS forms and publications. Our discussions with these groups focused on their perceptions of IRS’ willingness to hear their views and to maintain a professional dialogue on matters affecting IRS forms and publications. Appendix I lists these organizations. We also discussed agency initiatives to improve the clarity of tax forms and publications with various IRS officials involved in managing these activities. We did our work at IRS’ National Office in Washington, D.C., from August 1993 to April 1994 in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. We presented a draft version of this report to appropriate IRS officials including the Chief of Strategic Planning and Communications and the Director of the Tax Forms and Publications Division and obtained oral comments from them on October 25, 1994. IRS’ comments and our evaluation are on page 11 of this report. IRS Faces Continuous Challenge in Keeping Forms and Publications Accurate and Readable IRS’ forms and publications are based on a complex and frequently changing tax code. Since 1980, Internal Revenue Code sections have been amended more than 100 times, resulting in numerous modifications to existing forms and the development of nearly 100 new ones. This combination presents a great challenge to IRS, which is expected to issue documents that are not only technically accurate but readable. IRS is responsible for responding to changes in the tax law by modifying forms and publications and issuing forms on a timely basis. In addition to revisions caused by changes in tax law, IRS reviews all forms for possible revision on a periodic basis. Many forms, such as the Form 1040, “U.S. Individual Income Tax Return,” are for use during a particular tax year and must be updated annually. Other forms, such as the Form 709, “United States Gift (and Generation Skipping Transfer) Tax Return,” may have an extended period of use. IRS automatically considers all forms for revision every 3 years before sending them to OMB for review under the Paperwork Reduction Act. According to IRS officials, the agency currently publishes approximately 400 forms of which about 80 percent are revised each year. Factors beyond IRS’ control may complicate its ability to provide clear forms and publications. Its role as a data gatherer for research purposes may have a direct bearing on form clarity. Some forms may include lines requesting information unrelated to computation of the tax. This information may be gathered for valid statistical or research purposes, but the information may have no bearing on tax liability. These lines may also be intended to aid an IRS examiner conducting an audit. Although these data collection efforts may bear no relationship to tax liability and may actually increase taxpayer burden, they may also serve valuable purposes justifying their presence. In addition, the varying literacy levels of taxpayers, the many forms and publications and their relationships to each other, and the sheer number of annual changes, even those adopted for the sake of clarity, can further contribute to general confusion among taxpayers. Components of IRS’ Process for Developing and Revising Forms and Publications Appear Reasonable We found that IRS’ process for developing new forms and publications and revising existing ones is composed of reasonable components. For example, its procedures (1) establish well-defined roles and responsibilities for staff, clear lines of accountability, and specific timeframes for drafting these documents and (2) ensure sufficient management oversight. In addition, the procedures provide steps to accommodate the passage of legislation late in the calendar year. IRS officials involved in this process identified no major problems with agency procedures that would hamper their ability to create and revise forms and publications, and the officials were generally satisfied with the procedures. Representatives from the professional organizations we interviewed also were generally satisfied with IRS’ process. Our tracking of four forms and two publications also indicated that IRS’ procedures were followed and proved reasonable. IRS has taken steps to build greater readability into its development and revision process since we issued our prior report in 1978. Greater use is now being made of writer-editors. While writer-editors were rarely used at the time of our previous report, they now play an integral role in simplifying language and assisting in the development of suitable graphic presentations intended to enhance readers’ understanding. As part of its annual revisions process, IRS obtains suggestions for improving both the accuracy and clarity of its forms and publications from a variety of internal and external sources such as organizations representing tax professionals and tax preparers, taxpayers, and employees. All suggestions are to be referred to an appropriate tax law specialist for consideration during a document’s next scheduled revision. IRS has established an ongoing dialogue with some of these organizations and addresses many of their concerns during meetings or through written responses. Some of these organizations, such as the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, annually submit written suggestions to IRS. Others, such as the National Association of Enrolled Agents, prefer to provide occasional suggestions on an as-needed basis. These groups sometimes hold conflicting opinions, and IRS must balance their views along with many other factors in making revisions. Although no organization has all of its suggestions implemented, most of the ones we spoke with expressed satisfaction with IRS’ accessibility and the process itself. IRS Efforts to Improve Forms and Publications Continue IRS recognizes that more efforts need to be devoted to enhancing readability, and the agency is taking steps consistent with its mission of improving customer service and informing and educating taxpayers. The agency’s new Business Master Plan for 1995 through 2001 has identified maximizing customer satisfaction and reducing taxpayer burden as one of its objectives. One of the steps IRS plans to take to achieve this objective is the establishment of form simplification teams. Comprised of IRS field personnel, these teams will be charged with performing in-depth reviews of selected forms and simplifying at least four each year. This effort is to be modelled after an earlier forms improvement project that IRS officials considered successful. Simplified versions of approximately 25 high-volume forms were drafted by field personnel during that previous project. IRS officials expect that these new teams will meet with similar success. A major effort stems from IRS’ realization that taxpayers have difficulty understanding its forms and publications, even when the reading level of these documents is relatively low. IRS’ Compliance Research Division is studying factors influencing taxpayer’s comprehension of tax documents. IRS has concentrated its efforts on how the following 10 factors affect reader comprehension: readability, if-then statements, references to other documents, tax vocabulary, abbreviations and acronyms, arithmetic complexity, headings, text, negative terminology, and graphic usage. On the basis of these factors, selected passages of the Form 1040 and Form 1040EZ instructions were rewritten and tested to see if comprehension improved. IRS is now validating its methodology for this study. Ultimately, IRS hopes to improve taxpayer comprehension by using the study’s findings to develop training for staff involved in writing forms and publications. Another development that may improve the quality of the forms and publications is the possible reorganization of the Tax Forms and Publications Division. Currently under consideration, this reorganization would result in tax law specialists’ becoming responsible for preparing related forms and publications. Presently, Forms Branch staff are not involved in the development of publications. Similarly, Publications Branch staff do not prepare forms. According to IRS officials, if implemented, the reorganization would merge staff into two new branches, one addressing individual tax issues and the other addressing business tax issues. Tax law specialists would be assigned one or more forms and accompanying publications. IRS is considering whether such a reorganization would make forms and publications more readable for taxpayers by improving staff expertise and achieving greater consistency in language between the forms and publications among other things. According to IRS officials, the decision on this reorganization has been postponed pending completion of IRS’ broader internal review of its processes. IRS Needs Data to Better Identify Concerns of Individual Taxpayers While IRS gets information on the clarity of forms and publications for individual taxpayers from several sources, IRS officials acknowledge that there is not a systematic way for obtaining input from the many individual taxpayers not represented by particular interest groups or associations. These officials told us that IRS has not met with the same success in obtaining the views of individual taxpayers as it has attained among the business community and organizations of tax professionals, but the agency has several efforts underway that may help to improve this situation. To obtain the views of individual taxpayers on such matters as the clarity of forms and publications, IRS solicits written comments from taxpayers, holds periodic town meetings where taxpayers can discuss their concerns, distributes customer satisfaction surveys, and conducts focus group sessions on selected forms revisions. However, IRS officials said that these sources generally do not yield many substantive insights as to what specifically confuses individual taxpayers. IRS officials have told us that the concerns expressed by individuals in these forums have not presented a precise view as to what individuals find wrong with the forms. According to these officials, they also do not generally result in useful suggestions for revising the forms. However, the officials said that while focus groups generally provide better results, the groups are costly to conduct. Because of this cost factor, only a limited number of focus groups are held. Also, focus groups do not cover a broad base of taxpayers and only address one or two forms each year. Nonetheless, officials told us that IRS hopes to find new ways of identifying the concerns of individuals. In an effort to better capture these concerns, the Publications Branch will resume its annual interviews with the agency’s telephone assistors, who respond to questions from taxpayers on the toll-free telephone system. Conducted at the end of the filing season to discuss commonly asked questions and points of confusion, these interviews were previously used to identify and clarify passages in forms and publications for future revisions. Publications Branch staff claim that these interviews yielded hundreds of specific suggestions that were ultimately adopted. These interviews were discontinued several years ago due to budgetary constraints. IRS recently decided to resume these interviews in the spring of 1995, after the next filing season. This approach may be one way to tap into existing sources of information. IRS plans to introduce an additional new feature to its toll-free telephone system in January 1995. A new line will be dedicated to taxpayers who wish to leave recorded messages with the agency. Also, the annual “Message from the Commissioner,” which will be included in the 1994 tax packages, will invite taxpayers to call IRS with their ideas for making the forms simpler. IRS hopes these actions will make it easier for taxpayers to comment on forms and publications and will generate more suggestions. IRS may already possess critical information that could provide insights into what areas taxpayers are specifically having difficulty in understanding. For example, IRS’ existing toll-free telephone system may be a source of information as to what taxpayers find confusing. Tracking specific questions at routine intervals may identify specific sections of forms and publications that taxpayers have difficulty understanding. IRS does limited monitoring of the nature of these calls but information captured is too broad to provide specific guidance for form revision. At least one state relies on call-tracking as an indicator that certain passages in its state tax forms are confusing and uses this information to make appropriate changes to these documents. Taxpayers could also benefit from improved use of observations from IRS employees. One potential source of information may be errors made by taxpayers and discovered by IRS during audits. While some errors are inevitable and others may be indicators of intentional noncompliance, some frequently made errors may point to ambiguities in forms and publications, leaving the taxpayer open to an honest mistake. Another opportunity to simplify forms and publications frequently used by individual taxpayers may reside in the agency’s annual process for proposing legislative changes to Congress. Each year the Department of the Treasury asks IRS to offer suggestions to improve tax administration that need legislative approval to be implemented. The Treasury Department’s ultimate objective is to provide Congress with a list of such proposals for its consideration. Simplification of tax forms is one area of tax administration that generates suggestions requiring legislative action. Tax law specialists told us that some forms contain line items or instructions required by law but no longer serving a useful purpose. Removing such line items and instructions could result in some simplified forms, but only could be accomplished by an act of Congress. However, this process has been perceived by some staff in various units, including the Tax Forms and Publications Division, as not productive. As suggestions are forwarded to officials at increasingly higher levels within IRS, then the Treasury Department, and finally at OMB (which must approve the document before it is submitted to Congress), suggested proposals are eliminated through this process. In recent years, few, if any, suggestions have been forwarded to Congress. IRS managers are presently studying ways of revising the process to make it more useful to the Treasury Department and Congress. If improved, this process may encourage greater staff participation and provide a vehicle for conveying simplification ideas, among others, to Congress. Conclusion Although it faces many challenges in developing and revising forms and publications, IRS has instituted a process for doing so that includes reasonable components and is seeking opportunities for improvement. While IRS has established a dialogue with organizations representing tax professionals, it has had difficulty in identifying and responding to the needs of individual taxpayers who are not represented by any particular organization. Because clear and understandable forms and publications help to promote voluntary compliance, readability is a continuous concern. Thus, IRS should continue to seek new ways of identifying what individual taxpayers find most difficult to understand. IRS should also explore the use of potentially helpful, but untapped, sources of information that may reveal points of taxpayer confusion and use existing information in new ways. Recommendation to the Commissioner of Internal Revenue We recommend that the Commissioner of Internal Revenue direct agency staff to make additional efforts to identify the specific concerns of individual taxpayers. Identifying these concerns may be accomplished in a variety of ways, including gathering information concerning the nature of taxpayer questions received through its toll-free telephone system and soliciting information from IRS field personnel including auditors, examiners, and customer-service representatives for the sole purpose of identifying common errors made by taxpayers that may be related to confusing passages in forms and publications. Agency Comments and Our Evaluation We provided a draft copy of this report to, and obtained oral comments from, appropriate IRS officials, including the Chief of Strategic Planning and Communications and the Director of the Tax Forms and Publications Division. These officials suggested several technical modifications that we incorporated in our final report. While they generally agreed with the facts contained in our report and the importance of identifying the specific needs of individual taxpayers, IRS officials did not think the recommendation we proposed was necessary. The officials stated that IRS is continuously seeking the views of individual taxpayers, receiving many employee suggestions to clarify forms and publications, and using available data to improve these documents. The officials noted that IRS has additional plans to enhance customer satisfaction with regard to forms and publications. For example, in response to a 1993 customer satisfaction survey, IRS intends to develop a learning, business, and communication strategy for making forms and instructions more readable. While acknowledging that improvement is always possible, the officials stated that its many current and planned efforts will meet taxpayer needs. We agree that IRS has made efforts to improve its forms and publications. For example, IRS’ efforts to identify factors influencing taxpayers’ comprehension of tax documents was a positive step. We also consider its future plans to dedicate a telephone line to messages from taxpayers and to resume interviewing telephone assistors to be positive steps. However, we continue to support the need for IRS to obtain more specific information about what individual taxpayers find most confusing about forms and publications. We believe that implementing our recommendation will further clarify forms and publications, thus benefitting individual taxpayers. We are sending copies of this report to other congressional committees, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Commissioner of Internal Revenue, and other interested parties. Major contributors to this report are listed in appendix II. If you or your staff have any questions concerning the report, please call me on (202) 512-9110. Organizations Contacted American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, Washington, D.C. American Payroll Association, New York American Society of Payroll Management, New York National Association of Enrolled Agents, Rockville, MD National Taxpayers Union, Washington, D.C. Tax Executives Institute, Washington, D.C. Major Contributors to This Report General Government Division, Washington, D.C. Chicago Regional Office Linda Schmeer, Evaluator Donald R. White, Evaluator The first copy of each GAO report and testimony is free. Additional copies are $2 each. Orders should be sent to the following address, accompanied by a check or money order made out to the Superintendent of Documents, when necessary. Orders for 100 or more copies to be mailed to a single address are discounted 25 percent. U.S. General Accounting Office P.O. Box 6015 Gaithersburg, MD 20884-6015 Room 1100 700 4th St. NW (corner of 4th and G Sts. NW) U.S. General Accounting Office Washington, DC Orders may also be placed by calling (202) 512-6000 or by using fax number (301) 258-4066, or TDD (301) 413-0006. Each day, GAO issues a list of newly available reports and testimony. To receive facsimile copies of the daily list or any list from the past 30 days, please call (301) 258-4097 using a touchtone phone. A recorded menu will provide information on how to obtain these lists.

Summary: Pursuant to a congressional request, GAO provided information on the accuracy and clarity of the Internal Revenue Service's (IRS) forms and publications, focusing on: (1) the adequacy of the process IRS uses to revise its tax forms; (2) IRS efforts to improve this process; and (3) IRS efforts to increase taxpayer involvement in the process. GAO found that: (1) IRS efforts to provide taxpayers with accurate and easy-to-read tax forms have been hampered by increasingly complex tax codes, frequent tax code revisions, and taxpayers' reading ability; (2) the IRS process for developing and revising its tax forms and publications appears reasonable and provides clear lines of responsibility and accountability, specific timeframes, adequate management oversight, sufficient opportunities to evaluate suggestions from internal and external sources, and appropriate strategies for coping with sudden tax law changes; (3) IRS periodically reviews and revises its publications and tax forms so that accurate forms and publications are available to taxpayers for each filing season; (4) IRS considers comments from taxpayers and tax preparers, payroll professionals, accountants, and lawyers regarding clarity improvements; (5) IRS has initiated several special projects to study taxpayer comprehension problems and to further improve its forms and publications; (6) despite its ongoing commitment to improvement, IRS does not have a systematic way to identify the specific areas that cause individual taxpayer confusion; and (7) IRS needs to find ways to readily identify the specific concerns of individual taxpayers.

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Write a title and summarize: OF INTERCIRCUIT CONFLICTS. (a) Special Panel.--Section 46 of title 28, United States Code, is amended-- (1) by amending the section heading to read as follows: ``Sec. 46. Assignment of judges; panels; hearings; Intercircuit Court; quorum''; (2) in subsection (d)-- (A) by redesignating such subsection as subsection (e); and (B) by striking ``paragraph (c)'' and inserting ``subsections (c) and (d)''; and (3) by inserting after subsection (c) the following: ``(d)(1) The judges of the Courts of Appeals for the Ninth and Twelfth Circuits whose official duty stations are in the State of California shall constitute the Intercircuit California En Banc Court. The Intercircuit Court shall convene as necessary to resolve any conflict between a decision of the Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit and a decision of the Court of Appeals for the Twelfth Circuit that results or is likely to result in the imposition of inconsistent or otherwise nonuniform Federal law within the State of California. ``(2) An appeal or other proceeding shall be reheard by the Intercircuit Court upon a majority vote of the judges of that court who are in regular active service. Any judge of the Intercircuit Court who is in regular active service may request a vote to determine whether a decision of the Court of Appeals of which that judge is a member should be ordered reheard by the Intercircuit Court. The appropriateness of rehearing by the Intercircuit Court may be suggested by a party, but a vote of the Intercircuit Court to order rehearing shall not be taken unless requested by a judge of the Intercircuit Court who is in regular active service and who is a member of the Court of Appeals in which the appeal or other proceeding is pending. ``(3) Rehearing by the Intercircuit Court shall not be favored and ordinarily shall be considered only when the failure to resolve a conflict described in paragraph (1) would be unusually burdensome to the administration of Federal law within the State of California. ``(4) The clerk of the Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit, and the clerk of the Court of Appeals for the Twelfth Circuit, shall, during alternate 2-year periods, serve as the clerk of the Intercircuit Court and shall provide such services as are needed by the Intercircuit Court.''. (b) Conforming Amendment.--The item relating to section 46 in the table of sections at the beginning of chapter 3 of title 28, United States Code, is amended to read as follows: ``46. Assignment of judges; panels; hearing; Intercircuit Court; quorum.''. SEC. 4. ASSIGNMENT AND SENIORITY OF JUDGES. (a) Active Service Judges.-- (1) New ninth circuit.--Each circuit judge in regular active service of the former ninth circuit whose official duty station on the day before the effective date of this Act is in Alaska, Idaho, Montana, Oregon, Washington, Hawaii, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Northern or Eastern District of California is assigned as a circuit judge of the new ninth circuit as of such effective date. (2) Twelfth circuit.--Each circuit judge in regular active service of the former ninth circuit whose official duty station on the day before the effective date of this Act is in Arizona, Nevada, or the Central or Southern District of California is assigned as a circuit judge of the twelfth circuit as of such effective date. (b) Senior Judges.--Each judge who is a senior judge of the former ninth circuit on the day before the effective date of this Act may elect to be assigned to the new ninth circuit or to the twelfth circuit and shall notify the Director of the Administrative Office of the United States Courts of such election. (c) Seniority.--The seniority of each judge-- (1) who is assigned under subsection (a), or (2) who elects to be assigned under subsection (b), shall run from the date of the commission of such judge as a judge of the former ninth circuit. SEC. 5. PENDING PROCEEDINGS. The following applies to any case in which, on the day before the effective date of this Act, an appeal or other proceeding has been filed with the former ninth circuit: (1) If the matter has been submitted for decision, further proceedings in respect of the matter shall be had in the same manner and with the same effect as if this Act had not been enacted. (2) If the matter has not been submitted for decision, the appeal or proceeding, together with the original papers, printed records, and record entries duly certified, shall, by appropriate orders, be transferred to the court to which it would have gone had this Act been in full force and effect at the time such appeal was taken or other proceeding commenced, and further proceedings in respect of the case shall be had in the same manner and with the same effect as if the appeal or other proceeding had been filed in such court. (3) A petition for rehearing or a petition for rehearing en banc in a matter decided before the effective date of this Act, or submitted before the effective date of this Act and decided on or after the effective date as provided in paragraph (1) of this section, shall be treated in the same manner and with the same effect as though this Act had not been enacted. If a petition for rehearing en banc is granted, the matter shall be reheard by a court comprised as though this Act had not been enacted. SEC. 6. TRANSITIONAL PROVISION. The new ninth circuit and the twelfth circuit shall be deemed to be a single circuit for purposes of sections 291(a) and 292(a) of title 28, United States Code, with respect to any judge serving in the former ninth circuit on the day before the effective date of this Act. SEC. 7. DEFINITIONS. As used in sections 4, 5, and 6-- (1) the term ``former ninth circuit'' means the ninth judicial circuit of the United States as in existence on the day before the effective date of this Act; (2) the term ``new ninth circuit'' means the ninth judicial circuit of the United States established by the amendment made by section 2(a)(2); and (3) the term ``twelfth circuit'' means the twelfth judicial circuit of the United States established by the amendment made by section 2(a)(3). SEC. 8. ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS. The court of appeals for the ninth circuit as constituted on the day before the effective date of this Act may take such administrative action as may be required to carry out this Act. Such court shall cease to exist for administrative purposes on July 1, 1997. SEC. 9. EFFECTIVE DATE. This Act and the amendments made by this Act shall take effect on October 1, 1994.

Title: Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals Reorganization Act of 1993 Summary: Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals Reorganization Act of 1993 - Divides the current U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit into the following two circuits: (1) the Ninth Circuit, composed of the States of Alaska, Idaho, Montana, Oregon, Washington, Hawaii, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Northern and Eastern Districts of California, consisting of 14 judges, and holding regular sessions in San Francisco, Portland, and Seattle; and (2) the Twelfth Circuit, composed of the States of Arizona, Nevada, and the Central and Southern Districts of California, consisting of 14 judges, and holding regular sessions in Los Angeles, Reno, and Phoenix. Designates the judges of the Courts of Appeals for the Ninth and Twelfth Circuits whose official duty stations are in California as the Intercircuit California En Banc Court which shall convene as necessary to resolve any conflict between decisions of the Courts of Appeals for the Ninth and Twelfth Circuits that results or is likely to result in the imposition of inconsistent or otherwise nonuniform Federal law within California. Establishes procedures regarding rehearings by, and service as the clerk of, the Intercircuit Court. Sets forth provisions regarding: (1) assignment and seniority of judges in the Ninth and Twelfth Circuits; (2) pending proceedings; and (3) transition. Makes this Act effective October 1, 1994.

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Summarize: A crew with Salt River Project of Arizona (SRP) works on replacing a pole on a sand and debris-covered street in the Belle Harbor neighborhood of the borough of Queens, New York, Monday, Nov.12, 2012,... (Associated Press) Giant drying blowers snake into a building in New York's Financial District, Monday, Nov. 12, 2012. Two weeks after Sandy hit, more than 75,000 people remained without power Monday in the most densely... (Associated Press) A Long Island Power Authority (LIPA) truck is seen in the Belle Harbor neighborhood of the borough of Queens, New York, Monday, Nov.12, 2012, in the wake of Superstorm Sandy. More than 70,000 customers... (Associated Press) A crew with Salt River Project of Arizona (SRP) works on replacing a pole in the Belle Harbor neighborhood of the borough of Queens, New York, Monday, Nov.12, 2012, in the wake of Superstorm Sandy. SRP... (Associated Press) "I'd tell them, get off your rear end and do your job," the 68-year-old Seaford resident said. Well, she would if she could get in touch with anyone. Over the last two weeks since she lost power from Superstorm Sandy, she says, "every time I called they hung up on me." While most utilities have restored electricity to nearly all their customers, LIPA still has tens of thousands of customers in the dark. The company said that the storm was worse than anyone could have imagined and that it didn't just damage outdoor electrical lines; it caused flooding that touched home and business breaker boxes. It acknowledged that an outdated computer system for keeping customers notified has added to people's frustration. But some say the government-run utility should have seen it coming. It was recently criticized in a withering state report for lax preparation ahead of last year's Hurricane Irene and for the 25-year-old computer system used to pinpoint outages and update customers. "It's antiquated. I think they're negligent," said Phil Glickman, a retired Wall Street executive from South Bellmore who waited 11 days to get electricity back. LIPA has restored power to more than 1.1 million homes and offices. About 19,000 customers were still waiting for the lights to come back early Tuesday. The utility says there also are some along Long Island's south shore and Rockaway Peninsula that had water damage to electrical panels and wiring, so their service can't be restored without an inspection and possibly repairs. At its peak, the storm knocked out power to 8.5 million customers in 10 states, with New York and New Jersey bearing the brunt. Those outages have been nearly erased, though Consolidated Edison, the chief utility in New York City, has cited problems similar to LIPA's, saying about 16,300 customers in flooded areas of Brooklyn, Queens and Staten Island can't get service until their internal electrical equipment is repaired, tested and certified. Niemiera, whose finished basement in Seaford flooded, said her house needs to be inspected and she can't get any answers. "I think LIPA should be broken up into small companies and it shouldn't be a monopoly anymore because this is every single time we have a disaster. And then they raise the rates. We're paying very high rates. We're paying high taxes, high electric. Everything," she said. LIPA, whose board is chosen by the governor and lawmakers, contracts with National Grid for service and maintenance. Last year, its board chose a new contractor, New Jersey's Public Service Enterprise Group, which will take over in 2014. Gov. Andrew Cuomo criticized the storm response of all New York utilities in the region, saying their management had failed consumers. Asked Monday about LIPA board vacancies he hasn't filled and whether he takes responsibility for what's happening there, Cuomo called the authority a holding company that became "an intergovernmental political organization." He said National Grid was the actual Long Island power provider, one of the monopolistic state-regulated utilities. "They're going to be held accountable," he said, citing lack of communication and preparation and even proposing they consider rebates instead of rate hikes. A state report criticized LIPA in June for poor customer communications after Irene last year and for insufficient tree trimming. The Department of Public Service noted major problems in telling customers estimated power-restoration times, faulting its computer system, which a consultant had found deficient back in 2006. LIPA acknowledged that customers aren't getting the information they need, partly because of the system, which it is updating. Authority officials said the new system will be operating next year. "It is a huge computer system. After Irene we immediately accelerated that process, and even at that it is still an 18-month to two-year process," LIPA's chief operating officer, Michael Hervey, said Monday. "We would have liked to have had it up and running for now, but it's just such a large magnitude computer system that it takes that long." Hervey said the company will be working with remaining customers over the next several weeks as they get their homes repaired. "They can't be safely re-energized from an electrical standpoint," he said. "We are ready to service those areas, but they are not ready to take it right now." John Bruckner, president of National Grid Long Island transmission and distribution, said he had about 15,000 people working on restoration, including 6,400 linemen from all over the U.S. and Canada. Matthew Cordaro, co-chairman of the Suffolk Legislature's LIPA Oversight Committee and a former utility executive, said Con Ed and Public Service Electric & Gas New Jersey did a good job responding to the storm, and LIPA didn't. While a storm of that magnitude would challenge any electricity provider, he said LIPA is probably one of the most poorly run utilities and has a "crazy" public-private organizational structure that's fraught with problems and raises questions of accountability. In New Jersey, post-Sandy recovery moved ahead, with Gov. Chris Christie announcing that the odd-even system of gas rationing would end starting Tuesday. The head of NJ Transit said a severely damaged rail line could be up and running more quickly than what had been estimated. Utility worker attacked on Long Island Posted: Tuesday, November 13, 2012 6:00 AM EST Updated: Tuesday, November 20, 2012 6:00 AM EST Police have made an arrest in an attack on a utility worker from Florida on Long Island. While it was originally reported that the man was attacked by an angry power customer, police say that is not the case. John Applewhite, 34, is recovering from a broken jaw. The Tampa-area man works for Lakeland Electric. He was on Long Island helping to restore power. He had gone to a restaurant in East Hempstead on Friday night after working a 16 hour day helping LIPA restore power after Sandy. Applewhite says a man in a black BMW drove up and asked about the power restoration. "He gave me no signs of anything aggressive. He was in a nice vehicle, dressed fairly nice from what I could tell," Applewhite says. The man then jumped out of his car. "Just as soon as I got within arm's reach of him, he decked me," Applewhite says. A co-worker rushed to help Applewhite. That man ended up with a bite wound on his hand from the attacker. Both out-of-state power workers were treated at Nassau Medical Center before heading back to Florida. Applewhite has a cracked cheekbone and was to have reconstructive surgery on his face. "I'm not gonna let it get me down, I enjoy what I do and I'm not gonna let one person spoil that for me, I enjoy helping people out," Applewhite says. Nassau County police say that's not exactly what happened. They announced the arrest of Thomas Libretto, 34, of Levittown in connection with the attack. Nassau County police say the dispute that ended in the attack began when Applewhite started urinating near Libretto's car, according to a report in Newsday.

Summary: Nearly 20,000 Long Island residents remained without power as of this morning, reports AP, and a utility worker has paid the price for people's frustration. An assailant got out of his car and sucker-punched John Applewhite as Applewhite headed into a restaurant after a 16-hour shift with the Long Island Power Authority, reports MyFoxNY. The 34-year-old suffered a broken jaw and cracked cheekbone and will need reconstructive surgery. A co-worker who jumped in to help ended up with a bite wound on his hand. Insult to injury: The pair live and work in Florida, but came north to help the LIPA in the wake of Hurricane Sandy. The assailant, who had asked about the power situation from his car in a seemingly pleasant way, got away. "Just as soon as I got within arm's reach of him, he decked me," Applewhite says.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Amendments Act of 2007''. SEC. 2. FINDINGS. (a) Findings.--Congress finds that-- (1) the Pick-Sloan Missouri River Basin program, authorized by section 9 of the Act of December 22, 1944 (commonly known as the ``Flood Control Act of 1944'') (58 Stat. 891), was intended to promote the general economic development of the United States; (2) the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project-- (A) is a major component of the Pick-Sloan Missouri River Basin program; and (B) contributes to the national economy; (3) the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project flooded the fertile bottom land of the Cheyenne River Sioux Reservation, which greatly damaged the economy and cultural resources of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe and caused the loss of many homes and communities of members of the Tribe; (4) Congress has provided compensation to several Indian tribes, including the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe, that border the Missouri River and suffered injury as a result of 1 or more of the Pick-Sloan projects; (5) on determining that the compensation paid to the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe was inadequate, Congress enacted the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2365), which created the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribal Recovery Trust Fund; and (6) that Act did not provide for additional compensation to members of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe that lost land as a result of the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project. (b) Purposes.--The purposes of this Act are-- (1) to provide that the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribal Recovery Trust Fund may be used to provide compensation to members of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe that lost land as a result of the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project; and (2) to provide for the capitalization of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribal Recovery Trust Fund. SEC. 3. CHEYENNE RIVER SIOUX TRIBE EQUITABLE COMPENSATION. (a) Findings and Purposes.--Section 102 of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2365) is amended-- (1) in subsection (a)(3), by striking subparagraphs (A) and (B) and inserting the following: ``(A) the United States did not justly or fairly compensate the Tribe and member landowners for the Oahe Dam and Reservation project, under which the United States acquired 104,492 acres of land of the Tribe and member landowners; and ``(B) the Tribe and member landowners should be adequately compensated for that land;''; and (2) in subsection (b)(1), by inserting ``and member landowners'' after ``Tribe'' each place it appears. (b) Definitions.--Section 103 of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2365) is amended-- (1) by redesignating paragraph (1) as paragraph (3) and moving the paragraph so as to appear after paragraph (2); and (2) by inserting before paragraph (2) the following: ``(1) Member landowner.--The term `member landowner' means a member of the Tribe (or an heir of such a member) that owned land (including land allotted under the Act of February 8, 1887 (24 Stat. 388, chapter 119)) located on the Cheyenne River Sioux Reservation that was acquired by the United States for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project.''. (c) Cheyenne River Sioux Tribal Recovery Trust Fund.--Section 104 of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2365) is amended-- (1) by striking subsection (b) and inserting the following: ``(b) Funding.--On the first day of the fiscal year beginning after the date of enactment of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Amendments Act of 2007 and on the first day of each of the following 4 fiscal years (referred to in this section as the `capitalization dates'), the Secretary of the Treasury shall deposit into the Fund, from amounts in the general fund of the Treasury-- ``(1) $58,144,591.60; and ``(2) an additional amount equal to the amount of interest that would have accrued if-- ``(A) the amount described in paragraph (1) had been-- ``(i) credited to the principal account as described in subsection (c)(2)(B)(i)(I) on the first day of the fiscal year beginning October 1, 2001; and ``(ii) invested as described in subsection (c)(2)(C) during the period beginning on the date described in clause (i) and ending on the last day of the fiscal year before the fiscal year in which that amount is deposited into the Fund; and ``(B) the interest that would have accrued under subparagraph (A) during the period described in subparagraph (A)(ii) had been-- ``(i) credited to the interest account under subsection (c)(2)(B)(ii); and ``(ii) invested during that period in accordance with subsection (c)(2)(D)(i).''; (2) by striking subsection (c) and inserting the following: ``(c) Investments.-- ``(1) Eligible obligations.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Secretary of the Treasury shall invest the Fund only in interest-bearing obligations of the United States issued directly to the Fund. ``(2) Investment requirements.-- ``(A) In general.--The Secretary of the Treasury shall invest the Fund in accordance with this paragraph. ``(B) Separate investments of principal and interest.-- ``(i) Principal account.--The amounts deposited into the Fund under subsection (b)(1) shall be-- ``(I) credited to a principal account within the Fund (referred to in this paragraph as the `principal account'); and ``(II) invested in accordance with subparagraph (C). ``(ii) Interest account.-- ``(I) In general.--The interest earned from investing amounts in the principal account shall be-- ``(aa) transferred to a separate interest account within the Fund (referred to in this paragraph as the `interest account'); and ``(bb) invested in accordance with subparagraph (D). ``(II) Crediting.--The interest earned from investing amounts in the interest account, and the amounts deposited into the Fund under subsection (b)(2), shall be credited to the interest account. ``(C) Investment of principal account.-- ``(i) Initial investment.--Amounts in the principal account shall be initially invested in eligible obligations with the shortest available maturity. ``(ii) Subsequent investments.-- ``(I) In general.--On the date on which the amount in the principal account is divisible into 3 substantially equal portions, each portion shall be invested in eligible obligations that are identical (except for transferability) to the next-issued publicly-issued Treasury obligations having a 2-year maturity, a 5-year maturity, and a 10-year maturity, respectively. ``(II) Maturity of obligations.--As each 2-year, 5-year, and 10-year eligible obligation under subclause (I) matures, the principal of the maturing eligible obligation shall be initially invested in accordance with clause (i) until the date on which the principal is reinvested substantially equally in the eligible obligations that are identical (except for transferability) to the next-issued publicly-issued Treasury obligations having 2-year, 5- year, and 10-year maturities. ``(iii) Discontinuation of issuance of obligations.--If the Department of the Treasury discontinues issuing to the public obligations having 2-year, 5-year, or 10-year maturities, the principal of any maturing eligible obligation shall be reinvested substantially equally in available eligible obligations that are identical (except for transferability) to the next-issued publicly-issued Treasury obligations with maturities of longer than 1 year. ``(D) Investment of interest account.-- ``(i) Before each capitalization date.--For purposes of subsection (b)(2)(B), amounts considered as if they were in the interest account of the Fund shall be invested in eligible obligations that are identical (except for transferability) to publicly-issued Treasury obligations that have maturities that coincide, to the greatest extent practicable, with the applicable capitalization date for the Fund. ``(ii) On and after each capitalization date.--On and after each capitalization date, amounts in the interest account shall be invested and reinvested in eligible obligations that are identical (except for transferability) to publicly-issued Treasury obligations that have maturities that coincide, to the greatest extent practicable, with the date on which the amounts will be withdrawn by the Secretary of the Treasury and transferred to the Secretary of the Interior for use in accordance with subsection (d). ``(E) Par purchase price.-- ``(i) In general.--To preserve in perpetuity the amount in the principal account, the purchase price of an eligible obligation purchased as an investment of the principal account shall not exceed the par value of the obligation. ``(ii) Treatment.--At the maturity of an eligible obligation described in clause (i), any discount from par in the purchase price of the eligible obligation shall be treated as interest paid at maturity. ``(F) Holding to maturity.--Eligible obligations purchased pursuant to this paragraph shall be held to their maturities. ``(3) Annual review of investment activities.--Not less frequently than once each calendar year, the Secretary of the Treasury shall review with the Tribe the results of the investment activities and financial status of the Fund during the preceding calendar year. ``(4) Modifications.-- ``(A) In general.--If the Secretary of the Treasury determines that investing the Fund in accordance with paragraph (2) is not practicable or would result in adverse consequences to the Fund, the Secretary of the Treasury shall modify the requirements to the least extent necessary, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury. ``(B) Consultation.--Before making a modification under subparagraph (A), the Secretary of the Treasury shall consult with the Tribe with respect to the modification.''; (3) in subsection (d), by striking paragraph (1) and inserting the following: ``(1) Withdrawal of interest.--Beginning on the first day of the fiscal year beginning after the date of enactment of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Amendments Act of 2007, and on the first day of each fiscal year thereafter, the Secretary of the Treasury shall withdraw and transfer all funds in the interest account of the Fund to the Secretary of the Interior for use in accordance with paragraph (2), to be available without fiscal year limitation.''; and (4) in subsection (f)-- (A) by redesignating paragraphs (3) and (4) as paragraphs (4) and (5), respectively; and (B) by inserting after paragraph (2) the following: ``(3) Member landowners.-- ``(A) Additional compensation.-- ``(i) In general.--Except as provided in clause (iii), the plan may provide for the payment of additional compensation to member landowners for acquisition of land by the United States for use in the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project. ``(ii) Determination of heirs.--An heir of a member land owner shall be determined pursuant to the applicable probate code of the Tribe. ``(iii) Exception.--During any fiscal year, payments of additional compensation to a member landowner under clause (i) shall not-- ``(I) be deposited or transferred into-- ``(aa) the Individual Indian Money account of the member landowner; or ``(bb) any other fund held by the United States on behalf of the member landowner; or ``(II) exceed an amount equal to 44.3 percent of the amount transferred by the Secretary of the Interior to the Tribe under paragraph (2). ``(B) Provision of records.--To assist the Tribe in processing claims of heirs of member landowners for land acquired by the United States for use in the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project, the Secretary of the Interior shall provide to the Tribe, in accordance with applicable laws (including regulations), any record requested by the Tribe to identify the heirs of member landowners by the date that is 90 days after the date of receipt of a request from the Tribe.''. (d) Eligibility of Tribe for Certain Programs and Services.-- Section 105 of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2365) is amended in the matter preceding paragraph (1) by inserting ``or any member landowner'' after ``Tribe''. (e) Extinguishment of Claims.--Section 107 of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act (Public Law 106-511; 114 Stat. 2368) is amended to read as follows: ``SEC. 107. EXTINGUISHMENT OF CLAIMS. ``(a) In General.--On the date on which the final payment is deposited into the Fund under section 104(b), all monetary claims that the Tribe has or may have against the United States for the taking by the United States of land and property of the Tribe for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project of the Pick-Sloan Missouri River Basin program shall be extinguished. ``(b) Effect of Acceptance of Payment.--On acceptance by a member landowner or an heir of a member landowner of any payment by the Tribe for damages resulting from the taking by the United States of land or property of the Tribe for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project of the Pick-Sloan Missouri River Basin program, all monetary claims that the member landowner or heir has or may have against the United States for the taking shall be extinguished.''. Passed the House of Representatives May 7, 2007. Attest: LORRAINE C. MILLER, Clerk.

Title: To amend the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act to provide compensation to members of the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe for damage resulting from the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project, and for other purposes Summary: Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Amendments Act of 2007 - Amends the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe Equitable Compensation Act to make member landowners eligible for the additional financial compensation provided to the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe for the acquisition by the federal government of 104,492 acres of land of the Tribe and member landowners for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir project. Defines "member landowner" as a member of the Tribe (or an heir of such a member) that owned land on the Cheyenne River Sioux Reservation that was acquired by the United States for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project of the Pick-Sloan Missouri River Basin program. Directs the Secretary of the Treasury to make five annual deposits into the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribal Recovery Trust Fund. Rewrites requirements concerning the investment of the Trust Fund. Requires the investment of separate principal and interest accounts within such Fund. Instructs the Secretary of the Treasury: (1) to annually review with the Tribe the results of the investment activities and financial status of the Fund; and (2) if investing the Fund pursuant to such requirements is not practicable or would result in adverse consequences, to modify those requirements to the least extent necessary. Authorizes the plan prepared for the use of payments to the Tribe to provide for payment of additional compensation to member landowners. Requires the Secretary of the Interior to assist the Tribe in claims processing by providing any record requested to identify the heirs of member landowners within 90 days after receiving a request. Extinguishes all monetary claims of a member landowner or an heir of a member landowner against the United States for the taking by the United States of land or property of the Tribe for the Oahe Dam and Reservoir Project upon acceptance by such member landowner or heir of any payment by the Tribe for damages resulting from the taking.

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Summarize: SCENE III. within the tent of Brutus. [Enter Brutus and Cassius.] CASSIUS. That you have wrong'd me doth appear in this: You have condemn'd and noted Lucius Pella For taking bribes here of the Sardians; Whereas my letters, praying on his side Because I knew the man, were slighted off. BRUTUS. You wrong'd yourself to write in such a case. CASSIUS. In such a time as this it is not meet That every nice offense should bear his comment. BRUTUS. Let me tell you, Cassius, you yourself Are much condemn'd to have an itching palm, To sell and mart your offices for gold To undeservers. CASSIUS. I an itching palm! You know that you are Brutus that speak this, Or, by the gods, this speech were else your last. BRUTUS. The name of Cassius honors this corruption, And chastisement doth therefore hide his head. CASSIUS. Chastisement! BRUTUS. Remember March, the Ides of March remember: Did not great Julius bleed for justice' sake? What villain touch'd his body, that did stab, And not for justice? What! shall one of us, That struck the foremost man of all this world But for supporting robbers,--shall we now Contaminate our fingers with base bribes And sell the mighty space of our large honours For so much trash as may be grasped thus? I had rather be a dog, and bay the moon, Than such a Roman. CASSIUS. Brutus, bay not me, I'll not endure it: you forget yourself, To hedge me in; I am a soldier, ay, Older in practice, abler than yourself To make conditions. BRUTUS. Go to; you are not, Cassius. CASSIUS. I am. BRUTUS. I say you are not. CASSIUS. Urge me no more, I shall forget myself; Have mind upon your health, tempt me no farther. BRUTUS. Away, slight man! CASSIUS. Is't possible? BRUTUS. Hear me, for I will speak. Must I give way and room to your rash choler? Shall I be frighted when a madman stares? CASSIUS. O gods, ye gods! must I endure all this? BRUTUS. All this? ay, more: fret till your proud heart break; Go show your slaves how choleric you are, And make your bondmen tremble. Must I budge? Must I observe you? Must I stand and crouch Under your testy humour? By the gods, You shall digest the venom of your spleen, Though it do split you; for, from this day forth, I'll use you for my mirth, yea, for my laughter, When you are waspish. CASSIUS. Is it come to this? BRUTUS. You say you are a better soldier: Let it appear so; make your vaunting true, And it shall please me well: for mine own part, I shall be glad to learn of abler men. CASSIUS. You wrong me every way, you wrong me, Brutus. I said, an elder soldier, not a better: Did I say "better"? BRUTUS. If you did, I care not. CASSIUS. When Caesar lived, he durst not thus have moved me. BRUTUS. Peace, peace! you durst not so have tempted him. CASSIUS. I durst not? BRUTUS. No. CASSIUS. What, durst not tempt him? BRUTUS. For your life you durst not. CASSIUS. Do not presume too much upon my love; I may do that I shall be sorry for. BRUTUS. You have done that you should be sorry for. There is no terror, Cassius, in your threats, For I am arm'd so strong in honesty, That they pass by me as the idle wind Which I respect not. I did send to you For certain sums of gold, which you denied me;-- For I can raise no money by vile means: By Heaven, I had rather coin my heart, And drop my blood for drachmas, than to wring From the hard hands of peasants their vile trash By any indirection:--I did send To you for gold to pay my legions, Which you denied me: was that done like Cassius? Should I have answer'd Caius Cassius so? When Marcus Brutus grows so covetous To lock such rascal counters from his friends, Be ready, gods, with all your thunderbolts, Dash him to pieces! CASSIUS. I denied you not. BRUTUS. You did. CASSIUS. I did not. He was but a fool That brought my answer back. Brutus hath rived my heart: A friend should bear his friend's infirmities, But Brutus makes mine greater than they are. BRUTUS. I do not, till you practise them on me. CASSIUS. You love me not. BRUTUS. I do not like your faults. CASSIUS. A friendly eye could never see such faults. BRUTUS. A flatterer's would not, though they do appear As huge as high Olympus. CASSIUS. Come, Antony and young Octavius, come, Revenge yourselves alone on Cassius, For Cassius is a-weary of the world; Hated by one he loves; braved by his brother; Check'd like a bondman; all his faults observed, Set in a note-book, learn'd and conn'd by rote, To cast into my teeth. O, I could weep My spirit from mine eyes!--There is my dagger, And here my naked breast; within, a heart Dearer than Plutus' mine, richer than gold: If that thou be'st a Roman, take it forth; I, that denied thee gold, will give my heart: Strike as thou didst at Caesar; for I know, When thou didst hate him worst, thou lovedst him better Than ever thou lovedst Cassius. BRUTUS. Sheathe your dagger: Be angry when you will, it shall have scope; Do what you will, dishonor shall be humour. O Cassius, you are yoked with a lamb That carries anger as the flint bears fire; Who, much enforced, shows a hasty spark, And straight is cold again. CASSIUS. Hath Cassius lived To be but mirth and laughter to his Brutus, When grief, and blood ill-temper'd, vexeth him? BRUTUS. When I spoke that, I was ill-temper'd too. CASSIUS. Do you confess so much? Give me your hand. BRUTUS. And my heart too. CASSIUS. O Brutus,-- BRUTUS. What's the matter? CASSIUS. --Have not you love enough to bear with me, When that rash humor which my mother gave me Makes me forgetful? BRUTUS. Yes, Cassius; and from henceforth, When you are over-earnest with your Brutus, He'll think your mother chides, and leave you so. [Noise within.] POET. [Within.] Let me go in to see the generals: There is some grudge between 'em; 'tis not meet They be alone. LUCILIUS. [Within.] You shall not come to them. POET. [Within.] Nothing but death shall stay me. [Enter Poet, followed by Lucilius, and Titinius.] CASSIUS. How now! What's the matter? POET. For shame, you generals! what do you mean? Love, and be friends, as two such men should be; For I have seen more years, I'm sure, than ye. CASSIUS. Ha, ha! How vilely doth this cynic rhyme! BRUTUS. Get you hence, sirrah; saucy fellow, hence! CASSIUS. Bear with him, Brutus; 'tis his fashion. BRUTUS. I'll know his humor when he knows his time: What should the wars do with these jigging fools?-- Companion, hence! CASSIUS. Away, away, be gone! [Exit Poet.] BRUTUS. Lucilius and Titinius, bid the commanders Prepare to lodge their companies tonight. CASSIUS. And come yourselves and bring Messala with you Immediately to us. [Exeunt Lucilius and Titinius.] BRUTUS. Lucius, a bowl of wine! [Exit Lucius.] CASSIUS. I did not think you could have been so angry. BRUTUS. O Cassius, I am sick of many griefs. CASSIUS. Of your philosophy you make no use, If you give place to accidental evils. BRUTUS. No man bears sorrow better. Portia is dead. CASSIUS. Ha! Portia! BRUTUS. She is dead. CASSIUS. How'scaped I killing, when I cross'd you so?-- O insupportable and touching loss!-- Upon what sickness? BRUTUS. Impatient of my absence, And grief that young Octavius with Mark Antony Have made themselves so strong;--for with her death That tidings came;--with this she fell distract, And, her attendants absent, swallow'd fire. CASSIUS. And died so? BRUTUS. Even so. CASSIUS. O ye immortal gods! [Re-enter Lucius, with wine and a taper.] BRUTUS. Speak no more of her.--Give me a bowl of wine.-- In this I bury all unkindness, Cassius. [Drinks.] CASSIUS. My heart is thirsty for that noble pledge. Fill, Lucius, till the wine o'erswell the cup; I cannot drink too much of Brutus' love. [Drinks.] BRUTUS. Come in, Titinius!-- [Exit Lucius.] [Re-enter Titinius, with Messala.] Welcome, good Messala.-- Now sit we close about this taper here, And call in question our necessities. CASSIUS. Portia, art thou gone? BRUTUS. No more, I pray you.-- Messala, I have here received letters, That young Octavius and Mark Antony Come down upon us with a mighty power, Bending their expedition toward Philippi. MESSALA. Myself have letters of the selfsame tenour. BRUTUS. With what addition? MESSALA. That by proscription and bills of outlawry Octavius, Antony, and Lepidus Have put to death an hundred Senators. BRUTUS. There in our letters do not well agree: Mine speak of seventy Senators that died By their proscriptions, Cicero being one. CASSIUS. Cicero one! MESSALA. Cicero is dead, And by that order of proscription.-- Had you your letters from your wife, my lord? BRUTUS. No, Messala. MESSALA. Nor nothing in your letters writ of her? BRUTUS. Nothing, Messala. MESSALA. That, methinks, is strange. BRUTUS. Why ask you? hear you aught of her in yours? MESSALA. No, my lord. BRUTUS. Now, as you are a Roman, tell me true. MESSALA. Then like a Roman bear the truth I tell: For certain she is dead, and by strange manner. BRUTUS. Why, farewell, Portia. We must die, Messala: With meditating that she must die once, I have the patience to endure it now. MESSALA. Even so great men great losses should endure. CASSIUS. I have as much of this in art as you, But yet my nature could not bear it so. BRUTUS. Well, to our work alive. What do you think Of marching to Philippi presently? CASSIUS. I do not think it good. BRUTUS. Your reason? CASSIUS. This it is: 'Tis better that the enemy seek us;: So shall he waste his means, weary his soldiers, Doing himself offense; whilst we, lying still, Are full of rest, defense, and nimbleness. BRUTUS. Good reasons must, of force, give place to better. The people 'twixt Philippi and this ground Do stand but in a forced affection; For they have grudged us contribution: The enemy, marching along by them, By them shall make a fuller number up, Come on refresh'd, new-added, and encouraged; From which advantage shall we cut him off, If at Philippi we do face him there, These people at our back. CASSIUS. Hear me, good brother. BRUTUS. Under your pardon. You must note besides, That we have tried the utmost of our friends, Our legions are brim-full, our cause is ripe: The enemy increaseth every day; We, at the height, are ready to decline. There is a tide in the affairs of men Which, taken at the flood, leads on to fortune; Omitted, all the voyage of their life Is bound in shallows and in miseries. On such a full sea are we now afloat; And we must take the current when it serves, Or lose our ventures. CASSIUS. Then, with your will, go on: We'll along ourselves, and meet them at Philippi. BRUTUS. The deep of night is crept upon our talk, And nature must obey necessity; Which we will niggard with a little rest. There is no more to say? CASSIUS. No more. Good night: Early to-morrow will we rise, and hence. BRUTUS. Lucius!--My gown.--Farewell now, good Messala:-- Good night, Titinius:--noble, noble Cassius, Good night, and good repose. CASSIUS. O my dear brother! This was an ill beginning of the night. Never come such division 'tween our souls! Let it not, Brutus. BRUTUS. Every thing is well. CASSIUS. Good night, my lord. BRUTUS. Good night, good brother. TITINIUS. MESSALA. Good night, Lord Brutus. BRUTUS. Farewell, everyone.-- [Exeunt Cassius, Titinius, and Messala.] [Re-enter Lucius, with the gown.] Give me the gown. Where is thy instrument? LUCIUS. Here in the tent. BRUTUS. What, thou speak'st drowsily: Poor knave, I blame thee not, thou art o'er-watch'd. Call Claudius and some other of my men; I'll have them sleep on cushions in my tent. LUCIUS. Varro and Claudius! [Enter Varro and Claudius.] VARRO. Calls my lord? BRUTUS. I pray you, sirs, lie in my tent and sleep; It may be I shall raise you by-and-by On business to my brother Cassius. VARRO. So please you, we will stand and watch your pleasure. BRUTUS. I would not have it so; lie down, good sirs: It may be I shall otherwise bethink me.-- Look, Lucius, here's the book I sought for so; I put it in the pocket of my gown. [Servants lie down.] LUCIUS. I was sure your lordship did not give it me. BRUTUS. Bear with me, good boy, I am much forgetful. Canst thou hold up thy heavy eyes awhile, And touch thy instrument a strain or two? LUCIUS. Ay, my lord, an't please you. BRUTUS. It does, my boy: I trouble thee too much, but thou art willing. LUCIUS. It is my duty, sir. BRUTUS. I should not urge thy duty past thy might; I know young bloods look for a time of rest. LUCIUS. I have slept, my lord, already. BRUTUS. It was well done; and thou shalt sleep again; I will not hold thee long: if I do live, I will be good to thee.-- [Lucius plays and sings till he falls asleep.] This is a sleepy tune.--O murderous Slumber, Lay'st thou thy leaden mace upon my boy, That plays thee music?--Gentle knave, good night; I will not do thee so much wrong to wake thee: If thou dost nod, thou breakst thy instrument; I'll take it from thee; and, good boy, good night.-- Let me see, let me see; is not the leaf turn'd down Where I left reading? Here it is, I think. [Enter the Ghost of Caesar.] How ill this taper burns! Ha! who comes here? I think it is the weakness of mine eyes That shapes this monstrous apparition. It comes upon me.--Art thou any thing? Art thou some god, some angel, or some devil, That makest my blood cold and my hair to stare? Speak to me what thou art. GHOST. Thy evil spirit, Brutus. BRUTUS. Why comest thou? GHOST. To tell thee thou shalt see me at Philippi. BRUTUS. Well; then I shall see thee again? GHOST. Ay, at Philippi. BRUTUS. Why, I will see thee at Philippi, then. [Ghost vanishes.] Now I have taken heart, thou vanishest: Ill spirit, I would hold more talk with thee.-- Boy! Lucius!--Varro! Claudius! Sirs, awake!--Claudius! LUCIUS. The strings, my lord, are false. BRUTUS. He thinks he still is at his instrument.-- Lucius, awake! LUCIUS. My lord? BRUTUS. Didst thou dream, Lucius, that thou so criedst out? LUCIUS. My lord, I do not know that I did cry. BRUTUS. Yes, that thou didst: didst thou see any thing? LUCIUS. Nothing, my lord. BRUTUS. Sleep again, Lucius.--Sirrah Claudius!-- [To Varro.] Fellow thou, awake! VARRO. My lord? CLAUDIUS. My lord? BRUTUS. Why did you so cry out, sirs, in your sleep? VARRO. CLAUDIUS. Did we, my lord? BRUTUS. Ay: saw you any thing? VARRO. No, my lord, I saw nothing. CLAUDIUS. Nor I, my lord. BRUTUS. Go and commend me to my brother Cassius; Bid him set on his powers betimes before, And we will follow. VARRO. CLAUDIUS. It shall be done, my lord. [Exeunt.]

Summary: Cassius explains that Brutus accused a man named Lucius Pella of taking bribes. Cassius wrote to him, saying that he knew Lucius Pella was innocent. But Brutus just ignored him.. Brutus says it was unnecessary for Cassius to intervene in such a small matter. Then he says that Cassius himself sometimes allows unworthy people to buy offices in his service. Cassius, angered, says that if anyone other than Brutus made such a remark, he would kill him. But Brutus is not intimidated. He says that they killed Caesar in the name of justice. Should one of them now accept bribes?. Cassius warns him to stop, and says he is more experienced than Brutus and therefore able to make management decisions. They fall to quarreling. Brutus tells Cassius he is hot-tempered and should control his anger. But Brutus will not let it disturb him. They quarrel further over whether Cassius said he was a better soldier than Brutus. Cassius says that even Caesar would not have dared to anger him in this way, and Brutus responds by saying Cassius would not have dared to have provoked him to anger.. Brutus then goes to the heart of the matter. He wrote to Cassius, asking for money so he could pay his soldiers, because he could not bring himself to raise it by taxing the peasants. But Cassius refused.. Cassius denies the charge and blames his messenger. He protests that Brutus exaggerates his faults. He gives a despairing speech in which he says he is weary of the world, and he invites Brutus to kill him with his own dagger. This breaks the tension, because Brutus realizes that it is better just to let Cassius be angry when the mood takes him. It is soon over. Brutus confesses that he spoke in anger too. They are reconciled. Brutus promises that if Cassius should be angry with him in the future, he will not take it so seriously.. There is a disturbance outside as a poet urges the two men to be friends. After this, Brutus explains to Cassius that he is weighed down by grief, and that is why he became angry. His wife Portia, distressed by his absence and the strength of Octavius and Antony, committed suicide by swallowing burning coals. Brutus and Cassius drink wine to forget their sorrows.. Titinius and Messala enter and describe the military situation. Octavius and Antony are marching on them with a large army. They have put a hundred senators to death. Brutus has different information, that only seventy senators were killed.. Brutus raises the question of whether they should march to Philippi to meet the opposing army. Cassius says it would be better not to. They should let Antony's army advance, so they get exhausted, while Brutus and Cassius's forces stay fresh. Brutus disagrees. He warns that as the opposing army advances, they may pick up new recruits from the towns they pass through, where Brutus and Cassius are unpopular. But if Brutus and Cassius march on Philippi, they can prevent this happening. He insists that the time is right for them to strike. Their forces are at their strongest. If they wait, their strength may decline, while the enemy's will increase. Cassius accepts Brutus's argument and they part on good terms.. Brutus's servant Lucius plays some music. After Lucius falls asleep, Brutus reads a book. He is startled by the appearance of the ghost of Caesar. The ghost says that he will reappear to Brutus at Philippi. Then he disappears. Brutus awakens his servants, but none of them saw the ghost..

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Summarize: Most Recent Developments On January 28, 2010, President Obama announced the first round of grants from the $8 billion for intercity passenger rail and high speed rail. Among the awards was $112 million for improvements to the Northeast Corridor. Other grants will fund projects that include improvements to Amtrak stations and routes that are used, but not owned, by Amtrak. In December 2009 Congress passed the FY2010 transportation appropriations act (Division A of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2010, P.L. 111-117 ), which provided Amtrak $1.565 billion for FY2010. The Administration had requested $1.502 billion for Amtrak; Amtrak itself requested $1.840 billion. The legislation also provided $2.5 billion for grants for high-speed rail and intercity passenger rail projects and rail network congestion mitigation projects, funding for which Amtrak is among the eligible recipients. The legislation also requires Amtrak to implement procedures to allow passengers to transport firearms in checked baggage by December 2010. In December 2009 the Amtrak Board extended interim CEO Joseph Boardman's one-year appointment to "indefinite." Boardman, the former administrator of the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), was chosen to succeed Alexander Kummant, who resigned in November 2008. In March 2009 Congress passed the FY2009 transportation appropriation act (Division I of the Omnibus Appropriations Act of 2009, P.L. 111-8 ), which provided $1.490 billion for Amtrak for FY2009, $165 million more than in FY2008. In February 2009 Congress appropriated $1.3 billion for capital grants to Amtrak, and $8 billion for intercity passenger rail infrastructure grants (for which Amtrak is among the eligible recipients) in the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 ( P.L. 111-5 ). In October 2008, the 110 th Congress passed an Amtrak reauthorization bill, the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 (Division B of P.L. 110-432 ). This bill authorizes nearly $10 billion over the five-year life of the bill (FY2009-FY2013) specifically for Amtrak, including $5.3 billion in capital grants, nearly $3 billion in operating grants, and $1.4 billion for debt service. In addition, Congress authorized a total of $1.9 billion over these five fiscal years in intercity passenger rail capital grants to the states on an 80-20 federal/state matching basis. Congress also authorized $1.5 billion in capital grants to states and/or Amtrak for the development of 11 authorized high-speed rail corridors, and $325 million in rail network congestion mitigation grants. In all, Congress authorized an annual average of $2.7 billion for intercity passenger rail, roughly twice the amount Congress has appropriated for that purpose in recent years (around $1.3 billion). The act established a procedure for interested public or private entities to submit proposals for the financing, design, construction, and operation of high-speed rail in the 11 authorized corridors. However, putting a proposal into action would require further legislation from Congress. The act established a role for the Surface Transportation Board, a railroad economic regulatory body, in enforcing Amtrak priority over freight trains on track over which both types of trains operate and in facilitating negotiations between commuter rail operators and freight railroads concerning access to freight-owned rights-of-way. Background and Analysis Amtrak—officially, the National Railroad Passenger Corporation—is the nation's only provider of intercity passenger rail service. Amtrak is structured as a private company, but virtually all its shares are held by the United States Department of Transportation (DOT). Amtrak was created by Congress in 1970 to maintain a minimum level of intercity passenger rail service, while relieving the railroad companies of the financial burden of providing that money-losing service. Although created as a for-profit corporation, Amtrak, like intercity passenger rail operators in other countries, has not been able to make a profit. During the 35 years from 1971-2006, federal assistance to Amtrak amounted to approximately $30 billion. From FY2007-FY2010, Amtrak has received $7.0 billion in federal assistance. Amtrak's approximately 19,000 employees operate trains and maintain its infrastructure. The company operates approximately 44 routes over 21,000 miles of track. Most of that track is owned by freight rail companies; Amtrak owns about 625 route miles of track. The section it owns—the Northeast Corridor (NEC)—includes some of the most heavily used segments of track in the nation. Amtrak "is distinctly a minority user on certain portions of the NEC. By far, the greatest volume of NEC traffic is represented by" commuter and freight trains. Amtrak operates corridor routes (covering distances under 400 miles) and long-distance routes (over 400 miles in length). Some of Amtrak's corridor routes are supported in part by assistance from the states they serve. Amtrak also operates commuter service under contract with state and local commuter authorities in various parts of the country. Amtrak's FY2005-FY2009 Strategic Plan called for more than $8 billion in federal assistance over five years. The Administration consistently requested significantly less funding than that for Amtrak; in FY2006, no funding was requested for Amtrak. But Congress split the difference, providing an average of around $1.3 billion annually—enough to keep Amtrak operating, but not enough to prevent the deferral of some significant maintenance projects—until midway through FY2009, when, with a new Administration that was more supportive of Amtrak, Congress appropriated a total of $2.8 billion, bringing Amtrak's five-year total to $7.9 billion, very nearly the amount called for in the Strategic Plan. Amtrak has not yet issued a Strategic Plan for the period FY2010-FY2014; its FY2010-FY2014 Financial Plan is based on the funding levels in its current authorization. According to the Department of Transportation Inspector General (DOT IG), Amtrak needs about $2 billion a year to restore the system to a state-of-good-repair and develop corridor service, or $1.4 billion simply to keep the system from falling into further disrepair. More fundamentally, the DOT IG has stated that a new federal intercity passenger rail strategy is needed: The current model for providing intercity passenger service continues to produce financial instability and poor service quality. Despite multiple efforts over the years to change Amtrak's structure and funding, we have a system that limps along, is never in a state-of-good-repair, awash in debt, and perpetually on the edge of collapse. In the end, Amtrak has been tasked to be all things to all people, but the model under which it operates leaves many unsatisfied. On November 3, 2005, the GAO released a report that was highly critical of Amtrak's management and performance. On November 9, 2005, Amtrak's President and CEO, David Gunn, was fired by Amtrak's Board of Directors. Gunn was opposed to some of the more far reaching restructuring proposals sought by the Administration and the Amtrak Board, such as splitting the infrastructure component and the operating component on the Northeast Corridor (NEC) into two separate entities. On September 28, 2006, Amtrak's new CEO, Alexander Kummant, testified before the House Railroads Subcommittee that he was committed to operating a national system of trains and that he believed long-distance trains were an important part of the nation's transportation network. He also testified that the fastest growing service was in rail corridors between city pairs of 300-500 miles and that developing these corridors was going to be the driving force of Amtrak's future. Amtrak has demonstrated that rail can play a significant role in intercity passenger travel in certain corridors. Slightly more people travel by train than fly between New York City and Washington, DC, while slightly fewer people travel by train than fly between New York City and Boston. Federal Oversight of Amtrak Congress has included provisions in Amtrak's recent appropriations, beginning in FY2003 ( P.L. 108-7 ; 117 STAT 11), intended to bring greater transparency to Amtrak's finances and to increase DOT's control over Amtrak's use of its appropriation. Amtrak is required to submit a Strategic Plan to Congress, updated annually, and is prohibited from making expenditures not programmed in the Strategic Plan without advance notice to Congress. Amtrak is also required to submit a monthly financial statement to Congress. Also, Congress changed the way Amtrak receives its funding; the funding no longer goes directly to Amtrak, but is allocated to the Secretary of Transportation, who makes quarterly grants to Amtrak. Amtrak is required to submit grant applications to DOT for each route to receive this funding. Additional requirements were imposed in the reauthorization legislation in 2008 ( P.L. 110-432 ). These include a requirement for performance improvement plans for Amtrak's long-distance routes, periodic reviews of Amtrak's compliance with accessibility requirements, reports on service delays on certain Amtrak routes, and an assessment of Amtrak management's implementation of the provisions of the reauthorization act. Finances Amtrak runs a deficit of over a billion dollars each year. Virtually all of Amtrak's 44 or so routes lose money but the long-distance routes lose the most. According to the DOT IG, "in 2004, long-distance trains cumulatively incurred operating losses of more than $600 million (excluding interest and depreciation)." However, by his calculation, even eliminating long-distance service entirely would only have reduced Amtrak's operating losses by about $300 million, far too little to make Amtrak profitable. In congressional testimony, the DOT IG stated that long distance trains accounted for only 15% of total intercity rail ridership and that 77% of long-distance train passengers traveled along only portions of the routes, not end-to-end trips. Trips mostly ranged from 500-700 miles, slightly longer than corridor trips. The IG estimated that Amtrak could realize "annual operating savings of between $75 million and $158 million, and an additional $79 million in planned annual capital expenditures that could be avoided" by eliminating the highly subsidized sleeper class service from its long-distance trains. Sleeper class service includes a sleeping room and prepaid meals in the train's dining car; coach class passengers on long-distance trains sleep in their seats on overnight trips, and usually buy food in the train's lounge car. On October 10, 2006, the DOT IG reported that Amtrak had begun restructuring sleeper class service and expected to save up to $20 million in FY2007 from this restructuring. In addition to its annual deficit, Amtrak has major liabilities due to deferred maintenance and accumulated debt. Lacking money to complete all its capital repair and maintenance projects, Amtrak has deferred many maintenance projects. This has led the DOT IG to observe that Amtrak's continued deferral of maintenance increases the risk of a major failure on its system. Amtrak has an estimated $6 billion in backlogged capital maintenance needs, of which about $4 billion is needed on the NEC. These include replacement of aging bridges, signal equipment, and catenary (the power source for the Northeast Corridor trains), improvements to tunnels and track, repair of wrecked equipment, and overhaul of aging equipment. The IG has criticized some of the capital spending choices Amtrak has made, such as refurbishing sleeper cars instead of replacing aging bridges. The Amtrak Reform Council and the DOT IG both estimated that Amtrak requires around $1.5 billion to $2 billion in federal operating and capital support annually. This is a higher level of federal funding than Amtrak has ever consistently received, though Amtrak's current authorization authorizes funding in this range. In recent years Amtrak has stopped borrowing, trimmed its workforce, and cut its expenses, while at the same time achieving increases in ridership. However, the cuts in expenses have been small relative to Amtrak's annual deficit, and increases in ridership have been relatively modest as well. In this context, the DOT IG has observed that "it is difficult to see how Amtrak can achieve further reductions within its Federal operating subsidy without addressing state-supported routes, route restructuring, and labor contracts." Amtrak did not gain any flexibility in work rules in its latest labor agreement. While Amtrak competes with freight and commuter railroads to retain its workforce, it competes with the airlines (on its corridor routes) in terms of labor productivity. Amtrak's internal options for significantly reducing its annual deficit in the short term are limited. Its two major cost categories are the operating losses of the long-distance trains and maintenance costs of the Northeast Corridor. Reducing the size of its system could, in the long run, significantly reduce Amtrak's deficit and the long-run cost to the Federal Government, although Amtrak would still run a short-term deficit even if it eliminated all its long-distance trains, because of severance payments to employees. Additionally, the costs of maintaining the Northeast Corridor would remain, whatever the fate of long-distance service. Amtrak interprets 49 U.S.C. 24701 to require it to provide service nationwide, which it takes to mean service that spans the nation, rather than service in different parts of the nation. Thus, Amtrak is unlikely to eliminate or restructure long-distance routes without explicit direction from Congress. Many Members of Congress continue to support a nationwide Amtrak network. Amtrak's same-route ridership has grown since FY2004. However, it appears unlikely that Amtrak could increase its revenues enough to eliminate its deficits. Total revenues in FY2008 were $588 million more than in FY2004, but total expenses also increased. Amtrak has narrowed its overall annual loss by $128 million, from $1.331 billion in FY2004 to $1.160 billion in FY2008. Appropriations Amtrak appropriations are provided as part of the Department of Transportation funding. A summary of its recent appropriations is provided in Table 1. FY2008 Appropriation President Bush requested $900 million for Amtrak for FY2008. Congress provided $1.325 billion for Amtrak (in the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2008, P.L. 110-161 ), plus $30 million to the states in a new matching grant program for passenger rail-related capital improvements. Of the $1.325 billion total, $475 million was provided for operating grants, and $850 million was provided in capital and debt service grants. FY2009 Appropriation President Bush again requested $900 million for Amtrak. Amtrak requested $1.671 billion. To justify its request, Amtrak noted increasing fuel costs, increasing health care costs, and increases in wage costs as a result of a recent bargaining agreement reached with some of Amtrak's unions. Regarding this labor agreement, Amtrak noted that its budget request did not include $114 million in "back pay" to employees that was recommended by the President Emergency Board. Amtrak's budget request noted a continuing problem with cracking of concrete ties on the Northeast Corridor, and noted that while the contractor is contractually obligated to replace many of the defective ties, the contract does not cover substantial labor costs associated with replacement. The request also noted that the average age of Amtrak's coach fleet is 24 years and the average age of its locomotive fleet is more than 15 years, and thus replacing rolling stock is a high priority for the railroad. Congress provided $1.490 billion for Amtrak (in Division I of the Omnibus Appropriations Act, 2009, P.L. 111-8 ), $165 million more than the FY2008 level, and also appropriated $90 million for grants to states in a newly authorized matching grant program for passenger rail-related capital improvements (Amtrak can become eligible to receive a grant under that program if it signs a cooperative agreement with a state to carry out a project for that state). Congress noted that the additional costs of Amtrak's "back pay" agreement were included in the $550 million provided for operating grants. American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (P.L. 111-5) Congress provided Amtrak with additional funding in the emergency economic stimulus bill passed in February 2009, the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA, P.L. 111-5 ). Amtrak received $1.3 billion for capital grants (of which $450 million was specifically for capital security grants). Also, Congress provided $8 billion for grants for high-speed rail projects, intercity passenger rail projects, and rail congestion relief grants. Amtrak is among the eligible recipients for grants from that funding. On January 28, 2010, President Obama announced the first round of grants from the $8 billion for intercity passenger rail and high speed rail. Among the awards was $112 million for improvements to the Northeast Corridor. Other grants will fund projects that include improvements to Amtrak stations and routes that are used, but not owned, by Amtrak. FY2010 Appropriation The Obama Administration requested $1.502 billion for Amtrak for FY2010: $572.3 million for operating grants (of which not less than $21 million is for the Amtrak Inspector General's Office) and $929.6 million for capital grants (of which up to $264 million is for debt service). The Administration also requested $1.0 billion for grants for high-speed rail projects, intercity passenger rail projects, and rail network congestion mitigation projects. Amtrak's own FY2010 budget request totaled $1.84 billion: $601 million for operating grants (including $21 million for the Inspector General's Office), $975 million for capital grants, and $264 million for debt service. Congress provided $1.584 billion for Amtrak (in the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2010, P.L. 111-117 ). Also, Congress provided $2.5 billion for grants for intercity passenger rail and high speed rail service. Amtrak is among the eligible recipients for grants from that program. In June 2009, Amtrak's Inspector General, who had served as Amtrak's IG since the creation of the office in 1989, resigned. Soon afterward, the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform announced that it was launching an investigation into the circumstances surrounding the departure of the IG. To promote the independence of the Office of the Inspector General, the Senate Committee on Appropriations recommended that Amtrak's OIG be funded as an independent agency, not as part of Amtrak's appropriation under FRA, and accordingly placed the funding for the OIG in Title III of the appropriation bill, "Independent Agencies." Conferees confirmed this shift. During Senate floor consideration of the Transportation, Housing and Urban Development, and Related Agencies Appropriations (THUD) bill, an amendment was added which required that Amtrak allow passengers to transport firearms in checked baggage as of March 31, 2010, or lose its federal funding. Amtrak began prohibiting the transport of firearms even in checked baggage after 9/11. In the enacted legislation, this requirement was altered to give Amtrak one year to implement procedures to allow passengers to carry firearms in checked baggage (section 159). Amtrak Reauthorization Amtrak's previous authorization expired in December 2002. The Amtrak Reform and Accountability Act of 1997 ( P.L. 105-134 ; 111 Stat. 2570) authorized Amtrak for the period December 1997 through December 2002. It required that Amtrak operate without federal operating assistance after 2002; this was not accomplished. Between 2002 and 2008, reauthorization of Amtrak was stalled by disagreement over the future of U.S. passenger rail policy. Although numerous bills were introduced and various approaches were advanced, Congress was unwilling to decide what kind of passenger rail policy it would be willing to fund. During that period, Congress neither provided Amtrak with the level of funding that Amtrak requested nor required an Amtrak restructuring that would be consistent with the level of funding that Congress provided. As Congress considered reauthorization of Amtrak, the range of options for passenger rail included (1) providing higher levels of funding to support an expanded passenger rail system; (2) providing funding for operating and maintaining the current system; (3) focusing available resources on providing service only to those corridors that can be justified on economic grounds; (4) reducing Amtrak funding and eliminating much of the present passenger rail network; (5) eliminating funding for Amtrak and reorganizing passenger rail service in the United States. Although various combinations of those options were possible, the DOT IG stated that the "status quo" option was unsustainable and that federal funding for Amtrak of between $1.4 billion and $1.5 billion would be necessary to prevent cuts in service, but would not be enough to restore the system to a state-of-good-repair nor permit investment in new corridor development. In regard to Amtrak reauthorization, the DOT IG urged Congress to consider three points: (1) without competition, Amtrak has few incentives, other than the threat of budget cuts or elimination, for cost control; (2) states, rather than Amtrak, should decide where and how intercity passenger rail service is provided; and (3) the federal government must be willing to provide adequate funding (but not directly to Amtrak) to bring the infrastructure into a state-of-good-repair. Senate Proposal In the 110 th Congress, Senator Frank R. Lautenberg and then Senator Trent Lott introduced an Amtrak reauthorization bill, the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2007 ( S. 294 ), on January 16, 2007. This bill would have authorized a total of $3.3 billion in operating grants and $6.3 billion in capital grants for fiscal years 2007 through 2012 to be administered by the DOT to Amtrak. Of the $6.3 billion in capital grants, a certain percentage of that amount, ranging from 3% in FY2007 to 33% in FY2012, would be directed to states rather than to Amtrak. The bill would also allow states to use operators other than Amtrak to provide rail service on particular routes, thus potentially opening up competition for Amtrak. The bill created a capital match program for a state or group of states for the purpose of providing new or improved intercity rail service. The federal share of this program would be 80%. While the bill would have repealed the requirement that Amtrak become financially self-sufficient, it would have required Amtrak to reduce operating subsidies by 40% over the life of the bill. The bill would have expanded Amtrak's board of directors to 10 members, including the Secretary of Transportation, the President of Amtrak, and eight members selected by the Administration with no more than five of these from the same political party and representing the geographic regions that Amtrak currently serves, to the extent possible. S. 294 was approved (with amendments) by the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation on April 25, 2007, and was passed (with amendments) by the full Senate on October 20, 2007. During Senate floor debate, among the amendments rejected was an amendment to limit the per-passenger subsidy amount on Amtrak routes and an amendment to increase the number of routes to be made available for competitive bid. Amendments accepted included an amendment to require Amtrak to publish annual revenue and cost amounts for each route, an amendment giving additional consideration to states with limited Amtrak service when considering new routes, and an amendment expressing the sense of Congress of the need to maintain Amtrak as a national passenger rail system. House Proposal The House version of an Amtrak reauthorization bill ( H.R. 6003 ) was introduced on May 8, 2008, and ordered to be reported by the House Committee on Transportation and Infrastructure on May 22, 2008. It was passed by the House with amendments on June 11, 2008, by a vote of 311 to 104. For FY2009-FY2013, H.R. 6003 would have authorized a total of $6.7 billion in capital grants to Amtrak, of which $2.5 billion would have been provided to states in a capital matching program; $3.0 billion in operating grants; $1.7 billion for debt service; and $1.1 billion for ADA compliance. The House bill also would have provided $1.8 billion over the life of the bill ($350 million per fiscal year) for the development of up to two high-speed rail corridors, one of which would be between Washington, DC, and New York City. In this instance, high-speed rail was defined as at least 110 mph, and in the case of the Washington, DC, and New York City corridor, travel time for express trains between those two cities would have to be under two hours. Under this provision, private companies would bid for the financing, design, construction, and operation of these high-speed rail corridors. DOT and a commission would evaluate and rank the proposals and report their findings to Congress. The House bill also required Amtrak to submit a plan for restoring service between New Orleans and Sanford, Florida. The House bill would have restructured Amtrak's board of directors in the same way as the Senate bill. Both the House and Senate bills would have involved the Surface Transportation Board (STB) in resolving disputes between freight railroads and passenger train interests, but for different purposes. The Senate bill (Section 209) would allow Amtrak or states subsidizing Amtrak service to petition the STB to investigate when Amtrak's on-time performance falls below a certain level. If the STB finds that the host freight railroad is at fault, it may award damages or provide some other relief. The provision would also allow freight railroads to petition the STB if they believe passenger trains are negatively affecting their business on a certain route. The House bill (section 401) would require the STB to conduct non-binding mediation between freight railroads and public transit authorities seeking access to freight railroad right-of-ways for passenger service, in circumstances where the two parties cannot reach agreement. Enacted Legislation Congress reauthorized Amtrak in the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008, enacted on October 16, 2008. For the period FY2009-FY2013, the act authorized a total of $9.8 billion in funding for Amtrak, divided as follows: Operating grants: $2.9 billion. Capital grants: $5.3 billion. Grants for repayment of long-term debts and capital leases: $1.4 billion. Funding for Amtrak's Inspector General: $108 million. Total authorized Amtrak funding averages $1.955 billion annually, a significant increase over the $1.3 billion Amtrak was appropriated in FY2007 and FY2008. The act also authorizes three new federal intercity passenger rail grant programs for which Amtrak is eligible: Intercity Passenger Rail Service Corridor Capital Assistance Program (§301) : authorizes DOT to make grants to states, public agencies, or Amtrak (in cooperation with a state) for the capital costs of facilities, infrastructure, and equipment to provide or improve intercity passenger rail transportation; federal share not to exceed 80%; total authorized funding $1.9 billion over FY2009-FY2013. High-Speed Rail Corridor Development: authorizes DOT to make grants to states, public agencies, or Amtrak for capital projects (e.g., acquiring, constructing, or improving rail structures and equipment) on designated high-speed lines that would result in train operating speeds of 110 mph or more; federal share not to exceed 80%; total authorized funding $1.5 billion over FY2009-FY2013. Congestion Relief (§302): authorizes DOT to make grants to states, public agencies, or Amtrak to reduce congestion or facilitate ridership growth in heavily traveled intercity rail passenger corridors; federal share not to exceed 80%; total authorized funding $325 billion over FY2010-FY2013. The act directs FRA and Amtrak to jointly develop measurement criteria, and minimum standards, to measure Amtrak's performance and service quality; directs FRA to develop objective methodologies for Amtrak to use in making decisions regarding adding, altering, or eliminating routes and service levels; and directs FRA to establish a standard methodology for allocating costs between Amtrak and states for state-supported routes. It allows Amtrak or states subsidizing Amtrak service to petition the STB to investigate when Amtrak's on-time performance falls below a certain level. If the STB finds that the host freight railroad is at fault, it may award damages or provide some other relief. Freight railroads may petition the STB if they believe passenger trains are negatively affecting their business on a route. And it requires the STB to conduct non-binding mediation between freight railroads and public transit authorities seeking access to freight railroad right-of-ways for passenger service, in circumstances where the two parties cannot reach agreement. The act also increased the size of Amtrak's Board of Directors from 7 to 9 persons, including the Secretary of Transportation, the President of Amtrak, and 7 persons appointed by the President, not more than 5 of whom may be members of the same political party. The act also removed the prohibition on having board members who were representatives of rail labor or rail management.

Summary: Amtrak was created by Congress in 1970 to provide intercity passenger railroad service. It operates approximately 44 routes over 22,000 miles of track, 97% of which is owned by freight rail companies. It runs a deficit each year, and requires federal assistance to cover operating losses and capital investment. Without a yearly federal grant to cover operating losses, Amtrak would not survive as presently configured. The crux of the public policy issue facing Congress has been succinctly stated by the Department of Transportation Inspector General (DOT IG): "To create a new model for intercity passenger rail, a comprehensive reauthorization that provides new direction and adequate funding is needed. The problem with the current model extends beyond funding-there are inadequate incentives for Amtrak to provide cost-effective service; state-of-good-repair needs are not being adequately addressed; and states have insufficient leverage in determining service quality options, in part because Amtrak receives Federal rail funds, not the states." Amtrak was reauthorized in 2008. Its previous authorization had lapsed in 2002 because of a policy stalemate involving the Bush Administration and Congress. The Bush Administration advocated significant changes to federal passenger rail policy, involving a reduction of Amtrak's role. Those changes were supported by some in Congress, while others supported increased funding for Amtrak, in line with Amtrak's strategy of maintaining its full current network while restoring its infrastructure to a state of good repair. Interest in alternatives to, and complements to, auto and air transportation, spurred by concerns over gasoline supplies and global warming, as well as the Obama Administration's interest in high-speed rail, suggest that Amtrak policy may receive additional attention in the 111th Congress. Appropriations. For FY2010, the Obama Administration requested $1.502 billion for Amtrak, which is $600 million more than the previous Administration requested for FY2009. Amtrak itself requested $1.840 billion, which is $350 million more than Congress appropriated last year. Congress provided $1.584 billion for Amtrak FY2010. Congress also appropriated $2.5 billion for intercity and high speed rail grants, for which Amtrak is among the eligible recipients. Congress provided $1.490 billion for Amtrak in the FY2009 transportation appropriations act (Division I of P.L. 111-8), $165 million more than the $1.325 billion provided in FY2008. In addition, Congress appropriated $1.3 billion for capital grants to Amtrak, and appropriated another $8 billion for intercity rail infrastructure projects (for which Amtrak is among the eligible recipients) in the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA, P.L. 111-5). Reauthorization. Amtrak's previous authorization expired in December 2002. In October 2008, the 110th Congress passed an Amtrak reauthorization bill, the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 (Division B of P.L. 110-432). This bill authorized nearly $10 billion over the five-year life of the bill (FY2009-FY2013) specifically for Amtrak, including $5.3 billion in capital grants, nearly $3 billion in operating grants, and $1.4 billion for debt service. In addition, Congress authorized a total of $1.9 billion over these five fiscal years in intercity passenger rail capital grants to the states on an 80-20 federal/state matching basis. Congress also authorized $1.5 billion in capital grants to states and/or Amtrak for the development of 11 authorized high-speed rail corridors. The act established a procedure for interested public or private entities to submit proposals for the financing, design, construction, and operation of high-speed rail on these 11 corridors. However, putting a proposal into action would require further legislation from Congress.

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Summarize: Did Leonardo DaVinci use his own shadow to create the outline of Jesus in The Last Supper? A mural on the roof of the Milan castle where Da Vinci work was recently recovered. The mural is made up of 16 mulberry trees bound together by a knotted rope. Michelangelo's hand, as seen in three portraits: Del Conte (left), Da Volterra (center) and Caccini (right). Michelangelo defied the painful arthritis that riddled his hands in the last 15 years of his life by carrying on working until his last days, a new study suggests. The study relied on analysis of portraits of Michelangelo as well as on historic documents. "There are no spectroscopic or X-ray images available, and for this reason, the careful observation of the portraits is the only method available today to interpret hand deformities," an international team of researchers wrote in the Journal of the Royal Society of Medicine. Michelangelo's David at Risk From Weak Ankles Play Video Michelangelo’s Face Revealed Portraits of Michelangelo suggest he was nowhere near as beautiful as the works of art he produced. Discovery The team included Davide Lazzeri and Manuel Francisco Castello, both specialists in plastic reconstructive and aesthetic surgery at the Villa Salaria Clinic, Rome, Donatella Lippi, director of the department of History of Medicine at Florence University, Marco Matucci-Cerinic, director of the division of rheumatology at Florence University, and George M.Weisz at the University of New South Wales, Sydney, Australia. In particular, three paintings, which depict the artist between the ages of 60 and 65 show his left hand bearing signs of osteoarthritis, a painful joint disorder which today affects 9.6 per cent of men and 18 per cent of women aged over 60. "A study of Michelangelo's biography and letters indeed supported the diagnosis of a degenerative osteoarthritis, possibly ruling out other possible diseases," lead author Lazzeri told Discovery News. Is This the First Self-portrait of Michelangelo? Several organic, psychological and behavioral disorders, ranging from lead intoxication to Asperger's disease, have been attributed to Michelangelo. A large correspondence with Lionardo di Buonarroto Simoni, Michelangelo's nephew, reveals that the artist suffered from "gout," a general term of the period which included all arthritic conditions. But according to the researchers, no signs of inflammation and no evidence of tophi, the small lumps of uric acid crystals that form under the skin of people with gout, could be detected in the artist's hands. Lazzeri and colleagues estimate that Michelangelo (1475-1564) likely began experiencing the first symptoms of the disease between 1547 and 1553, when he worked on the Deposition, or Florentine Pietà. The extensive hammering and chiseling carried out during Michelangelo's younger years was likely responsible for the deformed hands in later life. The disease progressed until his final, and unfinished work, the Rondanini Pietà. Michelangelo's David Holding Secret Weapon? By that time, the hands that carved David, designed St Peter's basilica and painted The Last Judgment in the Sistine Chapel, were twisted into deformed protrusions. Michelangelo was unable to write, and could only sign his letters. Nevertheless, the master was seen hammering up to six days before his death on Feb. 18, 1564, three weeks before his 89th birthday. Starting in 1996, Alexa Internet has been donating their crawl data to the Internet Archive. Flowing in every day, these data are added to the Wayback Machine after an embargo period. Mayo Clinic offers appointments in Arizona, Florida and Minnesota and at Mayo Clinic Health System locations. Our general interest e-newsletter keeps you up to date on a wide variety of health topics. Definition By Mayo Clinic Staff Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis, affecting millions of people worldwide. It occurs when the protective cartilage on the ends of your bones wears down over time. Although osteoarthritis can damage any joint in your body, the disorder most commonly affects joints in your hands, knees, hips and spine. Osteoarthritis often gradually worsens, and no cure exists. But staying active, maintaining a healthy weight and other treatments may slow progression of the disease and help improve pain and joint function.

Summary: For centuries it has been thought that Michelangelo suffered from gout in later life, which was at the time used as a catch-all phrase to include all forms of arthritis. Researchers are reporting in the Journal of the Royal Society of Medicine that the famous artist instead had osteoarthritis. It's the most common form of arthritis, one the Mayo Clinic reports is characterized by the wearing of cartilage at the ends of bones-and free of the nodules of uric acid crystals that lie beneath the skin of those with gout. Indeed his condition, which left him unable to write by the time he died a few weeks shy of his 89th birthday in 1564, may have been worsened by all the hammering and chiseling, reports Discovery News. The team relied largely on three portraits of Michelangelo, "particularly concentrating on the hands of the Master," to arrive at their conclusion, they write. Michelangelo was painted at various points from his 60s and onward with an almost disfigured left hand "twisted into bony protrusions," as the Montreal Gazette reports, yet he was also seen hammering away just six days before his death. The continuous use of his hands as a sculptor may have helped him work for as long as he did-a "triumph over infirmity as he persisted in his work until his last days," says surgeon and study coauthor Davide Lazzeri. Still, not everyone's convinced by the "charming" diagnosis: "Focusing on one anatomical district doesn't disentangle the conundrum of Michelangelo's bodily ailments, an enigma not inferior to that of his immortal genius," one evolutionary medicine researcher in Zurich tells Discovery News. Without the use of X-ray and spectroscopy, the enigma will likely persist.

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Summarize: A Royal Marine known as 'the commando who refused to die' after suffering 100 injuries in an Afghanistan explosion has had a leg removed - so he can play with his children. Corporal Paul Vice, 31, suffered more than 100 significant wounds during an explosion and 'died' twice as he was airlifted back to Camp Bastion in 2011. The father-of-four, who was awarded the Military Cross for his bravery during two previous incidents, received more than 114 wounds to his torso. Corporal Paul Vice pictured in hospital (left) following the operation to remove his leg, and undergoing rehabilitation (right) after the surgery. Paul Vice (right), with fellow Invictus Games contestants Robert Cromley-Hawke (left) and John-James Chalmers (left) after they won gold medals in the road cycling event. Remarkably, he had more than 400 pieces of shrapnel and stones removed from his body by surgeons, suffered a broken neck, a damaged left eye, was deafened in one ear and suffered a stroke, a brain injury and paralysis down his right side. After surgery he recovered, and his determined spirit saw him compete at the recent Invictus Games, where he won medals in cycling and archery. But on-going problems with his left leg have stopped him from enjoying life with his wife Tessa and their four children Honey, Alfie, Frankie and Harley. So he made the difficult decision to remove the troublesome limb, which he referred to as 'the wet fish'. Before having the leg removed, he wrote a message on the limb which read: 'Dear leg, thanks for all the misery and admin you have caused over the last three years. See you later pal.' He said: 'The leg is crap - it does not do anything and I call it the wet fish. It does not do anything but cause me gip and pain and it cannot get any worse. 'I have gone through the stage of being depressed about why it happened and I have got over it. 'More importantly this is about my children. I cannot interact with them how I want. I want to be running and playing football with them, but at the moment I have problems just walking after them. Corporal Paul Vice, pictured left and right during his early years with the Royal Marines, was awarded the Military Cross for bravery prior to suffering life-threatening injuries in Afghanistan. Athletes Luke Darlington and Paul Vice (right) pictured during an interview prior to the Invictus Games. 'As a family, we have all agreed that the best way forward for me is to have the leg amputated. 'I live in the here and now and my sole aim is to look after and give my children and family the best life they can get.' Immediately following the 2011 explosion, while suffering from shock, he tried to check that all his limbs were intact, but could not move his head as the blast had broken his neck. He was able to see a pool of blood pouring from his torso, then realised that a life-threatening amount of blood was also streaming from his neck - he had a severed artery. His life was saved when a colleague who had escaped the blast rushed to his aid, and forced his knee into his neck to stop the bleeding. He survived the blast, but suffered a broken neck, a stroke, a damaged left eye, was deafened in one year and suffers from an enduring brain injury which causes paralysis. Mr Vice pictured in action during the Invictus Games, where he won medals for cycling and archery. Paul Vice watches the games (right) during a break in the competition, after having competed in the road cycling event (left). He is now known as 'the commando who refused to die' He was evacuated back to Queen Elizabeth Hospital in Birmingham, and a month later started his gruelling rehabilitation at Headley Court, the tri-service rehabilitation centre in Surrey. Cpl Vice said: 'I lay there checking myself over to make sure I still had my limbs. I couldn't move my neck because it was broken but I remember seeing a massive pool of blood coming out of me and then felt and heard blood spouting out from my neck like a hose pipe. 'I didn't feel pain, just red hot - I thought I was on fire. 'When I felt the hole in my neck I knew it was an arterial bleed, so I thought that was it. 'That's when Richie came ploughing through the dust and stuck his knee into my neck.' He is now the subject of a documentary, called The Commando Who Refused to Die, which will be broadcast on Friday, December 12, and includes footage of the amputation

Summary: Corporal Paul Vice was injured in an explosion in Afghanistan in 2011. More than 400 pieces of shrapnel and stones were removed from his body. He also suffered a broken neck and severed artery in his throat. Blast also caused brain injury and partial paralysis down his right side. He 'died' twice during the emergency airlift back to Camp Bastion. Injuries sustained in the attack caused ongoing problems with his left leg. He has now chosen to have it amputated so he can play with his children. Cpl Vice is known as the 'Commando who refused to die'

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Write a title and summarize: The dynamic nature of technological developments invites us to rethink the learning spaces. In this context, science education can be enriched by the contribution of new computational resources, making the educational process more up-to-date, challenging, and attractive. Bioinformatics is a key interdisciplinary field, contributing to the understanding of biological processes that is often underrated in secondary schools. As a useful resource in learning activities, bioinformatics could help in engaging students to integrate multiple fields of knowledge (logical-mathematical, biological, computational, etc.) and generate an enriched and long-lasting learning environment. Here, we report our recent project in which high school students learned basic concepts of programming applied to solving biological problems. The students were taught the Python syntax, and they coded simple tools to answer biological questions using resources at hand. Notably, these were built mostly on the students’ own smartphones, which proved to be capable, readily available, and relevant complementary tools for teaching. This project resulted in an empowering and inclusive experience that challenged differences in social background and technological accessibility. Biology-oriented programming workshops using Python for students and teachers were performed in one private and two public schools from La Plata, the capital city of the province of Buenos Aires, Argentina. These schools were selected on the basis of their willingness to take part in the project and the possibility to accommodate the instructors’ schedule in their weekly activities. Participation of the students in the workshops was voluntary in all cases, although framed in the context of a particular science course like biology or genetics. Although representing schools with different educational goals and infrastructures, the three groups of students that took part comprised similar demographic profiles, with mixed socioeconomic backgrounds and a balanced gender ratio. The workshops were delivered as three weekly 90-minute-long face-to-face classes offered during consecutive weeks, with one teacher or teaching assistant per ten students. They took place in the schools with the technological resources available at each of them, using installed versions of Python 2. 7 and/or 3. 6 on PCs and students’ smartphones. Online Python terminals (http: //repl. it/languages/python3, http: //www. tutorialspoint. com/execute_python_online. php) were also presented in order to show additional ways to use the language. Internet was only requested for the first meeting for Python installation. Overall, more than 90% of the students completed the practical exercises on their smartphones whereas the rest used netbooks or notebooks. The workshops were aimed at students of the last years of their secondary school (a five/six-year-long stage equivalent to high school in the United States) due to the science background needed to face the biological problems presented during the course. In spite of the public or private nature of the school, the curriculum design in the province of Buenos Aires establishes a common core in natural sciences and mathematics. Apart from this shared nucleus, the students can follow different orientations with additional workload in distinctive subjects (a detailed description of the curriculum, in Spanish, is included in http: //servicios. abc. gov. ar/lainstitucion/organismos/consejogeneral/disenioscurriculares/). In particular, the different activities proposed during the workshops require basic operations in mathematics, understanding of logical operators, and knowledge of the classical perspective on the molecular basis of information flow from DNA to proteins. Because these contents are included in the shared nucleus of all orientations, students from both years in each school joined a unique, integrated class for the workshop. The contents covered in each class are shown in Table 1. An interactive guide was given to students (see S1 File) in which many exercises were proposed. Some of them were taken as examples to solve during the workshop by the students with teachers’ assistance. Possible solutions were shared and evaluated collectively in order to take the maximum advantage of every different proposal. After finishing the workshops, the participants were offered to take part in a bioinformatics challenge that was set up as a contest. Each school could present multiple groups of up to five students accompanied by a teacher. Three problems (see S2 File) were given to the students to be solved in a three-week period, during which the groups were monitored by teachers and workshop trainers. The exercises were written with increasing complexity, and each had extra goals to tackle in order to encourage a deeper analysis for working solutions. For example, the first question asked the participants to construct an algorithm for translating a hidden message between nucleotide and amino acid alphabets using the standard genetic code, with additional points awarded for showing the number and identity of codon sequences that could encode the message. Each group delivered their scripts and a written report detailing the general approach they applied, the difficulties they faced, and the major decisions they took toward their goal. Submissions were evaluated by an ad hoc committee. They provided feedback on early versions of the work and ranked the final submissions by testing that the programs worked as intended and evaluating the extra effort put into solving the optional exercises and the attention to documentation, presentation, and general style of code. All the examples of the final scripts built by the students answering the required questions are shown in S2 File. There are many smartphone applications (apps) available for the different operating systems (OSs), which may be more or less useful for working in the classroom, depending on the type of tools to create. When developing simple tools that could be run from the interactive interpreter or by loading single scripts, and that only require standard libraries, distributions that offer a Python terminal are sufficient and recommended. There are many Python apps available for Android and iOS, both free and paid, but fewer options can be used in Windows smartphones and are generally not optimal for running external scripts. In Table 2, we summarize some useful free apps for the classroom, among which QPython and QPython 3 for Android, Python 3 for Windows, and Python 2. 5 for iOS were recommended to the students because these proved to be stable and responsive based in our preliminary evaluation in several smartphone platforms. These Python applications allowed students to test the code proposed in class quickly and easily, making the overall experience less passive and noticeably more engaging. Other more comprehensive apps may be needed in complex scenarios, especially if there is the need to load big external data files or use third-party libraries with multiple dependencies. For a preliminary evaluation of different standard smartphone platforms, we tested several Python apps using a simple script and recording its calculation times. The script we implemented (see S3 File) is a “Translator” that receives a phrase in “human language” and translate it into “cells language. ” Using the universal genetic code and the standard one-letter amino acid representation, most letters from the English alphabet could be written as one or more codons. Any word using these letters can therefore be translated to a large number of codon combinations. This idea was later explained and proposed to the students as an exercise too. The main purpose of this evaluation was to compare calculation times between PCs, online resources, and mobile smartphones that are available for students to perform bioinformatics calculations in a classroom. Our intention is not to benchmark smartphones performances, which depends on too many variables that could not be addressed here, but to assess whether those smartphones that are commonly accessible to students in our local communities would be able to complete the proposed tasks efficiently. From Fig 1, it is possible to infer that smartphones are on average slower than PCs for calculation times. Online resources such as Repl. it (https: //repl. it/) can perform somewhere between PC and mobile phones, although permanent access to the internet should be provided. It is also possible to see in Fig 1 that some smartphones could perform even better than current personal computers. This does not seem to be highly dependent on the OS of the phone but on the available processor speed (Fig 2) and RAM memory (Fig 3), with other factors such as the Python interface used and the system load possibly affecting the running times. According to our results, smartphones were at most an order slower than a typical desktop PC hardware setup (Intel i5-6400 2. 7GHz quad-core processor with 8Gb RAM), proving very capable of serving as programming tools for this kind of course. A total of 100 students aged between 16 and 19 years old were part of the project, all of them owning a smartphone; 92. 9% of the students didn’t have previous programming knowledge, and most of them (87. 5%) did not know about bioinformatics. More than half (53. 57%) of the participant students were from the natural sciences orientation. Students enrolled in the social sciences (35. 71%) and economy (10. 72%) orientations also took part in the workshop, showing that the proposal of learning a programming language was transversal and attractive for the students in general. The tools chosen for the workshops (smartphones apps and online terminals of Python) made the teaching–learning process, as well as the exchange of knowledge among students, engaging and effective. As derived from student’s feedback, the exchange of ideas was fluid and the immediacy provided by these technological devices allowed students and teachers to explore different variants for the proposed exercises, generally derived from questions raised in the classroom, making it possible to evaluate several possible paths toward a solution. The biological questions proposed and solved in the workshops (see Table 3) triggered challenges in programming and enriched the overall learning–teaching process. Our results show that the use of smartphones could help to surmount the limitations related with the availability of computers in high schools. The easy setup of this kind of workshop, based almost entirely in smartphones and thus independent of the available equipment in schools, triggered a great interest of the educational community and generated enthusiastic responses in students. Although it is yet not possible to collect enough evidence to address the impact of our workshops, this novel approach should let students deepen their knowledge and interest in the field by revisiting biological concepts under a new light. The workshop should have also helped students to realize the potential of acquiring programming skills, giving them a tool not only for understanding and experiencing science, but also for developing strategies to help solve different challenges of their future professional life. Altogether, we think that these practices reinforce the notion that bioinformatics provides a suitable framework to improve the learning-teaching experience of biology and programming.

Title: Bioinformatics calls the school: Use of smartphones to introduce Python for bioinformatics in high schools Summary: Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary activity that complements and connects several fields with biology and can also be used as an educational tool for science. During 2017, the Structural Bioinformatics Group at National University of Quilmes in Buenos Aires, Argentina, worked together with public and private schools to promote the usage of bioinformatics towards a better understanding of biology. We performed short biology-oriented programming workshops using Python, aimed at students in different schools, who were later invited to participate in a specially organized and challenging bioinformatics contest (http: //ufq. unq. edu. ar/sbg/education/index. html). The choice of computational tools, with a major role of smartphone applications, made the teaching-learning process easier, dynamic, and accessible. This experience allowed us to build bridges with the participating schools and develop a great commitment toward expanding the project in the near future. The great interest shown by educational communities and the positive responses of students reinforce the idea of bioinformatics as a plausible tool for the learning-teaching of biology.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``District of Columbia Fair and Equal House Voting Rights Act of 2006''. SEC. 2. FINDINGS. Congress finds as follows: (1) Over half a million people living in the District of Columbia, the capital of our democratic Nation, lack direct voting representation in the United States Senate and House of Representatives. (2) District of Columbia residents have fought and died to defend our democracy in every war since the War of Independence. (3) District of Columbia residents pay billions of dollars in Federal taxes each year. (4) Our Nation is founded on the principles of ``one person, one vote'' and ``government by the consent of the governed''. SEC. 3. TREATMENT OF DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA AS CONGRESSIONAL DISTRICT. (a) In General.--Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the District of Columbia shall be considered a Congressional district for purposes of representation in the House of Representatives. (b) Conforming Amendments Relating to Apportionment of Members of House of Representatives.-- (1) Inclusion of single district of columbia member in reapportionment of members among states.--Section 22 of the Act entitled ``An Act to provide for the fifteenth and subsequent decennial censuses and to provide for apportionment of Representatives in Congress'', approved June 28, 1929 (2 U.S.C. 2a), is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection: ``(d) This section shall apply with respect to the District of Columbia in the same manner as this section applies to a State, except that the District of Columbia may not receive more than one Member under any reapportionment of Members.''. (2) Clarification of determination of number of presidential electors on basis of 23rd amendment.--Section 3 of title 3, United States Code, is amended by striking ``come into office;'' and inserting the following: ``come into office (subject to the twenty-third article of amendment to the Constitution of the United States in the case of the District of Columbia);''. (c) Conforming Amendments Regarding Appointments to Service Academies.-- (1) United states military academy.--Section 4342 of title 10, United States Code, is amended-- (A) in subsection (a), by striking paragraph (5); and (B) in subsection (f), by striking ``the District of Columbia,''. (2) United states naval academy.--Such title is amended-- (A) in section 6954(a), by striking paragraph (5); and (B) in section 6958(b), by striking ``the District of Columbia,''. (3) United states air force academy.--Section 9342 of title 10, United States Code, is amended-- (A) in subsection (a), by striking paragraph (5); and (B) in subsection (f), by striking ``the District of Columbia,''. (d) Effective Date.--This section and the amendments made by this section shall apply with respect to the One Hundred Tenth Congress and each succeeding Congress. SEC. 4. INCREASE IN MEMBERSHIP OF HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES. (a) Permanent Increase in Number of Members.--Effective with respect to the One Hundred Tenth Congress and each succeeding Congress, the House of Representatives shall be composed of 437 Members, including any Members representing the District of Columbia pursuant to section 3(a). (b) Reapportionment of Members Resulting From Increase.-- (1) In general.--Section 22(a) of the Act entitled ``An Act to provide for the fifteenth and subsequent decennial censuses and to provide for apportionment of Representatives in Congress'', approved June 28, 1929 (2 U.S.C. 2a(a)), is amended by striking ``the then existing number of Representatives'' and inserting ``the number of Representatives established with respect to the One Hundred Tenth Congress''. (2) Effective date.--The amendment made by paragraph (1) shall apply with respect to the regular decennial census conducted for 2010 and each subsequent regular decennial census. (c) Special Rules For Period Prior to 2012 Reapportionment.-- (1) Transmittal of revised statement of apportionment by president.--Not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the President shall transmit to Congress a revised version of the most recent statement of apportionment submitted under section 22(a) of the Act entitled ``An Act to provide for the fifteenth and subsequent decennial censuses and to provide for apportionment of Representatives in Congress'', approved June 28, 1929 (2 U.S.C. 2a(a)), to take into account this Act and the amendments made by this Act. (2) Report by clerk.--Not later than 15 calendar days after receiving the revised version of the statement of apportionment under paragraph (1), the Clerk of the House of Representatives, in accordance with section 22(b) of such Act (2 U.S.C. 2a(b)), shall send to the executive of each State a certificate of the number of Representatives to which such State is entitled under section 22 of such Act, and shall submit a report to the Speaker of the House of Representatives identifying the State (other than the District of Columbia) which is entitled to one additional Representative pursuant to this section. (3) Requirements for election of additional member.--During the period beginning with the first day of the One Hundred Tenth Congress and ending with the taking effect of the first reapportionment occurring after the regular decennial census conducted for 2010-- (A) notwithstanding the Act entitled ``An Act for the relief of Doctor Ricardo Vallejo Samala and to provide for congressional redistricting'', approved December 14, 1967 (2 U.S.C. 2c), the additional Representative to which the State identified by the Clerk of the House of Representatives in the report submitted under paragraph (2) is entitled shall be elected from the State at large; and (B) the other Representatives to which such State is entitled shall be elected on the basis of the Congressional districts in effect in the State for the One Hundred Ninth Congress. SEC. 5. REPEAL OF OFFICE OF DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA DELEGATE. (a) In General.--Sections 202 and 204 of the District of Columbia Delegate Act (Public Law 91-405; sections 1-401 and 1-402, D.C. Official Code) are repealed, and the provisions of law amended or repealed by such sections are restored or revived as if such sections had not been enacted. (b) Conforming Amendments to District of Columbia Elections Code of 1955.--The District of Columbia Elections Code of 1955 is amended as follows: (1) In section 1 (sec. 1-1001.01, D.C. Official Code), by striking ``the Delegate to the House of Representatives,'' and inserting ``the Representative in the Congress,''. (2) In section 2 (sec. 1-1001.02, D.C. Official Code)-- (A) by striking paragraph (6); and (B) in paragraph (13), by striking ``the Delegate to Congress for the District of Columbia,'' and inserting ``the Representative in the Congress,''. (3) In section 8 (sec. 1-1001.08, D.C. Official Code)-- (A) in the heading, by striking ``Delegate'' and inserting ``Representative''; and (B) by striking ``Delegate,'' each place it appears in subsections (h)(1)(A), (i)(1), and (j)(1) and inserting ``Representative in the Congress,''. (4) In section 10 (sec. 1-1001.10, D.C. Official Code)-- (A) in subsection (a)(3)(A)-- (i) by striking ``or section 206(d) of the District of Columbia Delegate Act'', and (ii) by striking ``the office of Delegate to the House of Representatives'' and inserting ``the office of Representative in the Congress''; (B) in subsection (d)(1), by striking ``Delegate,'' each place it appears; and (C) in subsection (d)(2)-- (i) by striking ``(A) In the event'' and all that follows through ``term of office,'' and inserting ``In the event that a vacancy occurs in the office of Representative in the Congress before May 1 of the last year of the Representative's term of office,'' and (ii) by striking subparagraph (B). (5) In section 11(a)(2) (sec. 1-1001.11(a)(2), D.C. Official Code), by striking ``Delegate to the House of Representatives,'' and inserting ``Representative in the Congress,''. (6) In section 15(b) (sec. 1-1001.15(b), D.C. Official Code), by striking ``Delegate,'' and inserting ``Representative in the Congress,''. (7) In section 17(a) (sec. 1-1001.17(a), D.C. Official Code), by striking ``the Delegate to the Congress from the District of Columbia'' and inserting ``the Representative in the Congress''. (c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall apply with respect to elections occurring during 2006 and any succeeding year. SEC. 6. REPEAL OF OFFICE OF STATEHOOD REPRESENTATIVE. (a) In General.--Section 4 of the District of Columbia Statehood Constitutional Convention Initiative of 1979 (sec. 1-123, D.C. Official Code) is amended as follows: (1) By striking ``offices of Senator and Representative'' each place it appears in subsection (d) and inserting ``office of Senator''. (2) In subsection (d)(2)-- (A) by striking ``a Representative or''; (B) by striking ``the Representative or''; and (C) by striking ``Representative shall be elected for a 2-year term and each''. (3) In subsection (d)(3)(A), by striking ``and 1 United States Representative''. (4) By striking ``Representative or'' each place it appears in subsections (e), (f), (g), and (h). (5) By striking ``Representative's or'' each place it appears in subsections (g) and (h). (b) Conforming Amendments.-- (1) Statehood commission.--Section 6 of such Initiative (sec. 1-125, D.C. Official Code) is amended-- (A) in subsection (a)-- (i) by striking ``27 voting members'' and inserting ``26 voting members''; (ii) by adding ``and'' at the end of paragraph (5); and (iii) by striking paragraph (6) and redesignating paragraph (7) as paragraph (6); and (B) in subsection (a-1)(1), by striking subparagraph (H). (2) Authorization of appropriations.--Section 8 of such Initiative (sec. 1-127, D.C. Official Code) is amended by striking ``and House''. (3) Application of honoraria limitations.--Section 4 of D.C. Law 8-135 (sec. 1-131, D.C. Official Code) is amended by striking ``or Representative'' each place it appears. (4) Application of campaign finance laws.--Section 3 of the Statehood Convention Procedural Amendments Act of 1982 (sec. 1- 135, D.C. Official Code) is amended by striking ``and United States Representative''. (5) District of columbia elections code of 1955.--The District of Columbia Elections Code of 1955 is amended-- (A) in section 2(13) (sec. 1-1001.02(13), D.C. Official Code), by striking ``United States Senator and Representative,'' and inserting ``United States Senator,''; and (B) in section 10(d) (sec. 1-1001.10(d)(3), D.C. Official Code), by striking ``United States Representative or''. (c) Effective Date.--The amendments made by this section shall apply with respect to elections occurring during 2006 and any succeeding year. SEC. 7. NONSEVERABILITY OF PROVISIONS. If any provision of this Act or any amendment made by this Act is held invalid, the remaining provisions of this Act or any amendment made by this Act shall be treated as invalid.

Title: To provide for the treatment of the District of Columbia as a Congressional district for purposes of representation in the House of Representatives, and for other purposes Summary: District of Columbia Fair and Equal House Voting Rights Act of 2006 - (Sec. 3) Considers the District of Columbia a congressional district for purposes of representation in the House of Representatives. Applies to the District in the same manner as it applies to a state the federal law providing for the fifteenth and subsequent decennial censuses and for apportionment of Representatives in Congress. Limits the District to one Member under any reapportionment of Members. Modifies the formula regarding the number of presidential electors to subject it to the Twenty-Third amendment to the Constitution in the case of the District. Makes conforming amendments to federal law regarding the Armed Forces (appointments to service academies). (Sec. 4) Increases membership of the House from 435 to 437 Members beginning with the 110th Congress and each succeeding Congress. Provides for a reapportionment of Members resulting from such increase. Prescribes a procedure for identifying the additional Representative to which a state other than the District of Columbia shall be entitled under this Act. Requires election at large of such additional Representative. Makes conforming amendments to the District of Columbia Elections Code of 1955. (Sec. 5) Repeals provisions of: (1) the District of Columbia Delegate Act establishing the office of District of Columbia Delegate to the House; and (2) the District of Columbia Statehood Constitution Convention Initiative of 1979 providing for electing a Senator and Representative for the District.

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Summarize: A bird sits by a Saudi Arabia's flag on the roof top of Saudi Arabia's consulate in Istanbul, Sunday, Oct. 14, 2018. Writer Jamal Khashoggi vanished after he walked into the consulate on Oct. 2. (AP Photo/Petros... (Associated Press) A bird sits by a Saudi Arabia's flag on the roof top of Saudi Arabia's consulate in Istanbul, Sunday, Oct. 14, 2018. Writer Jamal Khashoggi vanished after he walked into the consulate on Oct. 2. (AP Photo/Petros Giannakouris) (Associated Press) ISTANBUL (AP) — Turkey and Saudi Arabia are expected to conduct a joint "inspection" on Monday of the Saudi Consulate in Istanbul, nearly two weeks after the disappearance of Washington Post columnist Jamal Khashoggi, Turkish officials said. The announcement from an official at Turkey's Foreign Ministry comes as international concern continues to grow over the writer who vanished on a visit to the consulate on Oct. 2. American lawmakers have threatened tough punitive action against the Saudis, and Germany, France and Britain jointly called for a "credible investigation" into Khashoggi's disappearance. The Foreign Ministry official spoke on condition of anonymity in line with government regulations. Turkish officials have said they fear a Saudi hit team killed and dismembered Khashoggi, who wrote critically of Saudi Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman. The kingdom has called such allegations "baseless" but has not offered any evidence Khashoggi ever left the consulate. President Donald Trump has said Saudi Arabia could face "severe punishment" if it was proven it was involved in Khashoggi's disappearance. On Sunday, Saudi Arabia warned that if it "receives any action, it will respond with greater action, and that the kingdom's economy has an influential and vital role in the global economy." "The kingdom affirms its total rejection of any threats and attempts to undermine it, whether by threatening to impose economic sanctions, using political pressures or repeating false accusations," said the statement, carried by the state-run Saudi Press Agency. The statement did not elaborate. However, a column published in English a short time later by the general manager of the Saudi-owned Al-Arabiya satellite news network suggested Saudi Arabia could use its oil production as a weapon. Benchmark Brent crude is trading at around $80 a barrel, and Trump has criticized OPEC and Saudi Arabia over rising prices. Saudi media followed on from that statement in television broadcasts and newspaper front pages Monday. The Arabic-language daily Okaz wrote a headline on Monday in English warning: "Don't Test Our Patience." It showed a clenched fist made of a crowd of people in the country's green color. The Saudi Gazette trumpeted: "Enough Is Enough," while the Arab News said: "Saudi Arabia 'will not be bullied'." The Arab News' headline was above a front-page editorial by Dubai-based real-estate tycoon Khalaf al-Habtoor, calling on Gulf Arab nations to boycott international firms now backing out of a planned economic summit in Riyadh later this month. "Together we must prove we will not be bullied or else, mark my words, once they have finished kicking the kingdom, we will be next in line," al-Habtoor said. Already, international business leaders are pulling out of the kingdom's upcoming investment forum, a high-profile event known as "Davos in the Desert." They include the CEO of Uber, a company in which Saudi Arabia has invested billions of dollars; billionaire Richard Branson; JPMorgan Chase & Co. Chief Executive Jamie Dimon; and Ford Motor Co. Executive Chairman Bill Ford. News that the CEO of Uber, Dara Khosrowshahi, would pull out of the conference drew angry responses across the region. The foreign minister of the neighboring island kingdom of Bahrain, Khalid bin Ahmed Al Khalifa, tweeted Sunday night that there should be a boycott of the ride-hailing app both there and in Saudi Arabia. Late Sunday, Saudi King Salman spoke by telephone with Turkish President Recep Tayyip Erdogan about Khashoggi. Turkey said Erdogan "stressed the forming of a joint working group to probe the case." Saudi Arabia, meanwhile, said King Salman thanked Erdogan "for welcoming the kingdom's proposal" for forming the working group. The king also said Turkey and Saudi Arabia enjoy close relations and "that no one will get to undermine the strength of this relationship," according to a statement on the state-run Saudi Press Agency. While Turkey and the kingdom differ on political issues, Saudi investments are a crucial lifeline for Ankara amid trouble with its national currency, the Turkish lira. Prince Mohammed, King Salman's son, has aggressively pitched the kingdom as a destination for foreign investment. But Khashoggi's disappearance has led several business leaders and media outlets to back out of the upcoming investment conference in Riyadh called the Future Investment Initiative. Khashoggi has written extensively for the Post about Saudi Arabia, criticizing its war in Yemen, its recent diplomatic spat with Canada and its arrest of women's rights activists after the lifting of a ban on women driving. Those policies are all seen as initiatives of the crown prince. ___ Fraser reported from Ankara, Turkey, and Gambrell reported from Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Associated Press writer Yuri Kageyama in Tokyo contributed to this report. JPMorgan Chase & Co. Chief Executive James Dimon has backed out of Saudi Arabia’s marquee business conference following accusations that the Saudi government ordered the killing of journalist Jamal Khashoggi. JPMorgan spokesman Joe Evangelisti declined to comment on why Mr. Dimon pulled out of the event and whether another executive would go in his place. Mr....

Summary: With international pressure on Saudi Arabia seeming to intensify by the day, the Saudis have agreed to a joint inspection of their consulate in Istanbul with Turkish officials. The inspection will take place Monday, almost two weeks after journalist Jamal Khashoggi disappeared after entering the facility, reports the AP. The Turks say that a Saudi hit team murdered and dismembered the frequent critic of the regime inside the consulate, while the Saudis say he left unharmed. Over the weekend, President Trump warned of "severe punishment" if the Turkish allegations are true, while the Saudis suggested that they could torpedo the world economy in response to any penalties. In another sign of the pressure building on Saudi Arabia, JPMorgan chief Jamie Dimon announced that he would not attend the marquis Future Investment Initiative in Riyadh. Other business execs had previously announced they would skip as well, but Dimon is the biggest world financier to pull out, reports the Wall Street Journal. He had been scheduled as a featured speaker. JPMorgan has ties with Saudi Arabia that go back to the 1930s, notes the newspaper.

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Summarize: Background A structured settlement is the payment of money for a personal injury claim in which at least part of the settlement calls for future payment. The payments may be scheduled for any length of time, even as long as the claimant’s lifetime, and may consist of installment payments and/or future lump sums. Payments can be in fixed amounts, or they can vary. The schedule is structured to meet the financial needs of the claimant. For years, structured settlements have been widely used in the tort area to compensate severely injured, often profoundly disabled, tort victims. Cases generally involve medical malpractice and other personal injury. The Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) is the statute by which the United States authorizes tort suits to be brought against itself. With certain exceptions,it makes the United States liable for injuries caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any federal employee acting within the scope of his or her employment, in accordance with the law of the state where the act or omission occurred. Generally, a tort claim against the United States is barred unless it is presented in writing to the appropriate federal agency within 2 years after the claim accrues. In addition, the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, as amended, created a mechanism for compensating persons injured by certain pharmaceutical products. The act established the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP) as an alternative to traditional product liability and/or medical malpractice litigation for persons injured by their receipt of one or more of the standard childhood vaccines required for admission to schools and by certain employers. VICP is “no- fault.” That is, claimants need not establish that the vaccine was defective, or that any degree of negligence was involved in its administration. The only liability-related question is causation—did the vaccine cause the injury for which compensation is sought? The industry standard of practice requires the use of a licensed broker or insurance agent to obtain a settlement annuity. DOJ’s Civil Divisionestimated that structured settlements constitute between 1 and 2 percent of all settlements in litigated tort cases. Brokers receive no direct compensation from the government; rather, they are compensated by the insurance company from whom the annuity is purchased. The insurance company typically pays the brokers’ commissions, which amount to 3 or 4 percent of the annuity premium. The government attorney negotiating the case is responsible for selecting the broker. Structured settlements for the federal government are negotiated by the Civil Division’s torts attorneys, Assistant United States Attorneys (AUSAs), or agency attorneys. AUSAs are authorized to settle certain cases. An agency may not settle a tort claim for more than $25,000 without the prior written approval of the Attorney General or her designee, unless the Attorney General has delegated to the head of the agency the authority to do so. Objectives, Scope, and Methodology To ascertain DOJ’s policies and guidance for the selection of settlement brokers, we reviewed the Torts Branch handbook, Damages Under the Federal Tort Claim Act (section V: Settlements), and other relevant documents pertaining to broker selection policies. In addition, to obtain information about the procedures used to select brokers, we interviewed attorneys in DOJ’s Civil Division and representatives from the Executive Office for United States Attorneys (EOUSA). To obtain information on broker selection policies and guidance used by federal agencies, we asked DOJ to identify other federal agencies that handled structured settlement claims. DOJ identified six agencies—HHS and VA; the Air Force, Army, and Navy; and the U.S. Postal Service. At each of the six agencies, we met with officials who were responsible for negotiating structured settlement claims. We discussed their policies and procedures for selecting structured settlement brokers and asked them what factors they considered during the selection process. In addition, we obtained and reviewed a copy of the Army’s standard operating procedures pertaining to structured settlements. Also, we asked the six agencies to supply information pertaining to the number of structured settlements since May 1997. To provide the list of DOJ’s structured settlement annuities between May 1, 1997, and May 1, 1999, we used data DOJ collected from the Civil Division and the United States Attorneys Offices. The Civil Division’s data came from the Torts Branch, which routinely handles structured settlements. The United States Attorneys’ data were collected by EOUSA and include all the data received by EOUSA as of August 12, 1999. As of that date, 34 of the 94 United States Attorneys offices had reported annuity settlements during the relevant time period. We did not verify the accuracy of the information collected from the Torts Branch or EOUSA. To gain a broader understanding of structured settlements, we met with the Executive Vice President of the National Structured Settlement Trade Association (NSSTA). We obtained information concerning brokers working with federal structured settlements. We did our audit work between June and December 1999 in accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards. We requested comments on a draft of this report from the United States Attorney General or her designee. Also, in January we discussed the contents of this report with VA’s Assistant General Counsel; U.S. Postal Service’ Claims Division Counsel; and the Army’s Torts Claims Division Chief. Also, we obtain comments for the Air Force and Navy from DoD’s Senior Report Analysis for the GAO Affairs Directorate. In addition, we spoke with HHS’ Associate General Counsel. The written and oral comments we received are discussed near the end of the report. Federal Policies for Selecting Structured Settlement Brokers Lacked Adequate Internal Control Although DOJ had established policies and guidance for the selection of structured settlement brokers, the policies and guidance did not include an internal control requiring attorneys to document their reasons for selecting a specific broker. Similarly, although the six agencies we reviewed said they generally followed DOJ’s policy guidance for selecting a structured settlement broker, they were not required to document their reasons for selecting a particular broker. None of these agencies documented the reasons why they selected particular brokers. DOJ Did Not Document Reasons for Selecting Brokers DOJ had established policies and guidance governing the selection of structured settlement brokers, but it did not require that the reasons for selecting a specific broker be documented. On July 16, 1993, the Director of the Civil Division’s Torts Branch, which is responsible for FTCA claims and litigation, issued a memorandum that was intended to supplement the guidance on structured settlements in the Damages Handbook and to codify previous informal guidance on the selection of structured settlement brokers. Neither the Damages Handbook nor the memorandum addressed documenting the reasons for selecting a specific broker. On June 30, 1997, the Acting Associate Attorney General expanded the policy guidance by issuing a memorandum to United States Attorneys. However, the new guidance did not address documenting the reasons for broker selections. Generally, the 1997 policy guidance outlined procedures concerning the selection of structured settlement brokers. These included: Every broker was to be given an opportunity to promote its services. No lists of “approved,” “preferred,” or “disapproved” brokers were to be maintained. Brokers who performed well in the past were to be appropriately considered for repeated use: however, such use could not be to the exclusion of new brokers. Attorneys were expected to look to supervisory attorneys for assistance; however, final broker selection was the responsibility of the attorney negotiating the settlement. When a structured settlement in an FTCA case included a reversionary interest in favor of the United States, the Torts Branch’s FTCA staff was to be consulted to maintain appropriate records and ensure consistency. Any activity tending toward an appearance of favoritism, any action contrary to any of the above rules, or any activity incongruent with the spirit of the memorandum was to be scrupulously avoided. According to agency officials, attorneys sometimes asked each other about their experiences with a particular broker, but the attorney negotiating the case is responsible for making the final broker selection, and is not required to consult with the FTCA staff. DOJ officials told us that in the absence of a requirement to do so, they did not document the reasons for selecting particular settlement brokers. The Comptroller General’s guidance on internal controls in the federal government, Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government (GAO/AIMD-00-21.3.1), requires that all transactions and significant events are to be clearly documented and that the documentation is to be readily available for examination. The documentation should appear in management directives, administrative policies, or operating manuals and may be in paper or electronic form. All documentation and records should be properly managed and maintained. Selected Agencies Did Not Document Reasons for Selecting Brokers During 1999, DOJ provided its policy guidance to the six selected agencies in our review—HHS and VA; the Air Force, Army, and Navy; and the Postal Service. Generally, the selection processes the agencies said they had were similar to DOJ’s, (e.g., the attorney negotiating a case made the final decision, no list of approved or disapproved structured settlement brokers was maintained). Five agencies in our review identified various factors they considered when selecting a structured settlement broker. For example: HHS, Postal Service, and VA officials told us that they tended to select brokers with offices in the Washington, D.C., area. According to VA officials, the use of distantly located brokers created problems because of (1) differences in time zones and (2) the inability of nonlocal brokers to physically conduct work on short notice. Air Force, Navy, and VA officials told us that they put considerable weight on an impressive presentation given by the broker’s firm. HHS, Navy, Postal Service, and VA officials said they looked at the broker’s knowledge and experience in handling structured settlement cases for the federal government and based their selections on positive past experiences. Navy and Postal Service officials said they looked for brokers with a reputation for being dependable and responsible. In addition, the Army had established supplemental policies governing the selection of structured settlement brokers. According to the Army’s standard operating procedures, brokers were to be selected on a case-by- case basis according to the following criteria: (1) the broker’s ability to become a member of the negotiating team, participate in negotiations, and travel at his or her own expense; (2) the selecting administrative officer’s previous interviews with or knowledge of the broker; (3) the broker’s ability to present his views verbally (if the case requires in-person negotiations); and (4) the broker’s experience if the administrative officer is inexperienced. In certain more specialized cases, the selecting administrative officer’s choice of a specific broker must be approved by a higher authority. Even though federal agencies we surveyed said they provided policy guidance on broker selection, none of them required documentation of the reasons for selecting a structured settlement broker. In the absence of this requirement, none documented the reason for selection. DOJ Selected a Few Brokers to Handle Most Settlements Claims DOJ has selected several structured settlement brokerage companies to handle most of the structured settlement claims. Between May 1, 1997, and May 1, 1999, DOJ used 27 different structured settlement brokerage companies to settle 242 claims for $236 million. (See table 1 for the number and total annuity costs of annuity settlements handled by brokers.) Of the 242 claims awarded, 70 percent (169 cases) were awarded to 4 brokerage companies. One of the four companies was awarded 30 percent (72 cases) of the total number of cases. The remaining 23 companies were awarded 30 percent of the total number of cases. Because DOJ did not document the reasons for selecting a particular broker, DOJ officials could not specifically say why certain companies received more business than others. However, as noted previously, DOJ officials cited a variety of reasons for selecting a specific structured settlement broker, such as experience, dependability, and knowledge of federal structured claims. According to DOJ, the companies frequently have multiple offices and brokers that compete with each other within the same company. Thus, a simple count of the number of companies could be misleading. Conclusions DOJ has developed policies and guidance for selecting structured settlement brokers and disseminated this information to the six other federal agencies with authority to handle structured settlement claims that we contacted. However, the policies and guidance lacked an internal control requiring that the reasons for selecting a broker be documented and readily available for examination. This is important because without documentation of transactions or other significant events, DOJ can not be certain that its policies and guidance on selecting structured settlement brokers are being followed. Further, without documentation on the reasons settlement brokers were selected, it is more difficult to avoid the appearance of favoritism and preferential treatment in a situation where some brokers get significantly more business than others. Recommendations We recommend that the Attorney General of the United States direct the Director of the Torts Branch responsible for FTCA claims and litigation, Civil Division, to develop an adequate internal control to ensure that the reasons for selecting structured settlement brokers are always fully documented and readily available for examination; and disseminate this guidance to federal agencies, including those in our survey, responsible for handling structured settlement claims. Agency Comments We requested comments on a draft of this report from the Attorney General or her designee. On January 18, 2000, the Acting Assistant Attorney General, Civil Division provided us with written comments, which are printed in full in appendix I. The Justice Department expressed appreciation that the report “outlines the many steps undertaken by the Department to ensure fairness in the broker selection process.” DOJ said its existing policies and guidance to ensure that the selection of brokers is fair are effective. Therefore, it disagreed with our recommendation that DOJ implement an adequate internal control to ensure that the reasons for selecting a specific structured settlement broker are always fully documented and readily available for examination. DOJ noted that the Comptroller General’s Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government specify that management should design and implement internal controls based on the related costs and benefits. It stated that it was DOJ’s belief that the costs of implementing the recommendation, in terms of diversion of attention from substantive issues and generation of extra paperwork, would substantially outweigh any benefits. We recognize that determining whether to implement a particular internal control involves a judgment about whether the benefits outweigh the costs. We believe that the benefits of implementing our recommendation would outweigh any associated costs and paperwork. As stated in this report, these benefits are twofold: requiring documentation would help enable DOJ to (1) determine if its policies and guidance on selecting brokers are being followed and (2) protect DOJ from charges of favoritism towards a specific broker or brokers. Further, noting the reasons for selecting a specific broker in the case file at the time the selection is made would appear to require only minimal paperwork or cost. For example, a concise memo to the file stating the rationale for the selection would suffice. DOJ also expressed concern that, although we observed that most structured settlements have been awarded to a relatively small number of companies, we did not mention that many of the selected companies had multiple offices and brokers that competed for the same work. According to DOJ, by “treating as a monolith all brokers affiliated with the major companies, the draft report ignores the actual way those businesses are run and runs the risk of significantly understating the actual number of brokers competing to handle DOJ structured settlements.” In response, we have noted that according to DOJ, because structured settlement companies may have multiple offices and brokers, the number of companies could be misleading. Data were not readily available for us to determine the extent to which multiple brokers within a single company competed for the same settlement. Nevertheless, the number and cost of settlements by brokerage company show that DOJ placed the majority of its settlement work with a relatively small number of companies—a situation that still could open it up to charges of favoritism towards these companies. Cognizant officials at HHS, VA, Air Force, Army, Navy, and the Postal Service said they generally agreed with the information presented in the report. The Army provided additional information to clarify its policy for selecting structured settlement brokers, and we incorporated this information in the report where appropriate. We are sending copies of this report to Senator Orrin G Hatch, Chairman, and Senator Patrick J. Leahy, Ranking Minority Member, Senate Committee on the Judiciary; Representative Henry J. Hyde, Chairman, and Representative John Conyers, Jr., Ranking Minority Member, House Committee on the Judiciary; and the Honorable Janet Reno, the Attorney General. We are also sending copies to other interested congressional parties. Copies will also be made available to others upon request. If you or your staff have any questions, please call me or Weldon McPhail on (202) 512- 8777. Key contributors to this assignment were Mary Hall and Jan Montgomery. Comments From the Department of Justice Appendix Appendix The first copy of each GAO report and testimony is free. Additional copies are $2 each. Orders should be sent to the following address, accompanied by a check or money order made out to the Superintendent of Documents, when necessary. VISA and MasterCard credit cards are accepted, also. Orders for 100 or more copies to be mailed to a single address are discounted 25 percent. U.S. General Accounting Office P.O. Box 37050 Washington, DC 20013 Room 1100 700 4th St. NW (corner of 4th and G Sts. NW) U.S. General Accounting Office Washington, DC Orders may also be placed by calling (202) 512-6000 or by using fax number (202) 512-6061, or TDD (202) 512-2537. Each day, GAO issues a list of newly available reports and testimony. To receive facsimile copies of the daily list or any list from the past 30 days, please call (202) 512-6000 using a touch- tone phone. A recorded menu will provide information on how to obtain these lists.

Summary: Pursuant to a congressional request, GAO provided information on the Department of Justice's (DOJ) policy and guidance for selecting structured settlement brokers, focusing on: (1) the policies and guidance for selecting structured settlement brokers used by DOJ and six selected agencies; and (2) a list of the structured settlement brokerage companies used by DOJ and the number of settlements awarded to each company since May 1997. GAO noted that: (1) in 1993 and 1997, DOJ issued policies and guidance on the selection of structured settlement brokers to promote fairness and to avoid the appearance of favoritism; (2) DOJ officials told GAO that its policies and guidelines permit some discretion and that when selecting a particular broker, they generally relied on such factors as reputation, past experience, knowledge, and location; (3) however, DOJ officials also told GAO they were unable to specify reasons why attorneys selected particular brokers to settle specific cases, because DOJ did not require documentation of these decisions; (4) without an internal control requiring the reasons for selecting a particular settlement broker be documented and readily available for examination, it is more difficult to verify that selection policies and guidelines were followed and, in turn, to avoid the appearance of favoritism and preferential treatment; (5) overall, the six federal agencies surveyed described policies and guidance in selecting structured settlement brokers that were similar to DOJ's; (6) none of the agencies had internal controls requiring their attorneys to document their reasons for selecting a specific broker; (7) one agency had a written supplemental policy governing the use of structured settlements, but it did not require documentation of decisions; (8) officials at the other five federal agencies said they also generally relied on such factors as reputation, past experience, knowledge, and location for selecting a particular structured settlement broker; (9) however, the reasons why particular brokers were selected for specific cases were not documented; (10) GAO's review of the list of structured settlement brokerage companies used by DOJ and the number of settlements assigned to each company showed that DOJ selected a few companies to handle most of its structured settlement business; (11) according to DOJ, the companies frequently have multiple offices and brokers that compete with each other within the same company; (12) thus, a simple count of the number of companies could be misleading; (13) although DOJ used 27 different structured settlement companies to settle 242 claims for about $236 million between May 1, 1997, and May 1, 1999, 70 percent (169 cases) were awarded to 4 brokerage companies; and (14) of the remaining 23 companies, none were awarded more than 17 cases each.

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Summarize: The largest surge came from midnight to 12:15 as about 800 incoming calls caused wait times to jump to six minutes, far above the city's goal to answer 90 percent of calls within 10 seconds. "We understand that people were concerned," Syed said. "We had people asking if we were being attacked because of what's going on overseas." Dallas officials said they have begun working with the Federal Emergency Management Agency to add an alert system that would send messages to all cellphones in the area when there is an emergency. The city said it also has asked the Federal Communications Commission to help find who is responsible for the security breach. In November, the City Council approved a $567,368 budget to maintain and repair all of the city's emergency sirens over the next six years. Michigan-based West Shore Services was the winning bidder for the city contract. The company's operations manager, Luke Miller, said Saturday that the city had not notified him that the system had been hacked. "I am trying to get information along with everyone else," he said. "I don't know know anything." Miller said he expects his company will help investigate what went wrong. Council member Philip Kingston, a member of the Public Safety Committee, said Saturday morning that officials will move the compromised emergency system to the top of their agenda. "And that's sad, because the list is so long," he said, referring to other problems, including the short-staffed 911 call center. Tweet with a location You can add location information to your Tweets, such as your city or precise location, from the web and via third-party applications. You always have the option to delete your Tweet location history. Learn more We've detected that JavaScript is disabled in your browser. Would you like to proceed to legacy Twitter? Yes A computer hack set off all the emergency sirens in Dallas for about 90 minutes overnight in one of the largest known breaches of a siren warning system, officials in the Texas city said on Saturday. Dallas' 156 sirens, normally used to warn of tornadoes and other dangerous weather, were triggered at 11:42 p.m. CDT on Friday. The wailing did not end until 1:17 a.m. CDT on Saturday when engineers manually shut down the sirens' radio system and repeaters, city Emergency Management Director Rocky Vaz said. "At this point, we can tell you with a good deal of confidence that this was somebody outside of our system that got in there and activated our sirens," he told reporters. The breach in the city of 1.6 million people was believed to have originated in the area, city spokeswoman Sana Syed said in an emailed statement. Vaz cited industry experts as saying the hack was among the largest ever to affect emergency sirens, with most breaches triggering one or two. "This is a very, very rare event," he said. Engineers are working to restart the system and should have it restored by late on Sunday, he said. Until the sirens are running, Dallas will rely on local media, emergency 911 phone calls, and a federal radio alert system, Vaz said. The hack is being investigated by system engineers and the Federal Communications Commission has been contacted, but police have not been involved, he said. The sirens went through 15 cycles of a 90-second activation before they were shut down, he said. The wailing sirens triggered a firestorm of speculation and reaction on Twitter, with Garrett S. Bacak at @theinsidiousone tweeting, "Go home dallas, you're drunk." Glynn Wilcox wrote on @glynnwilcox, "At this point I'm never trusting a #siren again." (Reporting by Ian Simpson; Editing by Richard Chang) Mr. Vaz said emergency workers and technicians had to first figure out whether the sirens had been activated because of an actual emergency. And turning off the sirens also proved difficult, eventually prompting officials to shut down the entire system. “Every time we thought we had turned it off, the sirens would sound again, because whoever was hacking us was continuously hacking us,” Ms. Syed said. The system was still down on Saturday afternoon, and officials said they hoped to have it functional again by the end of the weekend. They said they had pinpointed the origin of the security breach after ruling out that the alarms had come from their control system or from remote access. “Talking to all the experts in the siren industry, in the field,” Mr. Vaz said. “This is a very rare event.” Mr. Vaz said that Dallas had reached out to the Federal Communications Commission for help and was taking steps to prevent hackers from setting off the entire system again, but that city officials had not communicated with federal law enforcement authorities. The city has had other recent struggles with its emergency systems. Its 911 system has had a problem with one phone carrier that has caused wait times as long as 26 minutes, The Dallas Morning News reported. At least 4,400 calls came into the area’s 911 system locally in the hours around the attack on Friday night, Ms. Syed said — about double the amount normal overnight. The longest wait time was about six minutes, she said. Security officials have warned for years about the risks that hacking attacks can pose to infrastructure. The number of attacks on critical infrastructure appears to have risen: to nearly 300 in 2015 from just under 200 in 2012, according to federal data. In 2013, hackers tied to the Iranian military tried to gain control of a small dam in upstate New York. Dallas residents got an unexpected wake up call Friday, April 8 when all the city's 156 emergency sirens were set off just before midnight. Officials says a hacker was to blame. (Reuters) Last year, someone kept hacking into traffic signs in Dallas — corrupting bland electronic messages into jokey missives such as: “Work is Canceled — Go Back Home” and “Donald Trump Is A Shapeshifting Lizard!!” Funny? Dumb? Vandalism? Whatever your opinion of the pranks, the big Dallas hack of 2016 had one quality totally lacking in this year’s sequel: It was silent. On Friday night, 18 minutes before midnight, every single one of Dallas’s 156 emergency weather sirens started doing this: The sirens, whose purpose is to be heard by anyone caught outdoors in a tornado or dangerous storm, screamed from the southern reaches of Oak Cliff to newspaper columnist Robert Wilonsky’s house in the north. They blared for an hour and a half, to the annoyance, terror or amusement of 1.3 million residents. Everything we know about the hacking of Dallas' emergency #sirens last night: https://t.co/4NwI27ICi0 I am also a little tired. pic.twitter.com/ktDamzBWgC — Robert Wilonsky (@RobertWilonsky) April 8, 2017 The sirens are something of a spring feature in that part of Texas, which occasionally sees twisters roam past office towers, and where three tornadoes touched down just days earlier, as the Dallas Morning News reported. But not so much in clear weather, at midnight. So awoken Dallasites could only guess what was happening until city workers tried to figure out the same. Dallas emergency sirens mean: — Rafael Anchia (@RafaelAnchia) April 8, 2017 Not everyone cracked jokes. “We had people asking if we were being attacked because of what’s going on overseas,” a city spokeswoman said the next day. And thousands of people flooded the Dallas 911 system (which has had its own technical problems), she said, leaving people with real emergencies waiting on the line for long minutes. [T-Mobile ‘ghost calls’ clog Dallas 911. Families blame backlog for deaths.] After nearly an hour of wee-ooo, the city said it was trying to fix the problem, which it initially called a malfunction. So, more jokes. dallas siren guy had one job pic.twitter.com/ySpowUZVvG — kris • (@kristinareljaa) April 8, 2017 By 1:20 a.m., flummoxed officials had decided the only way to stop the noise was “to unplug the radio systems and the repeater, and pretty much turn the siren system completely off,” as emergency management director Rocky Vaz explained to reporters the next day. At that same news conference (ironically drowned out at one point by ambulance sirens) city spokeswoman Sana Syed announced that the 95 minutes of howling had not been a glitch after all. “It does appear at this time it was a hack,” she said. “And we do believe it came from the Dallas area.” Dude…. SERIOUSLY. This is a hack. of "CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE " Dallas emergency sirens still Wailing. — Turnbolt77 (@turnbolt11) April 8, 2017 Officials have ruled out a remote hack — telling reporters someone gained physical access to a hub connecting all the sirens, which may not be turned on again until Monday as the city tries to figure out who, how and why. “Talking to all the experts in the siren industry in the field, this is a very, very rare event,” Vaz said. He’d said he’d heard of a city having a few individual sirens tampered with the early 1990s — but nothing like a citywide hack. The city has asked the Federal Communications Commission to track down the culprit and is looking for alternative alert systems in case the sirens aren’t back up before expected storms roll in early next week. And whatever was said on Twitter that night, officials aren’t laughing. “You can put me down as terrified,” a city council member told the Morning News. Mayor Mike Rawlings called the hack “an attack on our emergency notification system.” He urged upgrades to Dallas’s chronically and sometimes dangerously wonky electronic infrastructure and promised the city would “identify and prosecute those responsible.” Still, though, the jokes. Who is behind the hack of the #Dallas #siren system? Who could it be but Hackerman himself, #Vladimir #Putin? Prank back for the airbase? pic.twitter.com/3pCw5sNnRT — Trump Image Library (@TrumpLibrary) April 8, 2017 More reading: Somebody keeps hacking Dallas road signs with messages about Donald Trump and Harambe the gorilla Details emerge about 2014 Russian hack of the State Department: It was ‘hand to hand combat’ WikiLeaks says it has obtained trove of CIA hacking tools A live stream of Shia LaBeouf chanting was disrupted by Nazi-themed dancing. Then things got weird. DALLAS (CN) – Dallas Mayor Mike Rawlings pledged Saturday to find and prosecute the hackers who caused all of the city’s 156 emergency sirens to blare for several hours in the middle of the night, causing alarm and annoyance. City officials said the siren system was hacked into Friday night. “For security reasons, we cannot discuss the details of how this was done, but we do believe that the hack came from the Dallas area,” spokeswoman Sana Syed said in a statement Saturday. “We have notified the FCC [Federal Communications Commission] for assistance in identifying the source of this hack. We are putting safeguards to ensure this type of hack does not happen again.” Syed said all of the sirens were activated at 11:42 p.m. Friday and were not completely deactivated by city workers until 1:17 a.m. Rocky Vaz, director of Dallas’ Office of Emergency Management, told reporters the sirens blared for 90 seconds at a time for at least 15 times. “Talking to all the experts in the siren industry in the field, this is a very rare event,” he said. Rawlings said the hack was “yet another serious example of the need for us to upgrade and better safeguard our city’s technology infrastructure,” alluding to recent issues with the city’s 911 system and lengthy call delays for users from certain cellular phone providers. “It’s a costly proposition, which is why every dollar of taxpayer money must be spent with critical needs such as this in mind,” Rawlings said in a statement. “Making the necessary improvements is imperative for the safety of our citizens.” Despite being told by city leaders not to dial 911 to inquire about the sirens, Dallas residents made more than 4,400 calls between 11:30 p.m. and 3:00 a.m. – a twofold increase in calls the 911 system typically handles on a Friday night, Syed said. “We understand that people were concerned,” Syed told The Dallas Morning News. “We had people asking if we were being attacked because of what’s going on overseas.” Dallas residents expressed confusion on social media at the sirens blaring during a clear night while others were concerned that they were blaring so soon after President Donald Trump’s missile strike on a Syrian airbase last week. Syed said turning off the sirens proved difficult, requiring a shutdown of the entire system. “Every time we thought we had turned it off, the sirens would sound again, because whoever was hacking us was continuously hacking us,” Syed told The New York Times. Like this: Like Loading...

Summary: Dallas got a rather unpleasant wakeup call over the weekend: nearly 160 emergency sirens blaring throughout the city in tandem, in what Rocky Vaz, director of the city's Office of Emergency Management, says was the result of hacking from "someone outside our system" but in or near the city, per the Dallas Morning News. The 156 sirens-which Reuters notes are used to warn about dangerous weather sweeping in-started screaming at 11:42pm Friday and weren't completely turned off until 1:17am Saturday, going off for 90 seconds at a time at least 15 times, city rep Sana Syed says, per Courthouse News Service. Vaz told reporters an infrastructure hacking like this is a "very rare event" and that workers had to eventually power down the whole system when other methods of shutting off the sirens weren't working, the New York Times reports. The Washington Post notes that jokes started circulating even as the sirens were still singing their late-night song. Some compared it to the end of the world, while Rep. Rafael Anchia put up a poll wondering if it was a Mothra versus Godzilla situation or perhaps a zombie apocalypse. But not everyone chuckled: Syed told the Times that some feared it was a bomb or missile, especially in the wake of US strikes on Syria two nights earlier. Even though the city took to Twitter to plead with locals not to tie up 911, there were more than 4,400 calls made in a four-hour span-about double what Dallas usually sees on a Friday night. Finding out what happened is now at the top of the Dallas City Council's long to-do list, with one city council member telling the Morning News, "You can put me down as terrified."

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Summarize: Asiana crew 'over-relied' on automated systems, NTSB report finds Crew misunderstood systems, NTSB finds Debris from the July 2013 crash lies on the runway. The pilots were too dependent on automated systems they didn't understand, the report found. Debris from the July 2013 crash lies on the runway. The pilots were too dependent on automated systems they didn't understand, the report found. Photo: Carlos Avila Gonzalez, The Chronicle Photo: Carlos Avila Gonzalez, The Chronicle Image 1 of / 3 Caption Close Asiana crew 'over-relied' on automated systems, NTSB report finds 1 / 3 Back to Gallery (06-25) 16:26 PDT WASHINGTON -- The crew of the Asiana Airlines plane that crashed last year at San Francisco International Airport relied too much on automated flight controls they didn't fully understand and mismanaged the landing as it went wrong, a federal safety panel concluded Tuesday. The National Transportation Safety Board also found that the three-member crew flying the Boeing 777 was fatigued at the end of a cross-Pacific trip from South Korea and distracted by cockpit duties as the plane made its final approach July 6 - both of which probably contributed to their failure to notice that the jet was descending too quickly and losing speed. Based on its findings, the safety board recommended that Boeing create better training manuals and procedures for using its automatic throttle controls. It also urged Asiana to improve its training methods and give more manual flight instruction to its pilots so they will be better able to handle any confusion about automation. Crew'mismanagement' A majority of the board, however, pinned the crash squarely on pilot "mismanagement," describing as many as 30 errors that cascaded from minor and correctable 14 miles out of San Francisco to catastrophic and irreversible moments before the crash. The three pilots on board "had multiple opportunities to recover if it wasn't going well" but failed to do so, said agency investigator Roger Cox. The plane's instrument panel puts "plenty of cues in front of you telling what you have done, but you have to look at them," he said. Investigators said the pilots "lacked critical manual flying skills." SFO's worst accident Three passengers died and nearly 200 were injured when Asiana Flight 214 hit a seawall short of the runway, broke apart and caught fire, in the worst accident ever at SFO. One passenger, a 16-year-old girl from China, was run over by two San Francisco fire rigs in the confusion of the emergency response. Much of the safety board's attention focused on whether the South Korean crew members adequately understood systems that they believed would automatically prevent the plane from losing too much speed. Christopher Hart, the board's acting chairman, said the crew "over-relied on automated systems that they did not fully understand." The board's investigation team said the crew's key error was a lack of knowledge about how to use the auto-throttle, which is meant to maintain a safe speed. The flying pilot, who had eight years of experience with Asiana but was a novice on the Boeing 777, had disengaged the autopilot when the plane climbed too high, putting the auto-throttle into a hold mode. He expected the auto-throttle to "wake up" if the plane's airspeed slowed too much, investigators found. However, because he had also turned off the autopilot, the auto-throttle was stuck in idle - a functional interaction of the controls that he did not know about. As a result, the plane's speed fell to 118 mph when it hit the seawall, well below the target speed of 157 mph for a landing. The pilot, Lee Kang-guk, 45, told investigators he was "astonished" upon learning that the auto-throttle didn't work as he expected. Investigators said the throttle mode was displayed on the instrument panel and that the pilots all failed to "call out" their actions to alert each other as to what each was doing. Defending crew While some safety board members sharply criticized the pilots, board member Robert Sumwalt, a former pilot, forcefully defended the crew. He said Asiana's training for using the automated throttle system was insufficient - and that there was misunderstanding even among some U.S. trainers about the system on the Boeing 777. "The errors of the pilots were not because of any incompetence," Sumwalt said. "They were because of an expectation that the autopilot auto-throttle system would do something the airplane was not designed to do." Boeing took issue Tuesday with the board's recommendation that it make the interface between the plane's automated systems and pilots more intuitive. In a statement, the company said it "respectfully disagrees" with the finding that the 777's auto-flight system contributed to the accident, saying the evidence showed that "all of the airplane's systems performed as designed." Tired pilots? Asiana Airlines issued a statement saying the safety board "properly recognized the multiple factors that contributed to this accident." One of the factors, the safety board found, was fatigue on the part of pilots landing the plane at what would have been nighttime in Seoul after a 10 1/2-hour flight. But investigators did not explain how the Asiana pilots' fatigue differed from that of any other international flight crew, and some experts dismissed the finding. "That's an absurdity," said aviation consultant Barry Schiff of Los Angeles. "Every pilot is off his time zone when he goes across the ocean. We've had to put up that since the beginning of flight. "The bottom line is the pilots failed to monitor and maintain proper flying speed, which is about as fundamental as it gets," Schiff said. "Whether the auto-throttle system functioned as it should have is irrelevant." This story has been corrected since it appeared in print editions. FILE - In this July 6, 2013 aerial file photo, the wreckage of Asiana Flight 214 lies on the ground after it crashed at the San Francisco International Airport in San Francisco. Nearly a year after Asiana... (Associated Press) The National Transportation Safety Board said there was confusion over whether one of the airliner's key controls was maintaining speed. The agency also cited the complexity of the Boeing 777's autothrottle and pilot training by the South Korea-based airline as contributing to the crash, which killed three passengers and injured more than 200. The plane, with 307 people on board, was too low and too slow during the landing attempt. Its tail struck a seawall and was ripped off. The rest of plane went spinning and sliding down the runway. The crash was the only fatal passenger airline accident in the U.S. in the last five years. Before the vote, Chris Hart, the NTSB's acting chairman, said that increasingly complex automated aircraft controls designed to improve safety are instead creating new opportunities for error. The Asiana flight crew "over-relied on automated systems that they did not fully understand," he said. Among the other issues raised by the investigation are some that long have concerned aviation officials, including hesitancy by some pilots to abort a landing when things go awry or to challenge a captain's actions. The irony of the accident is that it occurred at all. Three experienced pilots were in the cockpit on July 6, 2013. The plane, a Boeing 777, had one of the industry's best safety records. And weather conditions that sunny day were near perfect. But the wide-bodied jetliner with 307 people on board was too low and too slow during the landing. It struck a seawall just short of the runway, ripping off the tail and sending the rest of the plane spinning and skidding down the runway. When the shattered plane came to rest, a fire erupted. Despite the violence of the crash, only three people were killed - Chinese teens seated in the back who may not have been wearing their seatbelts and were thrown from the plane. One of the teenage girls survived the crash but was run over by two rescue vehicles in the chaos afterward. Nearly 200 people were injured. In documents made public by the safety board, Asiana acknowledged the likely cause of the accident was the crew's failure to monitor and maintain the plane's airspeed, and its failure to abort the landing when in trouble. The South Korea-based airline said the pilot and co-pilot reasonably believed the automatic throttle would keep the plane flying fast enough to land safely, when in fact the auto throttle was effectively shut off after the pilot idled it to correct an unexplained climb earlier in the landing. Asiana said the plane should have been designed so that the auto throttle would maintain the proper speed after the pilot put it in "hold mode." Boeing had been warned about the problem by U.S. and European aviation regulators. Asiana urged the safety board to recommend that the aircraft maker be required to include an audible warning to alert pilots when the throttle changes to a setting in which it no longer is maintaining speed. "Asiana has a point," said John Cox, a former airline pilot and aviation safety consultant, "but this is not the first time it has happened. Any of these highly automated airplanes have these conditions that require special training and pilot awareness.... This is something that has been known for many years and trained for many years." Boeing told the board there was nothing wrong with the plane, and the crash was caused by the failure of the pilots to maintain speed and to abort the landing when the approach had become unstable, as required by their company's policies. An unstable approach occurs when a plane's speed or rate of descent is too fast or to slow, or the plane isn't properly aligned for landing. Captain Lee Kang Kuk, 45, a veteran pilot who was new to the 777, was flying the plane. Because an airport navigational aid that helps planes land wasn't working that day, Kuk was flying a visual approach that involves lining up the jet for landing by looking through the windshield and using numerous other cues, rather than relying on a radio-based system called a glide-slope that guides aircraft to the runway. A training captain was sitting next to him in the right seat watching his performance. Kuk told transportation accident investigators that he did not immediately move to abort the landing after it became unstable because he felt only the instructor pilot had that authority. Cockpit culture in which the senior captain is viewed as supreme was identified as a factor in several South Korean airliner crashes in the 1980s and '90s. Afterward, procedures and hierarchies were overhauled in Korea and elsewhere, including the U.S. ___ Mendoza reported from Santa Cruz, California. ___ Follow Joan Lowy on Twitter at http://www.twitter.com/AP_Joan_Lowy and Martha Mendoza at http://www.twitter.com/mendozamartha

Summary: A combination of factors led to last year's crash of an Asiana Airlines jet in San Francisco, but the one that tops the list of a new report is a straightforward one: "flight crew mismanagement." Federal investigators say the South Korean pilots should have realized that their automatic throttle was bringing them in too low and too slow and overridden it in time, reports the San Francisco Chronicle and the AP. The big problem is that the crew "over-relied on automated systems that they did not fully understand," says Christopher Hart, acting chairman of the National Transportation Safety Board. The NTSB, therefore, wants Boeing to provide better training for its increasingly complex systems. "In their efforts to compensate for the unreliability of human performance, the designers of automated control systems have unwittingly created opportunities for new error types that can be even more serious than those they were seeking to avoid," says Hart. The report also says the pilots were fatigued at the end of the flight, which didn't help. Three people were killed in the crash, including one young woman who was hit by emergency vehicles. The report generally praised the emergency response but cites problems with training and radio communications.

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Summarize: By. Paul Bentley. Last updated at 8:11 PM on 11th July 2011. The controversial Casey Anthony lawyer slammed for brashly celebrating her court victory with champagne and a finger up to the public has spoken out in defence of his client, insisting she never killed her two-year-old daughter Caylee. Cheney Mason, who has used his moment in the limelight following Anthony's dramatic six-week trial to slam those who have dared to criticise the verdict, said he has not 'for one minute' doubted the integrity of his client. He also took the opportunity to attack the'stalker' at whom he infamously stuck up his middle finger, saying the man was 'lucky' he was protected at that moment by the walls of the bar he was outside. Scroll down for video. Spotlight: Attorney Cheney Mason has come under fire for his behaviour after the trial. In a spectacular turn of events for a. woman who was facing the death penalty, Casey Anthony was on Tuesday acquitted of charges that she killed her two-year-old daughter Caylee. The jury at court in Orange County found her not. guilty of first degree murder, aggravated murder and aggravated child. abuse. She was found guilty of four lesser charges of lying to police but she will. walk free from from jail on June 16 because of time already served and. good behaviour. In the wake of furious public backlash to the case's outcome, with repeated death threats sent to Anthony, her parents and her defence team, Mason took the opportunity to speak up for the reviled former murder suspect. Wink: Mason shares a glance with Casey Anthony during the dramatic six-week trial. Asked if he believed Anthony was innocent, Mason told NBC: 'I do believe her story. I. believed it from the first time I met her. Several weeks before I. formerly was on the team I went to her home, her room where all the. photographs are and talked to her. 'I have never for one minute had. any doubt at all. She did not kill her child. Period.' He added that while Anthony has a history of lying, he believes her story on Caylee's supposed accidental death was true. 'I don't think her story has changed since the very beginning,' he insisted. 'There's no. question that she told a lot of stories to friends for protective. mechanism and I think we presented evidence for that.' Uncouth: Mason flicks the bird at a'stalker', left, while toasting his team's sensational court victory. Casey's. parents George and Cindy, who have been married for 30 years, publicly. supported their daughter from her initial arrest in 2008 to the. start of the murder trial. But on the opening day in court,. the defence dropped a bombshell that Caylee was never missing but had. drowned in an accident in the family's pool on June 16. More. shocking was the accusation that George Anthony had sexually abused his. daughter when she was a child, and suggested the dysfunctional. relationship explained Anthony's behaviour after Caylee's death. Tragic: Two-year-old Caylee died but no one has been convicted of murder. Defence. lawyer Jose Baez suggested this was why Casey had lied so frequently at first - to protect her dysfunctional family. He said Mr Anthony had a role in disposing the body. and bullied his daughter, who he had molested from aged eight, into. keeping it all secret. The family have denied the defence's account of events that Caylee drowned in their pool. In. court, Cindy Anthony dismissed claims that she had left a ladder to the. pool in place and George Anthony denied that he had ever sexually. abused his daughter. Mason insisted that Casey has, in fact, coped remarkably well under huge stress. 'She's under a lot of pressure,' he told NBC. 'Just imagine 23 hours a day for three years [in a solitary cell]. Most people would be drooling. 'She's a very intelligent person. And independent. 'We tried to keep her emotions down which is pretty. hard to do when your family is testifying against you and people are. calling for your blood like a lynch mob.' The attorney added that he was afraid for her safety in the wake of the trial. Asked where she would go after her release next weekend, he said: 'I don't know and if I did I wouldn't tell you.' He added: 'We're all concerned about her safety and her future. I don't know that anything is ever beyond repair. [but] I think with her parents that's pretty well burned. Appearance: Cheney Mason made the comments in defence of Casey Anthony. 'It's as much her country as anybody else's. She just needs some time and counselling and to be reintroduced into society.' Mason came under fire last week for celebrating the court victory with a champagne party at a local bar. In an apparent moment of madness, he turned to one camera pointed at him and rudely flipped his middle finger. Instead. of defending the action, however, Mason said he was gesturing towards a.'stalker' who he threatened was lucky he did not come out to confront. him properly. Torn apart: Casey Anthony, left, has become estranged from mum Cindy after allegations of rape and incest. Behind bars: Casey Anthony will walk free from Orange County jail on Sunday 17 July. 'My frustrations were not with the news media itself or in general,' he explained. 'There. was one particular stalker that had been stalking our defence team. morning noon and night every day of the trial, yelling obsenities and. threatening and trying to embarrass and expose Mr Baez, myself and the. others on the team. '[He] went so far as to even ask some of the women on our team on the street if they were on their periods. 'That little non-human person deserved what he got and he's fortunate he wasn't in the room,' he added. Watch the video. Visit msnbc.com for breaking news, world news, and news about the economy

Summary: Cheney Mason says he 'never for one minute' doubted Casey's innocence. Praises Casey for 'intelligence' and'strength' saying others under pressure she faced would be 'drooling' Insists she has right to freedom, saying the U.S. is 'as much her country as anyone else's' Threatens'stalker' he gave finger to, saying 'he's lucky he wasn't in the room'

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Summarize: As usual, the politics of education lately seem like they’re all about the grown-ups. Teachers unions hope their walkouts in states like Arizona, Kentucky and Oklahoma will turn red states blue in 2018, while others foresee a backlash against double-digit pay raises for public employees. But behind the political machinations are deeply held views about teacher compensation. For liberals, higher pay is a matter of social justice. Teachers make less than most other college graduates, reflecting the low status society affords... According to the most recent population survey released by the U.S. Bureau of Labor, the teaching gender gap is still alive and well. Male educators constitute just 2.3% of pre-K and kindergarten teachers, 18.3% of the elementary and middle school teacher population, and 42% of the high school level teaching staff. These numbers are down from 2007, but suggest a clear female majority in the teaching profession, especially in the earlier grades. So why are male teachers still few-and-far-between in the United States? According to expert analysis, the most readily apparent answer is that sexism and status deter men from entering the teaching field. Girls have increasingly been encouraged to engage in typically male-dominated fields, like math and science in recent years, but boys have been given almost no incentive to engage in female-dominated professions, like education. As pointed out by Robert M. Cappuozzo, an early childhood education professor at the University of Alaska-Anchorage, “We don’t give boys the same opportunities that we give girls.” Because of this discrepancy, boys might be disinclined to consider a career in teaching. There’s also a disappointing stigma attached to male teachers who teach the earlier grades. According to Jeffrey M. Daitsman, a researcher at the Center for Practitioner Researcher at National-Louis University, male teachers responsible for younger students are accused of being “not masculine.” The stereotype encourages the thinking that, because male teachers are supposed to be disciplinarians, male teachers are “not masculine” for wanting to teach younger children who are not often heavily disciplined. In addition to sexism, men are often deterred from teaching because of the pay associated with being an educator. Many men feel the traditional pressure of being the “breadwinner,” and teaching is not known for being a lucrative profession. Bryan G. Nelson, the head of the Minneapolis-based nonprofit, MenTeach, says, “If we started paying elementary teachers $150,000 a year, we’d see a massive influx of male teachers.” Further, as the call for education reform grows louder, teaching is proving to a very challenging profession. From the stress of implementing new policies, to the continued pressure of competition and accountability, teaching is not a job for the faint of heart. Teachers, why do you think about the widening of the gender-gap among teachers? Why aren’t there more male teachers? What should be done to remedy this problem? Comment below. Powered by Azrul's Jom Comment for Joomla!

Summary: Robert Maranto thinks public school teachers should be paid more-up to 40% more, in fact. But they'll have to work for it, he writes in an opinion piece for the Wall Street Journal, because "you can't get something for nothing." Maranto talks about differing viewpoints on teacher pay: liberals think this woman-dominated field remains underpaid, populists think teachers do just fine as is with their pensions and working conditions, and a third group thinks wages should only be raised for certain teachers in specialized subjects or low-income areas, where there are teacher shortages. But Maranto thinks all of these philosophies are "inadequate," and he instead lobbies for greater pay- "but only in exchange for real reforms to improve teacher quality." By his measure, higher pay means a 40% raise that would put teachers' wages (currently at a median $58,000) above that of accountants ($68,000) and on par with civil engineers ($84,000), which would attract "brainy people" who might otherwise go to college for more lucrative careers. But Maranto thinks that teacher certification should be more rigid and that schools should be more easily able to fire low-performing teachers- "just as medical practices and law firms can fire ineffective doctors and lawyers." He acknowledges teacher unions won't be happy about that, and there's always the fear of rogue principals firing away at will, but he offers a gentle reminder: "Nearly all principals are former teachers. Recruiting better teachers will result in better principals down the road." More from Maranto here.

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Summarize: Background The FBF, administered by GSA, is a quasi-revolving fund financed by rents received from other agencies and authorized and established by the Public Buildings Act Amendments of 1972. Instead of GSA receiving direct appropriations, the FBF operates as the primary means of financing the operating and capital costs associated with federal space, but GSA sometimes receives supplemental appropriations to meet repair or new construction needs. The FBF is financed by income from rental charges assessed to tenant agencies occupying GSA-owned and -leased space that approximate commercial rates for comparable space and services. GSA appraises its inventory on a 5-year cycle—approximately 20 percent of its owned inventory annually— and charges rent based on rates for comparable assets in the private sector. GSA charges its tenants in space leased from the private sector rates equal to the cost of the lease plus either a 7 percent (for cancelable assignments) or 5 percent (for noncancelable assignments) administrative fee to cover its management costs. During fiscal year 2011, GSA deposited about $9 billion into the fund. GSA’s lease payments have increased over the last decade as leased space has grown to comprise more than half of GSA’s current total portfolio. Starting in 2008, GSA has leased more space than it owns; at the end of fiscal year 2011, leased square footage exceeded owned, 193 million to 182 million (51 percent). Congress exercises control over the FBF through the appropriations process that sets annual limits—called obligational authority—on how much of the fund can be obligated for various activities. GSA, as an executive branch agency, requests obligational authority from Congress as part of the annual President’s Budget Request. In annual appropriations legislation, Congress provides obligational authority to GSA to incur obligations and make expenditures from the FBF in five categories of activities: 1. Rental of Space – funds leases of privately owned space or buildings for federal agencies. 2. Repairs and Alterations – funds repairs and alterations of existing buildings as well as associated design and construction services. 3. Construction and Acquisition of Facilities – funds the construction or purchase of facilities and major extensions to existing buildings. 4. Building Operations and Maintenance – funds services for government-owned and -leased facilities, including cleaning, utilities and fuel, maintenance, miscellaneous services (such as moving), evaluation of new materials and equipment, and field and general management and administration. 5. Installment Acquisition Payments – funds debt incurred as the result of building acquisition and lease purchase arrangements. Revenue from GSA’s owned facility inventory is the main source of the FBF’s operating income used to fund repair and alteration, new construction activities, and operations and maintenance. GSA’s portfolio of properties leased from the private sector is designed to be revenue neutral in disbursing all the funds it collects from federal agencies occupying the space to pay the cost of the underlying leases. Building repairs and alterations as well as construction and acquisition projects that are expected to cost more than the prospectus-level threshold must be submitted to certain congressional committees for authorization and funding.OMB approval, provides Congress with a prospectus for each repair and alteration project estimated to exceed the prospectus-level threshold. The prospectus includes information on the size, cost, location, and other features of the proposed work; a justification for proceeding with the work; and an economic analysis of the alternatives to the requested repairs and alterations. Growing FBF Balance Belies Revenue and Cost Challenges FBF Balance The FBF’s balance has increased significantly in recent years, growing from $56 million at the beginning of fiscal year 2007 to $2.2 billion by the beginning of fiscal year 2012. The increased balance has primarily resulted from the growing difference between the resources deposited into the FBF and use of these funds as determined through the budgeting and appropriations process. Specifically, the total available balance is a function of the resources deposited into the fund, the amount of obligational authority requested by GSA as part of the President’s Budget Request, and the actual obligational authority provided by Congress.Beginning in fiscal year 2007, the total resources deposited into the FBF have exceeded the obligational authority provided by Congress. (See table 1.) According to OMB staff, a portion of the growth in the FBF’s balance is attributable to inaccuracy in GSA’s estimation of its rental revenues. The result of these budgetary and appropriations actions has been the near quadrupling of the fund balance in the last 2 years. In using authority to direct the expenditure of public funds and establish priorities among federal programs, Congress decides whether to fund a particular program or activity, and if so, sets the level of that funding. In the case of the FBF, Congress has provided in the last 2 fiscal years less obligational authority to GSA than was requested in the President’s Budget Request. For example, in fiscal year 2012 Congress provided about 16 percent less than the President’s Budget Request. In addition, in both 2011 and 2012 Congress provided less obligational authority than funds deposited into the FBF. According to OMB staff and GSA officials, Congress provided less obligational authority than requested to balance competing priorities among government programs and meet spending caps. OMB staff and GSA officials stated that the funds collected by the FBF might sufficiently support GSA’s projects for its assets. For example, OMB staff stated that if GSA were able to spend all of the funds collected by the FBF each year, these funds would generally be sufficient to fund GSA’s identified repairs and alterations projects and a modest new construction program. GSA officials noted that when Congress provides less obligational authority than requested, repairs and alterations and new construction projects are the most affected because available funds must first be used to pay leasing, operations and maintenance, and debt costs. GSA officials also stated that the authorization to obligate and spend the balance of funds in the FBF, which it anticipates will double to $4.5 billion by the end of fiscal year 2013, would enhance the agency’s ability to manage its real property portfolio by ensuring that operations and maintenance are sufficiently funded and that capital investments, such as repairs and alterations and new construction projects, can continue to be made. However, OMB staff stressed that the current FBF balance is not available for obligation and that in order to make additional obligations from the fund, congressional action would be needed. While the appropriations process has resulted in less obligational authority for GSA than was sought in the President’s Budget Request, the agency has not always communicated through its annual budget request to Congress its interest in reducing the fund’s balance by increasing spending. Rather, since 2008, GSA has consistently requested obligational authority less than the total resources available in the fund. Also since 2008, GSA has only twice requested an amount of obligational authority that would reduce the existing fund balance, meaning that it requested more obligational authority than funds deposited for that year. Specifically, GSA requested to reduce the existing FBF balance by about 30 percent in 2011 and 13 percent in 2012. GSA officials stated that in preparing their budget requests they work with OMB to discuss their needs in relation to competing priorities from other executive branch agencies. According to GSA officials, budget requests for FBF obligational authority reflect efforts to balance GSA’s needs with those of other federal agencies within the overall budget framework. Factors Affecting FBF While budgeting and appropriations decisions have contributed to a significant increase in the FBF balance the last 2 years, various factors have limited the fund’s income from GSA’s real property operations. These factors include an imbalance between revenue and costs, decreased revenue from underperforming assets, and a reliance on leasing. GSA’s owned assets generate most of the resources used for capital improvements. From 2006 through 2011, the financial performance of these assets has stagnated despite GSA’s increasing the amount of rentable square feet in its owned portfolio from 174 million to 182 million square feet. As measured by funds from operations—meaning revenue less costs excluding depreciation—GSA generated approximately $1.6 billion from its owned assets in 2006 and a nearly identical amount in 2011, though the annual amount varied during this time period. When taking the effects of inflation into account, we found that the real value of the funds from operations generated by GSA’s owned assets and measured in 2006 dollars has decreased by 9 percent over this time.(See fig. 1.) Funds from operations generated by GSA’s owned assets have been affected by declining revenue and rising costs. Revenue. Since 2006, revenue growth has not kept pace with inflation. Specifically, the revenue from GSA’s owned portfolio adjusted for inflation has decreased by 2 percent. GSA officials said that revenue generated by its owned assets is highly dependent upon the fair annual rent appraisal of the asset which, in turn, is based on the value of rental charges at comparable private sector properties. GSA officials noted that from 2006 to 2011, increased commercial office vacancies contributed to soft rental markets and minimal growth in rental rates. According to these officials, changes in revenue primarily reflect the downward pressure on GSA’s rental rates caused by market conditions. Costs. Since 2006, costs associated with operating, maintaining, and repairing GSA’s owned facilities have risen faster than inflation. GSA’s annual operating costs, representing the direct costs of operating its facilities (including utilities, janitorial services, and routine maintenance) have risen by about 6 percent total in constant dollars from 2006 to 2011, though year to year these costs are volatile and can vary significantly. GSA officials stated that reasons for the increase in operating costs include general inflation in utilities, maintenance, and administrative costs. Furthermore, GSA estimates that construction costs have increased since 2005. We found that from October 2005 to September 2011, for example, construction costs rose by nearly 20 percent, or by nearly twice the general rate of inflation, eroding the value of FBF resources generated to fund capital repairs and construction. GSA officials also noted that, with decreased obligational authority, the growing amount and cost of leased space in its portfolio have reduced the proportion of obligational authority available to fund repairs and alterations that could potentially reduce operating costs in its owned portfolio. From 2006 through 2011, obligational authority for the acquisition of leased space increased from $3.9 billion (49 percent of obligational authority) to $4.8 billion (62 percent) as the amount of leased space increased from 172 million to 193 million square feet. At the same time, obligational authority for repairs and alterations has decreased from $1.1 billion (14 percent of obligational authority) in 2006 to $341 million (4 percent) in 2011. While the FBF as a whole has generated positive funds from operations, portions of GSA’s inventory operate at a loss. For example, within its owned portfolio, about 30 percent of GSA’s assets lose money in a given year. In fiscal year 2011, the loss from these assets was $170 million, and GSA has incurred a similar loss on that portion of its portfolio each year from 2006 to 2010. These assets tended to be older and smaller than other assets in the owned portfolio.losses are attributable to about 200 assets, each of which lost more than $100,000 in 2011. GSA officials noted that in some cases, operating an asset at a loss can be more cost effective in the short term than the cost of acquiring new space, moving an agency, and disposing of the asset. GSA officials further explained that there are various reasons they retain facilities that generate losses, for example because an asset is mission critical, has symbolic importance, or establishes a necessary federal presence in a sparsely populated area. For example, the Prince H. Preston Building and Courthouse, located in Statesboro, Georgia, provides space for the U.S. District and Bankruptcy Courts and other agencies’ facilities on an as-needed basis. However, the building has consistently generated negative funds from operations because the amount of space required for the federal presence in Statesboro has decreased since the building was constructed in 1963. Specifically, while the building was originally constructed to provide space to the Social Security Administration and the Department of Agriculture in addition to the Courts, both executive branch agencies have since vacated the space. Despite the vacant space and financial losses resulting from departure of two of its original tenants, GSA intends to retain this facility until the Judiciary determines its long-term plan for maintaining a presence in Southeast Georgia. GSA officials also noted that when their managed facilities undergo major renovations, the space in those facilities is often temporarily vacated and does not generate revenue during that time. For example, space in the Eisenhower Executive Office Building in Washington D.C., which is currently undergoing a multiphase renovation, was unavailable for tenant occupancy in 2011, contributing to a $15 million operating loss for the building. We determined that most of these In addition to these types of losses, GSA has formally agreed with its tenants to provide below-market rent on about 240 assets, which has modestly reduced revenue deposited in the FBF. In fiscal year 2011, GSA estimated that rent restrictions reduced the revenue generated for the FBF by about $175 million. These reduced rental rates have resulted from a combination of GSA and congressional exemptions that have been in place for a number of years. These exemptions were provided for a number of reasons, including lack of funds from the tenant agencies, agreements resulting from the sale of property from an agency to GSA, and security concerns. For example, in 1996, GSA granted an exemption to the Woodrow Wilson Center for the organization’s use of approximately 100,000 square feet of office space in the Ronald Reagan Building and International Trade Center in Washington, D.C. through 2026. GSA estimates this rent exemption reduced FBF revenue by $5 million in fiscal year 2011. From 2006 through 2011, as the amount of space that GSA leased from the private sector grew from 172 million to 193 million square feet, GSA’s losses (as measured by funds from operations) on its leased assets have increased. (See fig. 2.) Over the past 4 years, cumulative losses on its leases have exceeded $200 million; approximately $75 million in losses occurred in fiscal year 2011. Most of the losses in 2011 were concentrated in about 300 leases, each of which lost more than $100,000. Relative to the total revenue generated by its leased portfolio in 2011 ($5.6 billion), the net losses from its leased assets (about $75 million) in 2011 are comparatively small. Nevertheless, such losses require GSA to use funds generated from other revenue sources to offset them, which in turn decreases the funds available for investing in GSA’s owned assets. GSA officials noted that leasing losses have primarily resulted from several factors, including reductions in its administrative fee, accounting adjustments, billing and payment errors, lease buyouts and formulation costs, and vacant space. Specifically: According to GSA officials, the agency reduced the administrative fee that it charges to agencies for managing leases from the private sector from 8 percent to 7 percent for many leases in 2008, resulting in an estimated annual $50 million (1 percent) reduction in revenue. According to GSA officials, because the leasing portfolio was producing a modest surplus in 2007, GSA lowered its administrative fee to reduce the cost of leasing for its tenant agencies. These officials noted that, in 2011, for instances where a lease lost less than $100,000, many of these losses are attributable to overhead expenses that exceed revenue from administrative fees. GSA officials explained they are currently reevaluating whether its administrative fee is sufficient to cover the cost of the leasing program. According to GSA officials, their use of accrual-based accounting— where revenues are recorded when earned and expenses are recorded when incurred, irrespective of whether any cash has flowed in or out during the accounting period—results in adjustments that essentially level the lease payment stream throughout the life of a lease. This adjustment can result in expenses being recorded in a single accounting period that are greater or less than the actual lease payment during that period. GSA estimates that, after eliminating the impact of accounting adjustments and transactions related to the Recovery Act, the agency lost approximately $18.5 million in the leased portfolio during fiscal year 2011. Billing and other administrative errors have also contributed to losses in its leased portfolio, according to GSA officials. For example, GSA officials noted that the agency may begin to pay a lessor for space before GSA has finalized the occupancy agreement with the tenant agency and entered it into GSA’s financial management system. While GSA officials acknowledged that these funds can be recouped from the tenant agencies after the occupancy agreement is finalized, they estimated that these actions reduced funds from operations from the leased portfolio by nearly $17 million in 2011. GSA officials also noted that lease formulation costs, lease buyouts, and vacant space within its leased portfolio result in costs and lost income that have contributed to losses. GSA officials explained that when tenant agencies move out of leased space, GSA attempts to place another tenant agency in that same space. However, between the occupancy periods of the two tenants, GSA is responsible for paying the cost of the space, unless GSA terminates the lease and pays a buyout to the private sector lessor. GSA officials noted that while the cost of a lease buyout may contribute to losses in the year of the buyout, over the long-term, pursuing a lease buyout may reduce the amount of vacant space in its portfolio. GSA officials noted that, as of the end of fiscal year 2011, 2.3 percent of the space in the leased portfolio was vacant. Even with these losses in its leased portfolio, GSA continues to rely extensively on leasing to meet its tenants’ increasing demand for office space. In 2008, the amount of rentable space leased by GSA exceeded the amount of its owned space for the first time. (See fig. 3.) GSA officials noted that, as a result of the funding constraints in recent years discussed earlier in this report, the agency has primarily used leasing to meet new office space requirements of its tenant agencies. Nevertheless, our previous work has shown that leasing often costs more than federal building ownership, particularly if operating leases are used to meet long- term space needs. GSA is taking steps to manage its financial resources more effectively by reducing the size of its overall real estate portfolio, both in terms of the number of assets and the amount of square feet it manages. In a June 2010 memorandum, the administration directed GSA, along with other agencies, to accelerate efforts to identify and eliminate excess properties and to make better use of remaining real property assets. As part of these efforts, GSA is reducing its owned assets through the sale of excess and underutilized property and consolidation actions. For example, according to GSA, in 2011, it disposed of 52 assets, resulting in a reduction of 3.3 million rentable square feet of space. In addition, GSA is encouraging its tenant agencies to use alternative working arrangements, such as teleworking and hoteling (where personnel use unassigned seating when they are in the office) to reduce space needs. Further, GSA officials noted that budget constraints across the executive branch have forced its tenant agencies to reexamine their space needs and that GSA expects demand will continue to shrink. GSA Has Identified Billions in Repair Liability, but Decreased Funding May Increase Future Resource Demand from the FBF Condition of GSA’s Assets GSA measures its investment needs for maintaining and improving the condition of its owned facilities through its maintenance and repair liability, which identifies the estimated aggregated cost of future maintenance and repairs across its portfolio. At the end of fiscal year 2011, GSA identified a $4.6 billion liability for the next 10 years.total, $1.3 billion is for immediate maintenance and repair needs, and Of this $3.3 billion is for maintenance and repairs that will be needed in future years. The estimated cost of maintenance and repairs to GSA’s owned assets varies across the portfolio. GSA’s data show that 40 percent of its assets have maintenance and repair liabilities of $500,000 or less and about 22 percent have a liability exceeding $2 million. (See table 2.) GSA’s data also indicate that approximately 23 percent of the assets in the portfolio have no recorded maintenance and repair liability. GSA officials explained that a facility having no maintenance and repair liability may mean that (1) there is no maintenance liability for that asset, (2) a condition assessment has not been conducted, or (3) its maintenance liability was recorded as part of the maintenance liability for a larger facility. GSA’s data also suggest that a facility’s age is related to its maintenance and repair liability. According to the fiscal year 2011 data GSA provided, its owned assets average 48 years in age, and those over 61 years old are responsible for about 40 percent of its total maintenance liability. In addition, according to GSA, more than one-fourth of its owned buildings are listed in or eligible for the National Register of Historic Places, the nation’s listing of historic properties. According to GSA officials, these historic buildings require comparatively more maintenance and repair work. GSA officials also noted that they hold assets longer than assets maintained in the private sector in part because of GSA’s stewardship responsibility to preserve historic buildings. Funding for Repair and Alteration Projects As previously discussed, GSA’s overall obligational authority has trended downward in recent years, and much of this reduction has been absorbed by the repairs and alterations and new construction accounts within the FBF, meaning that GSA has reduced its spending on repairs and alterations and construction work. Specifically, GSA’s obligational authority for repairs and alteration projects, decreased from $855 million Obligational authority for construction, in 2005 to $280 million in 2012.decreased from $760 million in 2005 to $50 million in 2012. (See fig. 4.) GSA officials and OMB staff suggested that absent sufficient funding, the cost of operating GSA facilities could increase and the condition of GSA’s portfolio could decline. These officials noted that repairs identified now have the potential to be more expensive if they are delayed, thereby increasing the amount of funding needed from the FBF, possibly resulting in an array of undesirable outcomes. For example, delayed repairs can increase the frequency of unplanned interruptions and downtime of facility systems and components, and can decrease the useful life of real property. GSA officials noted some instances in which funding restrictions delayed repair and maintenance activities, increasing the cost to operate its existing assets. For example, they explained that GSA’s Heating Operation and Transmission District system, which provides steam and chilled water for heating and cooling operations at approximately 80 facilities in Washington, D.C., requires substantial repair work. The delay in modernizing key components of the system has increased the risk of service failure during the winter months. In order to ensure the reliability of the system, GSA has required additional staff hours from its maintenance and engineering personnel to maintain the system, increasing the overall plant operating costs and resulting in higher steam charges to GSA’s customer agencies. Delayed repairs could also affect the funding generated for the FBF. Specifically, if an asset’s appraisal decreases due to its deteriorated condition, the rent charged to the tenant agency could also decrease, resulting in less revenue for the FBF. The concerns of GSA officials and OMB staff are consistent with those of the National Research Council of the National Academies which has stated that public sector organizations facing limited resources often first defer or cut facilities investments, particularly investments in maintenance and repairs. The National Research Council estimates that each $1 in deferred maintenance results in a long-term capital liability of $4 to $5, and that “an accumulation of deferred investments over the long term may be significantly greater than the short-term savings that public-sector decision makers were initially seeking.” GSA Could Better Conform Some of Its Capital Planning to Leading Practices Making informed capital investment decisions requires full information about an agency’s current and long-term needs, alternative courses of action, and how potential projects compare amongst each other. We identified leading practices for using information to make capital investment decisions primarily from GAO’s Executive Guide and OMB’s Capital Programming Guide. We also drew from leading capital investment practices identified by the National Research Council.assessed GSA’s performance in using information to make capital investment decisions against the criteria established in these guides. (See table 3.) Conclusions Since its inception, the FBF has been challenged to provide sufficient revenue to support GSA’s real property portfolio. In recent years, budgeting and appropriations decisions made by the executive branch and Congress, respectively, have limited the amount of resources made available to GSA to fund its real property operations. The FBF is further constrained by other factors including the declining value of revenue, growing operating costs, and an increased reliance on leasing, among other things. These conditions make it increasingly difficult for GSA to maintain its real property portfolio in an acceptable state of repair. As GSA works to address the maintenance and repair needs of its assets and improve the overall condition of its portfolio, it is important that the agency base its actions on a well-conceived investment strategy. GSA follows many leading practices to gather and evaluate information from its assets to inform its investment decisions, but it is not clear how it prioritizes and selects projects for funding consideration. In addition, the agency’s lack of a comprehensive long-term capital plan could limit its ability to provide perspective on how funding for requested projects aligns with its long-term investment strategy. Having such a plan would enable GSA and Congress to better evaluate the full range of real property priorities for using funds in the FBF both over the next 5 years and annually and, should fiscal constraints so dictate, identify which might take precedence over others. In short, more transparency would allow for more informed decision making among competing priorities. Without more insight into how GSA prioritizes repair and replacement of its assets, GSA cannot ensure that decision makers within the executive branch and Congress understand why the projects proposed by GSA merit selection when measured against competing priorities, both within and outside of GSA’s portfolio. Recommendations for Executive Action To enhance transparency, allow for more informed decision making related to GSA’s real property priorities, and make a stronger case for using funds in the FBF to meet capital investment needs, we recommend that the Administrator of GSA take the following two actions: Document in its annual budget request to OMB how GSA uses its prioritization criteria to generate its annual and 5-year lists of prioritized projects to ensure that Congress understands the rationale behind prioritized project lists and that GSA is maximizing return on FBF investments. Develop and publish a comprehensive 5-year capital plan and include a summary of it annually in its budget request to OMB and Congress to help ensure that long-term goals are fully considered when making decisions and to document how GSA would spend needed FBF funds. Agency Comments We provided a draft of this report to GSA and OMB for review and comment. GSA’s comments are reproduced in appendix II. GSA agreed with our findings and recommendations. GSA commented that it is taking steps to refine weighted prioritization criteria for use in a decision-making software tool that will help the agency to more systematically and transparently prioritize projects. GSA expects to use this software tool in development of its fiscal year 2014 budget request. With respect to our second recommendation, GSA indicated that it will work with stakeholders, OMB, and Congress in developing and providing a 5-year capital plan to include in its budget request. GSA and OMB also provided technical suggestions and clarifications, which have been incorporated in the report as appropriate. As agreed with your office, unless you publicly announce the contents of this report earlier, we plan no further distribution until 21 days from the report date. At that time, we will send copies of this report to congressional committees with responsibilities for federal real property issues, the Director of OMB, and the Administrator of GSA. In addition, this report will be available at no charge on the GAO website at http://www.gao.gov. If you or your staff have any questions about this report, please contact me at (202) 512-2834 or [email protected]. Contact points for our Offices of Congressional Relations and Public Affairs may be found on the last page of this report. GAO staff who made key contributions to this report are listed in appendix III. Appendix I: Objectives, Scope, and Methodology This report focuses on (1) the factors that have affected the resources available in the Federal Buildings Fund (FBF); (2) the General Services Administration’s (GSA) potential maintenance and repair liability for its owned assets and the implications for the fund; and (3) the information GSA considers when evaluating capital investment proposals and how its practices compare to leading practices for making capital investment decisions. Factors Affecting the FBF To determine what factors have affected the resources available in the FBF, we analyzed legislation, including the Public Buildings Act Amendments of 1972 and congressional appropriations acts to understand congressional direction and priorities for the FBF. We reviewed GAO, Congressional Research Service (CRS), and GSA Office of Inspector General reports on historical issues affecting the ability of the fund to generate revenue. We also analyzed GSA information on rent restrictions and exemptions granted to its tenant agencies to understand how these agreements have affected the resources in the FBF. In addition, we reviewed GSA’s congressional budget requests to obtain information on the amounts of obligational authority requested by GSA compared to the amounts provided by Congress and the amount available in the fund from fiscal year 2006 through fiscal year 2012. To understand how the financial performance of GSA’s portfolio has changed over time, we analyzed data on GSA’s approximately 10,000 assets from 2006 through 2011 from the agency’s real property and financial management database systems. Specifically, we analyzed data on each of GSA’s assets from GSA’s Real Estate across the United States (REXUS) system as well as its System for Tracking and Administering Real Property to describe how the number of assets, the average age of the assets, and the amount of owned and leased space managed by GSA has changed. We also analyzed information from Pegasys, GSA’s financial management system. In particular, we obtained and analyzed information on the revenues, costs and various metrics, including funds from operations, used by GSA to describe the financial condition for each asset to provide a summary description of GSA’s financial performance. We also analyzed financial data from the FBF using indices to account for inflation. To understand how the value of the revenue generated and cost incurred by the FBF had changed since 2006, we used a chain-weighted Gross Domestic Product index based on data from the averages of quarterly indexes from U.S. Department of Commerce Bureau of Economic Analysis, National Income and Product Accounts, table 1.1.4 (last revised Jan. 21, 2012). To measure how construction costs had changed since 2006, we used the Engineering News-Record’s Construction Cost Index to calculate the increase in construction costs from October 2005 to September 2011. The index measures how much it costs to purchase a mix of construction labor and materials of goods compared to what it was in the base year. As part of our review of GSA’s data, we tested the data for missing variables and abnormal trends from 2006 through 2011. We found no abnormal patterns or significant number of missing values for the rentable square footage, the leased or owned facility, age of building, or real property type data elements. We also interviewed GSA system administrators, analysts, and managers about their views of the quality of the data. We compared the results of our analyses to information published in other GSA documents, including GSA’s budget submissions, financial statement audits, and GSA’s State of the Portfolio report. While we did not independently verify the information for each asset, we believe these data are generally reliable for our purposes, which was to describe, at a summary level, the overall financial performance of GSA’s assets from 2006 through 2011. Condition of GSA’s Owned Assets To assess the condition of GSA’s owned assets and the implications for the FBF, we reviewed literature from the National Research Council, and prior CRS and GAO reports to determine the types of obstacles previously faced by GSA and discuss the known and possible consequences associated with delaying or not performing needed repairs and alterations. We reviewed GSA’s State of the Portfolio reports to understand how GSA manages and categorizes its assets. We also reviewed GSA’s budget requests to compare funding requested by GSA for repairs and alterations from fiscal year 2006 to fiscal year 2012 to the amount of new obligation authority granted by Congress. We analyzed data from GSA’s real property and maintenance databases to understand what data GSA maintains about the condition of its owned assets. Specifically, we analyzed data from REXUS databases to describe demographic characteristics of the portfolio. We analyzed data from GSA’s enhanced Physical Condition Survey (ePCS), which GSA uses to track the results of its biannual condition inspections, to describe the total identified maintenance and repair liability of its owned assets over the next 10 years. We excluded assets where GSA reported zero maintenance liability because GSA stated that the condition of these assets may have been incorporated as part of an assessment of a larger asset. In order to verify this information, we matched the address of assets with zero maintenance and repair liability with addresses of assets with a reported value of maintenance and repair liability greater than zero. We found that, of the 392 assets with zero reported maintenance and repair liability, 151 were located at the same address of an asset with a maintenance and repair liability greater than zero. To assess the overall quality of the data, we interviewed GSA system administrators, analysts, and managers about the quality of the data and tested the data for missing variables and abnormal trends. During the course of our discussions with GSA, we were informed that GSA’s approach for calculating metrics to measure has recently undergone a variety of changes. Specifically, GSA officials informed us that the calculation of functional replacement values had changed in fiscal year 2011 in order to improve the precision of these values. As a result, because the data were not comparable across years, we limited our analysis to the maintenance and repair liability of GSA’s assets as of September 2011. In addition, we conducted a variety of data tests and found no abnormal patterns or significant numbers of missing values in the “age of building” or “real property type” data elements for GSA’s owned portfolio. However, during discussions with GSA officials about the “gross square footage” category, we observed that a number of assets, particularly those identified as structures, had values of “1” or similarly small numbers. GSA officials told us that the gross square feet for structures are measured in units that vary widely. Thus we did not aggregate or average the total square footage in a given year. To reduce the effect of these outliers, we used the median square feet in our report to describe the size of GSA assets. While we did not independently verify the information for each asset, we believe these data are generally reliable for our purposes, which was to describe, at a summary level, the overall condition of GSA’s assets as of the end of September 2011. We interviewed GSA program managers to gain an understanding of how GSA conducts condition assessments and assesses the general condition of its owned assets. In addition we held discussions with GSA’s portfolio managers who oversee the buildings in the owned portfolio to discuss the overall condition of the assets, and understand the consequences associated with not completing needed repairs and alterations. We also spoke to senior leadership from Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to discuss their impressions of the condition of GSA’s assets and perspectives on the amount of obligational authority available for repairs and alterations within GSA’s portfolio. Comparison to Leading Capital Practices To assess how GSA’s use of Information to make capital investment decisions conforms with leading practices, we identified leading practices for using information to make capital investment decisions from GAO’s We also drew Executive Guide and OMB’s Capital Programming Guide.from the National Research Council’s research in this area. We assessed whether GSA’s guidance and performance conformed to the criteria established in these guides rating their performance in the areas of needs assessment, alternatives evaluation, project prioritization, and long-term capital planning as fully conforming, substantially conforming, partially conforming, minimally conforming, or not conforming. For each capital investment planning criterion assessed, a rating of fully conforming met over 90 percent of criteria, a rating of substantially conforming met about 75 percent of criteria, a rating of partially conforming met about 50 percent of criteria, a rating of minimally conforming met about 25 percent of criteria, and a rating of does not conform met less than 10 percent of criteria. To conduct these analyses, one GAO analyst made the initial assessment which a second analyst reviewed and then provided either concurrence or suggested changes. We also reviewed past GAO reports including and GAO-11-197 to determine how these reports GAO-07-274 used these criteria to evaluate an agency’s capital planning process. We conducted document analyses and interviews with GSA Public Buildings Service budget, planning, and program officials to assess how GSA is doing in each of these capital planning areas. Our document analysis included an examination of GSA’s Project Planning Guide and FY2013 Program Call to assess how GSA’s process for using information to make capital decisions conformed to leading practices. To conduct these analyses, one GAO analyst made the initial assessment which a second analyst reviewed and then provided either concurrence or suggested changes. To assess how GSA identifies its needs, we examined information in GSA’s ePCS, REXUS, and financial management information system databases as well as how these data were used to update GSA’s Asset Business Plans. To evaluate needs assessment data and how GSA evaluates project alternatives, we reviewed documentation from the four highest cost repairs and alterations projects of GSA’s fiscal year 2012 budget submission to assess the justification and analysis for undertaking these projects. We examined the physical condition surveys, asset business plans, feasibility studies, program development studies, prospectuses, and Automated Prospectus System (TAPS) analyses, among other documentation, associated with each project to the extent that they were available. The four repairs and alterations projects that we examined were for the Burton Federal Building in San Francisco, the Prince Jonah Kuhio Kalanianaole Federal Building and Courthouse in Honolulu, and the Harry S. Truman and Main Interior buildings in Washington, D.C. Our findings are not generalizable across GSA’s real property portfolio. To assess GSA’s project prioritization and long-term capital planning, we interviewed GSA program and budget officials and documentation that GSA provided in these areas such as its 5-year prioritized project list from fiscal year 2011 to fiscal year 2015. We conducted this performance audit from August 2011 to July 2012 in accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards. Those standards require that we plan and perform the audit to obtain sufficient, appropriate evidence to provide a reasonable basis for our findings and conclusions based on our audit objectives. We believe that the evidence obtained provides a reasonable basis for our findings and conclusions based on our audit objectives. Appendix II: Comments from the U.S. General Services Administration Appendix III: GAO Contact and Staff Acknowledgments GAO Contact Staff Acknowledgments In addition to the contact named above, Mike Armes (Assistant Director), Amy Abramowitz, Colin Fallon, Imoni Hampton, Carol Henn, Paul Kinney, Kieran McCarthy, Ruben Montes de Oca, Matt Voit, Crystal Wesco, and Elizabeth Wood made key contributions to this report.

Summary: GSA serves as the primary steward of the federal government’s civilian real property portfolio of nearly 10,000 assets. Since 1972, GSA has funded its real property acquisition, operation, maintenance, and disposal through the rent it collects from tenant agencies that is deposited into the FBF. GAO has previously reported, however, that the FBF has faced difficulty providing sufficient resources to support GSA’s mission. GAO was asked to examine (1) the factors affecting the resources in the FBF, (2) GSA’s potential repair liability and the implications for the FBF, and (3) the information GSA considers when evaluating capital investments and how these practices compare to leading practices for prioritizing capital investments. GAO reviewed legislation and GSA documents and compared leading practices on making capital investment decisions from OMB and GAO capital planning guidance to GSA practices. GAO also analyzed budget and financial data from fiscal years 2006 through 2012, facility condition data from fiscal year 2011, and interviewed GSA officials and OMB staff. The Federal Buildings Fund’s (FBF) balance has increased from $56 million in fiscal year 2007 to $2.2 billion in fiscal year 2012 primarily due to the growing difference between the resources provided to the FBF and the General Services Administration’s (GSA) use of these funds as determined through the budgeting and appropriations process. In the last 2 years, Congress has provided fewer resources than requested by the executive branch and generated by the FBF. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) staff and GSA officials stated that if GSA were able to spend all of the funds collected by the FBF each year, these funds would generally be sufficient to fund GSA’s needs. However, GSA, through the annual President’s Budget Request, has sought less obligational authority than the balance available in the fund. While the FBF’s balance has increased, various factors have limited the fund’s income. Funds from operations—revenue less costs excluding depreciation—that contribute to FBF income have declined from 2006 to 2011 when adjusted for inflation. Revenues have declined while costs have outstripped inflation over this time period. In addition, portions of GSA’s inventory operate at a loss. For example, about 30 percent of GSA’s owned assets lost money in 2011, while GSA’s total leased portfolio lost about $75 million. Despite the losses in its leased portfolio, GSA continues to rely extensively on leasing. GSA is taking steps to reduce the size of its overall real estate portfolio. GSA has identified $4.6 billion in maintenance and repairs expected from 2012 to 2021 and anticipates that nearly a quarter of this amount is needed immediately. However, funding for maintenance and repairs has declined since 2006. GSA officials noted that reduced funding for capital reinvestments could result in deferred maintenance and repairs, and increase the cost and extent of such work in the future. These concerns are consistent with the National Research Council’s findings that each $1 in deferred maintenance and repair work results in a long-term capital liability of $4 to $5. GSA’s use of information to make capital investment decisions conforms to some leading practices from GAO and OMB guidance, but GSA lacks a transparent process for prioritizing projects and a comprehensive long-term capital plan that fully aligns with leading practices. GSA keeps a baseline of information on its assets and needs—as leading practices suggest—through various tools and databases. GSA’s process and guidance for evaluating capital investment alternatives substantially meet leading practices as its project planning process explores alternatives to meeting investment needs. GSA’s process for prioritizing capital investments partially meets leading practices, but its project prioritization transparency could be improved by laying out in its annual budget submission how it uses its criteria to determine which projects get selected for funding over others. In addition, an improved comprehensive long-term capital plan could further GSA’s ability to make informed choices about long-term investment decisions. Both OMB and GAO guidance emphasize the importance of developing a long-term capital plan to guide the implementation of organizational goals. Having such a plan would enable GSA and Congress to better evaluate a range of priorities over the next 5 years. In short, more transparency through a comprehensive long-term capital plan would allow for more informed decision making by GSA and Congress among competing priorities.

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Summarize: CROSS REFERENCE TO RELATED APPLICATIONS Under 35 USC §119(e), this application claims the benefit of prior U.S. provisional application 60/001,105 filed Jul. 13, 1995 and prior U.S. provisional application 60/003,305, filed Sep. 6, 1995. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION Parathyroid hormone (&#34;PTH&#34;) is a polypeptide produced by the parathyroid glands. The mature circulating form of the hormone is comprised of 84 amino acid residues. The biological action of PTH can be reproduced by a peptide fragment of its N-terminus (e.g. amino acid residues 1 through 34). Parathyroid hormone-related protein (&#34;PTHrP&#34;) is a 139 to 173 amino acid-protein with N-terminal homology to PTH. PTHrP shares many of the biological effects of PTH including binding to a common PTH/PTHrP receptor. Tregear, et al., Endocrinol., 93:1349 (1983). PTH peptides from many different sources, e.g., human, bovine, rat, chicken, have been characterized. Nissenson, et al., Receptor, 3:193 (1993). PTH has been shown to both improve bone mass and quality. Dempster, et al., Endocrine Rev., 14:690 (1993); and Riggs, Amer. J. Med., 91 (Suppl. 5B):37S (1991). The anabolic effect of intermittently administered PTH has been observed in osteoporotic men and women either with or without concurrent antiresorptive therapy. Slovik, et al., J. Bone Miner. Res., 1:377 (1986); Reeve, et al., Br. Med. J., 301:314 (1990); and Hesch, R-D., et al., Calcif. Tissue Int&#39;l, 44:176 (1989). SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION In one aspect, the invention relates to peptide variants of PTH(1-34) of the following generic formula: ##STR1## wherein A 1 is Ser, Ala, or Dap; A 3 is Ser, Thr, or Aib; A 7 is Leu, Nle, Cha, β-Nal, Trp, Pal, Phe, or p-X-Phe in which X is OH, a halogen, or CH 3 ; A 8 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, or Nle; A 11 is Leu, Nle, Cha, β-Nal, Trp, or Phe; A 12 is Gly or Aib; A 15 is Leu or Cha; A 16 is Ser, Asn, Ala, or Aib; A 17 is Ser, Thr, or Aib; A 18 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, Nle, or Aib; A 19 is Glu or Aib; A 21 is Val or Met; A 23 is Trp or Cha; A 24 is Leu or Cha; A 27 is Lys, Aib, Leu, hArg, Gln, or Cha; A 28 is Leu or Cha; A 30 is Asp or Lys; A 31 is Val, Nle, or Cha; A 32 is His or deleted; A 33 is Asn or deleted; A 34 is Phe, Tyr, Amp, Aib, or deleted; each of R 1 and R 2 is, independently, H, C 1-12 alkyl, C 2-12 alkenyl, C 7-20 phenylalkyl, C 11-20 naphthylalkyl, C 1-12 hydroxyalkyl, C 2-12 hydroxyalkenyl, C 7-20 hydroxyphenylalkyl, or C 11-20 hydroxynaphthylalkyl; or one and only one of R 1 and R 2 is COE 1 in which E 1 is C 1-12 alkyl, C 2-12 alkenyl, C 7-20 phenylalkyl, C 11-20 naphthylalkyl, C 1-12 hydroxyalkyl, C 2-12 hydroxyalkenyl, C 7-20 hydroxy-phenylalkyl, or C 11-20 hydroxynaphthylalkyl; R 3 is OH, NH 2, C 1-12 alkoxy, or NH--Y--CH 2 --Z where Y is a C 1-12 hydrocarbon moiety and Z is H, OH, CO 2 H, or CONH 2 ; provided that (i) at least one of A 7, A 11, A 15, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha, or at least one of A 3, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib, or that (ii) at least A 1 is Dap, A 27 is hArg, or A 31 is Nle; or a pharmaceutically acceptable salt thereof. A subset of the compounds covered by the above formula are those in which at least one of A 7, A 11, A 15, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha. For example, A 3 is Ser; A 5 is Ile; A 7 is Leu or Cha; A 8 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, or Nle; A 11 is Leu or Cha; A 12 is Gly; A 16 is Asn or Aib; A 17 is Ser; A 18 is Met or Nle; A 21 is Val; A 27 is Lys, hArg, or Cha; A 32 is His; A 31 is Val, Nle, or Cha; A 33 is Asn; A 34 is Phe, Tyr, Amp, or Aib; R 1 is H; R 2 is H; and R 3 is NH 2 ; provided that at least one of A 5, A 7, A 8, A 11, A 15, A 18, A 21, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha, or at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib. If desired, at least one of A 7 and A 11 can be Cha; or at least one of A 15, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha. In another subset, at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib. For example, A 3 is Ser or Aib; A 5 is Ile; A 7 is Leu or Cha; A 8 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, or Nle; A 11 is Leu or Cha; A 16 is Asn or Aib; A 18 is Met, Aib, or Nle; A 21 is Val; A 27 is Lys, Aib, Leu, hArg, or Cha; A 31 is Val, Nle, or Cha; A 32 is His; A 33 is Asn; A 34 is Phe, Tyr, Amp, or Aib; R 1 is H; R 2 is H; and R 3 is NH 2 ; provided that at least one of A 5, A 7, A 8, A 11, A 15, A 18, A 21, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha, or at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib. If desired, at least one of A 7 and A 11 can be Cha; or at least one of A 15, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha. In a still further subset, at least one of A 7, A 11, A 15, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha and at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib; provided that at least one of A 5, A 7, A 8, A 11, A 15, A 18, A 21, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, and A 31 is Cha, or at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, and A 34 is Aib. For example, A 3 is Ser or Aib; A 5 is Ile; A 7 is Leu or Cha; A 8 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, or Nle; A 11 is Leu or Cha; A 16 is Asn or Aib; A 18 is Met, Aib, or Nle; A 21 is Val; A 27 is Lys, Aib, Leu, hArg, or Cha; A 31 is Val, Nle, or Cha; A 32 is His; A 33 is Asn; A 34 is Phe, Tye, Amp, or Aib; R 1 is H; R 2 is H; and R 3 is NH 2. If desired, at least one of A 7 and A 11 is Cha and at least one of A 16, A 19, and A 34 is Aib; or at least one of A 24, A 28, and A 31 is Cha and at least one of. A 16 and A 17 is Aib. In yet another subset, A 1 is Ser, Gly, or Dap; A 3 is Ser or Aib; A 5 is Ile; A 7 is Leu or Cha; A 8 is Met, Nva, Leu, Val, Ile, or Nle; A 16 is Asn or Aib; A 18 is Met, Aib, or Nle; A 21 is Val; A 27 is Lys, Aib, Leu, hArg, or Cha; A 31 is Val, Nle, or Cha; A 32 is His; A 33 is Asn; A 34 is Phe, Tyr, Amp, or Aib; R 1 is H; R 2 is H; and R 3 is NH 2 ; provided that at least A 1 is Dap, A 27 is hArg, or A 31 is Nle. The following are examples of the peptide of this invention as covered by the above formula: Nle 31!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Dap 1, Nle 8, 18, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 31!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 31!rPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!rPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 11!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 15!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Nle 8, 18, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 23!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 24!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 8, 18, Cha 27!hPTH(1-34) NH 2 ; Cha 28!hPTH(1-34) NH 2 ; Cha 31!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 27!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 27, 29!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 28!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 28!rPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 24, 28, 31!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 19!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16, 19!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16, 19, 34!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16, 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 19, 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11 Nle 8, 18, Aib 16, 19 Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Nle 8, 18, 31, Aib 16, 19, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, Aib 16!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 11, Aib 16!hPTH(1-34) 2 ; Cha 7, Aib 34!hPTH(1-34) NH 2 ; Cha 11, Aib 34!hPTH(1-34) NH 2 ; Cha 27, Aib 16!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 27, Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 28, Aib 16!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 28, Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 31!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Dap 1, Nle 8, 18, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 31!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Nle 31!rPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!bPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; hArg 27!rPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Aib 19, Lys 30!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 12!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 24, 28, 31, Lys 30!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 28, 31!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Nle 8, 18, Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 3!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 8!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 15!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Aib 19!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Aib 16!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 17!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 5!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, 15!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Nle 8, 18, Aib 19, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 ; and Cha 7, 11, Nle 8, 18, Aib 19, Lys 30, Tyr 34!hPTH(1-34) NH 2. In another aspect, this invention relates to peptides covered by the following formula: ##STR2## wherein A 1 is Ala or Dap; A 3 is Ser or Aib; A 5 is His or Cha; A 7 is Leu, Cha, Nle, β-Nal, Trp, Pal, Phe, or p-X-Phe in which X is OH, a halogen, or CH 3 ; A 8 is Leu or Cha; A 11 is Lys, Cha, Phe, or β-Nal; A 12 is Gly or Aib; A 15 is Ile, or Cha; A 16 is Gln or Aib; A 17 is Asp or Aib; A 18 is Leu, Aib, or Cha; A 19 is Arg or Aib; A 22 is Phe or Cha; A 23 is Phe or Cha; A 24 is Leu or Cha; A 27 is Leu or Cha; A 28 is Ile or Cha; A 30 is Glu or Lys; A 31 is Ile, Cha, or deleted; A 32 is His or deleted; A 33 is Thr or deleted; A 34 is Ala or deleted; each of R 1 and R 2 is, independently, H, C 1-12 alkanyl, C 7-20 phenylalkyl, C 11-20 naphthyalkyl, C 1-12, hydroxyalkyl, C 2-12 hydroxyalkenyl, C 7-20 hydroxyphenylalkyl, or C 11-20 hydroxynaphthylalkyl; or one and only one of R 1 and R 2 is COE 1 in which E 1 is C 1-12 alkyl, C 2-12 alkyl, C 2-12 alkenyl, C 7-20 phenylalkyl, C 11-20 naphthylalkyl, C 1-12 hydroxyalkyl, C 2-12 hydroxyalkenyl, C 7-20 hydroxyphenylalkyl, or C 11-20 hydroxynaphthylalkyl; and R 3 is OH, NH 2, C 1-12 alkoxy, or NH--Y--CH 2 --Z in which Y is a C 1-12 hydrocarbon moiety and Z is H, OH, CO 2 H or CONH 2 ; provided that at least one of A 5, A 7, A 8, A 11, A 15, A 18, A 22, A 23, A 24, A 27, A 28, or A 31 is Cha, or at least one of A 3, A 12, A 16, A 17, A 18, A 19, or A 34 is Aib; or a pharmaceutically acceptable salt thereof. In one embodiment, at least one of A 7 and A 11 is Cha. In another embodiment, at least one of A 16 or A 19 is Aib. Specific examples of peptides of the just-recited formula include, but are not limited to, Cha 7!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 11!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16, Tyr 34 hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 19!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Aib 16, 19!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; Cha 7, 11, Aib 16 hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2 ; and Cha 7, 11 Aib 19!hPTHrP(1-34)NH 2. With the exception of the N-terminal amino acid, all abbreviations (e.g. Ala or A 1 ) of amino acids in this disclosure stand for the structure of --NH--CH(R)--CO--, wherein R is a side chain of an amino acid (e.g., CH 3 for Ala). For the N-terminal amino acid, the abbreviation stands for the structure of ═N--CH(R)--CO--, wherein R is a side chain of an amino acid. β-Nal, Nle, Dap, Cha, Nva, Amp, Pal, and Aib are the abbreviations of the following α-amino acids: β-(2-naphthyl) alanine, norleucine, α,β-diaminopropionic acid, cyclohexylalanine, norvaline, 4-amino-phenylalanine, 3-pyridinylalanine, and α-aminoisobutyric acid, respectively. In the above formula, hydroxyalkyl, hydroxyphenylalkyl, and hydroxynaphthylalkyl may contain 1-4 hydroxy substituents. Also, COE 1 stands for --C═O.E 1. Examples of --C═O.E 1 include, but are not limited to, acetyl and phenylpropionyl. A peptide of this invention is also denoted herein by another format, e.g., Cha 7, 11!hPTH(1-34)NH 2, with the substituted amino acids from the natural sequence placed between the second set of brackets (e.g., Cha 7 for Leu 7, and Cha 11 for Leu 11 in hPTH). The abbreviation hPTH stands for human PTH, hPTHrP for human PTHrP, rPTH for rat PTH, and bPTH for bovine PTH. The numbers between the parentheses refer to the number of amino acids present in the peptide (e.g., hPTH(1-34) is amino acids 1 through 34 of the peptide sequence for human PTH). The sequences for hPTH(1-34), hPTHrP(1-34), bPTH(1-34), and rPTH(1-34) are listed in Nissenson, et al., Receptor, 3:193 (1993). The designation &#34;NH 2 &#34; in PTH(1-34)NH 2 indicates that the C-terminus of the peptide is amidated. PTH(1-34), on the other hand, has a free acid C-terminus. Each of the peptides of the invention is capable of stimulating the growth of bone in a subject (i.e., a mammal such as a human patient). Thus, it is useful in the treatment of osteoporosis and bone fractures when administered alone or concurrently with antiresorptive therapy, e.g., bisphosphonates and calcitonin. The peptides of this invention can be provided in the form of pharmaceutically acceptable salts. Examples of such salts include, but are not limited to, those formed with organic acids (e.g., acetic, lactic, maleic, citric, malic, ascorbic, succinic, benzoic, methanesulfonic, toluenesulfonic, or pamoic acid), inorganic acids (e.g., hydrochloric acid, sulfuric acid, or phosphoric acid), and polymeric acids (e.g., tannic acid, carboxymethyl cellulose, polylactic, polyglycolic, or copolymers of polylactic-glycolic acids). A therapeutically effective amount of a peptide of this invention and a pharmaceutically acceptable carrier substance (e.g., magnesium carbonate, lactose, or a phospholipid with which the therapeutic compound can form a micelle) together form a therapeutic composition (e.g., a pill, tablet, capsule, or liquid) for administration (e.g., orally, intravenously, transdermally, pulmonarily, vaginally, subcutaneously, nasally, iontophoretically, or by intratracheally) to a subject. The pill, tablet, or capsule that is to be administered orally can be coated with a substance for protecting the active composition from the gastric acid or intestinal enzymes in the stomach for a period of time sufficient to allow it to pass undigested into the small intestine. The therapeutic composition can also be in the form of a biodegradable or nonbiodegradable sustained release formulation for subcutaneous or intramuscular administration. See, e.g., U.S. Pat. Nos. 3,773,919 and 4,767,628 and PCT Application No. WO 94/15587. Continuous administration can also be achieved using an implantable or external pump (e.g., INFUSAID™ pump). The administration can also be conducted intermittently, e.g., single daily injection, or continuously at a low dose, e.g., sustained release formulation. The dose of a peptide of the present invention for treating the above-mentioned diseases or disorders varies depending upon the manner of administration, the age and the body weight of the subject, and the condition of the subject to be treated, and ultimately will be decided by the attending physician or veterinarian. Also contemplated within the scope of this invention is a peptide covered by the above generic formula for use in treating diseases or disorders associated with deficiency in bone growth or the like, e.g., osteoporosis or fractures. Other features and advantages of the present invention will be apparent from the detailed description and from the claims. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION Based on the description herein, the present invention can be utilized to its fullest extent. The following specific examples are to be construed as merely illustrative, and not limitative of the remainder of the disclosure in any way whatsoever. Further, all publications cited herein are incorporated by reference. Structure PTH(1-34) has been reported to have two amphophilic alpha helical domains. See, e.g., Barden, et al., Biochem., 32:7126 (1992). The first α-helix is formed between amino acid residues 4 through 13, while the second α-helix is formed between amino acid residues 21 through 29. Some peptides of this invention contain the substitution of Cha for one or more residues within or near these two regions of PTH(1-34), e.g., Cha 7 and Cha 11 within the first α-helix or Cha 27 and Cha 28 within the second α-helix. Also covered by this invention are variants of PTH(1-34) with the substitution of Aib for a residue adjacent to the α-helixes, e.g., Aib 16, Aib 19, and Aib 34 ; hArg 27 and Nle 31, or the substitution of Dpa for the N-terminal residue. Synthesis The peptides of the invention can be prepared by standard solid phase synthesis. See, e.g., Stewart, J. M., et al., Solid Phase Synthesis (Pierce Chemical Co., 2d ed. 1984). The following is a description of how Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2 was prepared. Other peptides of the invention can be prepared in an analogous manner by a person of ordinary skill in the art. The peptide was synthesized on an Applied Biosystems (Foster City, Calif.) model 430A peptide synthesizer which was modified to do accelerated Boc-chemistry solid phase peptide synthesis. See Schnoize, et al., Int. J. Peptide Protein Res., 90:180 (1992). 4-Methylbenz-hydrylamine (MBHA) resin (Peninsula, Belmont, Calif.) with the substitution of 0.93 mmol/g was used. The Boc amino acids (Bachem, Calif., Torrance, Calif.; Nova Biochem., LaJolla, Calif.) were used with the following side chain protection: Boc-Arg(Tos)-OH, Boc-Asp(OcHxl)-OH, Boc-Asn(Xan)-OH, Boc-Glu(OcHxl)-OH, Boc-His(DNP)-OH, Boc-Asn-GH, Boc-Val-OH, Boc-Leu-OH, Boc-Ser-OH, Boc-Gly-OH, Boc-Met-OH, Boc-Gln-OH, Boc-Ile-OH, Boc-Lys(2ClZ)-OH, Boc-Ser(Bzl)-OH, and Boc-Trp(Fm)-OH. The synthesis was carried out on a 0.14 mmol scale. The Boc groups were removed by treatment with 100% TFA for 2×1 min. Boc amino acids (2.5 mmol) were pre-activated with HBTU (2.0 mmol) and DIEA (1.0 mL) in 4 mL of DMF and were coupled without prior neutralization of the peptide-resin TFA salt. Coupling times were 5 min except for the Boc-Aib-OH and the following residue, Boc-Asn(Xan)-OH, wherein the coupling times were 20 min. At the end of the assembly of the peptide chain, the resin was treated with a solution of 20% mercaptoethanol/10% DIEA in DMF for 2×30 min. to remove the DNP group on the His side chain. The N-terminal Boc group was then removed by treatment with 100% TFA for 2×2 min. After neutralization of the peptide-resin with 10% DIEA in DMF (1×1 min.), the formyl group on the side chain of Trp was removed by treatment with a solution of 15% ethanolamine/15% water/70% DMF for 2×30 min. The partially-deprotected peptide-resin was washed with DMF and DCM and dried under reduced pressure. The final cleavage was done by stirring the peptide-resin in 10 mL of HF containing 1 mL of anisole at 0° C. for 75 min. HF was removed by a flow of nitrogen. The residue was washed with ether (6×10 mL) and extracted with 4N HOAc (6×10 mL). The peptide mixture in the aqueous extract was purified on a reversed-phase preparative high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) using a reversed phase VYDAC C 18 column (Nest Group, Southborough, Mass.). The column was eluted with a linear gradient (10% to 45% of solution B over 130 min.) at a flow rate of 10 mL/min (Solution A=0.1% aqueous TFA; Solution B=acetonitile containing 0.1% of TFA). Fractions were collected and checked on analytical HPLC. Those containing pure product were combined and lyophilized to dryness. 62.3 mg of a white solid was obtained. Purity was &gt;99% based on analytical HPLC analysis. Electro-spray mass spectrometer analysis gave the molecular weight at 4054.7 (in agreement with the calculated molecular weight of 4054.7). The synthesis and purification of Cha 7,11!hPTH (1-34)NH 2 was carried out in the same manner as the above synthesis of Aib 34!hPTH(1-34)NH 2. The protected amino acid Boc-Cha-OH was purchased from Bachem, Calif. The purity of the final product was &gt;98%, and the electron-spray mass spectrometer gave the molecular weight at 4197.0 (calculated molecular weight is 4196.9). The full names for the abbreviations used above are as follows: Boc for t-butyloxycarbonyl, HF for hydrogen fluoride, Fm for formyl, Xan for xanthyl, Bzl for benzyl, Tos for tosyl, DNP for 2,4-dinitrophenyl, DMF for dimethylformamide, DCM for dichloromethane, HBTU for 2-(1H-Benzotriazol-1-yl)-1,1,3,3-tetramethyl uronium hexafluorophosphate, DIEA for diisopropylethylamine, HOAc for acetic acid, TFA for trifluoroacetic acid, 2ClZ for 2-chlorobenzyloxycarbonyl and OcHxl for O-cyclohexyl. The substituents R 1 and R 2 of the above generic formula may be attached to the free amine of the N-terminal amino acid by standard methods known in the art. For example, alkyl groups, e.g., C 1-12 alkyl, may be attached using reductive alkylation. Hydroxyalkyl groups, e.g., C 1-12 hydroxyalkyl, may also be attached using reductive alkylation wherein the free hydroxy group is protected with a t-butyl ester. Acyl groups, e.g., COE 1, may be attached by coupling the free acid, e.g., E 1 COOH, to the free amine of the N-terminal amino acid by mixing the completed resin with 3 molar equivalents of both the free acid and diisopropylcarbodiimide in methylene chloride for one hour and cycling the resulting resin through steps (a) to (f) in the above wash program. If the free acid contains a free hydroxy group, e.g., p-hydroxyphenylpropionic acid, then the coupling should be performed with an additional 3 molar equivalents of HOBT. Other peptides of this invention can be prepared in an analogous manner by a person of ordinary skill in the art. Functional Assays A. Binding to PTH Receptor The peptides of the invention were tested for their ability to bind to the PTH receptor present on SaOS-2 (human osteosarcoma cells). SaOS-2 cells (American Type Culture Collection, Rockville, Md.; ATCC #HTB 85) were maintained in RPMI 1640 medium (Sigma, St. Louis, Mo.) supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum (FBS) and 2 mM glutamine at 37° C. in a humidified atmosphere of 5% CO 2 in air. The medium was changed every three or four days, and the cells were subcultured every week by trypsinization. SaOS-2 cells were maintained for four days until they had reached confluence. The medium was replaced with 5% FBS in RPMI 1640 medium and incubated for 2 hrs at room temperature with 10×10 4 cpm mono- 125 I- Nle 8,18, Tyr 34 (3- 125 I)! bPTH(1-34)NH 2 in the presence of a competing peptides of the invention at various concentrations between 10 -11 M to 10 -4 M. The cells were washed four times with ice-cold PBS and lysed with 0.1M NaOH, and the radioactivity associated with the cells was counted in a scintillation counter. Synthesis of mono- 125 I- Nle 8,18, Tyr 34 (3- 125 I)! bPTH(1-34)NH 2 was carried out as described in Goldman, M. E., et al., Endocrinol., 123:1468 (1988). The binding assay was conducted with various peptides of the invention, and the IC 50 value, (half maximal inhibition of binding of mono- 125 I- Nle 8,18, Tyr 34 (3- 125 I)!bPTH(1-34)NH 2, for each peptide was calculated. As shown in Table I, all of the tested peptides had a high binding affinity for the PTH receptor on the SaOS-2 cell. B. Stimulation of Adenylate Cyclase Activity The ability of the peptides of the invention to induce a biological response in SaOS-2 cells were measured. More specifically, any stimulation of the adenylate cyclase was determined by measuring the level of synthesis of cAMP (adenosine 3&#39;,5&#39;-monophosphate) as described previously in Rodan, et al., J. Clin. Invest. 72:1511 (1983) and Goldman, et al., Endocrinol., 123:1468 (1988). Confluent SaOS-2 cells in 24 wells plates were incubated with 0.5 μCi 3 H! adenine (26.9 Ci/mmol, New England Nuclear, Boston, Mass.) in fresh medium at 37° C. for 2 hrs, and washed twice with Hank&#39;s balanced salt solution (Gibco, Gaithersburg, Md.). The cells were treated with 1 mM IBMX isobutylmethylxanthine, Sigma, St. Louis, Mo.! in fresh medium for 15 min, and the peptides of the invention were added to the medium to incubate for 5 min. The reaction was stopped by the addition of 1.2M trichloroacetic acid (TCA) (Sigma, St. Louis, Mo.) followed by sample neutralization with 4N KOH. cAMP was isolated by the two-column chromatographic method (Salmon, et al., 1974, Anal. Biochem. 58, 541). The radioactivity was counted in a scintillation counter (Liquid Scintillation Counter 2200CA, PACKARD, Downers Grove, Ill.). The respective EC 50 values (half maximal stimulation of adenylate cyclase) for the tested peptides were calculated and shown in Table I. A 11 tested peptides were found to be potent stimulators of adenylate cyclase activity, which is a biochemical pathway indicative as a proximal signal for osteoblast proliferation (e.g., bone growth). TABLE I______________________________________ Kd EC.sub.50PEPTIDE (μM) (nM)______________________________________ Cha.sup.7,11!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.01 0.6 Cha.sup.23!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.2 20 Cha.sup.24!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.1 10 Nle.sup.8,18, Cha.sup.27!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.05 2 Cha.sup.28!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.05 2.5 Cha.sup.31!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.03 4 Aib.sup.16!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.004 0.7 Aib.sup.19!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.005 0.6 Aib.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.007 3 Nle.sup.31!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.004 0.7 hArg.sup.27!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.007 1 Dap, Nle.sup.8,18, Tyr.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.150 10 Cha.sup.24,28,31, Lys.sup.30!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 ; 0.5 7 Cha.sup.7,11, Nle.sup.8,18, Tyr.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.006 0.6 Cha.sup.7,11, Nle.sup.8,18, Aib.sup.16,19, Tyr.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.29 0.005 1.5 Cha.sup.7,11, Nle.sup.8,18,31, Aib.sup.16,19, Tyr.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.04 4 Cha.sup.11!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.005 2 Cha.sup.28,31!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.06 7 Cha.sup.7,11, Nle.sup.8,18, Aib.sup.34!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.03 1.5 Cha.sup.15!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.005 1.3 Cha.sup.7,11, Aib.sup.19!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.007 0.5 Cha.sup.7,11, Aib.sup.16!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.004 1.1 Aib.sup.16,19!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.004 0.6 Aib.sup.12!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.005 2 Aib.sup.3!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.004 1.1 Cha.sup.7,11, Aib.sup.19, Lys.sup.30!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.004 2 Cha.sup.7!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 0.02 2.3 Cha.sup.24,28,31!hPTH(1-34)NH.sub.2 1.0 30______________________________________ Other Embodiments It is to be understood that while the invention has been described in conjunction with the detailed description thereof, that the foregoing description is intended to illustrate and not limit the scope of the invention, which is defined by the scope of the appended claims. Other aspects, advantages, and modifications are within the claims.

Summary: Peptide variants of fragment (1-34) of parathyroid hormone, in which at least one of the amino acid residues at positions 7, 11, 23, 24, 27, 28, and 31 is cyclohexylalanine, or at least one of the amino acid residues at positions 3, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 34 is α-aminoisobutyric acid; or, alternatively, at least the amino acid residue at position 1 is α,β-diaminopropionic acid, the amino acid residue at position 27 is homoarginine, or the amino acid residue at position 31 is norleucine.

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Summarize: Top senators in both parties have begun talks to revise the congressional resolution authorizing the use of military force following the Sept. 11, 2001, attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon, according to lawmakers and aides involved in the discussions. Though in its early stages, such a debate could cause serious heartburn for the White House and party leaders seeking to push through any revised use-of-force resolution. A Senate floor fight over replacing the 9/11 resolution could lead to broader political battles on critical areas of President Barack Obama’s national security policy, including the war in Afghanistan, the use of armed drone attacks against suspected terrorists, treatment of detainees held in Guantanamo Bay, and the scope of the president’s authority as commander-in-chief to combat terrorism worldwide. Text Size - + reset The bipartisan Senate talks also come at a time when Obama is catching flak for his aggressive drone policy, and Sen. Rand Paul’s (R-Ky.) 13-hour filibuster on the issue struck a chord with some members of both parties. Senate Armed Services Committee Chair Carl Levin (D-Mich.), and Sens. Dick Durbin (D-Ill.) and John McCain (R-Ariz.) met recently to discuss the issue, the senators and their aides said. Other senators involved in the talks include Bob Corker (R-Tenn.) and Lindsey Graham (R-S.C.). Corker is the ranking member on the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. Levin has scheduled a May 16 hearing of the Senate Armed Services Committee on the matter. Levin, who has already announced his retirement at the end of this Congress, was tight-lipped when approached on Monday about his upcoming hearing and his discussions with Durbin and McCain. “The whole issue is a very complex issue,” Levin said. “It’s the complexity of the issue that needs to be dealt with.” At stake is whether the 9/11 resolution is still relevant more than 12 years after it was adopted by Congress in the wake of the attacks by al Qaeda terrorists on the World Trade Center and Pentagon. Those attacks prompted an American-led invasion of Afghanistan, a military campaign that is still ongoing and could last for years longer, even after U.S. combat forces leave the troubled country in 2014. “We need to sit down among ourselves as senators and ask a very timely question. And that is whether the AUMF [authorization of use of military force] that we voted for in 2001 — every senator did who was serving at the time — whether that still serves America’s defense needs today,” Durbin told POLITICO in an interview. Durbin is the number two Senate Democrat, as well as chairman of the powerful Defense Appropriations subcommittee. Durbin added: “None of us, not one who voted for it, could have envisioned we were voting for the longest war in American history or that we were about to give future presidents the authority to fight terrorism as far flung as Yemen and Somalia. I don’t think any of us envisioned that possibility.” Sunrise was still nearly an hour off when Nazih al-Ruqai climbed into his black Hyundai SUV outside a mosque in northern Tripoli and turned the key. The lanky 49-year-old had left the house barely 30 minutes earlier for a quick trip to the mosque on a Saturday. It was Oct. 5, 2013, and after more than two decades in exile, he had settled into a predictable existence of prayer and worship. The homecoming hadn’t always been so smooth. Ruqai, who is better known in the jihadi world as Abu Anas al-Libi, was still feeling the effects of the hepatitis C he had contracted years earlier during a stint in an underground prison in Iran. Following overtures from Muammar al-Qaddafi’s government, his wife and children had returned to Libya in 2010. But Libi stayed away, wary of the man he had once plotted to kill. Only when the Libyan uprisings started in early 2011 did he follow his family back to Libya. But by then it was already too late. His oldest son, Abd al-Rahman, the only one of his five children who had been born in Libya, was dead, shot while fighting for the capital. After that, things moved in fits and starts. Qaddafi was killed weeks later in October 2011, and Libi eventually settled in Nufalayn, a leafy middle-class neighborhood in northeast Tripoli, alongside several members of his extended family. Life after Qaddafi was chaotic and messy — nothing really worked as the new government struggled to reboot after 42 years of dictatorship, often finding itself at the mercy of the heavily armed militias and tribes that had contributed to Qaddafi’s downfall. Nazih Abdul-Hamed al-Ruqai, known by his alias Abu Anas al-Libi, an al-Qaeda leader connected to the 1998 embassy bombings in eastern Africa. FBI / AP Photo Libi knew he was a wanted man. He had been on the FBI’s most wanted list for more than a decade, following an indictment in 2000 for his alleged role in al-Qaeda’s attacks on U.S. embassies in Kenya and Tanzania two years earlier. Along with Libi the indictment named 20 other individuals, including Osama bin Laden and Ayman al-Zawahiri, as defendants. “He suspected that at any moment he would be killed,” his son later told The New York Times. Still, on that Saturday morning in early October, much of the danger seemed to have passed. Libi had been living in the open for nearly a year, attending prayers and settling local disputes, where his history as a fighter and knowledge of the Qur’an made him a respected arbiter. Neighbors called him simply “the shaykh,” a sign of respect in the conservative circles in which Libi still moved. He had also taken steps to address his past. Three weeks earlier, on Sept. 15, Libi had sat down with Libya’s attorney general to discuss his indictment, according to one report. (The Libyan Embassy in Washington did not respond to repeated requests to confirm Libi’s meeting.) But mostly he just wanted to move on with his life. He had applied for his old job at the Ministry of Oil and Gas and he couldn’t stop talking about how much he was looking forward to becoming a grandfather for the first time. A trio of cars around 6 a.m. ended all of that. Inside the family’s apartment, Libi’s wife heard the commotion. From a window she looked out over the beige wall that surrounded their building and into the street where several men had surrounded her husband, who was still in the driver’s seat of his black Hyundai. “Get out,” the men shouted in Arabic. “Get out.” Then they smashed the window. Most of the men were masked, but she could see a few faces, she said later in Arabic interviews. They looked Libyan; they sounded Libyan. Some of them had guns; some didn’t, but they all moved quickly. By the time the rest of the family made it to the street, all that was left was a single sandal and a few drops of blood. Early that same morning, nearly 3,000 miles away in the seaside city of Baraawe on Somalia’s eastern coast, U.S. Navy SEALs crept through the darkness toward their target, which a local resident later described to me as a walled compound more than 100 yards inland. The Americans had been here before. Four years earlier, in September 2009, a contingent of Navy SEALs had ambushed a two-car convoy just outside of town. Flying low in helicopter gunships, the SEALs quickly disabled the cars and then touched down to collect the bodies. This time the target — Abd al-Qadir Muhammad Abd al-Qadir, a young Kenyan of Somali descent better known as Ikrima — was stationary. The SEALs would have to go in and get him. Pre-raid intelligence suggested that the compound housed mostly fighters with few or no civilians present. Only 130 miles south of Mogadishu and what passed for the Somali government, Baraawe had been under the control of al-Shabaab, a fragmentary militant group, since 2009. Fighters came and went freely, as al-Shabaab implemented its own narrow version of Islamic law in the city. Abdulkadir Mohamed Abdulkadir, aka Ikrima. Moving up the beach and into enemy territory, the SEALs needed the element of surprise. Through the trees and scrub brush ahead of them, most of the city was dark. Baraawe had only a few hours of electricity each day, usually from evening prayers until midnight. But al-Shabaab’s members lived separately and, along with some of the city’s wealthier residents, got around the shortages by running private generators. The plan that night took this into account, calling for the SEALs to jam internet signals, apparently in an attempt to cut off communication once the raid began. That would prove to be a mistake. Inside the compound, some of the al-Shabaab fighters were up late and online. And, according to a report in the Toronto Star, when the internet suddenly went out in the middle of the night, they went to look for the source of the problem. At least one fighter stepped outside, and as he moved around in the darkness he spotted some of the SEALs. The plan to knock the internet offline and isolate the fighters in the villa had backfired, effectively giving al-Shabaab an early warning that the SEALs were on their way. (In the days after the raid, al-Shabaab would arrest a handful of local men who were known to visit Western websites, accusing them of spying and aiding U.S. efforts.) The firefight lasted several minutes, although residents reported hearing gunfire throughout the night as members of al-Shabaab discharged their weapons into the dark for hours after the Americans had withdrawn, empty-handed. In the span of a few hours, the U.S. had launched a pair of raids — one successful and one not — 3,000 miles apart, in countries with which the nation was not at war. Hardly anyone noticed. More than a dozen years after the Sept. 11 attacks, this is what America’s war looks like, silent strikes and shadowy raids. The Congressional Research Service, an analytical branch of the Library of Congress, recently said that it had located at least 30 similar occurrences, although the number of covert actions is likely many times higher with drones strikes and other secret operations. The remarkable has become regular. The White House said that the operations in both Libya and Somalia drew their authority from the Authorization for the Use of Military Force, a 12-year-old piece of legislation that was drafted in the hours after the Sept. 11 attacks. At the heart of the AUMF is a single 60-word sentence, which has formed the legal foundation for nearly every counterterrorism operation the U.S. has conducted since Sept. 11, from Guantanamo Bay and drone strikes to secret renditions and SEAL raids. Everything rests on those 60 words. Unbound by time and unlimited by geography, the sentence has been stretched and expanded over the past decade, sprouting new meanings and interpretations as two successive administrations have each attempted to keep pace with an evolving threat while simultaneously maintaining the security of the homeland. In the process, what was initially thought to authorize force against al-Qaeda and the Taliban in Afghanistan has now been used to justify operations in several countries across multiple continents and, at least theoretically, could allow the president — any president — to strike anywhere at anytime. What was written in a few days of fear has now come to govern years of action. Culled from interviews with former and current members of Congress, as well as staffers and attorneys who served in both the Bush and the Obama administrations, this is the story of how those 60 words came to be, the lone objector to their implementation, and their continuing power in the world today. The story, like most modern ones of America at war, begins in the shadow of 9/11 with a lawyer and Word document. Just over 24 hours after United Flight 175 flew into the south tower at 9:03 in the morning on Sept. 11, Alberto Gonzalez, the White House counsel, called one of his deputies into his office. The U.S. still didn’t know for certain who was behind the attacks or how many people had been killed. The CIA thought it might be Osama bin Laden’s al-Qaeda network, and early casualty reports put the death toll at more than 5,000. Only one of those things would turn out to be true. But on that first day the only thing anyone knew for certain was that the U.S. had been attacked and that it had to respond. Gonzales gave a key part of that task to Timothy Flanigan, a graying, slightly paunchy 48-year-old lawyer with a background in corporate law. Gonzales wanted his deputy to draft the congressional resolution that would authorize the president to go after those responsible. Flanigan listened to the instructions, but he was out of his element. He had clerked for Warren Burger during the chief justice’s final years on the Supreme Court in 1985 and 1986, but most of those cases focused on things like antitrust laws and regulating adult bookstores, not national security and war. Still, he at least knew where to start. While the U.S. had never been attacked like this before, Congress had a long history of authorizing the use of force. What he needed was a precedent. After a quick search online, Flanigan located the last time Congress had given the president permission to act: the 1991 Authorization for the Use of Military Force against Iraq. Then, according to an account in Kurt Eichenwald’s best-selling 2012 book 500 Days, he copied and pasted the text of that resolution into a new document. Next Flanigan called David Addington, a gruff, standoffish man in Vice President Dick Cheney’s office. Addington had started his career as a lawyer in the CIA and he had a better sense of the issues at stake. So too did John Yoo, a 34-year-old law professor from Berkeley, Calif., whose innovative legal arguments in Bush v. Gore a year earlier had secured him a place in the Bush White House. Together the three men hammered out a first draft of the resolution, which they faxed to congressional leaders that evening. Almost no one liked Flanigan’s initial offering. Everyone was working long hours and fighter jets were still patrolling the skies over Washington, but Congress wasn’t ready to give President George W. Bush a blank check to go after an ill-defined enemy no one knew anything about. At a Democratic caucus in the basement of the Capitol building, several members complained that the wording was too broad. Republicans were similarly concerned. One part of Flanigan’s draft authorized the president to “use all necessary and appropriate force” both in the United States as well as abroad. What exactly did that mean? officials wondered. Could President Bush use the military domestically? What about the CIA? No one seemed to know. Flanigan and Yoo spent much of Thursday, Sept. 13, walking scared and sleep-deprived congressional staffers through the brief text. At one of the meetings in the Roosevelt Room, tempers started to fray as Flanigan and Yoo dug in to defend their work. The day before, Senate Majority Leader Tom Daschle had warned President Bush to be careful with his rhetoric, particularly his use of the word “war.” And now his staff was driving home a similar point. Mostly they wanted to make sure that the resolution adhered to the War Powers Resolution language, which Congress had passed in the wake of the Vietnam War as a way of checking the president’s ability to unilaterally wage war. Crammed around a long wooden table with a portrait of Theodore Roosevelt as Rough Rider looking down on them, the two sides got to work. Deep into the meeting, one of Sen. Patrick Leahy’s aides returned to the War Powers language, which had already been debated and tabled several times. This was a deal breaker, she said. Nothing had been settled. The two sides were going in circles. From around the table the frustration was palpable. Finally, House Speaker Dennis Hastert’s chief of staff, Scott Palmer, spoke up. “We don’t have time for this,” he blurted out from his seat in the back. The 50-year-old Palmer saw his role in the meeting as a mediator and a prodder. His boss was second in the order of presidential succession, and he was convinced the U.S. was about to be hit again. The discussion in the Roosevelt Room was getting bogged down in legislative minutiae when the country needed action. Let’s have a seminar on this next month, Palmer thought as he laid into Leahy’s aide. Part of the edge in his voice was due to his belief that it was exactly this type of narrow thinking that had led to the intelligence wall in the years leading up to the attack. But right now their job wasn’t to litigate past mistakes, it was to give the president the latitude he needed to go after the people responsible. Palmer’s outburst got the meeting moving again, and when it broke up, a White House official wandered over. “Thanks for popping off,” he told Palmer. “We could have been here all night.” By late that evening the White House and Congress had something resembling a working draft. They had even found a compromise to one of the more vexing phrases, which would have given the president the authority “to deter and pre-empt any future acts of terrorism or aggression against the United States.” Congressional lawyers had pointed out that the clause would give the president unprecedented power, allowing him to strike anyone anywhere in the world at any time. One even argued that given the potential activities that could be crammed into the word “aggression,” the president might never again have to seek congressional authorization to combat terrorism. He could simply target anyone he considered a threat and say he was preempting terrorism. Did Congress really want to give the president such open-ended and wide-ranging power? Flanigan and Yoo agreed to remove the clause on the condition that they place similar language in the “whereas” section of the resolution. Convinced this was the best they could get and comforted by the fact that the whereas section carried no legal weight — it existed only to provide the context for the resolution — Daschle and the rest of the Democratic negotiators agreed to the deal. They brought the revised draft — five whereas clauses, the 60-word body, and a War Powers section — back to the Capitol basement for the second Democratic caucus of the day. Hours earlier, a bomb threat had forced the Capitol to close for 45 minutes as security swept the building. Milling about on the grass outside the Capitol in suits and shoes designed for hallways and offices, the members tried to maintain their composure, but the long days and stress were starting to take a toll. Like the rest of the country, they wanted to hit back. “I say bomb the hell out of them,” Democratic Sen. Zell Miller of Georgia had told The New York Times a day earlier. “If there’s collateral damage, so be it. They certainly found our civilians to be expendable.” Not everyone was so sure. Barbara Lee, a 55-year-old congresswoman with short black hair and the worn-through voice of a lifelong activist, had stayed silent during the first caucus. There had been enough people talking, and as a second-term congresswoman from the liberal California San Francisco Bay Area, she was still relatively junior. But now, as support for the resolution seemed to be gaining momentum, she decided it was time to speak up. Lee knew what she was about to say would be unpopular, but she had been unpopular before. As a child growing up in El Paso, Texas, during the 1950s, her mother sent her to Catholic school instead of segregated public schools, and later as a high school student in California she broke the color barrier to become the first black cheerleader at her high school. “This is still a blank check,” she said when it came her turn to speak. The faces staring back at her looked somber and reflective, but Lee could sense the undercurrent of anger running through the room. “Let’s take a step back,” she begged. “We don’t know what the implications of our actions will be.” A few heads had started to nod along with her, and as Lee sat down, several other members stood up to voice concerns about the dangers inherent in such a broad resolution. By the end of the meeting, it was clear that this was the resolution, a single sentence and 60 words: That the President is authorized to use all necessary and appropriate force against those nations, organizations, or persons he determines planned, authorized, committed, or aided the terrorist attacks that occurred on September 11, 2001, or harbored such organizations or persons in order to prevent any future acts of international terrorism against the United States by such nations, organizations or persons. That was it. After more than a day of negotiations between the White House and Congress, Republicans and Democrats, this is what had emerged. Congress could take it or leave it. There would be no going back to the drawing board. Lee spent much of the night on the phone. Congress was moving forward with the resolution. The only question that remained was how she would vote. She needed to get a sense of what her district back in California was thinking, and she wanted to talk. “I can’t believe this,” she kept saying into the phone. “Am I missing something?” None of her friends had an answer. They could tell her what they were hearing in California and list what they saw as the pros and cons of different votes. But that was it. No one wanted to give advice. It was her vote, and it would have to be her decision. The Senate moved first. Early on Friday morning, Minority Leader Trent Lott came to Daschle with a request. The Republicans in his ranks were getting restless. The White House was telling congressional allies that the resolution was ready, and with the attacks already three days in the past, Lott’s members were tired of waiting. They wanted action. If Daschle wanted the Senate to speak with one voice, he needed to call a vote. Otherwise, Lott told him, some Republicans might start to move on their own. Typically, voting on something like this started in the House before moving to the Senate and then to the president, but typically the House would have taken the lead in drafting the resolution. The protocol was already out of order. Daschle agreed with Lott’s assessment, and when the Senate was gaveled back into session at 10:16 on Friday morning, he was ready with the resolution. “Let me say, before I do read this request,” Daschle said as he fiddled with his reading glasses, “how much I appreciate, once again, the leadership of our Republican leader.” Glancing across the aisle to where Lott stood in the mostly empty chamber, Daschle continued: “As he has throughout the week, he has been remarkable. We could not be where we are today, this country or this institution, without the strong partnership and leadership he has shown.” The White House had organized a prayer service at the National Cathedral for noon, and in an effort to save time, Daschle asked the senators to vote from their desks. Friday had turned into a dreary, rainy day, and they still had a nearly 15-minute drive uptown. “We want to get on the buses just as quickly as possible after this vote,” Daschle told his colleagues. “They will be right down in front of the steps.” Carl Levin, a portly 67-year-old senator from Michigan with boxy glasses perched low on his nose, addressed the floor. “This authorization for the use of force is limited to the nations, organizations, or persons involved in the terrorist attacks of Sept. 11,” he said. “It is not a broad authorization for the use of military force against any nation, organization, or person who were not involved in the Sept. 11 terrorist attacks.” Later that day, Levin’s Democratic colleague, Joe Biden, seconded his interpretation of what the Senate had passed to The New York Times. The current resolution, Biden claimed, was nothing like the 1964 Gulf of Tonkin Resolution, which had been used to justify military escalation in Vietnam for nearly seven years until it was repealed in 1971. The Senate, Biden and senior Democrats like John Kerry suggested, had learned its lesson. No one wanted another Vietnam. That, after all, is why they had insisted that Flanigan and Yoo add the War Powers language. But in the rush to draft and pass the resolution, no one had managed to insert a sunset option — a time limit on the use of force. The legal authority Congress was giving to the president would last until Congress took it back. There was no end date, just a vague sentence and the broad authority to “use all necessary and appropriate force.” On Sept. 14, 2001, no one was thinking about how the war would eventually end, only that it needed to begin. Just as Daschle had hoped, the voting was over in minutes. Each of the 98 senators present voted in favor of the resolution, and Jesse Helms, who had been stuck in traffic for much of the morning, later took to the Senate floor to tell his colleagues he would have voted yea. Only Larry Craig of Idaho, who years later garnered further national ignominy, failed to vote or explain his absence. After speaking at the service for America’s National Day of Prayer and Remembrance, U.S. President George W. Bush grasps the hand of his father, former President George H.W. Bush, Sept. 14, 2001, at the National Cathedral in Washington, D.C. Eric Draper/White House / Getty Images On the other side of the building, in the Democratic cloakroom, Lee was still wrestling with her vote. She had already decided to pass on the memorial service. The House was scheduled to vote on the resolution on Saturday and she wanted to spend most of Friday making calls and thinking about what to do. As everyone else was gathering to get on the bus, Lee sipped from a can of ginger ale and chatted with Elijah Cummings, a close colleague from Maryland. “Are you going?” Cummings asked. “Well,” Lee hesitated. “I think I’m going to stick around.” But as she spoke, Lee could feel something inside her shift. She couldn’t explain it to Cummings then, or even to herself later. She just knew she needed to go. She needed to be present. “You know what?” Lee interrupted. “I’m going.” Then she turned and walked out of the cloakroom still clutching the ginger ale as she moved down the steps, through the rain, and onto the bus. Inside the neo-Gothic cathedral on Wisconsin Avenue, Lee found a seat in the left several rows behind the cluster of former presidents who had gathered in the front. For the next 30 minutes, as the church slowly started to fill, she sat silently listening to the organ and praying. Around her, a few people were already crying and several were whispering softly, a faint rustle that could be heard between hymns. Rev. Jane Holmes Dixon opened the service with a short reading and a prayer. The next speaker, Nathan Baxter, a third-generation priest and dean of the cathedral, held to a similar script, reading from Jeremiah 31:15: “A voice is heard in Ramah, lamenting and bitter weeping, Rachel is weeping for her children and she refuses to be comforted because they are no more.” The tall African-American priest paused briefly to look out across the darkened cathedral as he moved from Jeremiah’s words to his own. “Now let us seek that assurance in prayer,” he said in a slow, deliberate baritone. “That as we act we not become the evil we deplore.” That’s it, Lee thought from her seat. For much of the past 24 hours, she had been looking for a reason to vote no. In her heart she knew that was the right vote, but she hadn’t been able to articulate why. Baxter’s words did it for her: “As we act, let us not become the evil we deplore.” She was as angry and heartbroken as anyone else. Her chief of staff had lost a cousin when Flight 93 went down in Pennsylvania. But she wanted a measured response, not a blank check for a perpetual war. Something else was bothering her as well. Several of the speakers seemed to be more focused on retaliation than remembering the dead. This is supposed to be a memorial service, Lee thought. Not a rush-to-war service. Part of the tone was deliberate. President Bush and his advisers had wanted to strike a note of defiance. In his own remarks, Bush gave voice to the attitude that would come to define his administration. “Just three days removed from these events, Americans do not yet have the distance of history,” he said from the cathedral’s lectern. “But our responsibility to history is already clear: To answer these attacks and rid the world of evil.” Mine eyes have seen the glory of the coming of the Lord He is trampling out the vintage where the grapes of wrath are stored; He hath loosed the fateful lightning of His terrible swift sword: His truth is marching on. As Bush stepped down, everyone else stood. The marble and stone echoed as the congregation sang “The Battle Hymn of the Republic”: Late that afternoon, Lee received a phone call in her office. The vote that had been scheduled for Saturday had been moved up. The hours of prep time she had been counting on to get the language of her floor statement just right were gone. If she wanted to speak, she needed to get to the floor. On the House Committee for International Relations, Stephen Rademaker, the committee’s chief counsel, received a similar message. Under normal circumstances, Rademaker, a tall, thin lawyer with the loose frame of a long-distance runner, would have taken the lead in drafting the resolution, as his committee typically had jurisdiction for the authorization of the use of military force. But the White House was in charge of the writing, and Rademaker was a spectator. Stephen Rademaker. Julie Jacobson / AP Photo Even though Rademaker’s legal skills hadn’t been utilized in drafting the resolution, he knew it would be a historic vote. The Republican immediately thought of his eldest son, Andrew, a high school freshman across the river in Virginia. “You should come in for this,” Rademaker told his son when he got him on the phone that afternoon. The fall cross-country running season had just started, but with after-school activities still canceled because of the attacks, Andrew was looking for something to do. “Sure,” he told his dad. “I’ll come in after school today.” “No hurry,” Rademaker replied. “This thing could take a while.” On the House floor, Lee was hastily scribbling her floor speech on loose notebook paper. She dashed off a quick paragraph and started on a second before hesitating and scratching out half a line. Lee wrote for a few more minutes, pausing here and there to draw a line through something in the cramped cursive she didn’t like. She filled two pages with notes and then added a single line on a third sheet. She was ready. At 5:45 on Friday afternoon, the House was called to order. One of Lee’s close friends, Eleanor Holmes Norton, a petite 64-year-old member of the black caucus from the District of Columbia, spoke early in the debate. “The language before us is limited only by the slim anchor of its Sept. 11 reference, but allows war against any and all prospective persons and entities,” Norton warned. “The point is to give the president the authority to do what he has to do, not whatever he wants to do.” But for all of Norton’s worries about a “slim anchor” and that the text could be stretched to go after those who had nothing to with the attacks, she still said she supported the resolution to authorize the president to use “all necessary and appropriate force.” Barbara Lee, the one representative to vote against the AUMF. CSPAN Lee came to the podium seven minutes later. “I rise today, really, with a very heavy heart,” she said as emotion cracked her voice. Then, from the well of the U.S. House of Representatives, she started to cry. The mother of two boys, who had agonized and prayed over her vote, Lee jostled the microphone and tugged nervously at the lapels of her jacket as she struggled to regain control. A pair of deep breaths helped. “However difficult this vote may be,” she said, her voice steady once more, “some of us must urge the use of restraint. Our country is in a state of mourning. Some of us must say, ‘Let’s step back for a moment, let’s just pause, just for a minute, and think through the implications of our actions today so that this does not spiral out of control.’” Lee closed her brief remarks with Baxter’s line, the one that had convinced her to vote her heart. “As we act,” she said. “Let us not become the evil we deplore.” In the cloakroom after her statement, several of Lee’s friends came up to her and begged her to reconsider. “You’re doing so much on HIV and AIDS that is going to drop if you aren’t here,” one implored. “Don’t let this one vote take you out.” Fourteen-year-old Andrew Rademaker watched the House debate from the balcony overlooking the floor. He had taken his father’s advice and waited to have dinner before riding the subway into D.C. The enhanced security measures that would come to define post-9/11 America had yet to be installed, and he passed through a single metal detector and walked straight up to the House gallery. It would be the last time he’d ever enter the Capitol so easily. Below him, the House debate stretched on for hours as representatives waited their turn to publicly declare their support for the use of force. Some wanted to declare war — a suggestion that had been dismissed days earlier when no one could figure out whom to declare war on — and some wanted to root out terrorism wherever it existed, but everyone supported the use of force. Lee was on her way back to her office when the final vote was announced: 420-1. The nods of affirmation she had seen in the Capitol basement the night before had disappeared on the House floor. And Lee’s “some” had become one. Out of 535 elected officials in Congress, she was the only one to vote no. Almost immediately her phone started to ring. “I knew it was you,” the mother-in-law of Lee’s oldest son said. She had been watching CNN when the cable network broke in with the news that the House had just passed the AUMF 420-1. “I knew you were the one.” Lee’s father, a retired lieutenant colonel who had fought in World War II and Korea, called her soon after. “I’m proud of you,” he said. Lee hadn’t reached out to close family the night before during her flurry of phone calls, worried that they would try to convince her not to oppose the resolution. That her father said he supported her both as a parent and as a former military officer meant a lot. She would remember his words often in the weeks to come, a comforting message amid the thousands of death threats and angry phone calls that flooded her office. Andrew Rademaker found his father after the vote. The Transportation Committee was debating an emergency appropriations bill, and Andrew wanted to stay and watch. For the next few hours, exhausted members of the committee fought and argued over billions of dollars that some worried might be needed to save the airline industry from immediate collapse. Finally, shortly after midnight, the debate was tabled. On the way out of the chamber, Rademaker, who was still in lawyer mode, started to explain to his son everything they had seen that night: the vote to authorize the use of military force and the appropriations debate. The morning rain had tapered off, and there was hardly any late-night traffic as the two drove over the bridge into Virginia. From the driver’s seat, Rademaker saw the Pentagon come into view, leaking tendrils of smoke up into the sky. Slowing down on a whim, he pulled up next to Arlington National Cemetery, parking the car on a little hill that looked back into Washington. Rademaker gave up on his explanation of House procedures and what the vote meant for the country. There was nothing left to say. Together with his son, he stepped out of the car and stared down the slope into the hole in the Pentagon. Smoke, wreckage, and a giant American flag. On Sept. 18, 2001, President Bush signed the joint resolution authorizing him to use “all necessary and appropriate force” into law. One week later, on Sept. 25, John Yoo wrote Timothy Flanigan a memo. Yoo wanted to reestablish the preemption language Daschle and Congress had forced them to move to the whereas section during the negotiations, effectively stripping it of its legal weight. Yoo’s memo, less than two weeks later, made an end run around Daschle’s block and once again gave the idea of preemption legal cover. “The President,” Yoo wrote, “may deploy military force preemptively against terrorist organizations or the States that harbor or support them, whether or not they can be linked to the specific terrorist attack of September 11.” In the pages of dense, legal prose that followed, Yoo acknowledged that while the AUMF is limited only to enemies connected to the Sept. 11 attacks, the president actually had greater freedom of action based on his powers as commander in chief under Article II of the Constitution. Robert Chesney, a professor and expert on national security law at the University of Texas, described this idea to me as the “belt and suspenders approach” — a redundancy that allowed for greater flexibility. When the AUMF proved too narrow, the Bush administration relied on its own expansive reading of the president’s Article II authority. For Yoo, this meant that the president could “take whatever actions he deems appropriate” when it came to combating terrorism. He could kill whomever he wants, whenever he wants, wherever he wants. At its most basic level, John Yoo’s legal analysis restated Richard Nixon’s famous line that “when the president does it, that means that it is not illegal.” For years, a small but outspoken group of legal scholars and outside experts had pushed back against Yoo’s idea of an unchecked executive. They argued at conferences and wrote op-eds, but they had little real power and no ability to effect change. Finally, toward the end of Bush’s second term, they saw an opportunity to influence policy and help steer the next administration. On Sept. 15, 2008 — almost seven years to the day that the AUMF had been passed — one of those scholars boarded an Amtrak train in New Haven, Conn., for the nearly five-and-a-half-hour trip to Washington, D.C. Harold Koh testifies before the Senate Foreign Relations Committee, June 28, 2011. Chip Somodevilla / Getty Images The next day, Harold Koh, a short, intense man with jet-black hair that draped down the right side of his forehead, took his seat at the witness table in front of the Senate Judiciary Committee. The 53-year-old dean of the Yale Law School had a reputation as a brilliant if grating opponent, often appearing more eager to humiliate those who disagreed with him than simply disproving them. In front of the committee, he was characteristically outspoken, calling the AUMF a “broadly worded law” that the Bush administration had used “to justify National Security Agency surveillance, indefinite detentions, and torture of foreign detainees.” But in late 2008, with the presidential elections less than two months away, Koh was eager to give advice. He couched his remarks carefully, but as a former assistant secretary of state under Bill Clinton, it was clear that he favored Barack Obama over John McCain. The next administration, Koh said, should be very careful not to “construe the vaguely worded Authorization for the Use of Military Force (AUMF) Resolution to override existing legislation.” Already the AUMF had been in effect longer than the Vietnam-era Gulf of Tonkin Resolution and there was no end in sight. Toward the end of his prepared remarks, Koh laid out what he saw as the key issue moving forward. “As difficult as the last seven years have been, they loom far less important in the grand scheme of things than the next eight, which will determine whether the pendulum of U.S. policy swings back from the extreme place to which it has been pushed, or stays stuck in the ‘new normal’ position.” Two days after Barack Obama took the oath of office on the balcony of the U.S. Capitol building, he put Koh’s advice into action. In his testimony, Koh had recommended that “as soon as the new president takes office he should issue executive orders,” including one to close Guantanamo Bay by a certain date. Sitting in the Oval Office, on Jan. 22, 2009, President Obama did just that. He signed a pair of executive orders announcing his intention to close Guantanamo within a year and setting up a task force to review current cases against the detainees. President Obama signs an executive order to close down the detention center at Guantanamo Bay in the Oval Office on Jan. 22, 2009. Mark Wilson / Getty Images The detention facility at Guantanamo Bay is one of the best examples of the unanticipated power of the 60 words at the heart of the AUMF. Like a science experiment gone wrong, the words of that sentence have mutated and changed over the years, sprouting new meanings and interpretations that were never anticipated when Timothy Flanigan cut and pasted the text back on Sept. 12, 2001. In June 2004, more than two years after Bush established Guantanamo, the Supreme Court decided in Hamdi v. Rumsfeld that since Congress had given the president the power to kill, it must also have, at least implicitly, granted the president the power to capture and detain. Congress built on the court’s expansion by endorsing another one two years later. In 2006, Congress said that military commissions had jurisdiction over al-Qaeda, the Taliban, and what had come to be called “associated forces,” a broad category of enemies who had allied themselves with either al-Qaeda or the Taliban. Eleanor Norton’s “slim anchor,” which held the language of the law to those responsible for the Sept. 11 attacks, had finally broken loose. The AUMF had ceased to be a scalpel. Now it was broadsword that could be used against a wide variety of groups, many of which had not even existed in 2001. The fact that the 60 words made no mention of detention authority or associated forces no longer mattered. The sentence stayed the same, only the meaning had changed. By the end of the Bush administration, even some officials who had initially been in favor of a broad reading of the authority enshrined in the AUMF began to grow wary of building so much of U.S. counterterrorism strategy on such a shaky foundation. “It is like a Christmas tree,” John Bellinger III told me recently. “All sorts of things have been hung off of those 60 words.” Bellinger, who worked closely with Condoleezza Rice first on the National Security Council and then at the State Department, favored revising and updating the AUMF instead of simply repealing it, a drastic measure he considered dangerous. In 2010, he wrote a piece in the Washington Post arguing the Bush administration had never sought to update the AUMF because it “did not want to work with the legislative branch.” Obama was supposed to change all that. He was the president of hope and change, the man who would restore America’s reputation and once again restore a healthy respect for the rule of law. The day after his inauguration, the The New York Times’ editorial page crowed that it took Obama “less than 12 hours” to order a halt to the military tribunals at Guantanamo. It turns out, the paper said, that closing Guantanamo wasn’t actually “so hard.” All it took was a president with the courage of his convictions, someone who was willing to do what was right. Inside the new administration, things looked a little different. President Obama had halted the tribunals and ordered Guantanamo Bay closed, but then the new president moved on leaving his aides and appointees to sort out the details. None of them really knew exactly what their boss wanted. And when they asked the White House for direction, their queries went unanswered. “It was really a dysfunctional process,” one former government official involved told me. “There was a lack of leadership and engagement from the White House. It was a wasted year’s work — a lot of open-ended discussions and few decisions.” Obama was also on deadline. An Algerian detainee at Guantanamo was challenging his detention, and John Bates, a district court judge in D.C., had given the new administration until March 13 to respond. Who exactly, the judge asked in essence, was the U.S. at war with? None of Obama’s lawyers felt like they had enough time, but the judge had already given them one extension and they needed an answer. What they came up with was a 93-word definition that attempted to articulate many of the expansions that had taken place in the eight years since the AUMF was passed. During that time, the list of enemies had grown significantly. In addition to those responsible for the Sept. 11 attacks — al-Qaeda and the Taliban in Afghanistan — the U.S. was now effectively at war with the broader, catchall category of “associated forces.” Government lawyers also claimed that the U.S. could detain — which given legal logic meant that the U.S. could also target for killing — anyone who “substantially supported” any of the three categories of enemies, although they failed to clarify exactly what constituted substantial support. The U.S. could also go after anyone who carried out an attack against a “coalition partner,” as well as “any person who committed a belligerent act,” which they also neglected to define. Eight years into the war and the enemies kept multiplying. Judge Bates, a long-necked, willowy man who had been appointed to the bench by George W. Bush in the months after Sept. 11, pushed back on the government’s refusal to define either “associated forces” or “substantial support.” Both concepts drastically broadened the scope of the AUMF and who the U.S. could kill, and the judge wanted to know exactly what the government meant. But, he wrote in his opinion, it had become clear to him that the government had no “definitive justification for the ‘substantial support’ concept in the law of war.” Bates said he was open to the idea of associated forces but this had to mean more than a “terrorist organization who merely share an abstract philosophy or even a common purpose with al-Qaeda — there must be an actual association in the current conflict with al-Qaeda or the Taliban.” Obama’s speech on national security at the U.S. National Archives in Washington, D.C., May 21, 2009. Jim Watson / AFP / Getty Images Bates issued his opinion on May 19, 2009. Two days later Barack Obama walked into the limestone and marble rotunda of the National Archives to address the nation. Standing beneath a pair of 1936 Barry Faulkner murals depicting the Declaration of Independence and the Constitutional Convention, Obama pledged not to repeat the mistakes of the Bush administration. “The last eight years established an ad hoc legal approach for fighting terrorism that was neither effective nor sustainable,” he said. “All too often our government made decisions based on fear rather than foresight.” This, the president promised, would change on his watch. To help him make this a reality, Obama asked Harold Koh, the Yale legal scholar, to join his administration as the legal adviser to the State Department. Koh’s new position brought him into direct conflict with another lawyer on Obama’s national security team. At 51, Jeh Johnson was a balding attorney who had been with Obama from the beginning. During the Democratic primaries, Johnson had severed his ties with the Clinton family, who had given him his first high-profile government position, to join Obama’s campaign. The president never forgot the courage that took or the money Johnson brought in when Obama needed it the most. Even before Obama took the oath of office in January, he had tapped Johnson to be general counsel at the Defense Department. From the time Koh arrived in Washington in late June, the two were at odds, both institutionally and temperamentally. Aggressive and often condescendingly brusque, Koh represented the more liberal State Department, which typically sought to make U.S. action more palatable to its international allies. Johnson had a more chameleon-like quality that led him to adopt the mind-set of those he represented, which in this case was the conservative, security-first Department of Defense. Along with several other officials, throughout the summer and fall of 2009, the two clashed on nearly every aspect of U.S. national security law, with Koh consistently staking out the liberal position and Johnson the more conservative counterargument. No one ever quite came right out and said it, but everyone seemed to realize that they were fighting for the nature of Obama’s presidency. How should a Democratic president combat al-Qaeda? Who could he kill and whom could he capture? Was there a difference between the two, or should he be able to kill anyone he could legally detain? And, most importantly of all: What did it mean for a democracy to be in a multigenerational war with a terrorist group? This was Koh’s attempt to push the pendulum of the Bush years back. Johnson wanted to push it back as well, just not nearly so far. Both agreed that the U.S. could go after al-Qaeda’s “associated forces,” but what about associates of associates? How much of a connection did the target need to have to Sept. 11 to be legal? After all, the AUMF was explicit in authorizing force only against those who were responsible for the attacks. The Sept. 11 attacks had been planned and carried out by, at most, a few dozen men, and now, in years of strikes around the world, the U.S. had killed thousands. How big should the circle of responsibility be? The decisions made in these D.C. conference rooms often made the difference between life and death half a world away, and despite anonymous claims from government officials, both lawyers knew that innocent people were sometimes killed. Not as many as activists might claim, but still too many to maintain a clean conscience. Besides, they were unelected officials making decisions about whom the U.S. should kill. Over the years since Sept. 11, Congress had acquiesced, mostly in silence, to the gradual expansion of the AUMF. Neither chamber had ever explicitly revisited the power they had granted the president in the hours after the attacks, or even questioned how that authorization was being interpreted and used. That hadn’t always been the case. During the height of the Vietnam War, the chairman of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee, J. William Fulbright, held a series of hard-hitting hearings in an effort to repeal the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution and end the war. Like the AUMF, the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution had passed with almost no opposition, unanimously in the House and against only two “no” votes in the Senate. Fulbright, who had initially helped sponsor the resolution, soon came to see it as an excuse for military expansion in a war the U.S. could never win. John Kerry testifying before Congress in 1971 against the Vietnam War. c-spanvideo.org In 1971, he succeeded in repealing the resolution and subsequently called a 27-year-old Vietnam veteran named John Kerry as a witness. Kerry was the first veteran to testify, and his dramatic two-hour testimony helped shape the debate over the war that followed. Thirty-eight years later, Kerry found himself in a similar position, as one of Fulbright’s successors and the chairman of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. But unlike Fulbright, who used his position to harass the administration on its expanding war, Kerry was more administration envoy than adversary. As Andrew Cockburn wrote in a recent piece in Harper’s, as soon as Obama took office, “Kerry stopped rattling cages.” Of course, Fulbright went on to lose his next election, going down in the Democratic primary; Kerry went on to become Obama’s second secretary of state. Part of the reason is that the wars themselves are different. Vietnam captivated the country in a way the war against al-Qaeda hasn’t, at least not since the initial bombing of Afghanistan in 2001. There is no longer a single battlefield, and no one seems to know what victory looks like. Perfect security, we are constantly told, isn’t possible, but how many people does the U.S. need to kill until it is safe enough? Maybe it shouldn’t be so surprising that Congress didn’t think about how the war would end when it passed the AUMF on Sept. 14, 2001, but after more than a dozen years, we are no closer to an answer. “This is a bizarro war,” Jack Goldsmith told me recently. A tenured law professor at Harvard who worked in the Office of Legal Counsel under George W. Bush, Goldsmith has written a pair of books on national security law. “What we don’t see, we don’t care about.” And for most of us there is little to see. With the exception of Afghanistan, this is a war that is being fought out of sight with drones and small teams of special forces operatives. A war that is largely ignored at home has come to define us abroad. The apathy lifted slightly in early 2010 when word leaked that the U.S. was actively targeting an American citizen for killing. The White House reacted to the increased scrutiny by rolling out Koh, the most liberal and publicly vocal critic of Bush-era policies, to make the case that Obama’s drone strikes were different. They were grounded in the AUMF and on solid legal footing. Koh took to the podium at the Ritz-Carlton Hotel in Washington to address the American Society of International Law on March 25, 2010, in a conservative black suit and red tie. After a few jokes about the event being as close as most in the room would ever come to the Oscars and a red carpet, he got down to business. Unlike the Bush administration, he said, which had relied on vague constitutional arguments about presidential power, the Obama administration had based its decisions “on legislative authority granted to the president by Congress in the 2001 AUMF.” Of course, he added, “construing what is ‘necessary and appropriate’ under the AUMF requires some translation.” Gone was Koh the private scholar, who in 2008 had complained about the “vaguely worded” AUMF that had allowed the Bush administration to justify everything from NSA excesses to torture. Now, as a government lawyer, he rested the Obama administration’s legal edifice squarely on the foundation of the AUMF and those same 60 words. Everything the Obama administration did, he reassured the ballroom of legal colleagues and friends, “including lethal operations conducted with the use of unmanned aerial vehicles,” was legal and just. Koh wasn’t the only one whose opinion seemed to change with his job. A decade earlier, on Sept. 13, 2001, Denis McDonough had been a 31-year-old foreign policy advisor to Tom Daschle, working to limit the AUMF. Now McDonough was Obama’s deputy national security adviser and helping to preside over an expanding target list that rested on that very same piece of legislation he had once attempted to restrict. While McDonough had aged, the targets had not. Many of the men the U.S. was killing were in their late teens and early twenties, men who had been boys on Sept. 11. Months after Koh’s speech, in early 2011, Congress stirred briefly to life with some members suggesting that it might be time to start codifying the evolving interpretations of the AUMF. This, they argued, would put the U.S. on more solid legal ground. The AUMF, after all, governed both Guantanamo and drones and yet had made no mention of either. Surely, it would be better to make those authorities explicit. Obama’s top aides pushed back immediately. This was not what the administration had in mind when it talked about repealing the AUMF and ending the war. Later that year at an event at the Heritage Foundation, a conservative think tank in Washington, Jeh Johnson explained why the administration had opposed any new legislation. “I think the reason that we in this administration have concerns about efforts to do that is because at the end of the political process, what I don’t want to end up with is something less than what we thought we already had by way of legal authorities through the authorities on the books and our interpretation of our authorities that are on the books.” In other words, any attempt to update the AUMF, moving it from what was written in the hours after the 9/11 attacks to something that took into account the changes of a decade of war, might limit the president’s options. The Obama administration was happy to rely on a 2001 authorization to deal with a 2011 threat because its own internal interpretations gave it so much flexibility. If Congress started messing with the 60-word foundation, the administration’s whole legal edifice might come tumbling down. What was supposed to be a rather routine Senate hearing early in Obama’s second term provided a glimpse into just how expansively the administration had been interpreting the sentence at the heart of the AUMF. On May 16, 2013, the Defense Department sent a quartet of officials to the Capitol to answer questions about the AUMF and the current state of the war against al-Qaeda. In the course of their joint testimony, Michael Sheehan and Robert Taylor, who were speaking for the four, both claimed that the 2001 AUMF and its 60 words were “adequate” for the administration’s needs. Sheehan, a balding former counterterrorism official with the New York Police Department who looked like he had forgotten to shave that morning, spoke first. The administration, he told the senators, was “comfortable” with the AUMF as it was currently structured because it didn’t “inhibit us from prosecuting the war against al-Qaeda and its affiliates.” Sen. John McCain was incredulous. Shuffling through some papers, the 76-year-old senator pulled out a copy of the AUMF and started reading. Twenty-four seconds later he finished the 60-word sentence, and then he started to lecture. “This authorization was about those who planned and orchestrated the attacks of September 2001,” McCain said, staring down toward the witness table. “Here we are, 12 years later, and you’re telling us that you don’t think it needs to be updated,” he continued. “Well, clearly it does.” Other senators piled on. Angus King, a professorial-looking Independent senator who had hosted a public access television program called Maine Watch for 17 years in the 1970s and 1980s, told the four officials that this was “the most astoundingly disturbing hearing I’ve been to.” “The AUMF is very limited, and you keep using the term ‘associated forces’ — you use it 13 times in your statement — that is not in the AUMF,” King said, before adding, “I assume [the AUMF] does suit you very well because you’re reading it to cover anything and everything.” Toward the end of the panel, as the chairman was preparing to dismiss the Pentagon officials, Sheehan raised his hand. “Just one clarification,” he said. “Certainly the president has military personnel deployed all over the world today, in probably over 70 to 80 countries, and that authority is not always under AUMF.” Sitting behind the witnesses, waiting his turn to testify, Jack Goldsmith, the former Bush administration lawyer, was shocked. Exactly how many of the 70 to 80 countries where military personnel are deployed fall under the AUMF? he asked the next day on Lawfare, a legal blog he co-founded. “The phrase ‘not always’ suggests a high number.” “The hearing made clear that the Obama administration’s long insistence that it is deeply legally restrained under the AUMF is misleading and at a minimum requires much more extensive scrutiny,” Goldsmith wrote. Goldsmith’s post and Sheehan’s public evasions raised a key question: Twelve years after 9/11, who exactly is the U.S. at war with? When I contacted the Pentagon to get an answer, a spokeswoman emailed back: “The list is classified and not for public release.” One week later, on May 23, 2013, President Obama walked into the auditorium at the National Defense University in southeast Washington to deliver a major national security address. Sounding more like McCain than Sheehan, his own assistant secretary, Obama made a series of pledges. “I intend to engage Congress about the existing Authorization to Use Military Force, or AUMF, to determine how we can continue to fight terrorism without keeping America on a perpetual wartime footing,” Obama said. “The AUMF is now nearly 12 years old. The Afghan war is coming to an end. Core al-Qaeda is a shell of its former self.” Standing on a raised platform in front of the crowd, which included members of activist group Code Pink who would soon interrupt him, Obama continued. “I look forward to engaging Congress and the American people in efforts to refine, and ultimately repeal, the AUMF’s mandate. And I will not sign laws designed to expand this mandate further. Our systematic effort to dismantle terrorist organizations must continue,” he said. “But this war, like all wars, must end. That’s what history advises. That’s what our democracy demands.” But like his Guantanamo pledge five years earlier, this was more rhetoric than reality. In the more than seven months since Obama gave that speech, the White House has taken no public steps to roll back the AUMF. From the outside, the string of unfilled promises looked like a president who wants to end the war without giving up his powers to wage war. It’s easy to see why. The 12-year-old sentence gives the president both incredible power — power that has been blessed by Congress and the courts — as well as maximum flexibility. Read inventively enough, the AUMF permits a wide range of military activities, all of which might at some point be necessary. Repealing or refining those 60 words would only tie the president’s hands and limit his options. It would also force him to reengage with Congress, which helped block him on Guantanamo, and to explain to the American people what the U.S. is doing and who it is fighting. Then there is the issue of Afghanistan: the war Obama once called a “war of necessity,” and the war he has made his own. If he fulfills his promise to withdraw troops from Afghanistan by the end of this year, the president will have effectively ended the war against the Taliban. And that will create its own problems. By building its detention authority on the AUMF, the Obama administration has forced itself into a corner. Once the war is the over, the power to detain disappears. What this means is that as soon as Obama declares an end to the war in Afghanistan, there will be a series of legal challenges from individuals still in Guantanamo Bay, claiming affiliation with the Taliban and demanding their release. The old legal authorities will no longer hold. The Obama administration will either have to find a new basis for holding them — 13 years after many of them were captured — or it will have to release people it has said are too dangerous to set free. Perhaps the most interesting question about the AUMF and its 60 words is this: What does that sentence prohibit? What — more than 12 years after Congress passed it — is clearly out of bounds? Several of the lawyers I talked to, officials from both the Bush and Obama administrations, spoke eloquently and at great length about the limits of the AUMF and being constrained by the law. And maybe that is true. But none of them were able to point to a case in which the U.S. knew of a terrorist but couldn’t target him because it lacked the legal authority. Each time the president wanted to kill someone, his lawyers found the authority embedded somewhere in those 60 words. When the U.S. abducted Abu Anas al-Libi from the front seat of his car in October 2013, it transported him to the USS San Antonio, a ship in the middle of the Mediterranean Sea, far beyond the reach of any court. Three days into Libi’s confinement at sea as word of his abduction leaked out in the press, a public defender in New York asked a federal judge to intervene and force the government to give Libi access to legal counsel. The judge refused, explaining that the government hadn’t actually arrested Libi. Instead he was being detained by the United States Armed Forces, which as federal prosecutors claimed, were “acting under their own legal authorities.” Until the government actually decided to arrest Libi, the judge declared, he could do nothing. Libi, a man the U.S. had abducted in Libya in 2013 who had nothing to do with the Sept. 11 attacks, was being held under the authority of the AUMF, the 60 words Congress had passed explicitly targeting only those who had been linked to the attacks. One week after his capture, with his health deteriorating due to a hunger strike, the U.S. moved Libi off the ship and officially arrested him for his alleged role in the 1998 embassy attacks. Only then did the court appoint a lawyer to defend him. “None of us, not one who voted for it, could have envisioned we were voting for the longest war in American history,” Dick Durbin, a Senate Democrat from Illinois, told Politico early in 2013. “Or that we were about to give future presidents the authority to fight terrorism as far-flung as Yemen and Somalia.” One person, of course, did envision exactly this sort of open-ended, ill-defined war. But even now, more than a decade after her lonely vote, Barbara Lee still just wants the debate Congress never had in 2001. “Let the congressional debate begin,” she told me recently. If the U.S. wants to use force in places like Yemen or Somalia and “if people think its worth it, for whatever reason, then let their member of Congress vote for it. That’s the point.” A lot has changed in the 12 years since Stephen Rademaker and his son Andrew took their midnight drive to a smoldering Pentagon. The war that was authorized that night has now moved into its second generation, jumping from father to son. Stephen is out of government and Andrew, now a 27-year-old House staffer, is in. Osama bin Laden is dead and al-Qaeda, at least as it was configured on 9/11, is no more. Analysts disagree over whether the new incarnation of al-Qaeda — smaller and more fragmented — is weaker or stronger than it once was. But one thing is certain. It is different. The only thing that has remained the same is that one sentence: 60 words and a war without end. CORRECTION: An earlier version of this story stated that Eleanor Holmes Norton had voted for the resolution; as a representative of the District of Columbia, she did not have a vote, as pointed out by reader abp07.

Summary: In the haze of 9/11, lawmakers empowered the US president to fight back-and may have given him more power than they bargained for, writes Gregory Johnsen at BuzzFeed. Congress overwhelmingly approved a 60-word law called the Authorization for the Use of Military Force, which empowered President George W. Bush to retaliate against anyone behind the 9/11 attacks. Interpretation of the law has since expanded to include all military action, including capture and detention, against "associated forces" of the 9/11 attackers. The law "is like a Christmas tree," said a former Bush administration official. "All sorts of things have been hung off of those 60 words." Johnsen's article looks at the AUMF's tangled history, from its hurried drafting to its 420-1 House vote and its surprising resilience under President Obama-despite his pledge to repeal it. Lawmakers have questioned the AUMF, as Politico reported last year, and now Obama really does plan to kill it off, a top administration official tells the Wall Street Journal. But a dozen years after 9/11, Obama is still ordering drone attacks and secret raids-often against people who were children when the Twin Towers fell. "Let the congressional debate begin," said Rep. Barbara Lee, the one lawmaker who voted against the AUMF. "If people think it's worth it, for whatever reason, then let their member of Congress vote for it. That's the point." Click for Johnsen's full article.

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Summarize: A Justice Department document describes the criteria for killing American citizens believed to be plotting terror attacks from abroad. The Post’s Karen DeYoung helps explain what the “white paper” does and doesn’t says. (The Fold/The Washington Post) A Justice Department document describes the criteria for killing American citizens believed to be plotting terror attacks from abroad. The Post’s Karen DeYoung helps explain what the “white paper” does and doesn’t says. (The Fold/The Washington Post) President Obama’s plan to install his counterterrorism adviser as director of the CIA has opened the administration to new scrutiny over the targeted-killing policies it has fought to keep hidden from the public, as well as the existence of a previously secret drone base in Saudi Arabia. The administration’s refusal to provide details about one of the most controversial aspects of its drone campaign — strikes on U.S. citizens abroad — has emerged as a potential source of opposition to CIA nominee John O. Brennan, who faces a Senate confirmation hearing scheduled for Thursday. The secrecy surrounding that policy was punctured Monday with the disclosure of a Justice Department “white paper” that spells out the administration’s case for killing Americans accused of being al-Qaeda operatives. The timing of the leak appeared aimed at intensifying pressure on the White House to disclose more-detailed legal memos that the paper summarizes — and at putting Brennan, Obama’s top counterterrorism adviser, on the defensive for his appearance on Capitol Hill. Administration officials on Tuesday sought to play down the significance of the disclosure, saying that they have already described the principles outlined in the document in a series of speeches. View Graphic Drones and spy planes over Africa “One of the things I want to make sure that everybody understands is that our primary concern is to keep the American people safe, but to do so in a way that’s consistent with our laws and consistent with our values,” Attorney General Eric H. Holder Jr. said in response to questions about the document. Nevertheless, the leak and signals from senior lawmakers that they may seek to delay, if not derail, Brennan’s confirmation made it clear that Obama’s decision to nominate him has drawn the White House into a fight it had sought to avoid. Sen. Ron Wyden (D-Ore.), a member of the intelligence committee, said Brennan’s level of influence and the timing of his nomination have given lawmakers leverage that they lacked in previous efforts to seek details from the White House. Brennan “is the architect of [the administration’s] counterterrorism policy,” Wyden said. “If the Congress doesn’t get answers to these questions now, it’s going to be extremely difficult, if not impossible, to get them in the future.” The Obama administration’s targeted-killing program has relied on a growing constellation of drone bases operated by the CIA and the U.S. military’s Joint Special Operations Command. The only strike intentionally targeting a U.S. citizen, a 2011 attack that killed al-Qaeda operative Anwar al-Awlaki, was carried out in part by CIA drones flown from a secret base in Saudi Arabia. The base was established two years ago to intensify the hunt against al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula, as the affiliate in Yemen is known. Brennan, who previously served as the CIA’s station chief in Saudi Arabia, played a key role in negotiations with Riyadh over locating an agency drone base inside the kingdom. The Washington Post had refrained from disclosing the specific location at the request of the administration, which cited concern that exposing the facility would undermine operations against an al-Qaeda affiliate regarded as the network’s most potent threat to the United States, as well as potentially damage counterterrorism collaboration with Saudi Arabia. View Graphic Explore documented drone strikes in Pakistan, Yemen and Somalia The Post learned Tuesday night that another news organization was planning to reveal the location of the base, effectively ending an informal arrangement among several news organizations that had been aware of the location for more than a year. The white paper, which was first reported by NBC News, concludes that the United States can lawfully kill one of its own citizens overseas if it determines that the person is a “senior, operational leader” of al-Qaeda or one of its affiliates and poses an imminent threat. But the 16-page document allows for an elastic interpretation of those concepts and does not require that the target be involved in a specific plot, because al-Qaeda is “continually involved in planning terrorist attacks against the United States.” The paper does not spell out who might qualify as an “informed, high-level official” able to determine whether an American overseas is a legitimate target. It avoids specifics on a range of issues, including the level of evidence required for an American to be considered a “senior, operational” figure in al-Qaeda. The document’s emphasis on those two words, which appear together 16 times, helps to explain the careful phrasing the administration employed in the single case in which it intentionally killed an American citizen in a counterterrorism strike. Within hours after Awlaki’s death in September 2011, White House officials described the U.S.-born cleric as “chief of external operations” for al-Qaeda’s affiliate in Yemen, a designation they had not used publicly before the strike. Officials said that Awlaki, previously portrayed mainly as a propagandist, was directly involved in a series of plots, including the attempted bombing of a Detroit-bound airliner on Christmas Day in 2009. The white paper, which was distributed confidentially to certain lawmakers last summer, does not indicate when the underlying Justice Department memos on targeted killings of Americans were completed. As a result, it is unclear whether the memos were in place before the first apparent attempt to kill Awlaki, a joint U.S.-Yemeni strike shortly before the foiled Detroit plot in 2009. Three other Americans have been killed in U.S. airstrikes in Yemen since 2002, including Awlaki’s 16-year-old son. U.S. officials have said those Americans were casualties of attacks aimed at senior al-Qaeda operatives. Civil liberties groups described the white paper as an example of the kind of unchecked executive power Obama campaigned against during his first presidential run. “The parallels to the Bush administration torture memos are chilling,” said Vincent Warren, executive director of the Center for Constitutional Rights. Warren accused Obama of hypocrisy for ordering George W. Bush administration memos to be released publicly while maintaining secrecy around his own. To deliver on his promises of transparency, Warren said, Obama “must release his own legal memos and not just a Cliffs Notes version.” White House press secretary Jay Carney emphasized that the white paper is unclassified and indicated that the administration does not intend to release the classified legal memo on which it is based. Asked whether Obama would respond to demands from lawmakers that he release the original document, Carney said, “I just have nothing for you on alleged memos regarding potentially classified matters.” The number of attacks on Americans is minuscule compared with the broader toll of the drone campaign, which has killed more than 3,000 militants and civilians in hundreds of strikes in Pakistan, Yemen and Somalia. The administration has frequently described its domestic and international legal rationales for drone strikes in general terms. The white paper expands those justifications with specific determinations to be made in the case of U.S. citizens. The struggle between the administration and Congress is relatively narrow, limited mainly to the White House’s refusal to turn over a collection of classified memos rather than any broad-scale opposition to the use of drone strikes or even the killing of Americans. Most members of Congress agree with administration assertions that the drone campaign has been essential to crippling al-Qaeda and its ability to mount large-scale attacks against the United States. Sen. Dianne Feinstein (D-Calif.), the chairman of the intelligence committee that will consider Brennan’s nomination, released a statement Tuesday indicating that she believes the release of the white paper — which was apparently done without the consent of the administration — should quell calls for more transparency. The administration’s legal position “is now public and the American people can review and judge the legality of these operations,” Feinstein said. She has indicated she will support Brennan’s nomination. Brennan, 57, has presided over a major expansion of the drone campaign, although he is also credited with imposing more rigorous internal reviews on the selection of targets. He spent 25 years at the CIA and was considered a likely candidate for the top job in Obama’s first term. He withdrew amid mounting opposition from civil liberties groups that called attention to his role as a senior CIA executive when the agency began using interrogation techniques, including waterboarding, that were subsequently denounced as akin to torture. Julie Tate contributed to this report. SANA, Yemen — Late last August, a 40-year-old cleric named Salem Ahmed bin Ali Jaber stood up to deliver a speech denouncing Al Qaeda in a village mosque in far eastern Yemen. It was a brave gesture by a father of seven who commanded great respect in the community, and it did not go unnoticed. Two days later, three members of Al Qaeda came to the mosque in the tiny village of Khashamir after 9 p.m., saying they merely wanted to talk. Mr. Jaber agreed to meet them, bringing his cousin Waleed Abdullah, a police officer, for protection. As the five men stood arguing by a cluster of palm trees, a volley of remotely operated American missiles shot down from the night sky and incinerated them all, along with a camel that was tied up nearby. The killing of Mr. Jaber, just the kind of leader most crucial to American efforts to eradicate Al Qaeda, was a reminder of the inherent hazards of the quasi-secret campaign of targeted killings that the United States is waging against suspected militants not just in Yemen but also in Pakistan and Somalia. Individual strikes by the Predator and Reaper drones are almost never discussed publicly by Obama administration officials. But the clandestine war will receive a rare moment of public scrutiny on Thursday, when its chief architect, John O. Brennan, the White House counterterrorism adviser, faces a Senate confirmation hearing as President Obama’s nominee for C.I.A. director.

Summary: And the drone-strike revelations keep coming. A number of US media outlets last night broke their silence about the location of a secret drone base used by the CIA to attack al-Qaeda in Yemen: Saudi Arabia. And CIA director-nominee John Brennan's name is all over the reports, just ahead of confirmation hearings tomorrow. As the New York Times explains, the counterterror adviser was integral in obtaining the greenlight to establish the base. The base's maiden strike took out Anwar al-Awlaki in 2011, and it's been since used to target militants on the CIA's kill list. And while the Pentagon must get an OK from the Yemeni government before launching a drone strike, the CIA needs no such permission. And here, again, appears Brennan's name: He "plays a role in overseeing all the strikes," explains the Times, which catalogs five such strikes that have killed at least 24 in 2013. The reports will likely put Brennan "on the defensive" during his hearings, and will open the door for lawmakers to try to wrest details from the administration about the program, report Greg Miller and Karen DeYoung for the Washington Post. Brennan's nomination "has drawn the White House into a fight it had sought to avoid," they write. As Sen. Ron Wyden puts it: "[Brennan] is the architect of [the administration's] counterterrorism policy. If the Congress doesn't get answers to these questions now, it's going to be extremely difficult, if not impossible, to get them in the future."

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Summarize: Ants run a tight ship. They organize themselves into groups with very specific tasks: foraging for food, defending against predators, building tunnels, etc. An enormous amount of coordination and communication is required to accomplish this. To explore the evolutionary roots of the remarkable system, researchers at The Rockefeller University have created the first genetically altered ants, modifying a gene essential for sensing the pheromones that ants use to communicate. The result, severe deficiencies in the ants' social behaviors and their ability to survive within a colony, both sheds light on a key facet of social evolution and demonstrates the feasibility and utility of genome editing in ants. "It was well known that ant language is produced through pheromones, but now we understand a lot more about how pheromones are perceived," says Daniel Kronauer, head of the Laboratory of Social Evolution and Behavior. "The way ants interact is fundamentally different from how solitary organisms interact, and with these findings we know a bit more about the genetic evolution that enabled ants to create structured societies." Social beginnings The most important class of pheromones in ant communication are hydrocarbons, which can communicate species, colony, and caste identity as well as reproductive status. These pheromone signals are detected by porous sensory hairs on the ants' antennae that contain what are called odorant receptors -- proteins that recognize specific chemicals and pass the signal up to the brain. Work in the Kronauer lab, led by graduate student Sean McKenzie and published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, has shown that a group of odorant receptor genes, known as 9-exon-alpha ORs, are responsible for sensing hydrocarbons in the clonal raider ant species Ooceraea biroi. McKenzie and his colleagues also examined the genomes of related insects to determine where 9-exon ORs emerged in the evolution of this species, and found that there was an enormous duplication in this gene in a relatively short evolutionary timescale: While the ancestors of bees and ants only had one to three copies of this gene, clonal raider ants have about 180 copies. The massive expansion of 9-exon ORs happened concurrently with the evolution of complex social behavior, suggesting that the duplication of odorant receptor genes was vital to the development of ant communication. Communication interrupted To further dissect the role of odorant receptors in ant communication and social behavior, the Kronauer lab disrupted a gene called orco, required for the function of all odorant receptors. Introducing the mutation -- using a genetic manipulation technique known as CRISPR -- was easy. The challenge was keeping the mutant ants alive. "We had to convince the colonies to accept the mutants. If the conditions weren't right, the worker ants would stop caring for larvae and destroy them," says graduate fellow Waring Trible, who led this portion of the study, published separately in Cell. "Once the ants successfully made it to the adult phase, we noticed a shift in their behavior almost immediately." Ants typically travel single-file, sensing the route by detecting pheromones left by the ants in front. Using an automated system that tracks color-coded ants and an algorithm that analyzes movement, the researchers observed that, among other behavioral abnormalities, the mutant ants couldn't fall in line. The finding suggests that the missing odorant receptors are crucial for pheromone detection, and therefore social organization. The lack of odorant receptors also changed the shape of the ants' brains. This was a surprise, says Trible, "because brain anatomy is not affected in orco mutants in other insects, like the fruit fly. Our findings suggest that ants are fundamentally different -- they need functional odorant receptors for the brain to develop correctly. This points to how crucial sensing odors is to ants, an ability that may be less important in other insects. " Now that the lab is able to generate mutant ants, Kronauer has a bucket list of genes to explore, including those related to the division of labor between groups. "We've successfully taken a gene out, and next we'd like to put a gene in. We have a whole new world to explore," says Kronauer. Two independent research teams at New York University and Rockefeller University say they have genetically modified two different species of ants. Here's some of what they found. (Monica Akhtar/The Washington Post) Despite what you might've seen in 1950s monster movies, it's difficult to raise mutant ants. For years biologists have altered the genetics of organisms as varied as mice and rice. Mutant fruit flies are a laboratory staple. But ants' complex life cycle hampered efforts to grow genetically engineered ants — until now. On Thursday, two independent research teams described their work deleting ant genes. Two papers chronicling the first mutant ants appeared in the journal Cell, along with a third study that altered ant behavior using an insect brain hormone. Claude Desplan, a New York University biologist and an author of one of the studies, said that, as far as he could tell, these ants are “the first mutant in any social insect.” Ants have complex social roles, even though members of a colony are genetically very similar. Females may be egg-laying queens or sterile workers, colony cleaners or fierce soldiers. Males, who are little more than sperm-delivery systems with wings, appear only seasonally. To ensure the mutant genes carry on, “you need to go through the queen,” Desplan said. “It is not so easy to make queens.” “There's a lot of interesting biologic questions that you can study with ants that you can’t study with fruit flies or even mice,” said Rockefeller University biologist Daniel Kronauer, an author of the other mutant-ant study. If you throw a thousand fruit flies in a bucket of dirt, maybe they'll fight or copulate, he said. But that's about it. Do the same with ants and they'll set to work digging, caring for broods and foraging. What's more, the insects are prime targets for studies of epigenetics, the external factors that toggle genes on and off. “Ants are amazing because with the same genome you can be a queen, or a worker, or another class of worker, or a soldier,” Desplan said. Desplan's research group chose to study a species of jumping ant found in India, Harpegnathos saltator, because all of these ants are potentially fertile. Before laying eggs, though, the workers have to become pseudo-queens. (The scientific term for a pseudo-queen is a “gamergate” — no relation to the anti-feminist video game hullabaloo circa 2014.) If a jumping-ant colony loses its queen, the workers go through a gantlet of ritualized antenna-flailing duels. The victor transforms into a pseudo-queen. Kronauer and his colleagues, led by Rockefeller University graduate student Waring Trible, studied clonal raider ants, Ooceraea biroi. Unlike most ants, the raider ants reproduce asexually, through parthenogenesis. Popularly called virgin birth, it's a phenomenon seen in some snakes, lizards and sharks. The offspring end up as clones of the females. For both species, the desired result of genetic alteration was the same: creating mother ants that gave birth to future generations of mutants. Both research groups mutated their ants in the same way. Using the CRISPR-Cas9 technique, with bacterial molecules acting like scissors to snip out genes, the scientists knocked out a crucial component of the ant's odor receptors. Pheromones, the odors by which ants communicate, are their social medium. Though there are hundreds of olfactory genes in ants, deleting one particular gene — called orco, for odorant receptor co-receptor — effectively renders almost the entire ant olfactory system useless. Removing every individual odor gene would be “essentially impossible,” Kronauer said. But the power of orco to “take out the whole family” of olfactory genes makes it an obvious candidate for manipulation. (It's why both research groups independently decided to focus on deleting the gene.) The insects lost about 90 percent of their olfaction, Desplan said. The behavior of the mutants changed dramatically. The Indian jumping ants wandered away from the colony and wouldn't forage. If Desplan isolated a mutant jumping ant, the ant still became a fertile gamergate. But these pseudo-queens laid very few eggs and were poor mothers. And if the mutants belonged to a colony that lost its queen, they didn't partake in the antennae duels. Instead, they only twitched their antennae when alone, as if shadowboxing. The clonal raider ants that couldn't sense pheromones acted strangely, too. Normally, these ants detest the smell of Sharpie markers. But the mutants marched right over lines drawn in Sharpie. Like the jumping ants, the Ooceraea biroi mutants became antisocial. “Suddenly these ants aren’t really social any more. They wander off, they don’t join the colony,” Kronauer said. “They just walk around.” Nor did they follow the pheromone trails their brethren left. Stranger things happened, too. One particularly odd loner crept into a colony, stole off with an egg and began to groom it with her antennae. All of a sudden she startled. There was no cause for alarm, but the flood of warning pheromones she released sent the rest of the non-mutant colony into a tizzy, Kronauer said. Rockefeller University biologist Daniel Kronauer and his colleagues created the first mutant ants using CRISPR technology. Here's how they did it and what they found. (Kate Bredbenner, SimpleBiologist) Now that scientists know they can alter ant behaviors through their genes, Kronauer plans to study the way colonies divide their labor. Imagine two people living in an apartment. As the dishes pile up, the roommate with a lower threshold for dirty plates begins to wash dishes more often. In the parlance of a biologist observer, that roommate “emerges as a dishwashing specialist.” The old research methods would be to alter the external cues — the equivalent of removing the dishwashing machine and seeing what happens. Through genetic manipulation, Kronauer plans to directly change an ant's internal thresholds. Desplan is interested in the way ants alter their longevity, in addition to sensory perception. Workers live to about seven months old. But workers that become pseudo-queens live for four years. That's like one human twin living to age 85 and the other to age 550. “Expanding by a factor of 10 is unheard of,” Desplan said. Workers who become pseudo-queens turn back to workers once they're exposed to queen pheromones. These former queens die within months. That means there must be a reversible genetic switch that controls the ant life span. Other scientists have taken note of the mutant ant models, Kronauer said, including experts who study honeybees. “People are very excited,” he said, and they have asked whether his lab could help establish a similar protocol in other species. Research such as this opens the door for new model organisms, in Desplan's view. If the traditional bioscience method is to ask many questions of the same organism — such as mice or fruit flies — then genetic engineering techniques allow biologists to ask very specific questions to an animal that fits their needs. If you want to model communities, look to ants. “Even mice don’t have very sophisticated behavior,” Desplan said. Some entomologists became ant experts because they loved ants. For Desplan, his was a more pragmatic affinity. He has worked with insects as varied as fruit flies, wasps and butterflies. And now mutant ants. “We became ant people because we needed to,” he said, “not because we were born ant people.” And, if these model mutants catch on the way Desplan and Kronauer predict, expect the ranks of ant people to swell. Read more: Ethicists advise caution in applying CRISPR gene editing to humans How humble fungus-farming ants turned into agricultural titans Broad Institute scientist prevails in epic patent fight over CRISPR

Summary: Scientists have successfully altered a major behavior of two species of lab ants by deleting a single gene. As the Washington Post reports, the journal Cell has just published two papers chronicling the journeys of the first so-called mutant ants. One team reports on how one mutation removed a key aspect of an ant's odor receptors, rendering them incapable of socializing; the other team reports on how another mutation produced "aberrant social behavior and defective neural development." It's being hailed as a success largely due to the complexity of the endeavor; ants are some of the most social insects on the planet, with complex life cycles and genomes. Why deprive ants of their ability to socialize? Scientists say the goal was to determine whether ant behavior could be altered genetically. Given a single gene (called orco) out of hundreds of olfactory genes has its hand in pretty much the full olfactory system, that seemed the logical one to target-for both research groups. Deleting orco resulted in a loss of roughly 90% of their "olfaction," and the ants changed in many ways, including laying very few eggs, being poor mothers, avoiding antennae duels, wandering aimlessly, and suffering a change in brain structure, per a Science Daily news release. Researchers next want to investigate division of labor and an unusual feat of longevity involving queen pheromones. Most workers live for seven months, but those that become "pseudo-queens" can hit four years, which is like humans reaching 550 years instead of dying by 85.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Discretionary Spending Reduction and Control Act of 1995''. SEC. 2. DISCRETIONARY SPENDING LIMITS. (a) Limits.--Section 601(a)(2) of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 is amended by striking subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), and (F), by redesignating subparagraph (E) as subparagraph (A) and by striking ``and'' at the end of that subparagraph, and by inserting after subparagraph (A) the following new subparagraphs: ``(B) with respect to fiscal year 1996, for the discretionary category: $502,994,000,000 in new budget authority and $537,946,000,000 in outlays; ``(C) with respect to fiscal year 1997, for the discretionary category: $497,816,000,000 in new budget authority and $531,793,000,000 in outlays; ``(D) with respect to fiscal year 1998, for the discretionary category: $489,046,000,000 in new budget authority and $523,703,000,000 in outlays; ``(E) with respect to fiscal year 1999, for the discretionary category: $491,586,000,000 in new budget authority and $522,063,000,000 in outlays; and ``(F) with respect to fiscal year 2000, for the discretionary category: $492,282,000,000 in new budget authority and $521,690,000,000 in outlays;''. (b) Committee Allocations and Enforcement.--Section 602 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 is amended-- (1) in subsection (c), by striking ``1995'' and inserting ``2000'' and by striking its last sentence; and (2) in subsection (d), by striking ``1992 to 1995'' in the side heading and inserting ``1995 to 2000'' and by striking ``1992 through 1995'' and inserting ``1995 through 2000''. (c) Five-Year Budget Resolutions.--Section 606 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 is amended-- (1) in subsection (a), by striking ``1992, 1993, 1994, or 1995'' and inserting ``1995, 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, or 2000''; and (2) in subsection (d)(1), by striking ``1992, 1993, 1994, and 1995'' and inserting ``1995, 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, and 2000'', and by striking ``(i) and (ii)''. (d) Effective Date.--Section 607 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 is amended by striking ``1991 to 1998'' and inserting ``1995 to 2000''. (e) Sequestration Regarding Crime Trust Fund.--(1) Section 251A(b)(1) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended by striking subparagraphs (B), (C), and (D) and its last sentence and inserting the following: ``(B) For fiscal year 1996, $1,827,000,000. ``(C) For fiscal year 1997, $3,082,000,000. ``(D) For fiscal year 1998, $3,840,000,000. ``(E) For fiscal year 1999, $4,415,000,000. ``(F) For fiscal year 2000, $4,874,000,000. ``The appropriate levels of new budget authority are as follows: for fiscal year 1996, $3,357,000,000; for fiscal year 1997, $3,915,000,000; for fiscal year 1998, $4,306,000,000; for fiscal year 1999, $5,089,000,000; and for fiscal year 2000, $5,089,000,000.''. (2) The last two sentences of section 310002 of the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 (42 U.S.C. 14212) are repealed. SEC. 3. GENERAL STATEMENT AND DEFINITIONS. (a) General Statement.--Section 250(b) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended by striking the first sentence and inserting the following: ``This part provides for the enforcement of deficit reduction through discretionary spending limits and pay-as-you-go requirements for fiscal years 1995 through 2000.''. (b) Definitions.--Section 250(c) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended-- (1) by striking paragraph (4) and inserting the following: ``(4) The term `category' means all discretionary appropriations.''; (2) by striking paragraph (6) and inserting the following: ``(6) The term `budgetary resources' means new budget authority, unobligated balances, direct spending authority, and obligation limitations.''; (3) in paragraph (9), by striking ``1992'' and inserting ``1995''; (4) in paragraph (14), by striking ``1995'' and inserting ``2000''; and (5) by striking paragraph (17) and by redesignating paragraphs (18) through (21) as paragraphs (17) through (20), respectively. SEC. 4. ENFORCING DISCRETIONARY SPENDING LIMITS. Section 251 of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended-- (1) in the side heading of subsection (a), by striking ``1991-1998'' and inserting ``1995-2000''; (2) in the first sentence of subsection (b)(1), by striking ``1992, 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997 or 1998'' and inserting ``1995, 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, or 2000'' and by striking ``through 1998'' and inserting ``through 2000''; (3) in subsection (b)(1), by striking subparagraphs (B) and (C) and by striking ``the following:'' and all that follows through ``The adjustments'' and inserting ``the following: the adjustments''; (4) in subsection (b)(2), by striking ``1991, 1992, 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, or 1998'' and inserting ``1995, 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, or 2000'' and by striking ``through 1998'' and inserting ``through 2000''; (5) by striking subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of subsection (b)(2); (6) in subsection (b)(2)(E), by striking clauses (i), (ii), and (iii) and by striking ``(iv) if, for fiscal years 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, and 1998'' and inserting ``If, for fiscal years 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, and 2000''; and (7) in subsection (b)(2)(F), strike everything after ``the adjustment in outlays'' and insert ``for a category for a fiscal year shall not exceed 0.5 percent of the adjusted discretionary spending limit on outlays for that fiscal year in fiscal year 1996, 1997, 1998, 1999, or 2000.''. SEC. 5. ENFORCING PAY-AS-YOU-GO. Section 252 of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended-- (1) in the side heading of subsection (a), by striking ``1992-1998'' and inserting ``1995-2000''; (2) in subsection (d), by striking ``1998'' each place it appears and inserting ``2000''; and (3) in subsection (e), by striking ``1991 through 1998'' and inserting ``1995 through 2000'' and by striking ``through 1995'' and inserting ``through 2000''. SEC. 6. REPORTS AND ORDERS. Section 254 of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended-- (1) in subsection (d)(2), by striking ``1998'' and inserting ``2000''; and (2) in subsection (g), by striking ``1998'' each place it appears and inserting ``2000''. SEC. 7. TECHNICAL CORRECTION. Section 258 of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985, entitled ``Modification of Presidential Order'', is repealed. SEC. 8. EFFECTIVE DATE. (a) Expiration.--Section 275(b) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended by striking ``1995'' and inserting ``2000''. (b) Expiration.--Section 14002(c)(3) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 (2 U.S.C. 900 note; 2 U.S.C. 665 note) is repealed. SEC. 9. SPECIAL RULE ON INTERRELATIONSHIP BETWEEN CHANGES IN DISCRETIONARY SPENDING LIMITS AND PAY-AS-YOU-GO REQUIREMENTS. (a)(1) Section 252 of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection: ``(f) Special Rule on Interrelationship Between Sections 251 and 252.--(1) Whenever a reconciliation Act decreases the discretionary spending limits for outlays and provides that that decrease shall be used to offset all or part of an increase in direct spending or decrease in receipts (or both) in that Act and reduces the discretionary spending limits for budget authority by an amount equal to or greater than the amount that budget authority would be as calculated using the composite spendout rate, then the reduction in receipts or increase in outlays for direct spending (that is so offset) shall not be reflected in estimates under subsection (d). ``(2) As used in this subsection: ``(A) The term `composite spendout rate' means a computational relationship between outlays and new budget authority as follows: 60 percent for the first year, 22 percent for the second year, 12 percent for the third year, 4 percent for the fourth year, and 1 percent for the fifth year. ``(B) The term `reconciliation Act' refers to a reconciliation bill (as used in section 310 of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974) after it is enacted into law.''. (2) Section 310(a) of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 is amended by striking ``or'' at the end of paragraph (3), by redesignating paragraph (4) as paragraph (5) and by striking ``and (3)'' in such redesignated paragraph (5) and inserting ``(3), and (4)'', and by inserting after paragraph (3) the following new paragraph: ``(4) carry out section 252(f) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985; or''. (b) To the extent that a deficit increase in any fiscal year through 2000 caused by changes in direct spending and receipts resulting from this Act, the Personal Responsibility Act of 1995, or the Contract With America Tax Relief Act of 1995 is offset by reductions in the limit on discretionary outlays as provided by section 2 over the 5 fiscal year period beginning with fiscal year 1996, such changes in direct spending and receipts shall not be reflected in estimates under section 252(d) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985. For purposes of this subsection, reductions in the limit on discretionary outlays for fiscal years 1999 and 2000 shall be measured as reductions from the discretionary spending limit for outlays for fiscal year 1998 as in effect immediately before the enactment of this Act. (c) In the OMB final sequestration report for fiscal year 1996-- (1) all adjustments required by section 251(b)(2) made after the preview report for fiscal year 1996 shall be made to the discretionary spending limits set forth in 601(a)(2) of the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 as amended by section 2; and (2) all statutory changes in the discretionary spending limits made by the Personal Responsibility Act of 1995 or by the Act entitled ``An Act making emergency supplemental appropriations for additional disaster assistance and making rescissions for the fiscal year ending September 30, 1995, and for other purposes'' shall be made to those limits.

Title: Discretionary Spending Reduction and Control Act of 1995 Summary: Discretionary Spending Reduction and Control Act of 1995 - Amends the Congressional Budget Act of 1974 to establish discretionary spending limits for FY 1996 through 2000. Extends congressional committee allocation and enforcement provisions and the applicability of certain points of order through FY 2000. Amends the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 (Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act) to revise and extend the budgetary amounts through FY 2000 for the Violent Crime Reduction Trust Fund. Revises the general statement of budget enforcement to apply to discretionary spending limits and pay-as-you-go requirements rather than expired maximum deficit amounts. Extends enforcement of discretionary spending limits, pay-as-you- go requirements, and reporting requirements through FY 2000. Provides a special rule on the interrelationship between changes in discretionary spending limits and pay-as-you-go requirements for enforcement purposes. Prohibits certain changes in direct spending and receipts resulting from this Act, the Personal Responsibility Act of 1995, or the Contract with America Tax Relief Act of 1995 from being reflected in pay-as-you-go estimates. Revises the final sequestration report by the Office of Management and Budget for FY 1996.

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Summarize: These crawls are part of an effort to archive pages as they are created and archive the pages that they refer to. That way, as the pages that are referenced are changed or taken from the web, a link to the version that was live when the page was written will be preserved.Then the Internet Archive hopes that references to these archived pages will be put in place of a link that would be otherwise be broken, or a companion link to allow people to see what was originally intended by a page's authors.The goal is to fix all broken links on the web. Crawls of supported "No More 404" sites. A civil servant sold his stake in a tech firm for a bicycle - only to watch the company soar into a giant worth a whopping £170 million. Chris Hill-Scott is believed to have taken the bike as payment for his share of Swiftkey - a mobile phone app - after becoming annoyed with the long work hours and financial insecurity brought by being a director of the company. According to The Times, he set up the firm in 2008 with university friends Jon Reynolds, 30 and Ben Medlock, 36, but left after a matter of weeks to embark on a career in photography, and eventually settled in a career building websites for the government. Read more: National Lottery's brilliant response to blagger who tried to claim £250k scratchcard On Wednesday it emerged the Cambridge graduates had agreed a deal with Microsoft to sell the London-based firm for £174 million, one of the most lucrative acquisitions of a British technology company in recent years. PA Reaping the rewards: Jon Reynolds (l) and Dr Ben Medlock (r) invented SwiftKey Mr Reynolds and Dr Medlock are said to have made £25 million each in the sale of the app, which is based on a predictive keyboard powered by artificial intelligence. Their creation has become so successful it is now used on 300 million devices every day. Records held with Companies House state Mr Hill-Scott's appointment as a director of SwiftKey's parent company, TouchType Ltd, on August 13, 2008, before resigning on October 24 2008. PA Worth millions: SwiftKey was reportedly bought by tech giant Microsoft A SwiftKey spokeswoman told The Times he "left on good terms", adding: "When SwiftKey was found there were three founding members, Chris was a friend of Jon's from school and Ben was a friend from his university in Cambridge. "Two months after forming the company Chris decided to leave, Jon and Ben bought his shares." Spare a thought for Chris Hill-Scott. The civil servant, now 29, founded a startup called SwiftKey in 2008 with two friends, Jon Reynolds, 30, and Ben Medlock, 26, that just sold to Microsoft for £174 million. But Hill-Scott won't see a penny because two months after the company was founded he sold all his shares - for a bike. Hill-Scott tweeted on Tuesday that the decision to sell was “the biggest mistake I ever made” before setting his account to private Companies House documents show that Hill-Scott was appointed director of SwiftKey’s parent company TouchType Ltd on August 13, 2008 but resigned two months later on October 24. The Times reported that Hill-Scott was disillusioned with the long hours and low pay associated with a start-up. Jon Reynolds (left) and Ben Medlock, who are set to become multimillionaires after their firm was reportedly bought by tech giant Microsoft. He is reported to have only taken a bicycle as payment for his shares when he left. Those shares are now reported to be worth around £25 million after the business was sold to Microsoft for £170 million. Hill-Scott tweeted on Tuesday that the decision to sell was “the biggest mistake I ever made” before setting his account to private. The Independent has contacted him for comment. A spokesperson from SwiftKey told the Times that Hill-Scott left the company on good terms with his friends. Reynolds and Medlock are about to become millionaires after SwiftKey, a predictive text service, was bought by Microsoft. SwiftKey uses “artificial intelligence” by learning a user’s writing patterns over time, to better predict the words they might use next. The technology has been used by Stephen Hawking to speed up his computer-generated voice and has been installed on more than 300 million tablets across the world. Hill-Scott became a photographer, taking action shots for BMX magazines, before joining the civil service to improve the Government’s use of technology.

Summary: Somewhere out there, there's a bicycle that was traded for what turned out to be a multi-million dollar stake in a tech startup. The crazy tale involves the company SwiftKey and one of its founders, Chris Hill-Scott. Before the Swiftkey app tallied 300 million downloads and became a favorite of Stephen Hawking and others, Hill-Scott was busting his butt on the British program that uses artificial intelligence to learn a person's keyboarding patterns and predict what they'll type next. But two months into the venture in 2008, he got tired of the long hours and financial instability that come with working at a startup and traded his shares to SwiftKey's other co-founders, Jon Reynolds and Ben Medlock, reports Quartz. In exchange, he got a bike. Though SwiftKey says he "left on good terms," the deal was the "the biggest mistake I ever made," Hill-Scott tweeted after Microsoft bought SwiftKey for $250 million. Reynolds, 30, and Medlock, 36, reportedly earned $36 million each in what the Daily Mirror calls "one of the most lucrative acquisitions of a British technology company in recent years." Quartz argues Hill-Scott "may be the tech world's unluckiest guy," but at least he doesn't appear to be hurting. After dabbling in photography for BMX magazines, the 29-year-old Brit now works as a web developer for the British government, per the Independent.

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Summarize: In collaboration with raptor training company Guard From Above, Dutch police taught an eagle to recognize a DJI drone. Once in sight, the bird flies toward its mechanical prey, snatches it with its enormous talons and then takes it to safe place. The eagle is one of the two "physical" methods the force are trialling -- the other being a safety net -- but a trained bird of prey gives officers more control over where the offending drone is brought down to earth. What makes eagles effective drone hunters? Their feet have four powerful toes that are strong enough to grip and carry heavy objects, whether it's a wild animal or a heavy UAV. But even though they have toughened talons, drone rotors could still damage the bird. A spokesperson says the force will look at ways to better protect their flying counterparts while they conduct trials over the next few months. The interactive transcript could not be loaded. Rating is available when the video has been rented. This feature is not available right now. Please try again later. The anti-drone arms race just got serious. As tech firms and law enforcement experiment with radio jammers and net-wielding interceptor drones to take down rogue quadcopters, police in the Netherlands are trialling a simpler solution: eagles. The country's law enforcement has teamed up with a raptor training company named Guard From Above to see if birds of prey can be used to safely intercept quadcopters. In the video demonstration above, an eagle is seen easily plucking what looks like a DJI Phantom out of the air. However, it's not clear how dangerous this is for the bird. Raptors' talons are incredibly sharp and their grip is strong enough to crush bone, but that doesn't meant they're indestructible and carbon fiber props spinning at full speed can easily cut human flesh. In the video, one of the handlers says that the scales on the eagle's legs and feet keeps them safe, but also mentions the possibility of creating some sort of extra protection for them. Still, given the amount of animals who seem to instinctively want to take down drones (the list includes kangaroos, gorillas, geese, and dogs), perhaps the eagles will get some animal backup soon. CES 2016 Video: Faraday Future unveiled the world's first passenger drone Be sure to subscribe to The Verge's YouTube channel for more videos

Summary: Dutch police have come up with a pretty crazy way of taking out drones: eagles. Law enforcement in the Netherlands is teaming up with a raptor training company to train the birds of prey to "intercept" quadcopters, the Verge reports, citing local media and a video report. Wired reports that eagles could be a safer way to take down illegal drones, since the other two options involve shooting them down (if the shooter misses, something else could be hit) or jamming their sensors (a disabled drone would drop to earth, potentially inflicting damage; plus, everything in the area would need to be jammed simultaneously). As the Verge notes, though eagles have extremely strong legs and talons, "carbon fiber props spinning at full speed can easily cut human flesh." It's not yet clear if the birds will need extra protection in order to do the job safely. Trials will continue over the next few months, Engadget reports.

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Write a title and summarize: « La Religion des faibles », de Jean Birnbaum, paraît jeudi 20 septembre aux éditions du Seuil. SEUIL Bonnes feuilles. Le monde d’après la chute du mur de Berlin était moins angoissant que celui d’après la chute des tours. Ceux qui ont fait trembler l’Amérique et l’Occident tout entier, le 11 septembre 2001, utilisaient un langage radicalement étranger, porteur d’une double rupture : d’une part, la guerre contre l’Ouest n’était plus une guerre civile, menée au nom des valeurs de l’Ouest ; d’autre part, l’assaut était donné par des hommes qui prétendaient non seulement lutter contre la domination de l’Occident, mais aussi rivaliser avec lui en bâtissant leur propre hégémonie. Dans ses textes, Ben Laden opposait sans cesse le fier courage des « lions » musulmans, conscients qu’il n’y a de force qu’en Allah, aux « mulets » efféminés de l’Occident, châtrés par cette « religion païenne » qu’est la démocratie. « Ne perdez pas courage ; ne vous affligez pas, alors que vous êtes des hommes supérieurs, si vous êtes croyants », pouvait-on lire dans la « Déclaration du Front islamique mondial pour le djihad contre les Juifs et les Croisés », dès 1998. (…) Les hommes qui ont rédigé ces lignes sont ceux qui ont donné naissance à une internationale militante aujourd’hui sans rivale, ceux aussi qui ont infligé à la plus grande puissance capitaliste du monde une humiliation spectaculaire. Aux yeux des progressistes occidentaux, le tournant était sévère par rapport à la période des luttes anticoloniales ou même à la séquence altermondialiste. On comprend aussi que ce tournant ait valu traumatisme : « autre chose » avait surgi, enfin, et c’était le cauchemar. Au moment même où la galaxie altermondialiste s’essoufflait, on voyait s’imposer une nébuleuse visant non pas un autre monde, plus libre, plus juste, mais une « alter-hégémonie ». Et l’islamisme lui-même ne pouvait plus passer pour une flambée obscurantiste qui nourrirait, en dernière instance, le feu de l’émancipation universelle : cet incendie fanatique menaçait de réduire tous les vieux repères en fumée. « Le monde va changer de base, nous ne sommes rien, soyons tout! », ont chanté des générations de militants reprenant L’Internationale. Cette fois, nous y sommes : en arabe, « la base » se dit al qaïda.

Title: "Que se passe-t-il quand ceux qui frappent l'Occident se moquent de la justice sur terre? Summary: L'incontestable force de séduction du djihadisme oblige l'Occident à s'interroger sur ses valeurs, qu'il pensait jusqu'alors universelles. C'est l'objet de "La Religion des faibles" de Jean Birnbaum, responsable du "Monde des livres". Extrait.

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Summarize: Background Since the opening of the first public charter school in Minnesota in 1992, approximately 2,700 public charter schools have opened across the country. As shown in figure 1, 40 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico have enacted charter school laws, although, as of July 2003, no charter schools had opened in 4 of these states—Iowa, Maryland, New Hampshire, and Tennessee. In the 2002-2003 school year, public charter schools enrolled nearly 700,000 students or approximately 1.5 percent of America’s 48 million public school students in pre- kindergarten through 12th grade. Students enrolled in charter schools are more likely to be members of minority groups than students enrolled in traditional public schools according to a 4-year study of charter schools conducted for Education. Charter schools are public schools established under contracts that grant them greater levels of autonomy from school regulations in exchange for agreeing to certain student performance goals. Charter schools are often exempt from certain state and school district education laws and in some states may receive waivers for exemptions from other laws; however, charter schools must comply with select regulations, including those pertaining to special education, civil rights, and health and safety conditions. While charter schools are free from many educational regulations, they are accountable for their educational and budgetary performance, including the assessment requirements of the No Child Left Behind Act. Charter schools may have their charters revoked by the authorizing body if they fail to perform adequately. Charters to operate a school are awarded by various entities, depending on the state’s laws, but may include local school districts, state education agencies, institutions of higher education, municipal governments, or special chartering boards. The majority of charter school authorizing bodies have formal procedures to regulate the charter application process, including formal application deadlines and public hearings. The ease of the authorizing process for charter schools varies from state to state, depending on the specifications in state law governing charters and local support or resistance to charter schools. For instance, some states limit the number of charters that may be awarded either in total or by year. Also, some state laws specify multiple authorizers, while others restrict approval authority to a single entity, for example, a local school board, and provide for appeal when a charter is denied. In addition to awarding charters, authorizing bodies are responsible for monitoring school performance in areas such as student performance, compliance with regulations, financial record keeping, and special education services. If charter schools do not meet expected performance measures, authorizing bodies may revoke a school’s charter or decide not to renew the school’s charter when it expires. Since 1992, more than 100 charter schools have been closed, either through charter revocation or nonrenewal. According to a recent study published by the Thomas B. Fordham Institute, the majority of these closings have been due to financial mismanagement, while the rest have been closed due to unsatisfactory student achievement or other performance failures. A wide range of individuals or groups, including parents, educators, nonprofit organizations, and universities, may apply for a school charter as nonprofit organizations. Similar to other nonprofit organizations, charter schools are governed by a board of trustees, which is selected by the school founders. Although requirements for charter school board membership vary across states, charter school boards are responsible for school oversight. Specifically, charter school boards oversee legal compliance, contracts with external parties, financial management and policies, and facilities and equipment acquisition and maintenance. Charter school board members are also responsible for identifying real and potential risks facing the charter school, such as financial and school liability risks and emergency preparedness, and taking steps to reduce or eliminate these risks. Charter schools may be established in one of two ways. First, an existing school may be converted to a public charter school. Traditional public schools may convert to charter schools to focus on a specific segment of the student body, such as at-risk students, to apply a new curriculum or educational approach, or to operate in a less regulatory environment. Charter schools may also be established when a new school is created and awarded a charter. The majority of charter schools are newly created schools rather than conversion schools. According to a study done for Education, in the 2000-2001 school year, 76 percent of new charter schools were newly created. Charter schools that are converted from existing schools generally remain in their buildings, while newly created charter schools must acquire facilities. These newly created charter schools may operate in a variety of facilities, including surplus school buildings, shared space with other groups, such as the YMCA or other charter schools, and converted commercial buildings, including office and retail space. In September 2000, we reported that new charter schools often experience difficulty financing the purchase or lease of their facilities. With approximately 15 percent of its public school students attending charter schools, the District of Columbia has one of the highest concentrations of public students in charter schools in the country. Like most charter schools, District charter schools have lower average total enrollments and student to teacher ratios than traditional public schools. Additionally, District charter schools, like their national counterparts, serve a higher percentage of minority and low-income students than traditional public schools. Charter school applicants in the District may apply to either of two authorizing entities, the District of Columbia Public Charter School Board or the District of Columbia Board of Education. As of the 2002-2003 school year, the D.C. Public Charter School Board has authorized charters for 23 schools, 1 of which closed voluntarily. The D.C. Board of Education has authorized charters for 21 schools, 6 of which closed for performance and management reasons. Three new charter schools, 1 authorized by the Board of Education and 2 by the D.C. Public Charter School Board, are expected to open in the 2003-2004 school year. Facilities, Funding, and, to a Lesser Extent, Expertise Pose Challenges for New Charter Schools, but Some Assistance Is Available New charter school founders across the country share common challenges: securing adequate facilities, obtaining start-up funding, and, to a lesser extent, acquiring the expertise necessary to run a charter school, although various forms of assistance are available to help with the start-up process. Securing adequate facilities is one of the greatest challenges facing new charter schools, according to research articles and national charter school experts. The federal government and 27 states provide limited assistance to address this problem. Charter schools also report facing difficulties obtaining funding during the application and early implementation periods, although the federal government and a small number of states provide funding for charter school start-up grants. The wide array of knowledge and skills necessary to open and operate a new charter school, such as business, law, management, and education expertise, also presents a challenge, according to charter school founders. Few federal programs exist that specifically address this challenge; however, some assistance is available from state, local, and nonprofit sources. Securing Adequate Facilities Is a Major Challenge; Limited Assistance Provided in Most States According to research articles and national charter school experts, securing adequate facilities is one of the most challenging aspects of starting a new charter school. Unlike traditional public schools that rely on school districts for support, charter schools are responsible for locating, securing, and renovating their school buildings. Locating an appropriate facility can be difficult for new charter schools. Because new charter schools often open with few classrooms or grades and a limited number of enrolled students, charter schools frequently expand significantly, sometimes by several grades, during their first few years of operation. As a result, new charter schools either look for a smaller building that will meet their current size needs or a larger one that will accommodate future growth. Both options can pose problems for new charter schools, as opening in a smaller building requires an ongoing search for a larger facility and the expense of a future move, while selecting a larger facility, if one can be found, may not be financially feasible in a school’s early years. Additionally, schools have facilities requirements—they need facilities that will enable them to subdivide space into classrooms and also contain common space to serve as gymnasiums, cafeterias, or auditoriums. Transforming commercial space into educational facilities with classrooms and common rooms can be expensive. Some charter schools are able to acquire existing school buildings to use for facilities, which can reduce transformation costs; however, the number of excess school buildings available is generally limited. In addition to encountering difficulties locating appropriate facilities, charter schools have difficulty financing the building purchase or lease and renovations. Traditional public schools generally rely on school districts for facility financing, which is often provided either by raising taxes or issuing municipal bonds. Charter schools, however, are generally not part of a local school district and rarely have the authority to raise taxes or issue tax-exempt bonds independently. Charter schools’ access to other facility financing options, such as private lending, is also limited. Charter schools are often considered credit risks because they may have limited credit histories, lack significant cash flows, and have short-term charters that can be revoked. As a result, private loans are not easily accessible to charter schools for facility financing. Because municipal bonds and private loans may be inaccessible to charter schools, many charter schools finance their facilities through per-pupil allocations provided by the state or district. These per-pupil allotments are provided to all public schools, including charter schools, to cover operating expenses, such as teachers’ salaries and the purchase of books and supplies. Additionally, some charter schools finance their facilities through private donations. Several states provide financial assistance to charter schools that is specifically designated for facilities. Eleven states and the District of Columbia provide direct funding to charter schools for facilities, either through grant programs to help cover building acquisition costs or lease- aid programs to help cover building maintenance and facility lease or mortgage payments. Of these 11 states, 5 — Arizona, California, Florida, Massachusetts, and Minnesota — and the District of Columbia have provided charter schools with a designated annual revenue source to offset facilities expenses. Approximately half of all charter schools operate in these 5 states and D.C., where charter schools receive a supplemental per-pupil allotment that is designated to cover facilities expenses. For example, charter schools in low-income areas in California may receive up to $750 per student to cover lease expenses, while charter schools in Florida may receive up to approximately $1,300 per student to offset facilities costs. Additionally, at least 5 states — Colorado, Georgia, Missouri, North Carolina, and Texas — and the District of Columbia have enacted legislation that would enable the state bonding authorities to issue tax-exempt bonds on behalf of charter schools. In addition to providing charter schools with funding for facilities, states may provide charter schools with other forms of facilities assistance. Eighteen states and the District of Columbia have enacted laws that allow charter schools access to vacant public buildings. The extent to which these laws enable charter schools to gain access to public buildings varies considerably both in terms of how proactive the states are in providing access and in terms of the cost of this access to charter schools. Some state laws, such as those in Alaska, simply make it legal for charter schools to operate in excess public space if it is available, while other state laws provide charter schools with preferential access to available space or mandate procedures for informing charter schools when public space becomes available. For instance, Arizona law requires that an annual list of appropriate public buildings be made available to charter schools. Additionally, the amount charter schools must pay for this space varies. In Virginia, charter schools do not have to pay rent for available school buildings, while in Louisiana, charter schools must pay fair market value to use excess public facilities. Table 2 summarizes the various types of facility assistance provided. Appendix II provides greater detail about facilities assistance provisions in state laws. Some federal support also exists to help public charter schools acquire facilities. Under the Public Charter Schools Program, the federal government provides a limited number of grants to public or private organizations for the development of facilities-related “credit enhancement initiatives.” Organizations use credit enhancement grants to leverage additional capital for charter schools for the acquisition, construction, or renovation of facilities. Charter schools do not receive this grant money directly; instead the grant money is provided to organizations that use the funding for a range of activities to help charter schools improve their credit. These activities include insuring or facilitating the issuance of bonds, subsidizing interest payments, creating a facilities loan pool, or serving as a loan guarantor. Grant recipients generally provide support to charter schools in specific states or regions or to specific types of charter schools. For example, one 2001 grant recipient, the Raza Development Fund, a nonprofit Hispanic advocacy organization, is using its grant to increase 30 Hispanic charter schools’ access to direct loans. The credit enhancement program has received funding twice, in fiscal years 2001 and 2003. Under the Public Charter Schools Program, the federal government is also authorized to provide grants to states to establish or enhance per-pupil facilities aid programs; however, as of July 2003, this program has never received funding. Like traditional public schools, charter schools may access federally administered Qualified Zone Academy Bonds (QZAB), which provide financial assistance for public school renovations. To qualify for these bonds, public schools must be located in an empowerment zone or enterprise community or have at least 35 percent of their students eligible for free or reduced-price school lunch. In addition, federal law permits local school districts, including charter schools, to enter into public- private partnerships that allow private entities to take advantage of tax- exempt bonds—often referred to as private activity bonds—for school construction and renovation. However, as we reported in a 2000 study of charter school facilities financing, the credit worthiness of most new charter schools and concerns about their ability to repay remain a concern for bond raters and buyers. Obtaining Sufficient Start- Up Funding Is also a Major Challenge; Assistance Provided Primarily by Federal Programs According to national studies of new charter schools, obtaining sufficient start-up funding is one of the two greatest challenges facing charter schools during the planning and early implementations stages. Charter schools incur many start-up expenses during the planning and early implementation stages, such as hiring lawyers and business consultants to review charter plans and applications, buying curriculum programs and instructional materials, purchasing school furniture and supplies, hiring key staff, purchasing insurance, and placing down payments on facilities. Unlike traditional public schools, most charter schools do not receive financial support from local school districts during the early planning stages, and many are not eligible for local funds until the school opens. While the timetable for disbursing funds varies by location, charter schools can incur a variety of expenses—for example, attorney and consultant fees—before they are eligible to receive most sources of public funding. To help meet these early expenses, many charter schools rely on funds raised through private sources, such as individual fundraising or awards from private foundations. Charter schools become eligible for financial assistance under the Public Charter Schools Program after the application has been submitted and certain other requirements met. Through this program, charter schools can receive funding to help defray planning, design, and implementation expenses. Grants are awarded under this program by Education to state departments of education to be distributed directly to charter schools for a period of not more than 3 years, of which no more than 18 months may be used for planning and program design and no more than 24 months may be used for implementation. Education recommends that states provide charter schools with $450,000 over the 3-year period to be distributed in $150,000 annual allotments. Charter schools that are still in the early planning stages and have not yet submitted an application may apply for a waiver to the program’s eligibility requirements to receive a “pre-planning” subgrant. Education recommends that states awarding pre-planning subgrants provide sums of $10,000 to $20,000 and requires that pre- planning grants count towards a charter school’s 3-year subgrant time limit. According to an evaluation of the Public Charter Schools Program conducted for Education in 2001, almost two-thirds of charter schools are recipients of Public Charter School subgrants. The data also indicated that of those schools not receiving subgrants through the Public Charter Schools Program, about half did not apply. According to Education officials, charter schools that are turned down for subgrants through this program may have applied for the funding after they had completed their early planning and implementation stages, which would make them ineligible. An analysis of data collected by the Education Commission of the States showed that in 2003 approximately one-fourth of states with charter school laws had established programs to assist new charter schools with start-up costs through grants or loans. Nine states, Alaska, California, Georgia, Illinois, Louisiana, Minnesota, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Pennsylvania, and the District of Columbia made start-up loans or grants available to new charter schools. The size and timing of these grants and loans varied from state to state. In Georgia, for example, new charter school founders were eligible for $5,000 grants during the school planning phase, while new charter school founders in Pennsylvania were eligible for $25,000 grants to cover expenses during the charter application process. Additionally, Louisiana had established a $3 million loan fund to provide charter schools with money during the start-up period, and charter schools in California are eligible to receive loans for as much as $250,000, which could be repaid over a 5-year period. Although these grant and loan programs had been authorized, funding for these programs is uncertain. For example, Minnesota will not fund its charter school start-up grant program for fiscal year 2004 for budgetary reasons. Additionally, according to the Education Commission of the States data, Nevada, which has authorized a loan program, has never funded it. Lack of Specific Expertise also Poses Difficulties; Some Assistance Is Available from Local or Nonprofit Sources The wide array of knowledge and skills necessary to open and operate a charter school often presents a challenge for charter school founders. For instance, according to charter school advocates with whom we spoke many charter school founders may have extensive educational experience but limited knowledge of legal and business issues. In order for a charter school to be successful, charter school founders must coordinate a wide range of activities: planning the school’s educational system and curriculum, hiring leadership and teaching staff, assembling a board of directors, ensuring the school’s compliance with all laws and regulations, locating and acquiring school facilities, creating the school’s budget and accounting systems, and managing the day-to-day operations of the school. As figure 2 shows, to successfully achieve these tasks, charter school founders must have expertise in a variety of areas, including educational systems, legal issues, and general business practices; however, few individuals are well versed in all of these subjects. National surveys of charter school founders cite their limited knowledge of certain areas as a challenge to opening new charter schools. The federal government provides limited assistance to charter school founders to help them acquire expertise. Education sponsors a Web site, www.uscharterschools.org, that provides an overview of state charter laws, lists state charter school advocacy groups, and promotes exchanges between charter school founders. In addition, 5 percent of the Public Charter Schools Program grant money may be used by the states to cover administrative expenses, which can include funding for technical assistance programs. For example, the Florida Department of Education uses a small percentage of its approximately $26 million Public Charter Schools grant to fund a resource center that provides new charter schools with technical assistance throughout the chartering process. The Florida program provides charter schools with assistance in management, governance, and budgeting and fosters mentoring relationships between new and established charter schools. Under the Public Charter Schools Program, some states provide subgrants to high-performing charter schools that have been open for at least 3 consecutive years to share best practices with new charter school founders. Technical assistance programs that help charter school founders learn more about how to open and operate a school are generally administered by state or local governments. According to the Education Commission of the States, 28 states and Puerto Rico provide some technical assistance to charter schools through their state departments of education or local school boards. The extent and type of this assistance varies. Some states conduct periodic workshops, others provide targeted assistance to individual charter schools upon request, and some states provide both types of assistance. For example, the Pennsylvania Department of Education conducts monthly regional workshops and provides assistance to individual charter schools upon request. Additionally, states or local school boards may provide charter school founders with assistance during the charter application period or after the charter school has opened. Types of assistance that are designed to help charter school founders operate their schools include staff development and management, use of student data, technology training, and curriculum development. Charter school founders also rely on nonprofit organizations to help them gain expertise. Charter school resource centers, which are primarily nonprofit organizations, assist charter schools in specific states or regions in the opening and operation of the school. According to data from a national charter school advocacy organization, these resource centers operate in approximately half of the states with charter school laws. The resource centers address founders’ lack of expertise by providing new charter schools with a wide range of services, such as budgeting assistance, board development, and classroom management. The type of services provided by these resource centers varies significantly. For example, a charter school resource center in Wisconsin helps charter schools with board development, networking, business management, and legal compliance. The Massachusetts Charter School Resource Center provides a fellowship to a small number of charter school founders. Charter school founders selected to participate in this competitive program are paid $50,000 for 1 year, as they learn how to effectively found and operate a charter school through a training and internship program. According to resource center representatives with whom we spoke, charter school resource centers also may help potential founders make decisions about moving forward with the application and chartering process. By helping potential charter school founders better understand what is involved with founding a new charter school, resource centers can also offer potential founders advice as they decide whether or not they should attempt to open a charter school. The funding and operation of charter school resource centers also varies significantly. Charter school resource centers may be funded by private donations, supported by fee- for-service arrangements, sponsored by university programs, or financed by state or local governments. In addition to more formal resources, charter school founders rely on other charter school founders and their own boards of directors to help them gain needed expertise. Charter school founders often rely upon other charter school founders who had opened schools in the same state or region for expertise and advise. One charter school founder we interviewed said that the insights and expertise provided by people who had also gone through the local chartering process enabled him to more fully understand what was required to charter and open a school. Additionally, charter school founders seek expertise and assistance from their boards of directors. As nonprofit organizations, all charter schools must have a board of directors responsible for school governance issues. Charter school boards often include members with varying areas of expertise, such as lawyers, accountants, management consultants, and community organizers. Founders, therefore, have an additional resource available to assist them with issues that may be outside of their own area of expertise. District of Columbia Charter Schools Face Similar Challenges, but More Facilities Assistance Is Available Charter school founders in the District of Columbia, like charter schools nationwide, face challenges with facilities, start-up funding, and expertise, and except for receiving greater assistance with funding facilities, have generally similar resources. Although D.C. charter schools receive greater facilities assistance, charter school founders report that real estate costs and the current unavailability of public buildings make securing appropriate buildings difficult. New charter schools in the District also report incurring substantial costs early in the design and planning stages and cite obtaining start-up funding as a significant challenge to starting a new charter school. However, in addition to design and planning funds available through the Public Charter Schools Program, new charter schools in the District can receive partial access to local funds prior to the opening of the school. Finally, new charter school founders in the District reported that developing the expertise needed to successfully open and operate a charter school presents a problem that has been exacerbated by the recent closing of the nonprofit organization, the D.C. Charter School Resource Center. District Charter Schools Have Additional Resources to Address Facilities Problem, but Real Estate Costs in the District Continue to Limit Options According to D.C. charter school founders and other knowledgeable sources with whom we spoke, securing appropriate facilities is the greatest challenge to opening a charter school in the District. Charter school officials and charter school authorizing officials told us that in recent years the expense of real estate in the District of Columbia has limited the options available to new charter schools. National reports on commercial real estate markets show that commercial property in the District is among the most expensive in the nation and that there is continued strong demand for commercial property. Additionally, D.C. charter school founders reported that available buildings tend to be older, in need of extensive and costly renovations, or not fit to be used as schools. For example, one charter school organization that purchased an unoccupied District of Columbia Public Schools (DCPS) building estimated that the cost of renovating the building would be over $5 million. To help alleviate some of this strain, the D.C. charter school law provides charter schools with a limited preference in acquiring surplus DCPS buildings. Specifically, the law provides charter schools with a preference to purchase or lease DCPS surplus buildings at below market rates, provided that doing so will not result in a significant loss of revenue that might be obtained from other dispositions or use of the property. In March 2000, DCPS conducted an inventory of all its schools and designated 38 surplus school buildings. As of June 2003, charter schools are using 14 of these buildings: 11 set aside for their exclusive use by order of the mayor in October 2000 and 3 others. According to District officials, of these 14 buildings, charter school groups have purchased, or are in the process of purchasing, about half at a 25 percent discount from fair market value. The other half are being leased to charter schools at discounted rates—about 50 percent of fair market value. As of June 2003, DCPS had designated no additional surplus buildings. However, as a part of its Facilities Master Plan, a comprehensive plan for renovating or modernizing its schools, DCPS is currently finalizing a facilities assessment. This assessment, which DCPS expects to complete by September 2003, could potentially identify additional surplus school buildings. If such buildings were identified, a list of them would be sent to the mayor’s office, which would determine how to dispose of them. In addition to these preferences, DCPS designated one of its public school buildings as a “hub school,” where charter schools can lease space for up to 3 years. Since 1998, the hub school has housed a total of 6 charter schools, 3 charter schools at a time, with each charter school occupying its own floor. All the schools in the building share common space, such as the auditorium, gymnasium, and outdoor field space. The two authorizing boards notify charter schools when space in the hub school becomes available, and charter schools can submit an application to the Mayor’s Office of Property Management for consideration. In addition to the hub school, DCPS occasionally provides charter schools with other temporary space. It provides such space when a DCPS school is not using part of the building it occupies or when DCPS has a vacant building that it has not designated as surplus. In such cases, DCPS allows charter schools to lease the space on a year-to-year basis. According to an official in the DCPS realty office, 2 charter schools rented excess space in an occupied DCPS school building under this type of agreement in school year 2002-2003. Currently, DCPS has no formal process for making temporary space available to charter schools. In providing charter schools with temporary space, the District and DCPS meet some needs particular to charter schools. Specifically, the hub school and the DCPS temporary space allow charter schools, which are often initially smaller than traditional schools, to benefit from the economies of scale realized by sharing space, such as cafeterias and gymnasiums, with another school. Temporary space also allows charter schools to focus on the educational component of their school first rather than focusing on finding a permanent facility. Recent legislation increased the potential for additional shared space arrangements. This legislation requires DCPS to present a plan to the City Council for the co-location of charter and other public schools where underutilized DCPS space exists. As of July 2003, the co-location plan had not been completed, but DCPS was finalizing a use and capacity study of all its school buildings, which should identify any underutilized space that currently exists. In addition to the District, two nonprofit organizations have provided D.C. charter schools with assistance in sharing facilities. The Appletree Charter School Incubator—a charter school start-up facility operated by a nonprofit organization—provided temporary space to 2 District charter schools between 1998 and 2002. The Appletree Institute rented space in a federally leased building at a discount for 4 years and then provided space to District charter schools at a discounted rate. The Incubator closed when the lease expired in 2002 and as of June 2003, both schools were leasing space in other buildings. In 2003, another nonprofit group, the Charter Schools Development Corporation (CSDC), purchased a surplus DCPS building, which it is renovating and will use to permanently house 2 charter schools, according to a CSDC official. Besides providing some access to facilities, the District of Columbia also provides financial assistance to help charter schools acquire facilities through a variety of mechanisms. One of these is a per-pupil facilities allotment. In addition to a per-pupil allotment that covers operating expenses, District charter schools receive a per-pupil allotment for facilities expenses. In the 2002-2003 school year, charter schools in the District received a facilities allotment of approximately $1,600 per pupil for traditional students and about $3,600 per pupil for students at public charter boarding schools. Another way the District provides financial support for facilities to charter schools is through its Credit Enhancement Revolving Fund. Under the authority of the D.C. Department of Banking and Financial Institutions, this program provides loan guarantees and collateral to help finance the purchase or new construction of charter school facilities. The Credit Enhancement Revolving Fund was first appropriated $5 million in fiscal year 2000. It was not until 2003 that it received its second appropriation totaling $8 million. To date, the Credit Enhancement Revolving Fund has been able to enhance 6 charter school loans. In addition to the Credit Enhancement Revolving Fund, in fiscal year 2003, the District allocated $5 million to a new direct-loan program. Under this program, the District can provide low-interest loans directly to charter schools, rather than through private lenders. Charter schools can use the proceeds from these loans as collateral for a larger loan on a purchase, new construction, or renovation of a building. This program will potentially benefit new charter schools the most because private lenders often do not lend to charter schools that have not begun operating. District officials told us that as of August 2003, the District has obligated funds from the direct loan program to 7 charter schools for varying amounts, but the loan process has not yet been completed. The District also provides financial assistance to help charter schools acquire facilities by allowing charter schools to raise revenues through tax-exempt bonds. The District will issue bonds on behalf of charter schools if the charter school meets certain eligibility requirements, including that the charter school holds nonprofit status, has sufficient collateral, and has been operating as a school for at least 2 years. According to the D.C. official overseeing the bond program, new charter schools have not been able to benefit from this source of funding because they have not been operating long enough to qualify. As of August 2003, the District has issued 7 bonds on behalf of 6 charter schools, which has allowed District charter schools to borrow over $39.4 million in bond revenues to use for their facilities. One additional charter school has a bond issue pending. In addition to tax-exempt bonds, two other federal bond programs are available to both traditional schools and charter schools in the district— QZAB and private activity bonds. According to District officials, as of June 2003, no charter schools had applied for either of these programs. Figure 3 shows a summary of the kinds of facility assistance received by D.C. charter schools operating during the 2002-2003 school year. Some of this assistance was received at start-up, such as temporary housing in the hub school, some was received after start-up, for example, tax-exempt bonds for facilities, and some is received on an on-going basis, for example, the per-pupil facilities allotment received by all schools. For a list of charter schools operating in the District in the 2003-2003 school year and their facility status, see appendix III. The District, Like a Few States, Provides Early Access to Funds to Lessen Start-Up Funding Issues Like new charter schools in other parts of the country, new charter schools in the District also incur high start-up costs early in the design and planning stages. A variety of District charter school founders and others knowledgeable about charter school issues said that there were limited options for obtaining start-up funding to plan a new school, but that once the charter application was approved, more funding options became available. The D.C. Public Charter School Board and the D.C. Board of Education have similar application processes, which usually start over a year before the school’s intended opening. Figure 4 shows a typical timeline, including when a charter school might expect to become eligible for public funds. Charter schools in the District must apply for their charter by June for the school year that starts in September of the following year. Between July and August, both chartering boards hold public hearings to ask questions of the charter schools and to allow the community to provide input on the charter school. In August, preliminary decisions are made on the charter. At that point, charter applications receive a preliminary approval, a full approval, or a denial. According to officials from both authorizing boards, many of their applications receive a preliminary approval before a full approval. Until fiscal year 2003, charter schools were not eligible for public funds prior to receiving preliminary approval. As a result, charter schools relied on private sources of funding to cover their expenses. For example, one recently approved charter school founder reported spending close to $200,000 in private foundation funds during the early planning stages of the charter school to pay for fees and feasibility studies on a facility she planned to use for her charter school. Another charter school founder said that he had to take out a personal loan to put a deposit on a facility. Charter school founders said that early funds would be helpful in paying for such things as compensation for the time professionals spent on writing the charter application and initial inspections of facilities. Beginning in fiscal year 2003, D.C. began awarding pre-planning subgrants for up to $10,000 from its federal Public Charter Schools Program grant, making some funds available earlier in the process. Potential charter school applicants can obtain these grants prior to the submission of the charter application. The D.C. program specifies that these funds may be used for up to 12 months of pre-planning activities, such as the professional development of the charter school planning team and informing the community about the school. In fiscal year 2003, nine D.C. charter school groups received these grants. D.C. charter school applicants that have received preliminary approval are eligible to apply for Public Charter Schools Program subgrants for up to $110,000 to be used the first year following preliminary approval. In the second and third years, charter schools can receive subgrants in amounts from $95,000 to $200,000 to be used for implementation purposes. In fiscal year 2003, DCPS awarded 4 first-year subgrants for $110,000 each and 5 second/third year subgrants for $200,000 each. Applicants can apply for one or all of these subgrants— pre-planning, first, second, and third year— but the total period of time in which these funds are received cannot exceed 36 months. The District also provides charter schools with access to some local funds—a short-term loan against their annual funds and early payment of their first-quarter funds—after the charter is fully approved and prior to the schools opening. To receive either type of funding, schools must have obtained full approval of their charter, secured a facility, and hold nonprofit status. According to District officials, no charter schools have applied for the short–term loan in the past 3 years because the District changed its policy and now disburses its first-quarter payment in July, approximately 6-8 weeks prior to the start of the school year. The timeline for receiving the first-quarter payment is now consistent with when many charter schools can meet the eligibility requirements for receiving this loan. The District Charter School Resource Center’s Closing Has Diminished Access to Start-Up Knowledge, although Some Local Resources Are Available New charter school founders in the District are similar to charter school founders across the country in that they must have expertise in a wide range of areas to successfully open and operate a charter school. In our discussions, some D.C. charter school experts said that one of the challenges that many charter school founders encounter is acquiring the business and legal knowledge necessary to run a school. D.C. charter school experts said that many charter school founders have a vision for the education they want to provide their students but do not always know how to manage the many tasks involved with administering a school. To address this issue, the District chartering authorities provide some assistance with the application and other technical assistance to school founders during the chartering process. However, this support is often limited to assisting charter school groups with the application process and does not always include support once the application has been approved. For this reason, many charter schools turn to private and nonprofit resources to assist them with these issues. The nonprofit D.C. Charter School Resource Center offered assistance to charter school groups until it closed in the spring of 2003. According to individuals familiar with the D.C. resource center, since 1998 it offered classes on how to fill out the charter application and put charter school groups in contact with organizations that would potentially provide some monetary assistance. Local charter school advocates told us that the nonprofit D.C. Charter School Resource Center’s recent closing has limited the amount of assistance available to help new charter schools founders acquire necessary expertise. Concluding Observations The clear consensus among those with whom we spoke and in the literature we reviewed was that start-up funds and obtaining an adequate facility remain significant obstacles for charter schools, especially in those locations like the District of Columbia, where the cost of and demand for property is high. Relative to charter schools in many other locations, District charter schools benefit from a greater variety of facilities-related support, such as a per-pupil facility allowance and preference to surplus school buildings. In addition, recent steps taken to identify surplus property and underutilized school buildings have potential for making additional space available to charter schools. However, although the law provides for giving charter schools a limited preference in acquiring surplus DCPS property, it also contains the stipulation that the preference is only to be given provided that doing so will not result in a significant loss of revenue that might otherwise be obtained. Agency Comments and Our Evaluation We provided a draft of this report to the Department of Education for its review and comment. Education’s Executive Secretariat confirmed that Education officials had reviewed the draft and found the information in the draft to be helpful. Education officials had no comments except for a few technical clarifications, which we incorporated as appropriate in this report. We also provided a draft of this report to officials at both of the D.C. charter school authorizing bodies - the D.C. Board of Education and the D.C. Public Charter School Board. In addition, we provided portions of the draft report pertaining to the District of Columbia to officials from D.C. Public Schools, the Executive Office of the Mayor, the Department of Banking and Financial Institutions, and the Office of the Chief Financial Officer. Officials from these offices provided technical comments, which we incorporated as appropriate in this report. We are sending copies of this report to the Secretary of the Department of Education, relevant congressional committees, relevant District of Columbia officials, and other interested parties. We will also make copies available to others upon request. In addition, the report will be available at no charge on GAO’s Web site at http://www.gao.gov. Please contact me at (202) 512-7215 if you or your staffs have any questions about this report. Other major contributors to this report are listed in appendix V. Appendix I: Scope and Methodology To obtain information about the challenges faced by charter school start- ups across the country and the resources available, we analyzed federal and state charter school laws. We conducted interviews with U.S. Department of Education officials, charter school policy experts, and charter school advocates in various states. Specifically, we interviewed representatives from the Charter School Friends National Network, the Progressive Policy Institute, and other advocacy and research groups. We also interviewed representatives from charter school resource centers in some states—Florida, Massachusetts, Minnesota, Pennsylvania, Tennessee, and Wisconsin—that were identified as having proactive resource centers by those knowledgeable about charter schools. We also conducted a review of all state laws on charter school facilities. We reviewed the Department of Education’s 4-year studies on the state of charter schools and Education’s Public Charter Schools Program evaluation. Additionally, we analyzed Education Commission of the States data published in the Collection of Charter School ECS StateNotes. To obtain information about charter schools in the District of Columbia, we analyzed District of Columbia and federal laws affecting charter schools in the District. We interviewed officials from the District of Columbia Board of Education Public Charter Schools Oversight Office, the District of Columbia Public Charter School Board, the District of Columbia Public Schools, and several other D.C. government offices, including the Executive Office of the Mayor, the Department of Banking and Financial Institutions, and the Office of the Chief Financial Officer. We conducted a discussion group consisting of District representatives from charter school advocacy groups, researchers, charter school founders, and other individuals knowledgeable of charter school issues in the District of Columbia. We also interviewed founders of D.C. charter schools, as well as other representatives from the D.C. charter school community, including the AppleTree Institute, Friends of Choice in Urban Schools (FOCUS), and the Charter Schools Development Corporation. We also visited César Chávez Public Charter High School for Public Policy, 1 of the 39 charter school campuses in the District. Appendix II: Charter School Facility Assistance Provisions, as of July 2003 State requirements pertaining to facility assistance for charter schools. Law permits operation of schools in existing school district facilities upon approval of district’s administrative staff. State has a “stimulus fund” which provides financial support for start-up costs and costs associated with facilities’ renovations or remodeling. The Arizona Department of Education must publish an annual list of existing vacant and unused buildings, and unused portions of buildings available to charter schools. (No lease/purchase preference is given to charter schools.) No facilities assistance provisions. State has established a “Charter School Facilities Account” funded by bond proceeds (K-12). Additionally, the state has set up a charter school facility grant program for charter schools located in low-income areas which awards up to $750 per student to provide assistance for up to 75 percent of the charter school’s annual facilities rent and lease costs. Each school district must make any vacant school facilities available to charter schools at minimum charge. Charter schools must be able to use district facilities “deemed available” by the school district at no cost, except for operations and maintenance expenses. The state must distribute a portion of its education funds to charter schools to help cover capital construction costs. A charter school may ask its local school board to issue bonds to fund capital construction expenses. State has established a grant program that provides charter schools with up to $500,000 for assistance with capital expenses; to be eligible, the charter school must have been operating during the prior fiscal year. School districts must make unused buildings or space available for charter schools, and must “bargain in good faith” over the cost of rent, services, and maintenance. The Delaware Department of Education must publish an annual list of facilities available for charter school use. District of Columbia District of Columbia offers charter schools a limited preference to lease or purchase surplus public school buildings provided that doing so will not result in a significant loss of revenue that might be obtained from other dispositions or uses of the facility or property. An “enhanced credit fund” has also been established to help charter schools finance the purchase, construction, and/or renovation of facilities. District charter schools also receive an annual per-pupil facilities allowance. State agencies may issue revenue bonds to provide for charter school facilities assistance. Charter schools are also eligible for facilities assistance from a state capital outlay fund. Charter schools are offered a preference to use surplus school buildings. Georgia State Board of Education may require a local referendum to decide whether a local board of education must provide funds from school tax levies or incur bonded indebtedness or both, to support a charter school. State oversees annual maintenance and repairs for charter school facilities and establishes a priority-of-need list for charter school facilities requiring assistance. A charter school’s board of directors may borrow money to finance the purchase of facilities for charter schools. A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, a state college or university, or any other public, nonprofit, or for-profit entity for a school charter site. If a charter school uses an existing school building, the school is only required to pay the building operation and maintenance costs—no rent is required. No facilities assistance provisions. No facilities assistance provisions. No facilities assistance provisions. Local school boards must make any vacant facility available to charter schools at fair market value. Facilities that were constructed at no cost to the school board must be provided to the charter school at no cost. State requirements pertaining to facility assistance for charter schools. No facilities assistance provisions. Massachusetts funds charter schools on a per-pupil basis. As part of this payment, the state includes the charter school’s cost of leasing a facility, as well as facility maintenance and operation expenses, in the payment. No facilities assistance provisions. The state provides building lease aid grants to charter schools. A charter school may lease space from an eligible charter school sponsor or from another public or private nonprofit nonsectarian organization. No facilities assistance provisions. A state school district may incur bonded indebtedness or “take other measures” to provide for physical facilities and other capital items to charter schools that it sponsors or contracts with. No facilities assistance provisions. Charter schools and their “host” school district are encouraged to enter into “mutually advantageous” contracting relationships resulting in the sharing of facilities. A charter school is not eligible for facility assistance unless the school is leasing a building owned by the school district, and the lease does not include an option to purchase the building. No facilities assistance provisions. Charter schools are not required to pay rent for available school district facility space. New Mexico has established a “Charter School Stimulus Fund” for the initial costs of renovating and remodeling existing buildings. State must publish an annual list of available state buildings for use by charter schools. State established a charter school “stimulus fund” for acquisition, renovation, and construction of charter school facilities. If a charter school that has applied for approval to the State Board of Education is unable to find a building, the Board can approve the charter school to operate in an “adjacent local school administrative unit” for one year. At the request of a charter school, a school district must lease “any” available building or land to the charter school, unless the lease is not economically practical or feasible, or the district does not have adequate classroom space to meet its enrollment needs. A school district may lease a building to a charter school free of charge, except for maintenance and insurance expenses. North Carolina Capital Facilities Finance Agency (or its successor) may issue bonds on behalf of charter schools. Charter schools may use a school district facility under any contract terms that the district agrees to. Charter schools may use loans obtained under the state facilities loan guarantee program for the construction of new school buildings. If a board of education decides to dispose of property suitable for classroom space, it must first offer the property for sale to start up community schools. State has established an “incentive fund” for charter school renovation and remodeling of existing building. To the extent such information is readily available, education service districts must make lists of vacant buildings available to the public; however, there is no preference or obligation to lease to a charter school. No facilities assistance provisions. No facilities assistance provisions. Public charter schools sponsored by school districts are eligible for reimbursement of “school housing costs.” Public charter schools not sponsored by school districts are eligible for 30 percent reimbursement of “school housing costs.” State requirements pertaining to facility assistance for charter schools. State must publish an annual list of vacant state buildings. Charter schools have a “right of first refusal” for vacant school buildings. No facilities assistance provisions. Nonprofit revenue bonds may be issued for facilities assistance. No facilities assistance provisions. Charter schools do not have to pay rent for available school buildings. No facilities assistance provisions. Charter schools are not required to pay rent for school property “deemed available” in school district. Appendix III: Charter Schools Operating during 2002-03 School Year in D.C. and Facility Status Charter schools campus Village Learning Center PCS (elementary school) Village Learning Center PCS (middle and high school) Appendix IV: A Comparison of Number of Charter Schools and Select Resources Available Number of charter schools 2002-03 school year ($ for FY 02) Size of federal Public Charter School State Grant ($ for FY 02) Appendix V: GAO Contacts and Staff Acknowledgments GAO Contacts Staff Acknowledgments The following staff also contributed to this report: Anjali Tekchandani, Behn Miller Kelly, Ronald La Due Lake, and Patrick Dibattista. Related GAO Products Public Schools: Insufficient Research to Determine Effectiveness of Selected Private Education Companies. GAO-03-11. Washington, D.C.: October 29, 2002. School Vouchers: Characteristics of Privately Funded Programs. GAO-02-752. Washington, D.C.: September 26, 2002. School Vouchers: Publicly Funded Programs in Cleveland and Milwaukee. GAO-01-914. Washington, D.C.: August 31, 2001. Charter Schools: Limited Access to Facility Financing. GAO/HEHS-00-163. Washington, D.C.: September 12, 2000. Charter Schools: Federal Funding Available but Barriers Exist. GAO/HEHS-98-84. Washington, D.C.: April 30, 1998. Charter Schools: Recent Experiences in Accessing Federal Funds. GAO/T-HEHS-98-129. Washington, D.C.: March 31, 1998. Charter Schools: Issues Affecting Access to Federal Funds. GAO-T-HEHS-97-216. Washington, D.C.: September 16, 1997. Private Management of Public Schools: Early Experiences in Four School Districts. GAO/HEHS-96-3. Washington, D.C.: April 19, 1996. Charter Schools: New Model for Public Schools Provides Opportunities and Challenges. GAO/HEHS-95-42. Washington, D.C.: January 18, 1995.

Summary: As of the 2002-2003 school year, nearly 2,700 charter schools operated in 36 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico. Charter schools are public schools that are exempt from certain state and local regulations in exchange for agreeing to certain student performance goals. To increase their understanding of problems faced during the start-up process, Congress included a provision in the Omnibus Appropriations Bill for Fiscal Year 2003 (P.L. 108-7), which required GAO to report on charter school start-ups, including a comparison with charter schools in the District of Columbia. This report examines (1) the challenges faced by charter school start-ups across the nation and the resources available in various states to address these challenges and (2) how the District of Columbia compares in terms of charter school challenges and resources. To address these objectives, GAO analyzed federal, state, and D.C. charter school laws and interviewed Education and District officials, including representatives of the D.C. charter school authorizing boards, the D.C. public school system, and various city offices. GAO also conducted a discussion group consisting of District charter school experts and D.C. charter school founders. Securing a facility, obtaining start-up funding, and, to a lesser extent, acquiring the expertise necessary to run a charter school are the three greatest challenges facing new charter school founders nationwide, although the extent of the challenges varied from state to state. Charter school advocates report that charter schools need buildings that allow them to grow as their enrollment grows and that they have limited access to financing for facilities--both of which make securing facilities one of the most difficult aspects of opening a new charter school. Additionally, charter schools report that obtaining start-up money, particularly early in the charter application and planning periods, is difficult. In gaining approval for charters, they may incur significant expenses, such as hiring experts to review charters, purchasing curriculum programs, and placing down payments on facilities, before becoming eligible to receive most forms of public funding. Another challenge facing new charter school founders is acquiring the expertise--business, legal, managerial--necessary to open and run a charter school. Several federal, state, and local programs are available to help charter schools address these challenges across the country and in the District of Columbia. At the federal level, the Public Charter Schools Program has awarded about $1 billion in grants since 1994 to charter schools to help offset their start up costs. The program has also provided additional funding for a limited number of grants to organizations to increase charter schools' access to facilities financing. Some states also provide assistance to charter schools to address these challenges. The challenges facing D.C. charter schools are similar to those around the country; however, obtaining facilities is particularly difficult in D.C. due to the cost of real estate and poor condition of available buildings. To offset this challenge, the District provides charter schools with various forms of assistance, including a limited preference to buy or lease surplus public school buildings and a per-pupil allotment for the cost of facilities. To address challenges associated with start-up funding, the District provides charter schools with some funding prior to schools' opening. Although the District chartering authorities provide some guidance to charter applicants, they do not provide them with general technical assistance.

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Summarize: Introduction The Administrative Procedure Act (APA), which applies to all executive branch and independent agencies, prescribes procedures for agency rulemakings and adjudications, as well as standards for judicial review of final agency actions. This report provides a brief overview of the APA's core rulemaking and judicial review provisions. After addressing the various methods through which agencies may promulgate rules, the report highlights the numerous exceptions to the APA's general procedural requirements, including the "good cause" standard, and the rules regarding agency issuance of policy statements, interpretive rules, and rules of agency procedure. The report then briefly describes two executive orders that place additional rulemaking requirements on executive branch agencies. The report concludes with a discussion of judicial review of agency action, with a focus on the arbitrary and capricious test, and the review of rule repeals and other changes in agency policy. Types of Rulemaking The APA describes rulemaking as the "agency process for formulating, amending, or repealing a rule." A "rule," for purposes of the statute, is defined expansively to include any "agency statement of general or particular applicability and future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy or describing the organization, procedure, or practice requirements of an agency." Rules that are issued in compliance with certain legal requirements, and that fall within the scope of authority delegated to the agency by Congress, have the force and effect of law. Federal agencies may promulgate rules through various methods. Although the notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures of § 553 of the APA represent the most commonly followed process for issuing legislative rules, agencies may choose or may be required to use other rulemaking options, including formal, hybrid, direct final, and negotiated rulemaking. The method by which an agency issues a rule may have significant consequences for both the procedures the agency is required to undertake and the deference with which a reviewing court will accord the rule. In addition, the APA contains whole or partial exceptions to the statute's otherwise applicable procedural rulemaking requirements. Informal/Notice-and-comment/Section 553 Generally, when an agency promulgates legislative rules, or rules made pursuant to congressionally delegated authority, the exercise of that authority is governed by the informal rulemaking procedures outlined in 5 U.S.C. § 553. In an effort to ensure public participation in the informal rulemaking process, agencies are required to provide the public with adequate notice of a proposed rule followed by a meaningful opportunity to comment on the rule's content. Although the APA sets the minimum degree of public participation the agency must permit, the legislative history of the APA suggests that "[matters] of great importance, or those where the public submission of facts will be either useful to the agency or a protection to the public, should naturally be accorded more elaborate public procedures." The requirement under § 553 to provide the public with adequate notice of a proposed rule is generally achieved through the publication of a notice of proposed rulemaking in the Federal Register. The APA requires that the notice of proposed rulemaking include "(1) the time, place, and nature of public rulemaking proceedings; (2) reference to the legal authority under which the rule is proposed; and (3) either the terms or substance of the proposed rule or a description of the subjects and issues involved." Generally speaking, the notice requirement of § 553 is satisfied when the agency "affords interested persons a reasonable and meaningful opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process." Once adequate notice is provided, the agency must provide interested persons with a meaningful opportunity to comment on the proposed rule through the submission of written "data, views, or arguments." The comment period may result in a vast rulemaking record as persons are permitted to submit nearly any piece of information for consideration by the agency. While there is no minimum period of time for which the agency is required to accept comments, in reviewing an agency rulemaking, courts have focused on whether the agency provided an "adequate" opportunity to comment—of which the length of the comment period represents only one factor for consideration. Once the comment period has closed, the APA directs the agency to consider the "relevant matter presented" and incorporate into the adopted rule a "concise general statement" of the "basis and purpose" of the final rule. The general statement of basis and purpose should "enable the public to obtain a general idea of the purpose of, and a statement of the basic justification for, the rules." The agency is not required to include in the final rule a response to every comment received. Instead, the agency is obligated only to respond to what the courts have characterized as "significant" comments. The final rule, along with the general statement must be published in the Federal Register not less than 30 days before the rule's effective date. Formal Although rules are typically promulgated through the informal rulemaking process, in limited circumstances, federal agencies must follow formal rulemaking requirements. Under the APA, "when rules are required by statute to be made on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing" the formal rulemaking requirements of § 556 and § 557 apply. The Supreme Court has interpreted this language very narrowly, determining that formal rulemaking requirements are only triggered when Congress explicitly requires that the rulemaking proceed "on the record." When formal rulemaking is required, the agency must engage in trial-like procedures. The agency, therefore, must provide a party with the opportunity to present his case through oral or documentary evidence and "conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts." Formal rulemaking proceedings must be presided over by an agency official or Administrative Law Judge who traditionally has the authority to administer oaths, issue subpoenas, and exclude "irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence." Formal rulemaking procedures also prohibit ex parte communications between interested persons outside the agency and agency officials involved in the rulemaking process. The agency or proponent of the rule has the burden of proof, and such rules must be issued "on consideration of the whole record … and supported by … substantial evidence." Hybrid In providing rulemaking authority to an agency, Congress may direct the agency to follow specific procedural requirements in addition to those required by the informal rulemaking procedures of the APA. Hybrid rulemaking statutes typically place additional procedural rulemaking requirements on agencies that may be found in the adjudicative context, but fall short of mandating that an agency engage in the APA's formal rulemaking process. These statutes generally create a rulemaking process with more flexibility than the formal rulemaking procedures under § 556 and § 557 and more public participation than informal rulemaking procedures under § 553. Hybrid rulemaking statutes may require that the agency: hold hearings; allow interested persons to submit oral testimony; and grant participants opportunities for cross examination or questioning. Hybrid rulemaking is only required where expressly directed by Congress, and such statutes were frequently enacted in the 1970s. Direct Final Federal agencies have developed a process known as direct-final rulemaking in order to quickly and efficiently finalize rules for which the agency does not expect opposition. Under direct-final rulemaking, the agency publishes a proposed rule in the Federal Register. In contrast to informal rulemaking, however, the notice will include language providing that the rule will become effective as a final rule on a specific date unless an adverse comment is received by the agency. If even a single adverse comment is received, the proposed rule is withdrawn, and the agency may issue its proposed rule under the APA's informal notice-and-comment requirements. In this manner, the agency can efficiently finalize unobjectionable rules while avoiding many of the procedural delays of the traditional notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements. Although there is no express statutory authorization for direct-final rulemaking, this type of rulemaking has been justified under the "unnecessary" portion of the APA "good cause" exception, discussed infra, as well as the informal notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures. Negotiated Negotiated rulemaking represents a supplement to traditional informal rulemaking procedures that allows agencies to consult with interested persons and interest groups at the developmental stages of the rulemaking process. The goal of the negotiated rulemaking process is to increase administrative efficiency and decrease subsequent opposition to a promulgated rule by engaging the participation of outside groups with significant interest in the subject matter of the rule. In principle, negotiated rulemaking allows the agency and other involved interests to reach consensus in the early rulemaking stages so as to produce a final rule that is more likely to be acceptable to all parties. Under the Negotiated Rulemaking Act (the Act), the head of an agency is authorized to "establish a negotiated rulemaking committee to negotiate and develop a proposed rule if … the use of the negotiated rulemaking procedure is in the public interest." The Act lays out a number of mandatory considerations for determining whether a negotiated rule would be in the public interest. Once an agency has made the decision to establish a negotiated rulemaking committee, the agency must follow the Federal Advisory Committee Act with regard to the committee and must publish a notice in the Federal Register detailing the duties of the committee and the committee's proposed membership. The negotiated rulemaking committee generally consists of a maximum of 25 members, with at least one agency representative. The public must have an opportunity to comment on the proposal to create the committee and the proposed membership. If the committee achieves consensus on a proposed rule, the committee issues a report outlining the proposed rule. If the committee does not achieve a consensus, the committee may issue a report with any negotiated positions on which it did reach consensus. The report and the committee's conclusions are not binding on the agency. Indeed, any proposed rule that arises as a result of the deliberations of a negotiated rulemaking committee must subsequently "be finalized through ordinary notice-and-comment procedures.... " Although agencies are authorized, at their discretion, to engage in negotiated rulemaking pursuant to the Act, in limited instances Congress requires an agency to comply with negotiated rulemaking procedures in issuing specific rules. Exceptions to the APA's Section 553 Rulemaking Requirements The APA has carved out a number of exceptions to the default notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements. Depending on the substance or nature of the rule, some, all, or none of the § 553 procedural requirements may apply. The various exceptions are discussed below. Wholly Exempt The APA exempts rules relating to specific subject matter areas from all of the procedural rulemaking requirements of § 553. This exception covers rules pertaining to (1) "a military or foreign affairs function of the United States," (2) "a matter relating to agency management or personnel," or (3) a matter relating to "public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts." Although rules pertaining to these areas need not satisfy the APA's informal rulemaking requirements, such rules still have the force and effect of law. The military and foreign affairs exception is not just limited to rules issued by the Department of Defense or Department of State, and applies to qualifying actions of any agency. The agency management exception only applies where the rule in question would not affect parties outside the agency. Finally, the term "property" in the third subject matter exception does not extend to all rules pertaining to public lands; rather the exception has been interpreted as limited to the "distribution of property." Exceptions to the Notice-and-comment Procedures The APA provides exceptions to the notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures for both legislative and non-legislative rules, which are discussed in detail below. Non-legislative rules are "interpretative rules, general statements of policy, and rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice." Rules that have been promulgated through the notice-and-comment process have the force and effect of law and are known as legislative rules. The exceptions to the notice-and-comment process for legislative rules depend on whether the agency has "good cause" to dispense with the notice-and comment procedures. Non-legislative Rules: Rules of Agency Procedure, Interpretative Rules, and General Statements of Policy Agency procedural rules are exempt from the notice-and-comment requirements of § 553. Much like the "agency management" exception, agency procedural rules must have an intra-agency impact. Courts have defined agency procedural rules as the "technical regulation of the form of agency action and proceedings … which merely prescribes order and formality in the transaction of … business." The exception does not include any action "which is likely to have considerable impact on ultimate agency decisions" or that "substantially affects the rights of those over whom the agency exercises authority." If the proposed procedural rule will have a substantive impact, then the agency must promulgate the rule through notice-and-comment rulemaking. However, even if a rule qualifies as a "procedure or practice," the agency must still satisfy the APA's publication and 30-day delayed effective date requirements. The APA's notice-and-comment requirements also do not apply to interpretive rules and general statements of policy. These rules are generally referred to as non-legislative rules, in that they do not carry the force and effect of law. The APA created the exception for non-legislative rules principally to allow agencies to efficiently perform routine day-to-day duties, while encouraging agencies to provide the public with timely policy guidance without having to engage in what can be the lengthy and burdensome notice-and-comment process. An interpretive rule is generally characterized as a rule in which an agency announces its interpretation of a statute in a way that "only reminds affected parties of existing duties." These rules allow agencies "to explain ambiguous terms in legislative enactments without having to undertake cumbersome proceedings." Interpretive rules do not "effect[] a substantive change in the regulations." General statements of policy are "statements issued by an agency to advise the public prospectively of the manner in which the agency proposes to exercise a discretionary power." These statements provide agencies with the opportunity to announce their "tentative intentions for the future" in a non-binding manner. Determining whether an agency action, such as a guidance document, is properly characterized as a legislative or non-legislative rule may be difficult. However, the determination has significant consequences for both the procedures the agency is required to follow in issuing the rule and the deference with which a reviewing court will accord the rule. In categorizing a rule, an agency must determine whether the action in question simply interprets existing law or results in a substantive change to existing law. As the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia (D.C. Circuit) has suggested: "an agency can declare its understanding of what a statute requires without providing notice-and-comment, but an agency cannot go beyond the text of a statute and exercise its delegated powers without first providing adequate notice-and-comment." Still, even non-legislative rules must comply with certain aspects of the APA's procedural requirements. For example, the agency must comply with the APA's petition requirements as well as publication and public availability provisions. As non-legislative rules are exempt from the APA's notice-and-comment requirements, as well as the delayed effective date requirement, they are effective immediately upon publication in the Federal Register. Good Cause Section 553(b)(B) specifically authorizes federal agencies to dispense with the APA's requirements for notice-and-comment under certain circumstances. To qualify for the good cause exception, the agency must find that the use of traditional procedures is "impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest." Each of these three terms or phrases has a specific meaning. In addition, the agency must give supporting reasons for invoking the good cause exception. Whether the agency's use of the good cause exception is proper is a fact-specific inquiry that generally includes an evaluation of whether immediate action is necessary, the consequences of inaction, and whether advance notice would defeat the regulatory objective. Courts, however, have traditionally held that these exceptions will be "narrowly construed and reluctantly countenanced." For example, the D.C. Circuit has stated that "[b]ald assertions that the agency does not believe comments would be useful cannot create good cause to forgo notice-and-comment procedures." A common use of the good cause exception is in the issuance of interim final rules. Interim final rules are used by agencies to promulgate rules without providing the public with notice and an opportunity to comment before publication of the final rule. In issuing the rule, the agency generally reserves the right to modify the rule through a post-promulgation comment period. However, agencies must assert a valid "good cause" exception in issuing any interim final rule. Unlike non-legislative rules, interim final rules are considered final rules that carry the force and effect of law. Exceptions to the 30-Day Delayed Effective Date The APA's 30-day waiting period between the publication of the final rule and the rule's effective date was designed principally to "afford persons affected a reasonable time to prepare for the effective date of the rule." In addition to the APA's notice-and-comment exceptions for interpretive rules, policy statements, and legislative rules for which the agency finds "good cause," these rules are also excused from the APA's 30-day delayed effective date requirement. Additionally, the APA also has an exception from the 30-day delayed effective date requirement for "a substantive rule which grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction." Moreover, as noted below, because the repeal of a rule, either in whole or in part, often amounts to the removal of a "restriction," such an action may be exempt from the delayed effective date requirement. Rules that qualify for any of these established exceptions may be considered effective upon the publication of the final rule. Procedures for Amending or Repealing Rules Agencies are generally empowered to amend or repeal existing rules that were issued pursuant to discretionary authority. In order to do so, however, the agency must comply with the default requirements of the APA, which defines "rulemaking" to be the "process for formulating, amending, or repealing a rule." Therefore, in order to amend or repeal an existing legislative rule, an agency generally must comply with the same notice-and-comment rulemaking procedures, outlined in § 553 of the APA, that governed the original promulgation of the rule. In cases where a statute specifically requires alternative procedures for the initial promulgation of a specific legislative rule, the agency may be required to engage in those same procedures to amend or repeal that rule. Rule repeals, which are often deregulatory in nature, may be excused from the APA's delayed effective date requirement if they are deemed to "relieve a restriction." As previously noted, the APA requires that a rule may not take effect until 30 days after the date of publication of the final rule. That requirement, however, is subject to various exceptions, including when an agency finds that there is "good cause" for the rule to take immediate effect, or where the rule "grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction." It would therefore appear that although an agency is generally required to comply with the notice-and-comment requirements of § 553 in repealing a rule, to the extent the repeal removes a previously existing requirement on regulated entities, the rule could be given immediate effect upon publication of the final repeal. Policy statements, interpretive rules, agency rules of procedure, and other informal agency pronouncements that were not subject to notice-and-comment during their initial promulgation and that lack the force and effect of law may be altered immediately and without public participation. Even long-standing agency positions that have been implemented through non-legislative rules may generally be reversed without compliance with notice-and-comment procedures. Delaying Implementation of Final Rules An agency generally may not simply suspend the effectiveness of an existing rule. However, agencies have previously implemented temporary delays of new rules that have been published as final rules but, often due to the 30-day delayed effective date requirement, have not yet taken effect. These delays frequently occur during the early days of a new presidential Administration and have generally been implemented without providing the public with notice or an opportunity to comment. For example, the last three Presidents have directed agencies to delay the effective dates of all finalized but not yet effective rules by 60 days in order to provide the new Administration with time to review the rule. Whether agencies may postpone the effective date of a finalized rule that has not yet taken effect without first engaging in notice-and-comment is a legal question that has not been definitively resolved. Despite the uncertainty associated with agency authority in this area, and perhaps because such delays are typically short in duration, agencies have generally been successful in implementing these delays without notice-and-comment. Nevertheless, some federal courts have suggested that such a delay could amount to a substantive amendment to the rule and thus cannot be implemented without first engaging in the notice-and-comment process. These cases have similarly rejected claims that a delay created as a result of a presidential transition qualifies for the good cause exception. It should be noted that courts have been more willing to permit agencies to delay, without notice-and-comment, the effective date of a rule that is subject to a pending legal challenge. This acceptance is likely due to language in the APA providing that "[w]hen an agency finds that justice so requires, it may postpone the effective date of action taken by it, pending judicial review." Rulemaking Procedures and Requirements Imposed by Executive Order Recent Presidents, through executive order, have also imposed a number of non-statutory requirements on the executive branch rulemaking process. Two such orders include those relating to centralized rulemaking review and a new executive order issued by President Trump requiring agencies to offset costs of new rules by repealing existing rules. Both executive orders apply only to executive branch agencies and do not cover independent agencies. A series of executive orders, beginning with those issued by President Reagan, have established a process by which the White House has an opportunity to review and clear proposed regulatory actions of federal agencies. Under these orders, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) reviews "significant" regulatory actions at both the proposed and final rule stage. An agency is prohibited, "except to the extent required by law," from issuing a rule while OIRA review is pending. In addition, these orders direct agencies to perform a cost-benefit analysis for certain regulatory actions and "adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits" of the rule "justify its costs." Executive Order 13771 (Order), recently issued by President Trump, requires agencies to offset the costs of any new rule issued during fiscal year 2017 by repealing existing rules. The Order generally directs that "the total incremental cost of all new regulations, including repealed regulations... shall be no greater than zero." This regulatory cost cap is implemented by requiring that any costs resulting from new rules "shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least two prior regulations." The Order, and the guidance issued by the OMB implementing the Order, establishes a number of general exceptions to the offset requirement. First, the Order applies only during fiscal year 2017. Second, the Order applies to "significant" regulatory actions, a term defined generally as those that have an economic impact of $100 million or more, interfere with actions of other agencies, materially alter entitlements, or raise novel legal or policy issues. Third, the Order explicitly exempts rules related to military, national security, or foreign affairs functions of the United States, rules of agency organization, and "any other category of regulations exempted by the Director." Fourth, because the Order requires a regulatory offset "unless otherwise required by law," an agency may proceed with mandated rules "that need to be finalized in order to comply with an imminent statutory or judicial deadline even if they are not able to identify offsetting regulatory actions by the time of issuance." It should be noted that Executive Order 13771 does not, and cannot, permit an agency to dispense with statutorily imposed procedural requirements when repealing or amending rules in order to implement the Order's cost-offset requirement. Any such alterations to agency rules must be made in compliance with the APA. Judicial Review of Agency Rulemaking As a general matter, there is a "strong presumption that Congress intends judicial review of administrative action." This presumption is embodied in the APA, which provides that "final agency action for which there is no other adequate remedy in a court [is] subject to judicial review." The APA excludes judicial review in two situations—instances where (1) other "statutes preclude judicial review" or where (2) "agency action is committed to agency discretion by law." The APA provides that courts may hold unlawful and set aside agency actions under a number of circumstances. Specifically, the APA states: The reviewing court shall... hold unlawful and set aside agency action, findings, and conclusions found to be – (A) arbitrary, capricious, an abuse of discretion, or otherwise not in accordance with law; (B) contrary to constitutional right, power, privilege, or immunity; (C) in excess of statutory jurisdiction, authority, or limitations, or short of statutory right; (D) without observance of procedure required by law; (E) unsupported by substantial evidence in a case subject to sections 556 and 557 of this title or otherwise reviewed on the record of an agency hearing provided by statute; or (F) unwarranted by the facts to the extent that the facts are subject to trial de novo by the reviewing court. In making the foregoing determinations, the court shall review the whole record or those parts of it cited by a party, and due account shall be taken of the rule of prejudicial error. This provision indicates that the type of judicial review may differ depending on whether the court is reviewing formal or informal rulemakings. Specifically, cases subject to § 556 and § 557 are subject to "substantial evidence" review, whereas other agency actions are subject to "arbitrary and capricious" review. Congress has sometimes, however, required informal, notice-and-comment rulemakings to be reviewed under the substantial evidence test. However, some have argued that the two standards are the same, and commentators have stated that "the substantial evidence and arbitrary and capricious tests have tended to converge" in judicial review of informal rulemaking. Arbitrary and Capricious Review Explained The most common standard of review that courts apply in challenges to agency action is the "arbitrary and capricious" standard. This "catch-all" review standard of the APA applies to factual determinations made during informal rulemaking proceedings such as notice-and-comment rulemaking and most other discretionary determinations an agency makes. Given the broad scope of federal agency actions that are subject to this type of review, whether an agency decision is arbitrary and capricious is largely a fact-based and situation-specific question. The contours of "arbitrary and capricious" review were perhaps most clearly articulated in the Supreme Court's decision of Motor Vehicle Manufacturers Association v. State Farm Auto Mutual Insurance Co. In State Farm, the Court explained that in applying this "narrow" standard of review, "a court is not to substitute its judgment for that of the agency. " Rather, a court should only invalidate agency determinations that fail to "examine the relevant data and articulate a satisfactory explanation for [the] action including a 'rational connection between the facts found and the choice made. '" When reviewing that determination, courts must "consider whether the decision was based on a consideration of the relevant factors and whether there has been a clear error of judgment. " In general, the Court noted that an agency decision is arbitrary and capricious: if the agency has relied on factors which Congress has not intended it to consider, entirely failed to consider an important aspect of the problem, offered an explanation for its decision that runs counter to the evidence before the agency, or is so implausible that it could not be ascribed to a difference in view or the product of agency expertise. Fundamentally, the arbitrary and capricious standard requires only that an agency demonstrate that it engaged in reasoned decisionmaking by providing an adequate explanation for its decision. The agency must be able to provide the "essential facts upon which the administrative decision was based " and explain what justifies the determination with actual evidence beyond a "conclusory statement. " An agency decision that is the product of "illogical " or inconsistent reasoning ; that fails to consider an important factor relevant to its action, such as the policy effects of its decision or vital aspects of the problem in the issue before it; or that fails to consider "less restrictive, yet easily administered" regulatory alternatives, will similarly fail the arbitrary and capricious test. Judicial Review of Rule Repeals or Other Changes in Agency Policy Agencies are generally accorded the flexibility to depart from previously established positions by altering or repealing rules or other agency pronouncements. Administrative decisions are not "carved in stone," but rather vary on a nearly "continuing basis... in response to changed factual circumstances, or a change in administrations." Yet in executing a significant policy change or other reversal, the agency is required to comply with applicable APA procedural requirements. Thus, in regard to amending or repealing rules, the agency generally may implement such a change only through notice-and-comment rulemaking. In addition to these procedural requirements, an agency rule that implements a policy change by amending or repealing an existing rule is also subject to arbitrary and capricious review. Although the precise application of that review to an agency change in position is subject to some debate, the Supreme Court has stated that judicial review is not heightened or more stringent simply because an agency's action alters its prior policy. Specifically, the Court has held that there is "no basis in the [APA] or in our opinions for a requirement that all agency change be subjected to more searching review" or that "every agency action representing a policy change must be justified by reasons more substantial than those required to adopt a policy in the first instance." Instead, arbitrary and capricious review requires only that the agency provide a "reasoned analysis for the change." The Supreme Court's 2009 decision of FCC v. Fox Television Stations established a series of more detailed, but not overly demanding, principles that elucidate the standard for judicial review of agency change. First, an agency must "display awareness" that it is changing its position. An agency action that departs from a prior policy without acknowledging the change, or that creates an "unexplained inconsistency" with prior policy is generally viewed as arbitrary and capricious. Second, an agency "need not demonstrate... that the reasons for the new policy are better than the reasons for the old one..." It is enough for the agency to show that there are "good reasons" for the change and that the "new policy is permissible under the statute." Third, the court identified two scenarios in which an agency may be required to provide a "more detailed justification" for a change in policy: when the "new policy rests upon factual findings that contradict those which underlay its prior policy"; or where the previous policy has "engendered serious reliance interests that must be taken into account." In each instance, the Court noted that it would be arbitrary and capricious to "ignore" or "disregard" such matters. The Court revisited the question of judicial review of agency change, and the principle of "serious reliance interests" specifically, in Encino Motorcars, LLC v. Navarro. In that case, the Court held that a rule reflecting the agency's altered statutory interpretation was arbitrary and capricious because the agency failed to provide the required "reasoned explanation" for the change. The Court stated that while a "summary discussion " of an agency's reasons for changing its position "may suffice in other circumstances," when there has been "decades" of "industry reliance" on a prior policy, an agency must present a "more reasoned explanation" for "why it deemed it necessary to overrule its previous position." That requirement, the Court concluded, could not be met—especially when "serious reliance interests are at stake"—when an agency offers "almost no reasons at all" or only "conclusory statements" for its decision to change course. Deference to Agency Statutory Interpretations The standard of H.R. 1 judicial review that concerns congressional delegations of legislative authority to administrative agencies addresses whether an agency action is "in excess of statutory jurisdiction, authority, or limitations, or short of statutory right." The Supreme Court has stated that "an administrative agency's power to regulate in the public interest must always be grounded in a valid grant of authority from Congress." Courts grant varying levels of deference to agency interpretations of statutes when examining questions such as whether an agency's action exceeds its congressionally delegated st atutory authority. A detailed discussion of the types of deference that a court may accord to an agency's interpretation of a statutory provision is available in CRS Report R43203, Chevron Deference: Court Treatment of Agency Interpretations of Ambiguous Statutes, by [author name scrubbed] and [author name scrubbed].

Summary: The Administrative Procedure Act (APA), which applies to all agencies of the federal government, provides the general procedures for various types of rulemaking. The APA details the rarely used procedures for formal rules as well as the requirements for informal rulemaking, under which the vast majority of agency rules are issued. This report provides a brief legal overview of the methods by which agencies may promulgate rules, which include formal rulemaking, informal (notice-and-comment or § 553) rulemaking, hybrid rulemaking, direct final rulemaking, and negotiated rulemaking. In addition, this report addresses the legal standards applicable to the repeal or amendment of existing rules. There is substantial case law regarding APA procedures and agency rulemakings. This report summarizes both the procedural and substantive standards that reviewing courts use to discern whether agency rules have been validly promulgated, amended, or repealed. Additionally, the report highlights the numerous exceptions to the APA's general procedural requirements, including the "good cause" standard, and the rules regarding agency issuance of policy statements, interpretive rules, and rules of agency procedure. This report also briefly addresses the requirements of presidential review of agency rulemaking under Executive Order 12866 and its successors, as well as the recently established requirement to offset costs under Executive Order 13771. The report does not, however, discuss other statutes that may impact particular agency rulemakings, such as the Regulatory Flexibility Act, the National Environmental Policy Act, the Congressional Review Act, or the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act.

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Summarize: Is your passion for garlic hampering your love life? Two enterprising Italians — Alessandro Guagni and Lorenzo Bianchi — hear you, and they're doing something about it. The pair is trying to bring back a make-out friendly garlic strain, aglione, which hasn't been widely cultivated in Italy for 40 years, according to the Guardian. Guagni and Bianchi are vying to get their less-pungent, more-digestible "kissing garlic" on the menu at some of Italy's best restaurants. A construction engineer and a lawyer by trade, Guagni and Bianchi turned to cultivating giant garlic (about 10 times the size of your average bulb, they said) three years ago, when Guagni spotted it while on vacation in Tuscany. "We wanted to do something to escape from our offices," Guagni told the Guardian, and growing "big garlic" — the literal translation of aglione — provided just such a diversion. Thus, they started asking after the crop at Tuscan restaurants. "We asked: 'Where can we find it?' And they [restauranteurs] said: 'No, there isn't any. You will never find it because it is over. It's extinct.'" But aglione is not extinct. Eventually they were able to locate some seeds, and they planted two hectares of land with the "kissing garlic," which will be ready for harvest in a few months. Thereafter, the world will be able to make out with abandon immediately after garlic-laden feasts — what a time to be alive. Giant variety known as aglione is milder, odourless and easy to digest, say pair who have spent three years cultivating crop Help is on the way for cooks and diners who love the taste of garlic but hold back from eating it for fear it will cause bad breath and indigestion. An unlikely Roman duo, a construction engineer and a commercial lawyer, have spent the past three years cultivating a special giant variety of garlic that used to be prevalent in Tuscany but has not been produced in large quantities for 40 years. The garlic, known in Italian as aglione, has a milder flavour, is odourless and easy to digest, say the two entrepreneurs, Alessandro Guagni and Lorenzo Bianchi. With just a few months to go before their harvest, the pair are trying to get their “kissing garlic” in some of Italy’s Michelin-star restaurants after chefs who sampled last year’s crop gave it an enthusiastic response. They hope to sell the aglione in high quality food markets, where they hope it will come to be seen as a newfound Italian gem. “We thought this was a typical example of Italian excellence that has been forgotten. Why? Because no one knows it and no one asks for it,” said Bianchi. Facebook Twitter Pinterest Alessandro Guagni at work on the farm where the aglione is grown. Photograph: Stephanie Kirchgaessner for the Guardian Garlic is often associated with Italian cuisine, and is considered an important ingredient when cooking roasted potatoes, lamb, roast pork and bruschetta, but it is not a flavour that dominates typical dishes. Guagni and Bianchi say this reflects concern, especially among young people, that it is indigestible and causes bad breath. They also say that most garlic consumed in Italy is produced abroad, particularly China and Spain. Their story started about three years ago. Guagni was on holiday in the Chiana valley in Tuscany, in the heart of winemaking country, when he came across a farmer’s stand that was selling a product he had never seen before. “It was very big. One bulb weighed from 300 to 800 grams, about 10 times as big as normal garlic. The taste was very good and very light so we thought about the possibility of reintroducing it in the market,” Guagni said. Their first task was to find aglione seeds. The product is not totally unknown. Some Tuscan restaurants serve a dish known as pici all’algione on their menu, a fresh, eggless pasta with a tomato and garlic sauce. When Guagni and Bianchi started asking restauranteurs about where they found their supplies, however, they hit a wall. “We asked: ‘Where can we find it’? And they said: ‘No, there isn’t any. You will never find it because it is over. It’s extinct’,” Guagni said. They learned that though the dish technically calls for aglione, which translates as “big garlic”, most chefs use a conventional variety. Eventually they tracked down a few local producers, got their hands on some seeds and went to work on land Bianchi owns in the Marche region, near the city of Ancona. They say they have a tractor they “play” on over the weekend, and a friend with experience who is also helping out. Asked whether their garlic could be considered organic, the two chuckle. Facebook Twitter Pinterest Ducks eat the weeds on the land but don’t eat the garlic bulbs. Photograph: Courtesy: Kissingarlic “It couldn’t get more organic,” Bianchi said. Garlic is not too labour intensive, they add, and in this case much of the labour is done by ducks, which eat the weeds on the land but don’t touch the bulbs themselves. They also produce fertiliser. The pair have grown their garlic on two hectares of land, which they say is enough to cultivate about 30,000 plants. According to the Fondazione Slow Food, an organisation that promotes food biodiversity, fewer than 10 producers cultivate what it calls aglione della Chiana, and most do so for personal use. The foundation said the variety does not contain allicin, a chemical compound found in traditional garlic, and that there are usually six large cloves in a bulb. The garlic is said to date back to ancient times, when Etruscans inhabited the Chiana valley, and it was also present on the island of Giglio. It allegedly arrived on the island in 1544 after the pirate Khayr al-Din killed nearly everyone on it, forcing the ruling Medici family of Florence to repopulate it with aglione-loving inhabitants of the Chiana valley, who brought it with them. Guagni and Bianchi, who have been friends since they were teenagers growing up in Rome, are thinking big, possibly about creating a supplement or soap, given that garlic is known for its anti-bacterial qualities. They also have a few more ancient products they would like to revive, but don’t want to divulge their trade secrets. They are also having fun. “We wanted to do something to escape from our offices,” Guagni said. You might never have to worry about eating garlic on a first date again—if two Italian farmers are successful. Former engineer Alessandro Guagni and lawyer Loreno Bianchi are marketing KissinGarlic, a milder strain of garlic that the duo claims does not cause bad breath. Garlic’s signature odor comes from a compound called allicin, which is released whenever a clove is crushed or chopped. Take away the allicin and you remove the pungent smell and the risk of bad breath. As luck would have it, an allicin-free garlic already exists—no engineering or cross-breeding necessary. Guagni and Bianchi’s KissinGarlic is actually an ancient strain of garlic called aglione, which doesn’t contain any allicin. The sweet smelling garlic is not only easier on the nostrils; it’s also massive. It typically grows five times the size of common garlic, but it can grow up to ten times the size. It is also less zesty and spicy than common garlic and therefore, the duo says, easier to digest. The ultra-mild garlic was almost lost completely. Today, there are less than ten producers who grow aglione, all of which are located in Italy’s Chiana Valley. Guagni and Bianchi have joined this small enclave of aglione producers and grow their KissinGarlic in the valley using ducks as weed deterrents and fertilizer dispensers. (The ducks eat the weeds, then digest them and fertilize the soil with their droppings.) Curious about the breath-friendly garlic? You can order it by emailing [email protected]. But be prepared to make a lot of mildly garlicky dishes; the minimum order is fifteen heads. [h/t Food Navigator] Chiana Giant garlic is rarely cultivated these days. In fact, there are less than ten producers, all of whom work in the reclaimed flat lands of the Chiana Valley and in a few fraction of the town of Montepulciano. This giant garlic has a particular aroma and contains no allicin (a particular chemical compound) or its derivatives. This garlic is an almost ivory shade of white, nearly spherical in shape and is slightly flat at the extremities. There are usually six large, individual bulbs in each clove, which can weigh up to 800 grams. It has a very delicate flavor and is used in the Chiana Valley most typically in a pasta dish called pici all’aglione. Chiana Giant garlic’s history dates back to when the Etruscans lived in the Chiana Valley, while the garlic is also present on Giglio Island. In 1544 the pirate Khayr al-Din, also known as Barbarossa, sacked the island, killed everyone who opposed him and kidnapped and enslaved more than 700 locals. Following this tragedy the Medici family repopulated the island with people from the Chiana Valley, who certainly brought bulbs of Chiana Giant garlic with them. The historic production zone is the Chiana Valley, around Montepulciano and in particular in the towns of Abbadia, Acquaviva, Gracciano, Montepulciano Station and Valiano. There are 2,000 bulbs of the garlic produced annually, mainly for personal use. With the industrialization of the 1960s, the tradition of cultivating the garlic in a family setting was lost, and thus also the tendency to use it in the kitchen. Hai imparato qualcosa di nuovo da questa pagina? Did you learn something new from this page? Yes No

Summary: A construction engineer and a lawyer who've been friends since they were teens were seeking a diversion from their 9-to-5 toil, so they teamed up to revive a Tuscany staple that hasn't been prevalent in four decades: a huge variety of garlic that doesn't stink, tastes sweeter, and won't cause indigestion. Per the Guardian, Alessandro Guagni and Lorenzo Bianchi have spent three years cultivating aglione ( "big garlic"), which they're hoping to hawk to high-end food markets (and, ostensibly, to a clientele described by Mic.com as those who "love pasta and making out"). Guagni was the first to contemplate the so-called "kissing garlic" when he came across a huge sample of it at a farm stand three years ago. "One bulb weighed from [10 to 28 ounces], about 10 times as big as normal garlic," he says. "The taste was very good and very light," and the idea of resurrecting it was born. But when he and Bianchi pressed restaurant owners on where they could find it, most told them the "big garlic" was "extinct." (According to the Slow Food Foundation, there are fewer than 10 aglione producers, all based in Tuscany's Chiana Valley.) The partners managed to track down some seeds, however, and started growing their product on a 5-acre plot of land Bianchi owns in Le Marche. What makes their garlic more palatable to the nose, mouth, and stomach: the lack of the chemical compound allicin, which is produced when garlic is chopped or crushed, Food and Wine notes. The two also say their garlic is organic and that most of their garlic-tending labor is taken care of by... ducks: The birds chow down on weeds (but not the garlic plants themselves) and fertilize the soil with their droppings.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Paperwork Elimination Act of 1996''. SEC. 2. PURPOSES. The purpose of this Act is to-- (1) minimize the burden of Federal paperwork demands upon small businesses, educational and nonprofit institutions, Federal contractors, State and local governments, and other persons through the sponsorship and use of alternative information technologies, including the use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information to substitute for paper; and (2) more effectively enable Federal agencies to achieve the purposes of chapter 35 of title 44, United States Code, popularly known as the ``Paperwork Reduction Act''. SEC. 3. AUTHORITY AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DIRECTOR OF THE OFFICE OF MANAGEMENT AND BUDGET. (a) Direction and Oversight of Information Technology.--Section 3504(a)(1)(B)(vi) of title 44, United States Code, is amended to read as follows: ``(vi) the acquisition and use of information technology, including the use of alternative information technologies, such as the use of electronic submission, maintenance, or disclosure of information to substitute for paper.''. (b) Promotion of Use of Electronic Information Technology.--Section 3504(h) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of paragraph (4), by striking the period at the end of paragraph (5) and inserting ``; and'', and by adding at the end the following: ``(6) specifically promote the optional use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information where appropriate, as an alternative information technology to substitute for paper.''. SEC. 4. ASSIGNMENT OF TASKS AND DEADLINES. Section 3505(a)(3) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of subparagraph (B), by striking the period at the end of subparagraph (C) and inserting ``; and'', and by adding at the end the following: ``(D) a description of progress in providing for the use of electronic submission, maintenance, or disclosure of information to substitute for paper, including the extent to which such progress accomplishes reduction of burden on small businesses or other persons.''. SEC. 5. FEDERAL AGENCY RESPONSIBILITIES. (a) Providing for Use of Electronic Information Management.-- Section 3506(c)(1)(B) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of clause (ii) and by adding at the end the following: ``(iv) provides for the optional use, where appropriate, of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information; and''. (b) Promotion of Electronic Information Management.--Section 3506(c)(3)(C) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``or'' after the semicolon at the end of clause (ii), by adding ``or'' after the semicolon at the end of clause (iii), and by adding at the end the following: ``(iv) the promotion and optional use, where appropriate, of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information.''. (c) Use of Alternative Information Technologies.--Section 3506(c)(3)(J) of title 44, United States Code, is amended to read as follows: ``(J) to the maximum extent practicable, uses alternative information technologies, including the use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information, to reduce burden and improve data quality, agency efficiency and responsiveness to the public.''. SEC. 6. PUBLIC INFORMATION COLLECTION ACTIVITIES; SUBMISSION TO DIRECTOR; APPROVAL AND DELEGATION. Section 3507(a)(1)(D)(ii) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of subclause (V), by adding ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of subclause (VI), and by adding at the end the following: ``(VII) a description of how respondents may, if appropriate, electronically maintain, submit, or disclose information under the collection of information.''. SEC. 7. RESPONSIVENESS TO CONGRESS. Section 3514(a)(2) of title 44, United States Code, is amended by striking ``and'' after the semicolon at the end of subparagraph (C), by striking the period at the end of subparagraph (D) and inserting ``; and'', and by adding at the end the following: ``(E) reduced the collection of information burden on small businesses and other persons through the use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information to substitute for paper maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information, including-- ``(i) a description of instances where such substitution has added to burden; and ``(ii) specific identification of such instances relating to the Internal Revenue Service.''. SEC. 8. EFFECTIVE DATE. This Act shall take effect October 1, 1997. Passed the House of Representatives April 24, 1996. Attest: ROBIN H. CARLE, Clerk.

Title: Paperwork Elimination Act of 1996 Summary: Paperwork Elimination Act of 1996 - Amends the Paperwork Reduction Act to require the Director of the Office of Management and Budget to: (1) provide direction and oversee the use of information technology, including alternative information technologies to substitute for paper; (2) specifically promote the optional use of electronic information technology as such an alternative; and (3) provide within a required information resources strategic management plan a description of progress in providing for the use of electronic information as a substitute for paper. Requires each Federal agency to: (1) ensure that each information collection provides for the optional use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information; (2) use alternative information technologies to reduce burden and improve data quality, agency efficiency, and responsiveness to the public; and (3) publish a description of how respondents may electronically maintain the information to be collected. Requires the Director to report to the Congress on the extent to which Federal agencies reduced the collection of information burden on small businesses and other persons through the use of electronic maintenance, submission, or disclosure of information as a substitute for paper maintenance, submission, or disclosure.

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Write a title and summarize: The replacement of histone H2A with its variant forms is critical for regulating all aspects of genome organisation and function. The histone variant H2A. B appeared late in evolution and is most highly expressed in the testis followed by the brain in mammals. This raises the question of what new function (s) H2A. B might impart to chromatin in these important tissues. We have immunoprecipitated the mouse orthologue of H2A. B, H2A. B. 3 (H2A. Lap1), from testis chromatin and found this variant to be associated with RNA processing factors and RNA Polymerase (Pol) II. Most interestingly, many of these interactions with H2A. B. 3 (Sf3b155, Spt6, DDX39A and RNA Pol II) were inhibited by the presence of endogenous RNA. This histone variant can bind to RNA directly in vitro and in vivo, and associates with mRNA at intron—exon boundaries. This suggests that the ability of H2A. B to bind to RNA negatively regulates its capacity to bind to these factors (Sf3b155, Spt6, DDX39A and RNA Pol II). Unexpectedly, H2A. B. 3 forms highly decompacted nuclear subdomains of active chromatin that co-localizes with splicing speckles in male germ cells. H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq experiments revealed a unique chromatin organization at active genes being not only enriched at the transcription start site (TSS), but also at the beginning of the gene body (but being excluded from the +1 nucleosome) compared to the end of the gene. We also uncover a general histone variant replacement process whereby H2A. B. 3 replaces H2A. Z at intron-exon boundaries in the testis and the brain, which positively correlates with expression and exon inclusion. Taken together, we propose that a special mechanism of splicing may occur in the testis and brain whereby H2A. B. 3 recruits RNA processing factors from splicing speckles to active genes following its replacement of H2A. Z. Histones, the key proteins that compact all eukaryotic DNA into chromatin, have attracted much attention recently because of their impact on all aspects of genome function [1]. Histones form the core structure of chromatin, the nucleosome core, in which ~ 145 base pairs of DNA is wrapped around a histone octamer comprising of a (H3-H4) 2 tetramer flanked by two H2A-H2B dimers. Importantly, the structure and function of a nucleosome can be regulated by the substitution of one or more of the major core histones with their variant forms. Despite being discovered by Chadwick and colleagues over a decade ago, the function of the histone H2A variant, H2A. Bbd remains unknown [2]. In vitro biophysical and transcription studies revealed that H2A. Bbd, and the mouse orthologue, which we designated H2A. Lap1 (Lack of an acidic patch) [3], could not compact chromatin in vitro [4]. Functionally, this permitted high levels of RNA polymerase (Pol) II transcription [4]. Adopting the new nomenclature for histone variants [5], H2A. Bbd and H2A. Lap1 will hereafter be referred to as H2A. B and H2A. B. 3, respectively. H2A. B histones differ from their canonical counterparts in several important ways. First, H2A. B histones have a reduced acidic patch, a key region on the nucleosome surface required for chromatin compaction [3]. Second, H2A. B histones lack the canonical histone carboxyl-terminal region, which is important for stabilizing the interaction interface between the H3–H4 tetramer and the H2A—H2B dimer [6]. Not surprisingly, H2A. B-containing mononucleosomes are unstable [7,8], which is also consistent with numerous studies showing the unwrapping of nucleosomal DNA from the octamer surface at the DNA entry and exit points [8–10]. This unwrapping of DNA also appears to cause a major reorganization of the histone tails within the nucleosome [11], and allows octamer formation on DNA fragments smaller than the typical 145 base pairs in vitro that are associated with a canonical nucleosome [12]. Third, the N-terminal tails of H2A. B histones distinctively lack lysine residues, but instead are enriched for arginines. The functional significance of this difference is as yet unknown. H2A. B is a rapidly evolving histone variant family that first appeared in mammals [5,13]. Notably, it displays a tissue-restricted expression pattern being highly expressed in the adult testis with some expression in the brain, and is encoded by three genes [3] (NCBI GEO data sets). It also appears to be expressed in mouse embryonic stem cells at a low level [14]. Several studies have overexpressed tagged versions of H2A. B in transformed cell lines [2,15,16] and following genome-wide analyses revealed it to be preferentially associated with actively transcribed genes. Over expression of H2A. B can have abnormal effects on cell cycle regulation and DNA damage [16]. To begin to understand the possible role (s) of H2A. B and its orthologues in its proper physiological context, we previously performed H2A. B. 3 immunofluorescence, ChIP-Seq and expression studies in the mouse testis [3]. A new role for H2A histone variants in the transcriptional activation process was uncovered whereby H2A. B. 3 was specifically targeted to the transcription start site (TSS) of active genes, which was previously believed to be nucleosome free [3,17]. This location was not observed in the above mentioned H2A. B studies in transformed cell lines. We now show here that H2A. B. 3 is also present at the TSS of active genes in the mouse brain. In order to gain new mechanistic insights into how H2A. B. 3 participates in the gene activation process, here we took a proteomic approach to identify proteins that specifically interact with H2A. B-containing nucleosomes in the mouse testis, analysed its pattern of organisation in germ cell nuclei, uncovered new genomic locations for this histone variant, examined its functional relationship with another histone variant, H2A. Z, and the active H3K36me3 mark, both in the testis and the brain and finally, analysed its interaction with RNA both in vivo and in vitro. Previously, we identified the mouse orthologue of H2A. B, H2A. B. 3, and showed that it is expressed between the pachytene stage (meiosis I, day 19 of spermatogenesis) and the late round spermatid stage (immediately following the completion of meiosis II, day 28–30) [3]. The expression of H2A. B. 3 peaks at the late round spermatid stage (its expression is ~8-fold higher at this stage compared to the pachytene stage). This is the period of spermatogenesis when the overall level of transcription is extremely high [18]. Our initial transcriptomic and ChIP-Seq analysis revealed that H2A. B. 3 is targeted to the TSS concurrent with gene activation indicating a role in transcription initiation [3]. However, it was unclear whether H2A. B. 3 was also located in the body of an active gene, which would indicate other possible functions for this variant in the expression of a gene. To investigate this possibility, we repeated H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq (at a greater sequencing depth) and RNA-Seq experiments using micrococcal nuclease prepared mononucleosomes and poly (A) -transcripts obtained from 28–30 day old mice testes, respectively. Resulting ChIP-Seq and RNA-Seq libraries were sequenced yielding 100 base pair paired-end reads. First, we produced a testis total input for all genes and a H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq profile where the normalised reads (mean reads per base pair per million reads mapped (RPM) ) at each base pair were aligned with the TSS 1 kb upstream and 10 kb downstream (Fig 1a). It is important to note that H2A. B. 3 is not found on all active genes but only a subset ([19]; see below). Several new observations are revealed: (1) H2A. B. 3 is located within the gene body but interestingly, H2A. B. 3 shows an elevated abundance at the beginning of the gene body compared to the end. This is in contrast to the active gene body mark, H3K36me3, which is more enriched at the end of a gene [20]. (2) On average, H2A. B. 3 is ~1. 4 times more enriched at the TSS compared to exons. Using a 50 base pair region for the TSS (position -75 to -25 upstream from the TSS) and the intron—exon boundary (from the boundary to 50 base pairs within the exon), the mean coverage in counts per base pair were 19. 03 and 13. 27, respectively (P-value = 0. 03). (3) A marked H2A. B. 3 depleted region is observed ~ 225 base pairs downstream of the TSS at the location of the +1 nucleosome. Next, we investigated whether H2A. B. 3 was more enriched on exons or introns, or present on both types of sequences. First, input nucleosomes from mice testes were mapped to intron—exon boundaries (±1 kb) of protein-coding genes and ranked according to their expression level (repressed, low, medium and high). Several studies have shown that exons have an increased nucleosome occupancy compared to introns, thus marking them [21,22]. Consistent with these previous studies, the normalized nucleosome occupancy profile for all exons showed a nucleosome that is strongly positioned at the exon (in mice, most exons are between 50 and 200 base pairs long [23]) (Fig 1b). A negative correlation was observed between the nucleosome occupancy of an exon and the level of expression indicating an overall loss of this nucleosome during transcription (Fig 1b). Normalized H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq testis reads were aligned with the intron—exon boundary and indeed an H2A. B. 3-containing nucleosome occupying the exon was observed, which was positively correlated with transcription in contrast to the input nucleosome profile (Fig 1c). A plot showing the distribution of input nucleosomes and H2A. B. 3 at the intron—exon boundary as a heat map illustrates these transcriptional changes in more detail (S1a and S1b Fig). The H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq intron—exon plots (Fig 1c) reveals that H2A. B. 3-containing nucleosomes are not only located on exons but also on surrounding intronic DNA sequences. Further, a comparison of meta-intron with meta-exon plots shows that H2A. B. 3 is distributed throughout the entire intron, and that exons are not enriched with this histone variant compared to intronic sequences (S2a and S2b Fig, Fig 1c). We conclude that in highly expressed genes, H2A. B. 3 is enriched in both exon and intron regions and that this enrichment is inversely correlated with nucleosome occupancy seen in the input of the same regions. While H2A. B. 3 was found on both introns and exons, we wondered whether upon transcriptional activation if both exons and flanking intronic sequences gained H2A. B. 3 equally well or whether compared to the repressed state, there was a preferential targeting of H2A. B. 3 to exons compared to introns. To examine this, we determined the relationship between the H2A. B. 3/input ratio and log expression averaged across all intron-exon boundaries. At each base position relative to the intron-exon boundary, a linear model was fit to this relationship and the slope of the fitted linear model was determined and plotted (Fig 1d). The results clearly show that exons gain H2A. B. 3 at a higher rate compared to introns when genes are activated. The exonic H2A. B. 3 nucleosome is flanked on both sides by an H2A. B. 3 nucleosome depleted region, which is more pronounced at the intron to exon boundary compared to the exon to intron border (Fig 1c). This can also be seen in the H2A. B. 3 meta-intron plot (S2a Fig) and when H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq reads were aligned with the exon—intron boundary (S2c Fig). The H2A. B. 3 meta-exon plot revealed that this H2A. B. 3 nucleosome is located closer to the exon-intron boundary than the intron-exon boundary (S2b Fig), and accordingly this asymmetry in the H2A. B. 3 nucleosome position can provide a simple explanation as to why the intron-exon boundary is more accessible. It is attractive to suggest that this nucleosome-depleted region at the intron—exon boundary could facilitate the access of the spliceosome to the nascent RNA. The gene body-associated H3K36me3 modification has been shown to be a modifier of splicing outcome [22,24]. To investigate the relationship between H3K36me3, H2A. B. 3 and transcription, H3K36me3 ChIP-Seq experiments were performed. As expected, this modification is located at exons and is positively correlated with transcription (although the top 25% of expressed genes display less H3K36me3 compared to moderately expressed genes, Fig 1e). A H3K36me3 heat map further illustrates this positive correlation with expression (S1c Fig). Next, a Pearson correlation of the log coverage, calculated across 50 base pair windows, was used to determine if there is any correlation between the presence of H2A. B. 3 and H3K36me3 at each base pair position relative to the intron-exon boundary (Fig 1f). Intriguingly, no correlation between H2A. B. 3 and H3K36me3 at the exon is observed. To examine this relationship further, we separated all intron-exon boundaries into 4 groups that contain very low, low, moderate or high levels of H2A. B. 3. For each of the four groups, a single line represents the normalised H3K36me3 reads at each base pair aligned with the intron-exon boundary (Fig 1g). This analysis shows that there is no correlation between the degree of trimethylation at H3K36 with increasing levels of H2A. B. 3 incorporation at the exon in the testis. Taken together, with the knowledge that H2A. B. 3 and H3K36me3 are enriched at different regions of the gene body, we suggest that H2A. B. 3 functions independently from H3K36me3 in the process of gene expression. In conclusion, based on the observation that H2A. B. 3 is found both at the TSS [3] and gene body, including the intron—exon boundary, of an active gene, we suggest that this variant may have more than one role in the process of expressing a gene. Further, given that splicing occurs co-transcriptionally, we explore below the possibility that H2A. B. 3 has a role in splicing by determining: (1) whether this histone variant is also found at intron—exon boundaries in the brain, (2) its relationship with the gene body repressive mark H2A. Z, (3) its link with exon inclusion, (4) whether H2A. B. 3 interacts with RNA processing factors, (5) whether it can directly interact with RNA and (6) the nuclear localisation of H2A. B. 3 and its position in relation to the RNA splicing machinery located at splicing speckles. H2A. B. 3 is also expressed in the mouse brain (S3 Fig) and therefore we wondered whether H2A. B. 3 is present at the TSS and gene body of genes active in this tissue. To investigate this, H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq and RNA-Seq experiments were repeated utilizing the hippocampus and then compared with the testis. Genes transcribed by RNA polymerase II were separated into groups according to their expression level (repressed, low, medium and high). For each group of genes, a single line represents the normalised tag counts at each base pair, which has been aligned with the start site of transcription (TSS) (±1 kb). Similar to the mouse testis (S4a Fig), a H2A. B. 3-containing nucleosome appears at ~ -50 base pairs relative to the TSS with increasing levels of transcription (S4b Fig). Conversely, highlighting the fragile nature of this nucleosome as reported previously [3], and that H2A. B. 3 is only present on a subset of active promoters (see below), no input nucleosome is observed at an active TSS both in the testis (S4c Fig) and the hippocampus (S4d Fig). Intriguingly though, the overall H2A. B. 3 organisation at an active promoter is different between the testis and the brain. In contrast to the testis, a second H2A. B. 3 nucleosome forms at ~ -200 base pairs relative to the TSS on an active promoter (S4b Fig). A plot showing the distribution of H2A. B. 3 nucleosomes at the promoter as a heat map for both the testis and hippocampus, respectively illustrates this difference in more detail (S4e and S4f Fig). Previously, we revealed that H2A. B3 was not present on all active promoters and most interestingly, gene ontology (GO) analyses revealed that H2A. B. 3 was particularly enriched on active genes involved in RNA processing and splicing [19]. To investigate this further, gene set enrichment analyses were performed ranked by the mean coverage of H2A. B. 3 over a fixed window size of 50 base pairs at successive distances from the TSS (±1 kb). Strikingly, this analysis revealed that the enrichment of H2A. B. 3 at the TSS for genes active in the hippocampus displays similar GO terms as active promoters associated with H2A. B. 3 in the testis (RNA processing (GO: 0006396), translation (GO: 0006412) and ribonucleoprotein complex (GO: 0030529); S4g and S4h Fig). Importantly, no such functional enrichment at the TSS was observed for input nucleosomes (S4g and S4h Fig). The RNA-Seq data reveals that these H2A. B. 3 enriched gene sets show high expression, with a mean RNA-Seq expression 8. 2 and 20. 7 times greater than the overall mean expression across all genes, for the brain and testes, respectively. We conclude that H2A. B. 3 is a target of the TSS being positioned there both in the testis and the brain. Remarkably, H2A. B. 3 is associated with biological functions that are similar in the brain and testis. H2A. B. 3 is also found in the body of active genes in the hippocampus. Recapitulating the observations of the testis, we find that: (1) H2A. B. 3 is more enriched at the beginning of the gene body then the end (S5a Fig), (2) the input nucleosome located at the exon is negatively correlated with transcription whereas H2A. B. 3 is positively regulated (S5b and S5c Fig), (3) exons gain H2A. B. 3 at a faster rate compared to introns when genes are expressed (S5d Fig), (4) incorporation of H3K36me3 at the intron—exon boundary is positively correlated with transcription (S5e Fig) and (5) there is no correlation between the presence of H2A. B. 3 and incorporation of H3K36me3 at the intron-exon boundary (S5f and S5g Fig) Finally, we investigated whether genes that have H2A. B. 3 enriched at the TSS also have this histone variant at the intron—exon boundary. To test for this correlated role, we separated all intron-exon boundaries into 4 groups that contain very low, low, moderate, or high levels of H2A. B. 3 at the TSS. For each of the four groups, a single line represents the normalised H2A. B. 3 reads at each base pair aligned with the intron-exon boundary (S6 Fig). This analysis shows that there is positive correlation between the degree of incorporation at the TSS and the presence of H2A. B. 3 at the intron—exon boundary both in the testis and the brain (S6a and S6b Fig). Therefore, transcriptional activation is associated with simultaneous H2A. B. 3 incorporation at the TSS and in the intron—exon boundary. This suggests that H2A. B. 3 may provide a link between transcriptional initiation and pre-mRNA splicing (see below). H2A. Z is an essential histone variant that is believed to play an important role in establishing an active chromatin structure at promoters [25–28]. However, studies in in plants and C. elegans have shown that it is also located in the body of genes potentially being involved with repressing gene expression rather than activation [25,29]. To investigate whether H2A. Z is present within the body of genes in the mouse testis and brain, and its link with expression, ChIP-Seq experiments were performed and normalized H2A. Z ChIP-Seq reads were aligned with the intron—exon boundary, which were then ranked according to the level of gene expression. Significantly, a H2A. Z-nucleosome was observed on the exon and in contrast to H2A. B. 3, H2A. Z was negatively correlated with transcription (Fig 2a and 2b). A histone H2A. Z heat map illustrates this negative correlation with expression clearly (S1d Fig). Not surprisingly then, there was also a negative correlation between H2A. Z incorporation at the intron—exon boundary with increasing levels of H3K36me3 (Fig 2c). This result raises the intriguing possibility that there is a dynamic histone variant replacement process whereby during the activation of transcription, H2A. Z is lost from the intron-exon boundary being subsequently replaced with H2A. B. 3. To demonstrate directly that H2A. B. 3 can replace H2A. Z on the same gene when it becomes activated during development, we used published gene expression data from Namekawa and colleagues [30] where they identified a small number of developmentally regulated genes on the X chromosome. These genes are repressed at the pachytene stage (day 18) but become activated in round spermatids (day 30). We chose three such genes (Akap4, Il2rg and Akap14) and performed quantitative H2A. B. 3 and H2A. Z ChIP assays to examine the relative amount of these histone variants at 3 different exons for each gene (Fig 2d). For all exons in all genes, the level of H2A. Z decreases with a corresponding increase in H2A. B. 3 when the genes become activated in round spermatids. Using these representative examples, these results clearly demonstrate that H2A. Z is associated with repressed genes in the coding region and upon transcriptional activation, H2A. B. 3 replaces it (noting that we previously demonstrated that the targeting of H2A. B. 3 to these X-linked genes was concurrent with gene activation [3]). Next, quantitative H2A. B. 3 and H2A. Z ChIP assays were performed examining the relative amount of these histone variants at exons and neighbouring intronic sequences of genes either expressed more highly in the brain (Ctnnd2, Mpped1 and Ctnn1) or in the testis (Pkib, Tbata and Slain2) (Fig 2e and 2f). In all cases, the highest level of H2A. B. 3 at intron—exon sequences occurred when the gene was active irrespective of whether it is expressed in the brain or the testis (Fig 2e and 2f). Conversely, all genes contain more H2A. Z when they were not expressed. As examples, Mpped1 has ~ 50 fold more H2A. B. 3 at its exon in the brain (where it is expressed) compared to the testis, (Fig 2e). On the other hand, this exon has ~ 250 times more H2A. Z in the testis where this gene is not expressed compared to the brain (Fig 2f). Similarly, Tbata has ~ 25 fold more H2A. B. 3 at its exon in the testis where it is expressed (Fig 2f) while it has 2 fold more H2A. Z in the brain where it is not expressed (Fig 2e). These findings show that in a tissue specific manner, H2A. B. 3 replaces H2A. Z when a gene becomes activated verifying the genome-wide observations (Fig 1c, S5c Fig, Fig 2a and 2b). The brain, followed by the testis, displays the greatest level of alternative splicing compared to any other tissue [31]. The next obvious question to address was whether the gain of H2A. B. 3 at the intron—exon boundary has a potential role in splicing or whether it is only linked to the process of transcriptional elongation as suggested by previous in vitro experiments [4]. To distinguish between these possibilities, we ranked all alternatively spliced exons into 4 groups dependent upon their inclusion levels (very low, low, moderate or high; noting that alternatively spliced exons represent a minor population (13. 4%) compared to constitutive included exons) (Fig 3). Significantly, a clear positive correlation exists between the degree of exon inclusion and the level of H2A. B. 3 at the intron—exon boundary in the testis with a similar trend in the hippocampus (Fig 3a and 3b) whereas input nucleosomes do not (Fig 3c and 3d). Conversely, H2A. Z nucleosomes are negatively correlated with exon inclusion (Fig 3e and 3f). H2A. B. 3 is not only found on alternatively spliced exons but is also present on constitutively included exons (S7 Fig). These data argue that the presence of H2A. B. 3 at the intron—exon boundary has a role in the pre-mRNA splicing process. No study to date has examined the function of H2A. B. 3 in its proper physiological contexts i. e. both in the testis and brain. Here we addressed this issue and have uncovered new locations for this histone variant on an active gene. The observed enrichment of H2A. B. 3 at the TSS and the beginning of the gene body is distinctively different compared to any other type of chromatin modification. Evidence is provided that H2A. B. 3 not only has a function in the initiation of transcription in the testis [3] (Table 1, Fig 4) and the brain (S4 Fig), but also has a role in the processing of RNA (Figs 3,4 and 5f, Table 1) thus providing a new link between transcriptional initiation and splicing. An unexpected histone variant replacement process was also uncovered whereby H2A. B. 3 replaces H2A. Z at intron—exon boundaries when a gene becomes active (Fig 2d–2f). Previously, we reported that H2A. B. 3 might also replace H2A. Z at the TSS leading to higher levels of transcription suggesting that this histone variant replacement process may not be limited to intron—exon boundaries [19]. This is also consistent with the observation that in vitro, H2A. Z-containing nucleosome arrays are more refractory to transcription then H2A-containing arrays[4]. To date, H2A. Z has largely been viewed as an activator of transcription with its main function to assemble the TSS into an active chromatin structure [17,25–28]. Our results suggest that H2A. Z may have a different repressive function when incorporated into the body of a gene in the testis and brain. We also reveal a novel nuclear organisation in round spermatids where distinct and large domains of highly decondensed H2A. B. 3-containing chromatin exist, which co-localise with splicing speckles. Further, these H2A. B. 3-containing domains appear to be transcriptionally active based on its co-localisation with the initiation and elongation forms of RNA Pol II (Fig 6). This suggests that splicing speckles are not simply passive sites for the storage of splicing factors but participate in the transcription process, at least in highly transcriptionally active round spermatids. The presence of H2A. B. 3 at highly decondensed domains of chromatin in round spermatids is consistent with the in vitro ability of H2A. B. 3 to destabilise the nucleosome and inhibit chromatin compaction [3,4]. Perhaps the most unexpected finding of this study is the observation that H2A. B/H2A. B. 3 are RNA binding proteins consistent with a role in RNA processing and its association with mature transcripts in vivo (Fig 5). Further, this RNA binding ability appears to negatively regulate its capacity to interact with RNA Pol II and certain other RNA processing factors suggesting that a competition may exist between its capacity to bind to proteins or RNA. On the other hand, the interaction of at least one factor, Rent, was dependent upon RNA. While no representative RNA binding module exists, a common feature is a preponderance of arginine residues, which commonly occurs with serine and/or glycine residues [34]. These features are observed in the N-terminal tails of H2A. B/H2A. B. 3 (Fig 5b). We conclude that H2A. B. 3 is a unique histone variant being able to bind to both RNA and DNA. It is attractive to speculate that these roles of H2A. B. 3 enables a special transcription/splicing mechanism to operate in the testis and the brain, two tissues known to display the highest level of splicing compared to other cell types [31] (see below). What makes H2A. B. 3 a truly remarkably histone though, is not only its ability to bind to RNA but also its capacity to directly interact with proteins. Our mass spec analysis of immunoprecipitated H2A. B. 3-containing nucleosomes revealed an interaction with proteins involved in transcription and RNA processing. However, it was unclear whether these H2A. B. 3-protein interactions were direct because the chromatin was first cross-linked with formaldehyde. Therefore, we repeated these experiments without formaldehyde crosslinking followed by the mechanical shearing of germ cell nuclei (Fig 5a). We demonstrated that indeed H2A. B. 3 could directly interact with RNA Pol II, Spt6 and other splicing factors (which was greatly enhanced by the removal of RNA). On the other hand, the interactions with U1A and Sap18 were lost indicating that these interactions were indirect. A recent study over expressed epitope-tagged H2A. B in HeLa cells [15]. Perhaps not surprisingly, significant differences in H2A. B chromatin organisation are observed between Hela cells and what is observed here in the testis and brain (major differences are seen at the TSS, at the beginning of the gene body and at the intron-exon boundary, and no role for RNA in regulating H2A. B-splicing factor interactions was observed). While also not observing interactions with RNA Pol II, Spt6 and many other factors, Tolstorukov and colleagues did observe an interaction between H2A. B and certain splicing factors (but noting that, as shown here, some of these interactions may not be direct). Now in combination with our observations, this suggests that H2A. B has the intrinsic ability to interact with splicing factors even when expressed in a non-physiological setting, which could have important implications for the understanding of certain types of cancers [16]. A more recent study suggested that H2A. B. 3 is specifically deposited to methylated CpGs within the gene body in mouse ES cells to overcome methylation mediated repression of transcriptional elongation. While we cannot rule out that H2A. B. 3 may have a similar role in the testis and the brain, our results suggest that H2A. B. 3 may have a more universal role in facilitating gene expression that includes non-methylated DNA regions given our finding that H2A. B. 3 replaces H2A. Z during the gene activation process. At a genome-wide level, it has been clearly established that H2A. Z and DNA methylation are mutually antagonistic chromatin marks [39]. Further, for reasons that are unclear, this study also did not observe H2A. B. 3 at the TSS but this does suggest that mouse ES cells (and Hela cells) lack the H2A. B. 3 targeting mechanisms that operate in the testis and brain. As noted above, previously we demonstrated that H2A. B/H2A. B. 3 could destabilise the nucleosome, inhibit chromatin compaction and thus promote transcription in vitro [3,4]. Given that H2A. B. 3 is located at the TSS as well as in the body of an active gene in the testis and the brain, we suggest that these biophysical properties of H2A. B chromatin facilitates both transcription initiation and elongation. During spermatogenesis, the highest overall level of gene expression occurs at the round spermatid stage [18], which correlates when H2A. B. 3 is maximally expressed. Previously, we showed that the targeting of H2A. B. 3 to the TSS, in a stage specific manner, is concurrent with the activation of previously silent genes on the X chromosome, and genes that were previously active became more highly expressed in round spermatids [3,17,19]. Here, we show that the exons of previously inactive X chromosome genes also gain H2A. B. 3 when they become activated in round spermatids, which is consistent with the observation that H2A. B. 3 incorporation at the TSS occurs concurrently with its deposition at the intron—exon boundary (S6 Fig). On average, the abundance of H2A. B. 3 is the highest at the TSS compared to the gene body, and intriguingly, within the gene body, its occupancy is greatest at the beginning of the gene (Fig 1a), which is where transcriptional elongation can be the most inefficient [40]. A current model for the role of chromatin in pre-mRNA splicing is that the nucleosome located at an exon acts as a barrier to slow the progress of the elongating RNA Pol II complex, which creates a window of opportunity for splicing factors to execute their splicing function [21,22]. However, as shown here, some gene bodies that are transcribed in the brain and the testis contain H2A. B. 3 nucleosomes, which, as discussed above, might facilitate rather than inhibit the progress of an elongating RNA Pol II complex. This argues that a different splicing process might operate in the testis and the brain. The results presented here show that H2A. B. 3 is not a highly expressed variant (representing 3. 7% of the total pool of H2A). Consistent with this, it is only found on a subset of active genes and most interestingly, the products of these genes are themselves involved in the processing and function of RNA (S4 Fig) [19]. Given that H2A. B. 3 is targeted to a gene concurrent with its activation [3], this raises the possibility that H2A. B. 3 may be incorporated into the body of a gene as a result of transcriptional elongation. Also consistent with this notion is that H2A. B. 3 is associated with genes that are highly transcribed. Intriguingly though, H2A. B. 3 is not incorporated into the +1 nucleosome, a nucleosome that displays a high occupancy but is also proposed to have a high turn over rate [41]. Therefore, simply a higher rate of nucleosome turnover may not be sufficient to incorporate H2A. B. 3 suggesting that other, currently unknown, mechanisms may be involved in delivering H2A. B. 3 to the body of a gene. Alternatively, other mechanisms may prevent H2A. B. 3 from being incorporated into the +1 nucleosome. Based on our findings that H2A. B. 3: 1) is bound to chromatin (Fig 6b), 2) is located in the body of an active gene (Fig 1), 3) interacts with RNA processing factors (Fig 4, Table 1), 4) binds to RNA, which inhibits its interaction with RNA processing factors and RNA Pol II (Fig 5a, 5c and 5d), 5) associates with mRNA in vivo (Fig 5f and 5g), 6) co-localises with splicing speckles (Fig 6) and 7) replaces H2A. Z concurrent with gene activation (Fig 2), we propose the following speculative model (Fig 7). Following the replacement of H2A. Z with H2A. B. 3 to assemble active chromatin, H2A. B. 3 directly recruits splicing factors from splicing speckles to an active gene. Upon transcriptional elongation and the synthesis of transcript RNA, H2A. B. 3 binds and ‘holds’ onto the RNA thus releasing the splicing factors to facilitate the splicing process. In conclusion, H2A. B. 3 expands the repertoire of histone functions by being involved in the processing and function of RNA. Wild type 28–30 day old male Balb/c mice were used for all testis studies. 6–8 week old mice were used for Hippocampus ChIP and RNA-Seq experiments. Mice were housed according to animal ethics protocol at ANU animal facilities (ANU, Canberra, Australia). The preparation of mononucleosomes from seminiferous tubules, as prepared for ChIP-Seq experiments, was carried out as described recently by us. 10–15μg of anti-H2A. B. 3 or anti-H2A. Z antibody was covalently bound to magnetic Dynabeads using the Dynabeads antibody coupling Kit (Life Technologies) and incubated with 100–200μg of formaldehyde crosslinked nucleosomes (obtained by MNase I digest, see below) in 50 mM Tris-HCl, pH 7. 4,100 mM NaCl, 1% NP-40,0. 1% SDS; 0. 5% sodium deoxycholate, Roche protease inhibitor cocktail for 4 hours at 4°C with rotation. The immunoprecipitated histone variant protein complexes were washed twice in high-salt wash buffer (50 mM Tris-HCl, pH 7. 4; 1 M NaCl; 1 mM EDTA; 1% NP-40; 0. 1% SDS; 0. 5% sodium deoxycholate), and twice with wash buffer (20 mM Tris-HCl, pH 7. 4; 10 mM MgCl2; 0. 2% Tween-20). Beads were resuspended in 20 μl 1x NuPAGE loading buffer (Life Technologies), containing ß-mercaptoethanol, and eluted proteins were loaded on a 4–12% PAGE for electrophoretic separation. The gel was fixed with mass spectrometry-compatible protein stain Instant Blue (Expedeon). Each whole gel lane (H2A. B. 3-IP or H2A. Z-IP) was divided in 10–12 segments. The gel segments were dehydrated with acetonitrile (60μl per gel piece) and then dried using a SpeedVac SC100 (Savant). For mass spectrometry analysis, gel slices were destained, reduced and alkylated following the procedure described by Shevchenko et al. [42]. Samples were made up to 120 μl using 0. 05 M NH4HCO3, and 40 ng of trypsin (Promega) was then added to each gel slice. Samples were incubated for 16 h at 37°C. Each digest solution was removed to a new microfuge tube and the gel slices treated with the following solutions sequentially for 30 min each: 80 μl 0. 1% (v/v) formic acid, 67% (v/v) acetonitrile and 80 μl 100% acetonitrile. The pooled digest and peptide extraction solutions for each sample were then dried (Savant SPD1010, Thermofisher Scientific) before resuspending in 20 μl of 0. 1% (v/v) formic acid. Proteolytic peptide samples were separated by nano-LC using an UltiMate 3000 HPLC and autosampler system (Dionex, Amsterdam, Netherlands), and ionized using positive ion mode electrospray following experimental procedures described previously[43]. Single stage mass spectrometry and MS/MS were performed using an LTQ Orbitrap Velos Pro (Thermo Electron, Bremen, Germany) hybrid linear ion trap and Orbitrap mass spectrometer. Survey scans m/z 350–2000 were acquired in the Orbitrap (resolution = 30 000 at m/z 400, with an initial accumulation target value of 1,000,000 ions in the linear ion trap; lock mass was applied to polycyclodimethylsiloxane background ions of exact m/z 445. 1200 and 429. 0887). Up to the 15 most abundant ions (>5000 counts) with charge states of >+2 were sequentially isolated and fragmented via collision induced dissociation (CID) with an activation q = 0. 25, an activation time of 30 ms, normalized collision energy of 30% and at a target value of 10 000 ions; fragment ions were mass analyzed in the linear ion trap. Peak lists derived from LC-MS/MS were generated using Mascot Daemon/ExtractMSn. exe (Matrix Science, Thermo Electron) and submitted to the database search program Mascot (version 2. 3, Matrix Science) [44]. The following search parameters were employed: instrument type was ESI-TRAP; precursor ion and peptide fragment mass tolerances were ±5 ppm and ±0. 4 Da respectively; variable modifications included were carbamidomethyl (C) and oxidation (M); and enzyme specificity was trypsin with up to 2 missed cleavages. Searches were conducted using the Swiss-Prot database (November 2013 release, 541762 sequence entries); separate searches were conducted against all taxonomies and Mus musculus sequences only. Peptide identifications were considered to be high confidence if they were statistically significant (p<0. 05) according to the Mascot expect metric. Hypotonic spreads of male germ cells were prepared essentially as described[45]. Fixed cells were washed in PBS and then blocked for 1 hour with 3% BSA (w/v) in PBS at room temperature. The primary antibody, which was diluted with 1% BSA (w/v), 0. 1% Tween 20 (v/v) in PBS were applied to slides and incubated for 16 hours at 4°C in a humidity chamber. Following three washes with PBS, slides were incubated with fluorophore-conjugated secondary antibodies for 1 hour at room temperature. Following a further three washes with PBS, slides were incubated in 1 μM DAPI for 2 min. Vectashild (Vecta laboratories) was applied to prevent slides from photo bleaching. Round spermatids were isolated by sedimentation on a BSA gradient as described elsewhere [46]. Subcellular fractionation of round spermatids was carried out in LSBD buffer (50mM Hepes, pH 7; 3mM MgCl2; 20% glycerol (v/v); 1% NP40 (v/v) plus 250 mM KCl to obtain the cytoplasmic and nucleoplasmic fraction or 500mM KCl to obtain the fraction containing loosely bound chromatin proteins. The remaining material was designated as the chromatin fraction. Prior to immunoprecipitation with affinity purified H2A. B. 3 antibodies, the chromatin fraction was sonicated and treated with benzonase (Millipore). Mononucleosomes were prepared from testicular tubules using Micrococcal nuclease I (Mnase I) digestion as described [3]. To prepare chromatin from hippocampal tissues, 10 Balb/c male mice (6–10 weeks old) were decapitated and hippocampi were surgically removed into ice cold Hank' s Balanced Salt Solution (HBSS, Sigma) buffered with 50mM Hepes pH-7. 6 and supplemented with 0. 2 mM PMSF and EDTA-free protein inhibitor cocktail (Roche) ). Hippocampal slices were homogenised in a Dounce homogeniser with 5–10 strokes using pestle A with 4 ml of ice-cold HBSS. Cells were counted and 2–5 x 107 cells were fixed for 12 min with rotation at room temperature in 10 ml of fresh medium HBSS in the presence of 1. 2% (v/v) formaldehyde. Mononucleosomes were obtained by digesting purified nuclei with 2–4 units of MNase I (NEB) at 37C. Total RNA was isolated using TRIzol (Invitrogen) and the RNeasy Mini kit (Qiagen). Samples were treated with TURBO™ DNase (Life Technologies). RNA-Seq libraries (three biological replicates) were prepared using NEBNext mRNA Library Prep kit using oligo-dT enrichment module (New England Biolabs) following manufacturer’s recommendations. Resulted RNA—Seq libraries were sequenced on HiSeq 2000 sequencer (Illumina) using 100 base pairs paired-end reads. Total germ cells from 28–30 day mice testis were UV-irradiated once with 75mJ/cm2 at 254 nm to crosslink RNA/protein complexes in a UV-irradiation oven, Stratalinker 1800, (Stratagene). 3-4x107cells were lysed in 2 ml of lysis buffer (50 mM Tris-HCl pH 7. 6; 100 mM NaCl; 5mM MgCl2; 1% NP-40,1mM DTT, Roche protease inhibitor cocktail, pH 7. 4) for 30 min on ice. Chromatin was mechanically sheared by passing nuclei through a 31G syringe. To remove insoluble material, the lysates were centrifuged at 10,000 g. Half of the supernatant was subjected to RNase I treatment (800 units, Ambion AM2294) for 30 min at 37°C, while the other half was treated in the same way but without the addition of RNase I. The degradation of RNA was monitored by the Qubit HS RNA assay. Both untreated and RNAase I-treated lysates were immunoprecipitated with H2A. B. 3 antibodies exactly as described for IP-MS. To distinguish IPs performed with formalin and UV-crosslinked cells from UV-only-crosslinked cells, we use the term CLIP (UV-cross-linking immuno precipitation) for the latter samples only. For CLIP assays, germ cell lysates were prepared in an identical manner as just described. 0. 25ml of lysate was diluted in 1 ml of 50mM Tris, 100mM NaCl, 5mM MgCl2,1mM DTT for RNase treatement with 400 units of RNase I (Ambion AM2294) for 30 min at 37°C. Treated lysates were immunoprecipitated with equal amount of anti-H2A. B. 3 and anti-H2A. Z antibodies (10μg each), bound to protein A/G dynabeads (Thermo Fisher), for 2 hours. Following washing, twice with high salt wash buffer (50 mm Tris-HCl; 1M NaCl; 5mM MgCl2; 1% NP-40,0. 1% SDS, 0. 5% Na deoxycholate, pH 7. 4) and twice with wash buffer (20mM Tris-HCL, 10mM MgCL2,0. 2% Tween-20, pH 7. 4) ), immunoprecipitated complexes were dephosphorylated on beads using PNK and than the RNA was 5' end labeled with P32 gamma-ATP. Eluted labeled complexes were electrophoresed through SDS-PAGE and transferred onto a nitrocellulose membrane. The same membrane was uses for a western analysis using anti-H2A. B3 and anti-H2AZ antibodies. Histone H2A-H2B (and variant) dimers were produced using standard protocols for refolding of histone complexes [48]. Either a 222 nt or 152 nt RNA was in vitro transcribed from the pcDNA 3. 1 linearised plasmid template containing the RNA probe of interest [35] using a HiScribe T7 Quick High Yield RNA Synthesis Kit (New England Biolabs). The RNA probe was heated at 95°C for 5 min, then rapidly cooled on ice for 2 min just prior to setting up binding experiments. The RNA (20 ng) was then incubated on ice with the relevant histone dimers in binding buffer (10 mM MOPS, pH 7. 5,200 mM NaCl, 5 mM MgCl2,10% glycerol (v/v), 1 mM DTT, 0. 03 mg/ml heparin). The binding reactions were analysed on 5% acrylamide 1x TB gels. Gels were stained with SYBR Gold Nucleic Acid Gel Stain and visualised using a Typhoon FLA 9000. Biotinylated peptides corresponding to the N-terminal tails of histones H2A, H2A. Z, H2A. B, and H2A. B. 3 were purchased from GL Biochem at >90% purity. A Cy3-labelled 25 nt RNA (Cy3-CAGCGACUCGGGUUAUGUGAUGGAC) was purchased from Sigma-Aldrich. The biotinylated peptides (30 pmol) were immobilised on steptavidin-coated M-280 Dynabeads (LifeTechnologies) and incubated with 150 pmol of the Cy3-labelled RNA in binding buffer for 1 hr at room temperature. The beads were then washed three times with binding buffer. Following the final wash, the beads were resuspended in Novex TBE-urea Sample Buffer (Life Technologies), heated at 70°C for 2 min and then run on 15% Novex TBE-urea gels (Life Technologies). Cy3 fluorescence was visualised on a Typhoon FLA 9000. Antibodies used were as follows. Anti-H2A. B. 3[3], Anti-H2A. Z [49], Anti-H3K36me3 (ab9050), Anti-Smith Antigen [Y12] (ab3138); Anti-H2A (ab18255), anti-H3 (ab1791), anti-RNA PolII (phospho S2) (ab5095), anti-RNA PolII (phospho S5) (ab5131), anti-Rent1 (ab109363), anti-Snrpa1 (ab128937), anti-U1A (ab155054), anti-SPT6 (ab32820), anti-Symplekin (ab80274), anti-SAP18 (ab31748) and anti-Sf3b155 (ab66774), all from Abcam. Anti-DDX39A (PA5-31220, Pierce), anti-sheep-HRP (AP324R; Chemicon), anti-rabbit-HRP (AP322P; Chemicon). Chip-Seq reads were adaptor trimmed and mapped to the genome using Bowtie2[50]. Paired end reads were converted to single spanning fragments. Coverage bedGraphs were generated. Plots of the mean coverage anchored at genomic landmarks (the intron—exon boundaryor the TSS) for a span of +1000 to -1000 base pairs by aligning local coverage at these landmarks genome-wide using UCSC genes canonical transcript annotations. Units of RPM (mean reads per base pair per million reads mapped) were used normalised by the total mapped library size. Metagenes plots were generated by scaling exons to the same normalised x-axis from 0 to 1. Intron—exon boundaries that are alternatively spliced in mouse hippocampus and testes were determined from paired-end RNA-Seq, which was adaptor, trimmed by Trimmomatic[51] in palindromic mode and mapped using Bowtie 2. Alternatively spliced exons were called using the MATS software[52]; a constitutive set was formed by removing alternative sites that overlapped the UCSC annotations. To test whether H2A. B. 3 coverage over exons was correlated with alternative or constitutive splicing, the mean RPM H2A. B. 3 coverage was compared over the exons (bases 0 to 150 downstream of the intron-exon junction) of alternatively spliced versus and constitutively spliced axons. To ensure the sets were comparable and not confounded by possible biases toward a higher expression level for the alternative spliced set, the larger constitutive set was subsampled to the same size as the alternative spliced set such that it had a matched distribution of gene expression levels. Alternatively spliced exons were called using the Multivariate Analysis of Transcript Splicing (MATS) software. This was applied to stranded RNA-seq data (three replicates per tissue). Skipped" cassette" exons were identified to define AS sites. A constitutive set was formed by removing these alternative sites from the full set of UCSC intron-exon annotations. Inclusion fraction relative to the flanking constitutive exons was estimated for each cassette exon by the MATS software. RNA-IP data was mapped with Tophat [53] using bowtie2. Adapters were trimmed using Trimmomatic. To compare correlations between two ChIP-Seq data sets relative to the intron to exon boundary, we performed Pearson correlation between the vectors of mean coverage formed over a fixed window of size 50 base pairs at a given distance from the intron—exon anchor. To determine if exons versus introns gained H2A. B. 3 preferentially, the association between mean H2A. B. 3/input ratio (in RPM) and log expression from RNA-Seq data (RPM) was calculated for a 1kb flanking window around all intron-exon boundaries. At each base position relative to the intron exon-boundary, a linear model was fitted to the H2A. B. 3/input ratio versus gene log expression and the gradient of the fitted model plotted (using the mean H2A. B. 3/input ratio value in a sliding 20 bp window around each bp). To determine if exons versus introns gained H2A. B. 3 preferentially, the association between mean H2A. B. 3/input ratio (in RPM) and log expression from RNA-Seq data (RPM) was calculated for a 1kb flanking window around all intron-exon boundaries. At each base position relative to the intron-exon boundary, a linear model was fit to the H2A. B. 3/input ratio versus gene log expression, using the mean H2A. B. 3/input ratio value in a sliding 20 bp window around each bp, and the slope of the fitted model plotted. When overlapping RNA-IP data with H2A. B. 3 ChIP-Seq data over gene bodies and promoters (-1000 bp upstream of TSS), a minimum coverage of 30 reads per base was used, which was above background reads. To determine the percentage of H2A. B. 3 expression compared to the total H2A pool, the mean TPM was determined for all different H2A subtype genes expressed.

Title: A new link between transcriptional initiation and pre-mRNA splicing: The RNA binding histone variant H2A.B Summary: The substitution of core histones with their non-allelic variant forms plays a particular important role in regulating chromatin function because they can directly alter the structure of chromatin, and provide new protein interaction interfaces for the recruitment of proteins involved in gene expression. Despite being discovered over a decade ago, the function of H2A. B, a variant of the H2A class, in its proper physiological context (being expressed in the testis and the brain) is unknown. We provide strong evidence that H2A. B has a role in the processing of RNA. It is found in the gene body of an active gene, directly interacts with RNA polymerase II and splicing factors and is located in the nucleus at distinct regions enriched with RNA processing factors (splicing speckles). Most significantly, we show that H2A. B can directly bind to RNA both in vitro and in germ cells. Therefore, H2A. B has the novel ability to bind to both RNA and DNA (as well as proteins) thus directly linking chromatin structure with the function of RNA. Taken together, this suggests that a special mechanism of splicing may operate in the testis and brain.

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Summarize: Two were arrested on Dick Cheney's lawn as dozens gathered outside the former vice president's home to protest torture on Saturday. The crowd of 20 demonstrators was there to mark the 13th anniversary of the opening of the Guantanamo Bay detention camp and protest the torture of detainees held by the United States. The protesters, some clad in orange jumpsuits reminiscent of those worn by inmates at Guantanamo, along with black hoods, walked across the snow-covered lawn of Cheney's home in McLean, Virginia. Scroll down for video. Protest: A crowd of 20 demonstrators gathered at Dick Cheney's home on the 14th anniversary of the opening of the Guantanamo Bay detention camp to protest the torture of detainees held by the United States. Code Pink, the group organizing the demonstration, also had members in front of the home of CIA Director John Brennan, calling it their 'Guantanamo Anniversary Weekend Torturers Tour.' A 6,000-page report from the US Senate released last month detailed how the CIA misled the White House and public about the detention and torture of prisoners held as part of the War on Terror. The report included instances of'rectal feeding' and'rectal rehydration,' and said in some cases detainees were kept awake for up to a week. On Fox News, Cheney called the report 'full of crap' and 'deeply flawed,' though he admitted he had only'seen parts' and'read summaries.' He also defended the techniques used on detainees as'successful.' 'The question is what are you prepared to do in order to get the truth about future attacks against the United States,' he said to Fox News host Bret Baier. This is in spite of findings in the report that showed torture techniques to be ineffective at creating actionable intelligence, and instead leading detainees to stop talking or fabricate information. Lineup: Protesters posed as Guantanamo detainees and held signs across from Cheney's home. Deeply flawed: Former vice president Cheney called the Senate report on torture 'full of crap' and claimed that torture was successful in stopped attacks on the US, though no evidence has yet been presented. The Guardian reports that Senator Dianne Feinstein claimed investigators could not find one instance where torture produced intelligence used to prevent future attacks that had not already been obtained through other means. The Senate report also found that at least 26 of the 119 prisoners believed to have been detained at Guantanamo were 'wrongfully held.' Fairfax County police spokesman Roger Henriquez said that police arrested two protesters who refused to leave the property after being asked to leave. Code Pink identified the two as Tighe Barry, 57, and Eve Tetaz, 83, and told Reuters they were unfairly singled out

Summary: Two were arrested during a protest by Code Pink at the McLean, Virginia, home. The group also protested at the home of CIA Director John Brennan and called it the Guantanamo Anniversary Weekend Torturers Tour. Last month, a report from the US Senate detailed torture techniques used against detainees that included'rectal rehydration' and'rectal feeding' The report alleged 26 prisoners detained at Guantanamo were 'wrongfully held' and that there was no evidence that torture helped prevent attacked.

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Summarize: Background NEDCTP’s mission is to deter and detect the introduction of explosive devices into U.S. transportation systems. As of February 2016, NEDCTP has deployed 787 of the 997 canine teams for which it has funding available in fiscal year 2016 across transportation systems. There are four types of LEO canine teams: aviation, mass transit, maritime, and multimodal; and two types of TSI canine teams: multimodal and PSC. Table 1 shows the number of canine teams by type for which funding is available, describes their roles and responsibilities, and costs per team to TSA. TSA’s start-up costs for LEO teams include the costs of training the canine and handler, and providing the handler’s agency a stipend. The annual costs to TSA for LEO teams reflect the amount of the stipend. TSA’s start-up and annual costs for TSI canine teams are greater than those for LEO teams, because TSI handlers are TSA employees and therefore the costs include the handlers’ pay and benefits, service vehicles, and cell phones, among other things. PSC teams come at an increased cost to TSA compared with other TSI teams because of the additional 2 weeks of training and costs associated with providing decoys (i.e., persons pretending to be passengers who walk around the airport with explosive training aids). In fiscal year 2016, approximately $121.7 million of amounts appropriated to TSA were available for its canine program. For fiscal year 2017, TSA is requesting approximately $131.4 million, a $9.7 million increase compared to the prior fiscal year. According to a TSA official, the increase is for projected pay increases and 16 additional positions to support canine training and operations, among other things. Figure 1 shows LEO, TSI, and PSC teams performing searches in different environments. Conventional canines undergo 15 weeks of explosives detection training, and PSCs 25 weeks, before being paired with a handler at TSA’s Canine Training Center (CTC), located at Lackland Air Force Base. Conventional canine handlers attend a 10-week training course, and PSC handlers attend a 12-week training course. The 2 additional weeks are used to train PSC teams in actual work environments. Canines are paired with a LEO or TSI handler during their training course. After canine teams complete this training, and obtain initial certification, they acclimate to their home operating environment for a 30-day period. Upon completion of the acclimation period, CTC conducts a 3-day operational transitional assessment to ensure canine teams are not experiencing any performance challenges in their home operating environment. After initial certification, canine teams are evaluated on an annual basis to maintain certification. During conventional explosives detection evaluations, canine teams must demonstrate their ability to detect all the explosive training aids the canines were trained to detect in five search areas (e.g., aircraft). The five search areas are randomly selected among all the possible types of search areas, but according to CTC, include the area that is most relevant to the type of canine team. For example, teams assigned to airports will be evaluated in areas such as aircraft and cargo. Canine teams must find a certain percentage of the explosive training aids to pass their annual conventional evaluation. In addition, a specified number of nonproductive responses—when a canine responds to a location where no explosives odor is present—are allowed. After passing the conventional evaluation, PSC teams are required to undergo an additional annual evaluation that includes detecting explosives on a person, or being carried by a person. PSC teams are tested in different locations within the sterile areas and passenger screening checkpoints of an airport. A certain number of persons with explosive training aids must be detected, and a specified number of nonproductive responses are allowed for PSC certification. TSA Has Taken Steps Since 2013 to Enhance Its Canine Program, but Further Opportunities May Exist to Assess the Program and Reduce Costs TSA has taken steps to enhance NEDCTP since we issued our 2013 report. For example, TSA has used data, such as the results of covert tests, to assess the proficiency and utilization of its canine teams. However, further opportunities exist for TSA to assess its program related to the use and cost of PSC teams. TSA Uses Data to Assess Canine Team Proficiency and Utilization In January 2013, we reported that TSA collected and used key canine program data in its Canine Website System (CWS), a central management database, but it could better analyze these data to identify program trends. For example, we found that TSA did not analyze training minute data over time (from month to month) and therefore was unable to determine trends related to canine teams’ compliance with the requirement to train 240 minutes each month. Similarly, TSA collected monthly data on the amount of cargo TSI teams screened in accordance with the agency’s requirement, but had not analyzed these data over time to determine if, for example, changes were needed in the screening requirement or the number of teams deployed. Table 2 highlights some of the key data elements included in CWS at the time of our prior review. In January 2013, we recommended that TSA regularly analyze available data to identify program trends and areas that are working well and those in need of corrective action to guide program resources and activities. These analyses could include, but not be limited to, analyzing and documenting trends in proficiency training minutes, canine utilization, results of short notice assessments (covert tests) and final canine responses, performance differences between LEO and TSI canine teams, as well as an assessment of the optimum location and number of canine teams that should be deployed to secure the U.S. transportation system. TSA concurred with our recommendation, and in June 2014 we reported on some of the steps it had taken to implement the recommendation. Specifically, TSA monitored canine teams training minutes over time by producing annual reports. For example, TSA analyzed canine teams’ compliance with the training requirement throughout fiscal year 2013 to identify teams repeatedly not in compliance with the monthly requirement. Field Canine Coordinators subsequently completed comprehensive assessment reviews for their canine teams, which involved reporting on the teams that did not meet the requirement. TSA also reinstated short notice assessments in July 2013, since they had suspended them in May 2012. We reported that in the event a team fails a short notice assessment, the Field Canine Coordinator completes a report that includes an analysis of the team’s training records to identify an explanation for the failure. According to TSA officials, in March 2014, NEDCTP stood up a new office, known as the Performance Measurement Section, to perform analyses of canine team data. Those actions, among others, addressed the intent of our recommendation by positioning TSA to identify program trends to better target resources and activities based on what is working well and what may need corrective action. Therefore, we closed the recommendation as implemented in August 2014. Since we closed the recommendation, according to TSA officials, the agency has continued to take steps to enhance its canine program. For example, TSA eliminated the monthly 240-minute training requirement and instead requires canine teams to train on all explosives training aids they must be able to detect, in all search areas (e.g., aircraft), every 45 days. In April 2015, TSA also eliminated canine teams’ requirement to screen a certain volume of air cargo. Instead, TSA requires TSI-led canine teams to spend at least 40 percent of their time on utilization activities, such as patrolling airport terminals and screening air cargo. Canine teams can spend the rest of the time on administrative activities, such as taking their canine to the veterinarian. Handlers record their daily activities in a web-based system, which allow TSA to assess how the canine teams are being used. According to TSA, utilization time increased five percent in fiscal year 2015 since the requirement changed. In February 2016, TSA officials told us that starting in fiscal year 2016, TSA increased the number of short notice assessments required from two to five per year for each state and local law enforcement agency that participates in NEDCTP. According to a TSA official, the number was increased since TSA believes such assessments are helpful in determining the proficiency of canine teams. Furthermore, CTC placed 34 Regional Canine Training Instructors in the field to review canine teams’ training records and assist them in resolving any performance challenges, such as challenges in detecting a particular explosive aid. TSA has Deployed PSC Teams to the Highest-Risk Airports We also reported in January 2013 that TSA’s 2012 Strategic Framework called for the deployment of PSC teams based on risk; however, airport stakeholder concerns about the appropriateness of TSA’s protocols for resolving PSC team responses resulted in these teams not being deployed to the highest-risk airports or utilized for passenger screening. We recommended that TSA coordinate with airport stakeholders to deploy future PSC teams to the highest-risk airports, and ensure that deployed PSC teams are utilized as intended, consistent with the agency’s statutory authority to provide for the screening of passengers and their property. TSA concurred with our recommendation, and in June 2014, we reported that the PSC teams for which TSA had funding and not already deployed to a specific airport at the time our 2013 report had been deployed to or allocated to the highest-risk airports. We also reported that, according to TSA officials, of all the airports where PSC teams had been deployed, all but one airport had agreed to allow TSA to conduct screening of individuals using PSC teams at passenger screening checkpoint queues. According to TSA, the agency was successful in deploying PSC teams to airports where they were previously declined by aviation stakeholders for various reasons. For example, TSA officials explained that stakeholders have realized that PSCs are an effective means for detecting explosives odor, and no checkpoints have closed because of a nonproductive response. In January 2015, we closed the recommendation as implemented after TSA deployed all remaining PSC teams (those which had previously been allocated) to the highest-risk airports and all PSC teams were being utilized for passenger screening. Since we closed the recommendation, TSA has continued to allocate and deploy additional PSC teams for which it has received funding to the highest-risk airports based on its assessment of how high the risks are to particular airports. In addition, from November 2015 to January 2016, TSA relocated PSC teams located at 7 lower-risk airports to higher-risk airports. As a result, TSA has PSC teams deployed at nearly all category X airports, which are generally higher-risk airports. According to TSA officials, all category X airports will have PSC teams by the end of calendar year 2016. Further Opportunities May Exist for TSA to Assess Its Canine Program and Reduce Costs In our January 2013 report, we found that TSA began deploying PSC teams in April 2011 prior to determining the teams’ operational effectiveness, and had not completed an assessment to determine where within the airport PSC teams would be most effectively utilized. In June 2012, the DHS Science and Technology Directorate (S&T) and TSA began conducting effectiveness assessments to help demonstrate the effectiveness of PSC teams, but the assessment was not inclusive of all areas of the airport (i.e., the sterile area, passenger screening checkpoint, and public side of the airport). During the June 2012 assessment of PSC teams’ effectiveness, TSA conducted one of the search exercises used for the assessment with three conventional canine teams. Although this assessment was not intended to be included as part of DHS S&T and TSA’s formal assessment of PSC effectiveness, the results of this assessment suggested, and TSA officials and DHS S&T’s Canine Explosives Detection Project Manager agreed, that a systematic assessment with both PSCs and conventional canines could provide TSA with information to determine whether PSCs provide an enhanced security benefit compared with conventional LEO aviation canine teams that have already been deployed to airport terminals. As a result, we recommended that TSA expand and complete testing, in conjunction with DHS S&T, to assess the effectiveness of PSCs and conventional canines in all airport areas deemed appropriate prior to making additional PSC deployments to help (1) determine whether PSCs are effective at screening passengers, and resource expenditures for PSC training are warranted, and (2) inform decisions regarding the type of canine team to deploy and where to optimally deploy such teams within airports. TSA concurred, and we testified in June 2014 that through its PSC Focused Training and Assessment Initiative—a two-cycle assessment to establish airport-specific optimal working areas, assess team performance, and train teams on best practices—TSA had determined that PSC teams are effective and should be deployed at the passenger checkpoint queue. Furthermore, in February 2014, TSA launched a third PSC assessment cycle to increase the amount of time canines can work and enhance their ability to detect explosives placed in areas more challenging to detect. Since our June 2014 testimony, TSA has continued to carry out the third assessment cycle. According to TSA officials, as of February 2016, 68 PSC teams have undergone the assessment. Additionally, TSA officials told us they began a fourth assessment cycle in January 2016 to test PSC teams and all other canine teams on threats identified through intelligence. Although TSA has taken steps to determine whether PSC teams are effective and where in the airport environment to optimally deploy such teams, TSA has not compared the effectiveness of PSCs and conventional canines in order to determine if the greater cost of training canines in the passenger screening method is warranted. In June 2014, we reported that TSA did not plan to include conventional canine teams in PSC assessments because conventional canines have not been through the process used with PSCs to assess their temperament and behavior when working in proximity to people. We acknowledged TSA’s position that half of deployed conventional canines are of a breed not accepted for use in the PSC program, but noted that other conventional canines are suitable breeds, and have been paired with LEO aviation handlers working in proximity with people since they patrol airport terminals, including ticket counters and curbside areas. In December 2014, TSA reported that it did not intend to include conventional canine teams in PSC assessments and cited concerns about the liability of operating conventional canines in an unfamiliar passenger screening environment. In January 2015, we closed the recommendation as not implemented, reiterating that conventional canines paired with LEO handlers work in close proximity with people since, like PSCs, they also patrol airport terminals. Consistent with our recommendation, we continue to believe that opportunities exist for TSA to conduct an assessment to determine whether conventional canines are as effective at detecting explosives odor on passengers when compared to PSC teams working in specific areas, such as the passenger checkpoint queue. If such an assessment were to indicate that conventional canines are equally as effective at detecting explosives odor on passengers as PSCs, then limiting proficiency training requirements of PSCs to those that currently apply to conventional canine teams could save TSA costs associated with maintaining PSC teams. Also, as we reported in January 2013, TSA was considering providing some PSCs to LEOs to work on the public side of the airport. Should TSA determine that the additional investment for PSCs is warranted, it could reduce the agency’s program costs if it deployed PSCs with LEO handlers rather than TSI handlers. Specifically, TSA could save approximately $100,000 per team each year, as a PSC team led by a LEO handler would cost TSA about $54,000 annually (the amount of the stipend), compared with about $154,000, the annual cost per TSI-led PSC team (see table 1). Chairman Johnson, Ranking Member Carper, and Members of the committee, this completes my prepared statement. I would be happy to respond to any questions you may have at this time. GAO Contact and Staff Acknowledgments For questions about this statement, please contact Jennifer Grover at (202) 512-7141 or [email protected]. Contact points for our Offices of Congressional Relations and Public Affairs may be found on the last page of this statement. Individuals making key contributions to this statement include Chris Ferencik (Assistant Director), Chuck Bausell, Lisa Canini, Michele Fejfar, Eric Hauswirth, Susan Hsu, Richard Hung, Brendan Kretzschmar, Thomas Lombardi, and Ben Nelson. Key contributors for the previous work that this testimony is based on are listed in those products. This is a work of the U.S. government and is not subject to copyright protection in the United States. The published product may be reproduced and distributed in its entirety without further permission from GAO. However, because this work may contain copyrighted images or other material, permission from the copyright holder may be necessary if you wish to reproduce this material separately.

Summary: TSA has implemented a multilayered system composed of people, processes, and technology to protect the nation's transportation systems. One of TSA's security layers is comprised of nearly 800 deployed explosives detection canine teams-a canine paired with a handler. These teams include PSC teams trained to detect explosives on passengers and conventional canines trained to detect explosives in objects, such as cargo. In January 2013, GAO issued a report on TSA's explosives detection canine program. This testimony addresses the steps TSA has taken since 2013 to enhance its canine program and further opportunities to assess the program. This statement is based on GAO's January 2013 report, a June 2014 testimony, and selected updates conducted in February 2016 on canine training and operations. The products cited in this statement provide detailed information on GAO's scope and methodology. For the selected updates, GAO reviewed the president's fiscal year 2017 budget request for TSA and interviewed TSA officials on changes made to NEDCTP since June 2014, the last time GAO reported on the program. The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has taken steps to enhance its National Explosives Detection Canine Team Program (NEDCTP) since GAO's 2013 report, but further opportunities exist for TSA to assess its canine program and potentially reduce costs. TSA Uses Data to Assess Canine Team Proficiency and Utilization: In January 2013, GAO reported that TSA needed to take actions to analyze NEDCTP data and ensure canine teams are effectively utilized. GAO recommended that TSA regularly analyze available data to identify program trends and areas that are working well and those in need of corrective action to guide program resources and activities. TSA concurred, and in June 2014, GAO reported that the agency had taken actions that address the recommendation. GAO subsequently closed the recommendation as implemented in August 2014. Since then, according to TSA officials, the agency has continued to enhance its canine program. For example, TSA reported that it requires canine teams to train on all explosives training aids they must be able to detect-any explosive used to test and train a canine-in all search areas (e.g., aircraft), every 45 days. TSA has Deployed PSC Teams to the Highest-Risk Airports: GAO found in January 2013 that passenger screening canine (PSC) teams were not being deployed to the highest-risk airports as called for in TSA's 2012 Strategic Framework or utilized for passenger screening. GAO recommended that TSA coordinate with airport stakeholders to deploy future PSC teams to the highest-risk airports and ensure that deployed teams were utilized as intended. TSA concurred, and in June 2014, GAO reported that PSC teams had been deployed or allocated to the highest-risk airports. In January 2015, GAO closed the recommendation as implemented after TSA deployed all remaining PSC teams to the highest-risk airports and all teams were being utilized for passenger screening. Opportunities May Exist for TSA to Reduce Canine Program Costs: GAO reported in 2013 that TSA began deploying PSC teams prior to determining their operational effectiveness and identifying where within the airport these teams would be most effectively utilized. GAO recommended that TSA take actions to comprehensively assess the effectiveness of PSCs. TSA concurred and has taken steps to determine the effectiveness of PSC teams and where in the airport to optimally deploy such teams. However, TSA did not compare the effectiveness of PSCs and conventional canines in detecting explosives odor on passengers to determine if the greater cost of training PSCs is warranted. In December 2014, TSA reported that it did not intend to do this assessment because of the liability of using conventional canines to screen persons when they had not been trained to do so. GAO closed the recommendation as not implemented, stating that conventional canines currently work in close proximity with people as they patrol airport terminals, including ticket counters and curbside areas. GAO continues to believe that opportunities may exist for TSA to reduce costs if conventional canines are found to be as effective at detecting explosives odor on passengers as PSCs.

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Summarize: BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION The present invention relates to a seating arrangement as a piece of seating furniture or for placing on a piece of seating furniture, having a seat part which can be pivoted about at least one shaft, transversely to the seating direction, in relation to a support element. Such seating arrangements are available on the market, and in common use, in a wide variety of different forms and configurations. For this purpose, you are referred to German Utility Model DE 299 01 774 and to German Patent Application DE 100 03 843. These describe a similar seating arrangement for placing on a piece of seating furniture, for example, as a dynamic seating aid. The disadvantage is that, in particular, a linear movement of the seat part only takes place with very high outlay in terms of equipment, which is undesirable. For this purpose, a very large number of components are necessary in order for an adjustment of the seat part in a linear manner in relation to a support element to be allowed and, at the same time, secured. DE 299 01 774 describes a seating arrangement which is intended for placing on a piece of seating furniture and in the case of which the seat part can be displaced with latching action in three different steps in relation to the support part. FR 1 318 720 describes a piece of seating furniture of which the seat surface can be inclined about an axis. U.S. Pat. No. 5,024,485 discloses a support for a piece of seating furniture, on the support surface of which two separate seat parts can be inclined independently of one another about an axis. A similar piece of seating furniture is described in WO 93/19648. The object of the present invention is to provide a seating arrangement of the type mentioned in the introduction which does away with the abovementioned disadvantages and by means of which it is easily possible for the seat part to be moved in relation to the support element, with the result that the seat part is easy to operate and cost-effective to produce. It is further intended for damping and adjustment of the inclination of the seat part in relation to a support element to be possible in a very cost-effective, straightforward and effective manner. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION The present invention is an improvement of the seating arrangement described in DE 100 03 843 which is incorporated herein by reference. The essential feature of the present invention is that, by means of an adjusting device which may be designed as a self-locking gear mechanism, the seat part is adjusted in a stepless manner in the seating direction in relation to the support element. It is possible here for the seat part to be moved back and forth in a stepless and self-locking manner by the actuation of an actuating element. In this case, an adjusting device is preferably arranged diagonally on the seat part, in which case a drive slide can be moved in relation to an accommodating bearing. The drive slide is driven via a spindle element by virtue of the shaft being rotated. The slide is moved back and forth along the shaft by the movement of the spindle element, and thus displaces the seat part in the the drive slide exerts pressure on the accommodating bearings of the adjusting device. It is thus possible, in a self-locking manner, for a stepless movement of the seat part to take place in relation to the support element, since the seat part is likewise mounted on the shaft via bearing elements with slots. It has further proven particularly advantageous in the case of the present invention for at least one damping element, which is for example pneumatically actuatable, to be arranged between the seat part and support element. This makes it possible to damp a tilting movement of the seat part in relation to the support element or for a quite specific inclination or an angle of inclination of the seat part to be set in a defined manner in relation to the support element. The damping elements are preferably secured between the seat part and support element by means of fixed/moveable bearing arrangements and guided linearly in the seating direction, if appropriate, in guide rails, guide elements or the like, in order that the seat part can still be moved linearly in relation to the support element. The damping elements may be cylinder elements, damping members, for example also rubber cylinders, rubber balls, etc., which can be actuated in a manual and/or elastic and also compressible or non-compressible manner. The idea of the present invention is also intended to cover the position of a plurality of adjusting devices, which may be spaced apart from one another, for example, in the region of the bearing elements. It should also lie within the scope of the present invention for it to be possible for the seating arrangement to be designed as an independent piece of seating furniture or for placing on a piece of seating furniture. If the seating arrangement is designed as a piece of seating furniture, then it is possible, for example, for a chair framework, chair legs or an office-chair support structure to be connected to the support element from beneath. If the seating arrangement is designed as a support for subsequently placing on a piece of seating furniture, then it is possible for the support element just to rest thereon or to be spaced apart from an underlying surface, for example, by means of base elements (not illustrated). This should likewise lie within the scope of the present invention. It has also proven advantageous to ensure linear guidance by means of adjacent bearing elements which are in contact with one another and belong to the seat part and support element. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS Further advantages, features and details of the invention can be gathered from the following description of preferred exemplary embodiments and with reference to the drawings, in which: FIG. 1 shows a schematically illustrated perspective view of a seating arrangement; FIG. 2 shows a schematically illustrated plan view of the seating arrangement according to FIG. 1 ; FIG. 3 shows a schematically illustrated front view of the seating arrangement according to FIGS. 1 and 2 ; FIG. 4 shows a schematically illustrated side view of the seating arrangement according to FIGS. 1 and 2 ; FIG. 5 shows a schematically illustrated rear view of the seating arrangement according to FIGS. 1 and 2 ; FIG. 6 shows a schematically illustrated side view of a further exemplary embodiment of the seating arrangement according to FIGS. 1 and 2 ; FIG. 7 shows a schematically illustrated side view of a further exemplary embodiment of the seating arrangement according to FIGS. 1 and 2 ; FIG. 8 shows a schematically illustrated side view of the seating arrangement according to FIG. 6 in a different use position; and FIG. 9 shows a rear view of the seating arrangement according to FIG. 6 in a rest position. DETAILED DESCRIPTION According to FIG. 1, a seating arrangement R 1 according to the invention has a seat part 2 which can be tilted via a shaft 3, transversely to a seating direction X, in relation to a support element 8. The shaft 3 is mounted in a radially moveable manner in bearing elements 1. 1, 1. 2 and is secured in an axially non-displaceable manner therein. Connected to the end side of the shaft 3 is an actuating element 4, which may be a grip element, a handle, a hand wheel, an electrically operated motor or the like, for the purpose of rotating the shaft 3 radially. The bearing elements 1. 1, 1. 2 are fixed to the support element 8. The seat part 2 is likewise assigned bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2, which are fixed to the seat part 2, in particular a bottom surface. In this case, the bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2 are provided with a slot 6, in which the shaft 3 and the bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2 are mounted such that they can be moved back and forth linearly in the seating direction X. Furthermore, a securing device 7 is provided outside the region of the shaft 3, preferably in the center, a securing shaft 9 being mounted in a rotatable manner in bearing blocks 10, and a stub element 21 for spacing-apart and fixing purposes preventing of a tilting movement about the shaft 3 of the seat part 2 in relation to the support element 8 and/or setting a fixed position. The essential factor, however, in the case of the present invention, as is indicated in particular also in FIG. 2, is for the seat part 2 preferably to be assigned an adjusting device 11, which is assigned to the seat part 2 preferably diagonally to the seating direction X. In this case, the adjusting device 11 is formed from a drive slide 12 which is mounted such that it can be displaced in a groove 12, in the Y-direction illustrated, in relation to at least one accommodating bearing 13. The shaft 3 engages merely in the drive slide 12 and is designed as a spindle element 15 at least in the region of the adjusting device 11. In this case, the spindle element 15 engages in a corresponding matching thread (not illustrated specifically here) of the drive slide 12. The present invention functions as follows: By virtue of the shaft 3 or of the spindle element 5 being rotated by means of the actuating element 4, in a manual and/or automatic, for example electrically operated, manner, the drive slide 12, depending on the direction of rotation of the shaft 3, is moved back and forth axially on the latter. By virtue of the axial back and forth movement of the drive slide 12, and in particular by virtue of the diagonal arrangement of the adjusting device 11, the drive slide 12 exerts pressure on the accommodating bearings 13 and thus moves the seat part 2 in the seating direction X in relation to the support element 8. In this case, the shaft 3, rather than being mounted in an axially moveable manner in the bearing elements 1. 1, 1. 2, is mounted in a merely radially moveable manner therein. The exemplary embodiment of the present invention according to FIG. 3 illustrates how the adjusting device 11 with drive slide 12 and accommodating bearing 13 is arranged on the bottom of the seat part 2. It can also be seen that the bearing elements 1. 1, 1. 2 of the support element 8 directly adjoin the bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2 of the seat part 2. The shaft 3 engages in the corresponding slots 6 of the bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2. In order to assist linear guidance and, in particular, linear movement of the seat part 2 in the seating direction X illustrated, see FIGS. 1 and 2, in relation to the support element 8, additional bearing elements 1. 3 and 1. 4 may be assigned to the support element 8, with the result that the bearing elements 5. 1, 5. 2 of the seat part 2 are guided linearly in a precisely fitting manner therebetween, thus permitting merely a linear movement of the seat part 2 and/or a tilting movement about the shaft 3, in the seating direction X illustrated, in relation to the support element 8. FIG. 4 illustrates, in the side view, how it is possible for the securing device 7 to secure a tilting movement in at least one direction. FIG. 5 shows the corresponding rear view of the arrangement R 1, which is approximately symmetrical to the front view according to FIG. 3. In the exemplary embodiments of the present invention according to FIGS. 6 and 7, at least one damping element 16. 1, 16. 2, which is preferably designed as a pneumatic cylinder, is inserted between the seat part and support element 8 of the arrangements R 2 and R 3. It is also possible here for the damping element 16. 1, 16. 2 to be of elastic nature. In FIG. 7, in each case two damping elements 16. 1, 16. 2 are arranged between the seat part 2 and support element 8, on either side of the shaft 3 in each case. The two damping elements 16. 1, 16. 2 can preferably be actuated pneumatically by manual and/or automatic means, for example using an electrically operated air pump. A manually or automatically actuatable restrictor valve 17 may be assigned directly or indirectly to the damping element 16. 1, 16. 2 in order, for example in the case of pressure activation, for air to be let slowly out of the damping element 16. 1, 16. 2, so as to damp a movement, in particular a tilting movement of the seat part 2 about the shaft 3 in relation to the support element 8. It is also possible for a quite specific inclination of the seat part 2, as is illustrated for example in FIG. 8, to be secured in a desired position by virtue of the restrictor valve 17 being closed. If two damping elements 16. 1, 16. 2 are [lacuna], as is illustrated for example in FIG. 7, then these may be connected to one another via a connecting line 18, which is indicated here by dashed lines, with the result that, for example in the case of a tilting movement in the case of, for example, one damping element 16. 1 being compressed, the air passes into the expanding damping element 16. 2 via the restrictor valve 17 and the connecting line 18 and damping is possible as a result. Furthermore, it should be possible for the damping elements 16. 1, 16. 2 also to be operated by means of non-compressible media, for example hydraulic fluids or the like. Damping then takes place via the corresponding restrictor valve, by means of which it is possible to make a precise setting as to how quickly or with what level of damping the seat part 2 is to be tilted about the shaft 3 in relation to the support element 8. Once a desired inclination of the seat part 2 has been achieved, then the restrictor valve 17 is closed. In particular in the case of non-compressible media, it is then no longer possible for the seat part 2 to be moved in relation to the support element 8. It may thus be advantageous to use compressible media, such as gas or, in particular, air, in order also to ensure a certain rocking action of the seat part 2 when someone is sitting thereon. This should likewise lie within the scope of the present invention. Furthermore, it should be possible for the damping elements 16. 1, 16. 2 to be fixed to the seat part 2 and connected to the support element 8 such that they can be moved linearly in the seating direction X, it then being possible for an articulation 19 to be connected to the support element 8 as a moveable bearing, for example, such that it can be guided linearly in the seating direction X. The guidance is illustrated, for example, in FIG. 9, the articulation 19 being mounted such that it can be moved linearly in guide rails 20. In FIGS. 7 and 8, the idea is for the damping element 16. 1 to be fixed to the support element 8 and for the articulation 19 to be secured in an articulated manner, for linear displacement, to the seat part 2. This may likewise take place, as is not illustrated any more specifically here, via the guide rails 20 illustrated in FIG. 9. It should also be possible to use corresponding guide grooves or the like. The invention should not be limited in any way here. In the case of the present invention, the seating arrangement R 1, R 2 may be used as a piece of seating furniture or for placing on any desired piece of seating furniture. If the seating arrangement R 1, R 2 is designed, for example, as the piece of seating furniture itself, then a substructure or at least one base element may be connected to the support element in a known manner. For example, office-chair substructures, a plurality of base elements, bar-stool-like frameworks or the like may be connected thereto in order to form a corresponding seating arrangement. It is then also possible, if appropriate, for a backrest to be fitted on the support element 8, in a manner which has not been illustrated. This should likewise lie within the scope of the present invention. However, it may also be possible for a backrest to be fitted on the moveable seat part 2, should this be desired. If the seating arrangement R 1, R 2 is designed as a support for a piece of seating furniture, then this may be placed directly with the support element 8 on a seat surface of a chair. It should also be possible, however, for the support element 8 to be provided with a plurality of base elements, in order to create a low-level piece of seating furniture or a low-level support for a piece of seating furniture.

Summary: A seating device in the form of seat furniture or for placing on seat furniture. The device comprises a seating element which can be pivoted transversally to the seating direction in relation to a support element about at least one axis. The seating element can be moved in the seating direction (X) in relation to the support element by means of at least one actuatable regulating device, and a regulated self-locking position is fixed.

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Summarize: The retailer digitally modified, or "retouched", the body shape of a model in an issue of Healthy, its customer magazine, to conceal her true thinness. The revelation will fuel concerns about the "size-zero" culture within the magazine industry, where increasingly-slender models are being used in photo shoots. Details of the incident emerged during a round-table debate on the issue of retouching earlier this month, hosted by the model agency Leni's Model Management and attended by photographers, magazine editors and models including Jodie Kidd. During the debate, Jane Druker, the editor of Healthy magazine – which promotes "health and wellbeing" and has featured Elizabeth Hurley on its cover – admitted that Kamilla Wladyka, the model who features in the April issue, was so thin in real life that her image was radically retouched before appearing on the cover. Miss Druker told participants in the debate: "She was so thin, we had to put on about half a stone." Gerard Chevalier, a psychotherapist and former fashion photographer who also took part in the debate, said that Miss Druker went on to tell him the image had been enhanced to make the model appear two to three stone heavier than her actual weight. He said: "She told me the girl was so thin, they had to put 15 to 20 kilograms on her." The Sunday Telegraph has previously revealed that fashion magazines are increasingly manipulating images of skinny models to make them look fuller-figured, in order to deflect criticism of promoting unhealthily-thin images. But the use of such retouching in a health magazine will raise concerns that the magazine industry is simply ignoring the "size-zero" issue. The details provided by Miss Wladyka's modelling agency clearly state that she is a very slender size 6, with a 24-inch waist. Susan Ringwood, the chief executive of the eating disorder charity, Beat, who has campaigned for magazines to use models of diverse sizes, described the use of the images as "hugely disappointing". She said: "There's a fundamental difference between using camera work to make someone look polished, and changing the shape and size of someone's body in order to portray them looking differently, to conform to whatever ideal. "It's just not helpful and puts huge pressure on people to keep up a hyper-perfectionism that isn't real. If you can't trust the health industry to be healthy, how can you expect the fashion magazines to put their house in order?" Eleni Renton, the director of Leni's Model Management, said that retouching photographs to make models appear larger was "crazy". She said: "Rather than take a chance on a different size model who actually fits the criteria for a shoot, it's much easier for magazine editors and casting directors to book a girl who is a known quantity in the industry, even if she might be slightly too slim or large for a job, and then retouch her later. "But when magazines start changing body shape, it becomes unhealthy. They are not acting responsibly. That girl probably should have been sent home from the shoot – she's supposed to be representing a 'healthy' magazine as their cover girl and they retouched her to make her look healthier. It's false." She also called for magazines to introduce a kite-mark system informing readers when images are modified: "Retouching is getting increasingly out of hand. Most people can't tell how much is being used, so they are aspiring to unattainable fantasy images. "Magazines should have signs indicating when an image has been retouched, so people can see at a glance how much work has been done." Miss Kidd said that retouching images to correct minor imperfections was acceptable, but condemned the practice of distorting models' body shapes. She said: "Re-touching for little blemishes is fine, but putting weight on, taking weight off, that goes too far." Miss Druker claimed that Miss Wladyka had appeared healthy during a casting for the photo shoot a week before it took place, but looked too thin to feature on the magazine's cover on the day of the shoot. She said: "Sometimes when you cast a model, they look OK, but then when they turn up on the shoot day, they might not have eaten for two or three days. You're not in charge of their health. "When she did arrive, there were plenty of clothes that we couldn't put on her because her bones stuck out too much. She looked beautiful in the face, but really thin and unwell. "That's not a reflection of what we do in our magazine, which is about good health and women looking healthful and well. "She was a stunningly beautiful girl and we knew what we were able to do with retouching. We made her legs a little bit bigger, to make her look like she was a size 10 as opposed to a size 4. "It's not what we normally do and I would never want to mislead people." Holland & Barrett declined to comment. Skinny model airbrushed to look curvier By MSN NZ Polish model Kamilla Wladyka was digitally altered for the health magazine cover (right). A magazine has digitally altered a model to appear curvier, rather than thinner. The model's body was retouched with added weight for the cover of UK health and wellbeing magazine Healthy. Editor Jane Druker admitted that the model used — Kamilla Wladyka — was so thin in real life that she needed to be "radically retouched" before appearing on the cover. According to the UK's Daily Telegraph, the magazine added between 15kg to 20kg to the model's frame. The magazine claimed that the model had appeared healthy during a casting for the photo shoot a week before it took place, but on the day of the shoot she appeared too thin. "Sometimes when you cast a model, they look okay, but then when they turn up on the shoot day they might not have eaten for two or three days," Miss Drucker said. "You're not in charge of their health. "When she did arrive, there were plenty of clothes that we couldn't put on her because her bones stuck out too much. She looked beautiful in the face, but really thin and unwell." She said the magazine was promoting health and wellbeing and therefore the model's look was at odds with its philosophy. "We made her legs a little bit bigger, to make her look like she was a size 10 as opposed to a size 4," Miss Drucker said. "It's not what we normally do and I would never want to mislead people."

Summary: Another magazine is in trouble for altering a model's photograph-but this time it's for "fattening her up" rather than slimming her down. Healthy packed as much as 44 pounds on the waif-like Kamilla Wladyka when she turned up at a photo shoot looking "really thin and unwell," editor Jane Druker explained at a London roundtable discussion on unheathy models. "Her bones stuck out." Critics lashed the UK magazine for "whitewashing" the problem and moving on. "If you can't trust the health industry to be healthy, how can you expect the fashion magazines to put their house in order?" asked the head of an eating disorders organization. A model agency director said Wladyka "probably should have been sent home from the shoot. She's supposed to be representing a 'healthy' magazine as their cover girl and they retouched her to make her look healthier," she told the Telegraph. It's false. "Click here to see the model and cover.

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Summarize: They could be any other young tourists arriving for a winter holiday in Turkey. But instead of heading towards a local hostel, these three girls are preparing to board a bus for the 17-hour trip to the Syrian border. This image shows Shamima Begum, 15, Kadiza Sultana, 16, and 15-year-old Amira Abase on their way to become ‘jihadi brides’ for Islamic State terrorists. Spotted: New CCTV footage shows the three UK schoolgirls waiting at Bayrampasa bus station in Istanbul. The teenagers sparked an international manhunt last month by slipping out of their East London homes to join extremists fighting a so-called ‘holy war’. Grainy CCTV footage shows the GCSE pupils waiting at Bayrampasa bus station, in a suburb on the west side of Istanbul, before the final leg of their treacherous trip. Hours earlier, on February 17, they had landed on a Turkish Airlines flight from Gatwick after telling their families they were going out for the day. The images were released as the UK’s top counter-terrorism officer revealed about 60 British women, including at least 18 teenagers, had travelled to Syria to join the barbaric Muslim fanatics. 'Groomed': Shamima Begum (right) is thought to have been contacted directly using Twitter by a female IS fighter. She later flew from Gatwick Airport to Turkey with friends Kadiza Sultana, left, 16, and Amira Abase. Amira Abase (L) and Shamima Begum (R) were spotted on grainy CCTV footage alongside Kadiza Sultana. Spotted: The trio were seen entering Istanbul's Esenler bus station in the early hours on February 18, just hours after they disappeared from their homes in London. Crowds: The three teenagers are seen mingling amongst crowds at the bus station. They are believed to now have been smuggled into Syria. Detective Assistant Commissioner Helen Ball, of the Metropolitan Police, said the youngest were just 15. Campaigners said the schoolgirls had been the victims of ruthless ‘ideological grooming’ by IS using social media websites. Almost 20 teenage girls fled Britain to join Islamic extremists in Syria last year. At least 60 women and girls have travelled to join ISIS altogether. The stream of young women covertly leaving their families in the UK to live in the Islamic State is a 'growing problem' of'real concern'. Figures were revealed by Deputy Assistant Commissioner Helen Ball. The Met's National Coordinator for Counter Terrorism added that police are in talks with the Government about getting 'extra resources' to combat the worrying trend. Ms Ball told the BBC's Andrew Marr Show in the last year 22 young women have travelled to Syria. Of those, all but four of the 22 were aged 20 or younger. She said: 'The last five who've travelled were aged 15 and 16. 'This is a growing problem and it's one of real concern.' Yesterday’s footage shows the latest three, all pupils at Bethnal Green Academy, waiting 17 hours at the station after buying tickets to Urfa, near the Syrian border. Calmly carrying their luggage and chatting among themselves, they seem composed and confident as they move between the crowds. They also appear to have changed from the clothes they were wearing when leaving Gatwick to more traditional Islamic dress. The five images of the girls were taken between 8.27pm local time (6.27pm GMT) on February 17 and 1.22pm local time (11.22am GMT) the following day. A week after the trio left their homes, Scotland Yard said they were believed to have entered Syria. Smugglers in the Turkish border town of Akcakale said they had crossed the border using false Syrian IDs, accompanied by a man claiming to be their father. Police believe they are currently in the terror stronghold of Raqqa, where they face being married off to foreign fighters. Neither Turkish Airlines nor the UK Border Force reported that the girls were intending to travel unaccompanied to the region, despite it being a key staging post on the journey to Syria. Scotland Yard has also denied taking three days to inform officials in Turkey about the girls’ planned journey, insisting it was liaising with the Turkish authorities a day after the girls vanished. MPs have called for an inquiry into the effectiveness of border controls in stopping British youngsters travelling to the war zone. Flight to terror: Clutching their luggage, the three teenage friends prepare to board a flight to Istanbul last week. Police believe they have now been smuggled into Syria. Lured to jihad: Kadiza Sultana, 16, left, Shamima Begum, 15, centre, and Amira Abase, 15, right, at Gatwick Airport. There are fears they are to be married off as 'jihadi brides' to Islamic State terrorists. Speaking on the BBC’s Andrew Marr Show, Miss Ball said police were increasingly concerned about the growing trend of young women planning to make the journey from Britain – many of whom are disguised to avoid suspicion. She said: ‘This is a growing problem and it’s one of real concern. The more everybody involved in travel can be alert and be vigilant and look out for people the better. 'This is about vigilance of everyone who is working in the industry … some of those women and girls are very carefully prepared for their travel so that they don’t stand out. They take unusual routes and it is very hard to spot them.’ Kalsoom Bashir, co-director of the counter-extremism organisation Inspire, said it was ‘shocking but not surprising’ that young girls were being lured to Syria. She said IS had a ‘very specific campaign’ to target young and vulnerable women by ‘hooking into their vulnerabilities’. She said the women who were being ‘ideologically groomed’ were getting younger and younger. Route to hell: The three teenagers are believed to have travelled over ground from Istanbul to Gaizantep, before crossing the border into Syria near the Kilis crossing

Summary: Teenagers are believed to have been spotted at Istanbul bus station. Girls - aged 15 and 16 - disappeared from London 10 days ago. Footage shows the three calmly carrying luggage as they await bus. CCTV images suggest the girls were at the bus station for almost 18 hours. Trio believed to be travelling overland to marry Islamic State fighters. 22 women and girls fled Britain to join Islamic extremists in Syria last year.

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Summarize: CROSS-REFERENCE TO RELATED APPLICATION This application claims the benefit under 35 USC 119(e) of U.S. provisional patent application of the present inventor, Ser. No. 60/474,088 filed May 28, 2003, which is hereby incorporated by reference. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION 1. Field of the Invention This invention relates generally to hot beverage makers and more particularly to hot beverage brewers that brew fresh beverage by passing hot water through a beverage ingredient contained within a brew basket with a beverage drain hole. 2. Discussion of the Prior Art Beverage brewers of the type having a hot water dispense system for passing hot water through a beverage ingredient, such as ground coffee or tea, or tea leaves, or the like, while held within a paper filter which in turn is held within a brew basket are well know and will be described in greater detail below with reference to FIG. 1. While such known brewers function successfully, they sometimes fail to obtain maximum extraction and optimum flavor due to an inability to fully control brew parameters depending upon changing conditions such as room temperature, inherent percolation rates at atmospheric pressure, seepage of water out the sides of the layer of ingredient and not through the entire layer, or due to a failure to provide a uniform distribution of hot water onto the top surface of the ingredient. Accordingly, the inventor has determined that there is a need to overcome these short comings. SUMMARY It is therefore an object of the present invention to overcome these disadvantages of know beverage brewers noted above. This objective is achieved in part by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly under control of an electronic controller with a brew basket control system composed of a pressure source, means for selectively applying positive air pressure from the pressure source to the brew basket, and means for controlling the application of pressure to the brew basket by the selectively applying means to control the rate of seepage of hot water through a layer of beverage ingredient within the brew basket. Preferably, the controlling means includes means for sensing pressure, and the pressure controlling means includes means responsive to the pressure sensing means for controlling the application of pressure by the selectively applying means to the brew basket. The controlling means preferably includes means for timing the brew cycle and selectively applying pressure to the brew basket assembly at preselected times during the brewing cycle to speed the rate at which the water percolates though the beverage ingredient during preselected time periods during the brew cycle in order to maximize uniform extraction and optimum flavor. Also, in the preferred embodiment the selectively applying means includes a special dispense head assembly with a manifold with an inlet and an outlet that communicates directly with an open top brew basket assembly, and a solenoid controlled pressure valve with at least one outlet in pressure communication with the brew basket assembly. The pressure source includes an electrically powered pneumatic pump, and the controlling means includes means for controlling the application of power to the pneumatic pump. The brew basket assembly has a bottom with a beverage drain hole, or opening, and in the preferred embodiment a closure gate carried by the bottom and is mounted to the bottom by mounting members for sliding movement between a closed position and an open position. The objective is also obtained by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly with a beverage drain hole under control of an electronic controller with a brew basket flow rate control system having means for selectively closing the beverage drain hole to accumulate beverage within the brew basket assembly during preselected time periods of a brew cycle to reduce the rate of flow of beverage from the drain hole, and means for selectively applying positive air pressure to the brew basket assembly during preselected time periods of the brew cycle to increase the rate of beverage flow from the brew basket assembly drain hole. Moreover, the object of the invention is acquired by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, with a brew basket control system having means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as the beverage flows downwardly out of the drain hole and falls freely through air to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage prior to being mixed in the beverage container, said light measuring mean being located adjacent the drain hole and above the beverage container; said brew basket being removably mounted to the brewer and the light measuring means being spaced from the brew basket and the beverage container to enable removal of the brew basket without first disconnecting the light measuring means form the brew basket, and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control a hot water brew dispense valve for changing the rate of flow of the hot water onto the ingredient in the brew basket. The objective is also partly acquired by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage into a beverage container, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, with a brew basket control system, having means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole and above the sewing container, and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control at least one of (a) a hot water brew dispense valve, (b) a bypass valve for passing hot water into the brew basket at a location spaced from the ingredient, (c) means to pressurize the brew basket to hasten draining of the beverage from the drain hole, and (d) an instantaneous electric hot water heater for heating hot water spaced from the hot water tank just before the hot water is dispensed into the brew basket; and in which the controller is responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control a drain hole closure means or is responsive to control the means to pressurize the brew basket to change the pressure within the brew basket. The objective is also obtained in part by provision in a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, the improvement being a brew basket control system with means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole and above the beverage container, and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control an instantaneous electric hot water heater for heating hot water spaced from the hot water tank before the hot water is dispensed into the brew basket, the hot water having a temperature just before being dispensed into the brew basket, and the controller being responsive to control the instantaneous hot water heater to change the temperature of the hot water just before the hot water is dispensed into the brew basket. Acquisition of the objective is also accomplished by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a movably mounted brew basket assembly with a brew basket for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system including a brew water dispense valve for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly and though the ingredient, the improvement being a brew basket control system having means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole and falls freely through air to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole and above the beverage container and spaced from the brew basket and the beverage container to enable removal of the brew basket without first disconnecting the light measuring means from the brew basket, and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control at least one of (a) a bypass valve spaced from the brew water dispense valve for passing hot water into the brew basket at a location spaced from and bypassing the ingredient, (b) means to pressurize the brew basket to hasten draining of the beverage from the drain hole, (c) a drain hole closure means and (d) an instantaneous electric hot water heater for heating hot water spaced from the hot water tank before the hot water is dispensed into the brew basket. Achievement of the objective of the invention is also acquired in part by provision of a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, the improvement being a brew basket control system having means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beagle as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole and above the beverage container and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control a means to pressurize the brew to hasten draining of the beverage from the drain hole. The objective is also partly obtained by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, the improvement being a brew basket control system with means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole above the beverage container and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control the drain hole closure means. Also, the objective is obtained in part by providing a hot beverage brewer having a source of hot water, a brew basket assembly for holding beverage ingredient and a drain hole to dispense beverage, a water dispense system for selectively passing hot water into the brew basket assembly, the improvement being a brew basket control system, with means for electronically measuring a light characteristic of the beverage as it flows downwardly out of the drain hole to detect an indication of an instantaneous level of extraction of ingredient into the beverage, said light measuring means being located adjacent the drain hole and above the beverage container; and a controller responsive to the indication of the instantaneous level of extraction to control an instantaneous electric hot water heater for heating hot water spaced from the hot water tank before the hot water is dispensed into the brew basket. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWING The foregoing advantageous features and advantages will be described in greater detail and further advantageous features will be made apparent from the detailed description given below with reference to the several figures of the drawing, in which: FIG. 1 is a functional block diagram of the control system of the multicontrolled brewer of the present invention; FIG. 2 is a schematic illustration in partial functional block form of one embodiment of the multicontrolled brewer controlled by the control system of FIG. 1 and further illustrating the novel features of the multicontrolled brewer of FIG. 1 ; FIG. 3 is an exploded perspective view one form of the hot water dispenser head assembly and brew basket assembly of the present invention; FIG. 4 is a an exploded side view of the hot water dispenser head assembly of FIG. 4 ; FIG. 5 is a plan view of the novel “umbrella” dispense head of the dispenser head assembly of FIGS. 3 and 4 with a splash distributor that is relatively flat for creating a relatively random distribution of splash that is capable of mounting to the bottom of the dispense housing by screw fasteners or by magnets; FIG. 6 is a side view of the dispense head of FIG. 5 ; FIG. 7 is a perspective bottom view of the dispense head of FIG. 6 ; FIG. 8 is a bottom view of the dispense head of FIG. 7 ; FIG. 9 is a top perspective view of another embodiment of an “umbrella” dispense head like that of FIGS. 5-8 but in which the splash distributor has a domed top and frictional mounting tabs have been added to enable releasable, frictional mounting of the dispense head to the bottom of the dispense housing; FIG. 10 is a plan view of the dispense head of FIG. 9 ; FIG. 11 is a side view of the dispense head of FIG. 11 ; FIG. 12 is a perspective bottom view of the dispense head of FIGS. 9-11 ; FIG. 13 is a bottom projection view of the dispense head of FIGS. 9-12 ; FIG. 14 is a schematic sectional side view a brew basket plastic insert shown inserted into a conventional wire basket filter holder and holding a paper brewed beverage filter containing beverage ingredient such as ground coffee for use in retrofitting a wire filter holder to restrict side flow of beverage through the sides of the filter paper by providing solid sides cylindrical sides; and FIG. 15 is a plan view of the brew basket plastic insert assembly of FIG. 14 showing the bottom grid of the insert and the grid supports of the wire basket. DETAILED DESCRIPTION Referring now to FIG. 1, an embodiment of the multicontrolled brewer 20 of the present invention includes a multicontrolled brewer control system 22 and other structural elements, or mechanical or electromechanical, elements 24. Some of the elements of the structural elements 24 are shown in and are described with reference to FIG. 2. Some of the elements of the control system 22 are known and, in keeping with the invention, some of the elements are novel. The known elements of the control system 22 include a controller 26 which includes a microcomputer (not shown) with all needed memory to store operating software and sensor data and programmable parameters, etc. (not shown) and all interface circuitry (not shown) needed to interface with the other control elements described below. The computer interfaces with conventional elements, but it novel to the extent that it has been programmed to interface with and sometimes control the novel elements of the control system 22 described below and the novel elements of the brewing system described below with respect to FIG. 2. The other known elements of the control system include a solenoid controlled cold water inlet valve 28 for controlling the addition of cold water to the hot water tank 29, FIG. 2, from a source of public water delivered through a hose 31, or the like. The hot water tank 30 has a high level sensor 30 and a low level sensor 32, and the controller responds to these sensors to maintain the level of the water in the hot water tank 30 at a relatively even level between the high level sensor 30 and the low level sensor 32 by selectively closing the valve when the high level is reached and opening the cold water inlet valve when the low level is sensed. Similarly, the hot water tank 30 has an electrical heating element, or tank heater, 36 that is controlled by the controller 26 in accordance with readings of a hot water tank temperature sensor 34. The temperature is maintained at a level between a preselected maximum and minimum temperature by applying electrical power to the tank heater 36 when the minimum temperature is sensed and withdrawing electrical power when the maximum temperature is reached. The control system also includes a solenoid controlled brew valve 37 and a by solenoid controlled bypass valve 38 and manual input switches, or manual inputs 40. The manual inputs 40 include a start brew switch that when actuated starts a brew cycle during which the brew valve is selectively opened to pass hot water to a dispense head for delivery of hot water to the top surface of a layer of beverage ingredient, such as ground coffee, contained within a paper or other filter that is supported in a wire mesh filter holder within a brew basket, or brew basket housing, that has a beverage outlet at its bottom to pass freshly brewed beverage to a beverage container such as an insulated beverage dispenser. The bypass valve is located to pass hot water into the brew basket at a location laterally spaced from the filter holding the ingredient but within the brew basket to dilute the beverage with hot water added directly into the beverage container together with the freshly brewed beverage exiting through the filter paper. In conventional brewers the brew basket assembly and dispense head assembly re also conventional. In accordance with the present invention and as described below with respect to FIGS. 2-15, a special dispense head assembly and a special brew basket assembly are provided to improve the brewer performance with respect to uniform saturation and optimum flavor extraction. The control system also contains an alphanumeric display to enable computer-generated communication with an operator and status indicator lights 42 all contained within a brewer housing 44. Referring now to FIG. 2, in accordance with the present invention, uniform extractions and optimum flavor extraction depends upon a variety of factors or parameters that must be closely controlled by a variety of different approaches. In accordance with one aspect of the invention, in order selectively increase the rate at which hot water that has been added to the top of the beverage ingredient layer being supported within the filter and the filter holder of the brew basket migrates, seeps and otherwise passes through the layer of beverage ingredient is controlled by means including a brew basket pressurization system. The pressurization system functions to selectively increase the air pressure in the gap 45 between the top 43 of the beverage layer 41 and the top 47 of the brew basket assembly 49. The brew basket pressurization system includes a pressure source 46, such as provided by an electrically powered, motorized air pump, or pressure pump motor 51 pressurizing a pressure tank. The high-pressure outlet of the 48 is connected to a solenoid controlled pressure valve 50. The pressure valve 50 has at least one or the other of outlets 52 and 54 or both of outlets 52 and 54. Pressure outlet 52 is connected to a manifold 56. The manifold 56 has an outlet 58 in pressure communication with an inlet opening 60 at the top housing 62 of a special dispense head assembly 64. The outlet 54 communicates directly with the open top 47 of the brew basket assembly 49. When the solenoid controlled pressure valve is open, the relatively higher pressure within the pressure source 46 is imparted to the headspace 45. One or more pressure sensors 69, FIG. 1, sense the pressure within one or both of the outlets as fed back to the outlets from the headspace 45, directly within the headspace 45 and within the pressure tank of the pressure source 46. The pressure sensors are monitored by the controller 26 to control the pressure pump motor 51 and thus the pressure in the headspace 45. Because of pressure leakage between the pressure source 50 and the headspace the pressure in the pressure source will generally be higher than the pressure within the space. There is at least a partial seal between the pressure source and the headspace 45. The brew basket assembly 49 may have a generally box-like shape and is slideably, releasable mounted to mating support members 66 attached to the underside of the housing 44 by means of a outwardly, laterally extending peripheral collar 68. Preferably, a special filter holder assembly 70, as shown in FIG. 2, or a special filter holder insert assembly 72 inserted within a conventional wire basket filter holder 74, as shown in FIGS. 14 and 15, which has solid, smooth, cylindrical sides made of a suitable plastic or stainless steel. Referring to FIG. 2, the solid cylindrical side 76 of the filter holder assembly 70 has a mounting collar 78 that is supported on support members 80 that extend inwardly from the inside surface of the brew basket assembly 49. Preferably, both the tops of both the mounting collars are pressed against an overlying ceiling member 82 of the housing 44 to provide an at least partially sealed relationship with the bottom of the dispense assembly 64 and the outlet 52 and with the outlet 54 at an outlet port 86 extending through the ceiling member 82. In accordance with the present invention, at times during the brewing cycle it may be necessary to speed the rate at which the water percolates thought the coffee grounds or the like in order to maximize uniform extraction and optimum flavor. For instance, it may be desired to speed the flow during the later part of dispense period of the brew cycle after more than half of the hot water has passed the brew valve 37 or during the drip period of the brew cycle after all of the water has passed the brew valve 37. In accordance with another aspect of the invention, brew basket assembly has a bottom with the beverage outlet opening 88 and a brew basket outlet opening closure gate 90 that is carried by the bottom 92 and mounted to the bottom by mounting members 94 for sliding movement between a closed position and an open position. A spring also carried at the bottom 92 resiliently biases the closure gate 90 a closed position, as shown in FIG. 2. A solenoid controlled brew basket valve controller 96 releasable engages the closure gate 90 to move the gate to the open position or allows the gate to remain closed. The purpose of the brew basket closure gate 90 is to enable the operator to allow beverage within the brew basket to selectively accumulate, such as near the end of the dispense cycle. Then after the desired amount or time of accumulation has been achieved the closure gate is again moved to the open position. Opening and closing of the closure gate 90 may be intermittent and the intermittency times of closure may be coordinated with intermittent delivery of hot water to the brew basket assembly. A brew basket level sensor, such as an ultrasonic sensor, 98 may be used by the controller to control the timing of opening and closing of the brew valve 37, the brew bypass valve 38 and the brew basket closure gate 90 either in concert with preprogrammed timed brewing cycles or independently. The pressure system may be used to accelerate discharge of beverage from the brew basket after a period of accumulation either only once at the end or periodically or otherwise intermittently. Achieving another level of control over temperature or the dispense hot water as well as the temperature of the beverage within the brew basket is achieved respectively with a dispense manifold temperature sensor 100 and a beverage temperature sensor 102. The dispense manifold temperature may be attached directly to the outlet of the manifold 56, FIG. 1, while the brew basket temperature sensor 102 may be a remote infrared temperature sensor. A dispense manifold heater 104 is provided and controlled in accordance with the temperatures sensed by one, the other or both of the temperature sensors 100 and 102. If the temperature as indicated by either of the temperature sensors is less than a reselected minimum temperature, then the controller may energize the heater to provide an instantaneous increase of temperature immediately before the hot water is dispensed into the dispense head in order to maximize uniform abstraction and optimum flavor extraction. Still one more level of control is obtained over the coffee brewing process by providing photosensor 106 to measure the light transmittance of the beverage as it falls past an infrared light source 108. If desired, the infrared photo sensor may also be used to sense temperature when the light source 108 is turned off. An increase in the amount of light transmittance is an indication of the instantaneous level of extraction that can be used to control the other control elements such as the brew valve 38, the bypass valve 38, the brew basket pressure valve 69 or the brew basket outlet valve controller 96. Another element that is controlled in accordance with the invention is a rotary dispense head drive 110. Referring to FIG. 2, in one embodiment of the present invention, the dispense water from the manifold outlet 58 is passed into a rotary distribution element. This distribution element may be one or more radial, semi-cylindrical dispense elongate distribution arms 112 with open sides that are upwardly facing. Because the arms are split, tubes instead of closed tubes, they are easy to clean, but closed tubes could also be used. If the dispense distribution arm or arms 112 are in fluid communication with a central dispense receiving hub at which the hot water is received and then distributed at least partly radially outwardly along the length of the arm 112, the jet force of the dispense water being discharged out of the ends or out of radially directed intermediate outlet ports located along the length of the arms 112 can be used to provide the necessary jet stream force to rotate the arms. The relative disadvantage is that the due to liming the ports may become clogged and cleaning of tubular structures relatively difficult compared to cleaning open structures in which all surfaces are readily accessible for cleaning. In the case of either tubes or open cylindrical arms, they may be provided with outlet ports along their length. Preferably, the rotation is controlled by a servo or other motor 114 of the rotary spray head drive 110 that is linked to a drive wheel 116 connected to the outside surface of the hub of the assembly of arm or arms 112. In the case of multiple arms, if there are outlet ports they are staggered such that the discharge from each of the arms falls on the surface 102 of the layer of beverage 41 at different radial distances from the center. In the case of multiple open cylindrical arms without intermediate ports, the dispense water is discharged from the ends of the arms and the arms are preferably of different lengths to provide for distribution on the beverage surface 43 from each arm in circular patterns of different radius to obtain a uniform distribution over the surface 43. Alternatively, an umbrella-like, distribution plate 118 is employed for rotary distribution of the dispense water along channels running radially outwardly from the central hub and having different lengths that terminate in outlet ports of different radial distances from the central hub. Such “umbrella” distribution plates may be of the type shown in FIGS. 3-8 or as shown in FIGS. 9-13, but adapted for rotation. Referring now to FIGS. 3-8, in accordance with one feature of the invention a non-rotary dispense head is shown that is preferably used with the other novel elements of the invention but which may be used independently to improve uniform distributions and optimum flavor extraction by uniform distribution of dispense water across the entire surface 43 of the layer of beverage 41. Referring first to FIG. 3, this embodiment of the dispense head assembly 120 has a stationary distribution “umbrella” plate 122 and an upper housing 124 with the manifold 56 fixedly attached to the top of the upper housing 124. The manifold 56 has a boss that has a side inlet 126 that connects to the hot water tank 29 through the brew valve 37 and preferably, when the pressure source is used, another inlet 128 connecting the inlet to the pressure source 46. An upwardly facing opening 129 in communication with the inlet pipes 126 and 128 interconnects with the solenoid controlled brew valve 37. As seen in FIG. 4, the brew valve has an arm 130 having a distal end with a blocking member 132 that enters the upwardly facing opening 129 to block closed the inlet opening 134 within the interior surface of the boss 56 to block the entry of brew water into the boss 56 when the solenoid controlled brew valve is not energized. When not blocked, the hot water enters the interior of the manifold at which may also be received relatively pressurized air from inlet 128 when the pressure valve 50 is opened. The boss 56 is mounted to the top surface 136 of the upper housing 138 and communicates with the open bottom 140 through an axial central passageway 140 within which is also received the valve blocking member 132. The upper housing 138 has a distribution plate mounting collar 142 that either carries a plurality of fastener openings 144 that align with mating fastener openings 146 of a mounting collar 147 of the distribution plate 148 of the distribution plate 150 for receipt of threaded fasteners for attachment of the distribution plate. 150. Alternatively, one of the collar 144 and the collar 147 is formed of, or carries, a permanent magnetic material and the other is formed of ferromagnetic material for attachment by magnetic force. The distribution plate 148 has a flat-topped central splash core 152 with a flat top 153. When the dispense water impinges the flat-topped splash core, the water is splashed and randomly distributed across the conical face 154 of the distribution plate 148 and is received within a plurality of radially extending distribution channels, or upwardly facing, radially extending, elongate grooves, 156 formed in the upper surface of the conical face 154. At selected different radial distances from the central core of each of the radial distribution channels is a discharge opening 160. All of the discharge openings 160 have a radially, distal end 162 that is adjacent the opening for passing hot water to the beverage ingredient. However, the inner ends 164 of each of the openings 160. Thus, some of the hot water that is passed through the discharge openings and impinges on the surface 43 lands on the surface 43 at different locations spaced from the center. Additional views of the distribution plate are shown in FIGS. 5-8. Referring now to FIGS. 9-13, another distribution plate 164 is shown in which instead of use of magnetic or screw fasteners, frictional engagement of resilient tabs 166 are used to resiliently press against an inner surface of the wall 166 of the dispenser housing 136, FIGS. 3 and 4. In addition, instead of the flat top 153, the central splash core has a semi-spherical, or otherwise curved or domed surface, for a less random distributions of dispense water across the upwardly facing surfaces of the distribution plate 164. Referring now to FIGS. 14 and 15, a cylindrical plastic insert 72 is shown with a mesh bottom 166 for retrofit applications in which only a wire basket filter holder is provide. While a permanent filter holder as described above may be made of stainless steel, the insert may be made of plastic and be disposable. The insert, in all other structural ways may be similar to the permanent cylindrical, opened, meshed bottomed filter holder described above with respect to FIGS. 1 and 2. While the brew valve is shown as being on the hot water side of the system, it may also be place on the cold-water side with a siphon system that pushes hot water out of the hot water tank when fresh cold water is inserted. In such a system, the amount of water inserted may be passed through a meter that measures directly the amount of water that is added, and thus, discharged from the hot water tank. Other changes and variations will appear to those skilled in the art to which the subject invention pertains. Reference should be made to the following patents or patent applications for details of known features or details of features that may be used in combination with the novel features of the present invention, all of which are hereby incorporated by reference. Reference should be made to U.S. Pat. Nos. 6,148,717 and 6,571,685 for details of intermittent brewing in which the brew valve is repetitively controlled to open and close during the dispense period of a brew cycle or in which accumulation of beverage in the brew basket is controlled. Reference should be made to allowed application Ser. No. 10/030,021, filed Dec. 26, 2002 now U.S. Pat. No. 6,626,085, of the present inventor for “Food Ingredient Grinder, Removable Ingredient Hopper and Method” for details of the closure gate of FIG. 2 and its different possible forms and modes of operation. Reference should be made to pending U.S. application Ser. No. 10/078,600 filed Feb. 19, 2002 now U.S. Pat. No. 6,845,704, of the present inventor and Michael W. Lassota for “Beverage Making System for details of a system for cold water brew valve operation and flow meter measurement control of delivery of dispense water to the beverage ingredient. All of these referenced patents are incorporated by reference and all may be used in combination with the novel elements and features of the present invention that will be apparent to those of skill in the art of coffee brewing equipment and systems. To the extent that the details of the parameters that are needed for uniform abstraction and optimum flavor are not disclosed, it should be appreciated that the present invention provides multiple means for enabling maximum uniform extraction an optimum flavor. It should first be appreciated that while maximum uniform extraction may be obtained and thus, from an economical point of view, the most beverage, such as coffee with the best average strength is obtained, the question of optimum flavor may be a subjective evaluation. Accordingly, the specific parameters of operation of the various novel modes of control of the brewing process must be determined by experiment, empirical testing and other relatively subtle and hard to define factors. The purpose of the present invention is to provide the ultimately complete control of the brewing process to enable a brewer to be sufficiently flexible in the brewing process.

Summary: A multicontrolled, fresh beverage brewer ( 20 ) with a dispense manifold heater ( 104 ) for selectively instantaneously heating pre-heated hot water from a hot water tank ( 29 ) immediately before the preheated hot water is dispensed into the brew basket ( 49 ) in sensed temperature of the beverage within the brew basket the preheated water immediately prior to being added to the brew basket, a photosensor ( 106 ) for sensing a level of light conductance of the beverage for controlling at least one of a brew dispense valve ( 37 ), a bypass valve ( 38 ) and a brew basket drain hole closure ( 94 ) in response to photosensor sensing a level of light conductance level of the beverage, and brew basket pressurization system ( 50, 69, 51 ) for selectively pressurizing the brew basket ( 49 ) to selectively accelerate the flow rate of hot water though an ingredient within the brew basket. A rotary spray head drive ( 110 ) rotates a rotating spray assembly to provide an even distribution of hot water over the surface of the ingredient, and a spray distribution plate employs open channels of differing length ( 156 ) to channel the water to different desired location are open for easy cleaning and elimination of clogging from lime residue. A brew basket filter holder ( 72 ) insert for insertion into the filter holder has a cylindrical, water impervious wall to prevent side passage of the hot water through the layer of beverage ingredient.

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Summarize: Justin Bieber I Canceled My Tour Because of Christ Justin Bieber Canceled His Tour Because of Christ EXCLUSIVE Justin Bieber pulled the plug on his Purpose tour because he "rededicated his life to Christ"... sources connected to Hillsong Church tell TMZ. Bieber's decision seemed to come out of the blue, but our sources say it was squarely based on what Bieber believes is religious enlightenment. Bieber said he canceled due to exhaustion, but that's simply not true. Plus, his remaining touring schedule was not taxing travel-wise. We're also told Bieber's crew is "incredibly pissed off at him" because it has impacted their financial well-being without any warning. Bieber has been virtually joined at the hip with Hillsong pastor Carl Lentz over the last few months -- including at a huge church event in Australia -- but we're told Lentz did not advocate for cancelling the tour. Update, 2:02 a.m. ET: In another Hillsong-related incident, Justin Bieber was involved in a car accident in front of a church event in Beverly Hills, California. The singer was reportedly driving a black truck when he struck at least one photographer, who was taken to a local hospital with “non-life-threatening injuries.” Original article continues below: Canada’s prodigal son has always taken his Christianity seriously. Justin Bieber may have peed in a few buckets and lost his virginity along the way, but his road to redemption is apparently back on track. This week, the pop star announced that he would be canceling the remainder of his Purpose world tour. According to a statement on the cherubic crooner’s Facebook page, Bieber would be bowing out “due to unforeseen circumstances.” “Justin loves his fans and hates to disappoint them,” the statement continued. “He thanks his fans for the incredible experience of the Purpose World Tour over [the] last 18 months." The star, who was recently banned from performing in Beijing due to his “series of misbehaviors while living abroad and during his performances in China,” seems to be reorienting himself toward only the most wholesome activities. He told TMZ that his post-tour plans are “just resting, getting some relaxation. We’re gonna ride some bikes.” So a 23-year-old multimillionaire would rather be dirt-biking, unwinding, and quietly waiting for more celebrity offspring to turn 18 than subjecting himself to a punishing tour and travel schedule. Nothing unusual going on here, right? But what you see isn’t always what you get with Justin Bieber. One moment he’s dating Sofia Richie, the next he’s stepping out with Bronte Blampied. First you think he’s canceling his tour to catch up on some R&R, then you realize that his preacher/BFF may have inspired him to sabotage his career for Jesus. At least, that’s what TMZ is claiming. On Tuesday, Hollywood’s least-holy gossip site ran a story explaining that, according to sources connected to Hillsong, Bieber’s church, the singer is taking a professional step back because he has “rededicated his life to Christ.” The update continues, “Bieber’s decision seemed to come out of the blue, but our sources say it was squarely based on what Bieber believes is religious enlightenment.” Attending more Sunday services is one thing, but opening your own franchise for the Lord is quite another. According to TMZ’s “inside source,” Bieber “may be even planning to start his own church,” which sounds like a magical place where DUIs are automatically stricken from your record and Selena Gomez is always willing to give you a second chance. Unfortunately—shockingly!—the entertainment blogosphere may be getting ahead of itself. Bieber has emphatically denied that his tour cancellation had anything to do with Jesus. According to TMZ, the pop star “seemed perplexed” when a paparazzi asked him if religion played a role in the decision, responding “no” repeatedly. Of course, the premature ending of the Purpose tour is a bit of a “fuck you” to Bieber’s fans, many of whom have already taken the star into their hearts as their personal lord and savior. Bieber’s relatively mysterious decision becomes even stranger in light of another recent TMZ disclosure. On Wednesday, the website reported that NBA player Kyrie Irving’s controversial trade request from the Cleveland Cavaliers was influenced by Hillsong leader Carl Lentz—Bieber’s very own rock ’n’ roll pastor. According to TMZ, “Church sources tell us Kyrie, who’s been an active member for a long time, met with Lentz earlier this month about his desires to step out of LeBron James’ shadow. We’re told Lentz didn’t tell Kyrie to ‘leave Cleveland’—instead he listened to Kyrie’s concerns, and encouraged him to make the decision he felt was best.” Just over a week ago, Lentz, Bieber, and Irving all hung out together at Dave & Buster’s; now, suddenly, two-thirds of that spiritual squad are making drastic career moves. So is this celebrity church as cult-y as it sounds? For Bieber, Hillsong, which started as an Australian Pentecostal megachurch in Sydney, and its NYC leader Carl Lentz have constituted his longest continuously running relationship. A 2015 GQ article by Taffy Brodesser-Akner tells the story of Bieber’s first brush with the trendy megachurch. According to the piece, 2014 Justin Bieber—that’s height-of-infamy, egging-his-neighbors Justin Bieber—moved in with Lentz and his family for a month and a half. “One day, according to Carl, Justin looked in the mirror and he was ravaged by feelings of loss. He got on his knees and he cried. ‘I want to know Jesus,’ Justin Bieber sobbed to Pastor Carl. And so together they prayed. Suddenly, Justin was overcome by the Gospel, and he said, ‘Baptize me.’ And Pastor Carl said, ‘Yes, buckaroo’—he really does call Bieber buckaroo, and now you should, too— ‘let’s do this. Let’s schedule a time.’ But Justin Bieber couldn’t be Justin Bieber for one minute longer. ‘No, I want to do it now.’” The almost too-touching-to-be-true story leads to Bieber and Lentz wandering around potential baptism spots, only to find hordes of paparazzi blocking their way at each location. Like a modern-day Mary, J.B., desperate and out of options, finally found his manger: NBA player (and friend of the church) Tyson Chandler’s huge Upper West Side bathtub. It’s a story Lentz has pulled out of his leather pockets on more than one occasion. In 2016, he recounted it again during an Oprah Winfrey interview, in which he praised Bieber’s faith in spite of his (frequent, well-documented) failings. But while Lentz and his church’s publicity push may seem a touch too secular, Bieber is clearly getting something out of his close relationship with the pastor, and has reportedly broken down at more than one church service. In addition to an emphasis on God and Jesus in his social media, sources reported that, prior to its cancellation, the Purpose tour had become quite spiritual. One source claimed, “Backstage on his Purpose tour, Justin has been sitting down with his opening acts and encouraging them to put Christ before everything. His aim is to convert the people he loves and warn other stars against the evils of the industry.” In other words, anyone expecting to hotbox a dressing room with Biebs would be more likely to stumble on a Bible study class. It’s one thing to incorporate your spirituality into your tour, and quite another to streamline your traditional Christian values and your star-studded personal life. Bieber, who has said that his ideal match “has to push me spiritually,” has even managed to bring Hillsong into the bedroom, enjoying church services with a number of his exes. Hillsong was allegedly “the special place” Bieber would take Selena Gomez when they were together—so much so that when the famous exes were both spotted at church services in 2015, they immediately sparked reunion rumors. Also in 2015, Bieber and rumored then-girlfriend Hailey Baldwin traveled to Sydney for Hillsong’s annual church conference (the two showed up separately, with Bieber taking a private jet and Baldwin flying commercial). Bieber attended another Hillsong conference this year, just days before his cancellation announcement. In a video from this most recent conference, Bieber commented on his triumphant return to Sydney, explaining, “My faith grows every day, so my faith is stronger than two years ago. I’m better, stronger, wiser... kinda.” Despite being the church of Kendall Jenner, Kevin Durant, and all of Justin Bieber’s exes, Hillsong boasts a surprisingly old-school set of ideological strictures. Beneath the veneer of young people music and hipster haircuts, Hillsong is like any other traditional Pentecostal church. It opposes embryonic stem-cell research and abortion, support the theories of creationism and “intelligent design,” and hold that homosexuality is at odds with biblical teachings. As The Daily Beast’s Brandy Zadrozny reported last year, Hillsong “has a long history of rejecting and even self-admittedly damaging its gay and lesbian members.” Of course, these sentiments are more or less in keeping with Bieber’s faith, since the pop star has always been a far more “traditional” Christian than his large crucifix chest tattoo would suggest. Biebs famously came under fire early in his career when he told Rolling Stone, “I really don’t believe in abortion.” When pressed on whether his opinion would shift in the case of a sexual assault, the 16-year-old responded, “Well, I think that’s really sad, but everything happens for a reason.” Get The Beast In Your Inbox! Daily Digest Start and finish your day with the top stories from The Daily Beast. Cheat Sheet A speedy, smart summary of all the news you need to know (and nothing you don't). By clicking “Subscribe,” you agree to have read the Terms of Use and Privacy Policy Subscribe Thank You! You are now subscribed to the Daily Digest and Cheat Sheet. We will not share your email with anyone for any reason. Doctrine aside, Hillsong has also been haunted by its fair share of scandals. As The Daily Beast reported, “Hillsong made nearly $100 million in total revenue in 2014, according to their annual report—up 10 percent from the previous year—more than half of which came from donations. And all of this money—from albums and Bible college tuition and books and DVDs for preschoolers and T-shirts and conferences—it’s all tax-free, of course. Exactly where this money goes, including how much is given to pastors’ salaries, as well as how much the Houstons make in ‘love offerings’ for speaking engagements at other venues, is somewhat opaque, which makes it another point of contention for Hillsong critics who argue that Hillsong is essentially a family business that doesn’t have to tithe.” As Justin Bieber was getting more and more involved in the church, Hillsong was weathering its greatest scandal yet. In October 2015, a royal commission into institutional responses to child sexual abuse in Australia released a report regarding allegations against Frank Houston, the religious leader whose son Brian is currently Hillsong’s senior pastor. The investigation found that despite allegations that Houston had sexually abused as many as nine children in the 1960s and 1970s, the cases were never referred to the police. Additionally, Brian Houston “had a serious conflict of interest in assuming responsibility for dealing with the allegations; and the Assemblies of God in Australia departed from their policies and procedures set out in the Administration Manual when it came to disciplining Frank Houston.” The report also noted that after the abuse allegations surfaced, Frank Houston was still allowed to resign with a retirement package and “without damage to his reputation or the reputation of Hillsong Church.” In a statement, Brian Houston admitted that the extent of his father’s abuse was still unknown. “We probably don’t know how many. We may never know how far it went,” he said. God has given you a voice in the Earth for right now - please know in the most genuine of hearts that my husband and I pray for you, believing you will continue to allow your heart to change as the Spirit leads. You have gifts that can influence the lives of so many and the awesome part is, He gave them to you...no one can rival that. Be confident in your identity in Christ (Ephesians 1-3) & stay strong! P.S. people I never do this, so just know I felt like I needed to and please hold your tongue (typing) if you are even thinking of bringing hate. 👌🏻❤️✌🏻 Justin Bieber breaks silence on canceled tour in rambling Instagram post CLOSE Justin Beiber has broken his silence penning a letter to fans on his recent decision to cancel the remaining dates of his Purpose World Tour. USA TODAY Corrections & clarifications: An earlier version of this story misidentified the length of Despatico's Hot 100 run. It's been a rocky few weeks for Justin Bieber, with the star canceling the remaining 14 dates of his Purpose tour in between getting banned from China and hitting a paparazzo while driving a pickup truck. Bieber addressed the surprise cancellation in a lengthy Instagram post but remained vague about his reasons for cutting his tour short. "I’ve learned the more you appreciate your calling, the more you want to protect your calling,” he wrote. “Me taking this time right now is me saying I want to be SUSTAINABLE... I want my career to be sustainable, but I also want my mind, heart, and soul to be sustainable. So that I can be the man I want to be, the husband I eventually want to be, and the father I want to be.” More: Justin Bieber cancels remaining tour dates Read next:: Justin Bieber hits photographer with pickup truck Elsewhere in the note, Bieber alluded to his past mistakes. “I have let my insecurities get the best of me at times, I let my broken relationships dictate the way I acted toward people and the way I treated them," he wrote. "I let bitterness, jealousy and fear run my life.!!!!... What I’m not gonna do is be ashamed of my mistakes. I wanna be a man that learns from them and grows from them!!” His mea culpa aside, Bieber still has the No. 1 single in America, with his hit Despacito with Luis Fonsi and Daddy Yankee tying Ed Sheeran's Shape of You for the longest reign on top of the Billboard Hot 100 charts this year. A post shared by Justin Bieber (@justinbieber) on Aug 2, 2017 at 4:52pm PDT Read or Share this story: https://usat.ly/2woykcK Justin Bieber addressed fans directly in a rambling Instagram post, thanking them for sticking with him on "this journey" and offering a pseudo-explanation for his decision to cancel his Purpose World Tour in July. "Learning and growing hasn't always been easy but knowing [I'm] not alone has kept me going," he wrote. "I have let my insecurities get the best of me at times, I let my broken relationships dictate the way I acted toward people and the way I treated them! I let bitterness, jealousy and fear run my life! I am extremely blessed to have people in the past few years help me build my character back up reminding me of who I am and who I want to be!" A post shared by Justin Bieber (@justinbieber) on Aug 2, 2017 at 4:52pm PDT Bieber has had a rough few weeks since he abruptly called off the remaining 15 shows in his tour in late July. Since then, he was banned from China indefinitely due to his "bad behavior" and made headlines after he hit a paparazzo with his pickup truck days later. Still, the pop star seemed to be looking forward in the note as he reflected upon his turbulent last few years. "[I'm] VERY aware I'm never gonna be perfect, and I'm gonna keep making mistakes but what I'm not gonna do is let my past dictate my future … what I'm not gonna do is be ashamed of my mistakes," he wrote. "I want my career to be sustainable, but I also want my mind heart and soul to be sustainable," he wrote. "So that I can be the man I want to be, the husband I eventually want to be and the father I want to be." Though many of Bieber's fans were disappointed by the truncated tour, the singer was lauded by other musicians for his decision to call it quits on his world tour for personal reasons. "When someone pulls remaining dates of a tour, it means they would have done real damage to themselves if they kept going," John Mayer tweeted as part of his dabbling in social media life coaching. "We've lost so many great artists lately. I give Justin [two thumbs up] for realizing it was time to call it. You should too." Bieber's summer hit "Despacito," with Luis Fonsi and Daddy Yankee, is currently the Number One song in America.

Summary: Justin Bieber has explained his abrupt cancellation of the rest of his world tour. Sort of. In a very long Instagram post that appears to be a picture of a Microsoft Word document, Bieber says that it all has to do with sustainability and his future plans for a family, USA Today reports. "I've learned the more you appreciate your calling the more you want to protect your calling," he wrote. "Me taking this time right now is me saying I want to be SUSTAINABLE.. I want my career to be sustainable, but I also want my mind heart and soul to be sustainable. So that I can be the man I want to be, the husband I eventually want to be and the father I want to be." The post, which multiple outlets referred to as "rambling," also addressed Bieber's past mistakes, which he says he's learned from; he thanked those who have helped him "build my character back up" recently. Bieber also acknowledged the message was "VERY GRAMMATICALLY INCORRECT BUT ITS FROM THE HEART" and noted that "THERES SOMETHING SPECIAL ABOUT IMPERFECTIONS!!" TMZ reported last week that Bieber canceled the tour in order to "[rededicate] his life to Christ," per anonymous insiders, and the Daily Beast takes an extensive look at Bieber's involvement with the Hillsong Church since 2015.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. MORATORIUM ON IMPLEMENTATION. (a) Definition.--As used in this section: (1) Act.--The term ``Act'' means title XIV of the Public Health Service Act (commonly known as the Safe Drinking Water Act; 42 U.S.C. 300f et seq.). (2) Administrator.--The term ``Administrator'' means the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency. (b) Moratorium.--Except as provided in subsection (d), the Administrator may not implement-- (1) any national primary drinking water regulation promulgated pursuant to section 1412 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 300g-1) after December 21, 1989; or (2) any similar rule or regulation, until such time as the Administrator meets the applicable requirements of subsection (c) and authorizing legislation that extends the authorization with respect to the provisions of the Act is enacted. (c) Study and Report.-- (1) Study.--Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this section, the Administrator shall conduct a comprehensive study to review-- (A) each final regulation that has been promulgated under the Act as of the date of the review, and regulatory alternatives to the regulation that reflect a range of levels of safety or direct health benefits (or a combination of both); (B) for each regulatory alternative described in subparagraph (A)-- (i) any health effect the regulatory alternative would prevent; and (ii) the system-level incremental cost of the alternative; (C) in consultation with the Director of the National Academy of Sciences, the list of contaminants listed pursuant to section 1412 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 300g-1) for the purpose of considering revisions to the list to take into account-- (i) whether the contaminant is known (or reasonably anticipated) to cause a significant adverse effect on human health; (ii) if the contaminant is not known (or reasonably anticipated) to cause a significant adverse effect on human health, the risk or safety factors associated with the maximum contaminant level for the contaminant under section 1412 of the Act (including any safety factor associated with relative source contribution and assumptions concerning water consumption); and (iii) whether the contaminant is known to be, or reasonably anticipated to occur, in public water systems located within each State and region covered by the Act; (D) the compliance deadlines under the Act (to determine whether any revision would be appropriate); (E) each regulation and proposed regulation described in subsection (b), for the purpose of determining whether a regulation to apply exclusively to small public water systems (as determined by the Administrator) would be more appropriate to address the needs of small communities (as determined by the Administrator); and (F) the funding needs of States and political subdivisions of States to meet the requirements of the Act, and recommended alternatives to ensure that States and political subdivisions of States meet the funding needs. (2) Report.--Upon completion of the study described in paragraph (1), the Administrator shall submit to Congress a written report that documents the findings of the study and includes recommended legislative changes to the Act. (d) Issuance of Regulations.--If the Administrator, in consultation with the States, and after considering available resources for managing risks associated with drinking water, determines that the immediate implementation or promulgation of a national primary drinking water regulation under section 1412 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 300g-1), or similar rule or regulation, is justifiable in order to protect human health, the Administrator shall implement or promulgate the regulation without regard to subsection (b). SEC. 2. DEFINITION OF PUBLIC WATER SYSTEM. Section 1401(4) of title XIV of the Public Health Service Act (commonly known as the Safe Drinking Water Act) is amended by adding the following at the end thereof: ``Such term shall not include any system which (i) relies only on surface water supplies, (ii) serves only seasonal rental residences, and (iii) serves 100 or fewer individuals. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the term `seasonal' refers to residences occupied less than 6 months during any calendar year.''.

Title: To establish a moratorium on the promulgation and implementation of certain drinking water regulations promulgated under the Safe Drinking Water Act, to modify the definition of public water system, and for other purposes Summary: Prohibits the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency from implementing any national primary drinking water regulation under the Safe Drinking Water Act (the Act) or any similar regulation until this Act's requirements are met and legislation that extends the authorization of the Act is enacted. Requires the Administrator to study and report to the Congress on: (1) each final regulation promulgated under the Act and regulatory alternatives that reflect a range of levels of safety or direct health benefits; (2) any health effect an alternative would prevent and the system-level incremental cost of each alternative; (3) the contaminants listed pursuant to the Act for purposes of considering revisions to the list, taking into account anticipated adverse health effects of the contaminant, the risk or safety factors associated with the maximum contaminant level, and whether the contaminant may occur in public water systems; (4) compliance deadlines; (5) whether a regulation should apply exclusively to small public water systems; and (6) recommended alternatives to ensure that States and political subdivisions meet funding needs to carry out the Act. Directs the Administrator, if the implementation or promulgation of a primary drinking water regulation is justifiable to protect human health, to implement or promulgate such regulation without regard to the requirements of this Act. Amends the Safe Drinking Water Act to exclude from the definition of "public water system" any system which: (1) relies only on surface water supplies; (2) serves only seasonal rental residences; and (3) serves 100 or fewer individuals.

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Summarize: The Same Subject Continued (Concerning the General Power of Taxation) From the New York Packet. Tuesday, January 8, 1788. HAMILTON To the People of the State of New York: WE HAVE seen that the result of the observations, to which the foregoing number has been principally devoted, is, that from the natural operation of the different interests and views of the various classes of the community, whether the representation of the people be more or less numerous, it will consist almost entirely of proprietors of land, of merchants, and of members of the learned professions, who will truly represent all those different interests and views. If it should be objected that we have seen other descriptions of men in the local legislatures, I answer that it is admitted there are exceptions to the rule, but not in sufficient number to influence the general complexion or character of the government. There are strong minds in every walk of life that will rise superior to the disadvantages of situation, and will command the tribute due to their merit, not only from the classes to which they particularly belong, but from the society in general. The door ought to be equally open to all; and I trust, for the credit of human nature, that we shall see examples of such vigorous plants flourishing in the soil of federal as well as of State legislation; but occasional instances of this sort will not render the reasoning founded upon the general course of things, less conclusive. The subject might be placed in several other lights that would all lead to the same result; and in particular it might be asked, What greater affinity or relation of interest can be conceived between the carpenter and blacksmith, and the linen manufacturer or stocking weaver, than between the merchant and either of them? It is notorious that there are often as great rivalships between different branches of the mechanic or manufacturing arts as there are between any of the departments of labor and industry; so that, unless the representative body were to be far more numerous than would be consistent with any idea of regularity or wisdom in its deliberations, it is impossible that what seems to be the spirit of the objection we have been considering should ever be realized in practice. But I forbear to dwell any longer on a matter which has hitherto worn too loose a garb to admit even of an accurate inspection of its real shape or tendency. There is another objection of a somewhat more precise nature that claims our attention. It has been asserted that a power of internal taxation in the national legislature could never be exercised with advantage, as well from the want of a sufficient knowledge of local circumstances, as from an interference between the revenue laws of the Union and of the particular States. The supposition of a want of proper knowledge seems to be entirely destitute of foundation. If any question is depending in a State legislature respecting one of the counties, which demands a knowledge of local details, how is it acquired? No doubt from the information of the members of the county. Cannot the like knowledge be obtained in the national legislature from the representatives of each State? And is it not to be presumed that the men who will generally be sent there will be possessed of the necessary degree of intelligence to be able to communicate that information? Is the knowledge of local circumstances, as applied to taxation, a minute topographical acquaintance with all the mountains, rivers, streams, highways, and bypaths in each State; or is it a general acquaintance with its situation and resources, with the state of its agriculture, commerce, manufactures, with the nature of its products and consumptions, with the different degrees and kinds of its wealth, property, and industry? Nations in general, even under governments of the more popular kind, usually commit the administration of their finances to single men or to boards composed of a few individuals, who digest and prepare, in the first instance, the plans of taxation, which are afterwards passed into laws by the authority of the sovereign or legislature. Inquisitive and enlightened statesmen are deemed everywhere best qualified to make a judicious selection of the objects proper for revenue; which is a clear indication, as far as the sense of mankind can have weight in the question, of the species of knowledge of local circumstances requisite to the purposes of taxation. The taxes intended to be comprised under the general denomination of internal taxes may be subdivided into those of the DIRECT and those of the INDIRECT kind. Though the objection be made to both, yet the reasoning upon it seems to be confined to the former branch. And indeed, as to the latter, by which must be understood duties and excises on articles of consumption, one is at a loss to conceive what can be the nature of the difficulties apprehended. The knowledge relating to them must evidently be of a kind that will either be suggested by the nature of the article itself, or can easily be procured from any well-informed man, especially of the mercantile class. The circumstances that may distinguish its situation in one State from its situation in another must be few, simple, and easy to be comprehended. The principal thing to be attended to, would be to avoid those articles which had been previously appropriated to the use of a particular State; and there could be no difficulty in ascertaining the revenue system of each. This could always be known from the respective codes of laws, as well as from the information of the members from the several States. The objection, when applied to real property or to houses and lands, appears to have, at first sight, more foundation, but even in this view it will not bear a close examination. Land taxes are commonly laid in one of two modes, either by ACTUAL valuations, permanent or periodical, or by OCCASIONAL assessments, at the discretion, or according to the best judgment, of certain officers whose duty it is to make them. In either case, the EXECUTION of the business, which alone requires the knowledge of local details, must be devolved upon discreet persons in the character of commissioners or assessors, elected by the people or appointed by the government for the purpose. All that the law can do must be to name the persons or to prescribe the manner of their election or appointment, to fix their numbers and qualifications and to draw the general outlines of their powers and duties. And what is there in all this that cannot as well be performed by the national legislature as by a State legislature? The attention of either can only reach to general principles; local details, as already observed, must be referred to those who are to execute the plan. But there is a simple point of view in which this matter may be placed that must be altogether satisfactory. The national legislature can make use of the SYSTEM OF EACH STATE WITHIN THAT STATE. The method of laying and collecting this species of taxes in each State can, in all its parts, be adopted and employed by the federal government. Let it be recollected that the proportion of these taxes is not to be left to the discretion of the national legislature, but is to be determined by the numbers of each State, as described in the second section of the first article. An actual census or enumeration of the people must furnish the rule, a circumstance which effectually shuts the door to partiality or oppression. The abuse of this power of taxation seems to have been provided against with guarded circumspection. In addition to the precaution just mentioned, there is a provision that "all duties, imposts, and excises shall be UNIFORM throughout the United States." It has been very properly observed by different speakers and writers on the side of the Constitution, that if the exercise of the power of internal taxation by the Union should be discovered on experiment to be really inconvenient, the federal government may then forbear the use of it, and have recourse to requisitions in its stead. By way of answer to this, it has been triumphantly asked, Why not in the first instance omit that ambiguous power, and rely upon the latter resource? Two solid answers may be given. The first is, that the exercise of that power, if convenient, will be preferable, because it will be more effectual; and it is impossible to prove in theory, or otherwise than by the experiment, that it cannot be advantageously exercised. The contrary, indeed, appears most probable. The second answer is, that the existence of such a power in the Constitution will have a strong influence in giving efficacy to requisitions. When the States know that the Union can apply itself without their agency, it will be a powerful motive for exertion on their part. As to the interference of the revenue laws of the Union, and of its members, we have already seen that there can be no clashing or repugnancy of authority. The laws cannot, therefore, in a legal sense, interfere with each other; and it is far from impossible to avoid an interference even in the policy of their different systems. An effectual expedient for this purpose will be, mutually, to abstain from those objects which either side may have first had recourse to. As neither can CONTROL the other, each will have an obvious and sensible interest in this reciprocal forbearance. And where there is an IMMEDIATE common interest, we may safely count upon its operation. When the particular debts of the States are done away, and their expenses come to be limited within their natural compass, the possibility almost of interference will vanish. A small land tax will answer the purpose of the States, and will be their most simple and most fit resource. Many spectres have been raised out of this power of internal taxation, to excite the apprehensions of the people: double sets of revenue officers, a duplication of their burdens by double taxations, and the frightful forms of odious and oppressive poll-taxes, have been played off with all the ingenious dexterity of political legerdemain. As to the first point, there are two cases in which there can be no room for double sets of officers: one, where the right of imposing the tax is exclusively vested in the Union, which applies to the duties on imports; the other, where the object has not fallen under any State regulation or provision, which may be applicable to a variety of objects. In other cases, the probability is that the United States will either wholly abstain from the objects preoccupied for local purposes, or will make use of the State officers and State regulations for collecting the additional imposition. This will best answer the views of revenue, because it will save expense in the collection, and will best avoid any occasion of disgust to the State governments and to the people. At all events, here is a practicable expedient for avoiding such an inconvenience; and nothing more can be required than to show that evils predicted to not necessarily result from the plan. As to any argument derived from a supposed system of influence, it is a sufficient answer to say that it ought not to be presumed; but the supposition is susceptible of a more precise answer. If such a spirit should infest the councils of the Union, the most certain road to the accomplishment of its aim would be to employ the State officers as much as possible, and to attach them to the Union by an accumulation of their emoluments. This would serve to turn the tide of State influence into the channels of the national government, instead of making federal influence flow in an opposite and adverse current. But all suppositions of this kind are invidious, and ought to be banished from the consideration of the great question before the people. They can answer no other end than to cast a mist over the truth. As to the suggestion of double taxation, the answer is plain. The wants of the Union are to be supplied in one way or another; if to be done by the authority of the federal government, it will not be to be done by that of the State government. The quantity of taxes to be paid by the community must be the same in either case; with this advantage, if the provision is to be made by the Union that the capital resource of commercial imposts, which is the most convenient branch of revenue, can be prudently improved to a much greater extent under federal than under State regulation, and of course will render it less necessary to recur to more inconvenient methods; and with this further advantage, that as far as there may be any real difficulty in the exercise of the power of internal taxation, it will impose a disposition to greater care in the choice and arrangement of the means; and must naturally tend to make it a fixed point of policy in the national administration to go as far as may be practicable in making the luxury of the rich tributary to the public treasury, in order to diminish the necessity of those impositions which might create dissatisfaction in the poorer and most numerous classes of the society. Happy it is when the interest which the government has in the preservation of its own power, coincides with a proper distribution of the public burdens, and tends to guard the least wealthy part of the community from oppression! As to poll taxes, I, without scruple, confess my disapprobation of them; and though they have prevailed from an early period in those States(1) which have uniformly been the most tenacious of their rights, I should lament to see them introduced into practice under the national government. But does it follow because there is a power to lay them that they will actually be laid? Every State in the Union has power to impose taxes of this kind; and yet in several of them they are unknown in practice. Are the State governments to be stigmatized as tyrannies, because they possess this power? If they are not, with what propriety can the like power justify such a charge against the national government, or even be urged as an obstacle to its adoption? As little friendly as I am to the species of imposition, I still feel a thorough conviction that the power of having recourse to it ought to exist in the federal government. There are certain emergencies of nations, in which expedients, that in the ordinary state of things ought to be forborne, become essential to the public weal. And the government, from the possibility of such emergencies, ought ever to have the option of making use of them. The real scarcity of objects in this country, which may be considered as productive sources of revenue, is a reason peculiar to itself, for not abridging the discretion of the national councils in this respect. There may exist certain critical and tempestuous conjunctures of the State, in which a poll tax may become an inestimable resource. And as I know nothing to exempt this portion of the globe from the common calamities that have befallen other parts of it, I acknowledge my aversion to every project that is calculated to disarm the government of a single weapon, which in any possible contingency might be usefully employed for the general defense and security. (I have now gone through the examination of such of the powers proposed to be vested in the United States, which may be considered as having an immediate relation to the energy of the government; and have endeavored to answer the principal objections which have been made to them. I have passed over in silence those minor authorities, which are either too inconsiderable to have been thought worthy of the hostilities of the opponents of the Constitution, or of too manifest propriety to admit of controversy. The mass of judiciary power, however, might have claimed an investigation under this head, had it not been for the consideration that its organization and its extent may be more advantageously considered in connection. This has determined me to refer it to the branch of our inquiries upon which we shall next enter.)(E1) (I have now gone through the examination of those powers proposed to be conferred upon the federal government which relate more peculiarly to its energy, and to its efficiency for answering the great and primary objects of union. There are others which, though omitted here, will, in order to render the view of the subject more complete, be taken notice of under the next head of our inquiries. I flatter myself the progress already made will have sufficed to satisfy the candid and judicious part of the community that some of the objections which have been most strenuously urged against the Constitution, and which were most formidable in their first appearance, are not only destitute of substance, but if they had operated in the formation of the plan, would have rendered it incompetent to the great ends of public happiness and national prosperity. I equally flatter myself that a further and more critical investigation of the system will serve to recommend it still more to every sincere and disinterested advocate for good government and will leave no doubt with men of this character of the propriety and expediency of adopting it. Happy will it be for ourselves, and more honorable for human nature, if we have wisdom and virtue enough to set so glorious an example to mankind!)(E1) PUBLIUS 1. The New England States. E1. Two versions of this paragraph appear in different editions.

Summary: Hamilton responds to further criticisms of the constitution's tax provisions. He rejects the claim that the national legislature will not have sufficient knowledge of local circumstances to impose taxes on the people directly. Representatives of each state will certainly have an adequate understanding of their constituent's interests and circumstances in order to make an informed decision on taxation. Hamilton also addresses concerns about how the national tax system would operate, especially when both states governments and the union have the authority to levy taxes. He asserts that both levels of government would be wise enough to avoid taxing items already taxed by the other. He also asserts that the national legislature will be able to use the state's tax collecting apparatus to collect federal taxes. Finally, Hamilton argues that the proposed constitution will not lead to "double sets of revenue officers" or "double taxations" as had been feared.

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Summarize: BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION 1. Field of the Invention The invention concerns a feeder house of a harvesting machine and in particular to a feeder house with a front face for the attachment of a front harvesting header wherein the front face is pivotable about a horizontal axis transverse to the direction of operation to adjust the header for changing contours of the ground. 2. Description of the Related Art A feeder house for a harvesting machine, such as a combine, is known in which a vertical pivoting adjustment is integrated into the feeder house or the supply channel, in order to be able to pivot a header about a horizontal axis that extends transverse to the direction of operation of the harvesting machine. This enables adjustment to be made due to changing contours of the ground. EP 685 147 A discloses a feeder house manufactured in two parts and having a pivot axis between the two halves of the housing along the bottom side of the slope conveyor. The disadvantage here is that the attainable pivot angle is relatively small, and that crop can intrude into the gap between the two housing halves. DE 43 24 766 A discloses a feeder house with a front face at the front of the feeder house which pivots about a horizontal axis that is transverse to the direction of forward operation. The pivot axis is arranged at the bottom of the slope conveyor. DE 23 02 499 A discloses a feeder house in which a front face is movable in a generally vertical direction by corresponding hydraulic cylinders but is not pivoted about a transverse axis. In this feeder house, as well as in that described in DE 43 24 766 A, the disadvantage is seen in the fact that the transition of the harvested crop from the header, in particular from the auger in the header, to the slope conveyor, is not always optimal, since the spacing between the auger and the slope conveyor changes as a function of the pivot angle or the height of the front face. A feeder house is shown in EP 448 844 A and U.S. Pat. No. 4,253,295 in which the front face can be pivoted about an axis that is arranged approximately coaxial with the axis of a front roller of a chain conveyor. Here too, an optimal transition of the harvested crop is not possible from the header to the chain conveyor, since the chain conveyor must be spaced sufficiently far from the auger of the header in order to make possible a sufficiently large pivot angle. U.S. Pat. No. 4,266,395 discloses an add-on adapter assembly at the front of a feeder house to enable pivoting of a header about a fore and aft axis. The adapter assembly includes a first component that couples to the feeder house in the same manner as the header. A second component is mounted to the first component to pivot about a fore and aft axis. The header is then mounted to the second component of the adapter assembly. A rotary feeder is carried by the second component to assist in conveying crop material from the header into the feeder house. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION The present invention seeks to provide a feeder house that can adjust the header angle and maintain an optimum transfer of the harvested crop from the header to the slope conveyor of the feeder house. This is accomplished by providing a first conveyor and a second conveyor downstream of the first conveyor, with respect to the flow of the harvested crop, and by configuring the front mounting face to which the header is fastened so as to pivot about an axis that is approximately coaxial with the axis of the first conveyor. The first conveyor is arranged at an optimum spacing from the header so that the best possible transfer of the harvested crop from the header to the first conveyor can be achieved. Since the pivot axis of the front mounting face is aligned (at least approximately) with the axis of the first conveyor, the spacing between the header and the first conveyor remains constant at all times and optimum conveying of the harvested crop is guaranteed at all pivot angles of the header. The mounting arrangement can include a front face that makes possible a lateral pivoting motion of the header about the longitudinal axis of the harvesting machine in order to accommodate for uneven ground laterally. But a rigid attachment of the header to the mounting arrangement is also conceivable. In the state of the art, as well as, in particular, from the EP 448 844 A, it has become known that the conveyor and the mounting arrangement are supported in bearings, each movable in two directions separately in a relatively costly manner. To reduce the expense and the cost of manufacture, it is proposed that the mounting arrangement be rotatably supported in bearings directly or indirectly on the axis of the first conveyor. Thereby the axes of the first conveyor and of the mounting arrangement are always coaxial. In actual terms, it is conceivable to rigidly attach the axis of the first conveyor to the housing of the feeder house in such a way that it projects through a corresponding opening in the housing in order to support the mounting arrangement in bearings on a section of the axis that extends beyond the housing of the feeder house. As an alternative, the mounting arrangement can be supported in bearings on a section of the axis of the first conveyor positioned on the interior of the housing, in particular on the wall of the housing. It should be noted that the axis of the first conveyor, as a rule, is a driven shaft. In this case the designation “axis” is understood to mean the longitudinal axis of the shaft. The axis of the first conveyor is preferably fastened rigidly to the housing, that is, not movable or able to be shifted, but may also be adjustable in a manner known in itself in the vertical and/or horizontal direction (with respect to the forward operating direction). Regardless of that fact, the first conveyor is free to rotate about its axis. The second conveyor may be a chain conveyor, that includes a first and a second roller, of which at least one is driven, and about which a conveyor chain with corresponding lugs for the harvested crop circulates. The first conveyor in particular is most likely to be a roller that conveys the harvested crop as an undershot conveyor or an overshot conveyor. The advantage of a roller lies in its shorter length in comparison to a chain conveyor, which permits a greater pivot angle, without the mounting arrangement making contact with the first conveyor. In addition, it is possible to position the first conveyor closer to the header which makes possible an improved transition of the harvested crop from the header to the feeder house. In an advantageous embodiment of the invention, a roller with paddles is used as the first conveyor. It conveys the harvested crop effectively and rapidly from the header to the second conveyor which conducts it to the harvesting machine. Furthermore, additional support is provided for the mounting arrangement at the housing of the feeder house so that the pivot axis does not have to carry the entire load of the header and the mounting arrangement. This support can be provided primarily by pins that slide in corresponding slots. The pins may be attached to the mounting arrangement with the slots in the housing of the feeder house, or inversely, the pins may be fastened to the housing and the slots formed in the mounting arrangement. The movement through the pivot angle of the mounting arrangement can be performed by one or more hydraulic cylinders or electric motors or in a simple and low cost mechanical manner. For a mechanical adjustment, a pin is proposed one end of which is connected to the mounting arrangement and the other end is provided with a nut that is mechanically carried by the housing of the feeder house. The pivot angle can be changed by turning the nut. Only one such pin may be provided on one side of the housing of the feeder house, or two pins can be applied to either side of the feeder house. The latter solution remains safe in operation in case of breakage of one pin, but a greater effort is required for an adjustment. It should be noted that the pin can be fastened to the housing of the feeder house, while the nut then is mechanically carried by the mounting arrangement. In a manner known in itself, the feeder house may be provided with a one-piece housing. However, the housing may be a two-piece design, where the first conveyor is preferably arranged in the second part of the housing; here the second part may be a separate module. The mounting arrangement is then also attached to the module. The invention can be applied to all types of headers, for example, with front mower attachments, that are particularly suitable for harvesting grain crops, forage harvesters and corn heads. Finally it should be noted that the invention can also be attained in the form of a separate module added to a conventional feeder house. This module is attached to a feeder house and the header rigidly attached thereto. The module contains a first conveyor and a mounting arrangement to which a header can be fastened. As a rule, the feeder house contains a second conveyor that conveys the harvested crop transported by the first conveyor into a harvesting machine for further processing. Since the axis of the first conveyor and the pivot axis of the mounting arrangement are at least approximately coaxial, here, too, an optimum transition of the harvested material from the header into the feeder house is always guaranteed. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a side view of a harvesting machine for use with a feeder house according to the present invention. FIG. 2 is a side view of a first embodiment of a feeder house according to the present invention. FIG. 3 is a side view of a second embodiment of a feeder house according to the present invention. DESCRIPTION OF THE PREFERRED EMBODIMENT A harvesting machine 10, in the form of a combine, is shown in FIG. 1 and includes front driven and rear steerable wheels 12, 14 and an operator&#39;s cab 16 from which the harvesting machine can be controlled by an operator. Tracks can be used in place of the wheels if desired. To the rear of the operator&#39;s cab 16 there is a grain tank 18 that can deliver crop deposited in it to the outside through an unloading auger 20. The grain tank 18 is supported on a frame 22 in which crop supplied thereto is threshed in its path between a cylinder 24 and concave 26 and past a beater 28. On straw walkers 30 as well as on a pan 32 and sieves 34, further separation of the grain from the harvested crop is performed where finally the grain is conveyed into the grain tank 18, the large components of the crop material are deposited on the ground over the straw walkers 30 and chaff is blown by means of a fan 36 from the sieves 34, also onto the ground. After being taken up from the ground by a header, not shown in FIG. 1, crop is conducted through a feeder house 38, having a slope conveyor and a stone catcher trough 40, to the cylinder 24. The feeder house 38 is attached to the front side of the harvesting machine 10 and is free to pivot about a horizontal axis extending transverse to the plane of the drawing. It can be pivoted by corresponding hydraulic cylinders, not shown in the drawing, as is well known. Alternatively, a feeder house 38 that is rigidly attached to the combine, and is not pivoted, is also possible. FIG. 2 shows the feeder house 38 according to a first embodiment of the invention. A header 74 is fastened to the front of the feeder house. The feeder house 38 is provided with a housing 62. The housing 62 contains a slope conveyor having an upper conveyor roller 42, that rotates about an axis 44, a lower conveyor roll 48, that rotates about an axis 50, as well as a conveyor chain 46 circulating about both the upper and lower rolls 42, 48. The chain conveyor has impeller lugs, not shown, for conveying the harvested crop. One of the conveyor rolls 42, 48 is driven so as to rotate counterclockwise, as seen in FIG. 2, so the harvested crop is conveyed upward between the conveyor chain 46 and a bottom of the housing 62 into the harvesting machine 10. The upper and lower rolls 42, 48 and the chain conveyor form a second conveyor 52. A first conveyor 66 is positioned before the lower conveyor roller 42 and is in the form of a transport roller with paddles 84 attached to its circumference. The first conveyor 66 is also driven to rotate counterclockwise about an axis 64 as seen in FIG. 2. Hence the harvested crop is conveyed by an undershot conveyor. The paddles 84 are slightly inclined against the direction of rotation, in order to be able to convey the harvested crop optimally. At the front of the feeder house 38, as seen in the direction of operation identified by the arrow 83, a mounting arrangement 54 is positioned. The mounting arrangement 54 is open on its front side facing the header 74. As a rule this opening is rectangular and the harvested crop passes through it. In addition, the mounting arrangement 54 is provided with side walls 55 that are in contact with the outer surfaces of the forward portions of the side walls 65 of the housing 62 of the feeder house 38. The side walls 65 of the housing 62 do not extend to the front side of the mounting arrangement 54 but end short of that, in order to make possible a pivoting of the mounting arrangement 54 with the header 74. At its side walls, the mounting arrangement 54 is rotatably supported in bearings about the shaft 61 of the first conveyor 66 which defines a conveyor axis 64. In addition, pins 67 are attached to both side walls 65 of the housing 62 of the feeder house 38, and extend through circular-arc shaped slots 68 in the side walls 55 of the mounting arrangement 54. The pins 67 support the mounting arrangement 54 against the force of gravity, and the slots 68 limit the range of pivot angles. The pivot angle of the mounting arrangement 54 is defined mechanically by a threaded pin 58 which is attached, free to rotate, at a first end 56 to the mounting arrangement 54. The pin 58 extends through a support 60 that is provided with a corresponding opening and is welded to the housing 62 of the feeder house 38. The pin 58 is fastened to the support 60 by nuts that are in contact with both sides of the support 60, this fixes the pivot angle. By an adjustment of the nuts, a desired pivot angle of the mounting arrangement 54 can be established. A front face 70, known in the art, is provided on the front side of the mounting arrangement 54, which permits a lateral pivoting motion of the header 74 about the longitudinal axis of the harvesting machine 10. The header 74 is provided with a support beam 72 that extends transverse to the direction of forward operation and supports the header 74 on the mounting arrangement 54. The header 74 is shown as a platform, which is well known, having a cutter bar 76 in the form of an reciprocating mower, located between two side walls 82, which severs crop from stubble remaining on the ground. A reel 80 is arranged above and in front of the cutter bar 76, in order to press the crop against the cutter bar 76 and toward an auger 78. The auger 78 transports the harvested crop to the center of the header 74, where it is taken by the first conveyor 66 and is directed into the housing 62 of the feeder house 38. The housing 62, as a rule, is narrower than the header 74. FIG. 3 shows the first conveyor 66, a transport roll, operating as an overshot conveyor driven in a clockwise direction. It is equipped with paddles 86, which are slightly inclined toward the direction of rotation. Furthermore the feeder house of FIG. 3 is provided with two parts: the housing 62 and a separate module 63, which is fastened to the front of the housing 62, for example, attached by a flange. The housing 62 contains, in known manner, the sloped conveyor with the conveyor chain 46 as the second conveyor 52. The first conveyor 66 is supported in bearings in the module 63, and the mounting arrangement 54 is also supported in bearings, free to pivot, on the module 63. The pivot axis of the mounting arrangement 54 is coaxial with the axis 64 of the first conveyor 66. The module 63 is configured in the same way as the front region of the one-piece feeder house of FIG. 2. The module 63 is primarily beneficial as an add on device to a conventional feeder house that only has the sloped conveyor 52 to provide the benefit of the first and second conveyors of the present invention. In the embodiment of FIG. 3, the pivot angle of the mounting arrangement 54 is controlled by a remote actuator 90 which may be a servo motor, hydraulic cylinder, etc. The actuator 90 is coupled to the mounting arrangement 54 and a threaded pin 58 extends therefrom to the module 63. The threaded pin is mounted to the module as described above in connection with FIG. 2. Alternatively, the actuator can be coupled to the module 63 and the pin 58 extend to the mounting arrangement 54. The remote actuator 90 allows the pivot angle of the mounting arrangement to be changed remotely, such as from the operator&#39;s cab 16. The remote actuator 90 is an alternative to the device shown in FIG. 2 and can be used with that embodiment of the invention as well. As a result of the fact that the pivot axis of the mounting arrangement 54 is coaxial with the axis 64 of the first conveyor 66, the harvested crop is transported optimally from the header into the harvesting machine 10 at any desired pivot angle of the mounting arrangement 54. The invention should not be limited to the above-described embodiment, but should be limited solely by the claims that follow.

Summary: The invention concerns a feeder house ( 38 ) with a first conveyor ( 66 ) for the transport of harvested crop, a second conveyor arranged downstream of the first conveyor and a mounting arrangement ( 54 ) for the mounting of a header ( 74 ) to the feeder house. In order to attain an optimum transition of the harvested crop from the header ( 74 ) to the first conveyor ( 66 ), the mounting arrangement ( 54 ) is supported in bearings, free to pivot, relative to the feeder house ( 38 ) about an axis that is generally coaxial with the axis ( 64 ) of the first conveyor ( 66 ).

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``JCPOA Enforcement Transparency Act of 2016''. SEC. 2. FINDINGS. Congress makes the following findings: (1) The United States entered into the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) on July 14, 2015, without the approval of Congress. (2) The JCPOA established the Joint Commission in Annex IV of the agreement. (3) The JCPOA placed detailed limitations on components of Iran's nuclear agreement, and required those limitations to be met by Implementation Day, which took place on January 16, 2016. (4) The Joint Commission provided alternate arrangements regarding some Iranian nuclear stocks and facilities prior to January 16, 2016. (5) The JCPOA capped Iran's stockpile of low enriched uranium (LEU) at 300 kilograms (kg). (6) Iran was granted an exemption to retain more than 300 kg of LEU by the Joint Commission. (7) The JCPOA required all Iranian uranium oxide enriched to between 5 percent and 20 percent to be fabricated into fuel plates for the Tehran Research Reactor or transferred outside of Iran or diluted to an enrichment level of 3.67 percent or less. (8) The Joint Commission found near 20 percent LEU in ``lab contaminant'' that was judged as unrecoverable. (9) Under the JCPOA, Iran committed to only develop, acquire, build, or operate hot cells, shielded cells, or shielded glove boxes with dimensions less than 6 cubic meters for 15 years. (10) Prior to Implementation Day, the Joint Commission agreed to allow Iran to continue operating 19 large hot cells in three Tehran locations and one Karaj location which are in excess of the 6 cubic meter limitation. (11) In July 2016, the Joint Commission established a Technical Working Group to evaluate stocks of Iranian 3.67 percent LEU and other stocks. (12) Ensuring Iranian compliance with the JCPOA is tantamount to restricting breakout times for the development of a nuclear weapon. (13) The current Administration's policy to maintain secrecy on the decisions of the Joint Commission and its Technical Working Group interferes in the process of establishing adequate congressional and public oversight of the JCPOA. SEC. 3. NOTIFICATION AND JUSTIFICATION REQUIREMENT FOR DECISIONS ISSUED BY THE JOINT COMMISSION AND TECHNICAL WORKING GROUP. (a) In General.--The President, in consultation with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Energy, and the heads of other relevant agencies, shall-- (1) not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, notify the appropriate congressional committees of all past decisions made by the Joint Commission or the Technical Working Group; and (2) not later than 30 days after each subsequent decision made by the Joint Commission, the Technical Working Group, or any subsequent working group established by the JCPOA, notify the appropriate congressional committees of such decision. (b) Elements.--The notification required under subsection (a) shall include the following elements: (1) A description of the decision. (2) A justification for the decision. (3) An unclassified summary of the decision, with a classified annex if necessary. SEC. 4. PUBLICATION OF DECISIONS. The Secretary of State shall publish on a publicly available Internet website a description of the decision-making process and a summary of all decisions granted by the Joint Commission, the Technical Working Group, or any subsequent working group established under the auspices of the JCPOA. SEC. 5. SENSE OF CONGRESS. It is the sense of Congress that-- (1) the United States representative to the Joint Commission, the Technical Working Group, or any subsequent working group established under the auspices of the JCPOA should oppose any exemptions or modifications to requirements for Iran under the JCPOA; and (2) the workings of the Joint Commission, the Technical Working Group, and any subsequent working group established under the auspices of the JCPOA to evaluate Iranian compliance to JCPOA requirements should proceed in an open and transparent manner. SEC. 6. DEFINITIONS. In this Act: (1) Appropriate congressional committees.--The term ``appropriate congressional committees'' means-- (A) the Committee on Foreign Relations, the Committee on Armed Services, the Select Committee on Intelligence, and the Committee on Appropriations of the Senate; and (B) the Committee on Foreign Affairs, the Committee on Armed Services, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence, and the Committee on Appropriations of the House of Representatives. (2) Joint commission.--The term ``Joint Commission'' means the group comprised of representatives of Iran and the E3/EU+3, as defined in Annex IV of the JCPOA. (3) Joint comprehensive plan of action and jcpoa.--The terms ``Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action'' and ``JCPOA'' mean the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action signed at Vienna on July 14, 2015, by Iran and by France, Germany, the Russian Federation, the People's Republic of China, the United Kingdom, and the United States, all implementing materials and agreements related to the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, and any other subsequent agreement with Iran that addresses the Iran nuclear issue. (4) Technical working group.--The term ``Technical Working Group'' means the Technical Working Group established by the Joint Commission in July 2016 to consider further exemptions under the JCPOA relating to Iran's stock of 3.5 percent low enriched uranium.

Title: JCPOA Enforcement Transparency Act of 2016 Summary: JCPOA Enforcement Transparency Act of 2016 This bill requires the President to notify the appropriate congressional committees: (1) within 30 days after enactment of this Act, of all past decisions made by the Joint Commission or the Technical Working Group under the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), signed at Vienna on July 14, 2015; and (2) of each subsequent decision made by such commission, such working group, or any subsequent working group established under the JCPOA within 30 days after such decision is made. The Department of State shall publish on a publicly available Internet website a description of the decision-making process and a summary of all decisions granted by such commission or working group.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Safety in Defense Contracting Act''. SEC. 2. REQUIREMENT FOR SECRETARY OF DEFENSE TO DEBAR COMPANIES FOUND TO JEOPARDIZE HEALTH OR SAFETY OF GOVERNMENT PERSONNEL OR FOUND GUILTY OF CONTRACT FRAUD. (a) Requirement To Debar.-- (1) Prime contractors.--The Secretary of Defense shall debar from contracting with the Department of Defense any defense contractor-- (A) that has been determined, through a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding that results in a disposition listed in subsection (f), in the performance of a covered contract-- (i) to have caused serious injury or death to any civilian or military personnel of the Government through gross negligence or with reckless disregard for the safety of such personnel; or (ii) to have committed fraud; or (B) that awarded a subcontract under a covered contract to a subcontractor that has been determined, through a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding that results in a disposition listed in subsection (f), in the performance of the subcontract-- (i) to have caused serious injury or death to any civilian or military personnel of the Government, through gross negligence or with reckless disregard for the safety of such personnel; or (ii) to have committed fraud. (2) Subcontractors.--The Secretary of Defense shall debar from contracting with the Department of Defense any subcontractor under a covered contract with respect to which a determination described in paragraph (1)(B) has been made. The Secretary of Defense also shall require, as a condition of any defense contract, that no subcontract may be awarded under the contract to any subcontractor with respect to which a determination described in paragraph (1)(B) has been made. (b) Definitions.--In this section: (1) The term ``defense contractor'' means a company awarded a covered contract. (2) The term ``covered contract'' means a contract awarded by the Department of Defense in an amount in excess of $500,000 for the procurement of goods or services. (c) Applicability of Debarment.--A debarment required by subsection (a) shall apply only with respect to contracts sought by an offeror for the same or similar goods or services as those provided or performed under the contract or subcontract with respect to which a determination described in subparagraph (A) or (B) of subsection (a)(1) was made. (d) Period of Debarment.--The debarment required by subsection (a) shall apply for a period of not less than five years after the date of the determination described in subsection (a)(1). (e) Waiver.--The debarment required by subsection (a) may be waived by the Secretary of Defense on a case-by-case basis if the Secretary finds that the debarment would jeopardize national security. (f) List of Dispositions in Criminal, Civil, or Administrative Proceedings.--For purposes of subsection (a), the dispositions listed in this subsection are as follows: (1) In a criminal proceeding, a conviction. (2) In a civil proceeding, a finding of fault and liability that results in the payment of a monetary fine, penalty, reimbursement, restitution, or damages of $5,000 or more. (3) In an administrative proceeding, a finding of fault and liability that results in-- (A) the payment of a monetary fine or penalty of $5,000 or more; or (B) the payment of a reimbursement, restitution, or damages in excess of $100,000. (4) To the maximum extent practicable and consistent with applicable laws and regulations, in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, a disposition of the matter by consent or compromise with an acknowledgment of fault by the person if the proceeding could have led to any of the outcomes specified in paragraph (1), (2), or (3). SEC. 3. WITHHOLDING OF CERTAIN CONTRACT FEES. In the case of any defense contractor that receives a level III corrective action request from the Defense Contract Management Agency in a fiscal year, the Secretary of Defense shall withhold any award or incentive fees on the contract for that fiscal year. With respect to any such fees already paid to the contractor during that fiscal year, the Secretary shall require the contractor to pay back the fees.

Title: To require the Secretary of Defense to debar from contracting with the Department of Defense any company found to have jeopardized the health or safety of Government personnel or found guilty of contract fraud, and for other purposes Summary: Safety in Defense Contracting Act - Requires the Secretary of Defense to debar from contracting with the Department of Defense (DOD) any defense contractor: (1) officially determined to have caused serious injury or death to any civilian or military personnel through gross negligence or reckless disregard for safety, or to have committed fraud; or (2) awarded a subcontract to a subcontractor officially determined to have caused or committed such actions. Directs the Secretary to also debar any subcontractor found to have caused or committed such actions. Requires a five-year minimum period for such a debarment. Authorizes a debarment waiver by the Secretary if it would jeopardize national security. Directs the Secretary, in the case of any defense contractor receiving a level III corrective action request from the Defense Contract Management Agency in a fiscal year, to withhold any contract award or incentive fees for that fiscal year.

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Summarize: Background Twenty-two Agencies Merged to Form DHS in the Aftermath of 9/11 DHS was created in response to the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001. Not since the creation of the Department of Defense in 1947 has the federal government undertaken an organizational merger of this magnitude. Enacted on November 25, 2002, the Homeland Security Act established DHS by merging 22 distinct agencies and organizations with multiple missions, values, and cultures. The 22 agencies whose powers were absorbed or in part assumed by DHS came from eight different departments (Agriculture, Commerce, Defense, Energy, Health and Human Services, Justice, Transportation, and the Treasury) and two independent offices (the Federal Emergency Management Agency and the General Services Administration). In addition, DHS merged responsibilities from former agencies to create some new agencies, such as Customs and Border Protection. On March 1, 2003, DHS officially began operations as a new department. DHS is among the largest federal government agencies, with approximately 180,000 employees and an estimated budget of $43.6 billion for fiscal year 2007. DHS’s mission is to lead the unified national effort to secure America, prevent and deter terrorist attacks, protect against and respond to threats and hazards to the nation, ensure safe and secure borders, welcome lawful immigrants and visitors, and promote the free flow of commerce. Six of the seven primary operational agencies, and the Operations Directorate of the department, have identified the need to conduct activities in support of the homeland security mission 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year. The department’s July 2006 organizational chart, as illustrated in figure 1, highlights these six agencies and the Operations Directorate. Three DHS Components Sponsor Multi-Agency Operations Centers The three components of DHS that have overall responsibility for the four multi-agency 24/7/365 operations centers were created in response to the events of September 11, 2001, and the subsequent establishment of DHS. By merging portions of the Immigration and Naturalization Service and the U.S. Department of Agriculture with elements of U.S. Customs, CBP was created as part of DHS in 2003 to protect the nation’s borders in order to prevent terrorists and terrorist weapons from entering or exiting the United States while facilitating the flow of legitimate trade and travel. CBP sponsors two 24/7/365 multi-agency operations centers: the Air and Marine Operations Center and the National Targeting Center. TSA, established in 2001 (as part of the Department of Transportation), and incorporated into DHS in 2003, protects the nation’s transportation systems to ensure freedom of movement for people and commerce and sponsors the Transportation Security Operations Center. DHS established the Office of Operations Coordination (referred to as the Operations Directorate) after a broad internal review in 2005. The Operations Directorate, which sponsors the National Operations Center (includes the previous Homeland Security Operations Center), is responsible for coordinating internal and external operational issues throughout the department, conducting incident management, and facilitating rapid staff planning and execution. The three sponsoring components provide overall direction and management for their respective centers. Transformation Challenges and Practices That Can Help Enhance and Sustain Collaboration among Federal Agencies We have previously reported that establishing the new DHS is an enormous undertaking and the new department needs to build a successful transformation that does the following: instills the organization with important management principles; rapidly implements a phased-in transition plan; leverages the new department and other agencies in executing the national homeland security strategy; and builds collaborative partnerships with federal, state, local, and private-sector organizations. DHS faces significant management and organizational transformation challenges as it works to protect the nation from terrorism and simultaneously establish itself. For these reasons, in January 2005, we continued to designate the implementation and transformation of the department as high risk. DHS’s Inspector General reported, in December 2004, that integrating DHS’s many separate components into a single, effective, efficient, and economical department remains one of its biggest challenges. We also reported in 2005 that agencies can enhance and sustain their collaborative efforts by engaging in eight key management practices: defining and articulating a common outcome; establishing mutually reinforcing or joint strategies; identifying and addressing needs by leveraging resources; agreeing on roles and responsibilities; establishing compatible policies, procedures, and other means to operate across agency boundaries; developing mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on results of collaborative efforts; reinforcing agency accountability for collaborative efforts through agency plans and reports; and reinforcing individual accountability for collaborative efforts through performance management systems. Although there is no commonly accepted definition for collaboration, in our previous assessment of collaborative efforts among federal agencies we defined it as any joint activity by two or more organizations that is intended to produce more public value than could be produced when the organizations act alone. This report focuses on the actions DHS and its components have taken to make collaboration at multi-agency operations centers as effective as possible. Joint activities take place at operations centers where multiple components staff watchstander positions and provide liaison, expertise, and access to information that would not otherwise be on hand. For this report, we selected the first seven of the eight key practices listed above and assessed the first two key practices together, thereby reducing our focus to six areas. We did not address the eighth practice—reinforcing individual accountability for collaborative efforts through performance management systems—because an in-depth examination of component agencies’ performance management systems was beyond the scope of this review. While the Four Multi- Agency Operations Centers’ Missions and Products Differ, Functions and Customers Are Similar The four multi-agency operations centers each have their own mission and generate different products while performing similar functions and sharing a number of customers. The missions of the AMOC, NTC, and TSOC are tactical, including such activities as monitoring the nation’s airspace, the movement of potential terrorists, and the passengers on commercial flights, respectively. NOC-Watch’s mission is more strategic in that it collects information gathered by the other multi-agency operations centers and provides a national perspective on situational awareness. The products of the four multi-agency operations centers reflect their different missions and range from reports on suspect individuals traveling on commercial flights to reports on suspicious private air and marine craft. The multi-agency operations centers all share some common functions: maintaining situational awareness and information sharing and communications; coordinating internal operations and coordinating among federal, state, local, tribal, and private-sector entities; and managing incidents and making decisions. While all the multi-agency operations centers share common customers, such as foreign, federal, state, and local governments, the NOC-Watch has a larger number of customers, given its role as a hub for overall situational awareness. The Different Missions of the Four Multi-Agency Operations Centers Result in Different Products Of the four multi-agency operations centers, three—AMOC, NTC and TSOC—have tactical yet different missions and provide different products that reflect their respective missions. The NOC-Watch has a more strategic mission in providing an overall assessment of situational awareness. Air and Marine Operations Center The AMOC’s primary mission is to detect, sort, track, and facilitate the interdiction of criminal entities throughout the Western Hemisphere, by utilizing integrated air and marine forces, the latest technology, and tactical intelligence. AMOC’s maintains day-to-day, around-the-clock airspace situational awareness of the nation’s borders through identification and detection of foreign and domestic threats. Created in 1988 by the U.S. Customs Service and located in Southern California, the AMOC was established as the Air and Marine Operations Center on March 1, 2003. In addition to CBP and U.S. Coast Guard personnel, the AMOC is staffed by the Federal Aviation Administration, and the Department of Defense National Guard Bureau-Air National Guard, as well as a representative of the government of Mexico. AMOC staff use surveillance systems and databases to detect, identify, and track potential threats, and to coordinate the apprehension of criminals using law enforcement air, marine, and ground interdiction forces. Staff utilize a surveillance system that includes an extensive network of over 200 ground-based radar and satellite tracking systems throughout North America and the Caribbean. Staff also use numerous law enforcement and Federal Aviation Administration databases to ensure that U.S. entry policy and procedures are followed. Figure 2 shows the variety of information and data sources employed by the AMOC. Staff can conduct detailed research from a transnational and criminal threat perspective to identify suspect persons, aircraft, and marine vessels. AMOC staff use the resulting information to coordinate air and marine law enforcement activity with various agencies such as the U.S. Coast Guard and Immigration and Customs Enforcement; federal, state, and local law enforcement; the Department of Defense; U.S. and foreign air traffic control facilities; and foreign government coordination centers. The AMOC Daily Intelligence Report focuses on the nation’s borders involving suspicious private air and marine craft that are detected by radar, eyewitnesses, or surveillance aircraft. National Targeting Center The NTC’s mission is to coordinate and support all agency field-level anti- terrorism activities by providing tactical targeting and analytical research, and to be a single point of reference for all agency anti-terrorism efforts. NTC monitors the movement of potential terrorists and prevents them and any weapons of terror from entering and exiting our country through land, air, and sea ports. Established on October 22, 2001, under the U.S. Customs Service, the NTC, located in Northern Virginia, began 24/7/365 operations November 10, 2001. In addition to CBP personnel, the NTC is staffed by the U.S. Coast Guard, Immigration and Customs Enforcement, Federal Air Marshal Service, and the Transportation Security Administration. NTC staff use sophisticated information-gathering techniques and analytical tools to look at data containing passenger and flight information. These data include lists of known terrorists, foreign visitors whose official authorization permitting entry into and travel within the United States has elapsed (visa overstays), passport information, and cargo listings to seek potential matches. Any inconsistency identified in the data can trigger additional analysis. Figure 3 shows the variety of sources of information and data sources employed by the NTC. NTC works with a variety of federal stakeholders. For example, the NTC works with the Federal Bureau of Investigation’s Terrorist Screening Center to identify persons on the National Terrorist Watch List. NTC staff also provide information from CBP’s Advance Passenger Information System for TSA’s performance of a risk assessment on crewmembers on international flights. Federal Air Marshals use information developed by the NTC to determine if they need to put resources on a specific flight. Using NTC capabilities to screen crew, vessel, and cargo, along with other information, the U.S. Coast Guard determines vessels and crewmembers that warrant further surveillance or assessment and can prioritize its inspection efforts. NTC also helps in implementing the pilot Immigration Advisory Program by reviewing advance information on travelers forwarded by program teams to identify travelers at foreign airports that may present a risk or warrant more intensive examination before they board aircraft bound for the United States. (Passengers whose travel documents are invalid, expired, or otherwise may have been altered, counterfeited or obtained through fraud are advised, as is the airline, before they leave their foreign location that they will likely be deemed inadmissible and denied entry upon arrival in the United States.) The NTC reports we reviewed primarily identified individuals at and between domestic ports of entry and certain critical foreign ports. Transportation Security Operations Center The TSOC’s mission is to provide situational awareness and information sharing in day-to-day coordination and incident management for all transportation security related operations and issues worldwide by monitoring, responding to, and investigating security incidents involving all transportation sectors. TSOC maintains situational awareness of passengers on commercial flights and works to minimize and mitigate security vulnerabilities of the National Capital Region and critical infrastructure such as commercial airports, rail stations, and pipelines. The TSOC, located in Northern Virginia, began 24/7/365 operations in August 2003. The National Capital Region Command Center constitutes the multi-agency element of the TSOC because it is staffed by other DHS component agencies—specifically the U.S. Secret Service and Customs and Border Protection. In addition, representatives of organizations outside of DHS such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation, District of Columbia Metro Police, Federal Aviation Administration, U.S. Capitol Police, and the U.S. Air Force (Northeast Air Defense Sector) provide watchstanders for the TSOC. As part of its mission, TSOC staff coordinate with federal, state, and local homeland security entities to identify activities that might indicate a threat to national security and isolate indications of impending attack while assessing their potential impact. The TSOC also furnishes alerts and reports to field security organizations while combining intelligence with operational information across all modes of transportation. Last, it monitors incidents and crises, including national special events such as presidential inaugurations and the Super Bowl, for TSA headquarters and makes recommendations to DHS leadership. Figure 4 shows the modes of transportation monitored by the TSOC. The TSOC reports we reviewed provided information on incidents across all modes of transportation, including National Capital Region security incidents, critical infrastructure, and individuals of interest related to the No-Fly List. National Operations Center- Interagency Watch The NOC-Watch is designed to perform a more strategic mission than the other three multi-agency operations centers. NOC-Watch acts as the primary national-level coordination point for awareness of events that may affect national security or safety. The center is responsible for combining and sharing of information, communications, and operations coordination pertaining to the prevention of terrorist attacks and domestic incident management by facilitating information sharing with other federal, state, local, tribal, and nongovernmental entities and by fusing law enforcement, national intelligence, emergency response, and private-sector reporting. Created as the Homeland Security Operations Center and located in Northwest Washington, D.C., the center was established on February 19, 2003, and redesignated the National Operations Center on May 25, 2006. The NOC-Watch is the 24/7/365 element of the center. In addition to staff from the Operations Directorate, the NOC-Watch includes other DHS staff from 20 components and offices such as representatives from the U.S. Secret Service, Federal Protective Service, Federal Air Marshal Service, Transportation Security Administration, Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Coast Guard, Federal Emergency Management Agency, U.S. Border Patrol, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, National Biological Surveillance Group, U.S. Computer Emergency Readiness Team, Domestic Nuclear Detection Office, and other DHS directorates. The NOC-Watch also includes representatives from 35 other federal, state, and local agencies such as the Central Intelligence Agency; Defense Intelligence Agency; National Security Agency; National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency; Federal Bureau of Investigation; Department of Interior (U.S. Park Police); Drug Enforcement Administration; Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; Virginia State Police; Fairfax County Police; and the New York, Boston, and Los Angeles police departments; and a number of other organizations. NOC-Watch staff use information gathered and communicated by the three tactical centers; other DHS operation centers; other federal, state, and local entities; and a wide variety of other information sources to provide overall national situational awareness related to homeland security. The NOC-Watch reports, via the DHS Director of Operations, to the Secretary of Homeland Security and coordinates directly with the White House and focuses on two goals: (1) the detection, prevention, and deterrence of terrorist attacks and (2) domestic incident management during crises and disasters or national special events. Figure 5 shows some of the sources of information and agencies with which that information is shared. Situation reports prepared by the Operations Directorate’s NOC-Watch that we reviewed contained information reported from other DHS subcomponents and operations centers such as the TSOC, NTC, and AMOC, as well as external intelligence and law enforcement agencies, and the private sector. The NOC-Watch also prepares a Homeland Security Operations Morning Brief that provides information to federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies on the national picture at the sensitive but unclassified level. The Four Multi-Agency Operations Centers Share Common Functions and Customers All four centers conduct common functions to maintain situational awareness and communicate and coordinate with other federal, state, and local governments, as well as private-sector entities. The centers do so to support both the mission of the sponsoring component organization and the underlying homeland security mission of DHS. On the basis of our discussions with center officials and our assessment of documents they provided, we summarized these functions and found that all DHS multi- agency operations centers perform 9 of 11 functions identified in table 2. (According to TSOC officials, the TSOC does not coordinate with foreign governments, and NTC and TSOC officials said they do not exercise command and control functions.) Multi-agency operations centers’ customers include federal, state, and local governments and private-sector entities, along with foreign governments. The NOC-Watch has a larger number of overall customers; as the national-level multi-agency hub for situational awareness and a common operating picture, the NOC-Watch provides information to a wider range of government customers, including federal executive leadership, and intelligence and law enforcement agencies at the federal, state, and local level. Opportunities Exist to Enhance Collaboration at DHS’s Four Multi- Agency Operations Centers DHS has leveraged its resources—one key collaborative practice—by having staff from multiple agencies work together at the four operations centers. However, opportunities exist to further implement this and the other relevant practices that our previous work has identified as important to enhancing and sustaining collaboration among federal agencies. For example, not all of the components responsible for managing the operation centers had established goals to define and articulate a common outcome and mutually reinforcing or joint strategies for collaboration (related to two of our key practices); assessed staffing needs to leverage resources; defined roles and responsibilities of watchstanders from agencies other than the managing one; applied standards, policies, and procedures for DHS’s information sharing network to provide a means to operate across agency boundaries; prepared mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on results of the operations centers to reinforce for collaborative efforts; and reinforced agency accountability for collaboration efforts through agency plans and reports. The Operations Directorate, established in November 2005 to improve operational efficiency and coordination, provides DHS with an opportunity to more consistently implement these practices that can enhance and sustain collaboration among federal agencies at multi-agency operations centers. The Four Multi-Agency Operations Centers Lack Documented Goals and Joint Strategies The three DHS components responsible for the four multi-agency centers have not developed and documented common goals or joint strategies for their operation that our work has shown could enhance collaboration among the agencies. Officials at the four multi-agency operations centers we visited said they did consider formally documenting working agreements but concluded it was not essential since all of the agencies involved were part of DHS. Officials from the NOC said that the lack of formal agreements is a reflection of the speed with which the center was established and the inherent flexibility offered to DHS agencies in order to get them to staff the operation center positions. Nonetheless, as the DHS Office of Inspector General has reported, memorandums of understanding are valuable tools for establishing protocols for managing a national-level program between two organizations. Within DHS, external and internal memorandums of agreement and other interagency joint operating plans are often used to document common organizational goals and how agencies will work together. For example: The National Interdiction Command and Control Plan among the Department of Defense, Office of National Drug Control Policy, and the AMOC highlights an agreement between a DHS component and other federal agencies. The Joint Field Office Activation and Operations Interagency Integrated Standard Operating Procedure describes how a temporary federal multi-agency coordination center should be established locally to facilitate field-level domestic incident management activities related to prevention, preparedness, response, and recovery and addresses the roles and responsibilities of multiple DHS components such as the Federal Emergency Management Agency and Immigration and Customs Enforcement and other federal agencies such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation. Guidelines Governing Interaction Between ICE’s Office of Investigations and CBP’s Office of Border Patrol documents a memorandum of understanding between the Office of Investigations at Immigration and Customs Enforcement and CBP’s Border Patrol, entered into in November 2004, that governs the interaction between the two components and formalizes roles and responsibilities in order to further enhance information sharing. Thus, although some DHS components have established a variety of internal and external working agreements, memorandums, and in the case of the Joint Field Offices, standard operating procedures, DHS’s Operations Directorate, which is responsible for coordinating operations, has not provided guidance on how and when such agreements should be used to improve collaboration among the sponsoring and participating components at the operations centers we reviewed. Nor have any of these centers documented goals or joint strategies using these or other types of agreements. Our previous work has shown that memorandums of agreement or understanding and strategic plans can both be used to establish common goals and define joint strategies for how agencies will work together. According to our work, collaborative efforts are further enhanced when staff working across agency lines define and articulate a common federal outcome, or purpose, that is consistent with their respective agency goals and missions. Joint strategies or mutual agreements also contribute to another key area when they are used as a vehicle for identifying and defining more specific expectations of the roles and responsibilities of staff provided by collaborating agencies. The Four Multi-Agency Operations Centers Are at Varying Stages of Assessing Staffing Needs The extent to which officials responsible for managing the four multi- agency operations centers had conducted needs assessments to determine the staffing requirements of each center varied. For example, CBP officials conducted an evaluation in June 2005 that addressed AMOC capabilities and continuing staffing needs related to AMOC personnel, but did not address the need for, or responsibilities of, U.S. Coast Guard staff at the center. AMOC officials did cite a requirement for additional staff from the U.S. Coast Guard, as well as a requirement for an Immigration and Customs Enforcement position in a subsequent strategic planning effort (although these requirements had not been filled). However, there was not a specific assessment supporting the need for these staff positions. NTC officials had not conducted a staffing needs assessment but said they plan to conduct an assessment based upon current targeting programs, the scheduled expansion of existing programs, and the onset of additional CBP targeting programs. They said they plan to include data on the volume of telephone calls handled by the center and the number of information requests completed by the NTC in support of CBP targeting and operations, and they expect to complete the assessment in October 2006. TSOC and NOC-Watch officials said they had not documented a needs analysis for staff from agencies other than the sponsoring agency. Instead, they viewed the cross-agency staffing requirement as a historical edict based on a general assumption that other agency staff expertise was needed to fulfill the mission of their operations center. Our work has shown that collaborating agencies should identify the resources, including human resources, needed to initiate or sustain their collaborative effort and take steps to leverage those resources. Because each agency, or component, has different strengths and limitations, assessing these varying levels allows them collectively to obtain additional resources otherwise unavailable individually. Formal assessment of the need for all participating agencies’ staff to perform specific functions allows for the leveraging of resources to more effectively meet the operational needs of each agency or component. Three of the Four Multi- Agency Operations Centers Have Not Established a Definition of Watchstander Roles and Responsibilities for All Agencies at Each Center While three of the four multi-agency operations centers had developed descriptions for the watchstander position staffed by their own agency, only one center—the AMOC—had developed a position description for staff assigned to the center from another DHS agency. At the AMOC, center officials require that Coast Guard staff meet a standardized set of requirements for radar watchstanders. The other centers relied on the components providing staff to define their watchstanders’ roles and responsibilities. Lack of a consistent definition for the watchstander position may lead to people at the same center in the same role performing the same responsibilities differently or not at all. Our work has shown that defining roles and responsibilities both enhances and sustains collaboration among federal agencies. Because of the potentially critical, time-sensitive need for decisive action at 24/7/365 operations centers, it is important that the roles and responsibilities of watchstanders are described and understood stood by both the staff and the officials responsible for managing the operations centers. Further, a definition of the watchstander role and responsibilities is important for supporting agency officials who must make staffing decisions about assigning qualified and knowledgeable personnel to the centers. Finally, internal controls standards require that management and employees establish a positive control environment as a foundation for strong organizational internal controls. According to the standard, one activity that agency officials may consider implementing as part of the control environment is to identify, define, and provide formal, up-to-date job descriptions or other means of identifying and defining job-specific tasks. DHS Did Not Provide All Multi-Agency Operations Centers with Standards, Policies, and Procedures for Use of Its Information Sharing Network to Operate across Agency Boundaries To collaborate by sharing information through DHS’s primary information sharing system, the Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN), agencies participating in multi-agency operations centers need to be connected to the network and have the guidance that enables its use. In the course of our work, we learned that CBP’s National Targeting Center could not collaborate with other users of HSIN because the system was not connected for NTC watchstanders. Other concerns about the use of HSIN to enhance coordination and collaboration have also been identified by the DHS Inspector General. According to the Inspector General, DHS did not provide adequate user guidance, including clear information sharing processes, training, and reference materials needed to effectively implement HSIN. The report noted that in the absence of clear DHS direction, users were unsure of how to use the system. Though DHS officials said other networks such as the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network and the Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System are primarily used for coordination of intelligence analysis, the connectivity problem with the primary DHS-wide information sharing system, HSIN, remained unresolved as of September 2006. Our work has shown that to facilitate collaboration, agencies need to address the compatibility of standards, policies, procedures, and data systems used in the collaborative effort. Furthermore, as agencies bring diverse cultures to the collaborative effort, it is important to address these differences to enable a cohesive working relationship and to create the mutual trust required to enhance and sustain the collaborative effort. Frequent communication among collaborating agencies is another means to facilitate working across agency boundaries and prevent misunderstanding. The lack of standards, policies, and procedures for use of HSIN at DHS operations centers could limit the frequency and effectiveness of communications among the centers. Three of Four Multi- Agency Operations Centers Have Not Developed Methods to Monitor, Evaluate, and Report Results of Joint Efforts With the exception of AMOC, the multi-agency centers have not developed methods to monitor, evaluate, and report the results of joint efforts. For example, the Office of Management and Budget’s assessment of the NOC- Watch for 2005 determined that center officials had not established effective annual or long-term performance goals. Nor were performance measures or other mechanisms in place to monitor and evaluate the joint efforts of multiple DHS agencies at the TSOC and NTC. In response to a report by the DHS Office of Inspector General in March 2004 that found the AMOC did not have organizational performance measures and individual performance standards to assess AMOC’s effectiveness and productivity, AMOC officials reported to the Inspector General that they began collecting data in January 2004 on a daily basis to measure productivity for the overall operations center as well as individual watchstanders, including U.S. Coast Guard representatives. Our work has shown that developing means to monitor, evaluate, and report areas of improvement allow agencies to enhance collaboration. Developing performance measures and mechanisms to monitor and evaluate the contributions can help management, key decision makers, and both stakeholders and customers obtain feedback through internal reports in order to improve operational effectiveness and policy. Developing goals and providing performance results can also help reinforce accountability through joint planning and reporting of collaborative efforts. The Four Multi-Agency Operations Centers Are at Various Stages of Reinforcing Accountability for Collaborative Efforts through Joint Agency Planning and Reporting Neither DHS nor the component agencies responsible for managing the four multi-agency operations centers consistently discuss or include a description of the contribution of collaborative efforts of the multi-agency operations centers in their strategic or annual performance plans and reports. The most recent DHS strategic plan, issued in 2004, neither included a discussion of performance goals nor addressed the joint operations of the multi-agency centers. The plan reported only that DHS “will provide integrated logistical support to ensure a rapid and effective response and coordinate among Department of Homeland Security and other federal, state, and local operations centers consistent with national incident command protocols.” CBP’s 2005 annual report on the operations of the NTC does, however, include a section dedicated to the contributions of the external liaisons in describing the roles and responsibilities of other DHS agency personnel including the Federal Air Marshal Service, Immigration and Customs Enforcement, and the U.S. Coast Guard, and the accomplishments they have made in the center’s operations. In addition, the AMOC strategic plan for 2005 generally discussed the importance of collaboration with other component agencies and included a goal to strengthen component agency partnerships to maximize homeland security strategies. Reports of the components responsible for managing the other centers do not address the roles and contributions of other supporting agencies in accomplishing the centers’ missions. DHS agencies responsible for providing staff to support watchstander positions for multi-agency operations centers managed by other agencies also do not address their participation in the operations of the operations center in strategic plans or performance reports. In general, managing and supporting agencies that do mention the operations centers do not include any discussion of the relationship between the participating agencies’ missions or strategies and those of the centers. Our work has shown that federal agencies can use their strategic and annual performance plans as tools to drive collaboration with other agencies and partners and establish complementary goals and strategies for achieving results. These performance plans can also be used to ensure that goals are consistent and, if possible, mutually reinforcing. Accountability is also reinforced when strategic and annual performance plans help to align agency policy with collaborative goals. A public accounting through published strategic and annual performance plans and reports makes agencies answerable for collaboration. DHS’s Operations Directorate Has an Opportunity to Help Ensure That Key Practices for Collaboration Are Implemented at the Multi- Agency Operations Centers DHS established a new Office of Operations Coordination in November 2005 (referred to as the Operations Directorate) to increase its ability to prepare for, prevent, and respond to terrorist attacks and other emergencies and improve coordination and efficiency of operations. In responding to a draft of this report, DHS cited a number of efforts that the new directorate plans to take to fulfill this leadership role. Among other things, DHS said it plans to conduct an independent study, initiated in September 2006, to leverage technical and analytical expertise to support expanding the capabilities of the Operations Directorate. In addition, DHS said it plans to move elements of the National Operations Center to the Transportation Security Operations Center in 2007 and, ultimately to colocate the DHS headquarters and all the DHS component headquarters along with their respective staffs and operations centers at one location. DHS also cited the development of a new working group that is developing a national command and coordination capability. While we agree that these leadership efforts proposed by the Operations Directorate could further enhance collaboration among DHS’s component agencies, because DHS officials did not provide any information or documentation of these efforts in response to our requests during the course of the review, we were unable to determine the extent to which these efforts are likely to enhance and sustain departmental collaboration. Nonetheless, further departmental focus on the key practices we have identified could enhance collaboration among the component agencies. For example, at the time of our review, the directorate had not taken steps to gather information on the resources available at each center. The director’s office did not have ready access to information such as centers’ budgets or other financial information needed for reporting across the components, the number of staff employed at the multi-agency centers, or the number and type of operations centers managed by the various components. After being directed to the components for budget and staffing information, we found that the managing components of the multi-agency operations centers also did not have ready access to up-to-date information on the number of staff the centers employed. Such information could be useful to the directorate’s efforts to develop a national command and coordination capability and further enhance collaboration among the components with multi-agency operations centers. Directorate officials said that the Operations Directorate had not assumed its full range of responsibilities due to not being fully staffed until March 2006 and because of the revisions to the National Response Plan formalized in May 2006. In responding to a draft of this report, DHS said that the Operations Directorate does not have the authority to direct or exercise control over other components’ operations centers with respect to administration and support, including organization, staffing, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, logistics, and training. Nonetheless, while the Operations Directorate lacks authority to direct the actions of the other components’ operations centers and obtaining compatible data may be difficult since the reporting systems of several centers were in place prior to the creation of DHS, without compatible staffing and financial data Operations Directorate leadership officials are hampered in their ability to understand and compare the relative personnel and operating costs of the 24/7/365 operations centers and use such information to promote the expected unity of effort within the department. Enhanced leadership from the Operations Directorate to support consistent reporting of operations centers’ budgets and staffing could also support collaborative actions in two of the previously mentioned key areas: assessing staffing needs to leverage resources, and applying standards, policies, and procedures to operate across agency boundaries. In the absence of leadership to support these and other collaborative efforts, DHS officials have not yet taken full advantage of an opportunity to meet the directorate’s responsibilities. Conclusions The establishment of the Operations Directorate with the express intent of enhancing collaboration and coordination among the department’s operational components provides an opportunity to implement practices that could enhance collaboration among DHS agencies working together at each multi-agency 24/7/365 operations center. Having staff from multiple agencies work together is a way of leveraging resources, one key practice for enhancing collaboration. However, those resources may not be used to their full potential if other steps to enhance collaboration are not taken, and the Operations Directorate could provide guidance to help ensure that the sponsors of the operations centers take the appropriate steps. There are multi-agency operations centers that lack common goals and joint strategies; clearly defined roles and responsibilities; compatible standards, policies, and procedures for information networking; consistent staffing assessments; prepared mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on the results of collaborative efforts; and reinforced agency accountability through agency plans and reports. Our previous work has shown that these are all critical components in enhancing collaboration among federal agencies. Given that the collaboration in multi-agency operations centers focuses on gathering and disseminating information on real-time situational awareness related to disasters and possible terrorist activity, it is important that the staff at the centers achieve the most effective collaboration possible. Recommendations for Executive Action To provide a setting for more effective collaboration among the staff at each multi-agency 24/7/365 operations center, we recommend that the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security charge the Director of the Operations Directorate with developing and providing guidance and helping to ensure the agencies that sponsor the centers take the following six actions: define common goals and joint strategies; clarify the roles and responsibilities for watchstanders; implement compatible standards, policies, and procedures for using DHS’s information network to provide a means of operating across agency boundaries; conduct staffing needs assessments; implement mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on the results of collaborative efforts; and address collaborative efforts at the four multi-agency operations centers in plans and reports on the level of each operation center’s managing agency. Agency Comments and Our Evaluation On October 16, 2006, DHS provided written comments on a draft of this report (see app. III.) DHS agreed with the six recommended actions to enhance collaboration at the DHS multi-agency operations centers and said it planned to take action to implement the practices. In the draft report, we said that the Operations Directorate had not yet taken actions to fulfill its leadership role and that a lack of leadership by the Operations Directorate to support consistent reporting of operations centers’ budgets and staffing limits collaborative actions. DHS did not agree that leadership provided by the Operation Directorate to support collaboration is lacking and provided a number of examples of leadership efforts. Among other things, DHS noted plans to conduct an independent study, initiated in September 2006, to leverage technical and analytical expertise to support expanding the capabilities of the Operations Directorate. In addition, DHS said it plans to move elements of the National Operations Center to the Transportation Security Operations Center in 2007 and, ultimately to colocate the DHS headquarters and all the DHS component headquarters along with their respective staffs and operations centers at one location. We identified the planned actions in the report and agree that these leadership efforts by the Operations Directorate have the potential to further enhance collaboration among DHS’s component agencies, along with the key practices suggested by our efforts to review collaboration among agencies across the federal government. However, because Operations Directorate officials did not provide any information or documentation of these efforts in response to our requests during the course of the review, we were unable to determine the extent to which these efforts are likely to enhance and sustain departmental collaboration. In addition, DHS officials cited what they considered to be misconceptions expressed in the draft report. They said that the Operations Directorate does not have the administrative, budgetary, programmatic, or command and control authority to direct or exercise control over other component’s operations centers. They also said that our draft incorrectly reported that the National Operations Center replaced the Homeland Security Operations Center. Although it was not our intent to imply that the Operations Directorate has administrative, budgetary, programmatic, or command and control authority to direct or exercise control over other component’s operations centers, we added a clarifying reference to address DHS’s concern. Finally, although we reported that the new National Operations Center includes (rather than replaced) the previous Homeland Security Operations Center, we also added a footnote to further clarify that the scope of responsibilities of the new National Operations Center is greater than that of the Homeland Security Operations Center. We are sending copies of this report to the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs, the Permanent Subcommittee on Investigations, the Secretary of Homeland Security; the Assistant Secretary of the Transportation Security Administration, the Commissioner of Customs and Border Protection, and interested congressional committees. We will also make copies available to others on request. In addition, the report will be available on GAO’s Web site at http://www.gao.gov. If you or your staff have any questions about this report, or wish to discuss the matter further, please contact me at (202) 512-8777 or [email protected]. Contact points for our Offices of Congressional Relations and Public Affairs may be found on the last page of this report. Key contributors to this report are listed in appendix IV. Appendix I: Missions of 24/7/365 DHS Centers Staffed by One DHS Component # Center To monitor cyber security, respond to incidents, and direct communications. To assist in the initiation, coordination, restoration, and reconstitution of national security and emergency preparedness telecommunications services or facilities under all conditions, crises, or emergencies. To provide warning and intelligence analysis to inform field operators, industry, and TSA leadership. To provide support to for scheduling, law enforcement situations, crisis management, and safety and security- related matters. To provide information on significant incidents from field and sector offices, providing situational awareness to the Commissioner and senior CBP management. 6. Caribbean Air Marine Operations Center (Regional Operations) To utilize integrated air and marine forces, technology, and tactical intelligence to detect, sort, track, and facilitate the interdiction of criminal entities throughout the Caribbean area. 7. National Airspace Security Operations Center (Regional Operations) To utilize integrated air forces, technology, and tactical intelligence to maintain air domain awareness, and detect, sort, track, and facilitate the interception of intruder aircraft throughout the National Capital Region. To monitor radio communications among CBP personnel for officer safety purposes, and to coordinate tactical communications and analytical investigative support to various DHS and other law enforcement agencies to support homeland security. To provide senior management with daily reports and coordination on all significant incidents, events, and matters that have an impact on the mission of ICE and DHS. To provide timely, effective classified intelligence support to ICE headquarters and field personnel by serving as a clearinghouse for the screening, evaluation, processing, exploitation, dissemination, and coordination of intelligence information. To provide timely immigration status and identification information to federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies on aliens suspected, arrested, or convicted of criminal activity. 12. Federal Protective Service Mega- Center System (4 regional centers) To provide alarm monitoring and dispatch services to all federally owned and leased buildings. To maintain national situational awareness and to monitor emerging incidents or potential incidents with possible operational consequences (becomes multi-agency under incident surge conditions). To facilitate, in coordination with the NOC, the distribution of warnings, alerts, and bulletins to the entire emergency management community using a variety of communications systems. 15. Mobile Emergency Response Support Operations Centers (5 regional centers) To serve as the emergency operations center for FEMA regions and associated state operations centers providing time-sensitive information flow affecting federal involvement and provide a deployed operations center platform using assigned mobile assets during all catastrophic events. To provide command, control, communication, and monitoring for ensuring the security of the White House complex and surrounding grounds. To coordinate communications for the receipt, coordination, and dissemination of protective intelligence information and activities that require immediate action in support of protection assignments. Also provides “as needed” information and coordination support for the service. 18. U.S. Coast Guard Command Center To gather, coordinate, and disseminate information as the direct representative of the Coast Guard Commandant and the National Response Center. Serves as the primary communications link of priority operational and administrative matters between USCG field units, District and Area Commanders, senior Coast Guard officials, DHS officials, the White House, other federal agencies, state and local officials, and foreign governments. 19. Intelligence Coordination Center (includes three 24/7/365 watch locations with one, the Intel Plot, colocated at U.S. Coast Guard Command Center) To function as the national-level coordinator for collection, analysis, production, and dissemination of Coast Guard intelligence. Provides all-source, tailored, and integrated intelligence and intelligence services to DHS, Coast Guard, Commandant/staff, intelligence community, combatant commanders, and other services and agencies. The Intel Plot provides predictive and comprehensive intelligence support to priority requirements of the Commandant and senior staff at Coast Guard headquarters. To serve as the single federal point of contact for all pollution incident reporting. Also serves as a communications center in receiving, evaluating, and relaying information to predesignated federal responders, and advises FEMA of potential major disaster situations. 21. Regional Command Centers (46) Area Command Centers (2) To serve as points of coordination at various organizational levels for operational command, control, communications, intelligence, and analysis. District Command Centers (9) Sector Command Centers (35) Appendix II: Objectives, Scope, and Methodology Our overall objective was to assess the collaboration among the four multi-agency DHS operations centers. The key questions addressed were as follows: 1. What are the missions, functions, and products of the multi-agency 24/7/365 DHS operations centers and who are their customers? 2. To what extent has DHS implemented key practices for enhancing and sustaining collaboration at these multi-agency centers? To answer our first objective, we obtained and reviewed information on the missions and functions of all 24/7/365 operations centers in DHS. We visited centers managed by the Operations Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, the Federal Emergency Management Agency, the Transportation Security Administration, the U.S. Coast Guard, and the Secret Service to observe their operations, interview officials responsible for managing the centers, and identify centers that employed staff from multiple DHS agencies. We identified four centers that employed staff from multiple DHS component agencies: the Air and Marine Operations Center, the National Targeting Center, the Transportation Security Operations Center, and the National Operations Center-Interagency Watch. We gathered and analyzed information regarding the products the multi-agency centers developed on a regular basis and the primary customers served by the centers. To answer our second objective, we met with responsible officials of the NOC-Watch and the acting Director of the Operations Directorate to discuss the roles and responsibilities of the new organization established as a result of the department’s Second Stage Review. We discussed the transition, current operations, and policy and procedures put in place by the Operations Directorate since the reorganization. We also met with officials from TSA, USCG, CBP, ICE, and the Operations Directorate to discuss how staff are assigned by these agencies to the four multi-agency operations centers. We spoke with watchstanders assigned to several of the centers from other DHS component agencies to discuss their roles and responsibilities at the centers, and the overall mission of the centers to which they had been assigned. We reviewed planning and policy documents including DHS’s strategic plans and performance and accountability reports as well as our prior reports and reports from DHS’s Inspector General that addressed DHS management issues. For the four national operations centers we identified as multi-agency DHS centers, we also reviewed strategic plans, standard operating procedures, and annual reports and performance and accountability reports. We assessed DHS’s efforts and actions taken by the Operations Directorate to encourage coordination among the multi-agency centers and to promote collaboration among the staff representing DHS agencies at the centers to determine the extent that they reflected consideration of key practices that our previous work has shown can enhance and sustain a collaborative relationship among federal agencies. Eight practices we identified to enhance and sustain collaboration are identified below: defining and articulating a common outcome; establishing mutually reinforcing or joint strategies; identifying and addressing needs by leveraging resources; agreeing on roles and responsibilities; establishing compatible policies, procedures, and other means to operate across agency boundaries; developing mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on results; reinforcing agency accountability for collaboration efforts through agency plans and reports; and, reinforcing individual accountability for collaborative efforts through performance management systems. For the purposes of this review, we selected the first seven of the eight practices. We combined our discussion of the implementation of the first two practices—defining and articulating a common outcome and establishing mutually reinforcing or joint strategies. We did not address the eighth practice—reinforcing individual accountability for collaborative efforts through performance management systems—because an in-depth examination of component agencies’ performance management systems was beyond the scope of this review. We selected examples that, in our best judgment, clearly illustrated and strongly supported the need for improvement in specific areas where the key practices could be implemented. We conducted our work from October 2005 through September 2006 in accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards. Appendix III: Comments from the Department of Homeland Security Appendix IV: GAO Contact and Staff Acknowledgments Acknowledgments In addition to the contact named above, Christopher Keisling, Kathleen Ebert, Dorian Dunbar, Scott Behen, Keith Wandtke, Amanda Miller, Christine Davis, and Willie Commons III made key contributions to this report. Additional assistance was provided by Katherine Davis.

Summary: Because terrorists do not operate on a 9-5 schedule, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and its operational components have established information gathering and analysis centers that conduct activities 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year. Staff at these operations centers work to help detect, deter, and prevent terrorist acts. DHS has determined that out of 25 operations centers, four require higher levels of collaboration that can only be provided by personnel from multiple DHS agencies, and other federal, and sometimes state and local, agencies. For these four multi-agency operations centers, this report (1) describes their missions, products, functions, and customers and (2) assesses the extent to which DHS efforts to promote collaboration among the multiple agencies responsible for the centers reflect key practices for enhancing and sustaining collaborative efforts. To do so, GAO visited operations centers, reviewed data and reports from the centers, and interviewed center and other DHS officials. Each of the four multi-agency 24/7/365 operations centers has a different mission and therefore produces different products, yet all contribute to the larger mission of DHS and have similar functions and customers. Customs and Border Protection runs two of the four multi-agency operations centers--the National Targeting Center and the Air and Marine Operations Center. The former monitors the international movement of potential terrorists and produces reports on suspect individuals; the latter maintains situational awareness of the nation's airspace, general aviation, and sea-lanes and produces reports on suspicious private air and marine craft. The Transportation Security Administration's operations center monitors passengers on commercial flights; works to mitigate the vulnerabilities of commercial airports, rail stations, and pipelines, the National Capital Region, and critical infrastructure across the nation; and produces reports on these topics. DHS's Operations Directorate runs the National Operations Center Interagency Watch and works to enhance efficiency and collaboration among DHS components. This operations center has a more strategic mission in that it uses information gathered by the other operations centers to provide overall national situational awareness, and it prepares security briefs for federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies. Opportunities exist to enhance collaboration among 24/7/365 multi-agency operations centers. While DHS has leveraged resources by having staff from multiple agencies work together, the centers lack joint strategies for collaboration and staffing needs assessments, and they have not established a definition of watchstander roles for all agencies at each center. The centers also lack standards and procedures for using DHS's primary information sharing network; mechanisms to monitor, evaluate, and report on results; and reinforced accountability through agency plans and reports. GAO's previous work has shown that such practices are effective in enhancing and sustaining collaboration among federal agencies. The establishment of DHS's Operations Directorate in 2005 provides a means to promote implementation of more collaborative practices at the centers.

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Summarize: Last April, Dong Nguyen, a quiet 28-year-old who lived with his parents in Hanoi, Vietnam, and had a day job programming location devices for taxis, spent a holiday weekend making a mobile game. He wanted it to be simple but challenging, in the spirit of the Nintendo games he grew up playing. The object was to fly a bug-eyed, big-lipped, bloated bird between a series of green vertical pipes. The quicker a player tapped the screen, the higher the bird would flap. He called it Flappy Bird. Game Never Over: 10 Most Addictive Video Games The game went live on the iOS App Store on May 24th. Instead of charging for Flappy Bird, Nguyen made it available for free, and hoped to get a few hundred dollars a month from in-game ads. But with about 25,000 new apps going online every month, Flappy Bird was lost in the mix and seemed like a bust – until, eight months later, something crazy happened. The game went viral. By February, it was topping the charts in more than 100 countries and had been downloaded more than 50 million times. Nguyen was earning an estimated $50,000 a day. Not even Mark Zuckerberg became rich so fast. Yet as Flappymania peaked, Nguyen remained a mystery. Aside from the occasional tweet, he had little to say about his incredible story. He ducked the press and refused to be photographed. He was called a fraud, a con man and a thief. Bloggers accused him of stealing art from Nintendo. The popular gaming site Kotaku wrote in a widely clicked headline, FLAPPY BIRD IS MAKING $50,000 A DAY OFF RIPPED ART. On February 9th, at 2:02 a.m. Hanoi time, a message appeared on Nguyen's Twitter account. "I am sorry 'Flappy Bird' users," it read. "22 hours from now, I will take 'Flappy Bird' down. I cannot take this anymore." The message was retweeted more than 145,000 times by the disbelieving masses. How could someone who hit the online jackpot suddenly pull the plug? But when the clock struck midnight the next evening, the story came to an end. Nguyen, as promised, took Flappy Bird offline. In his wake, he left millions of jilted gamers, and one big question: Who was this dude, and WTF had he done? Watch David Kushner reveal how he landed his Flappy Bird exclusive in the video below: Please enable Javascript to watch this video Two weeks after the demise of Flappy, I'm taxiing past pagodas and motorbikes to the outskirts of Hanoi, a crowded, rundown metropolis filled with street vendors selling pirated goods, to meet with Nguyen, who has agreed to share with Rolling Stone his whole story for the first time. With the international press and local paparazzi searching for him, Nguyen has been in hiding – fleeing his parents' house to stay at a friend's apartment, where he now remains. Although dot-com millionaires have become familiar in the U.S., in Vietnam's fledgling tech community they're all but unheard of. When the country's first celebrity geek, a boyish, slight guy in jeans and a gray sweater, walks hesitantly up and introduces himself, he measures his words and thoughts carefully, like placing pixels on a screen. "I was just making something fun to share with other people," he says with the help of a translator. "I couldn't predict the success of Flappy Bird." Growing up in Van Phuc, a village outside Hanoi famous for silk-making, Nguyen (pronounced nwin) never imagined being a world-famous game designer. Though his father owned a hardware store and his mother worked for the government, his family couldn't afford Game Boys for him or his younger brother. But eventually, they were able to purchase a Nintendo, which, like most electronics in Vietnam, was available only in cloned form. Marveling at the power of controlling a character onscreen, Nguyen spent his free time obsessively playing Super Mario Bros. By 16, Nguyen had learned to code his own computer chess game. Three years later, while studying computer science at a university in Hanoi, he placed in the top 20 of a programming competition and got an internship with one of Hanoi's only game companies at the time, Punch Entertainment, which made cellphone games. Son Bui Truong, Nguyen's former boss, says the young programmer stood out for his speed, skills and fierce independent streak. "Dong didn't need a supervisor," Truong says. "He wasn't comfortable with it. So we said he did not have to report to anyone." Nguyen soon tired of churning out the company's sports games. When he later got his hands on an iPhone, he became fascinated by the possibilities of the touch screen. Few games, however, captured the simple power of the Nintendo games of his youth. Angry Birds was too busy, he thought. "I don't like the graphics," he says. "It looked too crowded." Nguyen wanted to make games for people like himself: busy, harried, always on the move. "I pictured how people play," he says, as he taps his iPhone and reaches his other hand in the air. "One hand holding the train strap." He'd make a game for them. As we talk into the night, hordes of agile pedestrians deftly dodge the Hanoi traffic, screens flickering in their hands like fireflies. It's no wonder the world's hottest game came from here. "When you play game on a smartphone," he says, with an ever-present cigarette dangling from his lip, "the simplest way is just tapping." Last April, Nguyen was tapping his iPhone at home while the rest of Hanoi was celebrating Reunification Day, the annual holiday marking the end of the Vietnam War. Instead of joining the throngs outside, he spent the weekend in his bedroom at his parents' house creating a little game for fun, as a poster he'd drawn of Mario gazed down on him. Fall Out Boy Pay Homage to 'Flappy Bird' With 'Fall Out Bird' Nguyen had already made and released a mobile game, Shuriken Block, earlier that month. The object was to stop a cascade of ninja stars from impaling five little men on the screen. This seemed simple enough – the one-word instruction read TAP. Tap the falling star at the right moment, and it would bounce away. But Nguyen understood the mantra of game design that Nolan Bushnell, creator of Pong and founder of Atari, described as "easy to learn and difficult to master." More recently, indie game makers had taken this to speed-metal extremes with the so-called masocore genre – games that are masochistically hard. Shuriken Block was deceptively ruthless. Even the nimblest player would have trouble lasting a minute before the men were spurting pixelated blood. Nguyen was pleased with the results, but the game languished in the iOS store. For his new game, Nguyen realized a way to go even simpler: Let the player tap anywhere. All he needed was an idea to build it around. The year before, he'd drawn a pixelated bird on his computer that riffed on Nintendo fish, called Cheep Cheeps. He drew green pipes – a homage to Super Mario Bros. – that the bird would have to navigate. He modeled the game on one of the most masocore analog creations ever: paddleball. The toy was a simple design – just a wooden paddle with a string attached to a rubber ball. But players would be lucky to bounce the ball more than a few times in a row. Like paddleball, he limited his game to just a couple of elements – the bird and the pipes – and resisted the usual urge to lard the action with new elements as the player progressed. He tuned the physics so that the bird was fighting gravity so strong, even the slightest wrong tap would kill it. Since the deaths would be so frequent, Nguyen wanted to make them entertaining. He tried having the bird explode in a bloody pulp, or bounce back across the ground, before settling on a faceplant. He then sifted through hundreds of sounds before settling on a kung-fu-style thwack to make the bird's demise even funnier. (The first question he asks me about the game is if it made me laugh.) "The bird is flying along peacefully," he says with a chuckle, "and all of a sudden you die!" Before the last flag waved on Reunification Day, Nguyen had gone on Twitter and posted a screen shot of his "new simple game." Other than a couple of tweets, Nguyen says he put no marketing behind the launch. And, like so many games released into the flood, Flappy Bird flopped. The first mention of the game on Twitter didn't come until five months later, on November 4th, when someone posted a three-word review. "Fuck Flappy Bird," it read. Trying to divine why stuff goes viral is like trying to fly the bird: You end up ass-up on the ground. But "Fuck Flappy Bird" captured the essence of the appeal. The highly addictive Flappy Bird was like a snot-nosed kid paddleballing you in the face. It was begging to be spanked. And you couldn't resist or stop playing. By the end of December, players swarmed social media to commiserate, compete and bitch about breaking their phones in frustration. Twitter erupted with Flappy Bird testimonials, eventually hitting more than 16 million messages. One called it "the most annoying game yet I can't stop," and another said it was "slowly consuming my life." As word spread from Reddit to YouTube, playgrounds to office parks, Flappy Bird rose to the Top 10 of the U.S. charts by early January. Finally, with no promotion, no plan, no logic, on January 17th, Flappy Bird hit Number One. A week or two later, it topped the Google Play store, too. "Seeing the game on top, I felt amazing," Nguyen recalls. Like everyone else, he was shocked by its meteoric rise – and the avalanche of money that would be wired into his bank account. Even with Apple and Google's 30 percent take, Nguyen estimated he was clearing $50,000 a day. Before long, Shuriken Block and a new game he had submitted called Super Ball Juggling joined Flappy Bird in the Top 10. But other than buying a new Mac, and taking his buddies out for rice wine and chicken hot pot, Nguyen wasn't much for indulging. "I couldn't be too happy," he says quietly. "I don't know why." Remarkably, he hadn't yet even bothered to tell his parents, with whom he lived. "My parents don't understand games," he explains. As news hit of how much money Nguyen was making, his face appeared in the Vietnamese papers and on TV, which was how his mom and dad first learned their son had made the game. The local paparazzi soon besieged his parents' house, and he couldn't go out unnoticed. While this might seem a small price to pay for such fame and fortune, for Nguyen the attention felt suffocating. "It is something I never want," he tweeted. "Please give me peace." But the hardest thing of all, he says, was something else entirely. He hands me his iPhone so that I can scroll through some messages he's saved. One is from a woman chastising him for "distracting the children of the world." Another laments that "13 kids at my school broke their phones because of your game, and they still play it cause it's addicting like crack." Nguyen tells me of e-mails from workers who had lost their jobs, a mother who had stopped talking to her kids. "At first I thought they were just joking," he says, "but I realize they really hurt themselves." Nguyen – who says he botched tests in high school because he was playing too much Counter-Strike – genuinely took them to heart. By early February, the weight of everything – the scrutiny, the relentless criticism and accusations – felt crushing. He couldn't sleep, couldn't focus, didn't want to go outdoors. His parents, he says, "worried about my well-being." His tweets became darker and more cryptic. "I can call 'Flappy Bird' is a success of mine," read one. "But it also ruins my simple life. So now I hate it." He realized there was one thing to do: Pull the game. After tweeting that he was taking it down, 10 million people downloaded it in 22 hours. Then he hit a button, and Flappy Bird disappeared. When I ask him why he did it, he answers with the same conviction that led him to create the game. "I'm master of my own fate," he says. "Independent thinker." In the wake of Flappy Bird's demise, rumors spread. Nguyen had committed suicide. Nintendo was suing him. He'd received death threats. His refusal to speak fueled the speculation even more. To fill the massive hole left by Flappy Bird, imitators rushed to cash in. By the time I visit, the top three free iPhone apps are Flappy rip-offs – Flappy Wings, Splashy Fish, even a game based on Miley Cyrus. As of this writing, a Drake game called Tiny Flying Drizzy is Number One at the App Store, and, according to a study, a new Flappy clone pops up every 24 minutes. "People can clone the app because of its simplicity," Nguyen says, "but they will never make another Flappy Bird." Indeed, for those who crave the real thing, phones with Flappy Bird installed have been listed for thousands on eBay. But the absence has also spawned a reappraisal. Kotaku apologized for its allegations of plagiarism. John Romero, co-creator of the game Doom, says Flappy Bird is "a reaction against prevailing design the way grunge was a reaction to metal." The godfather of gaming, Bushnell, compares it to his own hit, Pong. "Simple games are more satisfying," he says. As for Nguyen, the millions of people who downloaded Flappy Bird are still generating tens of thousands of dollars for him. He's finally quit his job and says he's thinking of buying a Mini Cooper and an apartment. He just got his first passport. For now, though, he's busy doing what he loves most: making games. Over tea, he shows me the three he's working on simultaneously: an untitled cowboy-themed shooter, a vertical flying game called Kitty Jetpack and an "action chess game," as he puts it, called Checkonaut, one of which he'll release this month. Each sports his now-familiar style: simple play, retro graphics and hardcore difficulty. Since taking Flappy Bird down, he says he's felt "relief. I can't go back to my life before, but I'm good now." As for the future of his flapper, he's still turning down offers to purchase the game. Nguyen refuses to compromise his independence. But will Flappy Bird ever fly again? "I'm considering it," Nguyen says. He's not working on a new version, but if he ever releases one it will come with a "warning," he says: "Please take a break." This story is from the March 27th, 2014 issue of Rolling Stone. Last April, Dong Nguyen, a quiet 28-year-old who lived with his parents in Hanoi, Vietnam, and had a day job programming location devices for taxis, spent a holiday weekend making a mobile game. He wanted it to be simple but challenging, in the spirit of the Nintendo games he grew up playing. The object was to fly a bug-eyed, big-lipped, bloated bird between a series of green vertical pipes. The quicker a player tapped the screen, the higher the bird would flap. He called it Flappy Bird. Game Never Over: 10 Most Addictive Video Games The game went live on the iOS App Store on May 24th. Instead of charging for Flappy Bird, Nguyen made it available for free, and hoped to get a few hundred dollars a month from in-game ads. But with about 25,000 new apps going online every month, Flappy Bird was lost in the mix and seemed like a bust – until, eight months later, something crazy happened. The game went viral. By February, it was topping the charts in more than 100 countries and had been downloaded more than 50 million times. Nguyen was earning an estimated $50,000 a day. Not even Mark Zuckerberg became rich so fast. Yet as Flappymania peaked, Nguyen remained a mystery. Aside from the occasional tweet, he had little to say about his incredible story. He ducked the press and refused to be photographed. He was called a fraud, a con man and a thief. Bloggers accused him of stealing art from Nintendo. The popular gaming site Kotaku wrote in a widely clicked headline, FLAPPY BIRD IS MAKING $50,000 A DAY OFF RIPPED ART. On February 9th, at 2:02 a.m. Hanoi time, a message appeared on Nguyen's Twitter account. "I am sorry 'Flappy Bird' users," it read. "22 hours from now, I will take 'Flappy Bird' down. I cannot take this anymore." The message was retweeted more than 145,000 times by the disbelieving masses. How could someone who hit the online jackpot suddenly pull the plug? But when the clock struck midnight the next evening, the story came to an end. Nguyen, as promised, took Flappy Bird offline. In his wake, he left millions of jilted gamers, and one big question: Who was this dude, and WTF had he done? Watch David Kushner reveal how he landed his Flappy Bird exclusive in the video below: Please enable Javascript to watch this video Two weeks after the demise of Flappy, I'm taxiing past pagodas and motorbikes to the outskirts of Hanoi, a crowded, rundown metropolis filled with street vendors selling pirated goods, to meet with Nguyen, who has agreed to share with Rolling Stone his whole story for the first time. With the international press and local paparazzi searching for him, Nguyen has been in hiding – fleeing his parents' house to stay at a friend's apartment, where he now remains. Although dot-com millionaires have become familiar in the U.S., in Vietnam's fledgling tech community they're all but unheard of. When the country's first celebrity geek, a boyish, slight guy in jeans and a gray sweater, walks hesitantly up and introduces himself, he measures his words and thoughts carefully, like placing pixels on a screen. "I was just making something fun to share with other people," he says with the help of a translator. "I couldn't predict the success of Flappy Bird." Growing up in Van Phuc, a village outside Hanoi famous for silk-making, Nguyen (pronounced nwin) never imagined being a world-famous game designer. Though his father owned a hardware store and his mother worked for the government, his family couldn't afford Game Boys for him or his younger brother. But eventually, they were able to purchase a Nintendo, which, like most electronics in Vietnam, was available only in cloned form. Marveling at the power of controlling a character onscreen, Nguyen spent his free time obsessively playing Super Mario Bros. By 16, Nguyen had learned to code his own computer chess game. Three years later, while studying computer science at a university in Hanoi, he placed in the top 20 of a programming competition and got an internship with one of Hanoi's only game companies at the time, Punch Entertainment, which made cellphone games. Son Bui Truong, Nguyen's former boss, says the young programmer stood out for his speed, skills and fierce independent streak. "Dong didn't need a supervisor," Truong says. "He wasn't comfortable with it. So we said he did not have to report to anyone." Nguyen soon tired of churning out the company's sports games. When he later got his hands on an iPhone, he became fascinated by the possibilities of the touch screen. Few games, however, captured the simple power of the Nintendo games of his youth. Angry Birds was too busy, he thought. "I don't like the graphics," he says. "It looked too crowded." Nguyen wanted to make games for people like himself: busy, harried, always on the move. "I pictured how people play," he says, as he taps his iPhone and reaches his other hand in the air. "One hand holding the train strap." He'd make a game for them. As we talk into the night, hordes of agile pedestrians deftly dodge the Hanoi traffic, screens flickering in their hands like fireflies. It's no wonder the world's hottest game came from here. "When you play game on a smartphone," he says, with an ever-present cigarette dangling from his lip, "the simplest way is just tapping." Last April, Nguyen was tapping his iPhone at home while the rest of Hanoi was celebrating Reunification Day, the annual holiday marking the end of the Vietnam War. Instead of joining the throngs outside, he spent the weekend in his bedroom at his parents' house creating a little game for fun, as a poster he'd drawn of Mario gazed down on him. Fall Out Boy Pay Homage to 'Flappy Bird' With 'Fall Out Bird' Nguyen had already made and released a mobile game, Shuriken Block, earlier that month. The object was to stop a cascade of ninja stars from impaling five little men on the screen. This seemed simple enough – the one-word instruction read TAP. Tap the falling star at the right moment, and it would bounce away. But Nguyen understood the mantra of game design that Nolan Bushnell, creator of Pong and founder of Atari, described as "easy to learn and difficult to master." More recently, indie game makers had taken this to speed-metal extremes with the so-called masocore genre – games that are masochistically hard. Shuriken Block was deceptively ruthless. Even the nimblest player would have trouble lasting a minute before the men were spurting pixelated blood. Nguyen was pleased with the results, but the game languished in the iOS store. For his new game, Nguyen realized a way to go even simpler: Let the player tap anywhere. All he needed was an idea to build it around. The year before, he'd drawn a pixelated bird on his computer that riffed on Nintendo fish, called Cheep Cheeps. He drew green pipes – a homage to Super Mario Bros. – that the bird would have to navigate. He modeled the game on one of the most masocore analog creations ever: paddleball. The toy was a simple design – just a wooden paddle with a string attached to a rubber ball. But players would be lucky to bounce the ball more than a few times in a row. Like paddleball, he limited his game to just a couple of elements – the bird and the pipes – and resisted the usual urge to lard the action with new elements as the player progressed. He tuned the physics so that the bird was fighting gravity so strong, even the slightest wrong tap would kill it. Since the deaths would be so frequent, Nguyen wanted to make them entertaining. He tried having the bird explode in a bloody pulp, or bounce back across the ground, before settling on a faceplant. He then sifted through hundreds of sounds before settling on a kung-fu-style thwack to make the bird's demise even funnier. (The first question he asks me about the game is if it made me laugh.) "The bird is flying along peacefully," he says with a chuckle, "and all of a sudden you die!" Before the last flag waved on Reunification Day, Nguyen had gone on Twitter and posted a screen shot of his "new simple game." Other than a couple of tweets, Nguyen says he put no marketing behind the launch. And, like so many games released into the flood, Flappy Bird flopped. The first mention of the game on Twitter didn't come until five months later, on November 4th, when someone posted a three-word review. "Fuck Flappy Bird," it read. Trying to divine why stuff goes viral is like trying to fly the bird: You end up ass-up on the ground. But "Fuck Flappy Bird" captured the essence of the appeal. The highly addictive Flappy Bird was like a snot-nosed kid paddleballing you in the face. It was begging to be spanked. And you couldn't resist or stop playing. By the end of December, players swarmed social media to commiserate, compete and bitch about breaking their phones in frustration. Twitter erupted with Flappy Bird testimonials, eventually hitting more than 16 million messages. One called it "the most annoying game yet I can't stop," and another said it was "slowly consuming my life." As word spread from Reddit to YouTube, playgrounds to office parks, Flappy Bird rose to the Top 10 of the U.S. charts by early January. Finally, with no promotion, no plan, no logic, on January 17th, Flappy Bird hit Number One. A week or two later, it topped the Google Play store, too. "Seeing the game on top, I felt amazing," Nguyen recalls. Like everyone else, he was shocked by its meteoric rise – and the avalanche of money that would be wired into his bank account. Even with Apple and Google's 30 percent take, Nguyen estimated he was clearing $50,000 a day. Before long, Shuriken Block and a new game he had submitted called Super Ball Juggling joined Flappy Bird in the Top 10. But other than buying a new Mac, and taking his buddies out for rice wine and chicken hot pot, Nguyen wasn't much for indulging. "I couldn't be too happy," he says quietly. "I don't know why." Remarkably, he hadn't yet even bothered to tell his parents, with whom he lived. "My parents don't understand games," he explains. As news hit of how much money Nguyen was making, his face appeared in the Vietnamese papers and on TV, which was how his mom and dad first learned their son had made the game. The local paparazzi soon besieged his parents' house, and he couldn't go out unnoticed. While this might seem a small price to pay for such fame and fortune, for Nguyen the attention felt suffocating. "It is something I never want," he tweeted. "Please give me peace." But the hardest thing of all, he says, was something else entirely. He hands me his iPhone so that I can scroll through some messages he's saved. One is from a woman chastising him for "distracting the children of the world." Another laments that "13 kids at my school broke their phones because of your game, and they still play it cause it's addicting like crack." Nguyen tells me of e-mails from workers who had lost their jobs, a mother who had stopped talking to her kids. "At first I thought they were just joking," he says, "but I realize they really hurt themselves." Nguyen – who says he botched tests in high school because he was playing too much Counter-Strike – genuinely took them to heart. By early February, the weight of everything – the scrutiny, the relentless criticism and accusations – felt crushing. He couldn't sleep, couldn't focus, didn't want to go outdoors. His parents, he says, "worried about my well-being." His tweets became darker and more cryptic. "I can call 'Flappy Bird' is a success of mine," read one. "But it also ruins my simple life. So now I hate it." He realized there was one thing to do: Pull the game. After tweeting that he was taking it down, 10 million people downloaded it in 22 hours. Then he hit a button, and Flappy Bird disappeared. When I ask him why he did it, he answers with the same conviction that led him to create the game. "I'm master of my own fate," he says. "Independent thinker." In the wake of Flappy Bird's demise, rumors spread. Nguyen had committed suicide. Nintendo was suing him. He'd received death threats. His refusal to speak fueled the speculation even more. To fill the massive hole left by Flappy Bird, imitators rushed to cash in. By the time I visit, the top three free iPhone apps are Flappy rip-offs – Flappy Wings, Splashy Fish, even a game based on Miley Cyrus. As of this writing, a Drake game called Tiny Flying Drizzy is Number One at the App Store, and, according to a study, a new Flappy clone pops up every 24 minutes. "People can clone the app because of its simplicity," Nguyen says, "but they will never make another Flappy Bird." Indeed, for those who crave the real thing, phones with Flappy Bird installed have been listed for thousands on eBay. But the absence has also spawned a reappraisal. Kotaku apologized for its allegations of plagiarism. John Romero, co-creator of the game Doom, says Flappy Bird is "a reaction against prevailing design the way grunge was a reaction to metal." The godfather of gaming, Bushnell, compares it to his own hit, Pong. "Simple games are more satisfying," he says. As for Nguyen, the millions of people who downloaded Flappy Bird are still generating tens of thousands of dollars for him. He's finally quit his job and says he's thinking of buying a Mini Cooper and an apartment. He just got his first passport. For now, though, he's busy doing what he loves most: making games. Over tea, he shows me the three he's working on simultaneously: an untitled cowboy-themed shooter, a vertical flying game called Kitty Jetpack and an "action chess game," as he puts it, called Checkonaut, one of which he'll release this month. Each sports his now-familiar style: simple play, retro graphics and hardcore difficulty. Since taking Flappy Bird down, he says he's felt "relief. I can't go back to my life before, but I'm good now." As for the future of his flapper, he's still turning down offers to purchase the game. Nguyen refuses to compromise his independence. But will Flappy Bird ever fly again? "I'm considering it," Nguyen says. He's not working on a new version, but if he ever releases one it will come with a "warning," he says: "Please take a break." This story is from the March 27th, 2014 issue of Rolling Stone.

Summary: The creator of Flappy Bird shocked fans when he mysteriously yanked the game, and since then, Dong Nguyen has been difficult to pin down. But Rolling Stone managed to catch up with him in his hometown of Hanoi, where he agreed to an in-depth chat. Perhaps the most important question: Will Flappy Bird ever return? "I'm considering it," he says, though he notes it'll be packaged with a warning to "please take a break." Nguyen, 28, was a big Super Mario Bros. fan as a kid and went on to become a talented programmer at a Hanoi cellphone-game firm. When it came to making games on his own, "I pictured how people play," he said, with "one hand holding the train strap." That led to the simple, tap-based Flappy Bird. When it eventually took off, he began getting disturbing messages, some of which he's saved. One complained that he was "distracting the children of the world"; another called the game "addicting like crack." People said they'd lost their jobs or stopped speaking to their kids over the game. Nguyen couldn't stand it, and he took it down, leading to "relief. I can't go back to my life before, but I'm good now." Click for the whole piece.

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Summarize: SACRAMENTO — State lawmakers on Friday sent Gov. Jerry Brown a proposal that would allow nurse practitioners and some other non-physicians to perform first-trimester abortions. The measure was one of dozens to receive final legislative approval. Among them was a bill to require Facebook, Tumblr and other social networking sites to abide by new rules intended to protect minors who use the Internet. The abortion bill, by Assemblywoman Toni Atkins (D-San Diego), is aimed at expanding access to abortion in rural areas where a shortage of doctors makes it difficult to find someone to perform the procedure. The bill "reaffirms California's status as a leader in the access for safe and comprehensive reproductive healthcare for all women, regardless of where they reside," Atkins told her Assembly colleagues Friday. Republicans opposed the bill. Assemblywoman Kristin Olsen (R-Modesto) said that allowing nurse practitioners, physicians' assistants and nurse midwives to perform abortions would "lower the standard of care for women." "Regardless of where you stand in the abortion debate, all of us should be concerned about the practical effects of allowing non-doctors to perform the procedure," Olsen said. The California Medical Assn., which typically opposes efforts to allow non-doctors to conduct medical procedures, supported the measure. The group said in a statement this week that its concerns about patient safety had been addressed. The bill would require those performing abortions to be in contact with doctors who can supervise them, although the physicians would not have to be present for the procedure. If Brown signs the bill, AB 154, California will join four other states with similar laws — Montana, New Hampshire, Oregon and Vermont. The Internet privacy bill would prohibit websites directed at children from marketing certain products, including guns, bullets, dietary supplements and alcohol, to minors. It also would bar the compiling of personal information provided by underage Internet users for marketing by third parties of products not allowed for sale to minors. Additionally, the proposal, by Senate President Pro Tem Darrell Steinberg (D-Sacramento), would require all social networking sites to immediately remove pictures and comments posted by minors who ask that they be taken down. "Too often, a teenager will post an inappropriate picture or statement that in the moment seems frivolous or fun but that they later regret," Steinberg said in a statement. "While some social media sites already provide an 'eraser button,' this bill ensures that minors can remove this content on any site before it's sent out by a third party." The measure was opposed by the Center for Democracy and Technology, a nonprofit group advocating for an open Internet. The group feared the bill would "have the unintended consequence of reducing minors' access to information and platforms for expression online," said Emma J. Llansó, policy counsel for the center. Other bills approved by the Legislature on Friday would: •Change drug sentencing laws in an effort to limit jail time for those charged with possession. The bill would redefine the legal meaning of "transporting" drugs to mean transportation for sale. AB 721 is by Assemblyman Steven Bradford, a Democrat from Gardena. Establish a "three feet of safety" passing zone for cars trying to go around cyclists. Brown has twice vetoed similar measures. AB 1371 is also by Bradford. Allow school districts to include instruction in violence awareness and prevention. The bill was introduced after the massacre at Sandy Hook Elementary School in Connecticut last year. SB 552 is by Sen. Ronald S. Calderon, a Democrat from Montebello. Lawmakers shelved 90 bills Friday because of their cost. One would have allowed families on welfare to receive additional aid if they have more children. Existing law prohibits an increase in such aid based on the arrival of a new child if the family has received assistance for at least 10 months before the birth. "My heart sank," said Assemblywoman Holly Mitchell (D-Los Angeles), who introduced the legislation. "We have to invest in young children to improve their outcome." Mitchell noted that her bill was shelved a day after an Assembly panel voted to allocate $315 million more for prisons. Sen. Kevin de Leon (D-Los Angeles), chairman of the panel that stopped the welfare bill, AB 271, said he supported it on merit. But it would have added $220 million in annual costs to a state budget that was balanced with some difficulty. An Assembly committee blocked two firearms bills. One by Sen. Mark DeSaulnier (D-Concord) eventually would have required that all guns be "smart guns" — high-tech weapons that would recognize their owner and fire only if that owner was holding them. A legislative analysis of SB 293 said testing the new technology could create new costs for the state. The other measure, by De Leon, would have created a 30-day amnesty period during which people who owned guns illegally could surrender them to local law enforcement without facing prosecution. Lawmakers declined to explain their decision on the bill, SB 38. [email protected] [email protected] Times staff writer Chris Megerian contributed to this report. — SACRAMENTO, Calif. (AP) - A bill heading to Gov. Jerry Brown would allow nurse practitioners, certified nurse midwives and physician assistants to perform a type of early abortion. The measure by Democratic Assemblywoman Toni Atkins of San Diego would let those medical professionals perform what are known as aspiration abortions during the first trimester. The method involves inserting a tube and using suction to terminate a pregnancy. Nurse practitioners, certified nurse midwives and physicians assistants already are allowed to administer medicine to induce an abortion. The Assembly approved AB154 Friday on a mostly party-line vote of 49-25. Atkins says her bill would help expand access to abortion services in areas of the state with few physicians. Republicans opposing the legislation said allowing non-doctors to perform abortions would increase risks to patients.

Summary: While states like Texas and North Carolina move to make abortion ever more restrictive, California seems to be headed in the opposite direction. State lawmakers recently passed a bill that would allow early abortions to be performed by non-physicians, like nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, and physicians' assistants, the LA Times reports. They are already allowed to administer medicine-induced abortions, but if the bill is approved by the governor, they will also be able to perform "aspiration abortions" in the first trimester, where pregnancies are terminated via a suction tube, the AP reports. State Republicans, who opposed the bill, have raised concerns that the law would "lower the standard of care for women," reports the Times. "Regardless of where you stand in the abortion debate, all of us should be concerned about the practical effects of allowing non-doctors to perform the procedure," said one Assemblywoman. But the California Medical Association, which usually isn't a fan of non-physicians doing medical procedures, supports the move and says it will be safe. If the bill is given the OK, California will join states like Montana, New Hampshire, Oregon, and Vermont, which have similar laws.

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Summarize: A dangerous strain of E.coli has led to at least two children needing dialysis in hospital – and left angry parents asking why authorities failed to sound the alert early enough. The rare form of the bacteria, apparently originating in Dorset, has struck 11 people, including five children, with seven developing kidney problems which could be permanent. One three-year-old girl, from Blandford in the county, is battling the infection in hospital after being struck down last week. Scroll down for video. Freddy Osborne, one, was rushed to hospital with E. coli after eating at Frankie & Benny's in Castlepoint, Bournemouth - but the restaurant has been given the all clear. Several victims were associated with a children’s nursery. Yet while the outbreak began in July, Public Health England (PHE) only began raising any alarm this week. It is yet to identify the source of the potentially fatal infection of E.coli 055 but has ruled out a Bournemouth branch of restaurant chain Frankie and Benny’s where three victims dined in two separate groups before being struck down. Yesterday, PHE contacted the families of all the victims asking relatives to give blood tests in an attempt to establish the origin of the outbreak. One of those who needed dialysis is Freddy Osborne, now 21 months. Isaac Mortlock, three, also fell ill with E. coli after eating at the same Frankie & Benny's restaurant, which has been cleared of any blame by investigators. Isaac's mother Gabrielle Archer (pictured) also feared her son could die after finding him fitting in the middle of the night. He spent four weeks in Southampton General Hospital, much of it in intensive care, and required multiple blood transfusions. He was at one stage left blind for ten days and had to be put into a coma for six days because it was dangerous for him to try to breathe. Although Freddy survived the ordeal, he was left blind for 10 days and his kidneys may never work properly again. Eventually he was diagnosed with the E.coli 055 strain, although all the diagnoses took a long time because the strain has never been found since records began in 1994. Freddy’s mother Charlotte Fudge, 25, from Bournemouth, said: ‘The whole family thought he was going to die. He was totally traumatised and went through hell. It is ridiculous Public Health England didn’t warn people what was going on and work harder to find the source.’ Gabrielle Archer’s son Isaac, three, was in the same hospital as Freddy, also needing dialysis and spending time in intensive care. He is now home after nine weeks in two hospitals but is still on a nasal drip and has permanently damaged kidneys. The family fear he may be in need of a kidney transplant. Miss Archer, 26, from Bournemouth, said: ‘The day after Isaac’s birthday in July he suddenly got very ill. First he was sick. Then he began passing blood. ‘At first doctors told us it was probably gastroenteritis. It was only when he started leaking blood permanently they said they’d have to admit him to hospital. Then he got violently sick – and an X-ray and scan showed his kidneys were affected and he had to go on dialysis. He had to be switched to another hospital in Southampton and stay there for five weeks. ‘He had fits in the middle of one night as well, his eyes were rolling, I thought he was dying, and I was screaming ‘‘Won’t someone help my baby?” He was unrecognisable.’ Freddy, now two, was the first to pick up the rare strain of E. coli that has hospitalised 11 people in Dorset since July. Isaac’s aunt, Jessica Archer, was then struck down by the same strain of E.coli and was hospitalised. Miss Archer is angry that PHE did not start publicising the outbreak until this week. She said: ‘I’m devastated that other children are now suffering – and feel that had Public Health England taken Isaac’s case more seriously in the first place, and put out more warnings, fewer people could have been affected.’ A spokesman for PHE said that the people affected by the strain had been struck over a lengthy period, and that while all had passed through Dorset, not all were from there, so it took some time to pull the facts together. She said: ‘All those affected and their close contacts are being followed up and further investigations are taking place to determine the likely source.’ Cleared: Three people who have fallen ill with E. coli ate at Frankie & Benny's before they were hospitalised, but the restaurant has been given a clean bill of health. Escherichia coli or E.coli, is a group of bacteria that live in the intestines of animals and humans. Many strains are harmless, but some can cause serious health problems. About 35,000 people are struck down by different forms of E.coli infection every year. Many cases are mild, such as urinary tract infections, but 1,000 a year are hit by E.coli food poisoning which can be very serious, particularly to children and the elderly. The most common serious E.coli strain in Britain is O157. Symptoms include severe diarrhoea, stomach cramps and fever. Infections can cause serious complications such as potentially fatal kidney problems or brain damage. The bug releases toxins which can affect blood vessels – leading to fits and attacking the kidneys. It may also harm the heart. Infection is spread by consuming food or water contaminated with the bacteria, or through contact with infected people or farm animals. A severe outbreak at a petting farm in Surrey affected 76 young children in 2009, ten of them suffering long-term effects. The UK’s largest E.coli food poisoning outbreak killed 21 people in Lanarkshire in 1996

Summary: Two children fell ill with E. coli after eating at Frankie & Benny's restaurant. Freddy Osborne's mother thought her son might die after four seizures. 21-month-old is now out of a coma but has lasting kidney damage. Isaac Mortlock, three, also fell ill after eating at the chain in Bournemouth. An investigation by health officials has cleared the restaurant of any blame. Council and Public Health England investigators found no trace of E. coli. 11 people have contracted the killer bacteria in Dorset since July. Investigators' search for the mystery source of E. coli continues.

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Summarize: Lindy Lou Layman, accused of destroying Tony Buzbee’s Andy Warhol art, challenges charges window._taboola = window._taboola []; _taboola.push({ mode: 'thumbnails-c', container: 'taboola-interstitial-gallery-thumbnails-5', placement: 'Interstitial Gallery Thumbnails 5', target_type:'mix' }); _taboola.push({flush: true}); window._taboola = window._taboola []; _taboola.push({ mode: 'thumbnails-c', container: 'taboola-interstitial-gallery-thumbnails-8', placement: 'Interstitial Gallery Thumbnails 8', target_type:'mix' }); _taboola.push({flush: true}); Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 1 of / 8 Caption Close Image 1 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of Houston trial lawyer Anthony Buzbee. less Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and... more Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 2 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman walks out of court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of Houston trial lawyer Anthony Buzbee. less Lindy Lou Layman walks out of court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at... more Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 3 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of Houston trial lawyer Anthony Buzbee. less Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and... more Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 4 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of Houston trial lawyer Anthony Buzbee. less Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and... more Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 5 of 8 Image 6 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of Houston trial lawyer Anthony Buzbee. less Lindy Lou Layman stands with her defense attorney, Justin Keiter, after making an appearance in court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and... more Photo: Michael Ciaglo, Houston Chronicle Image 7 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman, 29, was charged Saturday with felony criminal mischief in the incident, Houston police said in court documents. Police allege that Layman threw two abstract sculptures and destroyed three original paintings at Buzbee's mansion. She was released on $30,000 bond. less Lindy Lou Layman, 29, was charged Saturday with felony criminal mischief in the incident, Houston police said in court documents. Police allege that Layman threw two abstract sculptures and destroyed three... more Photo: handout Image 8 of 8 Lindy Lou Layman, accused of destroying Tony Buzbee’s Andy Warhol art, challenges charges 1 / 8 Back to Gallery A Dallas woman accused of destroying at least $300,000 worth of sculptures and original paintings - including two original Andy Warhol works - at the River Oaks home of a Houston lawyer is challenging that attorney's story. Lindy Lou Layman, 29, appeared in court Tuesday after a charge of criminal mischief was filed by well-known Houston trial attorney Anthony Buzbee on December 23. "We certainly disagree with Mr. Buzbee's rendition of the facts when he spoke to the media and we disagree with what was said in probable cause court," said Layman's defense attorney Justin Keiter. Now Playing: Now Playing Texas Live opens in Arlington Media: Fox4 Dog that was the star of a sad viral video finds a new loving home in Houston Media: Houston Chronicle 2 motorcyclists injured during race on Katy Freeway Media: Metro Video Dog Shamelessly Begs for Belly Rubs From Human Media: Jukin Media Study shows disproportionate discipline Media: Fox 26 Houston Man says he was a victim of hate crime Media: Fox 26 Houston 10 p.m. Aug. 8 FOXRAD Forecast Media: Fox 26 Houston Analyzing a firenado Media: Fox 26 Houston Was That Fake? - cows surround suspect Media: Fox 26 Houston Prosecutors: Man was training kids for school attacks Media: Fox 26 Houston Family friends try to cope after murder of two young children Media: Fox 26 Houston Back-to-school health checklist Media: Fox 26 Houston FOX 7 Discussion: DACA Hearing Media: Fox7 Man killed during home invasion, carjacking in northeast Houston Media: Houston Chronicle Texas firefighters to California Media: Fox7 Texas attorney general argues in court for end of DACA Media: Fox4 Asked what the real story was, Keiter deferred: "I'll save that for the courtroom." Police allege that Layman threw two abstract sculptures and destroyed three original paintings at Buzbee's mansion. Prosecutors have said Layman was on a first date with Buzbee, the high-profile attorney who successfully defended former Texas Gov. Rick Perry in an abuse-of-power case, when she became intoxicated and refused to leave. She then poured liquid on the paintings and threw the sculptures, according to court records. "Our side has the rest of the story," Keiter said after Layman appeared before state District Judge Kelli Johnson, who set typical bond conditions. Layman is free on $30,000 bail is prohibited from using drugs or alcohol or contacting Buzbee. "We have no interest in having contact with Mr. Buzbee," Keiter said. "That's fine with us." Assistant Harris County District Attorney Kelsey Leiper declined to comment after the brief hearing. Outside of the courtroom, Keiter said Layman had been maligned by new coverage of the incident. "She's weathering the storm of the intense media scrutiny that she has endured," Keiter said. "She's a great person." Layman, who appeared with her father, did not speak in court or after the hearing. Similar to allegations of theft or embezzlement, the level of the charge is determined by the value of the objects in question. In this case, Layman is accused of the maximum, a first degree felony. If convicted, she could face life in prison. Lindy Lou Layman walks out of court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is challenging allegations that she caused at least $300,000 in damage to a prominent Houston attorney's art collection at... (Associated Press) Lindy Lou Layman walks out of court Tuesday, Jan. 9, 2018 in Houston. Layman is challenging allegations that she caused at least $300,000 in damage to a prominent Houston attorney's art collection at the end of their first date. She is charged with felony criminal mischief for the Dec. 23 incident in... (Associated Press) HOUSTON (AP) — A Dallas woman is challenging allegations that she caused at least $300,000 in damage to a prominent Houston attorney's art collection at the end of their first date. Lindy Lou Layman appeared in a Houston courtroom Tuesday after being charged with felony criminal mischief for the Dec. 23 incident in the home of attorney Tony Buzbee. Prosecutors say Buzbee told investigators the 29-year-old Layman became intoxicated and belligerent and that she shattered two $20,000 sculptures and poured wine on paintings, including two Andy Warhol works each valued at $500,000. Justin Keiter, Layman's attorney, said Tuesday his client is a "great person" and they "disagree with Mr. Buzbee's rendition of the facts." He declined to give an alternate version of what happened, saying he's saving it for the courtroom. Buzbee has represented high-profile figures, including former Texas Gov. Rick Perry in an abuse-of-power case. Layman is free on $30,000 bond. The 29-year-old woman accused of damaging at least $300,000 worth of artwork during an alleged drunken first date with a prominent Houston lawyer is disputing the allegations and saying there is more to the story, multiple outlets report. Lindy Lou Layman appeared in court in Houston on Tuesday in connection with a felony criminal mischief charge filed in December, the Houston Chronicle reports. She could face life in prison if convicted, according to the Chronicle. The degree of the charge is determined by the value of the objects that were damaged, the Chronicle explains. In this case, Layman has been charged with the maximum penalty, a first-degree felony, which carries a maximum sentence of life in prison. • Want to keep up with the latest crime coverage? Click here to get breaking crime news, ongoing trial coverage and details of intriguing unsolved cases in the True Crime Newsletter. Layman was arrested on Dec. 23, after allegedly throwing “liquid” on three original paintings at the mansion of attorney Anthony Buzbee and tearing them off the wall “with her hands, causing damage,” according to court records obtained by PEOPLE. The Dallas woman is also accused of throwing two of Buzbee’s sculptures “across the room,” the documents state. Among the damaged artwork were two Andy Warhol paintings, each valued at $500,000, according to the Associated Press. Michael Ciaglo/Houston Chronicle/AP On Tuesday, when Layman appeared in court for a brief appearance, her attorney said his client disputes the accusations against her. “We certainly disagree with Mr. Buzbee’s rendition of the facts when he spoke to the media and we disagree with what was said in probable cause court,” attorney Justin Keiter told the Chronicle. When pressed for details, Keiter said, “I’ll save that for the courtroom.” • For more compelling true crime coverage, follow our Crime magazine on Flipboard. Layman’s alleged tirade came during a first date with Buzbee when, he claims, she became too intoxicated before returning to his home and hiding inside as he attempted to get her into an Uber ride, authorities said, according to the AP and the Houston Chronicle. She allegedly became hostile after Buzbee found her, he said. At one point she allegedly yelled, “I’m not leaving,” according to the Dallas Morning News. Layman allegedly threw red wine on some of the paintings, authorities said, according to the AP. Layman posted bail after her arrest and was released from custody, court records show. During Layman’s court appearance, state District Judge Kelli Johnson set bond conditions: She is free on $30,000 bail but is prohibited from using drugs or alcohol, court records show. She is also prohibited from contacting Buzbee. She has not yet entered a plea. Layman works as a freelance court reporter. Buzbee, reportedly a 49-year-old father of four, made headlines in 2009 for a $100-million verdict on behalf of refinery workers in Texas City, Texas, against BP (which was subsequently reduced by a judge to less than half a million dollars). He more recently defended former Texas Gov. Rick Perry against accusations that he abused his power while in office, the Chronicle reports. (Perry’s indictment was later dismissed.) Layman came to court with her father and did not speak in court or after the hearing, the Chronicle reports. After the hearing, Keiter said Layman has been adversely affected by the attention the case has garnered, telling the Chronicle, “She’s weathering the storm of the intense media scrutiny that she has endured.” Buzbee, the prosecutor and Keiter did not immediately respond to PEOPLE’s requests for comment. Lindy Lou Layman, 29, is charged with criminal mischief. (Photo: KHOU) HOUSTON - The woman accused of causing thousands of dollars’ worth of damage to Houston lawyer Tony Buzbee’s mansion has agreed to random drug testing. Lindy Lou Layman, 29, is charged with criminal mischief. Related: Drunken date tore down Andy Warhol paintings at Houston attorney's home, prosecutors say Buzbee told police Layman was too intoxicated following their date, so he called her an Uber when they returned to his River Oaks home. Layman allegedly refused to leave and hid inside the home. Buzbee located her and called her a second Uber, but she allegedly became aggressive. Layman is accused of yelling obscenities while tearing down two original Andy Warhol paintings, estimated at $500,000 each, from the wall of Buzbee's home. She then allegedly threw two sculptures, valued at $20,000 each, according to charging documents. At the time of Layman's arrest, the damage was estimated to be about $300,000. Layman was in court Tuesday morning. She is out on bond but is ordered not to have any contact with Buzbee. © 2018 KHOU-TV

Summary: A Dallas woman appeared in court on Tuesday in connection with a December date gone horribly wrong. Following the appearance, the attorney for Lindy Lou Layman said, "We certainly disagree with Mr. Buzbee's rendition of the facts," per People. As for Layman's rendition of the facts, "I'll save that for the courtroom," Justin Keiter added, calling Layman a "great person." The 29-year-old Layman is free on bail but barred from drinking, using drugs, or having contact with Anthony Buzbee, the Houston lawyer who got Rick Perry off the hook in this case. As for his rendition of the facts, Buzbee alleges Layman got drunk on their first date, so he called for an Uber to collect her from his River Oaks mansion. Per KHOU, she allegedly hid; Buzbee says he found her and called a second Uber, at which point she started swearing and ruined two Andy Warhol works, among other art. According to police, Layman tossed two sculptures and poured wine on three paintings, reports the AP; the Warhols are said to be worth $1 million in total. The Chronicle explains that because of the art's value-and the damage to them, said to be at least $300,000 worth-she has been charged with first-degree felony criminal mischief, which has a maximum sentence of life.

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Summarize: CROSS REFERENCE TO RELATED APPLICATION This is the 35 USC 371 national stage of International application PCT/IB98/00774 filed on May 20, 1998, which designated the United States of America. FIELD OF THE INVENTION The present invention concerns safety syringes for medical uses which permit the limitation and if possible the avoidance of injury to healthcare workers. The aim of these safety syringes is evidently to avoid risk of contamination during handling of the syringe and to prevent the needle, after administering an injection into a patient suffering from an illness such as viral hepatatis or AIDS, from injuring the nurse before the needle has been safely protected BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION Such safety syringes are known in documents WO 90/06148, EP 0.326.983, EP 0.347.742, U.S. Pat. No. 4,507,177 or U.S. Pat. No. 4,675,005. All of the syringes described in these documents necessitate the retracting of the needle into the syringe barrel after use, but by complicated manipulations involving rotary movements, coupling by bayonet etc. which are impractical movements which hospital personnel are not used to carrying out and which require the use of two hands, one of which can approach the sharp tip of an infected needle. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION The aim of the present invention is to create a safety syringe for medical use permitting the needle to be retracted inside the cylinder after use but which can be utilized in the same way as all standard syringes for its preparation and use, that is to say fixing the required needle, filling, changing needle if necessary, coupling onto an air filter if necessary, evacuation of air-bubbles and injection. Nevertheless, the difference and the advantage compared to standard syringes is that the operator&#39;s hands cannot approach the dangerous distal zone of the syringe which is a source of injury because it is obligatory that the active hand which pulls the piston is occupied at the proximal extremity of the syringe. Another aim of the invention is to prevent the user to try to re-cap the infected needle or to have to dispose of this needle in a specialized disposal box which is not always handy. Yet another aim is to facilitate the reading of the volume of liquid introduced through the needle. Another aim of the present invention is the creation of a purely mechanical syringe having a small number of parts, easy to manufacture and at low cost compared to other known safety syringes, and with a cost comparable to existing low-cost standard single-use syringes. Another aim of the present invention is the creation of a safety syringe which allows the user, before employing the syringe, to choose the appropriate standard needle and to fix it onto the syringe the same as with low-cost conventional single use syringes, which is often not possible with safety syringes. The objective of the present invention is a safety syringe which avoids the disadvantages of existing syringes permitting the above mentioned aims to be reached, comprising a barrel, a plunger which can be moved linearly and remain watertight and a needle carrier similarly movable linearly inside the barrel and which distinguishes itself by the characteristics listed in claim 1. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS The annexed drawings show schematically and as an example a form of execution and variant of the safety syringes according to the invention. FIG. 1 illustrates a longitidunal section of the syringe according to the invention in its position before use, during storage. FIG. 2 illustrates a longitudinal section of a standard needle in its protection cap, intended to be fixed onto the distal end of the needle carrier by push-fit. FIG. 3 illustrates the coupling of the needle carrier onto the plunger. FIG. 4 illustrates a longitudinal section of the syringe at the end of its stroke, the cursor having been slid back to allow the needle carrier to be retracted with its needle inside the cylinder. FIG. 5 illustrates the needle carrier and its needle retracted inside the barrel. FIG. 6 illustrates a variant of the distal extremity of the syringe, particularly of the plunger, rendering the syringe automatically non-reusable after a single use. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION The safety syringe illustrated particularly in FIG. 1 constitutes a barrel 1 moulded by injection of, for example, transparent polypropylene. This barrel 1 has a length and a diameter which depend on the capacity of the syringe, of its ease of use and other normal features such as the length of the standard needles. This barrel 1 of the syringe has at its proximal extremity a flange 2 moulded integrally with the barrel, but of a larger diameter or having a lengthened shape in plan view. The syringe consists further of a plunger having a shaft 3 of which the proximal extremity which emerges out of the barrel 1 has a push-button. The plunger head 4 situated at the distal extremity of shaft 3 includes a housing 5 to hold an O-ring 6 which slides in a watertight fashion within the barrel 1. The use of an O-ring to ensure the watertightness between the plunger and the barrel is advantageous because this type of joint costs less than a full piston head moulded in rubber; furthermore it can be injection moulded in a synthetic elastomer which meets all medical requirements. The distal extremity of the shaft 3 situated beyond the O-ring 6 of the plunger in the direction of the distal extremity of barrel 1 consists of the male organs 8 of a coupling system of the plunger 3 - 6 with a needle carrier 7. These male coupling organs are formed by projections 8 extending axially in the direction of the distal extremity of the barrel 1, these projections 8 being situated around a circumference centred on the axis of barrel 1 and of which the radial extension is in the order of 40° to 120° according to the number of the projections 8. Generally one uses three or four projections 8 uniformly distributed around the axis of plunger 3 - 6 and presenting an angular spread included between 45° and 70°. Each of the projections 8 has at its tip an inclined plane 9 on its external face widening in the direction of the proximal extremity of barrel 1 and forming a retaining ridge 10 on the cylindrical face of the proximal extremity of projection 8. The distal part 11 of barrel 1 presents a smaller diameter extension with an annular internal stop 12 at its distal extremity formed by a circular brim facing towards the axis of barrel 1 so as to reduce the distal opening of barrel 1. This distal part 11 of the barrel has an annular groove lla situated on its external peripheral surface. The syringe also includes a needle carrier 7 comprising a distal end consisting of a hollow cone 13 designed to hold an hypodermic needle 14 by push-fit. The proximal end 15 of the needle carrier comprises a cylindrical portion 16 having an external diameter which corresponds of the internal diameter of the distal extension 11 of barrel 1. This proximal extremity 16 of the needle-carrier 7 slides in a watertight manner inside the distal part of the barrel. A seal, for example an O-ring, 16 a lodged in an annular channel around the needle-carrier ensures a perfectly watertight fit between the barrel 1 and the needle-carrier 7. It is possible to retract the needle-carrier into barrel 1 when it has been freed by sliding the cursor 21, 22. The external diameter of the distal part of needle-carrier 7 does not exceed the diameter of the distal opening of barrel 1. The median section 17 of this needle-carrier presents a diameter which corresponds to the internal diameter of the brim situated at the distal extremity 11 of the barrel. Thus the furthest distal position of the needle-carrier 7 in the barrel 1 is defined by the contact of the shoulder separating the proximal part 16 of the median section 17 of the needle-carrier 7 with the stop 12 of barrel 1. This median section 17 of needle-carrier 7 has a circular groove 18 with a proximal annular face situated, when the needle-carrier 7 is in its furthest distal position, in the extension of the frontal face of the rim of the distal extremity 11 of barrel 1. In the standby or storage position of the syringe illustrated in FIG. 1, the needle-carrier 7 is lodged in the distal part 11 of barrel 1. On part of its internal circumference, about 60° to 120°, the proximal portion 16 of the needle-carrier 8 includes a ridge or catch 19 which constitutes the female part of the coupling of the plunger into the needle-carrier intended to cooperate, as we shall see later, with the catch 10 of the tip of at least one of the fingers 8 of the plunger. The coupling comprised by the catches 10 of one or two fingers 8 and the catch 19 of the needle-carrier 7 is unlockable. It thus possible to re-lock together the plunger and the needle-carrier after these have already been locked together once, and the needle can then still be pulled inside the barrel 1 after use as soon as the user has slid back the cursor 22 and thus freed the needle-carrier 7. In its initial position during storage (FIG. 1) an operator can push-fit a needle 14 onto the distal projection 13 of the needle-carrier 7 and also change the needle as required, in the same way as is done with conventual syringes. The needle carrier 7 is locked in this position in relation to the barrel 1 by a cursor. This cursor consists of a ring 21 - 22 sliding freely around the barrel. This ring 21 has at least one flexible locking finger 22 extending in the direction of the distal tip of the barrel 1. In its operational position (FIG. 1 ), the cursor is in its distal position and the ends of its fingers 22 are lodged in groove 18 of the needle-carrier 7. Thus the needle-carrier 7 is locked in its service position and cannot be pulled out or pushed into the barrel for example during needle fixing, aspiring a liquid from a bottle or administering an injection. This cursor is transparent and in no way interferes with visibility when filling the syringe. The operator can then carry out all necessary clinical requirements; aspire a liquid and inject it into a patient, or sample blood from a patient&#39;s vein and empty it into a test tube using traditional manipulations. When the operator has finished and wishes to dispose of the syringe, the operator must never cap the needle nor discard the naked needle, which always presents a great potential danger of needlestick injury, but at the end of the injection stroke a slightly firmer pressure is applied to the plunger thus causing the coupling together of the plunger and the needle-carrier, the catch 10 of fingers 8 locking by elastic deformation of the fingers 8 onto the catch 19 of the needle-carrier 7 as shown in FIG. 4. As long as the cursor 21 - 22 remains in its distal service position, the plunger 4 can still be unlocked from the needle-carrier 7. This is important because this coupling at the end of the distal stroke of the plunger can sometimes happen unintentionally. Before pulling the needle-carrier 7 inside the barrel 1 by means of the plunger, the user must unlock the needle-carrier 7 by sliding the cursor 21 - 22 in a proximal direction along barrel 1 which pulls the fingers 22 out of the groove 18 of the needle-carrier 7, which fingers 22 can then be parked in the annular external depression lla around the barrel. From this moment, the plunger and the needle-carrier are coupled together and, after having slid back the cursor 21 - 22 to free the needle-carrier, in withdrawing the plunger one withdraws the needle-carrier 7 and its needle 14 inside the barrel 1 (FIG. 5 ). Because of the flexibility of the fingers 8 and that only one or two of these are coupled with catch 19 of the needle carrier 7, this latter is inclined in relation to the axis of the barrel (FIG. 5) so that when the plunger has been sufficiently retracted, the needle can no longer emerge from the barrel. The proximal extremity of the barrel 1 contains an internal stop ring 23 with an inclined ramp which allows the plunger to be inserted into the barrel 1 but which stop ring blocks its being pulled out. Thus, the operator cannot pull the needle out of the barrel through its proximal opening and the used needle is irrevocably interred inside the barrel 1. This stop ring is considerably more prominent than the stop rings normally included in standard syringes where the plunger can easily be removed from the barrel through its proximal opening. In a variant, the plunger shaft can have a Y-section instead of an X-section. This can provide an economy of around 25% of plastic used for this part while still providing it with sufficient rigidity. By this means the manufacturing cost of these syringes can be reduced. The principal advantages of this safety syringe are: 1. It will eliminate any possibility for healthcare personnel to suffer accidental needlestick injury with an infected needle, after having administered an injection. 2. It&#39;s mode of use (filling/injection) remains exactly the same as the existing procedure for use with standard syringes. 3. To render it totally non-reusable, it is merely necessary to push the plunger to the limit of its stroke, which couples the distal tip of the plunger into the needle carrier. The needle is then withdrawn by the plunger, after the cursor has been slid back, inside the barrel where it is blocked. 4. The needle having by these actions been inclined and pressed against the interior of the barrel, it cannot by any means re-emerge through the distal opening of the barrel. Because of the stop ring 23, it furthermore cannot be pulled out of the barrel through the proximal opening. 5. During the push-fitting of a needle onto the needle carrier and during the entire cycle of use of the syringe, it is impossible to push the needle carrier inside the the barrel, as it is locked by the cursor 21, 22. 6. On the other hand, the coupling with the needle carrier by the plunger (see 3 above) presents no difficulty. 7. The syringe cannot be reused and can be discarded for incineration without the slightest danger. 8. Neither hand can approach the dangerous distal zone which can cause needlestick accidents. One hand is holding the syringe by its barrel while the other hand is pulling the plunger. 9. It consists of four moulded plastic components, plus two standard elastomeric seals. 10. It accepts all standard needles and all volumes of the syringe incorporate the same sized needle carrier. 11. The manufacturing costs are comparable to those of a standard non-safety single use syringe. 12. The dead volume at the end of an injection is within the ISO international standards. FIG. 6 illustres a form of execution of the syringe which is self-destructing, in other words once it has been used it can no longer be used, even intentionally. To realise this, the distal tip of the plunger shaft has a passage 30 connecting the spaces on barrel 1 situated each side of the watertight seal 6 of the plunger. This passage 30 is blocked and rendered watertight by a blocking means, for example a ball 31, preferably elastomeric, held in position by an element 32 lodged and held between the fingers 8 which carry internal rims 33 for this purpose. This element 32 has the characteristic of having a variable resistance to compression depending on whether it is dry or wet. In its dry state it is hard and presses the ball 31 strongly against its seating, thus blocking the passage 30. As soon as the syringe has been filled with the liquid the element 32 has its mechanical resistance diminished. Thus, while the user empties the liquid contained in the syringe, ball 31 is constantly pressed against its seating, the pressure applying in the distal chamber of barrel 1 being greater than that applying in the proximal chamber of said barrel. On the other hand, if the user wishes to refill the syringe he must, to aspire the liquid through the needle, pull back the plunger which causes a depression in the distal chamber of the barrel. At this moment, ball 31 moves by deforming element 32 which is now soft and it is air that fills the distal chamber of the barrel, which is now unable to be filled with a liquid. It is evident that in this second form of execution the user can equally well push the plunger to the limit of its stroke in the barrel and to definitely couple this to the needle-carrier then pull the needle-carrier and the needle it is carrying inside the barrel so as to then discard the syringe in perfect safety. Thus, this variant, in addition to the advantages of the first version of the syringe that has been described, is self-destructing; it cannot be re-used, even intentionally. In another variant and with the aim of reducing even more the amount of plastic required for manufacture of the syringe, it is possible to mould the finger-grip flange 2, not at the proximal extremity of the barrel 1 but at a distance of 1 to 2 cm from this proximal extremity of the barrel. In so doing, it is thus possible to shorten the length of the plunger shaft 3, advancing the position of its push-button ( 2 ) to abut, when the plunger head 4 has been pushed to the limit of its stroke inside the barrel, against the opening of the barrel at its proximal extremity, without affecting the ease of manipulation of the plunger.

Summary: A safety syringe includes a barrel, a needle-carrier and a plunger. The plunger and the needle-carrier each have a coupling system which connects them by a simple axial push of the plunger. The distal part of the barrel has an internal annular stop. The central part of the needle-carrier has an external diameter corresponding to the internal diameter of the annular stop while the proximal extremity of this part of the needle-carrier has a diameter corresponding to the internal diameter of the distal part of the barrel. Elements are provided to prevent temporarily the needle-carrier from being pushed inside the barrel through axial pressure against the distal tip of the needle-carrier.

big_patent

en

Summarize: RELATED APPLICATIONS [0001] This application is related to and is a continuation of nonprovisional patent application Ser. No. 11/324,693, filed Dec. 30, 2005 and for which a Notice of Allowance has issued. BACKGROUND Background of the Invention [0002] Molecular Transport of vitamin B6 was described to occur in outpatient oral surgical procedures in U.S. application Ser. No. 10/318,940. Continued clinically usage of B6, either as an analog or pure pyridoxine form incorporated in either a molecule transport system like meperidine or a molecular/molecule system like a cream or gel in which the cream or gel behaves identical to a carrier system. Vitamin B6 was added to mixture or gel or cream to permit a synergistic enhancement of B6 activity on a cellular level. Details of B5/B6 cream or gel are disclosed in U.S. patent application Ser. No. 12/074,893 and WIPO. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION [0003] Vitamin B6, either in pyridoxine or analog form, was used to clinically reverse disease and injury states in humans by influencing theoretical biochemical known pathways that for one reason or another cannot function normally or a injury event, like a arterial bleed in the brain, that can be manipulated by B6 action to reverse a tissue damaging event through altered metabolic rates. Thus by topical application of a rapid wound healing B51B6 mixture overlying an organ or injury site, the clinical abnormally can be reversed to a normal state in the living organism. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE FIGURES [0004] The foregoing aspects and many of the attendant advantages of the invention will become more readily appreciated as the same becomes better understood by reference to the following detailed description, when taken in conjunction with the accompanying drawings, wherein: DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE INVENTION [0005] The following description is presented to enable a person of ordinary skill in the art to make and use various aspects and examples of the present invention. Descriptions of specific materials, techniques, and applications are provided only as examples. Various modifications to the examples described herein will be readily apparent to those of ordinary skill in the art, and the general principles defined herein may be applied to other examples and applications without departing from the spirit and scope of the invention. Thus, the present invention is not intended to be limited to the examples described and shown, but is to be accorded the scope consistent with the appended claims. [0006] Topical application of a transported B6 mixture can reverse facial acne either in conjunction with antibiotic therapy or without antibiotics. The clinical course is usually a facial acne or blemish in the age group of 16 years old to 36 years old. Application of the B6 mixture has in 8 adult cases resulted in normal skin without the blemishes present when other accepted methods of dermatological care have failed. Resolution of the acne problem occurs over a 2-week period of time. One case report of 72-year-old female with precancerous facial lesions documented through biopsy resulted in complete resolution of the precancerous lesions in 2 weeks for the first time in 15 years by applying a B6 mixture 3 to 4 times a day to the affected facial tissue. One useful observation in the cases was that the mixture could cake on the face. Addition of tap water to the cakey mixture renewed the penetration process by the ointment. [0007] A more dramatic case report in using the B6 mixture concerns the rapid reversal of submandibular cellulitis in 47-old-male hospitalized for this life-threatening event. The clinical facial submandibular cellulitis in involving the submaxillary, sublingual and submental spaces from a dental infective origin becomes of serious concern for airway management when the patient presents with marked inability to open their mouth and the submandibular tissues become “board-like” to digital exam. Concern of a pending Ludwig&#39;s Angina cellulitis motivates both the patient and clinician to aggressive antibiotic, diagnostic and surgical/anesthesia management in a hospital setting.(6) [0008] Using the B5 (5%.) B6 (30%) in a transmolecular cream, a stunning rapid reversal of such a clinical situation in a 47-year old male is described. This patient had been on oral antibiotics 48 hours for a lower left molar infection (#18) without any help and presented at noon as afebrile, unable to open his teeth more than 1 mm, with marked submandibular cellulitis infection requiring hospitalization for management in the prior 24 months. Prompt admission to a hospital (Mercy Hospital, Folsom, Calif.) was made. Since the patient could swallow, oral amoxicillin 2 grams were given stat. Additionally, the submandibular region was coated with the B5/B6 cream, and TID based on a prior 18 month clinical usage to bring about rapid analgesia, rapid edemalhematoma resolution and resolution of minor infective events. [0009] At 5 pm, on hospital round, it was found that intravenous antibiotics were still pending. However, clinical digital exam of the cellulitis region revealed a stunning decrease in the tissue “board-like” cellulitis with a slight improvement in opening the mouth, less pain. CAT scans confirmed the inflammatory process of the infected region. Realizing the impact of B51B6 molecular transported cream to produce a reversal in 5 hours. Aggressive intravenous antibiotics, cream usage and tongue blade exercises allowed the removal of the tooth in the operating room with subsequent discharge home 54 hours after admission and a return to work 6 days after admission. Normal hospitalization for submandibular cellulitis is 6-10 days including radical surgical procedures, airway management and ICU care. This rapid reversal of clinical cellulitis by this invention&#39;s cream reflects on the similar rapid reversal of postoperative edema with dental extractions. [0010] Intravenous care either for anesthesia or intravenous antibiotics is many times fraught with vein phlebitis. Interestingly application of B6 in a transport medium will with 3 times daily applications result in pain relief and resolution of the phlebitis in 3 to 4 days rather than the usual 6 to 8 weeks period of untreated care even when using heat. This resolution of a vein injury is very unusual to occur in a short time as now experienced in 5 cases over one year. [0011] Nerve injury secondarily to anesthetic metabolites of local anesthetics is known as paresthesia.(2, 3) Paresthesia or anesthesia persistence of the facial nerves after dental treatment is extremely uncomfortable for the patient if it involves the tongue or lower lip. Two cases of paresthesia involving the right mandibular branch of the sensory nerve Cranial V are presented. Again both were treated post extraction of the third molar by topical B6 in a transport medium. The patients were a 55-year-old female and a 33-year-old female treated at different times. As stated in U.S. Pat. No. 5,776,859, paresthesia is a drug-induced injury to the pain fiber ion channels by metabolites of the local anesthetics. It does respond to 3 times a day application of the B6 transport cream over a 7-week period of time. The first patient was a 55-year reliable historian being a nurse who experienced altered lip/chin sensation. Weekly to biweekly visits revealed a 30% decrease in prior weeks distribution of paresthesia. On week 3, the patient came in on her own because of marked increase of pain in the lower right dental arch with marked hypesthesia of lip and chin area. At that point it was realized she had run out of the B5/B6 cream resulting in again a 7-week return to normal sensation. These clinical cases demonstrate the repair of a sensory nerve from a chemical toxicity over 7 weeks instead of 9-12 months. Further the safety of B6 to a nerve is predicted action of B6 and now shown not to cause further injury to a human sensory nerve. [0012] Another application of B6 transport cream to a marked injury of head and neck region is the “boxer glove” injury of hematoma and edema to the periorbital and intraorbital tissues of the human eye socket.(4) An 84-year-old male sustained this injury on falling and was seen 6 hours after his fall with marked left cheek bone (zygoma). Eyelids were closed to the point that the patient could not open them. Application of the B51B6 cream resulted in his ability to open his eyelids just 7 minutes after topical application to the swollen areas of his face. I could then access his eye globe function and sight. The patient had marked midline deviation of crossing to his right about 45 degrees, no entrapment and full range of motion. The rapid decrease in eyelid swelling was noted by his adult daughter and myself and was repeated the next morning but now the eye deviation was 15 degrees. Apparently the overnight application of the B5/B6 cream reduced the edema and hematoma between the left lateral rectus orbital muscle and the bony orbit cavity. The significance of this case was the transported B6 was benign to the eye globe and was capable to transporting though orbital edema and bone structures. [0013] Now when due consideration is made of B6&#39;s ability to penetrated the human skull, stop bleeding, resolves hematoma, and is neuron friendly, a serious proposal is that molecularly transported B6 from topical skin areas over the intracranial injury to abort a CNS stroke.(I) Further usefulness of B6 transport has resulted in it known ability to interfere with barbiturate general anesthesia. The barbiturate is attenuated and indeed this property has been used in my oral surgery practice to reverse barbiturate general anesthesia in 5-12 minutes rather than 70-90 minutes. By topical application over the wisdom tooth area at the beginning of the case, then the barbiturate reversal that occurs quickly at the end of the general anesthetic enhances patient safety and allows quick discharge from the office. [0014] Bleeding from B6 during oral surgery routinely stops at minute 3. Facial hematoma resolution has occurred in 24-48 hours postoperatively. Consequently, the use of B6 in a molecular transport medium may abort a CNS stroke, promote rapid healing from the stroke and perhaps be invaluable to rehabulate the stroke victim. This action of transported B6 was proposed to National Institute of Health. A minor stroke was indeed reversed in a 45-year-old male. This patient sustained a heart attack that resulted in an embolus to his left optic nerve known as ischemic optic neuropathy, a condition that has no known cure and results in blindness.(5) The patient was medically seen and documented to be blind in his left eye and the condition had been this way for 2 weeks when the patient sought out the B5/B6 transport cream. After three days of topical usage over and around the affected eye, the patient&#39;s eyesight began to return. During this time B5/B6 usage, the patient&#39;s affected eye would experience flashes of color light prior to return of vision, the vision returning in small increments. Whenever the patient took a shower after placing the cream periorbital, he would experience even more intense light flashes and quicker vision improvement. This later observation then led to the need to add water droplets if the B6 cream became dry or cakey. Today this use of water as an additive to the cream is rationalized by the fact that the cream biochemical rates have increased so much in the application site that addition of water allows continued biochemical transport of residual topical cream. Medical evaluation during this time revealed hematoma resolution in the eye globe. His sight continued to improve until the patient had functional left eyesight at 6 weeks. As he continued his usage of the topical B6 transport cream, his eyesight returned to better function than before the minor stroke to his optic nerve. This improvement in eyesight has now been documented in 3 patients by medical evaluation and may lead to treating of eyesight problems including macular degeneration using a molecularly transported vitamin like B51B6 combination now employed in the current patent applications made by this inventor. [0015] The B51B6 cream has also treated common headaches in 5 adult patients. Application of the vitamin is over the skin area of the skull headache and most interestingly within 2-4 minutes the headache disappears and does not return after a single application. Minor concussion pain to the skull has also been successfully treated using the B5/86 cream topically over the area of the trauma blow. The value of treating headache pain with a transported B6 is based on the ability of B6 to stop small pain nerve fibers from transmitting an impulse to the brain.(2) Based on U.S. Pat. No. 5,776,859 in which cancer was stated to be caused by the aniline metabolites of injected local anesthetics used in dentistry, this inventor was successful to get Federal Food and Drug approval of a cancer free local anesthetic in dentistry based on a thiophene ring rather than an amino benzene ring. This approval in late 2000 has now resulted in the clear decline of lung cancer in the United States for the first time in 90 years. Now that aminobenzene drug structures have been tied into cancer causation, there exists the real need in the United States for a headache replacement of acetaminophen pain relievers. Thus the novel use of topical B6 transported cream may make a simple and safe way to manage common headaches without the need of complex pharmaceuticals. [0016] Another case of importance is the ability of the molecularly transported B6 to bring about an activation of a poorly functioning sub dermal gland, e.g. thyroid. Almost one third of the US population suffers from low thyroid function (hypothyroidism). A 48-year-old female came in to have an involved surgical removal of a tooth and she sought out my practice because of the reputation for rapid wound healing technology routinely being used for all patients. At the time of surgery, I noted her skin to be extremely dry and crusty/flakily and after surgery J found that her skin condition had existed ever since she had been treated with a radioisotope for thyroid cancer, had gone hypothyroid, but no thyroid surgery had been performed, she was 10 years after treatment and currently was on thyroid supplements. On return from surgery 3 days later, she reported a total resolution of the skin problem on her hand that she had used to apply the B5/B6 cream to her cheek skin opposite the surgical site. What impressed her most was that the skin on her hand was normal and now totally free of pain secondarily to lack of dermal cracking. I then suggested, knowing that some thyroid might still be present, applying the cream 2-3 times daily over the thyroid gland itself in her neck since her skin condition was truly head to toe and I could not envision this lady taking a head to toe bath in B6 cream. The patient returned 1 week later with very dramatic results. Her head to toe skin condition disappeared, her exothalopic proptosis of her eyes had suddenly reversed and now her eyes where sitting back in their orbital sockets and for the first time in years she could close her eyelids even when sleeping, and finally her low blood pressure had now returned to normal levels of 120/80; all these clinical things happening for the first time in 10 years with the use of B5/B6 cream over the area of the thyroid. Further follow-up has medical documentation that her serum thyroid levels are approaching normal and she may discontinue her thyroid supplementation. This patient&#39;s quality of life is remarkably improved and when she visits the office, all we can do is laugh and enjoy the radical result of a simple application now of B5/B6 transdermal cream twice daily. Further findings now include an improvement in her eyesight as well as documented by her optometrist. [0017] Continued usage of BS/B6 in either a cream of gel in dental application has resulted in better patient management for acute moderate to severe pain. Application of the gel adjacent to a tooth with deep dental decay causing pain can bring about total pain relief in 1-3 minutes equivalent to a local anesthetic injection in the area. This inventor has proposed that the B6 can penetrate into the tooth pulpal tissues to decrease the inflammation in seconds and could potentially result in reversal of tooth pulpal pathology and avert a need for an extraction or root canal therapy. [0018] In each application of BS/B6 cream for post surgical management, the patients over the last 3 years have all presented with little or no gingivitis of generalized evidence of poor dental hygiene. This observation is totally atypically for an oral surgery practice and normally that patients will require a professional visit with a hygienist 6 to 8 weeks after surgery to undergo a dental tooth cleaning for plaque and tartar. Since the BS/B6 gel or cream has reduced postoperative gingivitis, which is a known biochemical function of B6, it is only logical that toothpaste formulations should include molecularly transported B6 as a component in the toothpaste. Thus gingivitis that can lead to moderate or severe periodontal disease could and should be treated daily through the use of B6 cream or gel transported in a vehicle of a dental dentifrice, better known as toothpaste. Also topical pain relieving gels of B5/B6 could also be an additive to a dentifrice or as a separate topical application gel to control local dental pain for adults or even young children. [0019] Insect bites can be very bothersome while B6 is well known to decrease tissue edema, promote an antibacterial environment in host tissues, reduce pain and promote white blood cell chemotaxis into an injury site. The B5/B6 topical cream has been used in bee stings to end pain in 1 minute and reduce edema and swelling in 4-6 hours making the injury a non event. Similar case reports for spider bites including the brown recluse spider have also responded rapidly to complete resolution using B5/B6 cream in hours rather than weeks. Many insect bites evoke an autoimmune response that clinically looks like an allergic reaction. Two adult cases, one 83-year-old male and one 22-year-old female, developed delayed hypersensitivity reactions to penicillin that was very difficult to diagnosis because the topical facial usage of B5/B6 cream postoperative. In fact, the aggressive usage of B5/B6 cream to areas of angioneurotic edema witnessed an overnight resolution for both patients. Finally concurrent usage of single low dose of steroids for contact dermitis with the B5/B6 cream results in hourly resolution instead of days to resolve. It appears B6 will enhance intravenous usage of steroids to reduce tissue edema in a synergistic mode of action to cause rapid resolution of the clinical problem. [0020] Burns, first through third degree, response very nicely to the B5/B6 cream. Three well-documented cases of third degree burns in three patients all responded in 3-4 minutes to the application directly over the burn site with good pain relief that does not return after a single application. Continued application over the blister site does not produce molecular transport, but application around the blister site does. After three days, the blister can be drained and then the B6 will have access to the new healing skin ulcer to usually result in total healing in 10 days. Obviously, first and second-degree burns will respond in a very fast healing progress since there is not a dead skin barrier to transport like the third degree burn. [0021] The B5/B6 cream discussed consists of calcium pantothenate powder 11 gram (5%), pyridoxine HCL powder 66 gram (30% and variable), ascorbic acid 2.42 gram, citric acid USP fine powder 2.42 gram, sodium metabisulfite FCC granulae 0.22 gram, lecithin/isopropyl palmitate solution 44 ml &amp; pluronic F-127 20% aqueous solution 220 ml to make a mixture to be used topically on skin and oral mucosa. The B5/B6 gel consists of calcium pantothenate powder 10 gram, pyridoxine HCL powder 36 gram, ascorbic acid USP 1.1 gram, hydroxypropylcellulose 1500 powder 2.7 gram, citric acid USP monohydrate powder 1.1 gram, sodium metabisulfite FCC granulae 0.26667 gram, and finally dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) odorless liquid 100 ml again for topical use intraoral or on skin. For injection, B6 as component of the meperidine molecule can be used as an infiltrating agent in the injury site to bring about the events discussed in this invention. [0022] Definitions: A. Molecular transport of B6 is a trans molecular event as out lined in FIG. 1 of U.S. patent application Ser. No. 10/318,940. B. A topical agent consists of components that allow molecular transport of B5/B6 or analogues and can take the form of cream, gel, jelly paste, glue, wax, ointment, semi-solid matter and gelatin. C. Increasing metabolic rate is a known function of coenzyme action of B6 and is further detailed in U.S. patent application Ser. No. 10/318,940. [0023] Therefore, the foregoing is considered as illustrative only of the principles of the invention. Further, since numerous modifications and changes will readily occur to those skilled in the art, it is not desired to limit the invention to the exact disclosure shown and described, and accordingly, all suitable modifications and equivalents may be resorted to, falling within the scope of the invention.

Summary: The present invention discloses methods of application employing B51B6 vitamins in molecular transport creams or gels to deliver B6 in a high dose to bring about therapeutic ways in human or mammal tissues to reverse a disease process or injury to bring about normal function of the affected tissues. Examples of disease changes to normal include, but are not limited to strokes, cellulitis, facial acne, precancerous lesions, nerve injury like paresthesia, periorbital hematoma, pentathol general anesthesia recovery, headaches, improved sight, hypothyroidism, dental pain, dental gingivitis, insect bites, delayed hypersensitivity states, phlebitis of veins and synergism of steroid activity.

big_patent

en

Write a title and summarize: Un ancien maître d'hôtel de Liliane Bettencourt a été placé en garde à vue, mercredi 16 juin, dans le cadre d'une enquête préliminaire pour "atteinte à la vie privée" après la diffusion, par le site Mediapart et l'hebdomadaire Le Point du contenu d'écoutes pirates réalisées dans l'hôtel particulier de l'héritière de L'Oréal, à Neuilly-sur-Seine. L'affaire a été confiée à la Brigade de répression de la délinquance contre la personne (BRDP). L'employé de Mme Bettencourt avait dissimulé un appareil enregistreur dans le salon où celle-ci reçoit ses hôtes. Il a ensuite remis des dizaines de bandes à la fille unique de Mme Bettencourt, Françoise Meyers-Bettencourt, qui les a transmises à la police et à son avocat, Me Olivier Metzner. "C'est un procédé absolument indigne. La fille de Liliane Bettencourt est prête à tout, y compris à installer un système pirate au domicile de sa propre mère", a déclaré Me Georges Kiejman, avocat de Liliane Bettencourt. Cet épisode marque une nouvelle escalade dans le conflit qui oppose les deux femmes depuis que Mme Meyers-Bettencourt a porté plainte contre le photographe François-Marie Banier, qu'elle accuse de profiter de la vulnérabilité de sa mère, âgée de 87 ans. Le montant des dons en argent, contrats d'assurance-vie ou oeuvres d'art dont le photographe a bénéficié, a été évalué à un milliard d'euros. Voilà plus d'un an que la presse se fait le témoin - et l'acteur - des multiples péripéties de cette affaire qui est suivie de près à l'Elysée. Face au peu d'empressement du parquet de Nanterre à ouvrir une information judiciaire, Me Metzner avait créé la surprise, en juillet 2009, en faisant parvenir une citation à comparaître devant le tribunal à François-Marie Banier. A la même époque, la presse était destinataire d'une série de témoignages d'amis et d'anciens employés de maison de l'héritière de L'Oréal, qui évoquaient tous son état de santé défaillant et sa lucidité à éclipses. En septembre 2009, le procureur de la République Philippe Courroye annonçait qu'il classait sans suite l'enquête. Ce fut le début d'une longue bataille de procédure avec le parquet sur fond de règlements de comptes internes au tribunal entre M. Courroye et la présidente de la chambre correctionnelle saisie du dossier, Isabelle Prévost-Deprez.

Title: "Affaire Banier-Bettencourt: ouverture d'une enquête pour" "atteinte à la vie privée" " Summary: Un ex-maître d'hôtel de Liliane Bettencourt a été placé en garde à vue, car il aurait réalisé des écoutes pirates au domicile de l'héritière de L'Oréal. La publication des enregistrements piratés pourrait être versée au dossier de l'audience de fond qui doit se tenir du 1er au 6 juillet.

mlsum_fr

fr

Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. DUTY-FREE ENTRIES. Subchapter II of chapter 99 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States is amended by inserting in numerical sequence the following new heading: `` 9902.98.04 Personal effects of participants in, officials of, and other individuals associated with the XXVI Summer Olympiad or the Cultural Olympiad associated with the XXVI Summer Olympiad; and other articles associated with the XXVI Summer Olympiad or the Cultural Olympiad:............ (1) Personal effects of participants in, officials of, or accredited members of delegations to the XXVI Summer Olympiad or the Cultural Olympiad associated with the XXVI Summer Olympiad, or of individuals who are members of the immediate families or servants of any of the foregoing persons............. (2) Any article for which entry is sought by participants in, officials of, or accredited members of delegations to the XXVI Summer Olympiad and which is to be used or consumed at or in connection with the Olympiad............. (3) Any article for which entry is sought by participants in, officials of, or accredited members of delegations to the Cultural Olympiad associated with the XXVI Summer Olympiad and which is to be used at or in connection with the Cultural Olympiad............. (4) Subject to No change Free On or before 10/ regulations 4/96 '' prescribed by the. Secretary of the Treasury, any other article for which entry is sought for use at or in connection with the XXVI Summer Olympiad Free

Title: To provide duty-free entry privileges to participants in, and other individuals associated with, the XXVI Summer Olympiad in Atlanta, Georgia, and for other purposes Summary: Amends the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States to grant duty-free treatment, through October 4, 1996, of the personal effects of, and other articles sought by, participants, their families and associated members, and officials involved in the XXVI Summer Olympiad and associated Cultural Olympiad in Atlanta, Georgia.

billsum

en

Summarize: A weekend massacre of more than 100 people has emerged as a potential turning point in the Syrian crisis, galvanizing even staunch ally Russia to take an unusually hard line against President Bashar Assad's government. This frame grab made from an amateur video provided by Syrian activists on Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show the massacre in Houla on May 25 that killed more than 100 people, many of them children.... (Associated Press) In this image made from amateur video released by the Shaam News Network and accessed Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show black smoke rising from buildings in Homs, Syria. U.N. envoy Kofi Annan called... (Associated Press) This frame grab made from an amateur video provided by Syrian activists on Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show the massacre in Houla on May 25 that killed more than 100 people, many of them children.... (Associated Press) This frame grab made from an amateur video provided by Syrian activists on Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show the massacre in Houla on May 25 that killed more than 100 people, many of them children.... (Associated Press) This frame grab made from an amateur video provided by Syrian activists on Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show the massacre in Houla on May 25 that killed more than 100 people, many of them children.... (Associated Press) Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov, left, speaks to his British counterpart William Hague during their meeting in Moscow, Russia, Monday, May 28, 2012, which is expected to focus on the Syria crisis.... (Associated Press) UN-Arab League Joint Special Envoy for Syria (JSE) Kofi Annan, left, and, Norwegian Maj. Gen. Robert Mood, head of the U.N. observer team in Syria, right, attend a press conference in Damascus, Syria,... (Associated Press) In this image made from amateur video released by the Shaam News Network and accessed Monday, May 28, 2012, purports to show a Syrian military tank in Damascus, Syria. U.N. envoy Kofi Annan called Monday... (Associated Press) Analysts said Russia may be warning Assad that he needs to change course or lose Moscow's support, which has been a key layer of protection for the Syrian government during the uprising that began in March 2011. Russia has grown increasingly critical of Damascus in recent months, but Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov's latest comments were unusually strong. Although he said opposition forces have terrorists among them, he put the blame for 15 months of carnage primarily on Assad's government. "The government bears the main responsibility for what is going on," Lavrov said in Moscow following a meeting with British Foreign Secretary William Hague on Monday. "Any government in any country bears responsibility for the security of its citizens." Alexei Malashenko, a Middle East expert with the Carnegie Moscow Center, said Lavrov's comments suggest Russia may be backing away from its long-standing support for Damascus. "Bashar Assad is driving himself and Russia into a corner," Malashenko said. "Bashar has definitely gotten the sense that he may lose Russia's sympathy, and he may step back a bit." It is not clear whether Assad's forces were exclusively to blame for the slaughter of 108 people Friday in Houla, a collection of poor farming villages in Homs province. The United Nations said 49 children and 34 women were among the dead; some had bullet holes through their heads. The U.N. Security Council blamed Syrian forces for artillery and tank shelling of residential areas, but it did not clearly state who was responsible for the close-range shooting deaths and "severe physical abuse" of civilians. Activists from the area said the army pounded the villages with artillery and clashed with local rebels. They said pro-government gunmen later stormed the area, doing the bulk of the killing by gunning down men in the streets and stabbing women and children in their homes. The Syrian government rejected that account entirely, saying soldiers were attacked in their bases and fought back in self-defense without leaving their bases. Russia blamed both the government and the rebels for the Houla massacre. "Both sides have obviously had a hand in the deaths of innocent people, including several dozen women and children," Lavrov said. "This area is controlled by the rebels, but it is also surrounded by the government troops." He said Russia has no interest in propping up Assad but wants Syria to guide its own transition under a plan brokered by special envoy Kofi Annan. "We don't support the Syrian government; we support Kofi Annan's plan," Lavrov said. Moscow's pro-Syria stance has been motivated in part by its strategic and defense ties to Damascus, including weapons sales. Russia also rejects what it sees as a world order dominated by the U.S. Losing Russian support could be disastrous for Assad because his crackdown has left him almost completely isolated internationally. Russia and China have stood by him so far, using their veto power to block U.N. resolutions against him. Hilal Khashan, a political science professor at the American University of Beirut, said the Houla massacre appears to be ushering in a change in Russia's position. "There is a shift and the momentum against the regime is gathering," Khashan said. "The momentum is building and the Russians are not blocking the rising momentum." The Syrian conflict is among the most explosive of the Arab Spring, in part because of Syria's allegiances to powerful forces, including Lebanon's Hezbollah and Shiite powerhouse Iran. Activists say as many as 12,000 people have been killed since the uprising began. The U.N. put the toll as of March, a year into the uprising, at 9,000, but many hundreds more have died since. Annan's peace plan, which calls for a cease-fire and dialogue, has been faltering for weeks. But Western leaders have pinned their hopes on his diplomatic pressure, since the U.S. and others are unwilling to get deeply involved in another Arab nation in turmoil. Annan arrived in Damascus on Monday for talks with Assad and other officials and called on "every individual with a gun" in Syria to lay down arms, saying he was horrified by the Houla massacre. Britain's Prime Minister David Cameron and French President Francois Holland spoke on the phone and expressed their desire to work with Russia to resolve the crisis in Syria. A British spokeswoman said Cameron and Hollande agreed to act together to "bring an end to the bloody suppression of the Syrian people." Activists reported fresh violence Monday, saying troops shelled several neighborhoods in Hama, killing at least 24 people. ___ Berry reported from Moscow. AP writers Bassem Mroue in Beirut and Vladimir Isachenkov in Moscow contributed to this report. AMMAN President Bashar al-Assad faces renewed international pressure to end the bloodshed in Syria but, with peace envoy Kofi Annan visiting Damascus, his government blamed Islamist militants for a massacre in which U.N. observers had implicated his army. Annan, on a mission from the United Nations and Arab League, is scheduled to meet Assad on Tuesday, when he can be expected to urge compliance with the tattered ceasefire deal which he brokered between government and rebels nearly seven weeks ago. In Damascus on Monday, Annan called on the authorities to act to end the killing after what the special envoy called the "appalling crime" late last week at Houla, near Hama, in which at least 108 people, many of them children, were killed. Russia and China, long defenders of Assad against Western lobbying for U.N. sanctions, backed a non-binding Security Council text on Sunday that criticized the use against the town of artillery and tanks - weaponry Syria's rebels do not have. But on a day when opposition activists said at least another 41 people had died in shelling of the city of Hama, Moscow and Beijing showed little sign of adopting the Arab and Western view that Assad should go. Both sides must come together to ensure a peaceful resolution, Russian and Chinese officials said. Annan called on the Syrian government to "take bold steps to signal that it is serious in its intention to resolve this crisis peacefully" before adding: "This message of peace is not only for the government, but for everyone with a gun." In an open letter to the Security Council, Syria's Foreign Ministry flatly denied any army role in the killings at Houla, an atrocity that shook world opinion out of growing indifference to a 14-month-old conflict that has killed over 10,000. Instead, the government blamed knife-wielding Islamist militants. "Not a single tank entered the region and the Syrian army was in a state of self-defense," it said in the letter published by state media. "Anything other than this is pure lies. "The terrorist armed groups... entered with the purpose of killing and the best proof of that is the killing by knives, which is the signature of terrorist groups who massacre according to the Islamist way." It said three Syrian soldiers were killed and 16 wounded. SECTARIAN DIMENSION U.N. Secretary-General Ban Ki-Moon had said U.N. observers who visited the site after the massacre "saw artillery and tank shells and as well as fresh tank tracks", adding that many buildings were destroyed by heavy weapons. But U.N. monitors could not determine who had shot and stabbed many of the dead. Witnesses and opposition activists said Assad's forces, including "shabbiha" militiamen from his Alawite minority sect, carried out the massacre of the Sunni Muslim civilians in Houla. The sectarian dimension to a conflict that began with mainly peaceful demonstrations among the Sunni majority has raised fear of a breakdown of society similar to that seen in Iraq - fear which has drawn many Syrians, including wealthier Sunnis, into defense of the four decade-rule of the Assad family. However, in a sign of cracks in that solidarity, activists reported a widespread shuttering of shops and market stalls in the capital on Monday in what they described as a protest by the Sunni merchant class over the killings at Houla and elsewhere. One activist, Amer Momen, said security police forced open dozens of shops. But he added: "The merchants are a crucial power centre,... the core of the silent majority. If they no longer remain silent, then the revolt has hit a milestone." INTERNATIONAL CALLS China said it was "deeply shocked by the large number of civilian casualties in Houla, and condemns in the strongest terms the cruel killings of ordinary citizens, especially women and children". Premier Wen Jiabao said support for the Annan truce, and a peaceful resolution, should be stepped up. That deal calls for heavy weapons to be pulled out of towns and cities, followed by an end to fighting, and dialogue. But the attack on Hama was a reminder that the plan, policed by just 300 U.N. monitors, has done little to stem the violence. "We are dealing with a situation in which both sides evidently had a hand in the deaths of innocent people," Russian Foreign Minister Sergei Lavrov said. French President Francois Hollande and British Prime Minister David Cameron discussed Syria by phone, condemning the "senseless murderous brutality of the Damascus regime". While both endorsed the Annan plan, they also called for an "orderly democratic transition" for Syria. Hollande said France would call a meeting in Paris of the Friends of Syria - Western and Arab countries that want Assad's rule to end. Russia has accused the United States and Europe of pursuing Libya-style regime change in Syria, and is wary of endorsing any measures that could become a prelude to armed intervention. Media reports have suggested that Washington is trying to enlist Russia for a plan of the kind that brought about a handover from Yemen's leader of three decades, Ali Abdullah Saleh, to an administration led by his own vice-president. Washington has explicitly said Assad must step down, and General Martin Dempsey, chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, told CNN: "Of course we always have to provide military options and they should be considered." But he stressed that economic and diplomatic measures should first be used to try to push Assad to "make the right decision". The opposition Syrian National Council made its strongest call yet for military aid. "The council appeals to all friends and brothers of the Syrian people to supply it immediately with effective means of self-defense before it is too late," it said. But President Barack Obama, on a day when Americans honored their war dead, spoke of "the light of a new day" with the withdrawal of U.S. forces from Iraq and Afghanistan. He promised a nation, which he hopes will re-elect him in November, that he would not send troops abroad unless "absolutely necessary". (Writing by Kevin Liffey and Alastair Macdonald; Editing by Mark Heinrich) UN envoy Kofi Annan meets Syria's Bashar al-Assad Please turn on JavaScript. Media requires JavaScript to play. UN-Arab League envoy Kofi Annan is holding talks with Syrian President Bashar al-Assad in Damascus. Mr Annan's plan to end the country's conflict has been overshadowed by international revulsion at Friday's massacre in the Houla region. Mr Annan called the massacre "an appalling moment with profound consequences". Survivors have told the BBC of their shock and fear as regime forces entered their homes and killed their families. Mr Annan said the Syrian government had to take "bold steps" to show it is serious about peace. He said his "message of peace is not only for the government, but for everyone with a gun". Continue reading the main story “ Start Quote They took us to a room, and hit my father on the head with the back of a rifle and shot him straight in the chin” End Quote Rasha Abdul Razaq, survivor The BBC's Jim Muir in neighbouring Lebanon says it is make-or-break time for Mr Annan's peace plan, and he has to get something out of his visit to stop the drift towards a vicious sectarian civil war. The former UN secretary general is expected to press President Assad to make good on earlier promises, and much will depend on the position taken by Syria's main international ally and diplomatic protector, Russia, our correspondent adds. On Monday Mr Annan held talks with Foreign Minister Walid Muallem and the head of the UN observer mission in Syria, Major General Robert Mood. Under Mr Annan's plan, both sides were to stop fighting on 12 April ahead of the deployment of monitors, and the government was to withdraw tanks and forces from civilian areas. Russia, which has twice blocked UN Security Council resolutions backing action against the Damascus government, said on Monday that both sides bore responsibility for Friday's massacre. Continue reading the main story Annan's six-point plan 1. Process led by Syrian parties working with international envoy 2. End to violence by all sides; army troops to stop using heavy weapons and withdraw to barracks 3. Parties to allow humanitarian aid 4. Authorities to free detainees 5. Authorities to ensure freedom of movement for journalists 6. Authorities to allow peaceful demonstrations "We are dealing with a situation in which both sides evidently had a hand in the deaths of innocent civilians," Russian Foreign Minister Sergei Lavrov said. Western leaders have expressed horror at the killings, and the UK, France and US have all begun moves to raise diplomatic pressure on the Assad government. France is convening another meeting of the so-called Friends of Syria group, which Russia does not take part in. "The murderous folly of the Damascus regime represents a threat for regional security and its leaders will have to answer for their acts," said President Francois Hollande's office. 'I saw bodies' Survivors who spoke to the BBC, and the local commander of the Free Syrian Army, said the people who carried out the killings were militiamen - shabbiha - from nearby Alawite villages. Their accounts cannot be confirmed, but they are consistent with one another, and also with the reports given by activist groups on the ground in the immediate aftermath of the massacres, our correspondent says. Continue reading the main story Taldou, Houla region The region of Houla, in the west of Syria, comprises several villages and small towns The village of Taldou lies around 2km south-west of the main town, also called Houla The area is in the province of Homs, which has seen heavy fighting in recent months Houla's villages are predominantly Sunni Muslim, but the region is ringed by a number of Alawite villages - the sect of the Syrian president Bashar al-Assad Syrian leaders insist that the massacre was the work of hundreds of armed rebels who massed in the area, and who carried out the killings to derail the peace process and provoke intervention by Western powers. Several witnesses said they hid or played dead to survive. UN observers who visited the village of Taldou where the massacre happened said they had found evidence of shelling from government forces. They also confirmed that some of the 108 victims - many of whom were children - had been killed by close-range gunfire or knife attacks. "We were in the house, they went in, the shabbiha and security, they went in with Kalashnikovs and automatic rifles," survivor Rasha Abdul Razaq told the BBC. "They took us to a room and hit my father on the head with the back of a rifle and shot him straight in the chin." Of 20 family members and friends in the house at the time, she said only four had survived. Another resident, who asked to remain anonymous, said he hid in the attic as gunmen took his family outside and shot them. "I opened the door, and I saw bodies, I couldn't recognise my kids from my brothers. It was indescribable. I have three children, I lost three children," he said.

Summary: As international pressure mounts for a crackdown on Syria in the wake of the Houla massacre, UN peace envoy Kofi Annan aims to demand "bold steps" from President Bashar al-Assad at his meeting today. Annan will attempt to hold Syria's feet to the fire on the six-point peace plan that the nation has so far largely ignored, and to press for accountability for the killing of 108 civilians, including 49 children, in Houla-an assault Syrian officials continue to blame on "terrorists," notes the BBC. Even Syria's longtime ally, Russia, appears to be losing patience with the Syrian leadership, and condemned the attack, which was followed by more killings in Hama. Increasing criticism from Russia appears to be a clear message to Assad to change course or lose Moscow's support, reports AP. "The government bears the main responsibility for what is going on," Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov said in Moscow yesterday following a meeting with British Foreign Secretary William Hague. "Any government in any country bears responsibility for the security of its citizens." Assad "is driving himself and Russia into a corner," said Middle East expert Alexei Malashenko. "Bashar has definitely gotten the sense that he may lose Russia's sympathy, and he may step back a bit."

multi_news

en

Summarize: A car was split fully in half after it hit a power pole on Sunday morning - but the person driving the vehicle was nowhere to be found. Police were alerted to the wrecked red 2000 Pontiac Grand Am on the side of the road in Des Moines, Iowa, by an anonymous tip around 3:45 a.m. When they arrived on the scene, they discovered the vehicle severed in two, with the rear end entirely crushed. Surprisingly, however, the front half was intact. Scroll down for video. Mystery: A car, pictured, was split fully in half after it hit a power pole on Sunday morning - but the person driving the vehicle is nowhere to be found. 'The front doors, I was told, actually could be opened and closed without a problem,' police spokesman Sgt. Jason Halifax told KCCI. 'Given that information, it's not totally unlikely someone could have walked away from that accident.' Confused detectives found no sign of the driver, and even after bringing in a sniffer dog to search the area, they were no closer to knowing who crashed the car and whether they were OK. 'They searched the area for well over an hour, had a dog come in, the dog wasn't able to find anything,' Halifax said, adding that there was no sign of blood. Anonymous tip: Police were alerted to the wrecked red 2000 Pontiac Grand Am, pictured, on the side of the road in Des Moines, Iowa, by an anonymous tip around 3:45 a.m. Pole: The car wrapped itself around a power pole, pictured, early Sunday morning. Police also checked local hospitals for anyone who might have injuries consistent with a car crash but failed to find any patients who fit the bill, according to WHOTV.com. 'What the officers do now is they go to that last person who had the vehicle registered to them and basically ask them, "Where's the car now? What did you do with the car? Did you sell it, loan it out? What happened with it?"' Halifax told the station. The Pontiac didn't have license plates when it was found and its last registration expired in August 2012. Front: The front of the vehicle, pictured, was surprisingly intact. Rear: But the rear half of the vehicle, pictured, was completely destroyed. Later, police located the owner of the car, who told police she believes someone who was at her house might have taken the car without permission while she slept. However, she refused to say who it was, according to Yahoo News. 'I've never seen anything like this,' Adam Garris of G & S Services, the company that towed the 2000 Pontiac Grand Am, told WHOTV.com. 'That’s definitely one of the craziest accidents, one of the worst accidents I've seen.'

Summary: Police were alerted to the wrecked red 2000 Pontiac Grand Am on the roadside in Des Moines, Iowa, by an anonymous tip at 3:45 a.m. Sunday. When officers arrived on the scene, the vehicle was severed in two but there was no sign of the driver. The back half of the car was completely destroyed but the front was surprisingly in fact, leading police to believe the driver may have survived.

cnn_dailymail

en

Write a title and summarize: By necessity, the ancient activity of type II topoisomerases co-evolved with the double-helical structure of DNA, at least in organisms with circular genomes. In humans, the strand passage reaction of DNA topoisomerase II (Topo II) is the target of several major classes of cancer drugs which both poison Topo II and activate cell cycle checkpoint controls. It is important to know the cellular effects of molecules that target Topo II, but the mechanisms of checkpoint activation that respond to Topo II dysfunction are not well understood. Here, we provide evidence that a checkpoint mechanism monitors the strand passage reaction of Topo II. In contrast, cells do not become checkpoint arrested in the presence of the aberrant DNA topologies, such as hyper-catenation, that arise in the absence of Topo II activity. An overall reduction in Topo II activity (i. e. slow strand passage cycles) does not activate the checkpoint, but specific defects in the T-segment transit step of the strand passage reaction do induce a cell cycle delay. Furthermore, the cell cycle delay depends on the divergent and catalytically inert C-terminal region of Topo II, indicating that transmission of a checkpoint signal may occur via the C-terminus. Other, well characterized, mitotic checkpoints detect DNA lesions or monitor unattached kinetochores; these defects arise via failures in a variety of cell processes. In contrast, we have described the first example of a distinct category of checkpoint mechanism that monitors the catalytic cycle of a single specific enzyme in order to determine when chromosome segregation can proceed faithfully. Type II topoisomerases make a transient double-strand break in one DNA helix (the Gate-segment), pass a second helix through the break (the Transported-segment), then re-ligate the G-segment (Figure 1) [1]–[3]. This Strand Passage Reaction (SPR) has been widely studied because it is the target of important classes of anti-microbial and anti-cancer drugs, as well as a large array of natural products [4], [5]. Upon chemical inhibition of Topo II, cellular checkpoint response pathways are activated that attempt to delay the cell cycle and thus prevent chromosome mis-segregation and/or cell death. Firstly, the DNA damage checkpoint response [4] is activated by a class of Topo II inhibitor, so-called Topo II “poisons”, that trap Topo II-DNA cleavage complexes. When locked in this conformation, the ternary DNA-protein-drug complex can deteriorate to produce DNA breaks that are recognized by the DNA damage checkpoint machinery. This cellular response has been extensively studied and its induction is not specific to DNA damage that results from Topo II poisons. A second class, referred to as Topo II catalytic inhibitors, including the bisdioxopiperazines, do not induce enzyme-mediated DNA cleavage, but block the overall catalytic activity of Topo II by trapping the enzyme in a state in which the N-terminal gate is closed (see Figure 1). These inhibitors activate alternative checkpoint controls that arrest the cell cycle [6]–[10], but the cell cycle control mechanisms that are employed are not well understood [6] and it is of particular interest to determine how checkpoint signaling occurs in the absence of DNA cleavage. A current subject of much controversy is whether the checkpoint detects dysfunctional Topo II directly or if cells utilize other well-characterized mechanisms, for example the spindle assembly checkpoint, to indirectly monitor Topo II activity via topological changes in chromosomal DNA. Using the bisdioxopiperazine ICRF-193 to activate checkpoint signaling in human cells, one study has demonstrated binding of the DNA damage checkpoint signaling protein MDC1 to the C-terminus of Topo II, which thus induces cell cycle arrest in G2-phase [11]. Because the divergent C-terminal region is dispensable for the strand passage reaction of the enzyme, one explanation of these data is that inefficient or arrested catalysis is structurally transferred to the C-terminus where signaling complexes then assemble. However, the bisdioxopiperazines can bind to Topo II enzymes that are not associated with DNA [12] and are therefore not engaged in the strand passage reaction. Thus, it has not been determined whether checkpoint controls have the ability to directly assess the strand passage reaction. A further complication is that a mitotic (as opposed to a G2-phase) checkpoint response is also activated by ICRF-193 in human cells and in yeast cells, Topo II (top2) mutants arrest mitotic progression via Mad2-dependent inhibition of anaphase onset [9], [13]. Mad2 is a spindle checkpoint protein that prevents chromatid disjunction when chromosomes are not properly bioriented on the mitotic spindle. The well-understood mechanisms that activate Mad2 can be initiated by aberrant tension at kinetochores [14], [15]. This indicates that Topo II (named Top2, in yeast) dysfunction in yeast mutants, or in mitotic human cells treated with ICRF-193, may be sensed indirectly, via structural changes at the centromere regions of chromosomes. This is an attractive hypothesis given that Topo II is concentrated at the centromere regions [16]–[18], that the strand passage reaction alters DNA topology [19], [20], and that some yeast top2 mutant strains have altered centric chromatin structure [21]. It therefore remains unknown whether checkpoints that respond to Topo II inhibition involve novel signaling mechanisms or simply activate the already well-understood mitotic checkpoint pathways. Here we demonstrate that, in yeast, the strand passage reaction of Topo II is directly monitored and that checkpoint signaling originates from the defective homodimeric enzyme at specific conformational states within the strand passage reaction. Checkpoint activation under these defined conditions requires the C-terminal region of the enzyme, supporting the hypothesis that a structural transference of defective catalysis to the enzymatically inert C-terminus allows checkpoint signaling. This is the first example of a checkpoint mechanism that directly monitors the catalytic cycle of a single enzyme. We previously studied yeast strains harboring the top2-B44 hypomorphic allele of Topo II which induces a Mad2-dependent cell cycle delay in G2 (equivalent to the metaphase stage of mitosis in mammalian cells). This checkpoint was not activated due to the accumulation of DNA stand breaks [13]. Correspondingly, the DNA damage checkpoint was not activated and the major kinases involved in the DNA damage response (Rad53 and Mec1) were dispensable for G2 checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells [13]. In contrast, the spindle checkpoint protein Mad2 was essential for G2 checkpoint activation, suggesting that aberrant chromosome structure, especially kinetochore structure, may be defective under conditions of limited Topo II activity. To test this hypothesis we examined chromosome attachment to the mitotic spindle apparatus in top2-B44 cells and surprisingly found no evidence in favor of aberrant attachment of kinetochores to the mitotic spindle [13]. Intriguingly, the checkpoint delay was at least partially independent of other effectors of the spindle checkpoint response; Pds1 and Bub3 [13]. To understand the mechanism of checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells, we first examined if reduced Topo II activity affected chromosome condensation. We employed an assay characterized previously in which chromosome compaction is monitored using marked chromosomal loci on the long arm of chromosome IV in yeast [22]. This analysis revealed that temporally concomitant with checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells, there was no defect in chromosome linear compaction (Figure S1). In fact, chromosome condensation occurred just as efficiently as in wild type cells. Because a wide variety of assays failed to provide any evidence that aberrant DNA topology or DNA breaks in top2-B44 cells were the cause of G2 checkpoint activation (i. e. indirect consequences of perturbed Topo II activity), we next considered the possibility that cells may directly monitor the enzyme activity of Topo II. A system was established to control expression and degradation of Top2 in yeast using a degron allele (top2deg) expressed from the MET3 promoter (Figure 2a). Top2deg contains a Ubiquitin-Arg-DHFR fusion which destabilizes folding at high temperature and becomes poly-ubiquitylated by the E3 ligase, Ubr1 [23]. Tight control of top2deg expression and Top2deg degradation was achieved (Figure 2b and Figure S2). After G1 synchronization, Top2deg was abolished to undetectable levels, allowing effects on progression through a subsequent cell cycle in the absence of Top2 to be observed, as previously described [24]. Under such conditions, if cells reached G2 unable to resolve DNA catenations arising during DNA replication, then upon anaphase entry these cells ought to fail to segregate their chromosomes. This was indeed the outcome in ∼90% of cells examined (Figure 2c), indicating that they reached G2 with extensive DNA topological defects arising under conditions of Top2-deficiency. To confirm this conclusion via biochemical means, we asked if top2deg cells grown under the above conditions (i. e. released from G1 after the depletion of Top2) reached G2 with catenated DNA. We isolated genomic DNA from such cells and following separation on CHEF gels, probed resulting Southern blots to detect the endogenous yeast circular 2-micron plasmid (as previously used to assess the catenation state of yeast genomic DNA; see Material and Methods). As a positive control we examined genomic DNA from top2-4 cells grown in parallel under restrictive conditions. In both cases, extensively catenated 2-micron circular DNA was detected, whereas none was observed in samples from either mutant strain grown under permissive conditions or from wild type cells grown at high temperature (Figure 2d). Based on this molecular analysis of DNA catenation and the analysis of chromosome segregation in vivo, we conclude that following depletion of Top2deg in G1, cells progress through the cell cycle with severely limited, if not absent, Top2 activity, resulting in persistent DNA hyper-catenation and failed chromosome segregation. The presence of DNA hyper-catenation must result in extensive chromosome topological defects, particularly at the centromere regions of chromosomes where Topo II is concentrated in mitosis. It can therefore be predicted that DNA hyper-catenation activates the spindle assembly checkpoint via aberrant centric (centromeric) chromatin. To test this hypothesis, we used two different assays to measure the approximate duration of G2 following depletion of Top2deg in G1 and release of the cells from G1 synchrony. First we used a commonly used “population assay” where samples were taken from the population every 10–20 min and cells categorized into G1, G2 and anaphase morphologies based on mitotic spindle characteristics [24]. This yielded plots that revealed the approximate timing of anaphase spindle elongation relative to spindle assembly, which defines the duration of G2 (Figure 3a–c, Figure S3). Surprisingly, the length of G2 after Top2 depletion was very similar to that in the same strain but carrying an additional copy of wild type TOP2 expressed from its endogenous promoter. Thus, the absence of Top2 did not induce a G2 cell cycle delay. In a second assay, we studied cell cycle progression in single cells by digital time-lapse imaging (Figure 3d–f). Here, we recorded cells expressing GFP-tagged tubulin, acquiring z-stacks of images at a temporal resolution of 2 min. Except for growth in a micro-fluidic chamber, the experimental conditions of synchrony and Top2 depletion were identical to those used in the population assay. The resulting time-lapse movies were analyzed as follows to determine the average length of G2. First, we identified cells that completed the cell cycle within the duration of each movie. Second, we located the first time point (movie frame) in which two Spindle Pole Bodies (SPBs) could be observed (Figure 3d, second frame) and we then measured SPB diameter in the previous five movie frames to obtain a baseline SPB size. Next, we measured spindle length in all subsequent movie frames until full spindle elongation in anaphase had occurred. Approximate G2 length could then be determined by averaging the time interval from SPB separation to the onset of spindle elongation. We found that variation between cells was minimal as long as at least twenty cells were analyzed per strain. In addition to displaying simple histogram plots of G2 duration, we found that it was informative to plot average spindle length versus time, after the cells analyzed were aligned at the time of SPB separation (Figure 3e). In this manner, spindle lengths were largely very similar at each time point until a fraction of the cells initiated anaphase. Because spindle length differences are large in anaphase and are much larger than the length of the spindle in cells that were still in G2 at such time-points, standard deviation of spindle length became large, indicative of the trend towards anaphase onset among the cells recorded (Figure 3e, right side of the plots). In these single-cell assays, not unexpectedly, the kinetics of cell cycle progression was elongated due to growth within a static chamber, versus vigorous shaking used in the population assays. Nevertheless, these studies also revealed that the duration of G2 is very similar in cells depleted of Top2deg versus cells producing Top2 at endogenous levels (Figure 3e, f). We conclude that anaphase onset was not delayed when cells were allowed to progress from G1 after depletion of Top2 (Figure 3a–f, Figure S3). Presumably any centromeric chromatin defects that are a consequence of hyper-DNA catenation are not sufficient to activate a pre-anaphase checkpoint, including the spindle checkpoint. This conclusion is consistent with a previous study indicating that lack of Top2 in yeast does not delay mitotic progression [25] and studies in human cells in which checkpoint activation was not observed upon depletion of Topo II [10]. Because Top2 depletion did not activate checkpoint signaling but certain top2 alleles are known to induce a Mad2-dependent cell cycle delay [13], we asked if a checkpoint response can be initiated in the top2deg strain after introduction of the top2-B44 allele. When Top2deg was depleted in G1 and Top2-B44 was expressed at endogenous levels (Figure 4a), population analysis revealed that anaphase initiation in the subsequent cell cycle was indeed delayed, indicating checkpoint activation (Figure 4a, Figure S3). Identical strains, but lacking the MAD2 gene, did not delay before anaphase, confirming that the transient cell cycle arrest was Mad2 checkpoint-dependent. Single-cell assays confirmed these results (Figure 4b, c). The above experiments demonstrated that hyper-catenated DNA was not sufficient for the induction of cell cycle arrest, but the presence of Top2-B44 protein did trigger checkpoint activation. A possible explanation is that cells can directly detect the aberrant activity of Top2-B44 and respond by initiating checkpoint signaling via Mad2. Similar to the effects of the drug ICRF-193, which can bind to Topo II in the absence of DNA [12], checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells could be due to the detection of abnormal Top2-B44 protein structure, independent of Top2 activity, or could be a result of direct monitoring of the SPR enzyme cycle. To distinguish between these alternatives, we took advantage of SPR mutants that have been characterized previously in structural/biochemical studies [26]–[32] (see Figure 1) and we performed both population and single-cell assays to confirm our findings. First, we asked whether Top2-B44 not only needs to be physically present in the cell, but also must be bound to DNA in order for checkpoint activation to occur. We introduced a K651A substitution into top2-B44. The conserved residue, K651, is present in a small, flexible linker region between the highly structured TOPRIM and WHD domains of Top2 that form the deep positively charged groove in which the G-segment DNA is housed [27]. Top2K651A has a vastly reduced affinity for DNA [30] and cannot support cell viability (ref. 30 and data not shown). However, the K651A substitution is predicted not to destabilize the overall structure of Top2 [30]. Consistent with this prediction, Top2-B44K651A was stable in vivo suggesting that it is correctly folded (Figure 4a). In the top2deg strain, Top2-B44K651A was present at similar levels to Top2-B44, but did not induce a pre-anaphase delay (Figure 4a–c, Figure S3), indicating that the checkpoint is only activated when Top2-B44 is associated with DNA. A possible explanation is that the checkpoint monitors defective enzymatic cycles of Top2. We next asked if initiation of the SPR is required for checkpoint signaling to occur. The catalytic tyrosine of Top2 [29] was substituted with phenylalanine (Top2Y782F), resulting in an enzyme unable to cleave the G-segment DNA and capture a T-segment, though binding to the G-segment, binding of ATP and closure of the N-gate are not affected (Figure 1, Figure 5a). Top2Y782F arrests bound to the G-segment but before the SPR can be initiated [29]. Population and single-cell analysis of top2deg cells expressing Top2Y782F close to endogenous levels revealed a lack of checkpoint delay (Figure 5b–d, Figure S3). Because a previous study reported that over-expression of TOP2Y782F does activate a checkpoint response [25], we asked if this is the case in our strain background using a GAL-TOP2Y782F construct. Indeed, we did observe a G2 delay similar to the previous study, in agreement with the result that over-produced Top2Y782F induces checkpoint activation (Figure 5c, d). We conclude that at least when present at endogenous levels, a Top2 enzyme that binds the G-segment but is trapped within a futile cycle of N-Gate opening and closure does not activate checkpoint signaling. We next substituted Y782 with phenylalanine in the Top2-B44 enzyme (Top2-B44Y782F). Similar to top2deg cells expressing Top2Y782F, this enzyme, expressed near endogenous levels, did not trigger checkpoint activation (Figure 5b–d, Figure S3). We infer that a defective step of the SPR of Top2-B44, subsequent to G-segment cleavage, is required for checkpoint activation, presumably because a downstream step of the SPR enzyme cycle is directly monitored. Top2Y782F cannot cleave G-segment DNA and as a consequence it cannot adopt the closed-clamp form of the enzyme with a captured T-segment within the closed N-gate; there appears to be insufficient space within the N-terminal orifice of the dimeric enzyme when bounded by an intact G-segment [27]. To ask if T-segment capture and closure of the N-gate must occur for checkpoint activation, we analyzed top2G144I, a mutant that cannot bind ATP/ADP and thus cannot close the N-gate, but can, albeit inefficiently, cleave the G-segment (Figure 6a) [28]. Interestingly the checkpoint was activated by Top2G144I similar to Top2-B44 (Figure 6b, c, i, j and Figure S4). Thus, N-gate closure with a captured T-segment is not required for checkpoint activation. From biochemical and structural predictions, the Top2G144I mutant ought not to produce frank DNA breaks and activate the DNA damage checkpoint. Indeed, Top2G144I has reduced DNA cleavage activity because T-segment capture is inefficient [28]. Nevertheless, we asked if the activated checkpoint is Mad2 dependent, as is the case for Top2-B44 [13], or dependent on the DNA damage checkpoint kinase Rad53. Double mutants of top2G144I combined with a deletion of MAD2 did not activate the checkpoint (Figure 6d, i, j and Figure S5), whereas double mutants combined with the checkpoint defective rad53-1 allele or a rad53-null allele (rad53Δ) retained checkpoint signaling (Figure 6g, Figure S5 and Figure S9). Consistent with these findings, we failed to detect Rad53 phosphorylation in cells expressing Top2G144I (Figure S9). Therefore, like top2-B44, the top2G144I cells arrest the cell cycle due to the activation of Mad2, and likely do not activate the DNA damage checkpoint. Consistent with these findings for Top2G144I which cannot bind ATP, we observed that Top2E66Q, defective in ATP hydrolysis (Figure 6a) [26], activates the checkpoint in a Mad2-dependent, but Rad53-independent manner (Figure 6b, f, e, h–j, Figure S6 and Figure S9). Top2E66Q and Top2G144I have in common the inability to utilize the energy of ATP hydrolysis and consequently both enzymes transit very slowly through the coupled mechanism that drives the T-segment transport step of the SPR (Figure 1 and Figure 6a) [26], [28]. To ask if perturbed ATP hydrolysis per se, or conformational changes in the enzyme that promote T-segment transport, are monitored by the checkpoint machinery, we examined strains harboring top2L475A/L480P, which encodes an enzyme proficient in ATP hydrolysis, but defective in T-segment transport (Figure 7a) [32]. Strikingly this mutant activated the checkpoint to the same degree as the ATP binding and hydrolysis mutants, again in a Mad2-dependent, Rad53-independent manner, suggesting that the checkpoint is activated by inefficient T-segment transport (Figure 7b–f, Figure S7 and Figure S9). We then compared these data with other top2 mutants in which the overall rate of the SPR is slow, but that are predicted not to be defective in T-segment transport through the DNA-gate: Top2P824S and Top2G738D (Figure 1) [31]. Neither mutant led to checkpoint activation (Figure 8a–c, Figure S8). Based on the analysis of these mutants, checkpoint activation does not require: (1) DNA strand breaks, (2) a defect in N-gate opening or closure, or (3) a defect in ATP binding or hydrolysis. Furthermore, an overall reduced rate of strand passage is not sufficient for checkpoint activation. The mutants that activate the checkpoint have in common a defect in the T-segment transport step of the SPR, which is associated with specific conformational states of the enzyme (Figure S10). Top2-B44 had not been characterized biochemically, but based on our analysis of the other mutants, we would predict that Top2-B44 is defective in the T-transport step of the SPR. To address this hypothesis, we purified wild type and Top2-B44 enzymes to homogeneity from yeast (see Material and Methods). First, we asked if Top2-B44 has an altered propensity to cleave supercoiled DNA in the presence of the Topo II poison etoposide. This assay can determine whether the enzyme has a propensity to stall with a cut G-segment. This cleavage activity assay (Figure 9a) revealed that Top2-B44 does not display increased DNA breakage in the presence of etoposide, which is consistent with our failure to detect DNA damage in top2-B44 cells [13] (Figure S9) and is consistent with Mad2-dependent checkpoint activation rather than Rad53-dependent checkpoint activation. We then performed relaxation activity time course experiments to determine the rate of relaxation of supercoiled plasmid DNA (Figure 9b). This analysis demonstrated that Top2-B44 relaxes supercoiled DNA more slowly (∼2. 5 to 3-fold) than wild type Top2 at 37°C. Most interestingly, however, Top2-B44 had a reduced rate of ATP hydrolysis (Figure 9c), consistent with checkpoint activation resulting from a defect in the T-transport step of the SPR, and consistent with the biochemical defects of Top2G144I, Top2E66Q and Top2L475A/L480P that all activated a Mad2-dependent G2 checkpoint. Topo II undergoes major conformation changes as part of the SPR, particularly during the step of the enzyme cycle where the T-segment is transported through the holoenzyme [27], [28]. Our data indicate that a specific conformation might be recognized by the checkpoint machinery. In this case, a determinant may exist within the Topo II quaternary structure that participates in checkpoint signaling. This hypothesis stems from the discovery that, in human cells, the checkpoint signaling protein MDC1 binds to the C-terminus of Topo II [11]. We therefore tested the hypothesis that specific top2 mutants activate a Mad2-dependent checkpoint response via the catalytically inert C-terminal region (CTR). Because the CTR (residues 1321 to the C-terminus) is dispensable for the SPR and for cell viability in yeast [33], we could construct strains expressing either wild type TOP2 with a truncated CTR (top2ΔCTR) or top2-B44 with a truncated CTR (top2-B44ΔCTR). Strikingly, we observed that Top2-B44ΔCTR does not activate checkpoint signaling, demonstrating that the CTR is required for Mad2 activation (Figure 10a–c). The C-terminal regions of eukaryotic Topo II enzymes are divergent, and thus it is not clear whether the CTRs of human and yeast Topo II possess a conserved binding site for checkpoint proteins. Nevertheless, if checkpoint signaling complexes are recruited to the CTR of yeast Top2, then over-production of the CTR in isolation may sequester the relevant factor (s) and perhaps abrogate checkpoint signaling. This was indeed the outcome when the CTR was expressed from the strongly inducible GAL1 promoter in the top2-B44 strain (Figure 10a–c). These experiments therefore provide evidence that specific defects in the SPR transduce to the C-terminal region, resulting in the activation of checkpoint signaling. This could occur via the physical interaction of checkpoint proteins with the CTR, although other explanations of the data remain, such as over-produced CTR having dominant effects on chromatin that interfere with checkpoint signaling. Dissecting the role of the CTR and the molecular basis of Mad2 activation, remain important future goals. We previously found that checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells does not coincide with a defect in chromosome biorientation, and that some spindle checkpoint proteins (including Bub3 and the spindle checkpoint target, Pds1) are dispensable for the observed G2 delay [13]. Because these data suggested that a non-conventional spindle checkpoint is activated in top2-B44 cells, we asked if the G2 delay requires the kinetochore protein Ndc10. In the absence of Ndc10, although kinetochores lose their structural integrity, cells are able to progress through the cell cycle and complete mitosis [34]. However, since Mad2 activation must occur at kinetochores when the spindle checkpoint is triggered, ndc10 mutant cells cannot arrest prior to anaphase in the presence of microtubule poisons such as nocodazole [34]. We confirmed these data in our strain background in order to determine conditions that efficiently inactivate the temperature sensitive Ndc10-1 protein in conjunction with cell cycle synchrony in G1-phase. Upon release into the cell cycle, such cells failed to arrest in the presence of nocodazole, progressing into a second cell cycle almost as quickly as untreated cells (Figure 11a). Strikingly, however, under identical conditions but in the absence of nocodazole, top2-B44 ndc10-1 cells delayed in G2-phase (Figure 11b). Therefore, checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells is independent of Ndc10. The above data led to the prediction that Mad2 becomes activated in top2-B44 cells independently of kinetochores. We therefore asked if Mad2 is recruited to kinetochores upon checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells. First we expressed Mad2 tagged with three tandem GFP epitopes in wild type cells in order to verify that we could observe re-localization of Mad2 upon activation of the spindle checkpoint. Indeed, as previously reported [35], within 90 minutes of nocodazole treatment, most cells possessed a single discrete focus of Mad2-GFP (Figure 12a, right panel, and data not shown). In the absence of nocodazole, we did not observe discrete foci of Mad2-GFP in either wild type or top2-B44 cells. Rather, Mad2-GFP was either diffusely localized or localized to structures at the periphery of the nucleus (Figure 12a, left panel, Figure 12b and data not shown), consistent with previous studies showing that Mad2 localizes to nuclear pores in the absence of spindle checkpoint activation [35]. To ensure that Mad2-GFP does not localize to discrete foci in top2-B44 cells, we filmed such cells by time-lapse microscopy at 2. 5 minute intervals to observe complete cell cycles (Figure 12b, Movie S2). Analysis of more than 50 cells failed to reveal any Mad2-GFP foci in top2-B44 cells. We conclude that Mad2 does not re-localize to kinetochores and that kinetochores are dispensable for checkpoint activation in top2-B44 cells. These findings are consistent with the genetic analyses described above, and suggest a novel mechanism of Mad2-dependent checkpoint activation via Top2-B44. It will be important to extend the studies presented here to improve our understanding of mammalian mitotic checkpoint controls. It has been known for some time that inhibition of Topo II in human cells induces a G2 checkpoint delay that is dependent on the DNA damage checkpoint kinase ATM [36]. The checkpoint signaling pathway activated in G2 human cells is therefore clearly distinct from the Mad2-dependent checkpoint that becomes activated in yeast top2 mutants. This likely is the case because the yeast cell cycle is organized quite differently from human cells. Since budding yeast cells assembly their mitotic spindles during S-phase and achieve chromosome biorientation (equivalent to mammalian metaphase chromosome alignment) before the completion of DNA synthesis, they do not possess a G2 cell cycle phase that temporally precedes mitosis. As a result there is no true cell cycle transition between G2 and mitosis and thus no opportunity for biochemical regulation at an equivalent stage to the mammalian G2-prophase transition. Perhaps for this reason, budding yeasts seem to rely heavily on regulation of anaphase onset via Mad2 and other mechanisms that control stability and activity of anaphase inhibitors. Nevertheless, an equivalent cell cycle control to the one we have described in yeast does appear to function in human cells. When metaphase human cells are treated with the Topo II inhibitor ICRF-193, a transient cell cycle delay prior to anaphase onset is observed that endures for approximately 45–60 minutes before anaphase is attempted and cells exit mitosis [37]. Little is known about this cellular response, however, and it will be intriguing to determine how similar it may be to the yeast checkpoint. In addition, it should be noted that much higher doses of ICRF-193 have been reported to silence the spindle checkpoint under conditions where cohesin proteins have been depleted, which results in defective tension at kinetochores and thus activates the spindle checkpoint [38]. The mechanistic basis of this phenomenon remains poorly understood and it is not clear how different doses of ICRF-193 can have very different consequences in vivo. However, it is interesting to note that parallels can be drawn between the yeast Top2E66Q mutant and a wild-type enzyme in the presence of ICRF-193, since in both cases ATP can bind to the topoisomerase but cannot be hydrolyzed. The Top2E66Q mutant, which activates the Mad2-dependent checkpoint in yeast, therefore phenocopies a situation where each Topo II holoenzyme is bound to ICRF-193, without there being an excess of the drug. It is clear that a comprehensive understanding of the interplay between mitotic checkpoints and Topo II function will provide important information in terms of the consequences of inhibiting the enzyme in the context of anti-microbial and anti-cancer treatments. In this study, we have presented evidence that a Topo II responsive checkpoint is activated through a novel mechanism that detects the enzyme cycle rather than a DNA lesion. DNA topology defects, including hyper-catenation, are not sufficient to trigger checkpoint signaling. Rather, the evidence supports a mechanism whereby the checkpoint machinery directly monitors the SPR of Topo II to ensure that sister chromatid separation can occur in anaphase. The data also indicate that the checkpoint is distinct from other checkpoints. Such a mechanism of checkpoint control could have evolved due to the abundance of naturally occurring Topo II inhibitors such as plant secondary metabolites that interrupt the enzyme cycle [4], [5]. The SPR mutants described here may mimic some of the effects of these inhibitors in that they accumulate specific SPR intermediates that may form a structural platform for assembly of a signaling complex. We propose that checkpoint sensor proteins bind to Topo II when blocked or delayed at specific steps in the SPR. If the assembly of signaling complexes at the CTR of Topo II is a conserved mechanism of checkpoint activation across eukaryotes, then the nature of interaction with the Topo II CTR must have diverged since no homolog of the human MDC1 checkpoint protein exists in yeast. Further understanding of such Topo II-checkpoint protein interactions could be clinically valuable because current efforts aim to identify drugs that inhibit Topo II without activating the checkpoint controls that are protective to tumors cells. The yeast strains used in this study are haploid derivatives of BF264-15 15DU (see Table S2). Yeast strains were modified according to standard yeast genetic approaches [39]. Plasmids were mutagenized by site-directed mutagenesis according to Liu and Naismith [40]. Step 1: cells were grown to an OD of 2. 0–6. 0 overnight at 26°C in synthetic raffinose medium lacking methionine and tryptophan (Figure S2). Step 2: for synchrony, cells were diluted to OD 0. 2 in rich raffinose medium at 26°C with α factor (concentration varying from 1∶2200 to 1∶3500 of a 1 mg/ml stock). After 1 h, galactose was added to a final concentration of 4% (Step 3). Following another 30 min growth the temperature was raised to 35°C (Step 4). After a further 30 min growth (2 hours total with α factor) α factor was washed off with water that was pre-warmed to 35°C. The cells were released into YPG at 35°C (Step 5). Spindle morphologies were visualized using TUB1-GFP [41] as described previously [24]. Nuclear morphologies were visualized using a method from Juan Martinez (Purdue University). Cells were grown under the conditions specified previously and were collected (500 µl) by centrifugation. The resulting pellet was washed once with 1 ml 1× PBS, resuspended in 1. 4 ml of filter-sterilized 4% p-formaldehyde solution (4% p-formaldehyde, 3. 5% sucrose in water), and incubated for 20 min at room temperature. Cells were then centrifuged at 3000 g and the pellet was washed with 1 ml wash buffer (1. 2 M sorbitol, 100 mM potassium phosphate, pH 7. 5). Cells were resuspended in 1 ml 1× PBS containing 5 µl of 1 mg/ml DAPI solution and incubated at room temperature for 3 min in the dark. Cells were washed once with 1× PBS and resuspended in the remaining 1× PBS after decanting. Anaphase cells were identified based on spindle morphology and were scored for separated or un-separated nuclei. During a normal mitosis, anaphase cells go through an intermediate stage where the nuclei are stretched, but have not separated completely (this accounts for the low percentage of anaphase cells in wild-type with un-separated nuclei). Proteins were extracted by collecting 15 mls of cells and resuspending in 1 mL 0. 25 M NaOH and 1% BME solution. Resuspensions were placed on ice for 10 min. 160 µl of 50% TCA was added, the solution inverted, and placed on ice for 10 min. The extracts were then pelleted at 14,000 g for 10 min at 4°C. Supernatant was decanted and the pellet resuspended in 1 mL of ice-cold acetone. Extracts were pelleted again and supernatant decanted. The extract was dried for 3 min at 55°C. The dried extract was resuspended in 100 µl of 2× protein-loading buffer and neutralized with 5 µl of 1 M Tris base. Western blots were performed using the following antibodies: 1∶1000 dilution of anti-Top2 (TopoGen), 1∶6000 dilution of anti-Flag (Pierce) and a 1∶2500 dilution of anti-GFP (Clontech). Secondary antibody, HRP-conjugated goat anti-rabbit (Pierce) was used at 1∶5000 and HRP-conjugated goat anti-mouse IgG (Invitrogen) was used at 1∶5000. Preparation of yeast cell agarose plugs for CHEF gel electrophoresis was performed as preciously described [42] and were run on a CHEF DRIII electrophoresis system (Bio-Rad) at 11°C, 60–120 sec switch for 18 hours at 6 V/cm with 120° angle. Southern blots were probed to detect catenated 2-micron circle DNA as previously described [43]. Wild type Top2 and Top2-B44 were purified after over-expression in yeast as previously described [44]. Top2 reactions were carried out as described [44] using supercoiled pBR322 to monitor ATP-dependent relaxation and cleavage activity. ATPase assays were performed as described by Osheroff et al. [45]. Reaction mixtures contained 45 nM yeast topoisomerase II, 5 nM negatively supercoiled pBR322 DNA, and 1 mM [γ-32P] ATP in a total of 40 µl of relaxation buffer. Mixtures were incubated at 28°C and 37°C, and 2 µl samples were removed at time intervals up to 15 min and spotted on polyethyleneimine-impregnated thin layer cellulose chromatography plates (EMD Chemicals). Plates were developed by chromatography in freshly made 400 mM NH4HCO3 and analyzed using a Bio-Rad molecular imager FX. ATP hydrolysis was monitored by the release of free phosphate.

Title: Direct Monitoring of the Strand Passage Reaction of DNA Topoisomerase II Triggers Checkpoint Activation Summary: Several major classes of anti-cancer drugs kill tumor cells by binding to the enzyme DNA topoisomerase II, but at the same time, cellular responses are activated that protect the tumor cells. How checkpoint activation occurs under circumstances of topoisomerase II perturbation is not well understood. We show that a novel checkpoint mechanism directly monitors the enzyme reaction of topoisomerase II. This is the first example of a checkpoint mechanism that directly monitors specific steps of the catalytic cycle of a single enzyme.

lay_plos

en

Summarize: BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION The invention relates to improvements in apparatus for ascertaining the complex dielectric constants of particulate materials which are contained in smokers&#39; products, particularly tobacco and filter material for tobacco smoke (hereinafter referred to as tobacco). More particularly, the invention relates to improvements in apparatus for ascertaining the dielectric constant of tobacco by evaluating the detuning of a high-frequency resonator system, namely a detuning which is attributable to the presence of tobacco. Still more particularly, the invention relates to improvements in apparatus wherein at least one of two high-frequency resonators is provided with means for adjusting the resonance frequency and wherein a combined regulating or control and evaluating unit serves to regulate the operation of the resonators and/or the operation of a high-frequency sender in such a way that the two resonators are provided with high-frequency currents or fields of identical frequency which, in the absence of tobacco, is between the differently preselected or preadjusted resonance frequencies of the two resonators but, in the presence of tobacco, evaluates the amplitudes of high-frequency signals received in the two resonators and ascertains the complex dielectric constant of tobacco on the basis of the sum and difference values of such parameters of the high-frequency signals. An apparatus of the above outlined character is disclosed in German patent No. 43 42 505 to Stange. The patented apparatus employs two resonators having housings each of which includes a first section surrounding with a conductive material at least one hemisphere of a solid-state resonator, and a second section which can be penetrated by electromagnetic alternating fields. The two high-frequency resonators can be positioned relative to each other in such a way that their conductive housing sections shield each other against mutual influencing and that their other housing sections, which are permeable to electromagnetic fields, confront the material to be tested. This means that only stray fields can penetrate outwardly into the tested material, such as tobacco. A drawback of the patented proposal is that the sensitivity and accuracy of the apparatus are unsatisfactory when the apparatus is put to use to ascertain the complex dielectric constant of a small and rapidly advancing commodity to be tested, such as a stream, filler, flow or rod of particulate material of the tobacco processing industry, for example, tobacco in a cigarette rod. A cigarette rod which is ready to be subdivided into plain cigarettes of unit length or multiple unit length contains a rod-like filler of tobacco particles and a tubular wrapper consisting of cigarette paper and surrounding the filler. The overlapping marginal portions of the wrapper are bonded to each other and form a seam extending in the longitudinal direction of the cigarette rod. It is desirable that the mass flow of tobacco (namely the mass of tobacco per unit length) constituting the rod-like filler of the cigarette rod be at least substantially constant, at least in the major part of the running cigarette rod. The mass flow of tobacco must be ascertained in order to facilitate proper regulation of the extent to which the wrapper of the cigarette rod is filled with tobacco particles. At the present time, the mass flow is ascertained by resorting to radiation (such as beta rays or infrared radiation) which is weakened during penetration through a moving rod- or stream-like body of tobacco particles. The extent of weakening of radiation as a result of penetration through tobacco is indicative of the mass of tobacco at the testing station. It is also known to monitor the mass of tobacco particles in an advancing stream or rod by resorting to high-frequency testing apparatus. The signals which are obtained in a standard apparatus operating with beta rays or infrared radiation or high-frequency and are indicative of the mass of tobacco in successively tested increments of a cigarette rod are utilized to regulate the quantity of tobacco in the filler (prior to draping of the filler into a web of cigarette paper or other suitable wrapping material) in such a way that the mass flow of tobacco particles is at least substantially constant. In many instances, the thus obtained signals are utilized to change the position of a so-called trimmer or equalizer which serves to remove the surplus from successive increments of a continuously advancing tobacco stream in order to convert the stream into a rod-like filler which is ready for draping into a web of cigarette paper or the like. Reference may be had, for example, to U.S. Pat. No. 4,875,494 which discloses an apparatus for the making of a continuous cigarette rod. OBJECTS OF THE INVENTION An object of the invention is to provide an apparatus which can be utilized to ascertain the complex dielectric constant of tobacco and constitutes an improvement over and a further development of apparatus disclosed in German patent No. 43 42 505 to Stange. Another object of the invention is to provide an apparatus which can ascertain the complex dielectric constant of a continuous stream or flow of tobacco particles advancing at a speed which is required in a modern high-speed cigarette making machine. A further object of the invention is to provide novel and improved high-frequency resonators for use in the above outlined apparatus. An additional object of the invention is to provide novel and improved resonator housings for use in the above outlined apparatus. Still other object of the invention is to provide a tobacco rod or filter rod making machine which embodies, or which is combined with, an apparatus of the above outlined character. A further object of the invention is to provide a novel and improved method of ascertaining the complex dielectric constant of tobacco in an apparatus which employs high-frequency resonators. Another object of the invention is to provide a highly sensitive and highly accurate apparatus for ascertaining the complex dielectric constant of tobacco. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION The invention is embodied in an apparatus for ascertaining or determining the complex dielectric constant of a flow of smokable material which is advanced along a predetermined path. The improved apparatus comprises a resonator assembly including first and second high-frequency resonators which respectively have first and second housings surrounding first and second portions of the predetermined path. In accordance with a feature of the invention, each of the housings has an inlet and an outlet for the flow of smokable material in the respective portion of the path. At least one of the first and second resonators is a variable-frequency resonator and includes means for varying its resonance frequency. The apparatus further comprises a signal-evaluating regulating or control unit for at least one of (a) the resonators and (b) a high-frequency sender. The regulating or control unit includes means for applying to the resonators high-frequency currents or fields having a first frequency, and the first and second resonators have different second and third resonance frequencies in the absence of smokable material in the aforementioned portions of the predetermined path. The first frequency is between the second and third frequencies, and the assembly including the first and second resonators is detuned when the aforementioned portions of the predetermined path contain smokable material. The regulating or control unit includes means for ascertaining the complex dielectric constant of smokable material in the aforementioned portions of the predetermined path, and such complex dielectric constant is or can be indicative of the mass and/or moisture content of the tested smokable material. The complex dielectric constant is ascertained on the basis of the determination of amplitudes of first and second high-frequency signals which are respectively received by the first and second resonators and on the basis of a processing of the sums of and the differences between such parameters of the first and second signals. The flow of smokable material can constitute the rod-like filler of a cigarette rod, and the smokable material can include or constitute natural tobacco, reconstituted tobacco and/or artificial tobacco and/or filter material for tobacco smoke. Furthermore, the aforementioned filler can contain smokable material in a wrapper which, together with the filler, constitutes a cigar rod or a cigarillo rod. The aforementioned first frequency is or can be at least substantially midway between the second and third frequencies in the absence of smokable material in the aforementioned portions of the predetermined path. At least one of the housings can constitute an at least substantially symmetrical housing, and the sender can include conductor means (e.g., coaxial cables) for the application of high-frequency currents or fields to the resonators, and the apparatus can further comprise second conductor means (e.g., coaxial cables) for the transmission of high-frequency signals from the resonators to the regulating or control unit. The housing of at least one of the resonators can constitute a rotationally symmetrical housing (e.g., a cylinder), and the centers of the inlet and the outlet of such rotationally symmetrical housing can be located on the axis of the housing. The apparatus can further comprise an additional resonator in at least one of the housings. Such additional resonator can constitute a solid-state resonator and is or can be provided with an opening for the flow of smokable material from the inlet to the outlet of the respective housing. Tubular guide means can be provided for the flow of smokable material in the aforementioned portions of the predetermined path, and such apparatus can further comprise preferably tubular shields of electrically conductive material (e,g., shields consisting of or at least containing a metallic material) which at least partially surround the guide means at the inlet(s) and/or at the outlet(s) of the housing(s). Such tubular guide means and the shields can be provided irrespective of whether or not at least one of the housings confines an additional resonator. The novel features which are considered as characteristic of the invention are set forth in particular in the appended claims. The improved apparatus itself, however, both as to its construction and its mode of operation, together with additional features and advantages thereof, will be best understood upon perusal of the following detailed description of certain presently preferred specific embodiments with reference to the accompanying drawings. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a schematic axial sectional view of an apparatus which embodies one form of the invention and comprises two coaxial high-frequency resonators connectable with a source of microwaves; FIG. 2 is an end elevational view substantially as seen in the direction of the arrow A in FIG. 1; FIG. 3 is a diagram with a first set of resonance curves denoting the conditions prevailing when the housings of the resonators are traversed by a tobacco stream and a second set of resonance curves denoting the conditions prevailing in the absence of a tobacco stream; FIG. 4 is a diagrammatic view of a control or regulating unit which can be resorted to in order to ascertain the real and imaginary components of the complex dielectric constant of the material being tested during advancement through the housings of the two resonators; and FIG. 5 is a schematic axial sectional view of a modified apparatus wherein an additional resonator is provided in the housing of each of two main or primary resonators corresponding to those shown in FIG. 1. DESCRIPTION OF PREFERRED EMBODIMENTS Referring first to FIGS. 1 and 2, there is shown an apparatus which comprises an assembly 1 of two high-frequency resonators 2 and 3 having rotationally symmetrical (e.g., cylindrical) housings made of an electrically conductive material, e.g., copper. It is within the purview of the invention to replace the illustrated cylindrical resonator housings with other rotationally symmetrical housings (e.g., conical housings) or with housings having a polygonal cross-sectional outline. The reference numerals 4 and 6 denote conductors (e.g., coaxial cables) the first of which serve to establish in the housings of the resonators 2, 3 high-frequency electromagnetic fields (microwaves), and the second of which serve to decouple the high-frequency fields. The conductors 4, 6 are or can be provided with customary coupling loops or probes, not shown. The housing of at least one of the resonators 2 and 3 can be provided with suitable means for selection and/or adjustment of resonance or oscillation frequency. For example, such frequency adjusting and/or selecting means can include at least one standard screw for each of the two housings. The method which can be practiced with the apparatus including the 1 of FIGS. 1 and 2 in order to ascertain the complex dielectric constant of tobacco is fully disclosed in the aforementioned German patent No. 43 42 505 to Stange to which reference may be had, if necessary, and which is incorporated herein by reference. Thus, the complex dielectric constant Δε can be ascertained on the basis of the following final equations: ##EQU1## wherein Δε&#39; constitutes the real part of the complex dielectric constant and wherein Δ denotes the difference (a) between the housings of the resonators 2, 3 while the housings are being traversed by a tobacco stream 12 and (b) the empty housings, and ##EQU2## wherein Δε&#34; constitutes the imaginary part of the complex dielectric constant and wherein Δ again denotes the aforediscussed difference between the housings of the resonators 2, 3 (a) while the housings are being traversed by the tobacco stream 12 and (b) the empty housings. Since the atmospheric air, which fills the housings of the resonators 2 and 3 when such housings do not confine portions of a tobacco stream, has a dielectric constant approximating 1, Δε&#39; and Δε&#34; reasonably accurately reflect the values of ε&#39; and ε&#34;, respectively. The values of F1, F2, F10 and F20 can be ascertained on the basis of resonance curves f10, f20 (when the housings of the resonators 2 and 3 are empty) and f1, f2 (when the housings are being traversed by a tobacco stream). As can be seen in the diagram of FIG. 3, the resonance curves are formed in such a way that the (second and third) resonance frequencies ω10 and ω20 in the housings of the resonators 2 and 3 are, respectively, slightly below and slightly above an operational (first) frequency ω 0 of microwaves which are being applied to the two housings. When the housings of the resonators 2, 3 contain portions of a flow of smokable material, the resonance frequencies of both resonance curves are shifted in directions toward lower frequencies by a value Δω. In addition, the amplitudes of the resonance frequencies drop due to damping of the microwaves by the advancing material (such as tobacco) by a value ΔA. When the housings of the resonators 2 and 3 are empty, the values F10 and F20 (e.g., the voltages of rectified microwaves which are taken off the coaxial conductors (such as coaxial cables) 6) are identical if the operational frequency ω is the same and if the housings of the resonators 2, 3 are identical. The value F1 is ascertained, for example, as the voltage of rectified microwaves at the coaxial conductor or cable 6 of the housing of the resonator 2 while the housing contains tobacco. The value F2 is ascertained, for example, as voltage of the rectified microwaves at the coaxial conductor or cable 6 of the housing of the resonator 3 while such housing contains tobacco. The determination of the values of ε&#39; and ε&#34;, which upon complex addition, furnish the value ε, will be described with reference to the diagram of FIG. 4. A microwave generator or sender 31 transmits, by way of a standard feedback-preventing microwave circulator 32, high-frequency microwaves (preferably in the gigahertz range, e.g., approximately 6 gigahertz) to the coaxial conductors or cables 4 for the housings of the resonators 2 and 3. The output signals are influenced by the material (tobacco) in the housings and are transmitted to microwave diodes 36 and 37 by way of microwave circulators 33, 34, respectively. For example, the microwave diodes 36, 36 can be those known as Type HP 847 2B obtainable from Hewlett-Packard, D-71034 Boblingen, Federal Republic Germany, and their function is to transform the high-frequency microwaves into direct-current voltage signals corresponding to F1 and F2, respectively. The direct-current voltage signal from the housing of the resonator 2 is amplified by an amplifier 38, and the direct-current voltage signal from the housing of the resonator 3 is amplified by an amplifier 39. The thus amplified signals are transmitted to a differentiating circuit 41 which furnishes a signal denoting the value of F1-F2. The signal at the output of the circuit 41 is transmitted to a dividing stage 42 which also receives a signal from the output of a summing circuit 43. The signal at the output of the circuit 43 denotes the sum of the constant signals F10 and F20. The signal at the output of the dividing stage 42 is the dividend of signals transmitted by the circuits 41 and 43 and is indicative of the real portion ε&#39; of the complex dielectric constant ε of the tested material (such as tobacco). A summing circuit 44 processes the signals from the outputs of the amplifiers 38 and 39 into a sum signal which is transmitted to a subtracting circuit 46 wherein such signal is subtracted from the signal transmitted by the summing circuit 43. The signal which is transmitted by the circuit 43 is further transmitted to one input of a dividing or quotient forming circuit 47 another input of which is connected with the output of the subtracting circuit 46. The signal at the output of the circuit 47 is a quotient of the signals transmitted by the circuits 43 and 46, and such quotient signal corresponds to the imaginary part ε&#34; of the complex dielectric constant ε, the latter being generated from ε&#39; and ε&#34; in a complex summing circuit 48. The electric signals which correspond to the above outlined relationships can be utilized to arrive at conclusions pertaining to the mass and/or the moisture content of tobacco in a flow of smokable material which passes through the housings of the resonators 2 and 3. In order to permit a flow 12 to pass therethrough, the housing of the resonator 2 is provided with an inlet opening 7 and an outlet opening 9, and the housing of the resonator 3 is provided with an inlet opening 8 and an outlet opening 11. The flow 12 is caused to advance in a centrally located elongated tubular guide 13 which is made of an electrically non-conductive material, such as quartz. The direction of advancement of the flow 12 is indicated by the arrow 15. The guide 13 prevents particles of tobacco and/or dust and/or other solid contaminants from penetrating into the housings of the resonators 2 and 3 wherein such foreign particles could cause disturbances such as inaccurate determination of the complex dielectric constant. FIG. 1 further shows tubular shields 14 and 16 which consist of a suitable electrically conductive material (such as metal) and serve to prevent undesirable issuance of the high-frequency field from the inlets and outlets of the housings of the radiators 2 and 3, respectively. The feature that the common axis 17 of the housings of the radiators 2 and 3 coincides with the axis of the guide 13 and of the flow 12 in the guide 13 contributes to the symmetry of the apparatus 1 and to optimal test results. The centers of the inlets 7, 8 and outlets 9, 11 are preferably located on the axis 17. The apparatus which is shown in FIG. 5 differs from the apparatus of FIGS. 1 and 2 in that the housings of the main or primary resonators 2 and 3 contain additional or auxiliary dielectric resonators 21 and 22, respectively. For example, the additional resonators 21, 22 can be made of a suitable ceramic material and their positions in the housings of the respective primary resonators 2 and 3 are fixed by suitable distancing elements, not specifically shown in FIG. 5. The resonators 21 and 22 are respectively provided with central openings or passages 23, 24 for the tubular guide 13 which surrounds the advancing flow 12. The additional resonator 21 in the housing of the primary resonator 2 includes a first portion and a second portion 21a which is movable toward and away from the first portion in and counter to the direction indicated by the arrow 15; this renders it possible to ascertain the resonance or natural frequency. The additional resonator 22 can be replaced with a resonator which is identical with or analogous to the composite resonator 21. An advantage of the apparatus which is shown in FIG. 5 is that its additional resonators 21 and 22 render it possible to enhance the sensitivity of the apparatus and the accuracy of measurements upon the flow 12. Without further analysis, the foregoing will so fully reveal the gist of the present invention that others can, by applying current knowledge, readily adapt it for various applications without omitting features that, from the standpoint of prior art, fairly constitute essential characteristics of the generic and specific aspects of the above outlined contribution to the art and, therefore, such adaptations should and are intended to be comprehended within the meaning and range of equivalence of the appended claims.

Summary: The complex dielectric constant of successive increments of a stream of tobacco particles is indicative of the mass and/or moisture content of the tested increments. Instead of passing along two high-frequency resonators, as disclosed in German patent No. 43 42 505 to Stange, the stream is caused to pass through the inlets and outlets of the housings of two high-frequency resonators which are connected to a microwave generator and transmit high-frequency signals whose amplitudes are indicative of the complex dielectric constants. The signals from the two resonators are processed in a regulating unit wherein a circuit sums up the real and the imaginary parts of the complex dielectric constant.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Schools of the Future Act''. SEC. 2. FINDINGS. The Congress finds the following: (1) Digital learning technology holds the promise of transforming rural education by removing barriers of distance and increasing school capacity. (2) While many large urban local educational agencies are at the forefront of implementing new digital learning innovations, it is often harder for smaller and more rural local educational agencies to access these tools. Smaller local educational agencies with less capacity may also find it more difficult to provide the training needed to effectively implement new digital learning technologies. (3) Despite the potential of digital learning in rural areas, these advancements risk bypassing rural areas without support for their implementation. Rather than having schools and local educational agencies apply digital learning innovations designed for urban environments to rural areas, it is important that digital learning technologies be developed and implemented in ways that reflect the unique needs of rural areas. (4) Digital learning is rapidly expanding, and new tools for improving teaching and learning are being developed every day. A growing demand for digital learning tools and products has made rigorous evaluation of their effectiveness increasingly important, as this information would allow school and local educational agency leaders to make informed choices about how best to use these tools to improve student achievement and educational outcomes. (5) High-quality digital learning increases student access to courses that may not have been available to students in rural communities, increasing their college and career readiness. SEC. 3. PROGRAM AUTHORIZED. (a) Grants to Eligible Partnerships.--From the amounts appropriated to carry out this Act, the Secretary of Education is authorized to award grants, on a competitive basis, to eligible partnerships to carry out the activities described in section 6. (b) Duration of Grant.--A grant under subsection (a) shall be awarded for not less than a 3-year and not longer than a 5-year period. (c) Fiscal Agent.--If an eligible partnership receives a grant under this Act, a school partner in the partnership shall serve as the fiscal agent for the partnership. SEC. 4. APPLICATION. An eligible partnership desiring a grant under this Act shall submit an application to the Secretary at such time, in such manner, and containing such information as the Secretary may require, which shall include the following: (1) A description of the eligible partnership, including the name of each of the partners and their respective roles and responsibilities. (2) A description of the technology-based learning practice, tool, strategy, or course that the eligible partnership proposes to develop or implement using the grant funds. (3) An assurance that all teachers of record hold the relevant license and are otherwise qualified to implement any technology-based practice, tool, strategy, or course using the grant funds. (4) An assurance that all students in a class or school implementing a practice, tool, strategy or course using the grant funds will have access to any equipment necessary to participate on a full and equitable basis. (5) An assurance that the proposed uses of smartphones, laptops, tablets, or other devices susceptible to inappropriate use have the informed consent of parents or guardians and are not inconsistent with any policies of the local educational agency on the use of such devices. (6) Information relevant to the selection criteria under section 5(c). (7) A description of the evaluation to be undertaken by the eligible partnership, including-- (A) how the school partner and the evaluation partner will work together to implement the practice, tool, strategy, or course in such a way that permits the use of a rigorous, independent evaluation design that meets the standards of the What Works Clearinghouse of the Institute of Education Sciences; and (B) a description of the evaluation design that meets such standards, which will be used to measure any significant effects on the outcomes described in paragraphs (1) through (3) of section 7(a). (8) An estimate of the number of students to be reached through the grant and evidence of its capacity to reach the proposed number of students during the course of the grant. (9) An assurance that the school partner in the eligible partnership will ensure that each school to be served by the grant under this Act is designated with a school locale code of Fringe Rural, Distant Rural, or Remote Rural, as determined by the Secretary. (10) Any other information the Secretary may require. SEC. 5. APPLICATION REVIEW AND AWARD BASIS. (a) Peer Review.--The Secretary shall use a peer review process to review applications for grants under this Act. The Secretary shall appoint individuals to the peer review process who have relevant expertise in digital learning, research and evaluation, standards quality and alignment, and rural education. (b) Award Basis.--In awarding grants under this Act, the Secretary shall ensure, to the extent practicable, diversity in the type of activities funded under the grants. (c) Selection Criteria.--In evaluating an eligible partnership's application for a grant under this Act, the Secretary shall consider-- (1) the need for the proposed technology-based learning practice, tool, strategy, or course; (2) the quality of the design of the proposed practice, tool, strategy, or course; (3) the strength of the existing research evidence with respect to such practice, tool, strategy, or course; (4) the experience of the eligible partnership; and (5) the quality of the evaluation proposed by the eligible partnership. SEC. 6. USE OF FUNDS. (a) Required Use of Funds.-- (1) In general.--An eligible partnership receiving a grant under this Act shall use such funds to implement and evaluate the results of technology-based learning practices, strategies, tools, or courses, including the practices, strategies, tools, or courses identified under paragraphs (2) through (6). (2) Tools and courses designed to personalize the learning experience.--Technology-based tools and courses identified under this paragraph include the following types of tools and courses designed to personalize the learning experience: (A) Technology-based personalized instructional systems. (B) Adaptive software, games, or tools, that can be used to personalize learning. (C) Computer-based tutoring courses to help struggling students. (D) Games, digital tools, and smartphone or tablet applications to improve students' engagement, focus, and time on task. (E) Other tools and courses designed to personalize the learning experience. (3) Practices and strategies designed to aid and inform instruction.--Technology-based practices and strategies identified under this paragraph include the following types of practices and strategies designed to aid and inform instruction: (A) Adaptive software, games, or tools that can be used for the purpose of formative assessment. (B) Web resources that provide teachers and their students access to instructional and curricular materials that are-- (i) aligned with high-quality standards; and (ii) designed to prepare students for college and a career, such as a repository of primary historical sources for use in history and civics courses or examples of developmentally appropriate science experiments. (C) Online professional development opportunities, teacher mentoring opportunities, and professional learning communities. (D) Tools or web resources designed to address specific instructional problems. (E) Other practices and strategies designed to personalize the learning experience. (4) Tools, courses, and strategies designed to improve the achievement of students with specific educational needs.-- Technology-based tools, courses, and strategies identified under this paragraph include the following types of tools, courses, and strategies designed to meet the needs of students with specific educational needs: (A) Digital tools specifically designed to meet the needs of students with a particular disability. (B) Online courses that give students who are not on track to graduate or have already dropped out of school the opportunity for accelerated credit recovery. (C) Language instruction courses, games, or software designed to meet the needs of English language learners. (D) Other tools, courses, and strategies designed to personalize the learning experience. (5) Tools, courses, and strategies designed to help students develop 21st century skills.--Technology-based tools, courses, and strategies identified under this paragraph include peer-to-peer virtual learning opportunities to be used for the purposes of project-based learning, deeper learning, and collaborative learning, and other tools, courses, and strategies designed to help students develop 21st century skills, such as the ability to think critically and solve problems, be effective communicators, collaborate with others, and learn to create and innovate. (6) Technology-based or online courses that allow students to take courses that they would not otherwise have access to.-- Technology-based or online courses identified under this paragraph include courses or collections of courses that provide students access to courses that they would not otherwise have access to, such as the following: (A) An online repository of elective courses. (B) Online or software-based courses in foreign languages, especially in languages identified as critical or in schools where a teacher is not available to teach the language or course level a student requires. (C) Online advanced or college-level courses that can be taken for credit. (b) Authorized Use of Funds.--An eligible partnership receiving a grant under this Act may use grant funds to-- (1) develop the technology for technology-based learning strategies, practices, courses, or tools to be carried out under the grant; (2) purchase hardware or software needed to carry out such strategies, practices, courses, or tools under the grant, except that such purchases may not exceed 50 percent of total grant funds; (3) address the particular needs of student subgroups, including students with disabilities and English-language learners; (4) provide technology-based professional development or professional development on how to maximize the utility of technology; and (5) address issues of cost and capacity in rural areas and shortage subjects. SEC. 7. DATA COLLECTION AND EVALUATION. (a) In General.--Each eligible partnership receiving a grant under this Act shall require its evaluation partner to complete an independent, comprehensive, well-designed, and well-implemented evaluation that meets the standards of the What Works Clearinghouse after the third year of implementation of the grant to measure the effect of the practice, tool, strategy, or course on-- (1) student achievement, as measured by high quality assessments that provide objective, valid, reliable measures of student academic growth and information on whether a student is on-track to graduate ready for college and career; (2) costs and savings to the school partner; and (3) at least one of the following: (A) Student achievement gaps. (B) Graduation and dropout rates. (C) College enrollment. (D) College persistence. (E) College completion. (F) Placement in a living-wage job. (G) Enhanced teacher or principal effectiveness as measured by valid, reliable, and multiple measures of student achievement and other appropriate measures. (b) Evaluation.--The Secretary shall-- (1) acting through the Director of the Institute of Education Sciences-- (A) evaluate the implementation and impact of the activities supported under the grant program authorized under this section; and (B) identify best practices; and (2) disseminate, in consultation with the regional educational laboratories established under part D of the Education Sciences Reform Act of 2002 and comprehensive centers established under the Educational Technical Assistance Act of 2002, research on best practices in school leadership. (c) Implementation Evaluation.--An evaluation partner may use funds under this Act to carry out an implementation evaluation designed to provide information that may be useful for schools, local educational agencies, States, consortia of schools, and charter school networks seeking to implement similar practices, tools, strategies, or courses in the future. (d) Publication of Results.--Upon completion of an evaluation described in subsection (a), (b), or (c) the evaluation partner shall-- (1) submit a report of the results of the evaluation to the Secretary; and (2) make publicly available such results. SEC. 8. DEFINITIONS. In this Act: (1) Eligible partnership.--The term ``eligible partnership'' means a partnership that includes a school partner and not less than 1-- (A) digital learning partner, except that in a case in which a school partner or evaluation partner demonstrates expertise in digital learning to the Secretary; and (B) evaluation partner. (2) School partner.--The term ``school partner'' means a-- (A) local educational agency; (B) a charter school network that does not include virtual schools; (C) a consortium of public elementary schools or secondary schools; (D) a regional educational service agency or similar regional educational service provider; or (E) a consortium of the entities described in subparagraphs (A) through (D). (3) Digital learning partner.--The term ``digital learning partner'' means an organization with expertise in the technology required to develop or implement the digital learning practices, tools, strategies, or courses proposed by the school partner with which the digital learning partner will partner or has partnered under this Act, such as-- (A) an institution of higher education; (B) a nonprofit organization; or (C) an organization with school development or turnaround experience. (4) Evaluation partner.--The term ``evaluation partner'' means a partner that has the expertise and ability to carry out the evaluation of a grant received under this Act, such as-- (A) an institution of higher education; (B) a nonprofit organization with expertise in evaluation; or (C) an evaluation firm. (5) Institution of higher education.--The term ``institution of higher education'' has the meaning given the term in section 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002). (6) Local educational agency.--The term ``local educational agency'' has the meaning given the term in section 9101 of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 7801). (7) Secretary.--The term ``Secretary'' means the Secretary of Education.

Title: Schools of the Future Act Summary: Schools of the Future Act - Authorizes the Secretary of Education to award competitive three- to five-year grants to eligible partnerships to implement and evaluate the results of technology-based learning practices, strategies, tools, or courses at rural schools. Defines &quot;eligible partnerships&quot; as those composed of a school partner, a digital learning partner, and an evaluation partner. Describes a &quot;school partner&quot; as a: (1) local educational agency, (2) charter school network that does not include virtual schools, (3) consortium of public elementary or secondary schools, (4) regional educational service provider, or (5) consortium of such entities. Describes a &quot;digital learning partner&quot; as an institution of higher education, a nonprofit organization, or an organization with school development or turnaround experience. Includes among the grant-funded technology-based learning practices, strategies, tools, or courses, those that: (1) personalize the learning experience, (2) aid and inform instruction, (3) meet the needs of students with specific educational needs, (4) help students develop 21st century skills, and (5) give students access to courses that would otherwise be unavailable to them. Requires each partnership's evaluation partner, after the third year of the grant, to evaluate the effect of the technology-based learning practices, strategies, tools, or courses on student achievement and its school partner's costs and savings. Directs the Secretary, acting through the Director of the Institute of Education Sciences, to: (1) evaluate the implementation and impact of the activities supported by this Act's grants, (2) identify best practices, and (3) disseminate research on best practices in school leadership.

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Summarize: Republicans in the House of Representatives are falling over each other in the race to file legislation that would stop President Barack Obama from implementing his far-reaching immigration plan. No fewer than five separate GOP-sponsored bills are already pending in the House just 24 hours after the 114th Congress launched on Tuesday. They all seek to do largely the same thing: prohibit the Department of Homeland Security from spending a single dime in 2015 on any part of Obama's plan, which he announced in December. The president's aim is to mainstream 5 million or more people living in the U.S. illegally, giving them residency and work permits and guaranteeing them that they won't be deported back to their home countries. SCROLL DOWN FOR VIDEO. IMMIGRATION WARRIORS: Reps. Tom Marino of Pennsylvania and Ted Poe of Texas (right) introduced competing proposals to forbid the Obama administration from spending any money to implement what they have labeled an 'amnesty' for 5 million or more illegal immigrants. GEARING UP: President Barack Obama, shown in the Oval Office on Wednesday with Vice President Joe Biden, Secretary of State John Kerry and National Security Adviser Susan Rice, expects a showdown with the GOP over his immigration plans. Republicans, particularly those regarded as ultra-conservative, labeled the scheme an 'amnesty' for lawbreakers and have vowed to block it. Alabama Reps. Martha Roby and Robert Aderholt have two competing bills. Pennsylvania Rep Tom Marino, Texas Rep. Ted Poe and Florida Rep. Ted Yoho have measures of their own pending. A confrontation with the White House is expected soon. 'The president’s executive actions with regard to immigration are outside of the Constitution and outside of his powers,' House Speaker John Boehner told reporters during a press briefing on Wednesday. 'We can deal with that issue in the Department of Homeland Security bill without jeopardizing the security of our country.' Republicans still have to deal with Homeland Security funding because they separated it from the federal budget in December as a condition of funding the rest of the government through the Sept. 30 end of the fiscal year. America's immigration enforcement agencies are part of DHS. Conservatives had pledged to scuttle the larger budget last month unless they were guaranteed another chance in February to hold the money over Obama's head. They hope the leverage will force the president to back off from his strategy to give safe harbor to millions of illegal immigrants. The battle will be joined in a matter of days. House Appropriations Committee Chairman Hal Rogers of Kentucky told Bloomberg on Wednesday that 'the hope is that we could file a bill Friday, in time for it to come to the floor Tuesday or so next week.' Which bill that will be is anyone's guess. 'We're in the process of determining the best option on this right now,' Boehner spokesman Michael Steel told DailyMail.com on Wednesday. Roby's spokesman believes her version could easily be incorporated into the looming Homeland Security budget bill. It would prohibit the expenditure of any money to put Obama's policy changes into action. 'It's very straightforward,' Roby told the Washington Examiner on Tuesday. 'It lays out specifically that no funds will be used for these things.' She added that Republicans knew what they were doing when they teed up a Homeland Security showdown. 'We did that so that we could have this fight on the president's [immigration] overreach,' she said. 'I think that this prohibition language is the best way to do that.' Rep. Poe's bill has the most momentum, however, with 21 co-sponsors signed on in just one day. (Roby's has none.) The House Judiciary Committee is expected to take up the measure, nicknamed 'The Separation of Powers Act,' in the coming days. WHICH?: House Speaker John Boehner will ultimately have to choose one of several legislative 'defund' proposals before the DHS budget expires on Feb. 28. It strips funding from effors 'to grant parole or deferred action to any alien other than for reasons permitted under current law' and 'to provide work permits or green cards to aliens who are currently unlawfully in the U.S.,' according to a press release. 'In his latest effort to completely rewrite our laws, the president has decided to grant amnesty and work permits to millions of foreign nationals,' Poe said. 'What this legislation would do, [it] would allow Congress to exercise its intended role, and "check" the out-of-control White House that has decided to simply pick and choose parts of the Constitution that they like.' Tennessee Rep. Diane Black, the bill's leading co-sponsor, called Obama's immigration plan an 'end-run around Congress.' 'By cutting off funding for the President’s lawless overreach,' she said, 'we can send a clear message that – despite his illusions – the president cannot simply make up his own laws.' Rep. Aderholt's bill would go further than the others, both telling DHS what it can't do and what it must do. In addition to defunding the White House's unilateral plan, it would restore the Secure Communities immigration enforcement plan – a system that Obama killed in November. Under Secure Communities, local law enforcement agencies shared fingerprints and other information on arrestees with federal immigration authorities, giving them a chance to start federal cases, often including deportation proceedings, against illegal immigrants. Cities and counties, predominantly those dominated by Democratic politicians, revolted against the plan. Several declared themselves'sanctuaries' and refused to honor so-called 'detainers' from Immigration and Customs Enforcement – orders to keep people locked up on immigration grounds past the time they would otherwise be released. Aderholt's bill would also force state and local governments to begin complying. DUELING ALABAMIANS: Republican Reps. Martha Roby (left) and Robert Aderholt (right) have separate measures pending in the House to push back against President Obama's planned immigration law changes. It 'not only defunds the president’s actions towards amnesty but also removes the president’s discretion in the ability to grant work permits, Social Security, and other federal benefits that go along with his order,' the Alabama lawmaker said in a statement. 'My legislation will also put limits on the president’s future ability to enact such wide-reaching actions that circumvent the Constitution’s separation of powers. It returns the legislative authority of our government back to the legislative branch.' 'I hope that Mr. Obama understands that the American people spoke very loudly during the election in November,' Aderholt jabbed, 'and want a new direction away from his liberal policies.' Rep. Marino's bill is the weakest of the five, limiting its impact to DHS funds that Congress has appropriated for the agency. The White House has said it can implement the president's immigration executive actions without new funds, however, relying on fees charged to people who apply for green cards and work permits. Rep Yoho's bill is the least likely to get a hearing: He was among the 25 conservative GOP lawmakers who revolted against House Speaker John Boehner on Tuesday, refusing to vote for his re-election to House leadership. The speaker's office has already begun retaliating against the cabal of right-wingers, dropping two of them from the influential House Rules Committee, which Boehner controls

Summary: Legislation aims to forbid the Dept. of Homeland Security from spending money to implement the White House's immigration executive orders. There could be a floor vote on at least one of the bills as soon as next week. Congress put DHS on a short leash in December, leaving it out of the federal budget and approving its funding only through February. The president would almost certainly veto any law that ties his hands as he aims to guarantee 5 million illegal immigrants that they won't be deported.

cnn_dailymail

en

Summarize: CROSS-REFERENCE TO RELATED APPLICATION [0001] This application claims the benefit of U.S. Provisional Patent Application No. 60/661,579, filed Mar. 14, 2005, the entire disclosure of which is hereby incorporated herein by reference. FIELD OF THE INVENTION [0002] The present invention relates generally to a cognitive and developmental device for infants, wherein the device provides a repetitive visual and tactile stimulus that facilitates infant development. DISCUSSION OF THE RELATED ART [0003] It has long been known that infants generally respond well to human faces, in particular to familiar faces. Applicants have discovered that combining one or more of such stimuli with other sensory stimuli, such as touch, creates a positive effect on an infant&#39;s cognitive and motor development, and is further promoted with repetitive exposure to such stimuli. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION [0004] The present invention provides a device that combines image-based stimulation, e.g. via a photograph of a human face, with other stimuli, in particular touch and/or taste. Such devices can be used to enhance an infant&#39;s cognitive abilities, including sensory/perceptual acuities, discriminations, and response; acquisition of object constancy; memory, learning, and problem solving; vocalization, beginning of verbal communication; basis of abstract thinking; habituation; mental mapping; and the like. In addition, such a device can be used to develop motor skills, including degree of body control, large muscle coordination, finer manipulatory skills of the hands and fingers, dynamic movement, dynamic praxis, postural imitation, and stereognosis. [0005] According to certain preferred embodiments of the present invention, a developmental device is provided in the form of a teething device specially configured as an image frame, e.g. for housing a photographic or holographic image of a familiar person or persons. The teething device has tactile attributes, such as those found in baby teethers. The teething device includes an outer teething ring constructed of a suitable resilient material, such as a firm rubber material, to be used to promote eruption and emergence of teeth from the infants gums. [0006] Optionally, the teething device is specially configured to be selectively repeatedly attachable to and detachable from a stand for supporting the teething device so that the teething device can be used as a picture frame to display a photograph/image in a manner similar to a self-standing table-mounted picture frame. [0007] The image of a familiar face attracts and holds the attention of the infant and will encourage the infant to use the tactile features of the device. Such tactile and visual stimuli facilitates the infant&#39;s cognitive and motor development. This embodiment of the device is generally intended for infant development from birth through the first year of his or her life. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS [0008] The present invention will now be described by way of example with reference to the following drawings in which: [0009] FIG. 1 is a top view of an exemplary teething device in accordance with a first embodiment of the present invention; [0010] FIG. 2 is an exploded front perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 1 ; [0011] FIG. 3 is an exploded rear perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 1 ; [0012] FIG. 4 is a top view of an exemplary teething device in accordance with a second embodiment of the present invention; [0013] FIG. 5 is a front perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 4 ; [0014] FIG. 6 is an exploded front perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 4 ; [0015] FIG. 7 is a rear perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 4 ; [0016] FIG. 8 is an exploded rear perspective view of the teething device of FIG. 4 ; [0017] FIG. 9 is a cross-sectional view of the teething device of FIG. 4 taken along line A-A′ of FIG. 7 ; [0018] FIG. 10 is a front view of a picture frame including the teething device of FIG. 5 mounted on a stand; [0019] FIG. 11 is a front perspective view of the picture frame of FIG. 10 ; [0020] FIG. 12 is a side perspective view of the picture frame of FIG. 10 ; [0021] FIG. 13 is a right side view of the picture frame of FIG. 10, the left side view being a mirror image thereof; and [0022] FIG. 14 is a rear perspective view of the picture frame of FIG. 10. DETAILED DESCRIPTION [0023] The present invention provides an infant developmental device including a teething device, and optionally an attachable stand to support the teething device as a table-mounted picture frame. [0024] Referring now to the exemplary embodiment of FIGS. 1-3, the teething device 10 is capable of housing an image object, such as a photograph, in an enclosed manner that protects the image object from an infant&#39;s saliva when the teething device is used as an infant teether to facilitate eruption and emergence of teeth from the infant&#39;s gums by having the infant chew on the teething device. [0025] As shown in FIGS. 1-3, the teething device 10 includes a teething ring 18 configured as a closed loop enclosing a central section. The teething ring is preferably constructed of a semi-firm material, such as rubber, an elastomeric polyethylene or other material of a type generally used for constructing infant teethers (collectively, a “rubbery material”). The teething ring 18 is preferably comprised of visually discrete segments, 18 a, 18 b, 18 c, 18 d, each of which is colored a respective one of four different easily distinguishable colors, such as red, blue, green and yellow. These colors provide visual stimulation to an infant user of the teething device 10. Preferably the teething ring 18 further includes a preferably continuous flange circumventing the central section. [0026] The teething device 10 further includes a backing plate 16 and a face plate 14 capable of sandwiching a substantially planar image bearing object, such as a photograph 12, therebetween. The face plate 14 includes a member 17 that is constructed of a transparent acrylic or other transparent, non-toxic plastic material. The transparent nature of the face plate allows the infant to view the photograph 12 while protecting the photograph from the infant&#39;s saliva or from other physical damage. The photograph is interchangeable by a parent, etc., and preferably the teething device is used to house a photograph of a person recognizable to the infant to further visually stimulate the infant particularly during use as a teether. [0027] The backing plate 16, face plate 14 and teething ring 18 are configured to interlock with one another to enclose the image object 12. In the exemplary embodiment of FIGS. 1-3, face plate 14 is provided with screw-receiving bosses, 14 a, 14 b, 14 c, 14 d that project from a surface of the face plate 14 through apertures 20 a, 20 b, 20 c, 20 d of the teething ring 18. Corresponding apertures 16 a, 16 b, 16 c, 16 d are provided in the backing plate 16 through which screws are passed to secure the backing plate 16 to the teething ring, a team and face plate 14, and sandwich therebetween the photograph/image object 12. Thus, the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 are secured to the teething ring 18 by attaching the two plates to each other with screws as they sandwich and enclose the image object, as best shown in FIGS. 2 and 3. More specifically, in this embodiment, the flange, which is made of a rubbery material, is squeezed between the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 to form a liquid-resistant seal, and thus protect the enclosed image object/photograph 12 from deteriorative effects of saliva, etc. The screws may subsequently be removed to separate the plates and replace the image object 12 with a different image object. [0028] Alternatively, the face plate 14 is connected to the backing plate 16 via other releasable connectors such as snaps, Velcroφ hook and loop fasteners, or the like. In highly preferred embodiments, the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 are attached to the teething ring 18 so as to create a seal to prevent in ingress of matter, such as saliva, that would be deteriorative to the photograph 12. [0029] Preferably, the teething device 10 further includes a mounting member that may be used to repeatedly and releasably mount the teething device 10 to a stand capable of supporting the teething device in a substantially upright position, i.e. with the image object 12 in a substantially vertical position much like a conventional table standing picture frame. In the exemplary embodiment of FIGS. 1-3, the mounting member is provided on the backing plate 16, although the mounting member could be provided on the teething ring 18. In the embodiment of FIGS. 1-3, the mounting member is provided as a mounting lug 30 having an overall spherical shape for receipt in a corresponding socket of the stand to form a ball and socket type joint, as best shown in FIG. 3. The exemplary spherical mounting lug 30 shown in FIG. 3 is sectioned so that it may be injection molded as a unitary body in a relatively inexpensive and straightforward manner, as shown in FIG. 3. [0030] An alternative embodiment of the teething device 10 is shown in FIGS. 4-9, in which components corresponding to components of the exemplary embodiment of FIGS. 1-3 are labeled with corresponding reference numerals. Referring now to FIGS. 4-9, the teething device 10 includes a similar segmented teething ring 18, as best shown in FIGS. 4 and 5. The teething device 10 further includes a transparent face plate 14 and a backing plate 16 that can be interconnected with the teething ring 18, while sandwiching a photograph or other image object 12 therebetween. [0031] Unlike the embodiment of FIGS. 1-3, no screws or other separate fasteners are required to interconnect the face plate 14, backing plate 16, and teething ring 18. Instead, the teething ring 18 is configured to define a groove 40 around its inside perimeter that is dimensioned to receive the face plate 14, the backing plate 16 and a substantially flat image object, such as a conventional photograph, as best shown in FIGS. 6, 8 and 9. [0032] The material used to construct the teething ring 18 is selected to be sufficiently stretchable and/or resiliently deformable to allow the teething ring 18 to be stretched around the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 until they seat in the groove 40, at which point the teething ring 18 is permitted to resile to capture the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 in the groove 40. [0033] Optionally, the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 may include complementary mounting fiducials to ensure positive engagement of the face plate 14 and backing plate 16 in proper alignment. In the exemplary embodiment shown in FIGS. 4-9, the face plate 14 includes a peripheral lip 13 extending beyond a planar surface of the face plate 14, as best shown in FIG. 8, and the backing plate 16 includes a peripheral recess 15 recessed below a planar surface of the backing plate 16, as best shown in FIG. 6. Various suitable alternative mounting fiducials may be employed, as will be appreciated by those skilled in the art. However, interfitting lip and recess fiducials that extend around the entire perimeter of the face plate 14 and backing plate 16, as shown in FIGS. 4-9, are preferred because of their ability to tightly enclose the image object and form a liquid-resistant seal protecting the image object from deteriorative effects of any saliva, etc. present during use of the teething device 10 as a teether. [0034] As will be noted from FIGS. 6-9, this exemplary embodiment includes a spherical mounting lug 30, similar to that described above with reference to FIGS. 1-3, for mounting the teething device 10 to a stand for use to display the image object 12 in a manner similar to that of a conventional picture frame. [0035] FIGS. 10-14 show the teething device 10 of FIGS. 4-9 mounted to a stand 40 for use to display the image object, 12 in a manner similar to that of a conventional picture frame. As shown in FIGS. 10-14, a picture frame 50 in accordance with the present invention includes a teething device 10, e.g. the teething device 10 of either FIGS. 1-3 or FIGS. 4-9, and a stand 40. [0036] Referring now to FIGS. 10-14, the stand 40 includes an upright support member 42 and a base 46. The base 46 has a cross-sectional area greater than that of the upright member, to promote stability in mounting the stand 40 on a flat surface such as a table, highchair tray, etc. In one embodiment, the base 46 is rigid, e.g. a hard plastic, member, that will stand securely on a flat surface. In an alternative embodiment, the base 46 is a supple member, e.g. a soft plastic or rubber member, capable of functioning as a suction cup to secure the stand 40 to a flat surface, such as a table or highchair tray. [0037] As best shown in FIGS. 13 and 14, the upright support member 42 defines toward its upper end opposite the base 46 a socket 44 capable of releasably receiving the mounting lug 30 of the teething device 10. In the exemplary embodiments shown, the socket 44 is preferably dimensioned to releasably receive the spherical mounting lug 30 of the teething device 10 in a manner permitting the mounting lug 30 to be snapped into the socket 44 and snapped out of the socket 44 with a moderate amount of manual force easily applied by an adult human. The socket 44 may be dimensioned as a partial sphere for this purpose. In other words, the mounting lug 30 and socket 44 and dimensioned for an interference fit to form a ball and socket joint. The ball and socket type joint allows for pivoting of the teething device 10 relative to the stand 50 to allow for positioning of the image object within an infant&#39;s field of view; thus providing visual stimulation. [0038] Optionally, the upright support member 42 includes a gooseneck or other flexible, selectively positionable portion so that the socket 44 may be adjustably positioned relative to the base 46. [0039] For example, this allows a parent to keep the teething device 10 mounted on the stand 40 to display the image object/photograph 12 as in a picture frame 50, and to subsequently remove the teething device 10 when desired to permit an infant child to hold the teething device 10 and use it as a teether to visually and physically stimulate the child, and to promote tooth/mouth development. [0040] While there have been described herein the principles of the invention, it is to be understood by those skilled in the art that this description is made only by way of example and not as a limitation to the scope of the invention. Accordingly, it is intended by the appended claims, to cover all modifications of the invention which fall within the true spirit and scope of the invention.

Summary: A development-promoting device for infants that combines image-based stimulation with other sensory stimuli. The device includes a teething device usable as a teething ring by an infant. The teething device is capable of housing a photograph, such as a photograph of parents. The teething device is constructed to prevent saliva from deteriorating a photograph held by the teething device when the teething device is being used as a teether. The teething device is mountable to a stand, at which point a picture frame is formed for displaying the teething device&#39;s photograph. The stand may include a suction cup to provide tip-resistant mounting of the picture frame to a smooth surface, such as a highchair&#39;s tray.

big_patent

en

Summarize: By. Reuters. and Daily Mail Reporter. PUBLISHED:. 23:08 EST, 4 February 2014. |. UPDATED:. 17:08 EST, 5 February 2014. Yet another winter storm bore down on the East Coast on Wednesday, threatening to dump up to a foot of snow, causing treacherous travel conditions and leaving nearly a million people without power. Around 120 million Americans were in the path of the storm as it moved from the lower Great Lakes eastward to central New England, where residents can expect to see ample snowfall before the system moves out to sea by Wednesday evening, meteorologists said. 'It's. going to be a mess,' Rich Thompson with the National Weather Service. said. 'The heavy snow is going to be up toward Boston and inland from. the Coast.' Scroll down for video. Helping hand: A man carries a girl with an injured foot across a snowy street in New York City on Wednesday. Stuck: Ed Brown digs his car out the snow in West Lafayette, Indiana after heavy snow hit on Wednesday. Smash: A downed tree covered in ice lays atop a minivan after a winter storm in Philadelphia. Mess: Emergency personnel prepare to clear a fallen tree from in Middletown Township, Pennsylvania. A day after the storm pounded the. nation's mid-section, there was a mix of snow, sleet and freezing rain. hitting a swath north of Washington, D.C. through New York City, with. growing snowfall in Boston and parts of New England. In New Jersey, a. state of emergency was declared. Residents in Chicago - where the economy has been hard hit by this year's winter storms - are set to endure their 31st day of snow. More than 120 million people in 32 states. were in the path of the storm, which threatened to cut power, cancel. flights and snarl traffic, NBC reported. Already, 900,000 people are without power. More than 3,000 flights have been canceled as slushy snow and ice blankets runways, with New York-area airports and Boston's Logan International Airport hardest hit, FlightStats reported. Storm: This NOAA satellite image taken on Wednesday morning shows a developing storm system over much of the Eastern half of the United States, which is expected to be pummeled with more snow. New storm: A map shows that the Northeast will be heaviest hit by snowfall, with up to 12 inches. Freezing: The Northeast is enduring freezing temperatures, slush snow and ice after days of snow. Winter storm: A map shows the severe wind chill and winter weather alerts in place across the country. Blocked: Commuters walk through the MTA Subway at 42nd Street/Times Square in New York City on Wednesday after there were delays with some of the trains due to inclement weather. Shut down: A power failure shut down the 1-2-3 line in New York City on Wednesday morning. Residents and state officials were. taking precautions, with officials postponing legislative work and. closing schools. Schools in Providence, Rhode Island, were ordered. closed on Wednesday. The. National Weather Service issued a winter storm warning for New York. City lasting until 6 pm on Wednesday, while Con Edison warned residents. that the snow and freezing rain could spark power cuts across the city. New Jersey Governor Chris Christie. declared a state of emergency and ordered state offices closed on. Wednesday for all non-essential workers. 'I. encourage all New Jerseyans to drive carefully and remain off the roads. if possible so that our first responders and public safety officials. can safely respond to any emergency situations,' Christie said in a. written statement. Covered: A front end loader clears snow from intersections in Hutchison, Kansas on Tuesday. Slush: Men shovel a snowy sidewalk in the Greenwich Village neighborhood of New York on Wednesday. Frozen: A woman uses an umbrella against the freezing rain as she passes the New York Stock Exchange. Wet snow: A nanny pushed a child through a slushy intersection at Union Square in New York City. Buried: Bikes sit covered in snow near Union Square in New York, where snow and icy rain fell Wednesday. Ice: A bird perches next to ice covered sneakers hanging from utility lines in Philadelphia. More than 2,000 U.S. flights were. canceled early on Wednesday morning, with more than 250 delayed,. according to Flightaware.com, a website that tracks air traffic. It adds to the 8,000 flights that were delayed across. the country by Tuesday afternoon, and more than 1,640 that were canceled,. according to Flightaware.com, a website that tracks air traffic. A. second patch of snowfall that was approaching Cleveland and Detroit. would likely move across to the New York and New England areas later in. the day, Thompson said. New. York issued a hazardous travel advisory for Wednesday and Mayor Bill de. Blasio told residents to prepare for a difficult commute. The storm set up Monday night over. southwestern Kansas and was peaking over Kansas City on Tuesday. More. than 7 inches (18 cm) of snow had fallen in the Kansas City area by the. early evening. Long wait: Traffic backs up after a tree fell across U.S. 1 in Langhorne, Bucks County, Pennsylvania. Fallen: A woman clears snow near a downed tree limb after the storm hit Philadelphia on Wednesday. Snow trail: Passers-by in Walpole, Massachusetts use umbrellas while walking through snow. Brave: Dan Hazelwood goes for a run in the Public Garden during a winter storm in Boston, Massachusetts. Thick snow: Andrew Pyliotis shovels snow in front of his gas station in Norwood, Massachusetts. White out: Snow piles up on a dock in a frozen pond in Carmel, Indiana after eight inches of snow fell. This. event is uncommon, said NWS meteorologist Dan Hawblitzel, as only about. 3 percent of the winter storms that hit Kansas City total more than six. inches of snow. Kansas Governor Sam Brownback declared a state of 'disaster emergency' on Tuesday. Authorities in Kansas and neighboring Missouri advised residents to stay in their homes and the National Weather Service (NWS) warned of 'extremely difficult travel conditions'. 'Kansas. City and eastern Kansas is going to get a lot of snow,' said Greg. Carbin, meteorologist for the NWS Storm Prediction Center. 'It's. remarkable weather. Winter is entrenched. It doesn't appear to be. wanting to go anywhere.' Interstate 70, a key road artery connecting Kansas City and St. Louis, Missouri, was closed in both directions for part of the day Tuesday near Columbia, Missouri, after poor visibility and slippery conditions caused several tractor-trailers to collide, according to the Missouri State Highway Patrol. Blanketed: New York City's Central Park, photographed on Tuesday, is under. several inches of snow as another winter storm has the Big Apple in its. cross-hairs. Warm work: Facilities Manager Richard Henning shovels snow at the Castle Museum in Saginaw, Michigan. Precautions: Cities across the Northeast are preparing for the worst, in many cases closing schools and offices in preparation for the storm. Winter wonderland: Julia Pollock wears snow shoes to take her goldendoodles, Cody and Bond, for a walk in the fresh snow on Wednesday in Shaker Heights, Ohio. The threat of snow remained on the East Coast and in the Midwest as the brutal winter weather continued. Numerous additional accidents were reported in Missouri as cars skidded off slick highways. Icy. conditions were wreaking havoc in Arkansas, with. multiple accidents reported on major traffic arteries, said Arkansas. highway officials. Also on Tuesday, Connecticut Gov. Dannel Malloy postponed his state of the state address. He said the impending storm was also causing state legislative leaders to push back by a day the start of the joint legislative session. 'While I hope the storm is not as bad as predictions suggest, I also don't want to put anyone in harm's way,' Gov. Malloy said in a statement announcing the delay. The incoming snow comes after a fast-moving winter storm hit the Northeast on Monday, forcing flight cancellations throughout the region and tying up road traffic the day after the NFL's Super Bowl. On Sunday, the famed groundhog 'Punxsutawney Phil' emerged from his burrow in the small Pennsylvania town, saw his shadow and - as the legend goes - predicted six more weeks of winter

Summary: More than 120 million people in 32 states are in the path of latest storm and already more than 900,000 have lost their power. The Northeast was hit with another foot of snow overnight on Tuesday. The New York area is expected to be pummeled with as many as 7. inches of snow followed by rain, freezing rain and sleet. Already more than 3,000 flights have been canceled and schools and government buildings have been closed.

cnn_dailymail

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Write a title and summarize: Orthodoxe Kirchen (von altgriechisch o orthos,aufrecht, richtig' und oa doxa,Verehrung, Glaube'; also,der richtige Lobpreis oder die rechte Lehre Gottes'; russisch paocaa epo pravoslavnaja cerkov; serbisch paocaa pa (Pravoslavna crkva); bulgarisch paocaa pa; rumänisch Biserica Ortodoxa) oder byzantinisch-orthodoxe Kirchen sind die vorreformatorischen Kirchen des byzantinischen Ritus. Sie sind dabei von Beginn an sowohl katholisch als auch apostolisch in der Nachfolge der Apostel (traditio apostolica). Die selbstverwalteten Ostkirchen sind teilweise Nationalkirchen und weisen kulturelle Unterschiede auf, stehen jedoch in Kirchengemeinschaft miteinander. Angehörige der orthodoxen Kirchen verstehen sich als Einheit und sprechen daher meist von der Kirche der Orthodoxie im Singular. Die orthodoxen Kirchen bilden mit ca. 300 Millionen Angehörigen die zweitgrößte christliche Gemeinschaft der Welt. Sie sind zu unterscheiden von den altorientalischen Kirchen (auch orientalisch-orthodox) und den katholischen Ostkirchen, die größtenteils von byzantinischen Kirchen abstammen. Nach theologischem, christlich-orthodoxem Selbstverständnis ist die Orthodoxe Kirche "Vereinigung alles Seienden, dazu bestimmt, alles was da ist, Gott und die Schöpfung, in sich zusammenzuschließen. Sie ist die Erfüllung des ewigen Planes Gottes: die All-Einheit. In ihr ist Ewiges da und Zeitliches Die Kirche ist der Leib Christi, " == Bezeichnung Alle heutigen autokephal-nationalen orthodoxen Kirchen auf dem Balkan, in Griechenland, Kleinasien, Syrien und Russland entstanden im hellenistischen Kulturraum oder wurden von dorther gegründet und standen bis zur muslimischen Eroberung Konstantinopels im Jahre 1453 unter der Verwaltung der byzantinischen Reichskirche. Von ihnen zu unterscheiden sind einerseits die mit der römisch-katholischen Kirche unierten Kirchen östlicher Riten, andererseits die sogenannten altorientalischen Kirchen. Zusammenfassend werden orthodoxe, unierte und altorientalische Kirchen oft als Ostkirche bezeichnet. Der Begriff Ostkirche ist dabei lediglich ein geografischer Sammelbegriff und bezeichnet nicht eine als Einheit verstandene Gruppe von Kirchen, da beispielsweise die orthodoxen Kirchen mit den unierten Kirchen nicht in Kommuniongemeinschaft stehen. In den orthodoxen Kirchen werden verschiedene Bezeichnungen verwendet, die die orthodoxe Identität ausdrücken: orthodoxe Kirche, orthodoxe katholische Kirche, östlich-orthodoxe Kirche, Ostkirche, griechisch-orthodoxe Kirche (Letzteres bezieht sich in diesem Fall nicht auf Griechenland, sondern auf den griechischen Kulturraum, in dem die Kirche entstanden ist). === Sonstige Bezeichnungen im deutschsprachigen Raum Griechisch-Orientalisch ist in Österreich ein rechtlicher Sammelbegriff für die russischen, serbischen, rumänischen, bulgarischen und griechischen Gemeinden (die kirchlich von dem jeweiligen Patriarchat abhängen). Im Fürstentum Liechtenstein lautet der entsprechende rechtliche Sammelbegriff "christlich-orthodox". === Selbstbezeichnung Die eigentliche Bezeichnung aus Sicht der orthodoxen Kirche selbst ist im Glaubensbekenntnis genannt: (in Griechisch) ia, ia, ao a oo ia, wörtlich: die eine, heilige, allumfassende und apostolische Kirche. Oft wird das Wort "allumfassend" mit "katholisch" wiedergegeben. Die Bezeichnung Konfession ist der Orthodoxie eher fremd. Begriffe wie griechisch-orthodox oder russisch-orthodox sollten nach Meinung einiger Autoren für die Konfession nicht verwendet werden, da sich orthodoxe Christen nicht als "russisch-orthodox" oder "bulgarisch-orthodox" verstehen, auch nicht als "Teil der einen Kirche" (da ja Jesus Christus auch nicht die Summe einzelner Teile ist, sondern eine unteilbare Einheit), sondern als unmittelbaren Ausdruck der "ganzen einen Kirche". Das hindert die Gläubigen aber nicht daran, jeweils durch Ort, nationale Zugehörigkeit, Sprache und Tradition z. B. an die russische orthodoxe Kirche oder die bulgarische orthodoxe Kirche gebunden zu sein. Die Bezeichnungen griechisch-katholisch oder griechische Kirche für die Orthodoxie sind historisch (18., 19. Jh.). Heute bezeichnet "griechisch-katholisch" die wieder rom-unierten byzantinischen Riten. == Geschichte === Ursprünge Die kirchlichen Traditionen und Lehren der orthodoxen Kirchen gehen auf Jesus Christus zurück und fanden ihre volle Ausprägung im byzantinischen Reich mit dessen Zentrum Byzanz bzw. Konstantinopel. Deshalb spricht man auch von der "griechischen Kirche" im Gegensatz zur lateinischen Kirche bzw. römischen Kirche. Der Sammelbegriff Ostkirchen ist, vor allem in Westeuropa, ebenfalls gebräuchlich, schließt aber auch andere im östlichen Mittelmeerraum beheimatete Kirchen ein, die sich theologisch oder liturgisch von der Orthodoxie byzantinischer Tradition unterscheiden - nämlich die meist in der Neuzeit entstandenen "katholischen Ostkirchen", die seit dem Konzil von Chalkedon von der Reichskirche getrennten altorientalischen Kirchen (die auch als orientalisch-orthodoxe oder als monophysitische bzw. miaphysitische Kirchen bezeichnet werden, im Fall der syrisch-orthodoxen Kirche auch als "Jakobiten") sowie die Apostolische Kirche des Ostens (die auch als nestorianische Kirche bezeichnet wird). Bei den orthodoxen Kirchen handelt es sich um eine Gruppe von Kirchen, die in Kirchenverständnis, Lehre und Kult weitgehend übereinstimmen und ein starkes Zusammengehörigkeitsgefühl haben. Sie betrachten sich nicht jeweils als Teil einer einzigen Kirche, sondern als unmittelbaren Ausdruck der einen Kirche. Sie erheben den Anspruch, sich im Unterschied zu den westlichen Kirchen dogmatisch ausschließlich an den Beschlüssen der sieben ökumenischen Konzile zwischen 325 und 787 zu orientieren. Bibel- und Liturgiesprache der Orthodoxie ist die jeweilige Landessprache oder eine ältere Form derselben, wie etwa Altgriechisch oder Kirchenslawisch, eine alte slawische Sprachform. Außer der griechischen Tradition ist bei den orthodoxen Kirchen des byzantinischen Ritus vor allem die slawische bedeutend, da slawische Gebiete im frühen Mittelalter das Christentum besonders von Byzanz übernahmen und sich auch später eher auf Konstantinopel als auf Rom bezogen. Eine weitere bedeutende Kulturgruppe in der Orthodoxie bilden die aramäischen Christen. === Moderne Die orthodoxen Kirchen sind nach der römisch-katholischen Kirche die zweitgrößte christliche Konfession, gefolgt von den Kirchen der Anglikanischen Gemeinschaft, der Weltgemeinschaft Reformierter Kirchen und des Lutherischen Weltbundes. Nur die Pfingstbewegung wäre noch größer, der nach Angaben des US-amerikanischen International Bulletin of Missionary Research 2011 271 Millionen Menschen angehörten. Um 1830 hatten die Orthodoxen (seinerzeit "Griechischen Kirchen") etwa 34 Millionen Angehörige, die "Orientalischen Häretiker", wie man katholischerseits sagte, etwa 10 Millionen Gläubige (also zusammen 45 Millionen "Orientalen"); die "Occidentalen" waren 175 Millionen, davon 120 Millionen Katholiken mit den unierten Griechen. Damit stellte die Orthodoxie seinerzeit 16 der um 200 Millionen Christen und 3 % der Weltbevölkerung (seinerzeit auf 1 Milliarde geschätzt). Die großen Migrationsbewegungen seit der zweiten Hälfte des 20. Jahrhunderts ließen in den meisten Ländern der Welt orthodoxe Diasporagemeinden der verschiedenen Landeskirchen entstehen. Diese Entwicklung verstärkte den bereits 1902 angestoßenen Vorbereitungsprozess für ein allorthodoxes Konzil. Im März 2014 wurde dieses Konzil für 2016 in Istanbul angekündigt. Infolge von Spannungen zwischen Russland und der Türkei berief eine allorthodoxe Versammlung im Januar 2016 das Panorthodoxe Konzil für den 18. bis 26. Juni 2016 nach Heraklion auf Kreta ein, wo 156 Delegierte aus zehn autokephalen Kirchen teilnahmen und vier Kirchen abgesagt hatten: die Patriarchate von Antiochien, Georgien, Bulgarien und Russland. == Organisation Beispiele für die einzelnen Organisationstypen siehe Liste der Ostkirchen. Dieser Artikel ist eine Liste mit (nach Möglichkeit) allen orthodoxen Kirchen, die meist auch eigene Artikel haben, die dort verlinkt sind. === Kanonische Kirchen Die orthodoxen Kirchen unterscheiden zwischen kanonischen und nicht-kanonischen Kirchen. Kanonische Kirchen sind autokephale und autonome Kirchen, die in voller Kommunion mit dem ökumenischen Patriarchat von Konstantinopel und den anderen kanonischen Kirchen stehen. Nicht-kanonische Kirchen haben sich irgendwann aus theologischen oder politischen Gründen von der Kommunion mit dem ökumenischen Patriarchat oder einer kanonischen Kirche getrennt. Im Verständnis der kanonischen orthodoxen Kirchen stehen nur diese selbst in der vollen apostolischen Sukzession, weshalb nur in ihnen die ganze Fülle der Sakramente zu finden sei. Theologische Aussagen über andere Kirchen und den Heils- oder Unheilsstatus ihrer Mitglieder werden in der orthodoxen Kirche jedoch so weit wie möglich vermieden. === Autokephale und autonome Kirchen In den orthodoxen Kirchen wird zwischen autokephalen und autonomen Kirchen unterschieden. Autokephale Kirchen sind rechtlich und geistlich völlig selbständig und wählen ihr Oberhaupt selbst. Ihnen unterstehen mitunter weitere Kirchen oder Diözesen in anderen Ländern (besonders den Patriarchaten von Konstantinopel und Moskau). Autonome Kirchen sind zwar bezüglich innerer Angelegenheiten bis zu einem gewissen Grade auch selbstständig, aber in mancher Hinsicht von einer anderen autokephalen Kirche abhängig. Eine autokephale Kirche kann, je nach Größe und historischer Bedeutung, den Titel Patriarchat, Erzbistum oder Metropolie tragen und wird entsprechend von einem Patriarchen, Erzbischof oder Metropoliten geleitet. An der Spitze einer autonomen Kirche steht ein Erzbischof oder ein Metropolit. === Verschiedene orthodoxe Kirchen in Westeuropa und Nordamerika Die verschiedenen orthodoxen Gemeinden in Westeuropa und Nordamerika sind jeweils oft der heimatlichen Kirche oder auch dem Ökumenischen Patriarchat von Konstantinopel unterstellt. Dies widerspricht eigentlich dem orthodoxen Kirchenrecht, nach dem in jedem Gebiet nur eine orthodoxe Kirche existieren soll. Dies wird aber wegen der besonderen Situation der großen Zahlen an Migranten mit Bedarf an muttersprachlicher Seelsorge kat' oikonomian erduldet. Ein zweites Argument hierfür ist, dass man in einem seit alters her römisch-katholischen Gebiet keine vollgültige Parallelkirche errichten möchte, da ja (wie weiter unten erklärt wird) die Orthodoxen solches umgekehrt auch in ihren eigenen Ländern ablehnen. === Rechtliche Stellung der Bischöfe In den orthodoxen Kirchen sind alle Bischöfe rechtlich und geistlich gleichgestellt; ein Patriarch, Metropolit oder Erzbischof hat gegenüber einem Bischof keine höhere Autorität und keine Jurisdiktion im Gebiet eines anderen Bischofs, steht den Bischöfen seines Gebiets aber als Primus inter pares (Erster unter Gleichen) vor und vertritt die Kirche nach außen. Für eine ganze Kirche bindende Entschlüsse können aber nur von der Gemeinschaft der Bischöfe an einem Konzil oder einer Synode getroffen werden. Innerhalb seines Gebiets hat jeder Bischof die geistliche Jurisdiktion. === Kirchenverständnis Die orthodoxen Kirchen verstehen sich als die ursprüngliche Kirche, von der sich alle übrigen Kirchen im Laufe der Geschichte abgespalten bzw. entfernt hätten (so auch die römisch-katholische Kirche). Daher verstehen sich die orthodoxen Kirchen auch als geistliche Heimat aller Christen in ihren jeweiligen Gebieten und sehen mit Befremden auf die zahlreichen evangelischen Konfessionen, insbesondere wenn diese auf dem eigenen Gebiet Parallelkirchen eröffnen. Auch für die Errichtung von Unierten Kirchen in Einheit mit Rom und von Bistümern der lateinischen Kirche in orthodoxen Ländern herrscht wenig Verständnis. Vor allem die russisch-orthodoxe Kirche verteidigt ihr kanonisches Territorium und wirft der römisch-katholischen Kirche Proselytismus vor. Aus katholischer Perspektive gesehen wird hingegen auf Gläubige der römisch-katholischen Kirche Druck ausgeübt, damit sie sich der Orthodoxie zuwenden. Die orthodoxen Kirchen betonen den Wert der Einheit des Christentums, fast alle von ihnen haben sich dem Ökumenischen Rat der Kirchen angeschlossen und führen einen ökumenischen Dialog zwecks Annäherung mit der römisch-katholischen, den altkatholischen, den anglikanischen und evangelischen sowie den anderen orientalischen Kirchen. Sie lehnen es andererseits ab, sich durch Mehrheitsbeschluss Werte und Praktiken aufzwingen zu lassen, die nicht ihren Traditionen entsprechen (beispielsweise Frauenordination, Interkommunion, inklusive Sprache in der Liturgie, Befreiungstheologie). === Weihe und Amt Das Sakrament der Handauflegung (Cheirotonie), das Weihesakrament, ist in drei Stufen aufgeteilt: Diakonat, Presbyterat und Episkopat. Die Weihe zum Priester und Bischof können nur Männer empfangen, die sakramentale Weihe zum Diakon ist prinzipiell auch Frauen möglich (Diakonissin), in der Praxis jedoch sehr selten. Lediglich Bischöfe, die meist (fast immer) Mönche sind, sind zum Zölibat verpflichtet. Auch verwitwete Priester können zum Bischof gewählt und geweiht werden. Priester und Diakone dürfen verheiratet sein, allerdings muss die Eheschließung vor der Weihe zum Diakon erfolgt sein. Wenn sie Witwer werden oder sich von ihrer Frau trennen, besteht keine Möglichkeit für eine zweite Heirat, denn in der Orthodoxie gilt ebenso wie im Katholizismus, dass die Priesterweihe ein Ehehindernis darstellt. Neben dem Weihesakrament kennen die orthodoxen Kirchen auch die sogenannten niederen Weihen (Cheirotesie) zum Lektorat und zum Subdiakonat (Hypodiakonat). Auch die Mönchsweihe wird als eigenes Sakrament betrachtet. Die Ämter sind in eine kirchliche Hierarchie eingebunden: An der Spitze steht der Patriarch oder Metropolit (= Erzbischof) als Primus inter pares im Kollegium der Bischöfe (griech. ioo episkopos, eigentlich Aufseher oder Vorarbeiter). Dem Bischof unterstellt sind die Priester (griech. uo presbyteros, eigentl. Älterer), die zuweilen den Ehrentitel "Erzpriester" (griech. auo archipresbyteros) führen, und die Diakone (griech. aovo diakonos, eigentl. Helfer oder Tischdiener). Die im Deutschen verwendete Bezeichnung Pope für den Priester ist durchaus üblich und prinzipiell als neutral zu verstehen. Bisweilen wird ihr aber auch eine herabsetzende Konnotation zugeschrieben. Subdiakon, Lektor, Kantor und Türhüter sind weitere Ämter ohne sakramentale Weihe, die ihren Ursprung in der frühchristlichen Liturgie haben, heute aber zum Teil andere Funktionen haben als die Namen nahelegen. Die Diakonissen waren hauptsächlich für die Vorbereitung und Assistenz bei der Taufe von Frauen zuständig - es galt als ungeziemend, wenn ein männlicher Priester eine Frau bei der Taufe im Wasser berührte, ferner waren sie während der Messe für die Spendung der heiligen Kommunion zuständig. Diakonissen können sowohl sakramental, als auch nicht sakramental geweiht werden, wobei eine sakramentale Weihe heute im Gegensatz zur byzantinischen Zeit sehr selten ist. Das Diakonissenamt wurde unter anderem mit der Abnahme der Erwachsenentaufen immer unbedeutender, so dass es nach dem Ende des byzantinischen Reiches nahezu verschwand. In seltenen Fällen wurden aber auch in der Neuzeit Diakonissen sakramental geweiht, so zum Beispiel vom Heiligen Nektarios. In einigen orthodoxen Kirchen wird heute über eine allgemeine Wiedereinführung diskutiert, bisher jedoch ohne konkrete Ergebnisse. Seit 2004 sind jedoch in der orthodoxen Kirchen in Griechenland, soweit der jeweilige Ortsbischof einverstanden ist, Diakonissen durch Entscheid des Heiligen Synods zugelassen. Im Gegensatz zu westlichen Kirchen sind in der orthodoxen Kirche traditionell die meisten Theologen, in deren Hand auch ein großer Teil der Lehre liegt, Laien und nicht Kleriker, und umgekehrt die Mehrzahl der Priester keine Theologen; die Priesterausbildung ist manchmal kurz und praxisorientiert, sie findet nicht an Universitäten statt. Sozialdienste gelten ebenfalls als Aufgabe vor allem der Laien, in mehrheitlich orthodoxen Ländern auch als Aufgabe des Staates, nicht als Aufgabe der kirchlichen Hierarchie. Auch die Mönche sind nur selten Priester. Ordensgemeinschaften wie in der Westkirche gibt es in der Orthodoxie nicht, sondern jedes einzelne Kloster ist nach innen und außen selbständig. Allerdings gibt es oft eine informelle Zusammenarbeit zwischen Klöstern mit ähnlicher geistlicher Orientierung und gemeinsamer Gründungstradition. Während verschiedene Ordenstraditionen der lateinischen Kirche grobe Entsprechungen im orthodoxen Bereich haben, werden die Bettelorden als Entartung abgelehnt. Mit Ausnahme der relativ seltenen Weihe von Diakonissen, gibt es keine Frauenordination. Frauen können prinzipiell sämtliche Funktionen in der Gemeinde mit Ausnahme des Altardienstes ausüben, zum Beispiel Kirchenrat, Chorleitung, Lektorendienst, katechetischen Unterricht erteilen (auch für Erwachsene), Ikonen malen - je nach lokaler Kultur ist die Beteiligung der Frauen am Gemeindeleben jedoch unterschiedlich. Die Ehefrau des Priesters hat eine Sonderstellung in der Gemeinde und einen speziellen Titel, arabisch Khouria und griechisch ua, Presbytera (Älteste), oder russisch Matuschka (Mama). Laut Kirchenrecht darf sie vor Eingehen der Ehe mit einem Priester nicht geschieden sein. === Kirche und Staat Die orthodoxe Kirche pflegt in den meisten Ländern Osteuropas eine harmonische Symphonia zum Staat, einen "Zusammenklang", dies im Gegensatz zur heutigen Trennung von Kirche und Staat in den katholisch oder evangelisch geprägten Staaten Westeuropas. == Theologie Die Theologie der orthodoxen Kirchen ähnelt in vieler Hinsicht derjenigen der römisch-katholischen Kirche, im Detail gibt es allerdings diverse kleine Unterschiede. So sind nach römisch-katholischer Lehre die Kirchenväter der katholischen und orthodoxen Kirche dieselben, da sich die Trennung erst 1054, also aus römisch-katholischer Sicht lange nach dem Tode des letzten Kirchenvaters vollzog. Die Orthodoxen selbst kennen allerdings keine zeitliche Abgrenzung des Begriffs Kirchenvater, sondern sie bezeichnen auch herausragende Theologen späterer Zeiten so. Viele frühe westliche Theologen hatten die römische juristisch-rhetorische Ausbildungstradition durchlaufen und gingen mit Denkkategorien aus der Rechtspflege, wie etwa Verbrechen, Strafe und Begnadigung, an die theologischen Fragestellungen heran. In der östlichen Kirche war dies so nicht der Fall; sie hatte eine größere Anzahl von frühen "Vätern" recht unterschiedlicher ethnischer, sozialer und beruflicher Herkunft, die je einzeln betrachtet jedoch deutlich weniger bemerkenswert und prägend waren als die westlichen. Die östliche Theologie neigt dazu, in medizinischen Kategorien zu denken, wie beispielsweise Krankheit und Heilung. Sie ist auch stärker subjektivistisch geprägt und kann mit der objektivierenden aristotelischen Methode weniger anfangen als die westliche Theologie. Ein weiterer Hauptunterschied ist vermutlich, dass die Orthodoxen insgesamt eine weniger positive Sicht der "heidnischen" griechischen Philosophie haben - vor allem fehlt die im Katholizismus sehr verbreitete Hochschätzung des Aristoteles - und somit auch deren Denkweise weniger als ein geeignetes Vehikel der christlichen Theologie sehen als die Katholiken, obwohl eine bedeutende orthodoxe Dogmatik von dem Aristoteliker Johannes von Damaskus verfasst worden ist, der in dieser Hinsicht aber eine Ausnahme darstellt. Gegenüber der Philosophie in griechischer Tradition werden von den Orthodoxen das Erbe Israels und die direkte spirituelle Erfahrung stärker betont. Daraus ergibt sich, dass viele Bereiche der Theologie bewusst im Vagen gelassen werden; beispielsweise wird bei der Eucharistie zwar eine "Veränderung" der Elemente bekannt, die Lehre von der Transsubstantiation aber abgelehnt, und auch die Mariologie ist in der Orthodoxie zwar in der Liturgie klar vorhanden, aber kaum formell dogmatisiert. Der griechischstämmige amerikanische Baptist James J. Stamoolis fasste die wesentlichen theologischen Unterschiede zwischen Ost und West im Jahr 1986 in seinem Buch "Eastern Orthodox Mission Theology Today" so zusammen: die Orthodoxe Kirche teile nicht das Menschenbild des Augustinus von Hippo noch die Erlösungslehre des Anselm von Canterbury noch die Methodik des Thomas von Aquin. In den orthodoxen Kirchen basiert die Textausgabe des Alten Testaments auf der Septuaginta und umfasst einen umfangreicheren Schriftenkanon, der allerdings nie formell definiert worden ist und auch kleine Abweichungen zwischen den einzelnen orthodoxen Kirchen kennt. Neben den auch von der römisch-katholischen Kirche anerkannten Spätschriften des Alten Testaments werden im Allgemeinen auch das 3. Buch Esra (1 Esdras), das 3. Buch der Makkabäer und der sogenannte 151. Psalm als kanonisch betrachtet; das 4. Buch der Makkabäer erscheint oft als Anhang, das 4. Buch Esra (2 Esdras, nicht zu verwechseln mit der Esra-Apokalypse) nur teilweise in den slawischen Kirchen, und ohne die wahrscheinlich von Christen nachträglich hinzugefügten Anfangs- und Schlusskapitel der lateinischen Version dieses Buches. Die Spiritualität (im engeren Sinn) der orthodoxen Christenheit ist geprägt durch die Lehren der Wüstenväter und weist bestimmte Grundkonstanten auf, innerhalb derer es wenige allgemeine Variationen gibt. Im Zentrum orthodoxer Spiritualität steht das Ziel der Errettung durch die Theosis, also durch die Vergottung des einzelnen. Nach westlichen Maßstäben ist die ostkirchliche Spiritualität als kontemplativ zu bezeichnen. Charakteristisch sind das repetitive Gebet, wie das Jesusgebet, die Ikonenverehrung und Hymnen. == Sakramente Die orthodoxen Kirchen kennen sieben Mysterien (= Sakramente): Die Siebenzahl wurde erst um die Reformationszeit von der katholischen Kirche übernommen, um sich von protestantisierenden Tendenzen in den eigenen Reihen abzugrenzen und ist nicht dogmatisch festgelegt; eine klare Abgrenzung zwischen Sakramenten und Sakramentalien (wie beispielsweise Begräbnis und Wasserweihe) gibt es im Gegensatz zur katholischen Kirche nicht. Da die Myronsalbung und die Erstkommunion unmittelbar nach der Taufe empfangen werden, kennt die orthodoxe Kirche im Gegensatz zu den meisten Religionen der Welt kein Übergangsritual, das meist an der Schwelle des Übergang vom Kind zum Erwachsenen steht; es gibt aber viele lokale Traditionen dieser Art, in Rumänien und in Teilen Griechenlands, Serbiens und Bulgariens etwa das Tauchen und Heraufholen eines Kreuzes aus einem eiskalten Fluss durch Jugendliche am Tag der Taufe Christi, dem Theophaniefest am 6. Januar. == Byzantinische Liturgie Im Mittelpunkt der orthodoxen Spiritualität steht die reiche, hauptsächlich gesungene Liturgie voller Symbolik, deren heutige Form größtenteils bis ins 4. Jahrhundert zurückgeht, in ihrer Grundstruktur wohl sogar bis ins 1. und 2. Jahrhundert. Im orthodoxen Sprachgebrauch bedeutet Liturgie (Russ.: yp) vor allem den eucharistischen Gottesdienst. Andere liturgische Handlungen heißen einfach Gottesdienst (Russ.: ya). Die Form des ersten Teils der Liturgie, die sogenannte Liturgie der Katechumenen mit Lesungen und Gebeten (Ektenien), geht auf den jüdischen Synagogengottesdienst zurück, wie er zur Zeit Jesu üblich war, während der zweite Teil, die Liturgie der Gläubigen (Eucharistiefeier), im Wesentlichen christlichen Ursprungs ist, auch wenn manche hier Anleihen beim jüdischen Tempelgottesdienst sehen; dies ist aber kaum zu beweisen, da viele Details des Tempelgottesdienstes heute nicht mehr bekannt sind. Die Namen beziehen sich darauf, dass früher alle noch nicht getauften Glaubensanwärter nach der Liturgie der Katechumen die Kirche verlassen mussten ("Arkandisziplin"). In dem dreigeteilten Kirchenraum - bestehend aus Vorhalle, Kirchenschiff und Altarraum - durften sich Büßer und Katechumen nur in der Vorhalle (Narthex) aufhalten. === Arten Dem orthodoxen Kirchenverständnis nach ist Kirche überall dort, wo Eucharistie gefeiert wird. Jede christliche Gemeinde, die sich um ihren Bischof oder den von ihm beauftragten Priester zur Eucharistiefeier versammelt, erfährt die lebendige Gegenwart Jesu Christi und durch ihn die Gemeinschaft mit dem dreifaltigen Gott, mit den Engeln und mit der großen Schar der Heiligen. Die Gemeinde der Gläubigen wird durch den Empfang der eucharistischen Gaben zum Leib Christi. Die ursprüngliche Liturgie dauerte fünf Stunden, die Basilius-Liturgie dauert etwa zweieinhalb, die Chrysostomos-Liturgie ab dem 11. Jahrhundert etwa eineinhalb Stunden. An den meisten Sonntagen wird die Chrysostomos-Liturgie gefeiert, an hohen Feiertagen und am Basiliustag die Basilius-Liturgie. Daneben gibt es noch die "Liturgie der vorgeweihten Gaben", die an den Werktagen der Fastenzeit gefeiert wird, und die kürzere und einfachere Jakobus-Liturgie, die jedoch nur noch im Patriarchat Jerusalem und nur am Jakobus-Tag verwendet wird. Typisch für die Liturgie ist der häufige Anruf Kyrie eleison (u ov, Herr, erbarme dich). Alle orthodoxen Liturgien benötigen zur vollen Feier neben dem Priester (oder Bischof) noch einen Diakon. Dieser assistiert dem Priester, und die Struktur des abwechselnden gegenseitigen Ansprechens dient beiden als Gedächtnisstütze. Notfalls kann die Göttliche Liturgie aber auch in einer vereinfachten Form ohne Diakon gefeiert werden. Zu den Gottesdiensten (die nicht Liturgie genannt werden) gehört z. B. der Orthros (entspricht den Laudes der Westkirche) und weiteren Gebeten kann der Gottesdienst auch an normalen Wochentagen etwa einige Stunden lang sein, wobei nicht alle Gläubigen von Anfang bis Ende dabei sind, späteres Erscheinen und früheres Verlassen des Gottesdienstes sind relativ normal. === Gesang Besonderen Stellenwert in der orthodoxen Liturgie haben die Gesänge, die wie in der Westkirche eine Form des Gebets sind. Der Gebrauch von Instrumenten ist demzufolge besonders in griechisch-orthodoxen Kirchen nicht gestattet, weil Instrumente nicht beten können. Auch in anderen orthodoxen Kirchen ist Instrumentalmusik unüblich. Im Judentum war religiöse Instrumentalmusik auf den Tempel beschränkt, in der Synagoge wurde nur gesungen, was ebenfalls Spuren in den orthodoxen Bräuchen hinterlassen haben könnte. Eine andere Theorie für die Ablehnung der Instrumentalmusik geht auf die bei den römischen Zirkusspielen üblichen Orchester zurück; die Christen betrachteten die Zirkusspiele, in denen sie teilweise selbst die Opfer waren, als Götzenkult. Jedoch haben diese Anschauungen sich im Laufe der Zeit teils verändert. Die weltweit erste Orgel in einer orthodoxen Kirche wurde im Spätmittelalter in der Hagia Sophia von Konstantinopel installiert; beim Fall der Stadt wurde sie zerstört. == Kreuzzeichen In der orthodoxen Liturgie bekreuzigt man sich jedes Mal, wenn die Dreifaltigkeit beziehungsweise jede der drei Personen der Dreifaltigkeit erwähnt werden, wenn das Kreuz oder eine Ikone verehrt wird und bei vielen weiteren Gelegenheiten, die aber nicht genau geregelt sind und von den Gläubigen nach eigenem Ermessen gehandhabt werden. Man bekreuzigt von der Stirn bis etwa zur Bauchmitte und anschließend von der rechten zur linken Schulter (im Gegensatz zum Brauch in der lateinischen Kirche, wo das Kreuzzeichen von der linken zur rechten Schulter ausgeführt wird). Ersteres gilt als die ältere Gewohnheit und soll anzeigen, dass das Kreuz aus der Perspektive des eigentlich Segnenden (das ist Christus) "richtig", das heißt von links nach rechts aufliegt, daher wird die Bewegung spiegelverkehrt ausgeführt. Beim Bekreuzigen werden Daumen, Zeigefinger und Mittelfinger zusammengehalten (drei Finger = Dreifaltigkeit), während Ringfinger und kleiner Finger an der Handfläche anliegen (als Symbol für die zwei Naturen Christi). Im Anschluss an das Kreuzzeichen wird von einigen orthodoxen Gläubigen die Handfläche auf das Herz gelegt. Manchmal erfolgt die Bekreuzigung im Zusammenhang mit einer Verbeugung (kleine Metanie) oder einer Prostration (große Metanie). Zum Abschluss der Liturgie erteilt der Priester den Segen, indem er das Kreuzzeichen über die Gemeinde zeichnet oder indem er die Gläubigen, wie es in den meisten orientalischen Kirchen Brauch ist, mit einem Handkreuz segnet. Die Gläubigen begeben sich daraufhin zum Priester, um das Segenskreuz durch einen Kuss zu verehren. Zu diesem Zeitpunkt wird auch das gesegnete (aber nicht konsekrierte) Brot (Antidoron), in dem die urchristliche Praxis der Agapefeier fortlebt, an alle Teilnehmer (auch an Gäste) ausgeteilt. == Sonstige Besonderheiten Als eucharistische Materie wird in allen orthodoxen Kirchen gesäuertes Brot verwendet (Prosphora). Gebetet wird prinzipiell stehend, auch in den Gottesdiensten wird meistens gestanden; einige Kirchen haben nur Bestuhlung entlang den Wänden für Alte und Schwache. Knien ist in der sonntäglichen Liturgie unüblich; an anderen Wochentagen gibt es in manchen Kirchen Niederwerfungen (Metanien). Männliche Kirchengänger müssen vor dem Eintritt in die Kirche ihre Kopfbedeckung ablegen, Frauen müssen ihre Haare mit einem Schleier oder einem Tuch bedecken (wird von den meisten griechisch- und arabisch-orthodoxen Frauen jedoch nicht mehr praktiziert). Ebenfalls gilt es als unüblich, dass Frauen in Hosen die Kirche betreten. Bei einem Besuch einer orthodoxen Kirche sollte man weder die Hände hinter dem Rücken verschränken noch die Arme vor der Brust verschränken. Dieser Gestus ist jedoch nicht zu verwechseln mit dem demütigen Gestus der vor der Brust gekreuzten Arme, wie er vor dem Kommunionempfang üblich ist. == Feste und Kalender Das Hauptfest der Orthodoxie ist wie im ganzen Christentum das Osterfest. Das Datum des Osterfestes wird in allen orthodoxen Kirchen (mit Ausnahme der finnischen Kirche) nach dem julianischen Kalender berechnet. Von Zeit zu Zeit fällt es mit dem Osterdatum der Westkirche zusammen, öfter fällt es aber eine, vier oder fünf Wochen nach dem Osterfest der Westkirche. Das Kirchenjahr der Orthodoxie beginnt am 1. September; an diesem Tag begann im byzantinischen Reich auch die neue Indiktion. An zweiter Stelle nach dem Osterfest stehen die untereinander gleichrangigen sogenannten "zwölf Feste": Im orthodoxen Kirchenjahr gibt es vier längere Fastenzeiten: === Julianischer Kalender Während die beweglichen Feste (wie beispielsweise Ostern und Pfingsten) in allen orthodoxen Kirchen (außer in Finnland) nach dem von Julius Caesar eingeführten julianischen Kalender gefeiert werden, hat ein Teil der Kirchen in den 1920er Jahren für die festliegenden Feste (wie zum Beispiel Weihnachten und Taufe Christi) den sogenannten neo-julianischen Kalender eingeführt, der bis zum Jahr 2800 dem westlichen gregorianischen Kalender entspricht. Andere Kirchen halten jedoch auch für diese Feste am julianischen Kalender fest, so dass beispielsweise Weihnachten in Griechenland am 25. Dezember, in Russland, Serbien und der Ukraine jedoch erst an unserem 7. Januar (dem "alten" 25. Dezember) gefeiert wird. Diese Kalenderreform, die ziemlich spontan und ohne große Diskussion - und auch ohne Abstimmung der orthodoxen Kirchen untereinander beschlossen wurde, war im 20. Jahrhundert stark umstritten und führte zur Abspaltung der Altkalendarier. == Liste der orthodoxen Kirchen === Kanonische Kirchen Heute gehören zur kanonischen orthodoxen Kirchenfamilie die folgenden Kirchen, (in Reihenfolge ihres historischen Rangs): ==== Patriarchate Die vier (von fünf) verbliebenen altkirchlichen Patriarchate Die Patriarchate der nachkaiserlichen Zeit ==== Weitere autokephale Kirchen Weitere autokephale Kirchen (bestimmen ihren Vorsteher und ihre Bischöfe selbst) ==== Autonome Kirchen Autonome Kirchen (eine andere Kirche hat Mitspracherecht bei der Bestimmung des Vorstehers) Alle anderen kanonischen orthodoxen Kirchen stehen unter der geistlichen Leitung einer autokephalen Kirche. ==== Selbstverwaltete Kirchen Einige Kirchen gelten als selbstverwaltete Kirchen innerhalb des Patriarchats von Moskau. Diese werden oft fälschlicherweise auch als autonom bezeichnet. ==== Weitere Diözesen Weitere kleine Diözesen in einzelnen Ländern gehören zu größeren Kirchen, vor allem dem Ökumenischen Patriarchat von Konstantinopel und den Patriarchaten von Moskau und Belgrad. === Nichtkanonische Kirchen und Sondergemeinschaften Als nichtkanonisch werden Kirchen und Gemeinschaften bezeichnet, die von den kanonischen orthodoxen Kirchen nicht anerkannt werden und nicht in Kirchengemeinschaft mit diesen stehen. Dazu gehören: Dazu zählen auch kleinere Gemeinschaften der Altgläubigen in Russland und anderen Staaten, sowie Altkalendarier in Griechenland. Die Alten Orientalisch-Orthodoxen Kirchen werden von den orthodoxen Kirchen ebenfalls nicht als kanonisch anerkannt. Die griechisch-katholischen Kirchen gelten nicht als orthodoxe Kirchen. Sie sind Teilkirchen der römisch-katholischen Kirche und werden von den orthodoxen Kirchen nicht als kanonisch anerkannt. == Ökumene Bei den für die orthodoxen Kirchen sehr wichtigen Bemühungen um die Einheit der Kirche muss man zwischen den Beziehungen zur römisch-katholischen Kirche und jenen zu den Kirchen der Reformation unterscheiden. Während der Dialog mit Rom vor allem im eher politischen Bereich des kirchlichen Selbstverständnisses auf Differenzen stößt, sind es gegenüber den reformatorischen Kirchen vor allem theologische Unstimmigkeiten, etwa um das Verständnis der Sakramente. Mit der lateinischen Kirche gibt es viele Gemeinsamkeiten: Orthodoxe und römisch-katholische Christen haben dasselbe apostolische Glaubensbekenntnis, dieselben Sakramente und dieselben Weiheämter. Kulturelle und theologische Unterschiede zwischen Ostkirche und Westkirche gab es von Anfang an, aber ab der Mitte des ersten Jahrtausends führte ein immer geringerer theologischer und kultureller Austausch zu einer getrennten Entwicklung. Die in der katholischen Theologie seit dem Mittelalter eingeführten kirchlichen Lehren, beginnend mit dem Filioque und dem päpstlichen Primat, wurden von der Orthodoxie als einseitige Neuerungen bzw. als Häresien angesehen, die zu einem Bruch der Gemeinschaft führten, als die römisch-katholische Kirche verlangte, dass diese auch in den orthodoxen Kirchen eingeführt würden. Andererseits führten auch theologische Konflikte innerhalb der Ostkirche, wie der Streit um den Monophysitismus, der Dreikapitelstreit und der Bilderstreit, zu weiterer Entfremdung mit dem Westen; so hatte der Konflikt um die monophysitische Lehre das erste Schisma zwischen Rom und Konstantinopel zur Folge. Insbesondere die im 19. und 20. Jahrhundert verkündeten Dogmen der Unfehlbarkeit des Papstes gemäß dem Ersten Vatikanischen Konzil, der unbefleckten Empfängnis und der der leiblichen Aufnahme Mariens in den Himmel haben die Kluft noch vergrößert, wohingegen sich die römische Kirche mit den Beschlüssen des Zweiten Vatikanischen Konzils der orthodoxen Kirche wieder angenähert hat. Papst Johannes Paul II. hat den ökumenischen Beziehungen zur orthodoxen Kirche oft Vorrang gegenüber denen zum Protestantismus eingeräumt und viel zu einer Klimaverbesserung beigetragen, andererseits aber die katholischen Dogmen stets klar verteidigt. Die zweite große Spaltung war das morgenländische Schisma von 1054, aus dem die römisch-katholische Kirche und die östlich-orthodoxen Kirchen unter dem Ehrenprimat des Patriarchen von Konstantinopel hervorgingen. Unionsversuche, zuletzt 1439 angesichts der drohenden Eroberung Konstantinopels durch die Türken, scheiterten vor allem am Widerstand der orthodoxen Gläubigen, für die nach der Eroberung von Konstantinopel im Vierten Kreuzzug eine Kirchengemeinschaft mit der römisch-katholischen Kirche nicht mehr vorstellbar war. Die gegenseitigen Verurteilungen als Häretiker gelten heute als aufgehoben. 1964 hoben Papst Paul VI. und der Patriarch von Konstantinopel, Athinagoras, den gegenseitigen Kirchenbann von 1054 auf. 1967 kam es in Jerusalem zur ersten Begegnung eines Papstes und eines Patriarchen nach dem Beginn der Kirchenspaltung. Das Schisma blieb allerdings bestehen. Am 4. Mai 2001 erklärte Johannes Paul II. gegenüber griechisch-orthodoxen Christen: "Für die vergangenen und gegenwärtigen Anlässe, bei denen Söhne und Töchter der katholischen Kirche durch Taten oder Unterlassungen gegen ihre orthodoxen Brüder und Schwestern gesündigt haben, möge der Herr uns Vergebung gewähren." 2004, zum 800. Jahrestag der Eroberung Konstantinopels durch die Kreuzfahrer 1204, erneuerte Papst Johannes Paul II. dieses Schuldbekenntnis. Erinnerungen an die Plünderung Konstantinopels im Vierten Kreuzzug (1204) und die polnische Herrschaft in Weißrussland und der Ukraine sind noch nicht verheilt und werden durch die "uniatische Frage", das heißt die Existenz von katholischen Ostkirchen, sowie die Errichtung von katholischen Bistümern beziehungsweise Apostolischen Administraturen auf orthodoxem Gebiet immer wieder aufgewühlt. Die Orthodoxen sehen darin eine falsche Ekklesiologie (aus ihrer Sicht kann es in einem Gebiet nur eine Kirche geben), beziehungsweise einen Versuch Roms, mehr Macht zu gewinnen, und eine Missachtung ihrer eigenen Kirchen; die katholische Seite fühlt sich umgekehrt den unierten Kirchen gegenüber zur Loyalität verpflichtet. Auch wenn deren Einrichtung inzwischen auch von einigen katholischen Verhandlungsführern als historischer Fehler gesehen wird, so kann man sie nach katholischer Ansicht trotzdem jetzt nicht einfach ihrem Schicksal überlassen oder aus der Kirche ausschließen oder zur von ihnen nicht gewollten Vereinigung mit den Orthodoxen zwingen. Hilfreich sind Kontakte auf gleicher Ebene, wie die Begegnungen zwischen dem ökumenischen Patriarchen Athinagoras und Papst Paul VI. in den 1960er Jahren, oder die im Jahre 2004 erfolgte Rückgabe der bei der Plünderung von Konstantinopel geraubten Reliquien von Gregor von Nazianz und Johannes Chrysostomos von Rom nach Konstantinopel. Unklar bleibt, wie die Differenzen im kirchlichen Selbstverständnis überwunden werden können, sowie viele Streitfragen, wo die Römische Kirche sich auf philosophische Erklärungen theologischer Fragen festgelegt hat, die von den orthodoxen Kirchen abgelehnt werden. Weiter fortgeschritten ist die Annäherung zwischen den orthodoxen Kirchen, der anglikanischen Gemeinschaft und den altkatholischen Kirchen, sie wurde in den letzten Jahrzehnten allerdings belastet durch die Ordination von Frauen in diesen westlichen Kirchen und andere Tendenzen, während die Orthodoxen an der Tradition festhalten, nur Männer zu ordinieren. Die orthodoxen Kirchen gehören mit wenigen Ausnahmen dem Ökumenischen Rat der Kirchen (ÖRK) an; in den (relativen) Entspannungsphasen des Kalten Krieges sah man darin eine Möglichkeit zu stärkerem ost-westlichem Austausch auf nichtstaatlicher Ebene, weshalb die sozialistischen Staaten diese Mitgliedschaft befürworteten. In diesem Rahmen besteht die Möglichkeit zum Austausch mit den Kirchen der Reformation und deren Abspaltungen. Die Römische Kirche gehört dem Rat aufgrund ihres Selbstverständnisses nicht an, sondern nimmt eine Beobachterrolle ein. Unterdessen fühlten sich die verhältnismäßig wenigen orthodoxen Kirchen gegenüber den zahlreichen protestantischen Kirchen in diesem Gremium oft an den Rand gedrängt und haben daher nach dem Ende des Kommunismus eine bessere Abstimmung und ein einheitlicheres Auftreten im Rat beschlossen. Nur die georgische Kirche trat aus Protest gegen die massive protestantische Mission in Georgien ganz aus dem Rat aus. Obwohl sich die orthodoxen Kirchen als einzige Bewahrer der vollständigen apostolischen Lehre betrachten, können sie sich ausdrücklich dazu bekennen, dass die Einheit der weltweiten christlichen Kirche die Vielfalt eigenständiger Kirchen umfasst, was gerade den zentralen Konflikt gegenüber dem Dialog mit Rom darstellt. Trotzdem nehmen die orthodoxen Kirchen innerhalb des ÖRK eine Sonderstellung ein, was auch in einem Sonderarbeitsbereich innerhalb des ÖRK Ausdruck findet.

Title: Orthodoxe Kirche Summary: Die orthodoxe Kirche ist die drittgrösste Gemeinschaft von gläubigen Christen. Sie bilden also eine Konfession des Christentums. Ihr gehören etwa 300 Millionen Menschen an. Das sind fast viermal so viele wie die Einwohner Deutschlands. "Orthodox" heisst so viel wie "richtige Verehrung". Als orthodoxe Kirche bezeichnet man aber auch den geweihten Raum, in dem sich die Anhänger dieser Glaubensgemeinschaft treffen. Ursprünglich gab es keinen Unterschied zwischen der katholischen und der orthodoxen Kirche. Doch mit den Jahrhunderten stritten sie sich, wie man Gott ehren soll. Die Kirchen trennten sich im Jahr 1054 voneinander: Im Westen von Europa blieb die Katholische Kirche. Die Kirche im Osten Europas nannte sich die Orthodoxe Kirche. Sie verwendete im Gottesdienst oft die griechische oder die russische Sprache. == Was ist im orthodoxen Glauben wichtig? In der Orthodoxen Kirche gibt es sieben Sakramente. Dies sind die Taufe, die Beichte, die Firmung, die Eheschliessung, die Krankensalbung, die Weihe der Priester und Bischöfe sowie die Eucharistie, also das Abendmahl. In der Katholischen Kirche ist es sehr ähnlich. In den orthodoxen Kirchen sieht man viele Gemälde. Sie zeigen Jesus oder Heilige, also Menschen, die besonders christlich gelebt haben. Diese Bilder werden auf Holzbretter gemalt, während die Maler beten. Man nennt diese Bilder Ikonen. Sie sind oft reich mit Gold verziert und sehr wertvoll. Die orthodoxen Gläubigen küssen oft Ikonen. Für sie sind das nicht nur Bilder: Die heilige Person lebt in dem Bild. Vorne in der Kirche gibt es eine ganze Wand voller solcher Bilder, man nennt sie die Ikonenwand. Die orthodoxen Kirchen sind noch viel stärker geschmückt und ausgefüllt als die katholischen Kirchen. Besonders beliebt sind Kerzen, Leuchter und eben Ikonen. Viele berühmte Kirchen gehören auch zu orthodoxen Klöstern. Die Bibel besteht unter anderem aus dem Alten Testament. Bei den Orthodoxen befinden sich darin einige Schriften mehr als zum Beispiel bei den Katholiken. Maria, die Mutter von Jesus aus dem Neuen Testament, ist für die Orthodoxen ähnlich wichtig wie bei den Katholiken. Auch sehr wichtig sind die Kirchenväter: Dies sind wichtige Männer, meist Patriarchen aus vergangener Zeit, welche den orthodoxen Glauben geprägt haben. == Wie ist die orthodoxe Kirche organisiert? Mit dem Papst in Rom hat die orthodoxe Kirche nichts zu tun: Sie hat ihre eigenen Erzbischöfe, die "Patriarch" oder "Metropolit" heissen. Von ihnen gibt es viele, und sie haben kein Oberhaupt über sich. Sie sind also wie Brüder. Patriarchen oder Metropoliten dürfen nicht heiraten, sondern müssen ledig bleiben. Sie müssen Priester sein. Nur Männer können Priester werden, sie können aber unter Umständen heiraten wie die reformierten Pfarrer. Die Priester heissen "Presbyter", das ist Griechisch und bedeutet "Ältester". Aus dem Wort Presbyter ist der Name Priester entstanden. Eine Stufe tiefer stehen die Diakone. Dies können auch Frauen sein. Orthodoxe Kirche und Staat bilden eine "Symphonia". Dieses griechische Wort bedeutet "Harmonie" oder "Zusammenklang". Die Kirche und der Staat sind also nicht voneinander getrennt wie in Deutschland, Österreich oder der Schweiz. Dies geht auf das 4. Jahrhundert zurück: Damals wurde das Christentum die Staatsreligion im Römischen Reich.

klexikon_de

de

Summarize: BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION A variety of field cookers are known. The cookers generally include some form of outer housing, a cooking container which is received in the housing, a cover for the cooking container and means for containing a heat source, generally under or along side of the food container. Although the word portable is used in conjunction with many known cookers, the cookers are portable only in the sense that they may be carried from one location to another intermediate their use as a food warming container. Known portable field cookers are not practical for heating or cooking food while on the move and the known units are certainly not acceptable as portable cooking units for use while being carried by a backpack or hiker while the carrier is on the move and the cooker is warming the food carried therein. As food in a cooker is heated, it will tend to expand. Although a number of cookers are known which include pressure relief valves to allow the escape of gases from the interior of the cooking vessel, such structure is depend upon the cooker being in an upright, stationary condition. If the cooker is being transported, particularly by a person on foot, a certain amount of agitation will occur and it is likely that not only will gas escape from the interior of the vessel, but that the contents of the vessel will escape. Known cookers do not provide any means for retaining escaped contents of the vessel when the cooker is being transported. Known portable field cookers, if transported, particularly by a person on foot, would pose a significant danger to the carrier and to the environment through which the cooker is carried if a fuel supply is burning therein. Known field cookers rely on liquid or solid fuel for heating the contents thereof and, particularly in the case of liquid fuel, carrying such a cooker when the fuel is ignited could be quite dangerous. In the case of solid fuel, the fuel is likely to create embers and sparks, which would exit the cooker and create potential fire hazard to the environment. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION The portable field cooker of the invention includes a tubular body having an elongate outer housing having a top and a base, and an elongate inner vessel for containing food therein. The inner vessel is spaced apart from and secured adjacent the ends thereof to the housing and has an open top of its own and heat-transmitting means at the base thereof. Some form of insulation is provided between the outer housing and the inner vessel. A heating chamber is removably secured to the base of the housing and includes plural air-vent apertures about the periphery thereof and means for closing the air-vent apertures. A fuel-containment-dish is removably received in the heating chamber for carrying a fuel supply to heat the contents of the vessel. The dish is constructed and arranged to allow air to reach the fuel contained therein and includes a non-combustible base having an upwardly flanged rim thereabout. The rim is constructed and arranged to prevent ashes from the fuel from spilling out of the chamber through the vents about the heating chamber. Plural partitions extend upward from the base and define plural fuel-receiving bays. The dish also includes a cover which has a heat-conducting mechanism attached thereto. The heat-conducting mechanism is operable to conduct heat from the fuel supply to the heat-transmitting means in the base of the inner vessel. The cover is operable to retain the fuel supply in the base. An object of the instant invention is to provide a portable cooker which is operable to heat the food contents therein while being transported, particularly by a person on foot. Another object of the instant invention is to provide a portable field cooker which has a removable heating chamber secured thereto and provides means to safely carry a burning fuel supply while the cooker is being transported. Another object of the instant invention is to provide a portable field cooker which provides means to allow expansion of food carried therein and which will retain the contents thereof if same should overflow the vessel during heating. These and other objects and advantages of the instant invention will become more fully apparent as the description which follows is read in conjunction with the drawings. DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS FIG. 1 is a front elevation of the field cooker of the invention, with portions broken away to show interior detail thereof. FIG. 2 is a slightly enlarged, partial sectional view through a second embodiment of the tubular body of the invention. DETAILED DESCRIPTION OF THE PREFERRED EMBODIMENTS Turning initially to FIG. 1, the portable field cooker of the invention is shown generally at 10. Cooker 10 includes a tubular body, shown generally at 12, which includes an elongate outer housing 14 and an elongate inner vessel 16 received in housing 14. Housing 14 has a top portion 18 that is covered by a removable, cup-like cap 20. Cap 20 is secured to housing 14 by suitable, conformal threads 22 formed on the exterior of housing 14 and the interior of cap 20. Housing 14 futher includes a base portion 24 which, in the preferred embodiment, extends beyond the lower end of vessel 16. Vessel 16 is suitable for containing a food product, to be carried and heated therein. Vessel 16 is secured adjacent the top, or one, end 26 thereof and the other, or base end 28 thereof to housing top 18 and base 24, respectively. Specifically, the side wall 16a of vessel 16 and side wall 14a of housing 14 are spaced apart from one another and include insulation means therebetween. In the first embodiment, insulation means take the form of a thermal insulation material, such as fiber or spun glass, rock wool, etc. In the second embodiment of the cooker, shown partially at 100 in FIG. 2, insulation means 30 takes the form of a vacuum formed between the walls of the vessel and the housing. In this case, at least one of the outer surfaces of the vessel or the inner surface of the housing is coated with a metal having thermal insulating properties. Returning to FIG. 1, top 26 of vessel 16 may be seen to have an open region at its top which is closed by a seal 34. Seal 34, also referred to herein as inner-vessel-closure means, includes threads 36 about the periphery thereof which cooperate with threads 38 formed about the inner periphery of top 26, to provide a sealing fit into the open top of the vessel. Seal 34 includes a cup-like recess 40 which has a pressure relief valve 42 located in the bottom thereof. Relief valve 42 is operable to allow the contents of vessel 16 to expand into the recess of seal 34 should the contents of the vessel expand as a result of heating. In the preferred embodiment, cap 20 is operable to retain any expanded food material in the recess of seal 34. The base 44 of vessel 16 is operable as heat-transmitting means to transmit heat to the contents of the vessel. Vessel top 26 includes a flange 26a which extends about the periphery thereof and which is secured to housing top 18 as by welding or other suitable joining techniques. A base ring 46 extends about the inner periphery of housing base 24 and vessel base 28 and is fixed thereto, again as by welding or other suitable joining techniques. Ring 46 has a bore through the center thereof to expose the base of the vessel. A heating chamber 48 is secured to the base of body 12. Such securing is accomplished by means of threads 50 on chamber 48 and conformal threads 52 on the base of body 12. Chamber 48 includes a container 54 having a base 56 and side walls 58 extending upward from base 56 about the periphery thereof. Side wall 58 has a pair of spaced apart protruding ridges 60, 62 extending about the periphery thereof. Plural air-vent apertures 64 are located in between ridges 60, 62 in the preferred embodiment and are disposed about the periphery of side wall 58. In the preferred embodiment, air-vent apertures are arranged in two rows and range between 18 and 20 in number. The apertures are approximately 3/8&#34; in diameter. A collar 68 is disposed between ridges 60, 62 and is rotatably mounted about the periphery of side wall 58. Collar 68 includes a set of ports 70 which are coincident with vents 64. Collar 68 is rotatable to alternately conceal and expose air-vents 64 by alignment and misalignment of ports 70 with the air-vents. Container 54 is formed of material having low thermal conductivity, such as a polymer material having properties of low thermal conductivity. Alternately, the container may include a sandwich arrangement wherein a layer of a-wool material is encased between suitable metal and/or plastic layers forming an inner and outer container shell. Container 54, in the preferred embodiment, includes means 72 for supporting a fuel-containment-dish 74. In the preferred embodiment, means 72 takes the form of a lip which extends around the interior of container 54 above base 56. Additionally, supports 76 may be provided to support dish 74. Fuel-containment-dish 74 is removably received in heating chamber 48 and is constructed and arranged to allow an air supply to reach a fuel supply. It is envisioned that the fuel supply which will be used in the invention will be in the form of charcoal fuel capsules 78 which are readily available and which provide a steady, relatively long lasting source of heat. In the preferred embodiment, containment dish 74 includes a non-combustible, wire mesh base 80 which has an upwardly flanged rim 82 extending about the periphery thereof. Partitions 84, 86 are provided to separate the fuel capsules and define plural, fuel-receiving bays 88, 90 and 92. A cover 94 is provided to retain the fuel capsules in the bays and has heat-conducting means in the form of a coil spring 96 attached thereto. Spring 96 is operable to bridge the air gap between fuel cells 78 and heat-transmitting means 44. Spring 96 is fixed to the top of cover 94 and is in direct contact with heat-transmitting means 44. Fuel-containment-dish 74 is constructed and arranged to retain ash in chamber 48 so that the ash will not spill out of the chamber through apertures 64 and ports 70. To this end, in the preferred embodiment, dish 74 is constructed of a wire mesh screen which will allow air to circulate to the fuel but which will cause the fuel to remain in a substantially compacted mass. Partitions 84, 86 are operable to prevent the collision between adjacent fuel capsules, thereby maintaining the capsule relatively intact. The cooker is intended to be carried in a substantially upright condition which would result in any ash particles which do become loose from the mass dropping into the free space between base 80 of the fuel-containment-dish and base 56 of the heating chamber. Cooker 10 includes means for carrying the cooker, which in the preferred embodiment takes the form of a collapsible handle 102 which is secured to the side of body 12. Handle 102 may be secured to a backpack or to the carrier&#39;s belt by means of a split-D ring or a carabiner and may be carried with food contained in vessel 16 and fuel capsules ignited in heating chamber 48. Thus a hiker is able to continue moving while a meal is being heated in the cooker of the invention. The cooker is operable to heat food contained vessel 16 while allowing the food to expand through pressure relief valve and be retained in recess 40. The fuel-containment-dish prevents the spilling of ignited fuel out of the heating chamber thus providing a safe fuel supply which may be carried while ignited. Although a preferred embodiment and a variation thereof have been disclosed herein, further modifications and variations may be made thereto without departing from the scope of the invention as defined in the appended claims.

Summary: A portable field cooker is taught which enables a user to heat food in an inner vessel thereof while the user remains on the move. The cooker includes a tubular body having an outer housing, and an inner, food containing vessel. Insulation means are provided between the housing and the vessel. A heating chamber is removably secured to the base of the housing for holding a fuel-containment-dish which is removably received in the heating chamber. The fuel-containment-dish is operable to carry an ash-producing fuel supply therein, in an ignited condition, and to retain the ignited fuel supply therein, thus preventing the escape of ignited material from the heating chamber.

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Write a title and summarize: Antibody effector functions, such as antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity, complement deposition, and antibody-dependent phagocytosis, play a critical role in immunity against multiple pathogens, particularly in the absence of neutralizing activity. Two modifications to the IgG constant domain (Fc domain) regulate antibody functionality: changes in antibody subclass and changes in a single N-linked glycan located in the CH2 domain of the IgG Fc. Together, these modifications provide a specific set of instructions to the innate immune system to direct the elimination of antibody-bound antigens. While it is clear that subclass selection is actively regulated during the course of natural infection, it is unclear whether antibody glycosylation can be tuned, in a signal-specific or pathogen-specific manner. Here, we show that antibody glycosylation is determined in an antigen- and pathogen-specific manner during HIV infection. Moreover, while dramatic differences exist in bulk IgG glycosylation among individuals in distinct geographical locations, immunization is able to overcome these differences and elicit antigen-specific antibodies with similar antibody glycosylation patterns. Additionally, distinct vaccine regimens induced different antigen-specific IgG glycosylation profiles, suggesting that antibody glycosylation is not only programmable but can be manipulated via the delivery of distinct inflammatory signals during B cell priming. These data strongly suggest that the immune system naturally drives antibody glycosylation in an antigen-specific manner and highlights a promising means by which next-generation therapeutics and vaccines can harness the antiviral activity of the innate immune system via directed alterations in antibody glycosylation in vivo. Mounting evidence points to a critical role for non-neutralizing antibody effector function, such as antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), in protection against [1], and control of HIV [2], influenza [3], Ebola virus [4], and bacterial infections [5]. Earlier work suggests that potent, long-lived antibody effector activity is driven by IgG1 antibodies [6], the dominant subclass in the blood [7]. However, as all vaccinated and infected individuals ultimately produce IgG1 antibodies, it is unclear why some IgG1 responses provide protective immunity while others provide limited immunity at the same titers. While emerging data suggest that the co-selection of additional antibody subclasses, such as the most functional subclass, IgG3, may collaborate to direct more effective immune complex–based activity [8], IgG3 is cleared rapidly from the systemic circulation [9], arguing that sustained levels of some, but not other IgG1 antibodies may represent the critical determinant of protective immunity against HIV. Thus, defining how the immune system naturally tunes IgG1 represents a critical step for the development of more effective strategies to harness the immune system to prevent or control HIV infection. Every IgG antibody is glycosylated at a single asparagine residue within the CH2 domain of the constant region (in the crystallizable fragment, Fc), and data from the monoclonal therapeutic community suggest that these changes potently alter the inflammatory profile and effector functions of the antibody [10]. The antibody glycan consists of variable levels of four sugar subunits (galactose, sialic acid, fucose and an N-acetylglucosamine that bisects the arms of the structure (b-GlcNAc) ), each of which alters the affinity of the antibody for innate immune receptors, including Fc receptors found on all innate immune cells [11]. For example, changes in fucose and the b-GlcNAc play a critical role in modulating monoclonal therapeutic antibody effector function, where a lack of fucose [12], the addition of the b-GlcNAc [13], and elevated sialic acid [14] increases ADCC activity. In contrast, agalactosylated polyclonal antibodies are associated with increased inflammation in HIV [15,16] and chronic autoimmune conditions [17] and agalactosylated monoclonal therapeutics are known to drive enhanced complement binding and activation [18]. Conversely, the presence of higher levels of galactose provides the scaffold for the addition of terminal sialic acid groups, that are thought to drive anti-inflammatory activity through binding to lectin-like receptors [19], though there is some controversy in the field as to whether IVIG’s anti-inflammatory effect is due to sialylation alone [20–22]. Thus, while the antibody therapeutics field has clearly demonstrated that alterations in antibody glycosylation is a critical mechanism for improving therapeutic efficacy via the augmentation of effector function [6,13,23] or through the alteration of inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis treatment [19], it is still unclear whether antibody glycosylation is actively regulated in vivo. While, recent studies on antigen specific antibodies have shown that antigen-specific antibodies are induced with distinct antibody glycan profiles, it is still unclear whether distinct antibodies within the same individual are programmed with unique glycosylation profiles aimed at enhancing particular effector functions. However, given the emerging data pointing to distinct antibody glycan profiles on antigen-specific antibodies compared to bulk circulating antibodies [15,24], it is possible that antibody glycosylation may be actively controlled by the immune system. Moreover, over 30 different glycan structures have been identified in naturally produced antibodies, each with the theoretical capacity to drive distinct effector functional profiles [25,26], that may be selected immunologically in disparate manners to drive unique effector functions. Thus this study aimed to determine whether antibody glycosylation is differentially tuned against specific pathogens and/or antigenic targets and whether antibody glycosylation could be actively directed through immunological priming. We demonstrate different glycoprofiles on particular antigen- and pathogen-specific antibodies, clearly illustrating unique antibody glycan profiles against individual antigens, each of which was distinct from that present in bulk circulating antibodies, linked to distinct antibody effector functions, pointing to antigen-specific regulation of antibody glycosylation. Furthermore, while bulk circulating antibody Fc glycosylation was dramatically different in geographically distinct populations, immunization with a viral vector-based vaccine induced remarkably similar antigen-specific antibody glycan profiles on vaccine-specific antibodies induced at all three geographic sites. Conversely, distinct antigen-specific IgG glycosylation profiles were induced by a protein–based HIV vaccine, suggesting that antibody glycosylation is selectively tuned at the time of vaccination by distinct inflammatory signals co-delivered at the time of B cell priming. Collectively, these data argue that IgG glycosylation is elicited differently by specific pathogens, antigens, and immune signals to selectively and specifically induce the targeted antibody functional profiles. Thus the regulation of antibody glycosylation represents a potentially novel means by which next-generation therapeutic or vaccine strategies may selectively direct the immune regulatory and killing activity of antibodies. Inflammatory diseases [27] and viral infections [10,11] drive an overall shift in bulk circulating antibody glycosylation. Likewise, recent studies have highlighted that unique glycan profiles emerge on antigen-specific antibodies [15,24]. However, whether all antigen-specific antibodies exhibit the same glycan profiles, tuned exclusively by inflammation, or whether antigen-specific antibody populations are tuned in an antigen- and/or pathogen- specific manner is unclear. Thus, HIV envelope (gp120) -, HIV capsid (p24) -, and influenza envelope (HA) -specific antibodies were selectively enriched from a population of 193 HIV-infected patients, and glycan profiling was performed on enzymatically removed glycans by capillary electrophoresis (S1 Fig, S1 Table). Remarkably, antibody glycosylation differed not only between antigen-specific antibodies and bulk circulating antibodies, but also among the three different antigen-specific antibody populations (Fig 1A). Specifically, as previously reported, gp120-specific antibodies possessed elevated levels of agalactosylated glycans and slightly increased fucosylated and bisected glycans with a decrease in sialylated structures compared to bulk antibodies (Fig 1A). Collectively, this combination of sugars points to the induction of a more functional (elevated b-GlcNAc) and more inflammatory (low galactose and sialic acid) glycan on gp120-specific antibodies [15,16]. Thus, based on known glycan structure: function relationships [13,28], gp120-specific antibodies exhibit a slightly inflammatory asialylated glycan poised to direct ADCC and complement-mediated killing via elevated b-GlcNAc levels. However, p24-specific antibodies exhibited an even more exaggerated inflammatory profile than gp120-specific antibodies (Fig 1A). p24-specific antibody glycans included significantly higher levels of agalactosylated glycans and slightly more fucosylation, as compared to bulk antibody glycans (Fig 1A). These antibodies exhibited low levels of sialic acid and comparable levels of b-GlcNAc to the bulk circulating antibodies. Thus, p24-specific antibodies are selectively tuned to express a highly inflammatory agalactosylated glycan. In contrast to gp120- and p24-specific antibodies, influenza-specific antibodies exhibited a significantly different glycan profile, marked by significantly increased galactosylation (Fig 1A) and sialylation and reduced b-GlcNAc. Thus, influenza-specific antibodies exhibited a third glycan profile, that like IVIG, may be tipped towards an anti-inflammatory glycan [10,19] that may be deliberately tuned to drive enhanced ADCC via reduced fucose [28]. Interestingly, no correlation was observed among glycan patterns selected on gp120- or HA-specific antibodies (S2 Fig) arguing that antigen-specific antibody glycosylation is selected independently in each individual and is not influenced by the host’s genetic or pre-infection background. Thus, based on univariate analyses, comparing the incorporation of individual sugars into the antibody glycan, antibody glycosylation varies significantly among antigen-specificities in HIV infected persons. Beyond differences at the antigen-specific level, differences were previously observed in gp120-specific antibody glycosylation profiles among a small group of HIV infected patients with differential clinical progression profiles [15]. Similar differences in antibody glycan-profiles were observed within this larger patient population (Fig 1B), with elevated agalactosylation among all spontaneous controllers and elevated bisection among the chronic treated patients. However, interestingly, no between HIV group differences were observed among the influenza-specific antibody glycan profiles (S3 Fig), demonstrating disease specific nature of antibody glycan tuning. While changes in antibody glycosylation and their effect on antibody effector function has been clearly illustrated in the context of monoclonal therapeutics [6], less is known about the impact of glycan-structure changes, which are often small, in polyclonal antibody populations. Thus we next sought to define whether the observed glycan-profile differences impacted antibody effector function. Seven gp120-specific antibody effector functions, including: antibody dependent complement deposition (ADCD), ADCC, NK degranulation associated CD107a surface expression, interferon-γ (IFN-γ) and macrophage inflammatory protein 1β (MIP-1β) release, ADCP and antibody dependent cellular viral inhibition (ADCVI) were assessed in a group of chronically untreated HIV infected patients for whom sufficient amounts of plasma were available for functional profiling. Thus gp120-specific antibody glyco-profiles and gp120-specific antibody functionality were assessed in parallel to determine the relationship between glycosylation and antibody functionality against the same antigenic target in polyclonal pools of antibodies. The glycan profile: function correlational analyses showed a number of relationships (Fig 1C). Interestingly, known relationships previously demonstrated for monoclonal therapeutics [12,13,29], such as the association between: 1) low fucose and high ADCC, high bisecting GlcNAc and high ADCC, and 3) low galactose and complement activation, were observed in polyclonal gp120-specific antibodies (Fig 1C). Additionally, novel correlations were also observed including a significant positive association between di-sialylation and ADCC, agalactosylation and bisection were positively correlated with phagocytic activity, and mono-sialylation and di-galactosylation were associated with antibody mediated viral inhibition (Fig 1C). These data suggest that polyclonal antibody glycan structure shifts clearly result in alterations in antibody effector function that may be actively regulated during an immune response to direct enhanced clearance and control in an antigen-specific manner. To gain a more complete understanding of the differences in glycosylation between different antigen-specific antibody populations, we used principle component analysis (PCA) to generate integrated multivariate glycan profiles for each antibody population. PCA linearly transforms multi-dimensional measurements into linear coordinates, called principle components. We can plot the first two principle components, which account for the greatest variation, onto a two-dimensional plot to define multivariate differences among groups (overlapping dots reflect similar profiles whereas non-overlapping dots represent different overall glycan profiles). Specifically, PCA demonstrated that the three antigen specificities separated as distinct antigen-specific antibody glycan profiles (Fig 1D), with limited overlap, suggesting that each antigen-specific antibody population is induced with a unique glycan profile. Moreover, the vectors on the loadings plot (Fig 1E), illustrate the strength of the contribution of each glycan structure in driving the separation in the overall glycan profiles, highlighting the unique nature of selective enrichment of di-sialylated glycans among HA-specific antibodies, elevated G0F/G1B glycans among the p24-specific antibodies, and G1/G0FB glycans in the gp120-specific antibody population. Overall, these data strongly argue that antibody glycosylation is calibrated at an antigen-specific level within the same individual and that that each profile is distinct from one another and from bulk circulating antibodies (Fig 1). These data therefore suggest that antibody glycosylation may be tuned actively during the induction of an immune response, to generate an antigen/pathogen appropriate effector response. However whether antibody glycosylation can be actively manipulated is still unclear. To determine whether antibody glycosylation is programmable in a reproducible manner we turned to a vaccine trial using the experimental Ad26/Ad35 expressing an HIV Envelop protein A (the B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN091 trial) that was conducted at sites in the United States, Kenya/Rwanda (East Africa), and South Africa. As IgG bulk and antigen-specific glycosylation differ dramatically in inflammatory diseases [27] and infectious diseases [15], bulk circulating antibody Fc glycosylation profiles were initially compared across the sites to ascertain baseline differences between the vaccine populations. Significant differences in bulk IgG Fc galactosylation and sialylation were observed among individuals in the three regions (Fig 2A). In particular, individuals from both African regions exhibited significantly higher proportions of agalactosylated (G0) Fcs. While both African groups displayed lower sialylation than US vaccinees, East Africans had the lowest bulk antibody sialylation. Given the role of low galactose and sialylation in determining the inflammatory activity of antibodies [10], these data suggest that bulk antibody glycosylation in Africans is associated with inflammatory glycosylation, with East Africans having the most inflammatory profile. Since the bulk IgG population is made up of a large array of antigen-specific antibodies corresponding to the pathogens encountered by an individual, these differences may correspond to differences in genetic background, diet, and/or exposure to pathogens at each geographical location. As mentioned above, changes in fucose and b-GlcNAc alter antibody function [12,13]. Interestingly, in the South African cohort, we observed higher fucosylation of bulk Fc compared to either of the two other groups (Fig 2A). Additionally, South Africans had lower b-GlcNAc compared to both groups. Given the low functional activity of antibodies with high fucose and low b-GlcNAc containing glycans, these results highlight that even within a single continent, significant differences may arise in antibody glycosylation of bulk antibodies, not only in sugars that modulate inflammation, but also among sugars that are critical for driving antibody functionality. Principle component analysis demonstrated largely non-overlapping antibody glycosylation profiles among vaccinees at each of the three sites in their bulk circulating antibody glycosylation profiles (Fig 2B), demonstrating that fundamentally different glycosylation profiles exist within each geographic region. The separation was largely driven by inflammatory glycan structures as shown by the length of the vectors on the loadings plot. For example, G0 structures, associated with inflammation [17], were largely associated with Kenya/Rwanda, whereas G2 structures, that are thought to be less inflammatory, were enriched among vaccinees from the US. Interestingly, the East African vaccinees separated completely from the other groups, while the South African and American recipients overlapped slightly in their bulk Fc-glycan profiles, suggesting that while variation in bulk Fc glycosylation exists among all groups, there are greater differences between East Africans and the other two populations, which are potentially related to a multitude of variables including distinct genetics [25], endemic infections [30], differences in diet [31], and other environmental factors. Overall, these data strongly suggest that baseline inflammation may alter the bulk antibody glycan profiles, potentially pre-determining the glycan profile of newly elicited antibodies. We next aimed to determine whether antigen-specific antibodies induced via vaccination exhibited distinct glycosylation profiles to bulk circulating antibodies, in a manner analogous to the distinct antigen-specific antibodies seen in HIV-infected subjects (Fig 1) Thus, the viral vector–induced antigen-specific antibodies were enriched from bulk IgG using vaccine-matched gp120 antigens in a subset of vaccinees from each region. Strikingly, the viral vector–elicited antibodies were significantly different from the bulk antibody glycans by PCA analysis (Fig 3A). Specifically, no overlap was observed in the overall glycan profiles of antigen-specific (maroon) and bulk antibodies (blue) (Fig 3A, left). Furthermore, all glycan types were found to be significantly different in vaccine-specific antibodies compared to bulk antibody glycosylation, with vaccine-specific glycans being significantly more agalactosylated, mono-galactosylated, sialylated and bisected but less fucosylated and di-galactosylated (Fig 3B). As illustrated in the loadings plot (Fig 3A, right), this separation was driven primarily by differences in fucosylation and sialylation. This analysis shows that antigen-specific antibody glycosylation is specific and driven by the immune signals delivered at the time of immunization. To ultimately determine whether antibody glycosylation is programmed at an antigen-specific level in a reproducible manner independent of regional differences in bulk circulating Fc glycosylation, we next aimed to determine whether the regional differences observed in bulk Fc glycosylation were also present in antigen-specific antibody glycoprofiles. Remarkably, no differences among all three geographical locations were observed for any sugar in the antigen-specific antibody glycans (Fig 3C), strongly arguing that the viral vector-based vaccine induced a single glycan profile on vaccine-induced antibodies that is independent of pre-existing antibody glycan profiles. While a trend toward reduced addition of the b-GlcNAc was observed in the antigen-specific antibodies in the Kenyan/Rwandan vaccinees, these levels were opposite to those observed in the bulk antibody profiles (Fig 2A), arguing for a directed change away from the bulk antibody glycan profiles among the vaccine-induced antibodies. In addition, as expected, HA-specific antibody glycans were different across regions at each timepoint tested (cross-sectionally), but did not change due to vaccination (Fig 3D), indicating that vaccine-induced glycan changes are restricted to the vaccine antigen-specific antibody population, and does not globally affect the humoral immune response. Thus collectively, these data strongly argue that vaccine-induced glycosylation changes are highly restricted to the de novo-induced antigen-specific antibody response independent of baseline geographical regions in antibody glycosylation, suggesting that antigen-specific antibody glycosylation is induced at the time of B cell priming in a uniform and directed manner. Given that the adenovirus-vectored vaccines elicited similar glycosylation patterns on vaccine-specific antibodies in all tested vaccinees, we aimed to determine whether the observed antigen-specific glycan profiles are conserved across all de novo-induced antibodies or if they are tuned differentially by distinct immunogens at the time of vaccination. Antigen-specific glycan profiles of antibodies isolated from recipients of the VAX003 vaccine trial (an alum-adjuvanted recombinant gp120 vaccine that induced high titer vaccine-specific antibody responses) were compared with glycan profiles induced in the B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN091 experimental vaccine trial. Interestingly, using PCA, we observed significant separation of the gp120-specific antibody glycosylation profiles across the two vaccines for galactose, sialic acid, and b-GlcNAc (Fig 4A). Specifically, the B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN 091 vaccine trial induced more anti-inflammatory glycan structures, with higher proportions of di-galactosylated, and sialylated glycans compared to antibodies induced in the VAX003 trial (Fig 4B). The viral vector used in B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN 091 also induced an increased proportion of bisected glycan structures, which are known to elicit greater ADCC activity and therefore increased functionality [13]. However, no differences were observed in fucose content across the two vaccine trials. Thus, the viral vector used in B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN091 induced a less inflammatory but highly functional antibody glycan profile compared to the poorly functional but highly inflammatory antibody glycan profiles induced in the alum-adjuvanted VAX003 study. All together, these data demonstrate that different immune signals delivered at the time of antigen exposure can specifically tune the glycosylation of antigen-specific antibodies in a signal-specific manner. Furthermore, the same antigen, HIV gp120, can induce differentially glycosylated antibodies in the presence of distinct immune signals. Given the importance of glycosylation in modulating antibody effector functions, these data suggest that inflammatory signals at the time of B cell priming can direct antibody glycosylation, aimed at tuning antibody effector function to target antigens in a pathogen-specific manner. Importantly, these data highlight that next-generation vaccine design strategies may selectively tune antibody effector function via modulation of antibody glycosylation. Unlike subclass selection, which irreversibly changes the constant domain, antibody glycosylation represents a flexible and powerful mechanism by which the immune system naturally finely tunes antibody effector function. However, while significant changes in antibody glycosylation have been reported on bulk circulating antibodies in the setting of chronic inflammatory diseases [27] and on antigen-specific antibodies [15,32], it is still unclear whether the immune system naturally and selectively tunes antibody glycosylation in an antigen-specific manner. Here, we show differential glycosylation on distinct antigen- and pathogen-specific antibodies isolated from the same individuals (Fig 1), suggesting that the selection of antibody glycan profiles may be determined at the time of B cell priming as a means to specifically tune antibody effector activity to eliminate individual targets in an antigen/pathogen-appropriate manner. Moreover, we show that antibody glycosylation can be actively influenced via vaccination, overcoming different baseline circulating antibody glycome differences among vaccinees (Fig 2), to generate a specific antibody glycan profile within the vaccine-specific antibody subpopulation (Fig 3). Finally, distinct differences were observed in antibody glycan profiles among antibodies induced by different vaccines (vectored versus protein-only), highlighting the critical nature of distinct priming signals in directing the glycan profiles of antigen-specific antibodies (Fig 4). Given that antigen-specific antibodies represent only a small percent of the total circulating antibodies, which are composed of swarms of distinct epitope-specific antibodies, it is unlikely that antigen-specific antibody glycan shifts would influence the overall circulating glycome. However, differential antigen-specific antibody glycosylation clearly reflects differences in selective immune programming directed against distinct pathogens/antigens aimed at harnessing the broad Fc effector functional potential of the humoral immune response. The differential selection of antigen-specific antibody glycosylation profiles may be a means by which the humoral immune system customizes and selectively arms antibodies with extra-neutralizing effector functions that are more effective in controlling and clearing particular pathogens. While the magnitude of the observed glycan changes appear small, they are highly significant, and even small shifts were clearly associated with robust changes in antibody effector functions (Fig 1C). Given that antibodies function as polyclonal swarms in immune-complexes, small glycan changes may have profound effects on innate immune Fc-effector cell functionality by simply skewing Fc-receptor/complement activation towards more desirable functions. Interestingly, some of the associations reflect previously identified relationships described for monoclonal therapeutic functional enhancement (low fucose = ADCC). However, additionally, novel glycan profile shifts that tracked with enhanced viral inhibition (G1), phagocytosis (G0), ADCC (SA), and complement activation (F and SA). Additionally, HA-specific antibodies exhibited more galactosylated, sialylated (less inflammatory), and afucosylated (more ADCC) glycan profiles (Fig 1A), suggestive of an antibody glycan profile tuned to promote rapid NK cell cytotoxicity via FCGR3A [12] in the absence of high levels of inflammation [33]. By contrast, gp120-specific antibodies exhibited a more inflammatory profile marked by low galactosylation and sialylation with higher levels of fucosylation and b-GlcNAc incorporation, the latter of which has been implicated in driving ADCC and complement activation [12,13]. Because the containment of influenza virus occurs predominantly within the lung [34], where rapid killing in the absence of excessive inflammation may be required to avoid immunopathology, an anti-inflammatory but ADCC-inducing antibody glycan would be highly protective. Conversely, non-neutralizing control of HIV may occur both in the blood as well as in lymphoid and gut tissues [35], where excessive pathology has been documented [36,37]. However, whether less inflammatory and functional antibodies targeting HIV could provide enhanced control of HIV is unclear. Defining protective glycan structures against other pathogens that infect via mucosal tissues may point to potential antibody effector profiles that could provide enhanced early containment of HIV. Yet, differences were observed in antigen-specific antibody glycosylation, strongly suggesting that the immune response evolves a highly specific antibody glycoprofile to target each pathogen, engineering the correct glycans to generate antibodies that are the most functional for particular pathogen. Thus, since the choice of N-linked glycan on the antibody is both directable and crucial to determining the functionality of antibodies, a deeper understanding of how and why particular antibody glycans are built up is crucial for understanding mechanisms to actively manipulate and control the bioactivity of antibodies via vaccination. Moreover, as vaccine-specific antibody glycosylation profiles were similar within vaccinees, irrespective of their baseline bulk antibody glycosylation profile, suggests that B cell programming of antibody glycosylation must occur in an environment that is unaffected by baseline inflammatory differences that may be driven by different diets, microbiomes, or co-infections, [25,30,31]. Furthermore, alterations in antibody glycosylation during vaccination clearly occurs in an antigen-specific manner, as HA-specific antibody glycosylation profiles were unaltered, suggesting that antibody glycosylation must require some level of B cell receptor triggering. Yet, because distinct vaccinations elicited discrete antibody glycan profiles, it is likely that unique inflammatory signals, delivered via TLRs or cytokines, at the time of BCR engagement, must play a critical role in tuning the antibody glycoprofile towards particular effector function, potentially allowing B cells to integrate information and program function according to the microbial origin of the antigen to which they are selected. Previous genome wide data have identified a small number of single nucleotide polymorphisms that track with altered systemic antibody glycosylation [38]. However, here we observed highly significant regional differences in the circulating antibody glycome, that extend far beyond the frequencies at which these SNPs occur within populations, suggesting strongly the critical importance of environmental influences on modulating and shaping circulating humoral immune profiles. Whether these antibody-glycome profiles are imprinted gestationally, related to nutritional differences or linked to differences in co-infections remains to be determined. Furthermore, whether this profile is reversible (upon relocation), and if it fluctuates over time also remains unclear. Given the critical nature of non-specific antibody glycosylation in therapeutically reducing inflammation, as is observed with IVIG [19,20], understanding the key modulators of bulk glycosylation may not only help tune immunologic inflammation but also provide insights into populations at risk for particular infection, malignancies, or autoimmune disease. Irrespective of the baseline circulating antibody glycome differences, vaccination resulted in the rapid selection of a single vaccine-specific glycan profile, suggesting that vaccination can select for uniform protective humoral immune profiles globally. However, whether these antibody glycan profiles change over time and whether they are preserved and can be recalled is unclear. Because humoral immune responses are composed of different waves of plasmablasts, it is plausible that the peak vaccine-specific antibody glycan profile may represent a particular wave of glycan profiles that later matures over time, concurrent with the loss of specific plasmablast populations. Thus future longitudinal vaccine studies may provide enhanced insights into the specific antibody-glycoprofiles that may be seeded into the long-lived plasma cell pool, which are aimed at conferring immunologic memory until pathogen re-exposure. Moreover, understanding how antibody glyco-profiles may be tuned in memory-B cells that give rise to new waves of plasmablasts, through prime-boosting or via reaction to distinct adjuvants, offers a unique opportunity to fine tune antibody effector activity. Thus these data highlight the critical need to more fully understand the signals and mechanisms that program glycan profiles naturally and via vaccination to define the specific vaccines, adjuvants, and/or vectors that can selectively induce glycan perturbations linked to desired antibody effector functions. This study is the first to clearly demonstrate that the immune system actively tunes antibody glycosylation in an antigen-specific manner via the delivery of specific signals at the time of antigen exposure, in a BCR-dependent manner, independent of baseline inflammatory differences. Whether host-genetics or baseline risk factors may impact B cell programming and thereby the ability to generate specific antibody glycan profiles is unknown. However given the emerging interest in modulating antibody effector activity against HIV, and other pathogens, novel strategies able to actively modulate antibody effector function in vivo are highly desirable. Thus the data presented here demonstrate that vaccination can harness antibody effector function via the regulation of antibody glycosylation offering a novel route to improve future vaccines that may provide protection from HIV and beyond. HIV-positive patients were recruited through the Ragon Institute at Massachusetts General Hospital. A total of 197 HIV-positive subjects, balanced for sex and age, were included in this study, including 48 elite controllers (<75 copies RNA/ml) [39], 64 viremic controllers (75–2000 copies of RNA/ml), 44 HIV-positive patients on antiretroviral therapy (<70 copies RNA/ml), and 41 untreated HIV-positive patients (>70 copies RNA/ml). The B003/IPCAVD-004/HVTN 091 vaccine trial (clinicaltrials. gov ID: NCT01215149) was a safety and immunogenicity trial of a combination of adenovirus vectors (Ad26 and Ad35) expressing gp120 ENVA. Adenoviral vectors were administered at seven sites in three regions: the United States, East Africa, and South Africa. Low-risk, HIV-negative adults received two intramuscular doses of one or the other vector, and all samples used in this study were collected at peak immunogenicity, two weeks after final immunization (manuscript in preparation). The VAX003 trial was a phase III efficacy trial administered in Thailand in a high-risk population of intravenous drug users (clinicaltrials. gov ID NCT00006327). This trial used seven doses of AIDSVAX B/E, a recombinant gp120 clade B/E, with alum as the adjuvant. All samples used in this study were collected at peak immunogenicity, two weeks after the final vaccination. The study was reviewed and approved by the Massachusetts General Hospital Institutional Review Board, and each subject gave written informed consent. All samples were collected and used with approval from local the Institutional Review Boards and appropriate national regulatory authorities [18]. The HIV positive patient cohorts were approved by the Massachusetts General Hospital institutional review board. The ICPAVD 004 trial was approved by the Harvard Medical School institutional review board and each subject gave written informed consent. The VAX003 study was approved by the Bangkok Metropolitan Administration institutional review board and each subject gave written informed consent. Plasma was collected by the vaccine trial staff and stored at -80°C until use. IgG was isolated using Melon Gel IgG purification resin (Thermo Fisher) according to the manufacturer' s instructions. Fc glycans were released and analyzed as described [40]. Briefly, whole antibodies were treated with IdeS protease (Genovis) to separate the Fab from the Fc and Fc glycans were released by PNGaseF and then dried down prior to fluorescent labeling with 8-aminopyrene-1,3, 6-trisulfonate. Labeled glycans were run on a capillary electrophoresis machine and glycan peaks were assigned using labeled standards. A representative glycan spectra is depicted in S1 Fig and a table of peak assignments and names are listed in S1 Table. Isolated IgG was passed over gp120 embedded columns (YU2 for HIV-positive subjects, EnvA for IPCAVD vaccinees, and a 1: 1 mix of A244 and MN for VAX003 vaccinees; Immune Technology Corp.), p24 (HXBc2; Immune Technology Corp.) or HA (mix of HAΔTM H1N1 A/Solomon Islands/3/2006, HAΔTM H3N2 A/Wisconsin/67/x161/2005, HAΔTM H1N1 A/Brisbane/59/2007, HAΔTM H3N2 A/Brisbane/10/2007, HA1 H1N1 A/New Caledonia/20/99, HA B/Malaysia/2506/2004/0054P and HAΔTM B/Florida/2006; Immune Technology Corp.). The bound antibody was eluted from the column in 0. 1 M citric acid, pH 2. 9. The purified IgGs were treated with PNGaseF to release the attached N-linked glycans for analysis. To compare these antibodies to the bulk fraction, a subset of bulk IgG was processed without Fc separation as described above. Functional profiling was performed as described previous [41] Briefly, bulk IgG from chronic untreated HIV patients was purified using a Melon Gel IgG purification Kit (Thermo Scientific). Complement activation was measured via the recruitment of C3d to CEM-NKR target cells by flow cytometry following antibody labeling of gp120-adsorbed target cells. ADCC was quantified following the elimination of fluorescently labeled antibody-coated-gp120-adsorbed CEM-NKR cells by purified primary NK cells [8]. NK cell activation was assessed following the addition of purified NK cells to antibody adsorbed gp120-coated 96-well plates by flow-cytometry as the frequency of NK cells degranulating (CD107a upregulation), chemokine (MIP-1β) or cytokine (IFN-γ) secreting cells [8]. For ADCP was measured as the level of antibody-induced-gp120-coated fluorescent bead uptake by flow cytometry by THP-1 cells [42]. Finally, ADCVI was quantified as the difference in HIV-JRCSF replication in the presence or absence of antibodies in activated CD4 T cells in the presence of autologous primary NK cells and antibodies over 7 days [43]. Univariate data were analyzed using GraphPad Prism Version 6. 0e for Mac (GraphPad Software, San Diego, California) for statistical significance and graphical representation. The statistical tests used are indicated for each figure. Heat maps were constructed using GENE-E (Brode Institute, Cambridge, MA). Multivariate analyses were performed using MATLAB and Statistics Toolbox Release 2013b (the MathWorks Inc., Natick, Massachusetts) and JMP Pro 11. 00 (SAS, Cary, North Carolina).

Title: Antigen-Specific Antibody Glycosylation Is Regulated via Vaccination Summary: Accumulating evidence points to a critical role for non-neutralizing antibody functions in protective immunity against a variety of pathogens, including HIV. Non-neutralizing antibody function is controlled by antibody constant domain interactions with Fc receptors, which itself is regulated via changes in antibody subclass/isotype selection or antibody glycosylation. This study specifically aimed to determine whether glycosylation of IgG is naturally tuned to target distinct pathogens or antigens and whether this activity can be actively modulated to direct antibody effector function. The study clearly demonstrates that the immune system naturally exploits unique IgG glycosylation profiles to target distinct pathogens and antigens and that this activity can be actively manipulated via vaccination. Moreover, because different vaccines drive unique glycosylation profiles, future studies that define the specific signals that control antibody glycosylation may lead to the generation of next-generation therapeutic interventions that can leverage and specifically direct the killing activity of the innate immune system, targeting HIV and beyond.

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Summarize: Scot Peterson, the sheriff’s deputy vilified for failing to confront the Parkland school shooter, has begun receiving a state pension of $8,702.35 a month. Peterson resigned and retired Feb. 22, a week after the massacre at Marjory Stoneman Douglas High School, where he waited outside as Nikolas Cruz killed 17 people and wounded 17 others. Peterson began to receive his pension in April, according to the Florida Department of Management Services. He can receive the payments for the rest of his life. The 55-year-old Peterson, a Broward deputy for 32 years, was paid $101,879.03 last year — $75,673.72 in base salary plus overtime and other compensation, according to sheriff’s office records. Until the shooting, he was considered a trusted school resource officer at Stoneman Douglas, according to annual reviews of his performance. He was eligible to retire from the agency in July 2010 when he had 25 years of service, a sheriff’s office spokeswoman said Wednesday. On Feb. 14, surveillance video showed Peterson waiting outside the school as Cruz prowled the halls with an AR-15 rifle. President Donald Trump branded Peterson a coward, and Sheriff Scott Israel began an investigation into his actions. Israel said Peterson should have “went in. Addressed the killer. Killed the killer.” The investigation into Peterson’s response is ongoing, a sheriff’s office spokeswoman said Wednesday. After the shooting, Peterson said in a statement that he heard gunshots but believed that they were coming from outside of the school and not inside the building where the shooting took place. An attorney representing Peterson did not respond to an email Tuesday requesting comment. Peterson’s pension payments are based on the total number of years he worked and the average of his five highest-paid fiscal years, according to a state pension handbook. Health benefits are not included in the monthly amount, according to a Department of Management Services spokeswoman. That information would have to be provided by his former employer, she said. Peterson has medical insurance through the sheriff’s office, an agency spokeswoman said Wednesday. Peterson would not be entitled to his pension if he were convicted of a crime such as embezzlement or bribery. Neither the sheriff’s office nor the state attorney have indicated “any charges or other circumstances” that would justify withholding Peterson’s pension, Erin Rock, secretary for the Department of Management Services, concluded in a letter March 28. A state commission is reviewing the police response to the shooting. “Because no charges have been filed, the state is required to provide his pension under Florida law but our agency will be closely monitoring the [Florida Department of Law Enforcement] investigation for any updates,” a spokesman for Gov. Rick Scott said in a statement Thursday. “If FDLE finds that anyone has broken any laws, they will be held fully accountable.” Peterson was sued last month by Andrew Pollack, whose daughter Meadow died in the shooting. Asked for comment Tuesday, Pollack said: “This guy is a disgrace. It doesn’t change when he looks in the mirror. … He’s a disgrace and a coward.” Of the pension, he said: “He’s going to take it.” Ideally, Pollack said, the money should go toward school safety or scholarships for wounded students. “But there’s nothing we can do about it.” Pollack also tweeted about Peterson’s pension: “The coward of broward, Scot Peterson is getting over $8k a month pension! He hid while my daughter and 16 others were slaughtered! How in the hell is he getting this? That money should go to actually securing our schools!” Fred Guttenberg, whose daughter Jaime was killed, tweeted: “This infuriates me in ways people cannot comprehend. My daughter would still be alive if this person did his job.” Peterson, a native of Illinois, started with the sheriff’s office in July 1985, after studying at Miami-Dade Community College and Florida International University. [email protected], 954-356-4520 or @bystephenhobbs Watch surveillance video outside Marjory Stoneman Douglas High School during shooting The Broward Sheriff's Office released an unedited of surveillance video outside Marjory Stoneman Douglas High School during and after confessed school shooter Nikolas Cruz killed 17 people on Feb. 14, 2018.

Summary: The school resource officer widely criticized for his response to the Feb. 14 Parkland shooting is now the target of abuse over his six-figure pension. Scot Peterson, 55, who retired a week after 17 people died in the shooting at Marjory Stoneman Douglas High School as he stood outside, began receiving a monthly state pension of $8,702.35 in April, reports the South Florida Sun-Sentinel. Over a year, the payments add up to $104,428.20, a few thousand dollars more than Peterson made in his last of 32 years as a Broward County sheriff's deputy, per the Miami Herald. "This guy is a disgrace," says Andrew Pollack, who's suing Peterson over his daughter's death in the shooting. "This infuriates me in ways people cannot comprehend," adds Fred Guttenberg, whose daughter was also killed. She "would still be alive if this person did his job." Peterson, who is to receive the payments until his death, has claimed he took up a "tactical position" outside the school, believing the shots weren't originating inside. However, he's heard on a recording identifying shots as coming from a school building. The police response to the shooting is under review by a state commission, but a March letter from Florida's Department of Management Services notes the sheriff's office and state attorney haven't indicated "any charges or other circumstances" to warrant withholding the pension payments. They do not account for health benefits and are based on years worked and the average of Peterson's five highest-paid fiscal years, per the Sun Sentinel. Records show Peterson earned a base salary of $75,673.72 last year. With overtime and other compensation, his earnings totaled $101,879.03.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Servicemembers Insurance Relief Act of 2014''. SEC. 2. FINDINGS AND PURPOSE. (a) Findings.--The Congress finds the following: (1) When servicemembers move from one State to another they are required to go through a burdensome process of changing their auto insurance policies. (2) The Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. App. 501 et seq.) allows the men and women serving in the United States Armed Forces to keep a stable domicile with respect to auto licensing and fees even if they are forced to move temporarily in compliance with military orders. (3) The Federal Insurance Office of the U.S. Department of the Treasury, in its report of December 12, 2013, on how to modernize and improve the system of insurance regulation in the United States, found that ``an individual on active duty can transfer credit cards, checking accounts, and other financial services simply by submitting a change of address form. By contrast, an individual moving from one state to another may be required to obtain a new auto insurance policy on each transfer''. Furthermore the report called on interested parties ``to identify a more accommodating approach for service members who have personal auto policies and are required to move across state lines''. (4) Relief should be provided with respect to auto insurance policies for servicemembers and their families that are required to move in compliance with any temporary duty or permanent change of station order. (b) Purpose.--The purpose of this Act is to reduce the burdens and increase the protections involved in changing auto insurance policies for servicemembers and their families who are required to move in compliance with a temporary duty or permanent change of station order. SEC. 3. MAINTENANCE OF DOMICILE FOR INSURANCE PURPOSES. (a) In General.--A member of a household of a servicemember shall neither lose nor acquire a residence or domicile for purposes of insuring a motor vehicle used primarily for personal, family, or household use if-- (1) in the case of a member of the household who is a servicemember, such servicemember has temporarily moved to comply with any temporary duty or permanent change of station order; or (2) in the case of any other member of the household, such member has temporarily moved to accompany a servicemember of such household who is complying with any temporary duty or permanent change of station order. (b) Notice.-- (1) Requirement.--If a member of a household of a servicemember notifies an insurer of a motor vehicle of such member of a move referred to in subsection (a), such insurer shall provide such member with a servicemembers insurance choice notice under paragraph (2). (2) Servicemembers insurance choice notice.--The Director of the Federal Insurance Office of the Department of the Treasury shall promulgate, in compliance with the rulemaking requirements of subchapter II of chapter 5 of title 5, United States Code (commonly known as the Administrative Procedure Act)-- (A) a standard servicemembers insurance choice notice that shall-- (i) summarize clearly and in plain language the right of servicemembers and members of their households, in addition to options available under current law, to continue an existing auto insurance policy as allowed by the insurer with appropriate adjustments that relate only to location risk factors; (ii) include language notifying the servicemember that the insurer to whom the servicemember provided the notice of a move shall explain the coverage options available to the servicemember as a result of the move; and (iii) include standard language that requires no alterations or additions for an insurer providing the notice to be fully in compliance with paragraph (1); and (B) standards regarding methods for transmittal of such notice to a member of a household of a servicemember that are sufficient to comply with paragraph (1). (3) Safe harbor.--Paragraph (1) may not be construed to impose any duty on an insurer who is notified of a move referred to in subsection (a) to determine whether the person providing such notice is a servicemember. (c) Limitations.--Nothing in this section shall be construed to-- (1) require a person to maintain an existing auto insurance policy; (2) allow an insurer to impose any penalties against a member of a household of a servicemember based solely on a decision to maintain or not maintain an existing auto insurance policy, as allowed by the insurer with appropriate adjustments that relate only to location risk factors; or (3) require an insurer to continue providing coverage to such a member. (d) Preemption.--The provisions of this Act shall supersede any and all State or local laws that conflict with this Act, including-- (1) any State or local law that requires a member of a household of a servicemember to change the auto insurance policy of such member; (2) any State or local law that seeks to assert control over the regulation of such policy other than by the State in which the auto insurance policy was issued or renewed; and (3) any State or local law regarding proof of insurance that prohibits the electronic delivery of insurance documents. (e) Liability Limits.--Notwithstanding subsection (d)(2), the minimum security requirements for motor vehicles of the State where a servicemember resides shall apply to an auto insurance policy of a member of such servicemember's household. (f) Enforcement.--Authority to examine and enforce insurer compliance with the provisions of this Act shall be held by the State in which the auto insurance policy was issued or renewed. SEC. 4. DEFINITIONS. In this Act: (a) Member of a Household.--The term ``member of a household'' means, with respect to a servicemember-- (1) the servicemember; (2) the spouse of the servicemember; or (3) any dependent residing with the servicemember or the spouse of the servicemember. (b) Motor Vehicle.--The term ``motor vehicle'' has the meaning given the term in section 30102(a)(6) of title 49, United States Code. (c) Servicemember.--The term ``servicemember'' means a member of the uniformed services, as such term is defined in section 101(a) of title 10, United States Code, or of the National Guard or the reserve components thereof. (d) State.--The term ``State'' means each of the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, and any commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States. (e) Temporarily Moved.--The term ``temporarily moved'' means, with respect to a person, that the person has moved from one State to another but has not decided to reside indefinitely in the State to which such person moved.

Title: Servicemembers Insurance Relief Act of 2014 Summary: Servicemembers Insurance Relief Act of 2014 - Declares that a member of a servicemember's household neither loses nor acquires a residence or domicile for purposes of insuring a motor vehicle primarily for personal, family, or household use if: (1) the servicemember has temporarily moved to comply with any temporary duty or permanent change of station order, or (2) the member of the household has temporarily moved to accompany a servicemember who is complying with such an order. Defines: (1) "servicemember" as a member of the uniformed services, the National Guard, or reserve components; and (2) "member of a household" as the servicemember, the spouse of a servicemember, or any dependent residing with such a servicemember or a servicemember's spouse. Requires insurers to provide a member of a servicemember's household with a servicemembers insurance choice notice if a household member notifies the insurer of such a move. Directs the Federal Insurance Office of the Department of the Treasury to promulgate a standard servicemembers insurance choice notice that: (1) summarizes the right of servicemembers and members of their households, in addition to options available under current law, to continue an existing auto insurance policy as allowed by the insurer with appropriate adjustments that relate only to location risk factors; (2) notifies the servicemember that the insurer will explain the coverage options available to the servicemember as a result of the move; and (3) requires no alterations or additions for an insurer to be in compliance with such notification requirements. Prohibits this Act from requiring an insurer to continue providing coverage to such a member. Provides enforcement authority to the states in which the relevant auto insurance policy was issued or renewed.

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Summarize: Chris Murphy, who led Democrats in holding floor for more than 14 hours, says deal was struck with Republicans for vote on background checks and terror watchlist A marathon Democratic filibuster in the wake of the Orlando nightclub massacre came to an end in the US Senate on Thursday morning after Republicans apparently agreed to hold votes on tighter gun control measures. Chris Murphy, a Connecticut Democrat, led the filibuster which lasted for more than 14 hours along with several colleagues. In the early hours of Thursday morning in Washington, Murphy said a deal had been struck with Republican leaders to hold votes on key measures. Murphy yielded the floor at 2.11am, saying he had won commitments from Republican leaders that they would hold votes on amendments to expand background checks and ban gun sales to suspected terrorists. Chris Murphy (@ChrisMurphyCT) I am proud to announce that after 14+ hours on the floor, we will have a vote on closing the terror gap & universal background checks Chris Murphy (@ChrisMurphyCT) This is one step. The fight is far from over. But there are millions of voices calling for change. And we cannot stop pushing #Enough The Connecticut senator had promised at the outset that he would remain on the Senate floor “until we get some signal, some sign that we can come together” on gun control. As the filibuster continued, updates and messages of support were posted on social media with the hashtags #enough and #holdthefloor. Murphy evoked the Newtown school shooting in his state in 2012 in a plea that came as the presumptive Republican presidential candidate, Donald Trump, said he would meet with the National Rifle Association (NRA) about the terror watchlist and gun purchases. “For those of us that represent Connecticut, the failure of this body to do anything, anything at all in the face of that continued slaughter isn’t just painful to us, it’s unconscionable,” Murphy said. “There hasn’t been a debate scheduled on the floor of the Senate,” Murphy said as the filibuster neared an end. “There hasn’t been a debate scheduled in the committees … There are 30,000 people dying” annually in the country, he said. Murphy called the massive shooting at a gay nightclub in Orlando “devastating” for many and said it had been frustrating for people to watch as the Senate “has done absolutely nothing” in response to mass shootings in recent years. Starting around 11.20am on Wednesday, senator after senator took to the floor of the chamber to argue for legislation. The Wisconsin senator Tammy Baldwin cited a list of multiple homicides in her state in recent years. Murphy began speaking at 11.21am and was still standing more than 10 hours later, showing few signs of fatigue. By Senate rules he had to stand at his desk to maintain control of the floor. When asked by another senator how he was feeling just before 7.30pm, Murphy said rehabilitation from a back injury in his 20s had helped him build up endurance. As tourists and staff – and at one point in the evening, Murphy’s two sons – looked on from the galleries, the senator maintained his filibuster to a mostly empty chamber, save a series of Democratic senators who joined him and made their own speeches through the day. Democrats Richard Blumenthal of Connecticut and Cory Booker of New Jersey stayed with Murphy on the floor for most of the debate. The election-year fight over gun control in the wake of the shooting at the Pulse gay nightclub in Orlando pits strong proponents of the second amendment right to bear arms against those arguing for greater restrictions on the ability to obtain weapons. Trump, who has the endorsement of the NRA, told a rally in Georgia: “I’m going to save your second amendment.” It has been nearly a decade since Congress made any significant changes to federal gun laws. In April 2007 Congress passed a law to strengthen the instant background check system after a gunman at Virginia Tech who killed 32 people was able to purchase his weapons because his mental health history was not in the instant background check database. Murphy is seeking a vote on legislation that would let the government bar sales of guns and explosives to people it suspects of being terrorists. Senator Dianne Feinstein, a California Democrat, offered a similar version of the amendment in December, a day after an extremist couple killed 14 people in San Bernardino, California, but the Republican-run Senate rejected the proposal on a near party-line vote. Murphy also wants a vote to expand background checks. The Orlando shooter, Omar Mateen, was added to a government watchlist of individuals known or suspected of being involved in terrorist activities in 2013, when he was investigated for inflammatory statements to co-workers. But he was pulled from the database when that investigation was closed 10 months later. The NRA said it was happy to meet Trump and reiterated its support for a bill from the Texas Republican senator John Cornyn that would let the government delay firearms sales to suspected terrorists for up to 72 hours. Prosecutors would have to persuade a judge to block the transaction permanently, a bar Democrats and gun control activists say is too high. Cornyn and other Republicans argue that Feinstein’s bill denies due process to people who may be on the terror list erroneously and are trying to exercise their constitutional right to gun ownership. Separately, Everytown for Gun Safety, a gun control group backed by the former New York mayor Michael Bloomberg, said it was working on a compromise with the Pennsylvania senator Patrick Toomey, a Republican in a tough re-election race this year who has sought compromise in the past on gun control measures. By the end of the day, Toomey had introduced legislation that would direct the attorney general to create a new list of suspected terrorists who could be barred from buying weapons. But Democrats immediately rejected that idea, saying it would create too much of a backlog. poster="http://v.politico.com/images/1155968404/201606/778/1155968404_4944693672001_4944665893001-vs.jpg?pubId=1155968404" true Democrats end filibuster, announce GOP to hold gun votes A deal on legislation to ban gun sales to suspected terrorists still looks unlikely. Sen. Chris Murphy (D-Conn.) and fellow Senate Democrats officially relinquished the floor early Thursday morning after spending nearly 15 hours straight talking about gun control, paving the way for high-profile congressional votes on restricting firearms just days after the worst mass shooting in modern U.S. history. Despite the flurry of activity, though, the two sides appeared no closer to an agreement on gun legislation that can pass the Senate. Story Continued Below Still, the chamber is likely to vote on two Democratic-backed gun measures: a proposal from Sen. Dianne Feinstein (D-Calif.) meant to bar those on federal terror watch lists from obtaining firearms, and a plan from Murphy and Sens. Cory Booker (D-N.J.) and Chuck Schumer (D-N.Y.) mandating background checks for sales at gun shows and over the internet. Republicans are expected to put forward two of their own proposals for votes. “We’ve gotten to a place where we’re going to get votes on these important amendments,” Murphy, who had led the rhetorical charge on the Senate floor, said shortly before 1:30 a.m. Thursday. “What would’ve been unacceptable is to spend this entire week on legislative business that was irrelevant to the epidemic of gun violence that has been made more real than ever.” The Connecticut senator, who had been a leading gun-control advocate in the Senate since the massacre at Sandy Hook Elementary School in 2012, took to the floor at 11:21 a.m. Wednesday to draw attention to the Democrats’ latest push to crack down on firearms laws. But it was a caucus-wide effort — 38 other Senate Democrats joined Murphy in the filibuster that lasted 14 hours and 50 minutes, with a handful of lawmakers, including Booker and Sen. Richard Blumenthal (D-Conn.), standing with Murphy for hours on end. Murphy formally yielded at 2:11 a.m. Thursday after delivering an emotional tribute to two Sandy Hook victims: 6-year-old Dylan Hockley and a teacher’s aide, Anne Marie Murphy, who was fatally shot while trying to shield Hockley from bullets. “It doesn’t take courage to stand here on the floor of the United States Senate for two hours or six hours or 14 hours,” Murphy said. “It takes courage to look into the eye of a shooter and instead of running, wrapping your arms around a 6-year-old boy and accepting death." The senator continued: “If Anne Marie Murphy could do that, then ask yourself: What can you do to make sure that Orlando or Sandy Hook never, ever happens again?” As Murphy and other Senate Democrats talked all day Wednesday, however, bipartisan negotiations on gun legislation were breaking down behind closed doors. In an election year, even something that seems politically unassailable — such as barring potential terrorists from getting weapons — is proving to be an incredibly difficult task. While senators in both parties say they want a solution, the Democrats’ attention-grabbing filibuster may be remembered more vividly than sputtering negotiations aimed at finding a compromise to close the so-called terrorist gun loophole. “I’m not looking for cover; I’m looking to get something done here,” said Sen. Pat Toomey (R-Pa.), who was speaking with the pro-gun control group Everytown for Gun Safety about a potential compromise. But Democrats have already rejected that proposal as worse than previous Republican offerings. At first blush, the Senate on Wednesday seemed ready to take action to try to prevent future killings like last weekend’s massacre of 49 people in Orlando. Even as Democrats planned their lengthy filibuster, Republicans batted around anti-terrorism proposals and both parties were briefed by FBI Director James Comey. But aides in both parties said there was little real movement by the end of the day, and both sides remained dug in behind their previous positions. Republicans and Democrats developed anti-terror guns proposals in December after the mass shooting in San Bernardino, Calif. — and one senior Democratic source said it would be a breakthrough simply to get re-dos on those two failed votes. “My guess is we’re back to square one,” the source said. The day began in earnest when Murphy launched a talking filibuster on the Senate floor — which was quickly joined by fellow Democrats — in an effort to pressure Republicans to accept legislation that would deny suspected terrorists from purchasing firearms and require universal background checks. The Senate is debating a spending bill for the Justice Department, to which Democrats had pushed to offer gun amendments. “I’m going to remain on this floor until we get some signal, some sign that we can come together on these two measures, that we can get a path forward on addressing this epidemic in a meaningful, bipartisan way,” Murphy said as he launched his filibuster. Most of the Democratic Caucus was unaware of Murphy’s plans until he took the floor, two senior aides said, though there had been some talk Tuesday about lining up speeches throughout the night Wednesday. At the same time, Sens. John Cornyn (R-Texas) and Feinstein explored whether there was common ground on preventing suspected terrorists from buying firearms. Currently, the two parties are backing very different approaches to resolving instances in which someone feels they’ve been wrongly put on a watch list and therefore cannot purchase a gun. Talks to reconcile those different approaches began on Tuesday, and Cornyn dismissed the Democratic filibuster as “filling the dead air” while the two parties negotiate. “This is a lot more nuanced than some people appreciate,” Cornyn said in an interview. “We’re trying.” Late Wednesday afternoon, however, Feinstein signaled that her talks with Cornyn were unlikely to bear fruit. “I don’t think that’s gonna work out,” Feinstein told reporters. When asked why, she responded: “I was told he gave it to the NRA. Now, that would do it.” Separately, Toomey was working with the Michael Bloomberg-backed group Everytown on a bipartisan deal to end the loophole. Democrats seemed unmoved, but Toomey vowed to push on: “I don’t think you can assume all Democrats have” rejected the proposal, he said in a brief interview, although Everytown said in a statement it couldn’t yet endorse his bill. Murphy and the Senate Democrats’ talk-a-thon marked an unusual day in the Senate, which had taken up the spending bill for DOJ, the Commerce Department and related agencies. By refusing to give up the floor, Senate Democrats prevented any amendment votes on the Justice Department spending bill. As senators entered a classified briefing, Murphy and a handful of his colleagues held the floor, refusing to let the Senate move forward on the spending bill without a gun debate. Booker bucked up the new class of Senate pages, who were preparing for their first late night in the Capitol. Murphy paced in his dress shoes — not the sneakers that Sen. Rand Paul once laced up for a filibuster. Sen. Elizabeth Warren (D-Mass.) railed against the use of “Rambo-style” assault weapons. At one point Wednesday night, Murphy looked up toward his young son Owen — seated in the chamber gallery — and apologized to him for missing pizza night, while telling him: “I hope that you’ll understand someday why we’re doing this.” Earlier Wednesday, three floors down in the bowels of the Capitol, senators pressed Comey on the different terror watch lists used by the feds, trying to understand how suspected Orlando shooter Omar Mateen was able to obtain his gun despite previous federal investigations, according to one senator who attended. “The FBI has so many counterterrorism investigations going on all over this country. So the biggest threat is, in fact, the lone wolf right now,” Feinstein said after the briefing. The Senate talkathon, FBI briefing and backroom talks came the same day presumptive GOP nominee Donald Trump tweeted that he would meet with the NRA. The NRA formally backed an approach favored by Senate Republicans that would allow a judge to arbitrate people who mistakenly end up on the terrorism watch list and want to buy guns, while Democrats prefer giving the Justice Department such authority. Both bills were voted down by the Senate in December. “If an investigation uncovers evidence of terrorist activity or involvement, the government should be allowed to immediately go to court, block the sale, and arrest the terrorist. At the same time, due process protections should be put in place that allow law-abiding Americans who are wrongly put on a watch list to be removed,” said Chris Cox, executive director of the NRA’s Institute for Legislative Action. The FBI has also signaled concerns about the general thrust of the Democratic proposal in the past. During testimony to Congress in 2015, Comey indicated that barring someone on the watch list from buying a gun could potentially compromise terror investigations. “It’s a little bit challenging for us because ‘known or suspected’ means it hasn’t been adjudicated in every case that somebody is a terrorist,” Comey told Feinstein during the hearing last year. “It’s somebody we’re investigating, so we don’t want to, obviously, blow our investigation. Sorry.” This time around, however, Feinstein anticipated that her proposal wouldn't be a problem because it contained protections that would prevent disclosing national security investigations, she said. Her legislation would not require the Justice Department to block the sale, but rather give it the powers to do so, an aide said. The blessing of the NRA caused Republicans to dig in behind Cornyn’s proposal and made it harder for any compromise with Democrats to pass muster. But Cornyn’s original proposal from last year also included language to defund “sanctuary cities” — a provision he has said he will remove. Including it last year made it impossible for most Democrats to support his proposal, which garnered 55 votes, five short of the 60-vote threshold. “My hope is we will grow our vote,” Cornyn said. Cornyn’s plan, however, drew some criticism from Toomey, who has played a key role on gun policy. The senator dismissed both gun measures put forward in the Senate, saying the Democratic plan lacked due process but that Cornyn’s proposal was insufficient, too. The Texas Republican’s plan allows the attorney general to delay a gun purchase for up to three days. Toomey introduced his own bill, which would require the attorney general to submit terror lists to the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court, providing a way to overrule the attorney general. But Democrats familiar with the proposal said it would make it harder to block terrorists from buying guns. Sen. Kelly Ayotte (R-N.H.) is also discussing a potential compromise with Democrats, according to an aide. Sen. Chris Murphy (D-Conn.) ended a 14-hour filibuster to force Republicans to vote on two gun control measures on June 16. He told the emotional story of a Sandy Hook victim before he left the floor. (AP) The Senate is expected to vote Monday on a series of competing gun-control measures that will highlight the continuing divide between Democrats and Republicans over how Congress should respond to mass shootings. All are likely to fail as the two parties largely retreat to their respective corners on gun control after attempts to craft a compromise frayed almost as soon as they began. Senators are expected to vote on four proposals, according to Senate Majority Whip John Cornyn (R-Texas). Two of them, backed by Democrats, would seek to prevent suspected terrorists from acquiring guns and explosives and impose mandatory background checks for firearms sold at gun shows and through online dealers. Republicans are expected to offer two competing proposals, including one that would keep guns away from suspected terrorists if authorities can prove they have probable cause to do so within three business days of the attempted sale, said Cornyn, the author of that legislation. Those measures have all failed to pass the Senate before, a point that frustrated many senators Thursday. “Instead of trying to find a solution that would work and still protect people’s constitutional rights, we’re going to battle to a draw on Monday night,” Sen. Bob Corker (R-Tenn.) said. The votes, he continued are “an intentional way to keep this as an issue; it’s not a way to solve this problem.” Even if the Senate were to strike a deal, it’s unclear such a proposal would be able to get through the House. Speaker Paul D. Ryan (R-Wis.) was non-committal on the issue Thursday. “We want to make sure that something like this doesn’t happen again.” he told reporters. “Everybody wants that. But as we look at how to proceed, we also want to make sure that we’re not infringing upon people’s legitimate constitutional rights. That’s important.” How to prevent terrorists from getting guns has become a subject of intense debate in Congress in the wake of the deadly attack in Orlando on Sunday in which 49 people were killed. The shooter, 29-year-old Omar Mateen, had been on the FBI’s terrorist watch list, but he was removed in 2014 because of a lack of evidence that he would commit an immediate crime. 1 of 25 Full Screen Autoplay Close Skip Ad × What the investigation into the Orlando mass shooting looks like View Photos Officials are scouring the site and others in the area for information about the June 12 massacre. Caption Officials are scouring the site and others in the area for information about the June 12 massacre. June 15, 2016 Law enforcement officials gather outside Pulse nightclub in Orlando during the shooting investigation. David Goldman/AP Buy Photo Wait 1 second to continue. Democrats have been angling for votes on a measure written by Sen. Dianne Feinstein (D-Calif.) that would deny firearms and explosives to anyone the attorney general suspects of being a terrorist. They also want a vote on a proposal drafted by Sens. Chris Murphy (D-Conn.), Cory Booker (D-N.J.) and Charles E. Schumer (D-N.Y.) that would expand background checks by requiring them for guns purchased at gun shows and online. Murphy staged a near-15-hour filibuster on the Senate floor over the past two days to secure a vote on those measures and credited his blockade with pressuring Republican leaders to commit to holding the votes. “We still have to get from here to there, but we did not have that commitment when we started,” Murphy said early Thursday, though he noted that there was “no guarantee that those amendments pass.” [Why it makes perfect sense that Chris Murphy is leading a gun-control filibuster] Senate Minority Leader Harry Reid (D-Nev.) celebrated Murphy’s efforts, calling his display “inspiring” and saying all 46 Senate Democrats are united behind him. “I hope he got the attention of the Senate Republicans,” Reid added. But Senate Majority Leader Mitch McConnell (R-Ky.) derided Murphy’s filibuster as “a campaign talkathon out here on the Senate floor which also prevented us from moving forward.” The Fix's Amber Phillips breaks down why Congress is unlikely to pass major gun control legislation, despite Sen. Chris Murphy (D-Conn.) filibustering for 15 hours on June 15. (Peter Stevenson/The Washington Post) GOP leaders say they have maintained since Tuesday there would be votes on amendments, though they had not specified which Republican- or Democrat-backed proposals would be considered. [How ‘pro-gun’ Bob Casey became a Senate evangelist for gun control] “Of course no one wants terrorists to be able to buy a gun,” McConnell said. “If Democrats are actually serious about getting a solution on that issue, not just making a political talking point, they’ll join with us to support Senator Cornyn’s” bill. But there are signs Republicans are growing uncomfortable with the Cornyn alternative. Sen. Susan Collins (R-Maine), who is not up for reelection until 2020, on Wednesday criticized the measure — which she supported last year — saying it isn’t strong enough and “doesn’t do the job.” Sen. Patrick J. Toomey (R-Pa.) said he thought “the Cornyn approach doesn’t give the AG the opportunity that an AG needs to make a case against someone who is actually a terrorist.” Neither was ready to support Feinstein’s legislation. But both have been working on potential alternatives to the Cornyn and Feinstein bills. Collins said Thursday that she was working with “a group of Republican senators” on a measure that would give the attorney general full authority to deny the right to buy a gun to anyone on the No Fly or Selectee lists – subsets of the FBI’s consolidated terrorist watchlist of 800,000 names. It would also include a five-year look back provision ensuring that the FBI would be alerted whenever someone who used to be on one of those lists, like the Orlando shooter, purchased a gun. Someone like Mateen “wouldn’t be denied the ability to buy a gun because he’s no longer on the list, but the FBI would be pinged that he had purchased a gun,” Collins explained, concluding that sequence of events “would undoubtedly put him back on the list.” Toomey was also in talks Wednesday with a gun-control advocacy organization backed by former New York mayor Michael Bloomberg to craft a measure that Republicans could live with to prevent terrorists from obtaining firearms. “This is not rocket science to figure this out,” Toomey said on the Senate floor Wednesday, adding that he had been speaking to “several” senators about a compromise. But by the day’s end, leading Democrats were deriding the specifics of the Pennsylvania Republican’s proposal, and a spokeswoman for Bloomberg’s organization, Everytown for Gun Safety, said, “We’re not there yet.” On Wednesday, Toomey proposed his own language, in which a secret Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court would annually vet a list from the attorney general of potential terrorists, who could be prevented from purchasing a firearm or explosive if the court agreed. Meanwhile, other attempts at compromise fell short. Feinstein approached Cornyn to try to reach a deal Wednesday, but those talks appeared to have frayed. “I don’t think it’s going to work out,” Feinstein told reporters late Wednesday of her efforts to find a middle ground with Cornyn. [Senators target terrorist watch lists] Both the Cornyn and Feinstein measures failed to pass the Senate in December following the shootings in San Bernardino, Calif. Republicans argue Feinstein’s legislation doesn’t do enough to protect the Second Amendment rights of individuals who might be labeled suspected terrorists by mistake. Democrats say the time frame in Cornyn’s bill is too narrow and would make it functionally impossible to prevent anyone, even a terrorist, from getting a gun. “It’s a way for them to say they’re doing something when they are doing nothing,” Schumer said. The Justice Department on Thursday formally announced its support for the Feinstein amendment. At a news conference with Senate Democrats and families of victims of gun violence June 16, Sen. Chuck Schumer (D-N.Y.) said others in the Senate are "for the first time... actually saying we ought to do something" to prevent shooting deaths. (Reuters) Previous efforts to pass gun-control legislation in the wake of recent mass shootings have been unsuccessful. The closest the Senate came to making headway in recent years was in 2013, when the Senate voted on a measure written by Toomey and Sen. Joe Manchin III (D-W.Va.) to require criminal and mental background checks at gun shows and for online gun sales following the mass shooting at Sandy Hook Elementary School in Newtown, Conn. But only 54 senators, including four Republicans, supported that bill then — six votes shy of the 60 votes supporters needed. Manchin called the substance of his and Toomey’s measure “the fundamental building block” of gun-control legislation on Wednesday. “You can’t do a no-fly bill, you can’t do a terrorist watch list, and then leave a loophole,” Manchin told reporters. “That loophole must be closed.” This frame grab provided by C-SPAN shows Sen. Chris Murphy (D-Conn.) speaking on the floor of the Senate after launching a filibuster over gun control. (Senate Television via AP) Murphy said early Thursday that the votes on the Democratic-backed amendments to keep guns from suspected terrorists and expand background checks were just the beginning of a bigger agenda. “We want to start with these two common-sense measures,” Murphy said early Thursday, adding that Democrats had “carefully selected” the proposals “as the most likely to get bipartisan votes” because “they are as noncontroversial as you get.” Looming over the debate is where presumptive GOP presidential nominee Donald Trump stands. On Wednesday morning, he tweeted that he would be meeting with the NRA to express his views that those on the terrorist list should not be allowed to purchase weapons. I will be meeting with the NRA, who has endorsed me, about not allowing people on the terrorist watch list, or the no fly list, to buy guns. — Donald J. Trump (@realDonaldTrump) June 15, 2016 Several Republican senators said on Thursday that they aren’t sure what Trump’s position is on the specific proposals being considered by the Senate and shrugged off whether they had to be on the same page as their party’s presumptive nominee. “I can’t comment on where he’s going on that issue,” said Sen. Jeff Sessions (R-Ala.), Trump’s top ally in the Senate. “He’s been a staunch supporter of the second amendment, and there is a huge divide between Hillary Clinton and Donald Trump. “ Gun-control advocates are braced for another policy defeat in the Senate, but they are also claiming a victory of sorts. “After Sandy Hook it took four months for the U.S. Senate to vote. After Orlando it took four days,” said Everytown spokeswoman Erika Soto Lamb. “Make no mistake that this is another sign of the sea change in gun politics.” Mike DeBonis and Kelsey Snell contributed to this report.

Summary: After almost 15 hours of filibustering, Democratic Sen. Chris Murphy declared victory early Thursday morning, saying he had secured a Senate vote on gun control measures. The Connecticut senator, who cited the Sandy Hook massacre when he launched the filibuster Wednesday morning, called it a day at 2:11am, the Guardian reports. He told reporters that Republican leaders had agreed to vote on measures to expand background checks and ban gun sales to suspected terrorists, which will be introduced as amendments to a spending bill, reports the Washington Post. Murphy noted that while he had secured a vote, there's no guarantee that any Republicans will actually vote in favor of the measures. During the talkathon, Murphy said the Orlando mass shooting was a "devastating" event, and that the Senate "has done absolutely nothing" after other mass shootings. Sources from both parties tell Politico that during a difficult day of negotiations on Capitol Hill, very little progress was made in bringing the sides together, even on such a seemingly simple measure as denying guns to suspected terrorists.

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Summarize: A worker who claims she was the victim of a race-hate campaign by fundamentalist Muslims because of her Christian beliefs has launched a landmark case against her former employers. Nouhad Halawi, a saleswoman at Heathrow Airport's World Duty Free shop, said she and other Christian staff were systematically harassed by Muslims. She alleged the intimidation included:. Sacked: Christian Nouhad Halawi who claims she was harassed by 'extremist' Muslims. Mrs Halawi lost her job at the perfume counter in Terminal 3 in July after 13 years when she spoke out about bullying by a small group of 'extremist' Muslims at the airport. The mother-of-two had been the subject of a. complaint by an Islamic colleague but when she. raised her own concerns as a Christian, she said she was the one who was. dismissed. Her case for unfair dismissal is being supported by the. Christian Legal Centre, who believe it raises important legal issues over whether Muslims and Christians are treated. differently by employers. Shopping: One of the World Duty Free stores at Heathrow. Mrs Halawi was a perfume saleswoman for 13 years. Mrs Halawi, 47, who came to Britain from Lebanon in 1977, said: 'I have been sacked on the basis of. unsubstantiated complaints. 'There is now great fear amongst my former. colleagues that the same could happen to them if one of the Muslims. turns on them. 'This is supposed to be a Christian country, but the law seems to be on the side of the Muslims.' She says that she had always got on well with her Muslim colleagues,but the atmosphere changed with a growing number of employees promoting 'fundamentalist Islam'. Mrs Halawi told the Sunday Telegraph: 'One man brought in the Koran to work and. insisted I read it and another brought in Islamic leaflets and handed. them out to other employees. 'They said that 9/11 served the Americans right and that they hated the West, but that they had come here because they want to convert people to Islam. 'They say that Jesus is s***** and bullied a Christian friend of mine so much for wearing her crosses that she came to me crying.' She claimed she became a targeted for the fundamentalists after she stood up for her friend who wants to be anonymous because she still works at the terminal. In May, five of her Muslim colleagues complained to David Tunnicliffe, the trading manager at World Duty Free, accusing her of being anti-Islamic following a heated conversation in the store. According to the Telegraph, her description of a Muslim colleague as an allawhi -'man of God' in Arabic - sparked a row when another worker overheard the remark and thought she said Alawi, which was his branch of Islam. Heathrow: Complaint of religious discrimination by a sacked worker in Terminal 3. Following the complaints she was suspended but was not told on what grounds until she met Mr Tunnicliffe in July. Two days after the meeting she received a letter withdrawing her Heathrow security pass - needed to work at World Duty Free - because her comments were deemed 'extremely inappropriate.' Mrs Halawi, paid at World Duty Free on a freelance basis by cosmetic staff agency Caroline South Associates, was told that she would not be unable to continue working without her pass. A petition signed by 28 colleagues, some of them Muslims, argued that she has been dismissed on the basis of'malicious lies.' The Christian Legal Centre has instructed Paul Diamond, a leading human rights barrister, to represent Mrs Halawi in taking both Caroline South Associates and Autogrill Retail UK Limited, which trades as World Duty Free, to an employment tribunal. A lawyer acting for CSA told the Sunday Telegraph: 'The case is still pending so the company is not in a position to comment, but as far as the company is concerned she's never been an employee and has never been dismissed.' A World Duty Free spokesman said they were unable to comment because of 'ongoing legal proceedings'. Last week, Jewish businessman Arieh Zucker complained that he has been repeatedly singled out for. full-body scans by Muslim security staff at the airport. The 41-year-old mortgage broker, from. London, has accused them of 'race hate' and is threatening to sue for. racial discrimination after being made to 'feel like a criminal' while. being scanned

Summary: I was told I would go to hell, claims worker. 'Muslims made fun of colleague wearing crosses' Lost job after speaking out about 'extremist' bullying. Bullying a friend at the airport for wearing crosses. Muslims telling her she would go to hell if she didn't convert. A Muslim colleague insisting she read the Koran. And;. That Jews were responsible for the September 11 terrorist attacks.

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Summarize: The Federal Reserve unexpectedly refrained from reducing the $85 billion pace of monthly bond buying, saying it needs more evidence of lasting improvement in the economy and warning that an increase in interest rates threatened to curb the expansion. “Conditions in the job market today are still far from what all of us would like to see,” Chairman Ben S. Bernanke said at a press conference today in Washington after a two-day meeting of the Federal Open Market Committee. “The committee has concern that rapid tightening of financial conditions in recent months would have the effect of slowing growth.” U.S. stocks rose, sending the Standard & Poor’s 500 Index to a record, while Treasuries and gold rallied as Bernanke stressed that the pace of bond buying would be dependent on economic data, and the Fed has no predetermined schedule for tapering the purchases that have pushed its balance sheet to $3.66 trillion. “There is no fixed calendar schedule, I really have to emphasize that,” Bernanke said. “If the data confirm our basic outlook” for growth and the labor market, “then we could begin later this year.” The S&P 500 climbed 1.2 percent to 1,725.48 at 4:02 p.m. in New York. The yield on the 10-Year Treasury note dropped 15 basis points to 2.70 percent. Gold for immediate delivery jumped $55.61 to $1,366.25 an ounce. Oil rose more than 2.5 percent. Photographer: Andrew Harrer/Bloomberg The U.S. Federal Reserve building in Washington, D.C. Close The U.S. Federal Reserve building in Washington, D.C. Close Open Photographer: Andrew Harrer/Bloomberg The U.S. Federal Reserve building in Washington, D.C. “It looks like the Fed has done a major reset in terms of expectations on what they need to see before they start to taper,” said Chris Rupkey, the chief financial economist for Bank of Tokyo-Mitsubishi UFJ Ltd. in New York. Rate Outlook The central bank, in a statement, left unchanged its outlook that its target interest rate will remain near zero “at least as long as” unemployment exceeds 6.5 percent, so long as the outlook for inflation is no higher than 2.5 percent. Bernanke added in his press conference that the first interest-rate increase may not come until the jobless rate is “considerably below” 6.5 percent. “Even after asset purchases are wound down,” Bernanke said, the “Fed’s rate guidance and its ongoing holdings of securities will ensure that monetary policy remains highly accommodative, consistent with an aggressive pursuit of our mandated objectives of maximum employment and price stability.” Bernanke said the Fed could also specify that it would not tighten if inflation was too low. “An inflation floor is certainly something that could be a sensible modification or addition to the guidance,” he said. Photographer: Pete Marovich/Bloomberg Ben S. Bernanke, chairman of the U.S. Federal Reserve, pauses during a news conference following the Federal Open Market Committee meeting in Washington, D.C. on Sept. 18, 2013. Close Ben S. Bernanke, chairman of the U.S. Federal Reserve, pauses during a news conference... Read More Close Open Photographer: Pete Marovich/Bloomberg Ben S. Bernanke, chairman of the U.S. Federal Reserve, pauses during a news conference following the Federal Open Market Committee meeting in Washington, D.C. on Sept. 18, 2013. Forecasts Reduced Fed officials today reduced their forecasts for economic growth this year and next. They forecast U.S. gross domestic product to increase 2 percent to 2.3 percent this year, down from a June projection of 2.3 percent to 2.6 percent growth. “They feel the risks are too great to taper now, and the economy is not growing as fast as they had hoped,” said John Silvia, chief economist at Wells Fargo Securities in Charlotte, North Carolina. “They are going to take a few more months and maybe start in December.” Economists had forecast the FOMC would dial down monthly Treasury purchases by $5 billion, to $40 billion, while maintaining its buying of mortgage-backed securities at $40 billion, according to a Bloomberg News survey. Fed officials were spooked by an increase in bond yields that followed Bernanke’s comments in May that the Fed may step down the pace of purchases in the “next few meetings,” said Scott Brown, chief economist for Raymond James & Associates Inc. in St. Petersburg, Florida. Treasury Yields The yield on the 10-year Treasury note climbed almost 1 percentage point through yesterday since Bernanke’s May 22 comments, with yields on Sept. 6 exceeding 3 percent on an intraday basis for the first time since July 2011. That compares with 1.61 percent on May 1, and a record-low 1.38 percent in July 2012. “They were really surprised back in May and June by the market’s response to the initial talk of tapering,” Brown said. “The Fed’s view was that it’s the amount of asset purchases, not the monthly pace that matters. In that case, it doesn’t matter whether they start tapering in September or December, but the markets decided it does, so it does matter.” “We’re seeing the reaction that bond yields are coming down, and that’s got to be helpful for their outlook.” Kansas City Fed President Esther George dissented for the sixth meeting in a row, repeating that the policy risks creating financial imbalances. Higher interest rates have started to take a toll on housing, one of the drivers of the expansion. A Commerce Department report today showed that builders began work on fewer U.S. homes in August than projected by economists. Housing Starts Housing starts rose 0.9 percent to a 891,000 annual rate, following the prior month’s 883,000 pace that was weaker than previously estimated. The median estimate of 83 economists surveyed by Bloomberg called for 917,000. Permits, a proxy for future projects, dropped more than forecast. The average interest rate on a 30-year fixed home loan was 4.57 percent last week, compared with a record-low 3.31 percent in November 2012, according to Freddie Mac. The rate soared 35 percent in 10 weeks ended July 11, the most ever for a comparable period, the data show. Bernanke, who is nearing the end of his second term as chairman, has orchestrated the most aggressive easing in the Fed’s 100-year history, pumping up the balance sheet from $869 billion in August 2007 and holding the main interest rate close to zero since December 2008. Leading Candidate Vice Chairman Janet Yellen, a supporter of Bernanke’s policies, is the top candidate to succeed him after former Treasury Secretary Lawrence Summers withdrew from contention, according to people familiar with the process. The Fed’s asset purchases have fueled gains in asset prices. Counting today’s increase, the S&P 500 Index has climbed 23 percent since Aug. 31, 2012, when Bernanke made the case for further monetary easing at the central bank’s annual forum in Jackson Hole, Wyoming. Officials have also credited the program, which began last September, with reducing the unemployment rate, which is the lowest since December 2008. Officials have said that they would maintain bond purchases until the labor market has “improved substantially.” At the same time, recent data on payrolls, housing and retail sales have lagged behind economists’ forecasts. Jobless Rate U.S. companies created 169,000 jobs last month, fewer than economists projected, and increases in the prior two months were revised down. The unemployment rate fell as workers left the labor force. August and July were the weakest back-to-back months for payroll gains in a year. Employment growth has nevertheless improved since the bond purchases began. The U.S. has added an average of 160,000 jobs over the past six months, compared with 97,000 originally reported for the half-year before the Fed decided to start the third round of purchases a year ago. Faster employment gains may be needed to spur the consumer spending that accounts for 70 percent of the economy. Retail sales last month rose less than forecast, with purchases climbing 0.2 percent, the smallest gain in four months, the Commerce Department reported last week. Bright Spots Homebuilding and manufacturing remain bright spots for the economy. Companies such as Hovnanian Enterprises Inc. have said the recent rise in mortgage rates will temporarily restrain the housing recovery rather than end it. Homebuilder confidence held this month at the highest level in almost eight years, even as mortgage rates rose. The National Association of Home Builders/Wells Fargo confidence index registered 58 this month, matching August’s revised reading as the strongest since November 2005. Such optimism has found fuel from a recovery in home prices that pushed up the S&P/Case-Shiller (SPCS20Y%) index of values in 20 cities by 12.1 percent in June from a year earlier. Factories turned out more cars, appliances and home furnishings in August, propelling the biggest increase in U.S. industrial production in six months. Output at factories, mines and utilities rose 0.4 percent after no change the prior month, the Fed reported this week. Auto Sales Cars and light trucks sold last month at the fastest annualized rate since 2007, according to researcher Autodata Corp. Sales at General Motors Co., Ford Motor Co. (F), Toyota Motor Corp. and Honda Motor Co. all exceeded analysts’ estimates. Texas Instruments Inc., the largest maker of analog chips, is among companies with a brighter outlook as global markets stabilize. “Orders continue to be quite solid” this quarter, Chief Financial Officer Kevin March said at a Sept. 11 conference. “We continue to see strength in three of the four regions of the world,” with Asia, Japan, and the Americas expanding, he said. To contact the reporters on this story: Joshua Zumbrun in Washington at [email protected]; Jeff Kearns in Washington at [email protected] To contact the editor responsible for this story: Chris Wellisz at [email protected] The Federal Reserve is not going to slow down the pace of its bond purchases yet. And that was just what investors wanted to hear. The S&P 500 immediately jumped to a new record high, and the Dow quickly followed. The Nasdaq also moved up after the Fed's surprise announcement. All three indexes closed up more than 1%. Fed chair Ben Bernanke added fuel to Wednesday's stock rally during his press conference. Bernanke laid out plans to maintain the central bank's "highly accommodative monetary policy" for the foreseeable future, even if the Fed eventually chooses to taper. Bond yields, which have been rising lately, slid back as well as investors bought more bonds. The 10-year Treasury yield fell to 2.71% from 2.87% earlier in the day. The Fed's moves also pushed down the dollar and drove up commodities. Gold prices spiked more than 4% following the announcement. Oil prices rose more than 2%. Related: See what will your monthly mortgage will be Fed surprises: Many investors had expected the Fed to announce Wednesday that it was finally ready to begin cutting back -- or taper -- its stimulus measures. The improving economy and falling unemployment rate was expected to be enough of a catalyst for the Fed to ease its so-called quantitative easing. The Fed has been buying $85 billion in Treasury bonds and other securities a month. Click here for more on stocks, bonds, commodities and currencies World reaction? European markets and Asian markets ended the day mixed, but investors around the world could rally on Thursday thanks to the Fed news. Stocks and currencies in emerging markets such as India and Brazil have taken a big hit over the past few months on fears over potential cutbacks to the Fed's bond buying. D.A. Davidson chief investment strategist Fred Dickson expects that emerging market currencies could rebound in the next few weeks now that the Fed has put the tapering on hold. Related: Fear & Greed Index back to greed What housing starts? Investors received one disappointing reading on the health of the economy before the Fed meeting though. The Census Bureau's monthly reports on housing starts and building permits came in below expectations. But corporate news was better. FedEx (FDX) reported an increase in quarterly sales and net income, compared to a year-ago. Earnings topped forecasts and shares rose on the news. FedEx gives a blah reading on the economy: Despite a relatively rosy quarter, FedEx, which is often viewed as an economic bellwether because of its global footprint, gave investors an iffy assessment on the economy. While the stock popped on earnings, some traders were wary of FedEx's longer-term trajectory. dachria: $FDX Cost cutting as usual helps the bottom line but for how long retail_guru: For 'tepid' economic growth as Fedex puts it, $FDX US daily volume (inc Express + Ground) +10%. That's pretty good in any book or any macro Soccer club Manchester United (MANU) reported a jump in quarterly revenue, compared to the prior year, and a surge in net profit, compared to a loss last year. Its stock closed up more than 2%. Adobe Systems (ADBE) shares hit all-time highs after the software maker reported strong subscription growth for its "Creative Cloud" service on Tuesday. flounder: $ADBE New pricing model is absolutely amazing. Never could justify high price of Photoshop to buy but can certainly run with monthly subsc Bullish AnalystWire: Adobe ($ADBE) Target Raised to $58 at Deutsche Bank http://stks.co/bj54 Priceline hits 4 digits: The online travel company's stock surged after the Fed announcement and briefly topped $1000. Priceline (PCLN) closed at $995.09. It's only a psychological milestone. But some investors thought that Apple (AAPL) (before it began its big pullback late last year) or Google (GOOG) would win the race to $1,000 a share. Priceline is the first stock in the S&P 500 to ever top $1,000. Well there you have it. After all the taper talk, after all the hand-wringing about the consequences, after all the analysis … we’re left exactly where we began on Fed policy. Except the stock market is higher, Treasury yields are lower and the Fed’s next move in policy could be just a little bit harder after investors got revved up and got fooled. Here’s where we ended up on the day: The Dow Jones Industrial Average is up about 1%, or 147 points, to a record high of 15,676.94. The S&P 500 is up almost 21 points to a record 1,725.52. The 10-year Treasury yield tumbled about 0.15 percentage point to 2.70%. The reaction from economists is in: It was the right move and a gutsy move, but also a confusing move (to markets) that might complicate the Fed’s next steps. And now we go back into the cycle of Fed speeches where officials offer their views and markets struggle to interpret how the Fed might react to economic data. Thanks for joining us today for this five-hour marathon. We’ll see you back here for the Fed’s next press conference in December, if not earlier.

Summary: The Federal Reserve surprised the financial world today by announcing that it would continue buying roughly $85 billion worth of bonds a month. Many analysts had expected the central bank to ease off the quantitative easing gas pedal, but the committee announced that it had "decided to await more evidence that progress will be sustained." Borrowing costs have been on the rise in recent months, Bloomberg explains, and Ben Bernanke and company fear that signals a halt to growth. The Fed's language also hinted that it was worried Congress would tighten spending further in the looming budget and debt limit showdowns, observes Sudeep Reddy at the Wall Street Journal. "Wow," he writes. "The Fed allowed market expectation to build for some kind of pullback," and its decision not to cut will boost markets in the short term. Indeed, the Dow and S&P quickly shot to record highs, CNN reports, while treasuries fell.

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Summarize: When most kids sit on Santas' lap, they wish for a new bike or a Barbie doll, but for one young boy, all he wants for Christmas is to have his dad back from heaven. Issac Zariffa, from Sydney's west, never met his father, Peter, after he died in a horrific car accident seven years ago, just three days after receiving good news about his wife’s pregnancy. The married couple spent two years trying to have a baby but one morning in 2007, Miriam discovered she was pregnant with their first child. Issac and mum Miriam were invited to take part in an 'Oprah-like surprise' Australian first Christmas special. The six-year-old grew up wondering who his father was and the kind of man who served with the army as a medical officer in East Timor before his tragic death. Appearing on Channel Ten’s The Living Room, the show’s most ardent fans and those in need were invited to be part of the Christmas special and tell Santa what they were hoping for this Christmas. With 90 minutes to make the wish come true, Santa’s Little Helpers from online retailer OO.com.au furiously packed gifts at the workshop to match each and every one of the audience’s requests. Little Issac Zariffa told Santa that all he wants for Christmas is his daddy back from heaven. Issac was gifted a digital photo frame, so he could see his dad’s face every day when he wakes up and he also got a go kart and a Lego set. While the jolly fat man couldn’t grant the boy’s wishes, he asked Issac if he had many photographs of his dad. When it was little Issac’s turn, he shared his heartbreaking wish with the big man in a red suit that he wanted his dad back so his mum could be happy again – and it brought everyone to tears. ‘At his age, he’s becoming more aware of the fact he doesn’t have his daddy but I didn’t realise how much he knew it. It hit home and was quite tear-jerking,’ Miriam told the Daily Telegraph. ‘In my head I was thinking “How are they going to do this?”’ The audience were asked to tell Santa what they wanted for Christmas this year. Santa's Little Helpers from OO.com.au furiously packed all the gifts for everyone at the secret warehouse. During the month of November, OO.com.au took the streets of Sydney surprising and bringing joy to shoppers. While the jolly fat man couldn’t grant the boy’s wishes, he asked Issac if he had many photographs of his dad at home. ‘He explained that we didn’t have very many displayed and Santa said it would be nice if we could,’ Ms Zariffa said. Issac was gifted a digital photo frame, so he could see his dad’s face every day when he wakes up and he also got a go kart and a Lego set, while his mum was given a vintage bicycle. The Living Room's Christmas special airs on Friday at 7.30pm on Channel Ten. With 90 minutes to make the wish come true, Santa’s Little Helpers put together presents for everyone. Santa's Little Helpers from OO.com.au furiously packed all the gifts for everyone at the secret warehouse. Ready to be delivered: Wrapped up and a surprise until opened, OO.com.au gave away plasma screen TV’s, Razor scooters, kitchen appliances, kids toys and music accessories

Summary: Little Issac Zariffa told Santa that all he wants for Christmas is his dad back. Issac and mum Miriam were invited to take part in an 'Oprah-like surprise' The audience were asked to tell Santa what they wanted for Christmas. When it was Issac's turn, he wished to have his daddy back from heaven. His dad, Peter, died in a horrific car accident seven years ago. Santa's Little Helpers from OO.com.au packed all the gifts for everyone. The six-year-old was gifted a digital frame so he can see his dad everyone. The Living Room's Christmas special airs on Friday night on Channel 10.

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Write a title and summarize: Giardia lamblia is a very common cause of gastrointestinal symptoms worldwide. There are several methods for the diagnosis of Giardia infection, however none are ideal. We aim to find a new, microRNA-based method that will improve the currently available diagnostic methods for giardiasis. Deep-sequence profiling of Giardia small-RNA revealed that miR5 and miR6 are highly expressed in Giardia. These miRNAs were tested by qRT-PCR in duodenal biopsies of patients with giardiasis who were positive by microscopic pathological evaluation. The gastric biopsies of the same patients served as negative control tissues. Additionally, these miRNAs were evaluated in stool samples of patients with proven giardiasis. All histologically proven duodenal biopsies of patients with Giardia infection were positive for Giardia miR5, with a mean threshold cycle (Ct) of 23. 7, as well as for Giardia DNA qPCR (16S-like gene, mean Ct 26. 3). Gastric biopsies which were tested as a control all were negative. Stool evaluation of miR6 in patients with giardiasis showed 90% specificity but only 66% sensitivity, and a lower accuracy rate was obtained with miR5. Giardia miR5 testing in duodenal biopsies may be a new method for the diagnosis of giardiasis. It seems to be more sensitive when compared with testing for Giardia DNA by qPCR in duodenal biopsies. It will be important to investigate the contribution of routine Giardia miRNA testing in duodenal biopsies from patients with persistent abdominal symptoms Giardia lamblia (also known as G. intestinalis or G. duodenalis) is the causative agent of giardiasis. Among the intestinal protozoan parasites, it is one of the three most common agents of diarrhea worldwide [1]. Giardia species have two life cycle stages; the flagellated trophozoite that attaches to the intestinal microvilli and an infectious cyst that persists in the environment [2]. Transmission to humans occurs either through direct person-to-person contact in environments with compromised hygiene levels [3] or by the contamination of water or food by the cysts, the resistant form. In industrialized countries, Giardia is the most common parasite identified in stool samples [4,5]. Symptoms include diarrhea, flatulence, excessive fatigue, nausea, foul smelling stools, abdominal cramps and weight loss. In about 16% of patients the disease may become chronic, with long-term effects such as loose stools, malnutrition, growth delays, cognitive impairment, abdominal pain, malabsorption and malaise [6,7]. In travelers returning from tropical countries, persistent abdominal symptoms (PAS) including chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, flatulence and fatigue are common [8]. Unfortunately, in most cases, the etiology of these complaints remains unknown, partially due to the low sensitivity of current tests. In only about a third of the cases pathogens can be identified, the most common being Giardia [9]. Although the majority of returning travelers with chronic complaints remain undiagnosed, many of them nonetheless respond to anti-parasitic treatment [8]. Currently, there are several diagnostic methods for Giardia, but none serves as a real gold- standard. Classically, laboratory diagnosis is performed by microscopic examination of stool samples, ‘‘ova and parasite examination” (O&P) [10]. The recommendation is to collect at least three independent, preferably watery stool specimens to maximize the sensitivity of the detection. Moreover, the stool should be fresh because the trophozoites break down very quickly [10]. Direct fluorescent antibody assay and stool antigen detection using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) have been accepted as more sensitive tools for diagnosis of giardiasis and have provided a potentially attractive alternative to conventional O&P examinations [11,12]. However, studies have shown that at least a pair of stool samples is needed for sufficient sensitivity [11]. Furthermore, in recent years, PCR-based nucleic acid detection methods have shown higher sensitivity compared to microscopy and antigen detection tests [13]. Since Giardia parasites reside in the small intestines, searching for it in the duodenum seems reasonable [14]. A prospective study done in Italy has found giardiasis through direct histological examination of duodenal biopsy specimens in 9 of the 137 patients (6. 5%) with symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and no alarming signs [15]. miRNAs are small non-coding regulatory RNAs that can direct post-transcriptional repression of protein synthesis from mRNAs containing miRNA binding sites. In animals, miRNAs have diverse biological functions, including regulation of key aspects of development and life cycles [16]. These molecules, are also found in unicellular organisms, including Giardia species [17] (although the existence of canonical miRNA in these primitive eukaryotes is under debate [18], being that their genome lacks orthologs of the miRNA processing genes DROSHA and XPO5 [19]), and as potential markers have the advantage of being in part genus specific [20,21] and relatively stable. It was shown that miRNAs are resistant to freeze-thaw cycling, RNase A digestion, and treatment with a high pH solution [22]. In addition, miRNAs were shown to be stable in FFPE specimens [23] and in feces [24]. Therefore, we attempted to identify Giardia in positive duodenal biopsies and stool samples of proven giardiasis patients through detecting Giardia miRNAs by quantitative reverse-transcription-PCR. The study was approved by the Sheba Medical Center ethics Committee (Helsinki), protocol number 1335-14-SMC. The FFPE sample were taken from the archives of the Department of Pathology at Sheba Medical Center. The requirement for informed consent was waived due to the archived nature of the study FFPE specimens. The control newborn fecal samples were collected after the mothers were informed and provided consent. Anonymized frozen fecal samples of Giardia-infected patients were provided by the Helsinki Committee-approved repositories of the parasitology laboratory of the Israeli Ministry of Health and the microbiology laboratory at Sheba Medical Center. Giardia parasite strains G. lamblia trophozoite were obtained from the BEI Resources (https: //www. beiresources. org/Home. aspx). WB clone 6 (NR-9706, assemblage A [25]), Egypt-4 (NR-9231, assemblage A), Mario (NR-9232, assemblage A), Sug (NR-9233, assemblage not determined) and G2M (NR-9232, assemblage not determined). Giardia cells were grown in Keister' s Modified TYI-S-33 [26], which contains: 2% casein, 1% yeast extract, 1% glucose, 0. 2% NaCl, 0. 2% L-Cystein, 0. 02% L (+) -ascorbic acid, 0. 1% K2HPO4·3H2O, 0. 06% KH2PO4,0. 00228% ammonium iron (III) citrate 1% bovine bile solution (all from sigma) and 10% bovine calf serum (Gibco), in double distilled water (DDW). The trophozoites were grown in a polystyrene cell culture tube (Greiner bio-one, Cellstar, Cat. No. 163–160) at 37°C under anaerobic conditions. Total RNA were extracted from one million trophozoite cells of each Giardia isolate using mirVana miRNA isolation kit (Ambion, AM1561). Barcoded cDNA libraries of small RNA (19–35 nt) were prepared from the total RNA using an in-house method, as previously described [27]. Libraries were deep-sequenced on an Illumina sequencer (HiSeq 2500). Additionally, in order to facilitate miRNA discovery which requires identification of passenger strand reads, that are typically rare compared to the mature strand, we subjected the cDNA libraries to cleavage with a duplex-specific nuclease (DSN, Evrogen, cat. #EA003) [28] and sequenced the cleaved libraries as well. Resulting FASTQ read files were processed as described [29], and demultiplexed data were deposited at NCBI’s gene expression omnibus (GEO record GSE116101). Discovery of miRNA in the demultiplexed libraries was performed using the miRDeep2 algorithm [30]. For this purpose, we combined the intact and DSN-cleaved cDNA library FASTQ files. We allowed reads up to length 29 nt to be included in the analysis, as opposed to the default 25 nt, because a previous investigation of Argonaute-associated small RNAs in Giardia reported a mode length of 26 nt [17], concordant with structural modeling of Giardia Dicer [31]. Previously reported putative Giardia miRNA (S1 Table, adapted from Liao et al [17–19,32–37]), were specifically sought, by including them as presumed known mature miRNA in the miRDeep2 analysis. For genome mapping, we downloaded the GiardiaDB-37_GintestinalisAssemblageAWB_Genome. fasta file (2018-04-19) from GiardiaDB. FFPE duodenal biopsy tissue blocks from histopathology proven giardiasis patients were obtained from the Department of Pathology, Sheba Medical Center. In addition, gastric biopsies from the same patients and from unrelated patients were used as negative controls. Fecal samples from microscopy and/or antigen proven giardiasis patients were collected from the Institute of Geographic Medicine and Tropical Diseases, Sheba Medical Center, and from the Parasitology Laboratory of the Israeli Ministry of Health, Jerusalem. Negative control fecal samples were collected from newborns and from infants that had just started eating but are still not attending day-care. Stool samples were stored at -80°C until analysis. DNA was extracted from 10–20 slices of FFPE tissue blocks by the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit (Qiagen, 51304) according to the manufacturer’s protocol with minor changes. Proteinase K incubation was performed overnight and then additional proteinase K was added for 1 hour. After adding AL buffer and ethanol, the samples were incubated in -20°C for 1 hour. Subsequent steps were according to protocol. Isolation of RNA from FFPE biopsies was performed using miRNeasy FFPE Kit (Qiagen, 217504) according to the manufacturer’s protocol. 0. 1g of stool was added to 200 μl of 2% polyvinylpolypyrolidone (PVPP, Sigma) suspension and frozen in -20°C overnight. Subsequently, the suspension was heated for 10 min at 100°C [1]. Isolation of miRNA from the suspension was performed using mirVana miRNA isolation kit (Ambion, AM1561) according to the manufacturer’s protocol. The ABI Quant Studio6 Flex Real-Time PCR System (Applied Biosystems, Foster City, CA, USA) was used in all qRT-PCR and qPCR experiments. Detection of miRNAs, isolated from fecal samples, by Eva Green technology, was performed as previously described [38,39]. Giardia miR5 RP1-miR5: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAGAAGGCTCGGACAT-3' RP2-miR5: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGACGATGCTTCCTTGG-3' P1: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAG-3' P2: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGAC-3' Giardia miR6: RP1-miR6: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAGCAGAATACGACAAA-3' RP2-miR6: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGACGACGCGTGACGAAG' -3' P1: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAG-3' P2: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGAC-3' Human RNU6B: RP1-RNU6B: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAGAAAAATATGGAACGCTTCACGAA-3' RP2-RNU6B: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGACCGCAAGGATGACACGCAAA-3' P1: 5' -GGACGGTAGCAAGCAAAGAGAGAG-3' P2: 5' -GGGATTCTGGAAGATGATGATGAC-3' qRT-PCR of miRNAs isolated from FFPE samples was done according to manufacturer’s protocol (Applied Biosystems), using custom primers designed according to the Applied Biosystems miRNA quantification method [40], for either Giardia miR5 (Applied Biosystems Assay-ID 5737335_1) or Giardia miR6 (Applied Biosystems Assay-ID 5710263_1). qPCR of DNA isolated from FFPE samples, was done with specific primers to Giardia small subunit ribosomal (16S-like) RNA gene by TaqMan qPCR as described by Verweij et al. [1]. Statistical significance was evaluated using Student’s t-test or One-way ANOVA. A probability value of p< 0. 05 was considered significant. For the comparison of miR5 Ct with DNA Ct, paired student t-test was use. Unpaired t-test and area under the Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve and the cutoff Ct were computed using GraphPad Prism version 5. 00 for Windows, GraphPad Software, San Diego California USA, www. graphpad. com. Briefly, after entering Ct values (infected and healthy control), a series of cutoff values is proposed. The graph plots percentage sensitivity versus percentage of false positive rate (100-specificity) for the different cutoff points. The optimal cutoff is determined as the cutoff with the highest likelihood ratio [defined as %sensitivity / (100-%specificity) ]. ROC curve data is presented in S2 and S3 Tables. Five different Giardia isolates were grown. Total RNA was extracted and small RNA libraries were prepared and deep-sequenced. Results and insights from this small RNA transcriptome analysis are presented in the S1 Appendix. Our deep-sequencing data confirmed the presence of reads arising from two putative miRNAs that have been previously reported as having highest expression levels in Giardia trophozoites, miR5 and miR6 [17], and these were used for subsequent patient-sample analyses. In addition, these two miRNAs are conserved between the three main assemblages infecting humans; A, B and E. miR5 is 26 nt long and 100% identical in all three assemblages. miR6 is 28 nt long and 100% identical in assemblages A and E and 24 out of the 28 are identical in assemblage B (S1 Table). Eight duodenal biopsies that were determined as Giardia positive by the pathologist were studied. Samples were from patients referred to gastroscopy due to prolonged gastrointestinal system complaints or anemia (Table 1) but had not been diagnosed with giardiasis prior to gastroscopy. RNA and DNA were extracted from biopsy material and analyzed using TaqMan® MicroRNA Assays and TaqMan qPCR DNA Assay, respectively. As can be seen in Table 1, all samples were positive for Giardia miR5 with mean threshold cycle (Ct) value of 23. 7. miR6 was mostly undetectable and thus not further examined in duodenal biopsies. We also performed a qPCR test for Giardia DNA using specific primers to Giardia small subunit ribosomal (16S-like) RNA gene by TaqMan qPCR as described by Verweij et al. [1]. Comparison of the Ct levels of Giardia miR5 vs. Giardia DNA on the same samples, using equivalent volumes of the extracted nucleic acid, shows that miR5 yielded lower mean Ct values, 23. 7 versus 26. 3 (by paired t-test p = 0. 004). These findings suggest that the miRNA amplification may be more robust than DNA amplification. As a negative control, we used gastric biopsies which are not expected to harbor Giardia parasites. Firstly, we used 4 available gastric biopsies from the 8 patients mentioned above with positive duodenal histology. Indeed, no miR5 was detected in gastric biopsies of these patients (Table 1). Six additional gastric biopsies from randomly selected patients who underwent gastroscopy for various reasons showed Ct values above 34. Altogether in all 10 control biopsies miR5 Ct values were above 34 with mean 35. 9 (±1. 6) compared to 23. 7 (±4. 0) in the positive cases (p<0. 0001) (Fig 1). Applying receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve analysis, we observed highly sensitive and specific results. The calculated area under the curve (AUC) for miR5 was 1, representing a perfect test; [41]. The optimal cutoff is determined as the cutoff with the highest likelihood ratio [likelihood ratio is defined as %sensitivity / (100-%specificity) ]. With miR5, Ct <33. 5 yielded 100% sensitivity and specificity and therefore likelihood ration of ∞ (95% confidence intervals–sensitivity 63. 1% to 100. 0%, specificity 59. 0% to 100. 0%) (Fig 2) and S2 Table. To determine the minimal number of Giardia parasites which can be detected by miR5 qRT-PCR we used an in-vitro model, extracted RNA from parasites, and correlated the number of parasite cells with Ct reading (Fig 3). As can be seen, at 104 dilution we counted ~8 parasites with Ct value of 33. 1, slightly below the 33. 5 Ct cutoff defined above. Thus, the lower limit of detection of our miR5 assay may be 8 parasite cells. Interestingly, 3 patients with suspected travel-acquired giardiasis without evidence for Giardia by histological examination of duodenum tissue nor by stool microscopy were analyzed for miR5 in the duodenum. In one of these patients the biopsy which was taken before treatment yielded a miR5 Ct value of 31. 0, positive for Giardia infection, while the biopsies of the other two patients, which were taken after anti-giardia treatment, yielded borderline Ct levels, 33. 8 and 34 (Table 2). All three patients’ symptoms responded to anti Giardia treatment. 19 stool samples were collected and included in the study. 9 stool samples were taken from patients who suffered from diarrhea with proven giardiasis. In the control group, 10 stool samples were taken from healthy infants; 6 newborns and 4 toddlers, aged 1 to 1. 5 years, who have just started eating solid foods and have not yet entered nursery school. Patient samples were tested for the presence of Giardia by three different methods: microscopic examination (O&P), ELISA and DNA PCR. Samples were defined as positive if at least two of the above mentioned diagnostic methods were positive. Measurement of miR5 and miR6, in patients’ fecal samples was performed. RNA from stool was extracted and one-step real time RT-PCR analysis was done [39], an assay we have previously used, successfully identifying very small amount of miRNA [38]. As can be seen in Fig 4, a significant difference was found for miR6 between positive patients compared to healthy individuals (p = 0. 0025). We applied ROC curve analysis to evaluate the accuracy of our test. As shown in Fig 5, the accuracy of analyzing the presence of Giardia miRNAs extracted from stool samples of infected patients was moderate; with AUC for miR6 is 0. 88. The likelihood ratios for miR6, based on, sensitivity of 66. 6% and specificity of 90% was Ct of 30. 0 (3S Table). Unlike miR6, when miR5 was measured, its levels did not differ between the infected and healthy samples (data not shown), implying non-specific (false-positive) amplification. Giardiasis is a significant disease and is underdiagnosed. In this study, our aim was to find a new method that will contribute to the current available diagnostic methods of Giardia infection. In order to do this, we chose to focus on miRNA molecules of Giardia due to their stability, which makes them good candidates to survive complex extraction methods. The fact that miRNA molecules do not exist in the bacteria that constitute most of the gut flora makes them promising in terms of specificity. The use of miRNA for diagnosis of parasitic infections is in its prime [17] and to our knowledge has never been used in the diagnosis of Giardia infection. We are aware of the discussion of whether Giardia has bona fide miRNA. However, this discussion is less relevant to our work. The precise biochemical definition and function of these small RNAs is of lesser importance with regards to their potential as biomarkers. Nevertheless, since the small-RNA we analyzed were already named as miRNA by others, we maintained this nomenclature (e. g., miR5 and miR6). We performed deep sequencing analysis of small RNA extracted from 5 different Giardia isolates. Based on their abundance in our data as well as in previous reports by Saraiya et al and Liao et al [17,18,36], we decided to focus on two molecules- miR5 and miR6, which by BLAST analysis appear to be non-cognate to the human genome and transcriptome. Since Giardia resides in the upper gut, we decided to look for the presence of our two chosen molecules in duodenal biopsy specimens of 8 patients who were found to have Giardia parasites on histological examination (Table 1). These 8 patients were referred to gastroscopy due to prolonged gastrointestinal system complaints. Interestingly, none of these patients were suspected of having giardiasis prior to the gastroscopy. All eight specimens determined as positive by pathology were verified as positive by using a DNA PCR test for Giardia. Applying qRT-PCR for Giardia miR5 was also positive in all samples. Interestingly, miR6 was less efficient, moreover in 4 out of the 8 samples we did not detect it at all (Table 1). This might be because our primers were designed to miR6 of assemblages A and as shown in S1 Table there are 4 nucleotides different between miR6 of assemblage A and assemblage B. Interestingly, although we extracted DNA and RNA from the same amount of FFPE slides, we identified miR5 at lower Ct cycles, that might indicate robustness of miR5 compared to DNA testing. Using gastric biopsies as negative controls, we indeed found that no miR5 was detected even in patients who had Giardia in their duodenal specimen. In addition, all of the control gastric biopsies from non-Giardia patients were negative for miR5. We had three additional cases with clinically suspected giardiasis but negative Giardia diagnosis by conventional methods and negative duodenal biopsies (Table 2). One of these patients was miR5 positive with Ct of 31 (our calculated cutoff is 33. 5). The two other patients were biopsied after empiric treatment and according to the Ct values of 33. 8 and 34. 0 could be categorized as borderline or negative after treatment, for Giardia miRNA. Moreover, although we do not have any additional supporting evidence that these three patients had giardiasis, all three responded to anti-Giardia treatment. As can be seen in Fig 3A and 3B we generated a calibration-curve of the ratio of Ct obtained in qRT-PCR of Giardia miRNA to the number of parasite cells counted. Based on this curve, Ct of 33. 0 indicates 8 parasite cells. Hence, as our calculated cutoff for positive infection is 33. 5, it would suggest that qRT-PCR can detect as few as 8 parasites, while based on the mean Ct level (23. 7) of histology-positive biopsy there is a need for 100–1000 times more parasites to be detected by histopathology (Fig 3), illustrating the advantage of qRT-PCR miRNA detection in duodenal biopsies. Additionally, these positive Giardia miRNA cases were negative for Giardia DNA which also strengthens the superiority of miRNA on DNA in duodenal biopsies. As mentioned, none of the research group patients were suspected to have giardiasis prior to the diagnostic gastroscopy (Table 1). This suggests that there is indeed under-diagnosis of Giardia infections in Israel and probably in the industrialized world in general. In addition, our assumption is that giardiasis is an underdiagnosed illness due to the low sensitivity of current diagnostic tools. This assumption was made from observing patients with chronic gastrointestinal complaints, some being returning travelers from the tropics. These patients had negative stool tests for parasites and were left with a presumable diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome, however empiric anti-protozoal treatment led to significant improvement in 70% [8]. Early studies showed that a single duodenal biopsy might be insufficient for diagnosis of giardiasis. In one of the studies it was suggested that two samples might be sufficient to diagnose all of the cases probably due to the non-homogenous distribution of the parasites in the duodenum [42]. Comparing duodenal aspirate samples to biopsy samples in giardiasis patients had mixed results in different studies. Some studies have shown superiority of duodenal aspirate samples over duodenal mucosal biopsy [43]. Others showed that duodenal mucosal biopsies were more sensitive compared to duodenal aspirate samples [44]. In both studies the test was histological examination and both suggested that duodenal aspirate samples or duodenal mucosal biopsies were more accurate, compared to stool examination. Fouad and colleagues subjected stool samples and duodenal aspirates from 120 patients with dyspepsia to PCR analysis for Giardia DNA and searched concurrent duodenal biopsy samples for organisms. Giardia was detected by PCR in duodenal aspirates in 23 cases, but organisms were present in biopsy samples from only 2 of these patients (sensitivity 9%). While a study done in a high prevalence setting showed that as many as 44% (96/220) of patients who underwent gastroduodenoscopy due to dyspeptic symptoms had Giardia on duodenal biopsy [45]. In that study it seemed that duodenal diagnosis is much more sensitive than stool microscopy since in only a minority of them (5/85,6%) Giardia parasites were found in stool examination. In the last part of our study we aimed to detect miR5 and miR6 molecules in stool samples of patients with proven giardiasis (who were found to be positive by at least two alternative stool tests). As a control group we chose two populations. The first were newborns, who presumably were not yet to be exposed to the parasite. The second control group was toddlers without siblings, who had not yet started attending nursery school but were no longer breastfed and started eating solid foods. These groups had a relatively small chance of exposure to Giardia. The results of our study showed moderate accuracy with 90% specificity and only 66. 7% sensitivity in diagnosing Giardia infection using stool miR6. The results of miR5 quantification in stool were even less accurate. It seems that identifying Giardia miRNA molecules in duodenal specimens shows more potential than in stool sampling. Extraction of miRNA from paraffin is straightforward and less prone to the background noise that exists in the stool due to heavy bacterial burden. Giardia parasites reside in the duodenum where they reach high cell counts, whereas in the stool their numbers are relatively small and excretion is periodic. The fact that miR5 was identified in duodenal specimens but not stool samples, and vice versa miR6, suggests differences in expression of miRNA molecules between Giardia trophozoites (exist in duodenum) and Giardia cysts (exist in stool). miRNA libraries that we have built were derived from sequencing Giardia cultures in its trophozoite form. That is also the main form of the parasite residing in the duodenum, though in a different environment. The main limitation of our study is the relatively small sample numbers in both the experimental and the control groups. Another limitation is that we have assessed only two miRNA molecules. In conclusion, miR5 testing for Giardia infection in duodenal biopsies may be a breakthrough method for diagnosis of giardiasis that has a potential of being more sensitive than current methods. Obviously, we do not suggest duodenal biopsies for each patient suspected of giardiasis. However, we think that qRT-PCR for Giardia miRNAs should be one of the tests in patients undergo endoscopy investigation for undiagnosed persistent abdominal symptoms. We want to emphasize that fact the duodenal biopsy in our samples were taken from patients that suffer from persistent abdominal symptoms and were not suspected of being infected with Giardia. Only the pathologist, unexpectedly, detect Giardia in there duodenal biopsy. Therefore, we think that qRT-PCR for Giardia miRNAs should be one of the tests such patients undergo. Therefore, it would be important to further investigate the contribution of Giardia miRNA testing in duodenal biopsies and duodenal aspirates from patients with persistent abdominal symptoms.

Title: Giardia lamblia miRNAs as a new diagnostic tool for human giardiasis Summary: Giardiasis is a major cause of diarrheal disease throughout the world. It is more common in areas with poor sanitation such as in many low-income countries, but it occurs in high-income countries as well. It is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States and it is endemic in other industrialized countries. The causative agent is the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, and transmission is mainly by the fecal-oral route. The basic method of diagnosis is stool examination. It is usually found through stool microscopy examination which should be performed on fresh stool and repeated in 3 days. Despite some newer diagnostic methods, Giardia is still difficult to detect, often leading to misdiagnoses. In this study we show that using Giardia microRNA (miR5) as a marker for Giardia infection in duodenal biopsies may be a new method for diagnosis of giardiasis. It appears to be more sensitive than histological diagnosis and also more sensitive than Giardia DNA testing in duodenal biopsies. Interestingly, in our patients, duodenal biopsies were done for persistent abdominal symptoms and the finding of Giardia in their biopsy was unexpected. Thus, testing duodenal biopsies for Giardia miRNA in patients with persistent abdominal symptoms might contribute to diagnosis and prompt treatment for those with giardiasis.

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Summarize: SAN ANTONIO - Three well-meaning people suffered bites when the kittens they rescued turned out to be ravenous bobcat cubs. The rescuers discovered the bobcat cubs because they were mewling in a San Antonio alley. The caretakers found the blue-eyed, stub-tailed pair of young bobcats Saturday and, thinking they were Bengal kittens, took them in. They fed the bobcats milk from pet-feeding bottles, but realized something was amiss when the aggressive animals tore the bottles apart and bit them. Animal Care Services, in conjunction with the state veterinarian and Department of State Health Services, quarantined the animals before taking them to a wildlife rescue. The three people who were bitten by the cubs were urged to seek medical attention for their bites. Workers initially wanted to wait in the alley -- hoping to find the mother and reunite her with the cubs. "These bobcat kittens are now orphaned and under quarantine with our partners at Wildlife Rescue & Rehabilitation because someone thought they looked like house cats," ACS said in a Facebook post Monday. Copyright 2018 The Associated Press. All rights reserved. This material may not be published, broadcast, rewritten or redistributed. This May 7, 2018 photo provided by the City of San Antonio Animal Care Services Department shows two bobcat cubs, one in back only partially visible. Three people suffered bites when the kittens they... (Associated Press) This May 7, 2018 photo provided by the City of San Antonio Animal Care Services Department shows two bobcat cubs, one in back only partially visible. Three people suffered bites when the kittens they... (Associated Press) SAN ANTONIO (AP) — Three well-meaning people suffered bites when the kittens they rescued after hearing them mewling in a San Antonio alley turned out to be ravenous bobcat cubs. The caretakers found the blue-eyed, stub-tailed pair of young bobcats on Saturday and, thinking they were Bengal kittens, took them in. They fed the bobcats milk from pet-feeding bottles, but realized something was amiss when the aggressive animals tore the bottles apart and bit them. They called animal control officers and a wildlife rescue group took the wild cats away. Workers intended to wait in the alley hoping to find the mother and reunite her with the cubs.

Summary: Three well-meaning people suffered bites when the kittens they rescued after hearing them mewling in a San Antonio alley turned out to be ravenous bobcat cubs. The caretakers found the blue-eyed, stub-tailed pair of young bobcats on Saturday and, thinking they were Bengal kittens, took them in. They fed the bobcats milk from pet-feeding bottles, but realized something was amiss when the aggressive animals tore the bottles apart and bit them, the AP reports. They called animal control officers and a wildlife rescue group took the wild cats away. Workers initially planned wait in the alley, hoping to find the mother and reunite her with the cubs. The animals were later quarantined and taken to a wildlife rescue center, KSAT reports. "Wildlife really should remain IN THE WILD and it's up to us to help make that happen!" San Antonio Animal Care Services said in a Facebook post. "These bobcat kittens are now orphaned and under quarantine with our partners at Wildlife Rescue & Rehabilitation because someone thought they looked like house cats."

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Summarize: Police Commissioner Charles Ramsey showed no remorse over the alleged bad behavior of a former "hero" cop who is now being held on a $60 million dollar bail -- charged with sex assaults at gunpoint. (Published Monday, May 20, 2013) Former Philadelphia police officer Richard DeCoatsworth, once honored by President Barack Obama for his heroism, remains in jail on $60 million bail for allegedly raping two women -- forcing one into prostitution. Now, NBC10 has learned the City of Philadelphia is spending more than $1.5 million defending itself against DeCoatsworth's checkered past on the force. Law enforcement sources say DeCoatsworth had nine citizen complaints against him over his nearly five year stint with the department. The complains, sources say, included allegations of assault, abuse and misconduct. Issues with the 27-year-old began to arise in 2005 when he was in the Philadelphia Police Academy. DeCoatsworth allegedly injured a Girard Avenue business owner during a fight. However, he was allowed to remain a recruit despite the allegations. Former Hero Officer Charged With Rape A former Philadelphia Police Officer once hailed a hero is now in jail on $60 million bail after he allegedly raped two women at gunpoint. NBC10's Katy Zachry has the latest details. (Published Sunday, May 19, 2013) In 2007 as a rookie officer, DeCoatsworth was severely injured after being shot in the face. After being shot, he managed to chase down the suspect for several blocks before collapsing. He called in enough information by radio that police were able to track down and arrest the suspect later the same day. His actions earned him an invitation from Vice President Joe Biden to attend President Obama’s first congressional address at the U.S. Capital in February 2009. The officer sat in the gallery with First Lady Michelle Obama during the speech. He was also honored by his peers as a 2008 Top Cop. Exclusive Beaten Man Flabbergasted by Police Arrest Soon after, though, he was involved in two more dramatic incidents. In April 2009, police say DeCoatsworth was jumped and attacked by a man when he tried to disperse a crowd at the Logan section of the city. During the struggle, sources say DeCoatsworth’s gun went off and hit the suspect who took off running. Another officer responding to the scene shot the suspect dead, according to sources. Bail Set at $60M for Hero Officer Charged With Rape Bail was set at $60 million Saturday for a former Philadelphia police officer Richard Decoatsworth who has been charged with raping two women at gunpoint. NBC10's Nefertiti Jaquez reports on the developing case. (Published Sunday, June 9, 2013) In September 2009, DeCoatsworth and another officer stopped a man on a motorcycle in the Kensington section of the city. While they were questioning him, a second man allegedly jumped on the motorcycle and drove at the officers. Police say DeCoatsworth shot at the suspect, who sped off. The suspect was found later at the hospital where his mother had taken him to be treated for a shotgun wound. During the incident, local witnesses claimed the two suspects did nothing wrong and that DeCoatsworth and the other officer acted recklessly -- shooting while children were nearby. In November 2011, Internal Affairs investigated an alleged scuffle between DeCoatsworth and another officer, according to Philly.com. DeCoatsworth retired from the police force on disability back in December 2011. Hero Officer Charged With Raping Women A former Philadelphia police officer once hailed as a hero and given a seat next to the first lady at a speech by President Obama has been arrested and charged with raping two women and other crimes. Former officer Richard DeCoatsworth was arrested and charged Saturday with rape, sexual assault, terroristic threats and related offenses. NBC10's Cydney Long reports. (Published Saturday, May 18, 2013) In February of 2012, an arrest warrant was issued for DeCoatsworth after he allegedly threatened a woman in Port Richmond. The most recent incident began two weeks ago after DeCoatsworth allegedly met a woman at a bar on North Front Street. Police say the former officer forced the woman into prostitution at a Days Inn hotel along Roosevelt Boulevard in the Lawncrest section of the city. Then, between 2 a.m. Thursday and Friday evening, DeCoatsworth went to the woman’s home along North Howard Street in the Fishtown-Kensington area, according to a law enforcement source close to the investigation. Once he arrived, DeCoatsworth allegedly forced that woman and a second woman, both in their 20s, to use drugs and perform oral sex on him at gunpoint. The alleged victims reported the assault Friday only after DeCoatsworth went home, according to police. Hero Officer Arrested A former Philadelphia Police Officer once hailed a hero was arrested on Saturday for allegedly holding two women captive. NBC10's Katy Zachry has the details. (Published Saturday, May 18, 2013) Police raided DeCoatsworth’s house on the 2700 block of Salmon Street in the Port Richmond section of Philadelphia around 6:30 a.m. on Saturday. He was arraigned and charged with rape, sexual assault, terroristic threats and other related offenses. Police also confiscated drugs and guns from the home, according to a source. No word yet on what kind of drugs were removed from the home. Video Crossing Gate Hits School Bus as Train Approaches According to court documents, bail was set at $25 million for each of the alleged victims. Another $10 million bail was set in a separate domestic violence case DeCoatsworth is now being charged with, according to investigators. Police say he assaulted his live-in girlfriend on May 9. The $60 million bail is reportedly one of the highest set in Philadelphia history. DeCoatsworth faces more than 32 crimes in all three cases. He is scheduled for another court appearance on June 17. One of DeCoatsworth’s neighbors said she was relieved to hear about his arrest. “I am scared to be saying this now but I hope he stays where he is at, he has been a thorn in the side of this neighborhood for so long,” said the woman who did not want to be identified. Philadelphia Mayor Michael Nutter's Office says of the nine complaints lodged against DeCoatsworth -- one resulted in a lawsuit. The suit alleged DeCoatsworth used aggressive behavior while on the job. The city settled that suit for $1.5 million. However, officials say Philadelphia has accrued other legal costs related to DeCoatsworth. Last year, Philadelphia Police Commissioner Charles Ramsey told police he believed he failed DeCoatsworth by letting him go back to work with a stressful unit too soon after he was shot in the face. "I think I screwed up on that," Ramsey told the Daily News. "I think I should have given him more time. He didn't want more time but I should have done that." In light of his most recent arrest however, Ramsey had much harsher words for DeCoatsworth on Monday. "He has to be held accountable," Ramsey said. "Just like anybody else. There should be no special consideration given simply because he once served as a police officer." DeCoatsworth is being held on $60 million bail. A figure that is rarely seen in the U.S. criminal justice system. Philadelphia District Attorney's Office spokeswoman Tasha Jamerson said prosecution did not request a high bail amount, rather that DeCoatsworth be held without bail. “Being held without bail is the highest bail situation you could face as a defendant in Philadelphia," Jamerson said, “At DeCoatsworth's arraignment on Saturday, we requested that he be held without bail, but the judge instead chose to impose bail at $60 million.” Other high-profile cases, including federal trials held in Pennsylvania, have included large sums, but none are near what the 27-year-old is held on. While many with similarly egregious crimes are held without bail, some are held on bonds that reach into the millions of dollars. Christina Regusters, the 20-year old woman charged with abducting and raping a 5-year old girl in Cobbs Creek, is currently held on $4 million bond. Ariel Castro, the Ohio man who is facing four counts of kidnapping and three counts of rape for holding three women captive in his home for a decade, is held on only $8 million. While DeCoatsworth is listed as being represented by a public defender, family members are currently helping him acquire an attorney. NBC10's Emad Kahlil contributed to this report. Get the latest Philly.com Daily Headlines newsletter delivered to your email. Sign up now! Richard DeCoatsworth in happier times, as he joined first lady Michelle Obama and Jill Biden at a presidential address in 2009. (Associated Press/File) A retired Philadelphia police officer once hailed as a hero and invited by Michelle Obama in 2009 to sit next to her during the president's State of the Union address has been arrested and charged with raping and holding two women captive for two days. Richard DeCoatsworth, 27, was taken into custody early Saturday. When police arrived at his Port Richmond house on the 2700 block of Salmon Street, DeCoatsworth, who was armed, went to the basement to open a garage door and let out his pit bull, a law enforcement source said. The dog ran away after police fired two flash grenades. DeCoatsworth, discarding his gun, ran into the bedroom, where there was a loaded shotgun. Police subdued and arrested him without incident, the source said. DeCoatsworth had been under investigation by the Special Victims Unit after two women alleged that he forced them to use drugs and engage in sexual activity. The women said they came into contact with DeCoatsworth about 2 a.m. Thursday at a party, said Officer Christine O'Brien, a police spokeswoman. They left the party with him, and the three went to another location. Police did not identify the site of the party or say where the alleged crimes took place. At the second site, DeCoatsworth took out a handgun and allegedly forced the two women "to engage in the use of narcotics and sexual acts," O'Brien said. The women reported the incident to police, and DeCoatsworth was charged with rape, sexual assault, terroristic threats, and related charges. His bail was set at $60 million. The women told police DeCoatsworth had held them captive for two days, according to the law enforcement source. It was a long fall from grace for the former officer, who in 2007 was lauded as a hero. 2009 tribute As a 21-year-old rookie, DeCoatsworth took a shotgun blast to the face and, bleeding heavily and returning fire, pursued his attacker for several blocks before collapsing and radioing for help. The gunman, Antonio Coulter, was caught and later pleaded guilty in the shooting. DeCoatsworth underwent extensive surgery and returned to duty in June 2008. His heroism in that case led to an invitation to sit next to the first lady during the president's 2009 address. DeCoatsworth then became involved in two controversial incidents in which he shot at suspects. In April 2009, he shot Anthony Temple when the man lunged for his gun, police said, and a backup officer then shot and killed Temple. The following September, he wounded a man in a leg who allegedly ran at him on a motorcycle. DeCoatsworth racked up a number of Internal Affairs complaints, and he retired in December 2011 at age 25. He left, a police spokesman said at the time, due to injuries from the 2007 shooting. 'Something like this' Some in the Police Department had feared DeCoatsworth was badly troubled. One officer said DeCoatsworth's unpredictable behavior and temper had led some in the department to view him as a time bomb. "I hate to say it, but I did see something like this coming," the officer said Saturday. Neighbors at a diner down the block from DeCoatsworth's home said he had been known to behave erratically. A woman who asked not to be named said she avoided the former officer after an incident in the fall in which his pit bull allegedly charged at her chihuahua. "From the look in his eyes," she said, "I was terrified." Shattered glass from DeCoatsworth's door spilled out over his front steps Saturday afternoon, and people inside refused to answer the door. When two people left the apartment, they declined to comment. Contact Jonathan Lai at 856-779-3220, [email protected], or follow on Twitter @elaijuh. Inquirer staff writer Allison Steele contributed to this article.

Summary: In 2007, now-former Philadelphia police officer Richard DeCoatsworth was hailed as a hero for chasing down a suspect after being shot in the face. Yesterday, he was arrested on charges of rape, sexual assault, and terroristic threats, as police raided his home, also confiscating guns and drugs, NBC Philadelphia reports. According to police, DeCoatsworth met two women at a party, then is alleged to have pulled a gun on them and forced them "to engage in the use of narcotics and to engage in sexual acts." His bail was set at $60 million. DeCoatsworth received a "Top Cops" award in 2008 and was promoted to an elite highway patrol unit following his act of bravery. But he retired from the force in 2011, after accruing a large number of Internal Affairs complaints and two controversial incidents where he shot at suspects, reports the Inquirer.

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Write a title and summarize: SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE. This Act may be cited as the ``Fiscal Accountability, Integrity, and Responsibility in SCHIP Act of 2006'' or the ``FAIR-SCHIP Act of 2006''. SEC. 2. FUNDING OF THE SCHIP ALLOTMENT SHORTFALLS FOR FISCAL YEAR 2007. (a) In General.--Section 2104 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1397dd) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection: ``(h) Special Rules To Address Fiscal Year 2007 Shortfalls.-- ``(1) Initial down payment on shortfall for fiscal year 2007.--The provisions of subsection (d) shall apply with respect to fiscal year 2007 in the same manner as they apply to fiscal year 2006, except that, for purposes of this paragraph-- ``(A) any reference to `fiscal year 2006', `December 16, 2005', `2005', `2004', `September 30, 2006' and `October 1, 2006' shall be deemed a reference to `fiscal year 2007', `December 16, 2006', `2006', `2005', `September 30, 2007' and `October 1, 2007' respectively; ``(B) there shall be substituted for the dollar amount specified in subsection (d)(1), and shall be treated as the amount appropriated under such subsection, $450,000,000; ``(C) paragraphs (3)(B) and (4) of subsection (d) shall not apply (and paragraph (4) of this subsection shall apply in lieu of paragraph (4) of such subsection); ``(D) if the dollar amount specified in subparagraph (B) is not at least equal to the total of the shortfalls described in subsection (d)(2) (as applied under this paragraph), the amounts under subsection (d)(3) (as applied under this paragraph) shall be ratably reduced. ``(2) Funding remainder of shortfall for fiscal year 2007 through redistribution of certain unused fiscal year 2005 allotments.-- ``(A) In general.--Subject to subparagraph (C), the Secretary shall provide for a redistribution under subsection (f) from amounts made available for redistribution under paragraph (3), to each shortfall State described in subparagraph (B) that is one of the 50 States or District of Columbia, such amount as the Secretary determines will eliminate the estimated shortfall described in such subparagraph for the State. ``(B) Shortfall state described.--For purposes of this paragraph, a shortfall State described in this subparagraph is a State with a State child health plan approved under this title for which the Secretary estimates, on the basis of the most recent data available to the Secretary as of March 31, 2007, that the projected expenditures under such plan for such State for fiscal year 2007 will exceed the sum of-- ``(i) the amount of the State's allotments for each of fiscal years 2005 and 2006 that will not be expended by the end of fiscal year 2006; ``(ii) the amount, if any, that is to be redistributed to the State during fiscal year 2007 in accordance with subsection (f) (other than under this paragraph); ``(iii) the amount of the State's allotment for fiscal year 2007; and ``(iv) the amount of any additional allotment to the State under paragraph (1). ``(C) Proration rule.--If the amounts available for redistribution under paragraph (3) are less than the total amounts computed under subparagraph (A), the amount computed under subparagraph (A) for each shortfall State shall be reduced proportionally. ``(3) Treatment of certain states with fiscal year 2005 allotments unexpended at the end of the first half of fiscal year 2007.-- ``(A) Identification of states.--The Secretary-- ``(i) shall identify those States that received an allotment for fiscal year 2005 under subsection (b) which have not expended all of such allotment by March 31, 2007; and ``(ii) for each such State shall determine-- ``(I) the portion of such allotment that was not so expended by such date; and ``(II) whether the State is a described in subparagraph (B). ``(B) States with funds in excess of 200 percent of need.--A State described in this subparagraph is a State for which the Secretary determines, as of March 31, 2007, the total of all available allotments under this title as of such date, is at least equal to 200 percent of the total projected expenditures under this title for the State for fiscal year 2007. ``(C) Redistribution and limitation on availability.-- ``(i) Application to portion of unused allotments for certain states.--In the case of a State identified under subparagraph (A)(i) that is also described in subparagraph (B), notwithstanding subsection (e), the percentage specified by the Secretary in clause (ii) of the amount described in subparagraph (A)(ii)(I) shall not be available for expenditure on or after April 1, 2007. ``(ii) Percentage specified.--The Secretary shall specify a percentage which-- ``(I) does not exceed 75 percent; and ``(II) when applied under clause (i) results in the total of the amounts under such clause equaling the total of the amounts under paragraph (2)(A). ``(4) Use of additional allotment.--Additional allotments provided under this subsection are only available for amounts expended under a State plan approved under this title for child health assistance for targeted low-income children or child health assistance or other health benefits coverage for pregnant women. ``(5) Retrospective adjustment.--The Secretary may adjust the determinations made under paragraphs (2) and (3) as necessary on the basis of the amounts reported by States not later than November 30, 2007, on CMS Form 64 or CMS Form 21, as the case may be and as approved by the Secretary, but in no case may the percentage specified in paragraph (3)(C)(ii) exceed 75 percent. ``(6) 1-year availability; no redistribution of unexpended additional allotments.-- ``(A) In general.--Notwithstanding subsections (e) and (f), amounts allotted or redistributed to a State pursuant to this subsection for fiscal year 2007 shall only remain available for expenditure by the State through September 30, 2007, and any amounts of such allotments or redistributions that remain unexpended as of such date, shall not be subject to redistribution under subsection (f). Nothing in the preceding sentence shall be construed as limiting the ability of the Secretary to adjust the determinations made under paragraphs (2) and (3) in accordance with paragraph (5). ``(B) Reversion upon termination of retrospective adjustment period.--Any amounts of such allotments or redistributions that remain unexpended as of September 30, 2007, shall revert to the Treasury on December 31, 2007.''. (b) Extending Authority for Qualifying States To Use Certain Funds for Medicaid Expenditures.--Section 2105(g)(1)(A) of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1397ee(g)(1)(A)) is amended by striking ``or 2005'' and inserting ``2005, 2006, or 2007''.

Title: A bill to amend title XXI of the Social Security Act to reduce funding shortfalls for the State Children's Health Insurance Program (SCHIP) for fiscal year 2007 Summary: Fiscal Accountability, Integrity, and Responsibility in SCHIP Act of 2006, or FAIR-SCHIP Act of 2006 - Amends title XXI (State Children's Health Insurance) (SCHIP) to set forth special rules to fund the FY2007 SCHIP allotment shortfalls, including through a redistribution of certain unused FY2005 allotments. Extends authority for qualifying states to use certain funds for Medicaid (SSA title XIX) expenditures.

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Summarize: Joanne Chesimard, who killed a New Jersey cop 40 years ago today, then escaped prison and fled to Cuba, has been labeled a terrorist and had a $2 million bounty put on her by the FBI, authorities said Thursday. Chesimard was serving a life term for killing a New Jersey state trooper in 1973 when she escaped prison. After hiding out in a New Jersey safe house for several years, Chesimard managed to flee in 1979 to Cuba, where she has been living for decades under the name Assata Shakur. "Joanne Chesimard is a domestic terrorist," Aaron T. Ford, special agent in charge of the FBI's Newark division, said at a press conference Thursday. "She absolutely is a threat to America." Chesimard, a member of the radical Black Liberation Army, shot and killed New Jersey State Trooper Werner Foerster execution-style on May 2, 1973, after she and two others were pulled over for a routine traffic stop on the New Jersey Turnpike, about an hour south of New York City. Chesimard, 26 at the time, was already known by the FBI for her involvement in the Black Panther movement. She had changed her name to Shakur and was now a leader of the Black Liberation Army — one of the most violent militant black organizations of the 1970s. She was wanted in connection with a string of felonies, including bank robberies in New York. After being pulled over by the troopers, Chesimard, who was in the passenger seat, pulled out her semi-automatic pistol and fired the first shot. The passenger in the rear seat, James Coston, then fired multiple shots before he was killed by trooper James Harper. As Harper sought cover, Chesimard stepped out of the car and continuously fired at both him and Foerster, who was engaged in hand-to-hand combat with Clark Squire, the driver. Foerster was shot in the abdomen and right arm. According to police accounts, Chesimard picked up Foerster's gun and put two bullets in his head, execution-style, as he lay along the side of the turnpike. Authorities say her jammed handgun was found next to Foerster's body. Chesimard, Coston and Squire fled and abandoned their car 5 miles down the road. It didn't take long for police to locate the car and Coston, who was found dead near the vehicle. A half-hour after the shooting, state police arrested Chesimard. Squire was arrested a mile from the car about 40 hours after the incident. Chesimard denied that she shot at anyone and claimed that the militant and cop-killer labels made her a target. But four years later, she was convicted of first-degree murder, assault and battery of a police officer, assault with a dangerous weapon, assault with intent to kill, illegal possession of a weapon and armed robbery. On Nov. 2, 1979, Chesimard escaped from prison in New Jersey. Police believe a group of black and white domestic terrorists approached Chesimard while at a maximum security prison in West Virginia, but waited until she was transferred to a minimum security prison in New Jersey before plotting the escape. Three members of the group who were visiting Chesimard ordered a corrections officer at gunpoint to open three gates that eventually led out of the prison. They escaped in a jail van. Police say Chesimard was taken to a safe house in East Orange, N.J., where she hid for five years. In 1984 she surfaced in Cuba, where she was granted political asylum. On the 40th anniversary of Foerster's killing, the FBI announced that Chesimard has been placed on the FBI's "Most Wanted Terrorist List." She is the first female to be placed on the list. "She was a leader, activist and a soldier in the movement," Ford said of Chesimard's involvement in the Black Liberation Army, adding that authorities believe she has made connections over the years with other terrorist networks. Col. Rick Fuentes, superintendent of the New Jersey State Police, who spoke alongside Ford, said Chesimard continues to live safely in Cuba, where she "flaunts her freedom in the face of this horrific crime." "To this day, from her safe haven in Cuba, she been given the pulpit to preach and profess," Fuentes said. "She has been used by the Castro regime to greet foreign delegations visiting Cuba." Jeffrey S. Chiesa, New Jersey's Attorney General, announced that the reward for Chesimard's capture has been doubled to $2 million. "Justice has no expiration date... This killer continues to be free," Chiesa said, adding that the FBI remains committed to bringing Chesimard back to the U.S. Anyone with information that helps authorities capture Chesimard is urged to notify authorities at 1-800-CALL-FBI. New designation a reminder that 1970s cop killer Joanne Chesimard remains a threat STAFF WRITER The Record TYSON TRISH / STAFF PHOTOGRAPHER New Jersey State Police Col. Rick Fuentes stands in front of an updated reward billboard during Thursday's press conference at the FBI building in Newark. FILE PHOTO Joanne Chesimard is photographed in Cuba. She’s been known as a cop killer, a violent black activist and New Jersey’s most notorious fugitive from the law since the 1970s. As of Thursday, Joanne Chesimard is now also officially considered one of the country’s most-wanted terrorists. The addition of Chesimard, 65, to a list that has been maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation since 9/11 put a new spotlight on a case that has rankled every level of law enforcement for decades. Chesimard took the alias of Assata Shakur and surfaced in 1984 as an exile in Cuba, where she has continued to profess her innocence and attract sympathy from supporters who question the official account of the 1973 murder of Trooper Werner Foerster, who was shot, execution-style, after he stopped Chesimard and two others for a faulty tail light. Thursday was the 40th anniversary of the murder. Law enforcement officials said Thursday they have no evidence that Chesimard, a onetime leader of the Black Panthers and the Black Liberation Army, poses any new threat to the United States. Instead, they said, the danger she represents — because of her connections to radical groups abroad and her privileged position in Cuba — has remained constant over the years. "To this day, from her safe haven in Cuba, Chesimard has been given the pulpit to preach and profess, stirring supporters and groups to mobilize against the United States by any means necessary," Colonel Rick Fuentes, superintendent of the New Jersey State Police, said at a press conference. Chesimard is the 46th fugitive to be added to the list and the first woman, putting her among the ranks of Osama bin Ladin, Boston gangster James "Whitey" Bulger and members of international groups that include Hezbollah and the Taliban. Bulger was arrested in 2011. Aaron T. Ford, Special Agent in Charge of the FBI’s Newark Division, did not say why the government waited to give Chesimard the designation other than pointing out that she "has been proven to meet all the metrics" for inclusion. "She’s a danger to the American government, and she was part of an organization that used threats to try to intimidate, force and coerce government actions," Ford said. He added that the FBI also considers whether an investigation would benefit from the exposure generated by the list, which is distributed internationally. Ford’s appearance at the podium served as an unspoken reminder of how much the country has changed since the days of the Chesimard case, when some black militant groups pegged police officers as agents of government oppression. Ford, who was recently named head of the Newark bureau, is African American. Chesimard was convicted of Foerster’s murder in 1977, four years after the shoot-out on the New Jersey Turnpike. The case was delayed because she became pregnant while in custody. Law enforcement officials said Chesimard fired the first shot at Trooper James Harper, wounding him in the shoulder, and then pursued both officers with a fusillade of gunshots until she was also wounded. Foerster, already hurt in his right arm and abdomen, was executed with his own service weapon on the roadside. Chesimard’s jammed handgun was found at his side. James Coston, who was shooting from the backseat, was mortally wounded during the fight and was found next to the abandoned vehicle.

Summary: The FBI's Most Wanted Terrorist list now contains its first female: Joanne Chesimard. Her name was added to the list on the 40th anniversary of the murder of New Jersey state Trooper Werner Foerster, who was killed during a traffic stop, reports Fox News. Chesimard was convicted of the 1973 murder four years later; in 1979 three gunmen helped her bust out of prison, where she was serving a life sentence. She bubbled up in Cuba in the 1980s, where she was granted political asylum and now lives under the name Assata Shakur. The reward for the former member of the Black Liberation Army has been doubled to $2 million, reports the Record, which spoke with the State Police superintendent, who reveals he still has two detectives on the case. What officials know: She enjoys "rock star status" in Cuba, complete with a free place to live, thanks to her willingness to be an anti-American "propaganda specialist" for the Castro regime; she has even been invited to greet foreign delegations that arrive in the country.

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Summarize: John Travolta crashed a wedding in Georgia last week, leaving the couple with an unforgettable memory and great photos (take a look below; story continues after picture). But the actor isn't the first big-time star to add a little Hollywood magic to a "regular" couple's Big Day. Click through the slideshow below to see seven others who have done the same. Close  Celebrity Wedding Crashers of   Teen heartthrob Justin Bieber and then-girlfriend Selena Gomez were strolling on the beach in Malibu, Calif. in July 2011 when they heard Bieber's hit song "One Less Lonely Girl" playing at a local wedding reception. According to TMZ, the famous pair snuck up on some guests and then got on the mic to give the newlyweds a toast. "We just crashed it. We heard a party so we decided to just come. So let's party," Bieber said in an exclusive video. When Freya and Graham McAnally got married at the Manchester Town Hall in England in December 2011, they knew that cameras were nearby filming "The Iron Lady" starring Meryl Streep. But what they didn't know is that Streep would show up at their wedding. According to The Daily Mail, the Oscar-winning actress made an appearance at the couple's nuptials, then sent them autographed photos of herself bearing messages of congratulations. "I thought it was amazing, the last thing you expect is an A-List celebrity at your wedding," the bride said. Believe it or not, royals crash weddings sometimes too. In March 2012, Queen Elizabeth showed up at John and Frances Canning's Manchester, England wedding and completely shocked the couple, who had invited her but never really expected her to actually attend. "Basically it was a wedding gift for us," the bride told CNN affiliate ITN. In September 2008, "Entourage" actor Adrian Grenier accidentally walked into a wedding while leaving the Ritz-Carlton's spa in Marina del Rey, Calif. But according to the New York Daily News, no one really seemed to mind. In fact, some guests were all too eager to take some snapshots with the actor. John Travolta and Robin Williams once crashed a wedding together, but it was long before the two were big in Hollywood. According to USA Today, the friends had stopped to get a drink near Travolta's Santa Barbara home back in 1977. After a few drinks, "We were having fun, starting to relax, when we saw there was a wedding next door," Travolta told USA Today in 2009. "We figured we'd crash it." In April 2013, comedian Conan O'Brien crashed an Atlanta couple's wedding. A friend of the couple had been tweeting at O'Brien all day, inviting him to the wedding -- and he actually showed up! At left, O'Brien is pictured with the bride.  Share  Tweet  ✖ Advertisement Share this ✖ close Current Slide Keep in touch! Check out HuffPost Weddings on Facebook, Twitter and Pinterest. Mike Coppola/Don Arnold/Getty Images; ZUMAPRESS.com) John Travolta is getting in on the latest celebrity trend, crashing weddings! The A-list actor made a Georgia couple's big day quite an event to remember over the weekend when he stopped by their nuptials. Travolta posed for pics with the newly minted bride and groom and stuck around to enjoy multiple wedding photos! But he's not alone...some of Hollywood's most famous faces have crashed weddings. PHOTOS: Scenes from outside Katy Perry's wedding to Russell Brand Katy Perry recently crashed a Santa Barbara wedding with none other than Robert Pattinson. The two friends were unaware that they were caught in the middle of a wedding rehearsal at San Ysidro Ranch and tried to bow out before anyone noticed them. Taylor Swift, Conan O'Brien, Justin Bieber and Selena Gomez have also joined in on the fun. The "22" singer made headlines when reports surfaced that she refused to leave a Kennedy wedding last summer after being asked twice. However, she denied any wrongdoing at the time. PHOTOS: The most memorable TV weddings Then-couple Bieber and Gomez stumbled upon a wedding ceremony in Malibu in 2011. The two walked in on the reception after hearing one of the Biebs' songs being played over the sound system and posed for pics with the bride and groom. Meanwhile, funnyman O'Brien made one couple's wedding unforgettable. The TV host stopped by a wedding reception at the Four Seasons in Atlanta early this year and enjoyed a drink at the bar while chatting with guests. Which celebrity would you want to see stop by your wedding? Sound off below! PHOTOS: Inside secret celeb weddings VIDEOS: He was underdressed for the part, but John Travolta made a welcome cameo at the Georgia wedding last week. As a friend of the groom revealed on Reddit, the 59-year-old actor met the engaged couple at a bar the night before their ceremony and he showed up the next day—in a T-shirt, jeans, and baseball cap—and for photos. And it’s not the first time the Grease star has slipped into a wedding uninvited. In 2009, Robin Williams confessed to USA Today that back in 1977, he and Travolta crashed a reception next to a bar they were in. But once Travolta stepped on to the dance floor dancing, the guests realized the actors were not Welcome Back, Kotter and Mork & Mindy impersonators “They figured out who we were,” Williams said. “Some guy yelled out, ‘Hey, they really are Mork and Vinnie Barbarino!'” Next Bill Clinton

Summary: John Travolta awesomely crashed a wedding last week, showing up (clad in a T-shirt, jeans, and a baseball cap) in the couple's wedding photos after meeting them at a bar the night before. He's not the first celebrity to do so... in fact, it's not even the first time he did it himself. Time, the Huffington Post, and E! round up 14 more famous wedding crashers: Travolta and Robin Williams crashed a reception that was going on next door to a bar they were at, back in 1977, and started dancing. Recalls Williams, "Some guy yelled out, 'Hey, they really are Mork and Vinnie Barbarino!'" When Justin Bieber and Selena Gomez heard a Bieber song being played at a wedding in Malibu, they dropped in. Needless to say, shrieking ensued. A bridesmaid tweeted Conan O'Brien when she found out he was staying at the hotel where her friends' reception was being held-and he actually showed up. Not only did guests at a Manchester wedding get Meryl Streep as a surprise guest, they got Meryl Streep dressed as Margaret Thatcher. She had been filming The Iron Lady at the Town Hall when the bride walked in; Thatcher and other cast members applauded, and she even gave the happy couple some wedding gifts. Click for the full lists from Time, the Huffington Post, or E!.

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Write a title and summarize: It is not currently possible to measure the real-world thought process that a child has while observing an actual school lesson. However, if it could be done, children' s neural processes would presumably be predictive of what they know. Such neural measures would shed new light on children' s real-world thought. Toward that goal, this study examines neural processes that are evoked naturalistically, during educational television viewing. Children and adults all watched the same Sesame Street video during functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). Whole-brain intersubject correlations between the neural timeseries from each child and a group of adults were used to derive maps of “neural maturity” for children. Neural maturity in the intraparietal sulcus (IPS), a region with a known role in basic numerical cognition, predicted children' s formal mathematics abilities. In contrast, neural maturity in Broca' s area correlated with children' s verbal abilities, consistent with prior language research. Our data show that children' s neural responses while watching complex real-world stimuli predict their cognitive abilities in a content-specific manner. This more ecologically natural paradigm, combined with the novel measure of “neural maturity, ” provides a new method for studying real-world mathematics development in the brain. Naturalistic thought is an important phenomenon to understand in children who spend most of their time absorbing new information from complex scenes such as homes, schools, computers, and televisions. There is recent interest in neural activity that occurs spontaneously when people watch a natural scene or movie [1]–[3]. Naturalistic neuroimaging studies open up opportunities to collect neural measurements of children' s unconstrained thoughts during real-world stimulus viewing. In this study we ask whether children' s neural activity during unconstrained natural viewing of educational videos statistically predicts their performance on mathematics and verbal tests. Advances in developmental functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) have been rapid considering that the practice of scanning children in fMRI studies began less than 20 y ago [4]. Traditional fMRI studies of category and concept development often test neural processes under conditions of maximal stimulus control (e. g., isolated pictures, tones, words, letters, or digits) with short-duration stimuli and equally short response times (i. e., 2 s). These types of studies are critical for understanding brain development, and considerable progress has been made toward understanding all aspects of brain development using a diverse array of controlled tasks in children; see [5]–[7] for review. However, the general approach of using stripped down experimental designs could present a limitation on a broad understanding of child development, as the types of thoughts that a child has in a 2-s time window with uncomplicated tasks and stimuli may not be as diagnostic of their cognitive development as how they think over long periods of time with more complex stimulation. The more traditional neuroimaging approach of using highly controlled, simple stimuli and tasks could be complemented by an approach that tests children' s neural responses under more complex real-world conditions. As a first step toward interpreting children' s real-world neural activity, we tested the relationship between children' s natural viewing neural activity and their school-based knowledge. We focused on mathematics development because substantial progress has been made in characterizing the neural profile of calculation in adults [8], [9], children [10]–[12], and non-human primates [13]. The data consistently indicate that regions of intraparietal cortex are more responsive during numerical processing compared to processing of other stimulus classes such as colors [14], shapes [15], [16], faces, and words [16], [17], as well as actions such as grasping and saccadic eye movements [17]. Moreover disruption of normal functioning in intraparietal cortex through cortical lesions [18] and genetic disorders [19] is associated with selective impairments for numerical processing. Here we ask whether children show number-specific neural responses during a typical early childhood educational experience by testing the maturity of children' s neural timecourses as they view educational videos. In addition, we test for a dissociation between the neural correlates of children' s school-based mathematics and verbal test scores in order to examine whether there are dissociable, content-specific patterns in children' s brain activity during natural viewing. Finally, we compare the neural measure derived from natural viewing with a neural measure from a traditional fMRI task to determine the relative strengths of those measures as statistical predictors of children' s math performance. As described in Materials and Methods, we used an intersubject correlation method [2] to measure the similarity of children' s neural responses to those of adults after both groups watched the same 20-min Sesame Street video (Figure 1A). Our version of the intersubject method correlated the whole neural timecourse at every voxel in the brain between each child and a group of adults. From this correlation we derived a measure for each child of how “adult-like” or, mature, his/her pattern of neural activation was at each voxel. These maps are designated “neural maturity” maps. We performed group statistics (Fisher-transformed one sample t-tests) over the children' s “neural maturity” maps (Figure 1B). The map shows regions where the similarity in neural timecourses between the children and adults while watching the video was consistently high at the group level. Broadly speaking, the children showed group-level similarity to adults in cortical regions associated with vision (occipital cortex), auditory processing (lateral temporal cortex), language (frontal and temporal cortex), visuo-spatial processing and calculation (intraparietal cortex), and several other functions. For comparison, Figure 1B also shows the mean intersubject correlation within the group of children (middle panel) and within the group of adults (right panel). The intersubject correlations among subjects reinforce claims that there are certain universals in the way that the human brain processes information [2]. We found that the intersubject correlations of children-to-adults, which we have termed “neural maturity, ” increased with age. Neural maturity increased with age across large sections of the brain including basic sensory and motor cortices as well as areas of association cortex such as the intraparietal sulcus (IPS) and Broca' s area (Table 1). A whole-brain analysis comparing the intersubject correlations of children-to-adults with adults-to-adults revealed statistically higher intersubject correlations in adults-to-adults than children-to-adults predominantly in left hemisphere cortex including the left IPS, left Broca' s area and the inferior and middle frontal gyri, left superior temporal sulcus, and the left fusiform and inferior temporal gyri (Figure 1C). These results complement the age-related increases in neural maturity that we report in Table 1 and indicate that neural responses that are universal among adults are still maturing in children, particularly in the left hemisphere. Interestingly, the statistical comparison of intersubject correlations for children-to-children versus children-to-adults indicated that children exhibit statistically higher intersubject correlations with other children than with adults in superior temporal cortex, predominantly in Brodmann area 22. This is an interesting finding because it suggests that there are brain regions in which children' s neural responses are still immature but the pattern of neural responses is systematic among children. We also tested a whole-brain analysis comparing children-to-children intersubject correlations with adult-to-adult intersubject correlations. Children showed significantly higher intersubject correlations than did adults in superior temporal cortex along Brodmann 22. We note that the higher intersubject correlations among children in superior temporal cortex were bilateral at a slightly lower threshold than shown in Figure 1C. The fact that children show significantly higher intersubject correlations than adults in this region indicates that it not only exhibits a higher correlation among children than between children and adults but it also exhibits less between-subject variability in neural activity in childhood than in adulthood. Maps of the statistical differences in intersubject correlations between children and adults are presented in Figure 1C. We next explored the relation between the child-to-adult intersubject correlations, which we are calling “neural maturity, ” and behavior. Children were administered the TEMA-3 and KBIT-2, standardized tests for childhood mathematics and verbal/non-verbal IQ, respectively. In a voxelwise whole brain analysis, test scores were correlated with children' s neural maturity values. This analysis returned a map of correlation coefficients relating individual variability in test scores with individual variability in neural maturity for the whole brain (Figure 2). These brain-behavior correlation maps represent the correlation of one standardized test while controlling for the other standardized test score in a partial correlation. Figure 2A shows the resulting maps of the whole brain analysis of children' s neural maturity correlated with their performance on the TEMA-3 mathematics test (controlling for their KBIT-2 scores). The data show that in bilateral regions of the IPS, children' s neural maturity predicted their performance on the standardized math test, independently of how they performed on the KBIT-2 test. That is, children who performed better specifically on the math test exhibited more similar IPS responses to adults while watching the educational videos. The bottom panel of Figure 2A illustrates the average correlation between children' s neural maturity values and math test scores for the left and right IPS regions of interest (ROIs). The ROI-averaged neural maturity values were calculated by taking each subject' s average timecourse for the whole ROI and correlating that timecourse with the group average timecourse from the adults. The group-level correlation between the natural viewing neural timecourses of children and adults can be seen in Figure 3, which shows the raw ROI-averaged timecourses for the left and right IPS, for each group. The timecourses show comparable patterns of peak responses for children and adults across the video series in the IPS. The residual timecourses after framewise displacement (FD) correction are shown in Figure S1 for both subject groups along with the average child-to-adult correlation for each brain region. We tested whether our brain-behavior correlation between math test scores and IPS neural maturity could be explained by some other variable related to the scanning session. We found that the correlation between math test scores and IPS neural maturity is not explained by general memory and attention because neural maturity in those same IPS voxels did not correlate with children' s scores on a general memory test about the video (left: R = −0. 07, p = 0. 41; right: R = 0. 32, p = 0. 12). In addition, the relationship between neural maturity and math test scores was not attributable to individual differences in head motion as the correlation remained significant when motion (translation and rotation) and KBIT-2 scores were simultaneously controlled (right: R = 0. 67, p<0. 01; left: R = 0. 76, p<0. 01). We performed a parallel analysis with the standardized verbal IQ test scores (KBIT-2 verbal) to test for a functional dissociation between the mathematics and verbal domains. Figure 2B shows regions where children' s neural maturity was correlated with their performance on the KBIT-2 verbal test, controlling for TEMA-3 performance. This analysis yielded a different pattern of regions including Broca' s area and ventral temporal cortex. Figure 2B (bottom panel) illustrates the relationship between neural maturity and verbal test scores in Broca' s area calculated from individual subjects' ROI-averaged timecourses. The correlation between verbal test scores and neural maturity in Broca' s area remained significant when math test scores and motion parameters were simultaneously controlled (R = 0. 68, p<0. 01). Figure 4 shows the ROI-averaged timecourses for children and adults in Broca' s area across the natural viewing movie sequence. Broca' s area has been previously reported to respond during picture naming and verb generation tasks, consistent with our finding that it relates to children' s formal verbal abilities [20]–[23]. However, the main finding is that the relationship between natural viewing neural maturity and math test scores is dissociable from the relationship between neural maturity and verbal test scores, implicating content-specific processing during natural viewing. Table 1 reports all of the brain regions that exhibited content-specific correlations between neural maturity during natural viewing and the math and verbal test scores in the whole brain analyses. Figure 5 shows a summary of the mean natural viewing intersubject correlation values for children-to-adults (neural maturity) and adults-to-adults in the left and right IPS and Broca' s area. Adults showed a significantly higher intersubject correlation with other adults than did children with adults in all three regions, providing further evidence that the intersubject correlation during natural viewing strengthens over development (all p-values<0. 001). In order to test whether the neural responses in the IPS during the natural viewing session were driven primarily by the numerical content portions of the Sesame Street video, we analyzed changes in response amplitude over the timecourses relative to the content of the movie. As mentioned earlier, Figures 3 and 4 show changes in percent signal change over the course of the movie as well as the timing of the movie content. The baseline (the zero ordinate) in Figures 3 and 4 is the mean timecourse value. We found that the right IPS region exhibited a significantly greater response amplitude during the numerical content than the non-numerical content from the video (Figure 6; t (22) = 3. 58, p<0. 01). The left IPS exhibited greater responses to numerical content compared to non-numerical content, but the difference was not significant. Broca' s area did not exhibit a significant difference in percent signal change between numerical and non-numerical clips. Figure 6 shows the response amplitude differences between numerical and non-numerical clips for the right IPS, left IPS, and Broca' s area. Importantly, we observed that the IPS intersubject correlations were not driven exclusively by these differences in amplitude between the numerical and non-numerical content because the intersubject neural maturity correlation was significant during both the numerical content and non-numerical content in both IPS regions (Fisher transformed r versus zero; left: numerical t (22) = 3. 14, p<0. 005, non-numerical t (22) = 4. 40, p<0. 001; Right: numerical t (22) = 5. 23, p<0. 001, non-numerical t (22) = 4. 97, p<0. 001). This shows that blood oxygen level dependent (BOLD) amplitude and intersubject correlation are distinct measures of brain development because neural responses are systematic and temporally correlated between subjects even during the presentation of stimuli for which the IPS does not show a selective, high-amplitude BOLD response. The implication is that there is a systematic temporal pattern even in the low-amplitude BOLD responses. In a second experiment, we tested the same children in a more traditional fMRI paradigm to validate our natural-viewing method. In this traditional paradigm, the children were tested on a matching task with isolated pairs of faces, numbers, words, and shapes. We tested whether the ROIs that emerged from the neural maturity correlations also elicit content-specific responses during a more controlled, traditional fMRI paradigm. Figure 7A shows the children' s neural response amplitudes for each of the four stimulus classes from the traditional paradigm inside the IPS ROIs that were defined as showing a relationship between children' s neural maturity and math test scores during natural viewing. The data from this more traditional fMRI paradigm indicate that the IPS responded more strongly to numerical stimuli than to the three classes of non-numerical stimuli during the traditional matching task. This result accords with our finding that the maturity of children' s neural responses in the IPS during educational video viewing has a biased relation to mathematics processing and is not generically related to intelligence. As described earlier, the bias for numerical processing in the IPS has been well established by several previous traditional fMRI studies with adults as well as children [8], [10], [11], [14]; see [9], [12] for review. So far no study has demonstrated a relationship between young children' s neural amplitudes during traditional fMRI tests of numerical processing and their formal school-based math test performance. We tested whether children' s number-related BOLD amplitudes from the traditional paradigm would predict their math test scores. We did not find a correlation between number-related amplitudes and children' s math test performance in the traditional paradigm (left IPS: R = −0. 17, p = 0. 53; right IPS: R = −0. 29, p = 0. 25). This result contrasts with our findings from the natural viewing neural measures that showed a significant correlation between children' s IPS activity and math performance. One explanation of the difference in results is that the content of the math-related material in the educational video is more closely related to children' s school-based math skills, which results in a better correlation between the natural viewing neural data and the math test scores. This raises the possibility that neural responses to real-world stimuli might be better predictors of full-blown math development than neural responses from a simpler traditional fMRI task. As a cross-validation of our results, we tested whether our natural viewing intersubject correlation results are maintained when the IPS is defined by activation during the traditional numerical tests. We selected the clusters of parietal voxels that elicited a statistically greater response during the traditional number task than the face, shape, and word-matching tasks (whole-brain, random effects analysis; n = 22 children; number matching > face, word, and shape matching; false discovery rate [FDR] corrected, q<0. 05). These intraparietal ROIs, now defined by activation during a traditional fMRI task, showed the same partial correlation between children' s math IQ scores and their neural maturity correlations during the Sesame Street video, controlling for KBIT scores (Figure 7B). Moreover, the spatial distribution of children' s neural responses to numbers from the traditional task overlapped with the brain regions that showed a correlation between children' s natural viewing neural maturity measures and their formal math test scores. Figure 8 shows the spatial overlap of the natural viewing and traditional task results in the IPS (whole-brain results are plotted for both datasets in Figure 8). The IPS overlap between these two maps is impressive given that one result (natural viewing neural maturity) represents the relation between children' s math test scores and their child-to-adult timecourse correlations from watching Sesame Street while the other result (traditional task) represents children' s neural responses to numbers over other stimulus categories from a matching task. Finally, we used the traditional task number-related ROIs as an independent localizer to test the relationship between math test scores and the natural viewing neural responses during the numerical versus non-numerical content of the video. We tested the correlation between children' s math test scores and (1) natural viewing neural maturity for the numerical versus non-numerical video content, and (2) response amplitude for the numerical versus non-numerical video content. We controlled for KBIT-2 test scores and motion in these analyses. We found that the right IPS, defined by the traditional numerical task, showed a significant correlation between math test scores and the neural maturity natural viewing correlation only for the numerical video content (one-tailed tests; numerical: R = 0. 52, p<0. 05; non-numerical: R = 0. 37, p = 0. 11). In addition, response amplitude during only the numerical content of the video was significantly correlated with children' s math test scores (R = 0. 63, p<0. 05). Response amplitude to the non-numerical video content was negatively correlated with math test scores because of its negative correlation with response amplitude to numerical content (R = −0. 63). The left IPS showed less of a distinction between numerical and non-numerical content in the correlation with math test scores as correlations for both content types were significant or marginally significant (numerical: R = 0. 39, p = 0. 09; non-numerical: R = 0. 55, p<0. 05). Response amplitude for numerical video content was also marginally correlated with math test scores in the left IPS (R = 0. 37, p = 0. 10). Reviewing the neural measures from both the natural viewing and traditional paradigm, we found that the right IPS appears to be more mature than the left IPS in children. The right IPS showed a higher neural maturity score than left IPS in regions defined both by the traditional task and the natural viewing task (Fisher transformed paired t-tests; traditional: t (22) = 2. 41, p<0. 05; natural: t (22) = 2. 74, p<0. 01). The general pattern is that the temporal response pattern in the right IPS in children shows more similarity to the adult IPS than does the left IPS. Although both regions showed strong correlations between neural maturity and mathematics performance, the right IPS correlation between neural maturity and math test scores was specific to the numerical content of the video while the left IPS response was not. Compared to the left IPS, the right IPS is considered to play a greater role in the early stages of numerical development [12]. Our natural viewing data suggest that both the left and right IPS are important for mathematics development in early childhood but that the right IPS matures faster than the left IPS and its response is more selectively modulated by numerical content in early childhood. In summary, the results from the natural viewing paradigm demonstrate that the whole timecourse of neural activation from fMRI (not just the neural amplitude) carries important information about cognitive and brain development. The data indicate that in early childhood the IPS (particularly in the right hemisphere) responds in a content-specific manner to numerical information presented naturalistically and that both the amplitude and temporal pattern of the neural response are related to children' s school-based math performance. A comparison of the natural viewing and traditional paradigms shows that number-selective responses from the two paradigms overlap in parietal cortex. Both paradigms indicate content-specificity in the IPS for numerical processing in children. Yet, only the neural measures from the natural viewing paradigm correlated with children' s formal school-based math performance. This suggests that some aspect of the stimulus content or measurement from the natural viewing paradigm is better able to represent the neural basis of children' s early math performance than the traditional paradigm. We used a novel fMRI method to show that naturalistic neural activity is related to school-based mathematics knowledge in children. Specifically, the similarity in children' s IPS neural timecourse to that of adults during natural viewing predicts their mathematics test performance. The relationship between naturalistic IPS activity and math performance is dissociable from the relationship between natural viewing activity in Broca' s area and children' s verbal IQ performance. In addition to showing a mathematics-related temporal pattern in the IPS, children' s IPS responses during the numerical segments of the Sesame Street video were also higher in amplitude than during the non-numerical video segments. Together these findings demonstrate content-based neural responses during natural viewing of educational videos in children. Although both the left and right IPS showed a strong relationship between neural maturity and children' s math test scores, the right IPS showed an overall higher neural maturity score in the natural viewing paradigm and a more mathematics-specific neural response profile. As mentioned earlier, this finding is consistent with prior reports of the development of numerical processing in the brain [10], [11]; see [12] for review. Young children show number-related activations that are often stronger in the right hemisphere. Some have argued that right hemisphere IPS activations reflect more fundamental, early-developing numerical functions such as the comparison of analog quantities whereas the left IPS represents formal symbolic numerical content [8], [10], [11], [12], [15]. For example, Piazza and colleagues [8] showed that in adults, the left IPS is more involved in processing precise symbolic representations of numerical values than the right IPS. The precision of symbolic numerical representations increases throughout childhood. These findings thus predict that the left IPS will show a more protracted developmental trajectory than the right IPS. Our study confirms that prediction and expands the evidence to include both the amplitude and temporal pattern of children' s neural responses in the IPS. In addition, our data provide novel evidence of a relationship between children' s formal, school-based mathematics abilities and their neural responses in the IPS to a naturalistic education stimulus. A traditional fMRI numerical task confirmed that both the left and right IPS regions responded selectively during basic numerical judgments compared to judgments of other categories in children. The IPS regions that exhibited number-related responses during the traditional paradigm overlapped math-related activations from the natural viewing paradigm. The overlap between number-related IPS activations across these tasks is impressive given that the tasks were quite different: the natural viewing task involved watching Sesame Street whereas the traditional task was numerical matching. Despite the fact that the stimulation and demands of the two tasks are very different, both tasks elicited activation patterns in the IPS that were selectively related to numerical processing. However, despite the overlap between the natural viewing and traditional paradigms, the naturalistic and traditional fMRI measures differed in their ability to explain variability in children' s math performance. In both hemispheres, the natural viewing timecourse correlation of children-to-adults, or “neural maturity, ” was more closely related to children' s math performance than the traditional neural measure of BOLD amplitude from numerical stimuli in the IPS. The implication is that the natural viewing paradigm is better suited for predicting children' s mathematics development than the traditional paradigm. There are several reasons that the naturalistic stimuli and the measure of “neural maturity” could be ideal for predicting children' s math performance. One reason is that the naturalistic neural maturity measure might better account for the richness of the whole BOLD timecourse, such as small and large scale fluctuations in activity. Brain regions that selectively respond to preferred information types could show subtle variation in the temporal response pattern to preferred information as well as to non-preferred information, e. g., [24]. Our finding of significant and sometimes math-specific intersubject correlations within both the numerical and non-numerical video content is consistent with that conclusion. That finding shows evidence of systematic neural responses to stimuli that elicit both high- and low-amplitude BOLD activity. Previous studies with adults [25] also have shown that natural viewing paradigms can reveal aspects of neural functioning that are not captured by the traditional measure of response amplitude, including variation in the temporal response windows of different brain regions and the sensitivity of different brain regions to temporal order in event sequences see [3] for review. Thus the naturalistic “neural maturity” measure has the potential to pick up a different set of neural response characteristics than the traditional measure of BOLD amplitude, particularly in the temporal dimension. Another possible advantage of the natural viewing paradigm for studying children is that the natural viewing stimuli more fully engage the faculties that are used to learn in the real world. There is evidence that children' s performance on reading, school readiness, and creativity tests improve after viewing educational programs such as Sesame Street [26]. Thus the content of educational videos, such as those used in the current study, can interact with children' s school-based knowledge. The content of a real-world video might be a better stimulus for eliciting the suite of cognitive and neural processes that children likely recruit in school. These advantages of the natural viewing stimuli over a more traditional task with simple stimuli suggest that naturalistic studies of brain activity with real-world stimuli could serve as an important complement to highly controlled fMRI experiments on mathematics development. We have reported a new set of analytic procedures for studying children' s developing brain responses to complex real-world scenes. Complex real-world scenes simultaneously present multiple types of meaningful information across multiple modalities. The broad goal of this research is to understand how children' s brains reflect signatures of the knowledge they have acquired, with the long-term goal of linking brain development to children' s experiences and school performance [27]. We conclude that early in development, children exhibit dissociable, content-specific patterns of brain activity when left to view and think about educational material on their own. The degree to which children' s brains elicit adult-like temporal patterns in their neural timecourses during natural viewing is a statistical predictor of their formal, real-world academic performance. Our data indicate that these complex stimuli can be used to identify individual differences in the brain mechanisms underlying children' s real-world knowledge. The use of complex, real-world neuroimaging paradigms has the potential to advance our understanding of brain development in its natural context. Twenty-seven typically developing children (ages 4. 3 to 10. 8 y, mean age = 7. 1 y, SD = 1. 6,16 female) and 20 adults (ages 18. 9 to 25. 4 y, mean age = 20. 7 y, SD = 1. 7,13 female) successfully participated in one or more of the experimental conditions (26 children and 20 adults in the natural viewing fMRI paradigm, 23 children and 20 adults in the traditional fMRI paradigm, and 19 children in the behavioral standardized testing). Children were excluded from conditions due to excessive head motion (>5 mm), opting-out, or experimenter error. The mean motion deviations for the remaining children (after online motion correction) were 0. 39 mm translation (σ = 0. 37) and 0. 36 degrees rotation (σ = 0. 24) in the natural viewing paradigm and 1. 26 mm translation (σ = 1. 33) and 1. 5 degrees rotation (σ = 1. 38) in the traditional paradigm. There was significantly less child motion in the natural viewing paradigm compared to the traditional paradigm (translation: t (21) = 3. 5, p<0. 005; rotation: t (21) = 3. 97, p<0. 005). The difference in child head motion between tasks is noteworthy considering that the natural viewing task was almost twice as long as the traditional task. Anecdotally, children seemed calmer and more engaged by the natural viewing task than the traditional task and this observation is empirically supported by the motion data. All participants were screened for neurological abnormalities. All procedures were approved by the Research Subjects Review Board. Prior to the MR scanning session, children were given a 30-min training session in a mock scanner to practice the experimental task, and remaining motionless during scanning. In the actual MR scanner, headphones, foam padding, and medical tape were used to secure the children' s heads. Adults received verbal instructions and a brief session of task practice. During the MR scanning session, we measured participants' neural activity (BOLD) during (1) a natural viewing paradigm and (2) a traditional fMRI paradigm with faces, shapes, numbers, and words. Whole brain BOLD imaging was conducted on a 3-Tesla Siemens MAGNETOM Trio scanner with a 12-channel head coil at the Rochester Center for Brain Imaging. High-resolution structural T1 contrast images were acquired using a magnetization prepared rapid gradient echo (MP-RAGE) pulse sequence at the start of each session (TR = 2,530 ms, TE = 3. 44 ms flip angle = 7 degrees, FOV = 256 mm, matrix = 256×256,160 or 176 [depending on head size] 1×1×1 mm sagittal left-to-right slices). An echo-planar imaging pulse sequence with online motion correction was used for T2* contrast (TR = 2000 ms, TE = 30 ms, flip angle = 90 degrees, FOV = 256 mm, matrix 64×64,30 sagittal left-to-right slices, voxel size = 4×4×4 mm). The first six TRs of each run were discarded to allow for signal equilibration. The “movie” run of the natural viewing paradigm was one functional run of 610 volumes. The traditional fMRI paradigm was distributed over two to four functional runs of 132 volumes each. Total scanning time was approximately 40 min. fMRI data were analyzed with the BrainVoyager 2. 1 software package and in-house scripts drawing on the BVQX toolbox in MATLAB. Preprocessing of the functional data included, in the following order, slice scan time correction (sinc interpolation), motion correction with respect to the first (remaining) volume in the run, and linear trend removal in the temporal domain (cutoff: two cycles within the run). Functional data were then registered (after contrast inversion of the first remaining volume) to high-resolution de-skulled anatomy on a participant-by-participant basis in native space. For each individual participant, echo-planar and anatomical volumes were transformed into standardized space [30]. Data from adults and children were normalized into the same Talairach space. The functional data from the traditional fMRI paradigm were not smoothed. A Gaussian spatial filter with an 8 mm full-width at half-maximum was applied to each volume for the natural viewing paradigm. We spatially smoothed the natural fMRI data because of the precedent set by Hasson and colleagues [2] for inter-subject correlations; we used the more conservative smoothing kernel (8 mm) of the two kernels tested in that prior study (8 mm and 12 mm). Functional data from the traditional fMRI paradigm were analyzed using the general linear model (random effects analysis). Experimental events (duration = 10 s) in the traditional fMRI paradigm were convolved with a standard dual gamma hemodynamic response function. There were four regressors of interest (corresponding to the four stimulus types), one regressor for the button press, and six regressors of no interest, corresponding to the motion parameters obtained during preprocessing. For the natural viewing fMRI paradigm, the data were pre-processed as described above for the traditional paradigm, and the resulting timecourses formed the basis for the intersubject correlation analyses. FD [31] was regressed out of each subject' s timecourse to control for frame-to-frame head motion. FD is calculated by summing the absolute values of the derivatives from the six motion estimates of translation and rotation. Rotational displacements are converted to millimeters by projecting radians onto a sphere with a 50 mm radius (following Power et al. [31]). Subsequent analyses were performed on the residual timecourses after FD was regressed out. An additional control for signal intensity changes (DVARS following Power et al. [31]) is presented in Figure S2. That method removes volumes (1 back and 2 forward) surrounding timepoints where signal intensity changes by 0. 5% or greater. We implemented a developmental intersubject correlation method by correlating the timecourse of each voxel in the brain (for the whole 20-min video) for each child with the corresponding voxel in each adult (paired r-maps). In these children-to-adults correlations, we correlated each subject with every other subject (rather than correlating each child' s data with an adult average) in order to be able to carry out parallel analyses for adults-to-adults and children-to-children without including the subjects' own data in the average. Additionally, this approach of correlating each subject with every other subject preserves the variability from individual subjects. After obtaining paired r-maps for each child paired with each adult, we then calculated a mean image across the paired r-maps (a mean r-map) for each child. Each mean r-map represented that child' s average similarity to adults. Each child thus had one r-map representing their mean similarity in neural activity to a group of adults at every voxel in the brain. These maps provide an index of how “adult-like” or, mature, each child' s neural responses are across the brain, and are referred to as “neural maturity maps. ” We performed group-level statistics (one sample t-test on Fisher-transformed r values) over the children' s “neural maturity maps” to plot the average group-level similarity of children' s natural viewing BOLD timecourses to those of adults (whole brain). That analysis is shown in Figure 1. The same intersubject correlation method was used within-groups for the children-to-children and adults-to-adults correlation maps shown in the right two panels of Figure 1. A whole brain analysis was conducted to measure the correlation between the children' s chronological ages and their neural maturity maps (i. e., one correlation per voxel, between the vector of children' s ages and their neural maturity values). Similarly, whole brain partial correlations between behavioral tests (TEMA, KBIT) and neural maturity were conducted over the children' s neural maturity maps. The whole-brain partial correlations were conducted by regressing one test score out of the other and then correlating the residuals with neural maturity for each voxel, across the subject group. In addition, we also conducted ROI analyses. The regions tested in all ROI analyses were defined with independent data from their statistical tests. Note that some additional ROI data are shown from whole-brain analysis to illustrate individual subject scores. Percent signal change was calculated to illustrate the timecourses from the natural viewing paradigm. Percent signal change was calculated for each subject on the raw timecourse data by dividing each timepoint' s intensity value by the mean intensity of the whole timecourse, then multiplying by 100 and subtracting 100. Statistical tests over response amplitudes from ROIs were conducted on the residual timecourses after the FD regression.

Title: Neural Activity during Natural Viewing of Sesame Street Statistically Predicts Test Scores in Early Childhood Summary: In the real world, children learn new information by participating in classrooms, interacting with their family and friends, and watching educational videos. While previous neuroimaging research has typically used simple tasks and short-lasting stimuli, in this study we examined brain development using a more complex and naturalistic educational stimulus. Children and adults all watched the same Sesame Street video as we measured their neural activity using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). We examined the timecourses of neural activity over the length of the video for children and adults. We found that the degree to which children showed adult-like brain responses was correlated with their math and verbal knowledge levels. In the intraparietal sulcus, children' s neural correlation with adults depended on their mathematics knowledge whereas in Broca' s area, it depended on their verbal knowledge. Additional experiments showed that children' s neural responses in the intraparietal sulcus are selectively driven by numerical content both when children are watching Sesame Street and when they engage in a number matching task. These convergent results highlight the broad role of the intraparietal sulcus in processing numerical information. In addition, our study validates the use of naturalistic stimuli and child-to-adult neural timecourse correlations for studying brain development. We suggest that this new approach can enrich our understanding of how children' s brains process information in the real world.

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Summarize: For our K9 trainers, it’s imperative that the dogs enjoy the job they’re doing. Sometimes, even when a pup tests well and they successfully learn how to detect explosive odors, they make it clear that being an explosive detection K9 is not the life for them. Such is the case for one of the fall 2017 “puppy class” pups. We are sad to announce that Lulu has been dropped from the program. A few weeks into training, Lulu began to show signs that she wasn’t interested in detecting explosive odors. All dogs, just like most human students, have good days and bad days when learning something new. The same is true during our puppy classes. A pup might begin acting lazy, guessing where the odors are, or just showing a general disregard for whatever is being taught at the moment. Usually it lasts for a day, maybe two. There can be a million reasons why a particular dog has a bad day, and the trainers become doggy psychologists trying to figure out what will help the dog come out of its funk. Sometimes the pup is bored and just needs extra playtime or more challenges, sometimes the dog need a little break, and sometimes it’s a minor medical condition like a food allergy requiring switching to a different kibble. After a few days, the trainers work the pup through whatever issue has arisen, and the dog is back eagerly and happily ready to continue training. Lulu enjoying retirement with her best buddy, Harry. But for some dogs, like Lulu, it becomes clear that the issue isn’t temporary. Instead, this just isn’t the job they are meant for. Lulu was no longer interested in searching for explosives. Even when they could motivate her with food and play to search, she was clearly not enjoying herself any longer. Our trainers’ top concern is the physical and mental well-being of our dogs, so they made the extremely difficult decision to do what’s best for Lulu and drop her from the program. When a dog is dropped or retires from our program, the handler or handler’s family is given the chance to adopt them. Most handlers, of course, choose to do so. The dogs are their partners and have become members of their family, even after just a few weeks of training together. Lulu was a adopted by her loving handler, who had the chance to work with her during imprint training. She now enjoys her days playing with his kids, sniffing out rabbits and squirrels in the backyard, and eating meals and snacks out of a dog dish. We’ll miss Lulu, but this was the right decision for her. We wish her all the best in her new life. Lulu was adopted by her handler, but he still needs an explosive detection K9 partner at work. Check back tomorrow to meet the newest addition to the fall 2017 puppy class. If you miss any of the articles in this series, visit “Follow CIA’s New Puppy Class!” main page, where we are chronicling the puppies’ progresses throughout their training. Lulu the black Labrador wasn’t cut out for a career as a bomb sniffer dog. The CIA announced on Wednesday that it had made the tough decision to drop the 18-month-old dog from its K9 training program after she lost interest in learning how to detect explosives. “All dogs, just like most human students, have good days and bad days when learning something new,” the CIA wrote on its website. “But for some dogs, like Lulu, it becomes clear that the issue isn’t temporary. Instead, this just isn’t the job they are meant for.” #CIAK9 Pupdate: Sometimes, even after testing, our pups make it clear being an explosive detection K9 isn’t for themhttps://t.co/nPZl6YWNKb pic.twitter.com/07TXRCH7bp — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 We’re sad to announce that a few weeks into training, Lulu began to show signs that she wasn’t interested in detecting explosive odors. pic.twitter.com/c6lxHPfC09 — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 All dogs, like humans, have good & bad days when learning something new. Same for our pups, though it usually lasts just a day or two. pic.twitter.com/z9lQa2uKX4 — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 Lulu, who was being trained for the Fairfax County Police Department in Virginia, was adopted by her handler, the CIA reported. She’s now adjusting to a regular pet’s life by spending her days “playing with his kids, sniffing out rabbits and squirrels in the backyard and eating meals and snacks out of a dog dish.” Lulu wasn’t interested in searching for explosives. Even when motivated w food & play, she was clearly no longer enjoying herself. pic.twitter.com/puvhDk1tRX — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 Our trainers’ top concern is physical & mental well-being of K9s. They made difficult decision & did what’s best for Lulu: stop her training pic.twitter.com/Ss9y9LpE9q — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 Although the CIA said it would miss Lulu, removing her from the program “was the right decision for her.” Lulu was adopted by her handler & now enjoys her days playing w his kids & a new friend, & sniffing out rabbits & squirrels in the backyard. pic.twitter.com/WOImM75P1D — CIA (@CIA) October 18, 2017 Lulu’s happy ending received a positive reception on Twitter: What a great thread. Dogs are like people...even if someone is able to do a job, doesn’t mean they like it or are cut out for it. Thank you, CIA, for having Lulu’s best interests at heart. She looks like a darling girl. — Melissa Jo Peltier (@MelissaJPeltier) October 18, 2017 this thread is the best thing I've seen on Twitter in forever. Thank you. — Eric Wieberg (@ewieberg) October 18, 2017 Aw, thanks CIA for giving her a happy ending 😍! pic.twitter.com/zZJNnQDHrV — ✨❤️QT💋✨ (@1gr8qt) October 19, 2017 Congrats, Lulu! Enjoy retirement! — Jamie McCarty (@JamieMcCarty) October 18, 2017 WARCZone is a collection of outsider-uploaded WARCs, which are contributed to the Internet Archive but may or may not be ingested into the Wayback Machine. They are being kept in this location for reference and clarity for the Wayback Team, while also being accessible to the general public who are seeking any particular items they can regarding certain websites. In a troubling series of tweets with more emotional intensity than an entire season of Homeland, the CIA’s official Twitter account told the story of Lulu, an adorable bomb-sniffing dog who refused to sniff bombs. Lulu, the agency wrote early in the thread, “began to show signs that she wasn’t interested in detecting explosive odors.” The CIA tried to motivate her with food and playtime but Lulu, presumably a longtime defender of human rights abroad, was skeptical about working for an agency with a long history of election intrusion, warrantless surveillance and assassinations. Like all of us, she wanted treats, but at what cost? Advertisement The thread began taking an ominous turn when the CIA posted the tweet below showing Lulu seated on a pale teal floor, her eyes full and downcast. She seemed sad. Behind her, a man, seemingly her trainer, stood wide-legged. There was little information to be gleamed from her melancholic glance, but we’ve all seen depressing, dog-centric classics like Old Yeller, Sounder, and John Wick: Chapter One. It didn’t look good. Advertisement Luckily, Lulu’s story is a happy one. The CIA chose to drop her from the training program, but she was adopted by her handler and now lives at home with his family. Freed from the intractable ethical dilemma of wanting to succeed in her field, but not wanting to sacrifice her principles, Lulu found peace. In an accompanying blog post, the CIA detailed Lulu’s happy life: “Lulu was a adopted by her loving handler, who had the chance to work with her during imprint training. She now enjoys her days playing with his kids, sniffing out rabbits and squirrels in the backyard, and eating meals and snacks out of a dog dish.” Advertisement This will be the only news story of the year to have a happy ending. Heide Meet CIA’s newest K9 recruits and follow along as they learn to become CIA explosive detection canines (aka: “bomb dogs” as many people call them). We’ll take you behind the scenes of our nationally-recognized dog training program, starting with picking out the new pups, then watching as they progress through their 6-weeks of imprint training, getting paired with their human partners, another 10-weeks of advanced training, national certification tests and, if all goes successfully, graduation day in November. Most people have no idea that the CIA has its own K9 Corps; however, our K9 officers serve as the first line of defense against explosive threats to Agency personnel and buildings at Headquarters and abroad. Additionally, they are on-call 24/7 to assist local law enforcement and other federal government agencies search for explosives. Pending graduation, these new puppies will join CIA’s K9 Corp and play a large part in keeping everyone at the CIA safe. Throughout their training, we’ll post periodic updates here, as well as on our official Twitter and Facebook pages. If you miss an update, you can always return to this page and catch up on the puppies’ progress. #CIAK9 * * * * * CIA’s K9 trainers met a lot of really great dogs who would have likely succeeded in our explosive detection program. It was a difficult decision, but there was only room for six. Meet the CIA’s first all-female Puppy Class! * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * This feisty 2-year-old black lab is Indigo. She’s surprisingly strong for her small size and has pulled more than one of the trainers off their feet. Full of energy, Indigo likes to work and loves to eat even more. Indigo is from Susquehanna Service Dogs. Suni is a 2-year-old black lab who is littermates with Heide from Susquehanna Service Dogs’ “astronaut litter.” All the puppies in the litter were named after famous astronauts. Suni is named after NASA astronaut Sunita “Suni” Williams, who holds the record for cumulative spacewalk time by a female astronaut. Suni is a happy, bubbly, light on her feet pup who is a little too smart for her own good. A problem-solver, Suni is poised to try to outwit the trainers at every turn. Heide, a sweet 2-year-old yellow lab, is littermates with Suni from Susquehanna Service Dogs’ “astronaut litter.” All the puppies in the litter were named after famous astronauts. Heide is named after NASA astronaut Heidemarie M. Stefanyshyn-Piper, a veteran of two space flights. Heide loves to jump up on cars, tables, and anything else taller than herself. Playful and silly, she’s calmer than many of the other labs, and when she sees something unfamiliar to her, she’s prone to give a little bark. Heide is being trained for Frederick County Fire Marshal in Virginia. Freya, the oldest in the class, is a yellow lab from Susquehanna Service Dogs. She's a little over 2 years old. Freya is related to another dog in the CIA K9 unit named Nancy. Freya has an incredible drive and energy, and she stole the hearts of everyone at Susquehanna. Her puppy raiser was actually in law enforcement, so she’s had some familiarity with the life of a police K9. Lulu, the smallest dog in the class, is a 1½-year-old female black lab from Susquehanna Service Dogs. She’s hyper and silly when she plays, but has an easygoing sweetness and is extremely sensitive to her surroundings and what is being asked of her. Lulu is being trained for Fairfax County Police Department in Virginia. Nicole is a 2 year old, reddish-gold colored female yellow lab from Puppies Behind Bars. She was raised in a women’s prison in New Jersey. A very friendly, happy dog, Nicole is attentive to what is asked of her, often cocking her head to the side whenever she’s focused on something or someone. She’s a little more sensitive and tentative than the other labs, but like Heide, Nicole loves to show off her athletic ability by jumping into the air on all fours. Focused and independent, Nicole has a ton of personality and charm. PUPDATE- Meet Harry! Meet's CIA's newest member of the fall 2017 "puppy class!" Heron (aka "Harry") is a male black lab from Susquehanna Service Dogs. He’s a goofy, high energy fella who loves to jump and play. At just over a year old, Harry’s the youngest pup in the class. He may have joined the class late, but he has an incredible drive to learn and is super smart. We're excited to welcome Harry to the class! What’s next for the pups? Before classes can start, the puppies need to visit the veterinarian for a full health exam and any remaining vaccinations. If you miss any of the articles in this series, visit “Follow CIA’s New Puppy Class!” main page, where we are chronicling the puppies’ progresses throughout their training.

Summary: Government agencies routinely make hiring and firing announcements, but a recent one from the CIA caught Gizmodo's eye. A Twitter thread revealed the agency has laid off Lulu, a recruit in its K9 training program tasked with detecting explosives. Lulu, described in her CIA profile as being a "hyper and silly" black Lab with an "easygoing sweetness," started "to show signs that she wasn't interested in detecting explosive odors" not long after she started training. The agency explains that dogs in this program often have an off day (or two), but that trainers can often figure out what's wrong-maybe the pup just needs extra playtime or rest, or there's a minor medical issue-and help the dog bounce back. But for Lulu, it wasn't temporary. "Even when motivated w food & play, she was clearly no longer enjoying herself," the agency tweeted, noting they stopped Lulu's training for her physical and mental health. But if Lulu was suffering from existential ennui on the job, she's apparently not now. A post on the CIA site explains that when a canine leaves the K9 training program, the dog's handler can choose to adopt the pup. And that's exactly what happened in the case of Lulu, who now appears to be living her best life frolicking with her handler's children, "sniffing out rabbits and squirrels in the backyard," and whiling away the hours with "Harry," who appears to be another black Lab. HuffPost notes the happiness that Lulu's reboot is bringing to people online, with one commenter noting: "This thread is the best thing I've seen on Twitter in forever." Interested in the CIA's other dog trainees? The agency has an entire section on this year's recruits (the agency's first all-female class), which features their bios and details how they're selected for the coveted K9 jobs.

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Summarize: Get all of Grant Wahl’s columns as soon as they’re published. Download the new Sports Illustrated app (iOS or Android) and personalize your experience by following your favorite teams and SI writers. In the latest labor salvo between the World Cup-winning U.S. women’s national team players and the U.S. Soccer Federation, the five most prominent members of the USWNT have filed an action with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (a government agency) accusing U.S. Soccer of wage discrimination in relation to the money the federation pays to the U.S. men’s national team. In a press release announced Thursday morning, lawyers for the five U.S. players—Carli Lloyd, Alex Morgan, Hope Solo, Megan Rapinoe and Becky Sauerbrunn—argue that the USWNT is paid almost four times less than the USMNT, despite producing nearly $20 million in revenues for U.S. Soccer in 2015 (per U.S. Soccer’s recently released annual financial report). The U.S. Soccer pay figures for the men and women (numbers from documents obtained by SI.com are presented in the table below) were agreed to by the players as part of separate collective bargaining agreements, but the U.S. women’s team argues that its CBA has expired. USWNT, USMNT pay gap Payment situation USWNT (2013-present) USMNT (2015-18) Friendlies (per player, vs. teams not in FIFA's top 25, excluding Mexico) $1,350 for a win $9,375 for a win; $6,250 for a tie; $5,000 for a loss Friendlies (per player, vs. teams ranked 11-25, excluding Mexico) $1,350 for a win $12,500 for a win; $6,250 for a tie; $5,000 for a loss Friendlies (per player, vs. teams ranked 1-10 and Mexico) $1,350 for a win $17,625 for a win; $8,125 for a tie; $5,000 for a loss World Cup roster bonus $15,000 per player WCQ match bonus; $15,000 per player WC roster bonus $68,750 per player World Cup qualifiers N/A $12,500 per player per win; $6,000 per player per draw; $4,000 per player per loss World Cup qualification N/A $2,500,000 split among team player pool World Cup per game payment N/A $6,875 per player, regardless of result World Cup first round points bonus N/A $218,750 to team player pool per point earned World Cup second round advancement bonus N/A $4,500,000 split among team player pool World Cup fourth place bonus $10,000/player N/A World Cup third place bonus $20,000/player $1,250,000 to team player pool World Cup second place bonus $32,500/player $6,250,000 to team player pool World Cup champion bonus $75,000/player $9,375,000 to team player pool Player in World Cup training camp, not game roster N/A $2,500 Per Diem $50/domestic venue; $60/international $62.50 domestic; $75 international Sponsor appearance fee $3,000/appearance $3,750/appearance Attendance ticket revenue bonus $1.20/ticket $1.50/ticket Post-World Cup victory tour (number of games dependent on WC outcome; tour dependent on WC finish) $1.8M for team player pool for finishing first in World Cup; $6,750 per player for finishing second; $6,250 per player for finishing third N/A U.S. Soccer, for its part, has maintained that the CBA with the U.S. women’s players is still in effect through the end of 2016 due to a memorandum of understanding signed by the two sides in 2013. In an effort to get a court to decide if the CBA is still in place, U.S. Soccer filed its own separate action in February in Chicago. Discovery for that case was set to be completed on Thursday, with oral arguments on the motions set to take place before the Chicago court on May 25. The USWNT players are being represented by Jeffrey Kessler, one of the nation’s most prominent sports lawyers, who represented Tom Brady in his recent case against the NFL. Kessler told SI.com that the new players action had nothing to do with the Chicago case filed by U.S. Soccer. “The reason the players have filed is because the USSF has made it clear that they will not consider equal pay [with the U.S. men] in the negotiations for a new agreement,” said Kessler. “So whether or not there’s an existing agreement, they won’t ever agree to make a change to give us the right salary. And the players have been very patient and have concluded now they have to bring a case.” Five players signed the complaint, but the decision to file was whole-heartedly supported by the entire team. #equalplayequalpay #thegals — Becky Sauerbrunn (@beckysauerbrunn) March 31, 2016 U.S. Soccer responded Thursday morning with the following statement: "We understand the Women’s National Team Players Association is filing a charge with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission against U.S. Soccer. While we have not seen this complaint and can’t comment on the specifics of it, we are disappointed about this action. We have been a world leader in women’s soccer and are proud of the commitment we have made to building the women’s game in the United States over the past 30 years." The federation then added the following: U.S. Soccer releases the following statement regarding today’s events #USWNT pic.twitter.com/uIwigvVKs9 — Planet Fútbol (@si_soccer) March 31, 2016 One topic at issue is whether the U.S. women could initiate a work stoppage before the Olympics in August, which would give them much more leverage in negotiations for a new CBA. “I’m not going to make any comment about those issues right now,” Kessler said. In the press release, Kessler notes that the U.S. women’s players want “equal pay for equal work,” while Morgan adds that the team wants treatment equal to the U.S. men on playing surfaces and travel accommodations. The U.S. players say their goal is for the EEOC to conduct an independent investigation, issue its findings and seek relief on behalf of the players on the U.S. team. “These athletes have probably the strongest case for pay discrimination against women that I have ever seen,” Kessler argued. “Because you have a situation where not only are their work requirements identical to the men’s requirements—the same number of minimum friendlies they have to play, the same requirements to prepare for their World Cups—but they have outperformed the men both economically and on the playing field in every possible way the last two years. So this isn’t a case where someone can come in and say the reason the men are paid more is because they are more economically successful or the men outperform the women or they’re not comparable in the same way.” The U.S. women’s team is currently in camp ahead of friendlies on April 6 and 10 against Colombia. The Olympic women’s soccer tournament is set to begin on August 3. U.S. women's team files wage-discrimination action vs. U.S. Soccer Ronald Martinez/Getty Images Kate Fagan details the wage-discrimination action filed against the U.S. Soccer Federation by five members of the U.S. women's national team seeking fair compensation. NEXT VIDEO Five members of the U.S. women's national soccer team -- including stars Hope Solo, Carli Lloyd and Alex Morgan -- have filed a wage-discrimination action against the U.S. Soccer Federation with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. The filing, citing figures from the USSF's 2015 financial report, says that despite the women's team generating nearly $20 million more revenue last year than the U.S. men's team, the women are paid about a quarter of what the men earn. "Recently, it has become clear that the Federation has no intention of providing us equal pay for equal work," Megan Rapinoe said in a news release, after also attaching her name to the filing along with Becky Sauerbrunn. The EEOC will conduct an investigation and determine if its findings warrant compensation to the U.S. women's team. The action was filed by the law firm of Winston & Strawn and its co-chairman Jeffrey Kessler, who has represented numerous players' unions and athletes -- including Tom Brady and Ray Rice -- in disputes with professional leagues and organizations. "In early January, the Women's National Team Players Association submitted a reasonable proposal for a new CBA that had equal pay for equal work as its guiding principle," Kessler said in the statement. "U.S. Soccer responded by suing the players in an effort to keep in place the discriminatory and unfair treatment they have endured for years." Ronald Martinez/Getty Images Carli Lloyd and Hope Solo are among the U.S. women's team players filing a wage-discrimination action against the USSF, saying the women are paid almost four times less than the men's team, despite generating nearly $20 million more in revenue. The union representing the players is currently involved in a legal dispute with U.S. Soccer over the terms of their collective bargaining agreement. The federation filed a lawsuit this year seeking to clarify that its contract with the U.S. Women's National Soccer Team Players Association runs through the Rio Olympics until Dec. 31. The union maintains the memorandum of understanding agreed to in March 2013 can be terminated at any time. U.S. Soccer, after issuing a statement saying it was "disappointed" that the action was taken, issued a second statement Thursday afternoon, saying it is "committed to and engaged" in negotiating a new CBA "that addresses compensation with the U.S. women's national team when the current CBA expires at the end of this year." USSF President Sunil Gulati said Thursday night that many factors are considered when it comes to player compensation, including the revenue the teams generate. "We think very highly of the women's national team and we want to compensate them fairly, and we'll sit down and work thru that with them when all of this settles down,'' Gulati said. Kessler claimed that the state of the negotiations over the CBA created the need for the women to act in hopes of ending what they say is the "discriminatory and unfair treatment" they have endured for years. Solo, appearing with Lloyd on NBC's "Today" on Thursday, said "not much has changed" during her time on the team. "I've been on this team for a decade and a half, and I've been through numerous CBA negotiations, and honestly, not much has changed," Solo said. "We continue to be told we should be grateful just to have the opportunity to play professional soccer, to get paid for doing it. "In this day and age, it's about equality. It's about equal rights. It's about equal pay. We're pushing for that. We believe now the time is right because we believe it's our responsibility for women's sports and specifically for women's soccer to do whatever it takes to push for equal pay and equal rights. And to be treated with respect." U.S. Soccer, citing its investment in the National Women's Soccer League, said it remains committed to the women's game. "Our efforts to be advocates for women's soccer are unwavering," the statement said. "For 30 years, we have been a world leader in promoting the women's game and are proud of the long-standing commitment we have made to building women's soccer in the United States and furthering opportunities in soccer for young women and girls around the world." Fearing that the women's team would strike ahead of this year's Olympics, U.S. Soccer said last month it "reluctantly" filed suit in a Chicago federal court to "confirm the existence" of a collective bargaining agreement with the union representing the U.S. women's team. "I think the timing is right," Lloyd told NBC's "Today" on Thursday. "I think we've proven our worth over the years. Just coming off a World Cup win, the pay disparity between the men and women is just too large. We want to continue to fight. The generation of players before us fought. And now it's our job to keep on fighting." Tim Howard, the men's national team goalie, told SportsCenter on Thursday that the men's team supports the women's team fight. "We support the fact that the women should fight for their rights and fight for what they think is just compensation. We, on the men's side, have been fighting that battle for a long, long time," Howard said. "We certainly know what it feels like. We felt underpaid for a long time. We had to negotiate our way to a settlement." Landon Donovan chimed in on Twitter. #USWNT absolutely deserve to be treated fairly in all ways. Important to remember that these issues are/can be collectively bargained — Landon Donovan (@landondonovan) March 31, 2016 And even presidential candidate Hillary Clinton took to social media to back the women's players. Wouldn't want to face these women on the field or in the courtroom. Every woman deserves equal pay. https://t.co/RBuAFtgpDS — Hillary Clinton (@HillaryClinton) March 31, 2016 Among the numbers cited in the EEOC filing: The women would earn $99,000 each if they won 20 friendlies, the minimum number they are required to play in a year. But the men would likely earn $263,320 each for the same feat, and would get $100,000 even if they lost all 20 games. Additionally, the women get paid nothing for playing more than 20 games, while the men get between $5,000 and $17,625 for each game played beyond 20. "Every single day, we sacrifice just as much as the men. We work just as much," Morgan told "Today." "We endure just as much physically and emotionally. Our fans really do appreciate us every day for that. We saw that with the high of last summer. We're really asking, and demanding now, that our federation, and our employer really, step up and appreciate us as well." The pay for playing in the World Cup is also greatly disparate, according to the figures. The U.S. women received a team total of $2 million when it won the World Cup last year in Canada. Yet when the U.S. men played in the World Cup in Brazil in 2014, the team earned a total of $9 million despite going just 1-2-1 and being knocked out in the round of 16. "We are the best in the world, have three World Cup championships, four Olympic championships, and the [men] get paid more to just show up than we get paid to win major championships," Solo said. In a conference call with reporters, Kessler said, "The reality is that this team is more valuable to the USSF than the men's team has been. That's what the facts show. And they would be justified in asking for more than the men are receiving. But the first step that they are seeking is equal treatment. That should be an easy step for the USSF to take." Many players on the national team have become increasingly vocal about gender equity in the sport, something that came to light in advance of last year's World Cup in Canada. A group of players led by Abby Wambach filed a complaint in Canada about the artificial turf playing surface, noting the men's World Cup is played on natural grass. After the women won the World Cup with a 5-2 victory over Japan in the final, the turf issue arose again during a victory tour when a game in Hawaii was canceled because the artificial turf was deemed unsafe. "We want to play in top-notch, grass-only facilities like the U.S. men's national team," Morgan said. "We want to have equitable and comfortable travel accommodations, and we simply want equal treatment." The team, which has qualified for this summer's Olympics in Brazil, is currently in Florida training for a pair of exhibition games against Colombia. The Associated Press contributed to this report. Get the latest from TODAY Sign up for our newsletter Tired of getting paid less than the men's team despite a much higher level of performance, five star soccer players from the U.S. Women's National Team are taking a stand off the field. Attorneys for top players Carli Lloyd, Megan Rapinoe, Rebecca Sauerbrunn, Hope Solo and Alex Morgan have filed a complaint with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission claiming the women's team should be paid an equal amount as the U.S. Men's National Team. "I think the timing is right,'' Lloyd told Matt Lauer in an exclusive TODAY interview Thursday. "I think that we've proven our worth over the years. Just coming off of a World Cup win, the pay disparity between the men and women is just too large. And we want to continue to fight." When the USWNT won international soccer's most prestigious event, the World Cup, in 2015, the team earned $2 million in prize money that was given to the national federation to be distributed to the players and the organization. Meanwhile, the men's team, which lost in the World Cup's Round of 16, earned $9 million. The men's team that won the tournament, Germany, earned $35 million. The team celebrates their victory over Team China in the 1999 World Cup. Harry How / Getty Images file "I've been through numerous CBA negotiations, and honestly not much has changed,'' Solo said. "We believe now the time is right because we believe it's a responsibility for women's sports, specifically women's soccer, to really do whatever it takes for equal pay and equal rights and to be treated with respect." The women also shattered ratings records for soccer games in America with a record 26.7 million tuning in to watch them beat Japan in the World Cup final. The women have won three straight Olympic gold medals as well as three World Cup titles overall, while the men have never won either. Shannon Boxx celebrates with her teammates after defeating Brazil in a penalty shootout during a match in 2011's World Cup in Dresden. THOMAS PETER / Reuters file "While we've not seen this complaint and can't comment on the specifics of it, we're disappointed about this action,'' the U.S. Soccer Federation said in a statement to TODAY. "We've been a world leader in women's soccer and are proud of the commitment we've made to building the women's game in the United States over the past 30 years." "These women are very disappointed in U.S. soccer,'' their attorney, Jeffrey Kessler, told Lauer. "When they asked for the same treatment as the men, they were told it was irrational. Now that might be a good answer in 1816. It's not acceptable answer in 2016." The complaint is the latest escalation between the players and the governing body, as the United States Soccer Federation and the union representing the USWNT are suing each other over the validity of a collective bargaining agreement signed in March 2013. At the heart of the matter is whether the players on the USWNT have the ability to go on strike before or during the upcoming Olympics in Rio de Janeiro in order to have their demands for equality with the men met. Follow TODAY.com writer Scott Stump on Twitter.

Summary: Five players acting on behalf of the US women's national soccer team have filed a complaint against the US Soccer Federation, alleging they're paid 40% of what their male counterparts earn, despite winning three World Cups and four Olympic gold medals. In a federal complaint filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, Carli Lloyd, Becky Sauerbrunn, Alex Morgan, Megan Rapinoe, and Hope Solo-whom the New York Times says are among "the most prominent and decorated female athletes in the world"-argue female players earn less, as well as receive less in bonuses and appearance fees. For winning the 2015 World Cup, for example, the women's team was awarded $2 million. The men's team, which lost in the Round of 16, received $9 million, reports Today. Female players receive up to $72,000 per year, plus a $1,350 bonus for each win. Members of the men's team receive $5,000 for a loss in a friendly match and up to $17,625 for a win over a top-ranked team. Those payments were agreed to in separate collective bargaining agreements, but the women's CBA expired in 2012. Discussions on a new CBA are ongoing, and "the USSF has made it clear that they will not consider equal pay [with the men] in the negotiations," though the women "have outperformed the men both economically and on the playing field in every possible way the last two years," the team's lawyer tells Sports Illustrated. "We continue to be told we should be grateful just to have the opportunity to play professional soccer, to get paid for doing it," Solo adds, per ESPN. The USSF says it is "disappointed about this action."

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Summarize: FIELD [0001] The present invention pertains to fitness equipment, specifically to door or door jamb mounted exercise devices (USPTO class 482, subclass 40). BACKGROUND [0002] Pull-ups are a common exercise performed by people for training arm, shoulder, and back muscles. They involve gripping a constrained object with the individual&#39;s arms, suspending all or part of the individual&#39;s body weight on the arms, and lifting the individual&#39;s body upwards utilizing muscular effort. Despite requiring a certain minimum level of fitness in order to execute pull-ups, they offer many advantages in comparison to other popular types of arm exercises such as push-ups, arm curls, and bench presses. Compared with push-ups, pull-ups exercise more stabilizing muscle groups, they utilize the full body weight of the individual, and they place him or her in a vertical orientation, which may be found more natural and comfortable than the face down horizontal position required for push-ups. Compared with arm curls and bench presses, pull-ups utilize the individual&#39;s body weight as load, so the equipment required can be made significantly less heavy and more portable. In certain places, they require no extra equipment at all. Outdoors, pull-ups can be executed using elements of the natural environment, such as tree branches, or of the built environment, such as playground equipment. Indoors, however, few locations tend to have features which are suitable to being gripped by one&#39;s arms and having the individual&#39;s full or partial weight subjected upon them. [0003] A significant number of devices have been invented in an attempt to rectify the relative lack of indoor features suitable for performing pull-ups in typical home or office environments. Many of these devices are intended to be secured to a door frame. Some, such as U.S. Pat. No. 7,066,866 B1 to Mobley, are full width horizontal pull-up bars meant to be affixed to a specific door permanently. The installation procedure involves securing the device to the target door with screws. Moving the device from one door to another may be a time consuming and relatively complex process, which the user may not wish to perform as frequently as doing pull-up exercise sessions. Having the device installed may also limit the height of the door opening, forcing taller individuals to duck under the permanent pull-up bar. [0004] Devices which may be removed easily and quickly for individual sessions of pull-up exercises avoid the shortcomings of permanent doorway mounted pull-up bars. One popular design is described in US Pat. D348706 to Harrell. It is a doorway mounted pull-up bar which may be installed onto a doorway quickly and also removed quickly. The device is substantially bulky, having a main grip bar extend horizontally beyond the edges of the door and a number of auxiliary bars attached to the main grip bar. As a result of this, the device cannot be installed onto doors wider than the fixed width of the main grip bar. Furthermore, because the main grip bar is uninterrupted across its width, in the course of a pull-up, the individual must pull back their head to avoid physical contact between the individual&#39;s face and the main grip bar. Despite these drawbacks, embodiments of this design enjoy tremendous consumer popularity. Several of such embodiments are regularly top sellers on websites such as amazon.com, and at the time of writing, one of these embodiments is the 20th highest selling fitness item on amazon.com. [0005] The bulkiness of the previous device is largely addressed by U.S. Pat. No. 7,993,245 to Dorfman, a profiled strip intended to be installed on top of a door for performing pull-ups. It possesses significant size and weight advantages over the previously discussed designs, however, due to the elongated body intended to cover the length of a door, it suffers from limited portability compared to the opposably mounted design claimed herein. It also suffers from awkward exercise posture: because the device is installed directly on the upper edge of a solid door, the user may have to keep pushing their body away from the door while performing a pull-up. The same limitation is shared by the chin-up assembly described in U.S. Pat. No. 7,601,100 to Hinds and Bonneville. [0006] U.S. Pat. No. 6,503,175 to Harrell describes a portable exercise device made up of two separated clamp members that are secured onto a support frame by a length-adjustable flexible attachment member which is interwoven between the clamp members. While the goals of this device are very similar to those of the present invention, the clamping mechanism is significantly less secure. Unlike the present invention which includes a pivotal joint, the clamping members described in U.S. Pat. No. 6,503,175 are pressed against the lip of the support frame directly by a flexible attachment member in combination with a body second edge. However, because the flexible attachment member is almost vertical at the attachment point, constrained by the geometry of the door frame, the inward horizontal component of the clamping force is a small fraction of the vertical component. Thus, only inward facing, ‘hook’ edges, or edges with a high coefficient of friction, are suitable for securing this device. The present invention incorporates a pivotal connection between the clamp members which uses the rotational torque from the supported individual&#39;s weight to push the clamping members off each other and horizontally into the support structure, allowing a secure, self-energizing connection to a wide range of support structure shapes. SUMMARY [0007] The portable opposably mounted pull up device of the present invention includes a clamping mechanism capable of attaching to a door frame of suitable width and a handle suspended underneath the clamping mechanism by one or more flexible members, such as ropes, straps, or others. The clamping mechanism is composed of two grip arms pivotally connected to each other. Each grip arm possesses a downward facing, substantially horizontal surface for resting on top of the door frame trim, a (possibly small) extension above said surface, and a means of attaching the flexible member connecting it to the handle component on the opposite side of the arm as the horizontal flat. The pivotal connection to the opposite arm component is located between the downward facing flat and the flexible member attachment means. This allows the arm components to close in on each other when weight is suspended from the handle underneath, ensuring the clamping mechanism remains securely attached to the door frame, as the extensions above each downward facing surface are pressed against the opposing sides of the wall on which the door frame is mounted. [0008] This invention allows individuals to perform pull-up exercises while allowing, in a combination not offered by any of the prior art: [0009] to install and remove the device onto any doorway frame of suitable dimensions quickly and easily, without any tools or hardware, and without altering or damaging the doorway frame; [0010] to store or carry the device, with no prior disassembly, in a small travel bag, backpack, or in the carry-on luggage on an airplane, such that the individual may perform pull-ups in any suitable indoor environment they visit—home, school, work, hotel, etc.; [0011] to enjoy the security of a self-energizing, opposable mounting system, which uses the individual&#39;s body weight to aid the stable attachment to both sides of any suitable doorway frame; [0012] to perform pull-ups without having to avoid the obstacle presented by a full-width straight horizontal bar, thanks to two individual handles, each separately mounted to the door; [0013] to allow the individual&#39;s wrists to swivel and pivot into a comfortable orientation into the course of a pull-up, thanks to the handles being suspended on flexible members; [0014] to mount the device to a door which is unusually wide, or unusually narrow. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF DRAWINGS [0015] The accompanying drawings which are incorporated in and form a part of the specification illustrate preferred embodiments of the present invention and, together with a description, serve to explain the principles of the invention. The drawings are not to be considered limiting of the scope of the invention. The drawings are not necessarily to scale and in some instances proportions may have been exaggerated in order to more clearly depict certain features. In the drawings: [0016] FIG. 1 is an isometric view showing an embodiment of the portable opposably mounted pull up device, while highlighting the main functional features of the invention. [0017] FIG. 2 is an orthographic view showing the same embodiment of the portable opposably mounted pull up device as FIG. 1. [0018] FIG. 3 is an exploded isometric view illustrating the major components of an embodiment of the portable opposably mounted pull up device and details of the pivotal connection. [0019] FIG. 4 is an isometric view illustrating the construction of a grip arm. [0020] FIG. 5A is an isometric view showing, separately from the rest of the embodiment, the handle and rope loops. [0021] FIG. 5B is an exploded isometric view illustrating the construction of the handle. [0022] FIG. 6 is a perspective view demonstrating an individual exercising using a pair of embodiments of the portable opposably mounted pull up device installed on a door frame. [0023] FIG. 7 is an isometric view from the top showing a different embodiment of the portable opposably mounted pull up device. [0024] FIG. 8 is an isometric view from the bottom showing the same embodiment as FIG. 7. [0025] FIG. 9 is an exploded isometric view of the same embodiment as FIGS. 7 and 8. [0026] FIG. 10 is an exploded isometric view of the same embodiment as FIGS. 7, 8, and 9, shown from the back relative to those figures. DESCRIPTION OF EMBODIMENTS [0027] The description that follows and the embodiments described therein are intended to clarify the nature and principles of the invention by means of examples. These examples are provided for the purposes of explanation, and not of limitation, of those principles and of the invention. In the description, similar parts are marked throughout the specification and the drawings with the same respective reference numerals. [0028] Referring to FIGS. 1 and 2, shown—from two different angles—is one possible fully assembled embodiment of the present invention, highlighting its essential constituents and the features through which it interacts with external elements. The embodiment shown consists of a right grip arm 100, an identical left grip arm 110, a pivotal connection 120 between said grip arms, handle component 130, and rope loops 140 and 150 connecting the handle component to the grip arms. The right grip arm 100 features a substantially downward facing horizontal support surface 101, a substantially inward facing vertical support surface 102 and a hook 103. Similarly, the left grip arm 110 features a downward facing horizontal support surface 111, an inward facing vertical support surface 112, and a hook 113. Pivotal connection 120 holds the grip arms together while allowing them to rotate about each other. Hooks 103 and 113 allow the suspension of handle component 130 underneath the grip arms via ropes 140 and 150. [0029] The details of assembly of the pivotal connection 120 between the two grip arms is shown in FIG. 3. The connection comprises shoulder bolt 270, identical spring washers 260 and 240, spacer shim 250, and nut 230. Nut 230, when tightened onto the thread of shoulder bolt 270, compresses spring washers 260 and 240, creating a contact force between grip arm 100 and spacer shim 250 as well as between grip arm 110 and spacer shim 250. This contact force creates friction between these components, offering resistance when arms 110 and 120 are rotated with respect to each other. The spring washers 240 and 260 may not be fully compressed during assembly since nut 230 is restricted to moving only on the threaded portion of shoulder bolt 270, and is stopped when it reaches the end of the threaded portion. This allows nut 230 to be tightened against shoulder bolt 270 with sufficient torque to prevent its loosening during operation, while simultaneously limiting the friction force between arms 100 and 110 of the assembly to a magnitude which may be easily overcome by unassisted human effort. [0030] The grip arm structure, which is shared between right grip arm 100 and left grip arm 110, is shown in detail in FIG. 4. The construction of each arm, in addition to previously mentioned interface points for interacting with a support frame and handle, is driven by a load transfer requirement, and by aesthetic appearance considerations. In view of these requirements and considerations, each grip arm comprises an insert 300, left grip arm cover 320 and right grip arm cover 330. Grip arm insert 300 is welded together from two steel components, each of which can be created by stamping, waterjetting, or laser cutting a pattern from steel plate. Left grip arm cover 320 and right grip arm cover 330 are made of plastic such as acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS) by means such as injection molding or 3D printing. The components of the assembly are joined together with adhesive such as a 2-part epoxy at all interfaces between the components. [0031] There exists a multitude of other ways of manufacturing the grip arm structure which conform with the spirit and claims of the present invention. The entire grip arm may be made from one or more pieces of suitable material, such as a metal, a plastic, a ceramic, a composite material, a nanocomposite material, or other materials. It may incorporate elements which are not shown in FIG. 4, such as rigid or flexible contact pads, which may be used at the contact interface with the support structure, or at other locations. [0032] FIG. 5A depicts the handle component 130 and rope loops 140 and 150, which together form a subassembly. FIG. 5B depicts an exploded view of the construction detail of the handle component 130 and rope loops 140 and 150. Handle component 130 has permanently affixed to itself a handle endcap 160, both made from acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS). Each of these contains a hole to allow the passage of rope loops 140 and 150, each of which is made from nylon fibers. Packaged inside a cavity of handle component 130 are crimps 440 and 450 which serve to secure together the two free ends of rope loops 140 and 150, respectively. The crimps are made from a metal such as aluminum and are secured onto the ends of each rope loop by being squeezed within an appropriate die. To allow the crimps to be hidden inside the handle component 130, this process occurs while handle main body 130 and handle endcap 160 are separately threaded onto the rope comprising the corresponding rope loop. The handle may be subsequently assembled and secured together with 2-part epoxy without having to interrupt or break either of the rope loops. [0033] Clearly, other materials and manufacturing methods are suitable for making the handle component and rope loops. The rope loops may be constructed from bundles of polymer strands, metal wire, fiberglass, naturally occurring fibers, or other fibers of any shape. They may also be rigid components possessing a pivotal or rotary connection at either end. The handle component may be made from one or more parts of materials such as metals, plastics, ceramics, composite materials, nanocomposite materials, or other materials. [0034] FIG. 6 depicts one possible usage of the present invention. It shows individual 500 exercising by suspending himself on embodiments of the present invention 510 and 520, each of which is attached to the top portion of door frame 530. Due to the pivotal connection 120 inherent in each of embodiments 510 and 520, the weight that the individual is applying to each of handle components 130 is causing the grip arms 100 and 110 of the depicted embodiments to grip securely onto door frame 530. Said pivotal connection also allows grip arms 100 and 110 to be opened and the embodiments to be removed from the top of door frame 530 quickly and easily at the end of the individual&#39;s exercise session. The installation procedure is equally straightforward: the grip arms of each embodiment may be opened by rotating around the pivot, lifted up to capture the trim of the door frame, and closed. [0035] FIGS. 7-10 depict in various ways a different embodiment of the present invention. FIGS. 7 and 8 show left grip arm 545 and right grip arm 515, made by injection molding of a fiber reinforced plastic, with their respective support surfaces 545 e and 515 e. At the location of these surfaces, the grip arms are coated with a soft elastomeric material to prevent damage to the door frame that the device is attached to. Shaft 530 acts as a pivot between grip arms 545 and 515 and has a hole to allow the passage of rope 540 which supports handle 535. Although it may not be as readily apparent as with the embodiment depicted in FIGS. 1-3, but connecting the handle directly to the pivot in such a manner also creates a self-energizing tendency, wherein the weight of the user acting downward on the handle causes the grip arms to close in around the door frame that the device is mounted on. Carabiner 525 connects together the two ends of rope 540, such that handle 535 may be removed by the user if he or she desires. Pin 550 may be inserted into one of the holes 545 a to lock the two grip arms together and prevent them from rotating with respect to each other. Decorative cover 565 hides internal mechanical details. [0036] FIGS. 9 and 10 show the internal details of construction of the same embodiment as FIGS. 7 and 8. The grip arms 515 and 545 are secured to shaft 530 by snap rings 505 and 560 in combination with washers 510 and 555. Decorative covers 500 and 565 hide the snap rings 505 and 560 from the user. Shear load acting between the grip arms is transferred to shaft 530 by the surfaces 515 b and 545 b. Spring 520 exerts a torque on grip arms 515 and 545 through slots 515 c and 545 c, tending to push surfaces 515 e and 545 e towards each other. When the embodiment is mounted on a door frame, this torque acts to keep the device closed and secured around the trim of the door frame even if there is no downward load acting on the handle 535. When the device is assembled, protrusion 545 d interfaces with recessed slot 515 d to limit the angular movement of the grip arms with respect to each other to a predetermined range. Hole array 515 a matches up with hole array 545 a at predetermined, discrete angular positions. Pin 550 may be inserted through a matching pair of holes between these two arrays to rigidly lock the two grip arms together. This allows for a completely secure grip on door frames of different thicknesses. [0037] With the detailed description above, it has been described how to build a portable exercise device which confers an array of advantages over some of the existing prior art. [0038] a) The device may be installed onto any doorway frame of suitable dimensions quickly and easily, without any tools or hardware, and without altering or damaging the doorway frame via articulation of the pivotal connection 120, and utilizing support surfaces 101, 102, 111, and 112 to make contact with the doorway frame. [0039] b) The device may be stored or carried, with no or minimal prior disassembly, in a small travel bag, backpack, or in the carry-on luggage on an airplane. The design described and shown may be made very compact in fully deployed configuration as shown in FIG. 6. During transport, it may be made smaller still by either collapsing rope loops 140 and 150 and tucking away handle component 130, or by removing these rope loops from the grip arms 100 and 110, and tucking away the handle component and rope loops altogether. [0040] c) The device forms a secure, self-energizing, opposable mounting system, via the arrangement of grip arms 100 and 110 and pivotal connection 120, in combination with rope loops 140 and 150 connected to handle 130, which uses the individual&#39;s body weight to aid the stable attachment to both sides of any suitable doorway frame by causing the support surfaces of both grip arms to increase the gripping force due to downward load applied through the handle. [0041] d) The device may have a relatively short handle component intended for gripping with one hand. The individual using the device may use a pair of them, one for each hand, as shown in FIG. 6. This allows the space between the handles to be free of obstacles, something which would not be the case with an elongated horizontal bar intended to be gripped with both hands. This allows for greater comfort when performing pull-ups since the individual does not have to crane his or her head back or forward when in the middle of the pull-up. At the same time, the spacing between the handles is easily and quickly adjustable since each is suspended individually. [0042] e) The handle component 130 is suspended on flexible rope loops 140 and 150, allowing the individual&#39;s wrists to swivel and pivot into a comfortable orientation into the course of a pull-up. [0043] f) The individual may use a pair of embodiments of the present invention to exercise on a door frame which is unusually wide or narrow, unlike with conventional removable pull up bars, such as embodiments of the design described in US Pat. D348706. [0044] It is understood that the invention may be embodied in ways different from the one described heretofore, and that other embodiments may be developed without departing from the scope of the appended claims. It is furthermore understood that terms possessing a certain degree of specificity, such as ‘doorway frame’, are used for exemplification purposes, and that they encompass concepts of a broader nature where appropriate, such as ‘supporting structure’ in this instance. CITATION LIST Provisional Patent Application [0045] U.S. Provisional Patent Application 61/981,822 filed on 2014 Apr. 20, “Portable Opposably Mounted Pull Up Device” Patent Literature [0046] U.S. Pat. No. 8,622,875 “Doorframe suspension type parallel-bar exercising apparatus” [0047] U.S. Pat. No. 7,993,245 “Exercise device for pull-ups and hanging” [0048] USD633961 “Portable pull-up exercise device” [0049] USD633156 “Combined chin up and exercise bar” [0050] U.S. Pat. No. 7,762,409 “Apparatuses for holding hangers” [0051] U.S. Pat. No. 7,601,100 “Door mounted chin-up assembly” [0052] U.S. Pat. No. 7,066,866 “Chin up bar assembly with sliding and swiveling handles” [0053] USD518534 “Pull-up exercise bar” [0054] U.S. Pat. No. 6,503,175 “Exercise device” [0055] U.S. Pat. No. 6,179,748 “Chin-up bar” [0056] U.S. Pat. No. 5,776,033 “Chin-up bar” [0057] U.S. Pat. No. 5,752,903 “Exercise bar assembly” [0058] U.S. Pat. No. 5,729,844 “Portable baby sleeping swing” [0059] USD376264 “Toddler exerciser” [0060] U.S. Pat. No. 5, 417,628 “Exercise device for chin-ups” [0061] USD348706 “Door frame mounted exercise bar” [0062] U.S. Pat. No. 6,514,182 “Doorframe mountable exercise system” [0063] USD686286 “Universal exercise bar and pull-up apparatus”

Summary: The present disclosure describes a new kind of frame-mounted exercise device intended for performing pull-ups. It consists of two pivotally connected arm components having surfaces that may be used to latch onto the upper edge of a door frame, and a handle flexibly attached to each of the arm components, such that a downward force on the handle causes the arm components to close in on each other, tightly gripping onto the support frame. The device offers greater portability and attachment security compared to other inventions of this class, and it also provides greater user comfort by allowing the handles to rotate and pivot into a natural position.

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Summarize: FIELD OF THE INVENTION [0001] The present invention relates to devices and implants used in osteosynthesis and other orthopedic surgical procedures. Specifically, the present invention contemplates a bottom loading bone anchor assembly capable of achieving multiple angular orientations with respect to an elongated member extending along bone tissue. BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION [0002] Several techniques and systems have been developed for correcting and stabilizing damage or malformation of bones, especially the long bones and the spine. In one type of system, an elongated member such as a bendable rod is disposed longitudinally along a length of the bone(s). In spinal applications, the rod is preferably bent to correspond to the normal curvature of the spine in the particular region being instrumented. For example, the rod can be bent to form a normal kyphotic curvature for the thoracic region of the spine, or a lordotic curvature for the lumbar region. In accordance with such a system, the rod is engaged to various vertebrae along a length of the spinal column by way of a number of fixation elements. A variety of fixation elements can be provided which are configured to engage specific portions of the vertebra and other bones. For instance, one such fixation element is a hook that is configured to engage the laminae of the vertebra. Another very prevalent fixation element is a screw that can be threaded into various parts of the vertebrae or other bones. [0003] In one typical spinal procedure utilizing a bendable rod, the rod is situated on opposite sides of the spine or spinous processes. A plurality of bone screws are threaded into a portion of several vertebral bodies, very frequently into the pedicles of these vertebrae. The rods are affixed to these plurality of bone screws to apply corrective and stabilizing forces to the spine. [0004] One example of a rod-type spinal fixation system is the TSRH® Spinal System sold by Medtronic Sofamor Danek, Inc. The TSRH® System includes elongated rods and a variety of hooks, screws and bolts all configured to create a segmental construct throughout the spine. In one aspect of the TSRH® System, the spinal rod is connected to the various vertebral fixation elements by way of an eyebolt. In this configuration, the fixation elements are engaged to the spinal rod laterally adjacent to the rod. In another aspect of the TSRH® System, a variable angle screw is engaged to the spinal rod by way of an eyebolt. The variable angle screw allows pivoting of the bone screw in a single plane parallel to the plane of the spinal rod. Details of this variable angle screw can be found in U.S. Pat. No. 5,261,909 to Sutterlin et al., owned by the Assignee of the present invention. One goal achieved by the TSRH® System is that the surgeon can apply vertebral fixation elements, such as a spinal hook or a bone screw, to the spine in appropriate anatomic positions. The TSRH® System also allows the surgeon to easily engage a bent spinal rod to each of the fixation elements for final tightening. [0005] Another rod-type fixation system is the Cotrel-Dubosset/CD® Spinal System sold by Medtronic Sofamor Danek, Inc. Like the TSRH® System, the CD® System provides a variety of fixation elements for engagement between an elongated rod and the spine. In one aspect of the CD® System, the fixation elements themselves include a body that defines a slot within which the spinal rod is received. The slot includes a threaded bore into which a threaded plug is engaged to clamp the rod within the body of the fixation element. The CD® System includes hooks and bone screws with this “open-back” configuration. Details of this technology can be found in U.S. Pat. No. 5,005,562 to Cotrel. One benefit of this feature of the CD® System is that the fixation element is positioned directly beneath the elongated rod. This helps reduce the overall bulkiness of the implant construct and minimizes the trauma to surrounding tissue. [0006] On the other hand, these fixation elements of the CD® System are capable only of pivoting about the spinal rod to achieve variable angular positions relative to the rod. While this limited range of relative angular positioning is acceptable for many spinal pathologies, many other cases require more creative orientation of a bone screw, for instance, relative to a spinal rod. Certain aspects of this problem are addressed by the variable angle screw of the TSRH® System, as discussed in the &#39;909 patent. However, there is a need for a bone screw that is capable of angular orientation in multiple planes relative to the spinal rod. Preferably, the bone screw is capable of various three-dimensional orientations with respect to the spinal rod. Screws of this type have been referred to as poly-axial or multi-axial bone screws. [0007] Others have approached the solution to this problem with various poly-axial screw designs. For example, in U.S. Pat. No. 5,466,237 to Byrd et al., a bone screw is described which includes a spherical projection on the top of the bone screw. An externally threaded receiver member supports the bone screw and a spinal rod on top of the spherical projection. An outer nut is tightened onto the receiver member to press the spinal rod against the spherical projection to accommodate various angular orientations of the bone screw relative to the rod. While this particular approach utilizes a minimum of components, the security of the fixation of the bone screw to the rod is lacking. In other words, the engagement or fixation between the small spherical projection on the bone screw and the spinal rod is readily disrupted when the instrumentation is subjected to the high loads of the spine, particularly in the lumbar region. [0008] In another approach shown in U.S. Pat. No. 4,946,458 to Harms et al., a spherical headed bone screw is supported within separate halves of a receiver member. The bottom of the halves are held together by a retaining ring. The top of the receiver halves are compressed about the bone screw by nuts threaded onto a threaded spinal rod. In another approach taken by Harms et al., in U.S. Pat. No., 5,207,678, a receiver member is flexibly connected about a partially spherical head of a bone screw. Conical nuts on opposite sides of the receiver member are threaded onto a threaded rod passing through the receiver. As the conical nuts are threaded toward each other, the receiver member flexibly compresses around the head of the bone screw to clamp Lithe bone screw in its variable angular position. One detriment of the systems in the two Harms et al. patents is that the spinal rod must be threaded in order to accept the compression nuts. It is known that threading rods can tend to weaken the rods in the face of severe spinal loads. Moreover, the design of the bone screws in the &#39;458 and &#39;678 patents require a multiplicity of parts and are fairly complicated to achieve complete fixation of the bone screw. [0009] A further approach illustrated in U.S. Pat. No. 5,797,911 to Sherman et al., owned by the Assignee of the present invention, is to provide a U-shaped holder through the top of which a bone fastener topped with a crown member is loaded. The holder accommodates a rod in a channel above the crown member and a compression member above the rod. The compression member presses on the rod and crown member to lock the fastener against the holder in any of a number of angles in three dimensions with respect to the rod. This approach has proven to be quite effective in addressing the above-identified problems. However, it does not permit bottom-loading of the fastener. Additionally, the holder is somewhat bulky in order to accommodate the other structural components. [0010] Yet a further approach is shown in U.S. Pat. No. 5,733,285 to Errico et al., in which a holder is provided with a tapered and colletted portion at the bottom into which a bone fastener head is inserted. A sleeve is provided that slides down around the colletted portion to crush lock the colletted portion around the head of the bone fastener. This apparatus is believed to be relatively bulky and difficult to manipulate given the external sliding locking mechanism. It is further dependent on the fit of the external sleeve and the relative strength of the collet and its bending and crushing portions for secure locking of the bone fastener head. [0011] There is therefore a need remaining in the industry for a multi-axial bone anchor that can be readily and securely engaged to an elongated member of any configuration—i.e., smooth, roughened, knurled or even threaded-which achieves improved angulation of the bone anchor, improved strength, and reduced size, including profile and bulk, of the components used to engage the bone anchor to the elongated member in any of a variety of angular orientations. SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION [0012] In one embodiment of the invention, a bone fixation assembly is provided that includes a receiver member defining an upper opening portion and a lower opening portion, a channel configured to receive an elongated member that communicates with the upper and lower-opening portions, and a groove around a portion of the lower opening portion. The assembly further includes a crown member with an upper surface and a lower surface that is movably disposed in the lower opening portion, and a bone-engaging anchor having a lower portion configured to engage a bone and a head smaller than the lower opening portion, with the head being movably disposed in the lower opening portion adjacent to the concave lower surface of the crown member. The assembly also includes a retaining member defining an aperture smaller than the head of the bone anchor that is at least partially housed in the groove of the receiver member and positioned around the bone anchor and below its head. [0013] Additional embodiments, examples, advantages, and objects of the present invention will be apparent to those of ordinary skill in this art from the following specification. BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS [0014] [0014]FIG. 1 is a side elevational view of one embodiment of the multi-axial bone screw anchor assembly of the present invention. [0015] [0015]FIG. 2 is an exploded view of the embodiment of the invention depicted in FIG. 1. [0016] [0016]FIG. 3 a is a side elevational view of an embodiment of the receiver member of the embodiment of the invention illustrated in FIG. 2. [0017] [0017]FIG. 3 b is a front elevational view of the embodiment of the receiver member illustrated in FIG. 3 a. [0018] [0018]FIG. 3 c is a sectional view, taken along the lines 3 c - 3 c in FIG. 3 a, and viewed in the direction of the arrows, of the embodiment of the receiver member illustrated in FIG. 3 a. [0019] [0019]FIG. 3 d is a sectional view, taken along the lines 3 d - 3 d of FIG. 3 b and viewed in the direction of the arrows, of the embodiment of the receiver member illustrated in FIG. 3 a. [0020] [0020]FIG. 4 a is a side elevational view of an embodiment of a bone anchor used in the embodiment of the invention illustrated in FIG. 2. [0021] [0021]FIG. 4 b is a sectional view, taken along the lines 4 b - 4 b of FIG. 4 a and viewed in the direction of the arrows, of the embodiment of the bone anchor illustrated in FIG. 4 a. [0022] [0022]FIG. 4 c is a magnified view of one embodiment of the head of the embodiment of the bone anchor illustrated in FIG. 4 a. [0023] [0023]FIG. 5 a is a top view of one embodiment of a crown member used in the embodiment of the present invention illustrated in FIG. 2. [0024] [0024]FIG. 5 b is a sectional view, taken along the lines 5 b - 5 b in FIG. 5 a and viewed in the direction of the arrows, of the embodiment of the crown member illustrated in FIG. 5 a. [0025] [0025]FIG. 5 c is a sectional view substantially similar to FIG. 5 b of another embodiment of a crown member used in the embodiment of the invention illustrated in FIG. 2. [0026] [0026]FIG. 6 a is a top view of one embodiment of a retaining member used in the embodiment of the invention illustrated in FIG. 2. [0027] [0027]FIG. 6 b is a sectional view, taken along the lines of 6 b - 6 b in FIG. 6 a and viewed in the direction of the arrows, of the embodiment of the retaining member illustrated in FIG. 6 a. [0028] [0028]FIG. 7 is an enlarged sectional view of the embodiment of the present invention illustrated in FIG. 1. DESCRIPTION OF THE PREFERRED EMBODIMENT [0029] For the purposes of promoting an understanding of the principles of the invention, reference will now be made to the embodiment illustrated in the drawings and specific language will be used to describe the same. It will nevertheless be understood that no limitation of the scope of the invention is thereby intended, such alterations and further modifications in the illustrated device, and such further applications of the principles of the invention as illustrated therein, being contemplated as would normally occur to one skilled in the art to which the invention relates. [0030] Referring generally to FIGS. 1 and 2, there is shown one embodiment of a multiaxial bone anchor assembly 20 of the present invention. In the illustrated embodiment, assembly 20 includes a receiver member 30, a bone anchor 50, a crown member 70, and a retaining member 90. The assembly 20 of the present invention is designed for use with an elongated member R (FIG. 7) such as a spinal rod, bar or other orthopedic construct, as further described below. [0031] Referring now generally to FIGS. 3 a - 3 d, one embodiment of the receiver member 30 of the present invention is shown. Receiver member 30 defines an upper opening portion 31 a and a lower opening portion 31 b, which in the illustrated embodiment form a single opening 32 extending through receiver member 30 from an upper aperture 33 in top end 34 to a lower aperture 35 in bottom end 36. Lower opening portion 31 b of opening 32, in one specific embodiment, includes a chamber 38 defined by a chamber wall 39. Alternatively, upper and lower opening portions 31 a, 31 b can have a variety of configurations, such as each having one or more sections of differing diameter. [0032] Opening 32 is partially surrounded by a chamfered or rounded edge 40 a at top end 34 of receiver member 30, and is surrounded by chamfered or rounded edge 40 b at the bottom end 36 of receiver member 30. Proximate to bottom end 36, receiver member 30 defines a groove 41 and associated ledge 41 a around opening 32. In the illustrated embodiment, groove 41 extends around the entire perimeter of opening 32, although it will be seen that groove 41 could extend only partially around the perimeter of opening 32. Groove 41 has a groove depth A (FIG. 7) and a groove diameter B (FIG. 3 a ). [0033] Receiver member 30 in the illustrated embodiment includes a pair of upright branches 42, 43 through which opening 32 extends. Branches 42, 43 further define a U-shaped channel 45 transverse to opening 32 that communicates with upper portion 31 a and lower portion 31 b of opening 32, and that accommodates an elongated member R (FIG. 7). In a specific embodiment, internal threads 44 are formed in branches 42, 43, and branches 42, 43 are provided with indentations or holes 46, which allow the surgeon to grip receiver member 30 with an appropriate tool (not shown). Internal thread 44 in a specific embodiment is a reverse angle thread, i.e. a thread in which the forward face points down and in toward receiver member 30, as disclosed in commonly-owned U.S. Patent Application Serial No. 09 / 188, 825, filed November 9, 1998, the disclosure of which is hereby incorporated by reference. Preferably, the top portion 47 of receiver member 30 (which includes branches 42, 43 ) -is narrower than bottom portion 48 of receiver member 30, thereby reducing the bulk and profile of receiver member 30. [0034] Referring now generally to FIGS. 4 a - 4 c, an embodiment of a bone anchor 50 used in the present invention is shown. The illustrated bone anchor 50 is a bone screw, which in one embodiment is substantially like the bone screw disclosed in U.S. Pat. No. 5,885,286, the disclosure of which patent is hereby incorporated by reference. Bone anchor 50 includes an anchorage portion 52 and a head portion 54. Anchorage portion 52 includes at least one thread 56, which may be a cancellous self-tapping thread. Head portion 54 forms part of a sphere in the illustrated embodiment, though alternative curvate and other configurations may be employed. Head 54 in one particular embodiment includes a series of ridges 58 for improving purchase with the inside of crown member 70 (described below). Head 54 may have alternative friction-increasing surface configuration(s) such as roughening or knurling. Further, head 54 includes a tool-engaging print 60, with which a tool (not shown) may be engaged to drive anchorage portion 52 into a bone. Tool-engaging print 60 is an interior print in the illustrated embodiment, although an exterior print could be used, and it may have any of a number of configurations, such as hexagonal, hexalobate, or other known torque-transferring configurations. [0035] Other embodiments of bone anchor 50 are contemplated as being within the scope of the present invention. For example, bone anchor 50 could be a bone-engaging hook rather than a screw. In that embodiment, anchorage portion 52 would be configured with a hook rather than an elongated section with thread 56. [0036] Head 54 of bone anchor 50 is shaped and sized to fit within at least lower portion 31 b of opening 32 and chamber 38 of receiver member 30. Specifically, head 54 has a width that is smaller than the width of lower opening portion 31 b and chamber 38. As more fully described below, bone anchor 50 is inserted into receiver member 30, with head 54 entering lower opening portion 31 b and chamber 38 through bottom end 36 of receiver member 30. [0037] Referring now to FIGS. 5 a - 5 b, there is shown one embodiment of crown member 70 of the present invention. In that embodiment, crown member 70 is in the shape of a circular disc, having an upper surface 72 with a beveled edge 74 and a lower surface 78. Lower surface 78 is configured to accommodate head 54 of bone anchor 50, and therefore the illustrated embodiment of lower surface 78 has the shape of part of a sphere. Alternatively or additionally, the lower surface of crown member 70 can have one or more other shapes, such as beveled or conical lower surface 78 ′ (FIG. 5 c ). Lower surface 78 can be provided with a friction- or purchase-enhancing surface configuration (e.g. roughening or knurling) for cooperation with head 54 of bone anchor 50. [0038] The illustrated embodiment of crown member 70 also includes a hole 80. Hole 80 is provided so that head 54, and specifically tool-engaging print 60, of bone anchor 50 may be accessed through crown member 70. Crown member 70 is sized and shaped to fit within at least lower portion 31 b of opening 32 and chamber 38 of receiver member 30. The outer dimension of crown member 70 is preferably slightly smaller than the inner dimension of chamber 38 and lower portion 31 b of opening 32 so that crown member 70 is slidably and rotatably movable within chamber 38 and opening 32. Further, in the illustrated embodiment the outer dimension of crown member 70 is larger than the inner dimension of upper opening portion 31 a, so that crown member 70 cannot move into upper opening portion 31 a. [0039] Referring now to FIGS. 6 a - 6 b, there is shown one embodiment of retaining member 90 of the present invention. In the illustrated embodiment, retaining member 90 has the form of a C-shaped spring or clip defining a gap 91. Retaining member 90 includes a top surface 92 and a bottom surface 94. In the illustrated embodiment, retaining member 90 also includes internal surfaces 96, 98, 100 that substantially surround aperture 102. In one specific embodiment, internal surface 96 forms a portion of a sphere of radius substantially identical to the radius of head 54 of bone anchor 50, internal surface 98 is cylindrical, and internal surface 100 is conical and angled outward to allow a greater range of angular positioning of bone anchor 50. In alternative embodiments, there may be single or multiple internal surfaces surrounding aperture 102, which surface(s) may be cylindrical, conical, spherical or of other appropriate configuration. The diameter of aperture 102 is smaller than the diameter of head 54 of bone anchor 50 and the diameter of crown member 70. [0040] Retaining member 90 has an unloaded or natural outer diameter D, i.e. a diameter measured when retaining member 90 is under no contractive (gap-closing) or expansive (gap-opening) stress. Diameter D of retaining member 90, in one embodiment, is less than groove diameter B of groove 41. Further, retaining member 90 has a body width W that is substantially constant throughout retaining member 90. Body width W of retaining member 90 is greater than groove depth A of groove 41. [0041] Generally referring to FIGS. 1, 2 and 7, assembly 20 is assembled as follows: bone anchor 50, crown member 70 and retaining member 90 are inserted into receiver member 30 through bottom end 36, either individually or substantially in one step. For example, crown member 70 may be inserted first, followed by bone anchor 50 with retaining member 90 being inserted last. In one specific embodiment, retaining member 90 is fitted around bone anchor 50 just below head 54 prior to insertion of bone anchor 50 into receiver member 30. Retaining member 90 can be placed around bone anchor 50 by inserting anchorage portion 52 of bone anchor 50 through aperture 102 of retaining member 90 and moving retaining member 90 over anchorage portion 52 toward head 54. Alternatively, gap 91 of retaining member 90 may be pressed against the shank of bone anchor 50 below head 54, so that gap 91 expands to allow placement of bone anchor 50 within aperture 102 of retaining member 90, whereupon retaining member 90 returns to its original size and shape. By placing crown member 70 atop head 54 of bone anchor 50, so that lower surface 78 of crown member 70 adjoins head 54, and fitting bone anchor 50 and retaining member 90 together as described above, simultaneous insertion of bone anchor 50, crown member 70 and retaining member 90 into receiver member 30 can be accomplished. [0042] Crown member 70 remains slideably and rotatably positioned in lower portion 31 b of opening 32 and/or chamber 38 of receiving member 30, and bone anchor 50 remains multi-axially moveable with respect to crown member 70 and receiving member 30. Retaining member 90 is forced upward into lower portion 31 b of opening 32. Retaining member 90 contracts, making gap 91 smaller, as retaining member 90 is forced against chamfered edge 40 b of receiving member 30, until the outer diameter of retaining member 90 is the same as the diameter of lower portion 31 b of opening 32. Retaining member 90 is further advanced along opening 32 and into groove 41 so that retaining member 90 is fitted into at least a portion of groove 41. [0043] As noted above, in one specific embodiment the groove diameter B of groove 41 is smaller than the outer diameter D of retaining member 90 in its natural (i.e., unloaded) condition. Thus, when retaining member 90 is within groove 41, retaining member 90 presses against the walls of groove 41. Alternatively, groove diameter B of groove 41 may be the same size or slightly larger than the natural outer diameter D of retaining member 90. In this case, the lower surface 94 of retaining member 90 rests upon ledge 41 a of groove 41, and thereby holds retaining member 90 within groove 41. Groove depth A of groove 41 is less than the body width W of retaining member 90, so that when retaining member 90 is fitted in groove 41, a portion of retaining member 90 projects into lower opening portion 31 b of opening 32. [0044] When retaining ring 90 is seated within groove 41, bone anchor 50 and crown member 70 are retained within opening 32 of receiver member 30. Crown member 70 is supported by head 54 of bone anchor 50, and head 54 is supported by internal surface 96 of retaining member 90. Retaining member 90 is held by groove 41 and/or ledge 41 a of receiver member 30, and thus bone anchor 50 and crown member 70 will not pass through retaining ring 90 and out of receiver member 30 when retaining ring 90 is within groove 41. [0045] Preferably, assembly 20 is assembled (as described above) prior to use in a surgical procedure. In using the illustrated embodiment of assembly 20, bone anchor 50 of assembly 20 is threaded into an appropriately prepared hole in a bone (not shown). It will be understood that in alternative embodiments of the invention, for example where bone anchor 50 is a bone hook, drilling a hole in bone and threading the anchor therein may not be necessary. Threaded anchoring portion 52 is inserted into the hole, and an appropriate screwing tool is used with tool-engaging print 60 of bone anchor 50 through hole 80 in crown member 70, and bone anchor 50 is threaded into the bone. When bone anchor 50 has been threaded into the bone to the desired depth, receiver member 30 is positioned so that opening 32 forms a desired angle with bone anchor 50, as depicted in FIG. 1. In the illustrated embodiment, the angle e between bone anchor 50 and opening 32 can be any value up to 30 degrees in any direction. It will be seen that the maximum angle of bone anchor 50 relative to opening 32 can be changed in several ways, for example by thinning the portion of bone anchor 50 beneath head 54, by providing steeper angulation of chamfered edge 40 b, and/or by placing groove 41 as close as possible to bottom end of 36 of receiver member 30. [0046] As described above, receiver member 30 may be angled as the surgeon desires with respect to bone anchor 50. An elongated member R such as a spinal rod, connector, or other orthopedic surgical implant is coupled with assembly 20. Elongated member R is placed in channel 45 of receiver member 30, and contacts top surface 72 of crown member 70. A compression member 120, such as a set screw or threaded plug, is threaded into threads 44 of receiver member 30 and down onto elongated member R. Compression member 120, in one embodiment, is a set screw or plug having external threads 122 and a print 124 for applying torque, and in a specific embodiment is a break-off set screw as disclosed in U.S. Pat. No. 5,885,286 to Sherman et al., incorporated herein by reference. In a further embodiment, thread 122 is a reverse angle thread as disclosed in U.S. patent application Ser. No. 09/188,825, filed Nov. 9, 1998, incorporated herein by reference, which is compatible with the reverse angle embodiment of thread 44 of receiver member 30, described above. Alternatively, where receiver member 30 is externally threaded, compression member 120 could be an internally-threaded nut. [0047] As compression member 120 is tightened, elongated member R is forced downward against crown member 70, which pushes crown member 70 down onto head 54 of bone anchor 50. Head 54 is thereby clamped between retaining member 90 and crown member 70. In the embodiment of the invention in which head 54 includes ridges 58, ridges 58 are pressed into lower surface 78 of crown member 70. In this way, bone anchor 50 is locked into the desired angular position with respect to elongated member R and the remainder of assembly 20. [0048] Alternatively, assembly 20 can be assembled during the surgical procedure. Bone anchor 50, with retaining ring 90 already positioned beneath head 54, is inserted into the bone. Crown member 70 is placed atop bone anchor 50 or in opening 32 in receiver member 30. Receiver member 30 is then pressed down onto head 54 of bone anchor 50, forcing retaining ring 90 to contract, to enter opening 32, and to seat in groove 41 as described above. After assembly 20 is assembled in this fashion, an elongated member is loaded into receiver member 30 and locked as previously described. [0049] Preferred materials for the present invention include stainless steel and titanium. It will be recognized that any sturdy biocompatible material may be used to accomplish the osteosynthesis and other orthopedic surgical goals of the present invention. In one specific embodiment, crown member 70 may be made of a material somewhat softer than the material used for ridges 58 of head 54 of bone anchor 50. Such construction will allow ridges 58 to penetrate somewhat more easily into interior surface 78 of crown member 70 during locking of assembly 20, thereby providing a more definite purchase between ridges 58 and crown member 70. In another specific embodiment, crown member 70 may be made of a material somewhat softer than the material used for elongated member R. Such construction will allow upper surface 72 of crown member 70 to deform to the shape of elongated member R during locking of assembly 20, also providing a more secure locking of the implant. [0050] While the invention has been illustrated and described in detail in the drawings and foregoing description, the same is to be considered as illustrative and not restrictive in character, it being understood that only the preferred embodiment has been shown and described and that all changes and modifications that come within the spirit of the invention are desired to be protected.

Summary: A bottom-loading multi-axial bone anchor apparatus is disclosed. The apparatus includes a receiver member, a crown member, a bone anchor and a retaining member. The receiver member defines an upper opening and a lower opening, which may form part of the same opening, a channel, and a groove. The crown member and bone anchor are loaded into the lower opening of the receiver member, and the retaining member fits around the bone anchor and into the groove in the receiver member. The bone anchor is capable of multi-axial positioning with respect to the receiver member. An elongated member is placed in the channel of the receiver member, contacting the crown member, and a compression member is applied via the upper opening. The compression member presses down on the elongated member, which presses down on the crown member and locks the bone anchor between the crown member and the retaining member.

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Write a title and summarize: While Grenada attained a zero-human-rabies case status since 1970, the authors conducted the first study to assess knowledge, attitudes, and practices that may contribute to this status as well as to receive feedback on the rabies control program in Grenada. A cross-sectional survey was conducted in July, 2017 with 996 households on the mainland. A questionnaire was administered to collect information on knowledge of rabies and prevention, vaccination practices, perception of institutional responsibilities for rabies control, and evaluation of the anti-rabies program. Of the 996 households, 617 (62%) had owners of animals that can be infected with rabies and were included in the analysis. Respondents were very aware of rabies as a disease that can infect animals and humans. The rate of participation in the vaccination program was 51. 6% for pets and 38. 0% for livestock. About 40% of respondents were knowledgeable about the extent of protection from the rabies vaccine. Respondents did not demonstrate exceptionally high levels of knowledge about animals that were likely to be infected with rabies, neither the anti-rabies programs that were conducted in Grenada. The three most frequent recommendations made to improve the rabies-control programs were: increase education programs, control the mongoose population, and expand the vaccination period each year. Conducting a comprehensive national rabies education program, expanding the vaccination program, and increasing the rate of animal vaccination are important steps that need to be taken to maintain the current zero-human-case status. Rabies is a zoonotic disease that is endemic in many countries, including in the Caribbean region [1]. The World Health Organization (WHO) reported that the disease kills tens of thousands of people every year [2]. Most deaths occur in developing countries and rural communities [3,4]. Global Alliance for Rabies Control (GARC) estimates approximately 55,000 people worldwide, mostly children, become infected and die annually [5]. Most human cases are as a result of bites from infected dogs. Bat, fox, and mongoose are also common hosts for rabies [6]. Notification of human cases of the disease declined in Latin America and the Caribbean from about 250 cases in 1990 to less than 10 cases in 2010 due to the implementation of dog rabies control programs [4]. Nonetheless, the high mortality rate among animal and human cases across the globe emphasizes the need for active surveillance and prevention programs [2]. Since 1983, the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO) has been providing technical support for countries to eliminate rabies [1]. In April, 2015, the first Regional Conference on Research and Surveillance on Emerging and Vector-Borne Animal Diseases in the Caribbean was held in Guadeloupe with a primary focus on rabies in the Caribbean [6]. Information was presented on the prevalence of rabies and prevention programs in the respective countries. The highest number of rabid animal cases per year was reported in Trinidad (6–10 cases) and Puerto Rico (>20 cases), while 1–5 cases per year were reported in Grenada, Belize, and Guyana, respectively [6]. Surveillance information was not provided for Suriname, Cuba, Haiti, and the Dominican Republic [6]. Review of the literature shows that few studies were published on knowledge, attitudes, and practices (KAP) relating to rabies in Caribbean countries. References were found for several studies in other regions, such as in African countries [7–9] and in the Americas [1,10–12]. In Grenada, the Ministry of Health (MOH) conducts several activities aimed at controlling the spread of rabies in animals and to maintain zero-human-case status. The programs conducted by the Ministry includes anti-rabies vaccination, stray dog control, mongoose trapping, public education, investigating reports of persons bitten by animals, and rabies surveillance. To date, no study was conducted to assess knowledge, attitudes, and practices that may contribute to maintain zero-human-case status or to assess risk factors for animal-human transmission of the disease in Grenada. The objective of this study, therefore, is to assess knowledge, attitudes, and practices in Grenada regarding rabies and to receive feedback from the public about the rabies control program in the MOH. The study was supported by PAHO, which is the sub-regional organization/body of WHO to provide support for countries in Latin America and the Caribbean to eliminate rabies. Based on the objective of the study, information was collected on the public’s response to vaccination programs, animal vaccination coverage, perceptions about institutional responsibilities for anti-rabies programs, evaluation of the Ministry’s anti-rabies programs, and knowledge about rabies and prevention. The findings can be used to guide the MOH in expanding and enhancing its anti-rabies programs to reduce the risk of the disease in animals and humans. Ethical approval for the study was granted by the St. George’s University (SGU) Institutional Review Board (IRB). The study design was a cross-sectional survey, administered to households in all parishes on the mainland in July, 2017. The State of Grenada includes the mainland, Grenada, and two smaller dependency islands, Carriacou and Petite Martinique. The mainland is divided into six parishes: St. Andrew, St. Patrick, St. Mark, St. John, St. George, and St. David. Rabies is endemic on the mainland, but not in Carriacou and Petite Martinique. Therefore, Carriacou and Petite Martinique were excluded from the study. Using a hypothesized frequency of outcome at 50%, confidence limit of 5%, and the total of 33,670 households as determined by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) in Grenada, a minimum sample size of 570 was calculated. Given that a reference was not available of households with animals in Grenada, a total of 1000 households were decided for contact to ensure that at least 570 households were identified for inclusion in the study. A multi-stage cluster sampling strategy was used with Enumeration District (ED) as the primary sampling units. In the first stage of sampling, the ED was randomly selected within the respective parish. Of the 283 EDs on the mainland, a total of 62 ED were randomly selected for inclusion in the study. In the second stage, households were randomly selected within the ED. All households in the ED on the mainland that were randomly selected for inclusion in the study were contacted. At the beginning of the survey, residents were asked whether anyone in the household owned pets and/or livestock (not including fishes, turtles, birds, snakes), which were considered as susceptible to rabies–that is, the animal can be infected with the rabies virus. The questions on KAP regarding rabies were only administered in households with owners of pets and livestock that were susceptible to rabies. The oldest person, above 18 years, who owned animals (s) in the household, was selected for the interview. If the owner was under 18 years, the head of the household, that was 18 years or older, was selected. One survey was administered per household in a face-to-face interview. Written consent was required for participation in the survey. The survey was administered during the first two weeks in July, 2017. The questionnaire included primarily closed-ended questions and a few open-ended questions focusing on four main areas: participation in vaccination programs; perceptions about institutional responsibilities; evaluation of anti-rabies programs; and knowledge about rabies and prevention. A total of 46 questions were included and the responses were filled on the questionnaire by the interviewer. Each participant was assigned a numeric code. Data were entered and analyzed using IBM SPSS software (V. 24). Descriptive and inferential analyses were performed to determine: Chi square analysis was conducted to investigate relationships between demographic characteristics–education, gender, age group—of the respondents and KAP regarding rabies. Results that were statistically significant at alpha 0. 05 are reported. Residents in a total of 996 households responded to the survey of which 617 (61. 9%) households had owners of animals that were susceptible to rabies (animals that can be infected with the virus), distributed as follow: 271 (43. 9%) in St. George, 128 (20. 7%) in St. Andrew, 92 (14. 9%) in St. David, 90 (14. 6%) in St. Patrick, 27 (4. 4%) in St. John, and 9 (1. 5%) in St. Mark. Fig 1 shows the distribution of respondents across the parishes on the mainland in Grenada. There were about equal proportion of males (307,49. 8%) and females (299,48. 5%) in the study. Representation was also fairly consistent across age groups except for a slightly higher percentage of respondents aged 46–55 years. Most of the respondents completed school at the primary (261,42. 3%) and secondary level (179,29. 0%). Table 1 shows the demographic profile of the respondents. The majority of households owned dogs, 323 (52. 3%), while 86 (14. 0%) of the households each had owners with cats, sheep and goats. Of the 617 respondents, 602 (97. 6%) reported they had heard of rabies. School/work and electronic media (radio, television, internet/social media) were the primary sources of learning about rabies. In each case, more than 50% of respondents correctly identified dogs, mongooses, cats, and sheep/goats, as susceptible to rabies while 19 (3. 1%) respondents stated they were not sure which of the animals were susceptible to the disease. Monkey, pig, bat, donkey, and cattle were correctly identified as animals that are susceptible to the disease by 30% or fewer respondents. Males were more likely to correctly identify sheep/goat χ2 (2, N = 617) = 8. 65, p =. 013), pig χ2 (2, N = 617) = 10. 75, p <. 01), monkey χ2 (2, N = 617) = 18. 22, p <. 01), donkey/horse χ2 (2, N = 617) = 10. 24, p <. 01), mongoose χ2 (2, N = 617) = 22. 93, p <. 01), bat χ2 (2, N = 617) = 13. 94, p <. 01), cattle χ2 (2, N = 617) = 31. 43, p <. 01) as animals that were susceptible to the disease. Table 2 shows the number and percentage of respondents that correctly identified animals that are susceptible to rabies. A few respondents, 23 (3. 7%), stated they did not know how rabies was transmitted while 41 (6. 6%) incorrectly stated the disease was transmitted through insect bites, 35 (5. 7%) stated the disease can be transmitted through contact with an infected person, and 7 (1. 1%) stated the disease can be transmitted through sneezing. The majority, 528 (85. 6%), correctly stated that the disease can be transmitted by animal bite. Apart from identifying aggression as a sign of rabies in animals, less than 40% in each case correctly identified any of the other signs. Males were more likely to correctly identify aggression χ2 (2, N = 617) = 13. 27, p =. 02), not afraid of people χ2 (2, N = 617) = 12. 01, p <. 01), making unusual sounds/howling, bawling, bellowing χ2 (2, N = 617) = 6. 188, p =. 05) the signs of rabies in animals. Table 3 shows the number and percentage of respondents that correctly identified signs of rabies in animals. About two-third of respondents, 462 (74. 9%), correctly identified vaccination to prevent transmission of rabies. A small percentage of respondents, 15 (2. 4%), felt that rabies was not preventable, and 72 (12%) did not know of any way to prevent the disease. Respondents also demonstrated little knowledge about the protection that was provided for animals from vaccination. A total of 368 (62. 2%) respondents stated they did not know how for long the vaccine protected the animals. Only 79 (13. 3%) respondents correctly stated 1 year. Fig 2 shows (162) 51. 6% of respondents who ever vaccinated their pets did so in the past year based on the requirement of the MOH for annual vaccination. Respondents who completed education at college and university levels were less likely to ever vaccinate their pet, χ2 (2, N = 515) = 9. 837, p <. 01). The percentage of respondents that vaccinated pets in the last year did not differ by education, gender, or age group. Fig 3 shows that less than half of the respondents reported they had vaccinated livestock at any time. Fig 4 shows that slightly above one-third of respondents reported they vaccinated livestock in the last year. The percentage of respondents that vaccinated livestock in the last year differ by education. Respondents who completed education at college and university levels were less likely to vaccinate livestock at any time compared to respondents who completed education at lower education levels χ2 (2, N = 100) = 10. 07, p <. 01) ). Overall, only 168 (27. 2%) respondents reported they had vaccinated animals in the government’s anti-rabies program. Of 314 respondents who reported vaccinating pets at any time, 261 (83. 1%) reported they vaccinated dogs, 28 (8. 9%) vaccinated cats, and 6 (1. 9%) vaccinated other pets. Of 189 respondents who reported vaccinating livestock at any time, 44 (23. 3%) vaccinating sheep or goat, respectively, 9 (4. 8%) vaccinated pigs, and 18 (9. 5%) vaccinated cattle. Several reasons were given by the respondents (118,62. 2%) for failing to vaccinate livestock; most commonly, respondents did not know about the Government’s anti-rabies vaccination program (48,40. 7%), vaccination took too long (44,37. 3%), transportation problems to bring the animals to the vaccination site (13,11. 0%), and not being at home when the vaccination team was in the area (11,9. 3%). Almost half of the respondents, 281 (45. 5%), also stated that the MOH should remain in charge of the anti-rabies program, 84 (13. 6%) felt that animal owners should control the program, and 47 (7. 6%) respondents felt the Ministry of Agriculture should be in charge. Apart from the vaccination program, generally, less than 20% of respondents knew about the other programs, except for about one third that was also aware of the mongoose trapping and stray dog control programs. Table 4 shows respondents’ awareness of the anti-rabies programs in the MOH. The MOH’s vaccination team was mostly rated as helpful, friendly, informative, and knowledgeable. Table 5 shows the respondents evaluation of the anti-rabies vaccination team in the Ministry of Health. Increasing education programs, controlling the mongoose population, and increasing the number of times that the vaccination program is conducted in each year were the most frequent recommendations made to improve the rabies control program. To disseminate information about the anti-rabies program, respondents most commonly suggested using the MOH’s public address system in communities (82,13. 3%) and radio announcements (72,11. 7%). This is the first study conducted in Grenada to assess KAP regarding rabies and to assess the public’s feedback on the MOH’s anti-rabies programs. While this is the first study to assess the rabies control program in Grenada, the findings from other studies and clinical data indicate that the Grenadian population is at risk for rabies. A study conducted in Grenada from 2011–2013 on rabies prevalence in mongooses that were trapped found that about 0. 5–1. 5% of the animals were infected with the rabies virus [13]. Another study shows that of 173 animals tested between 2001–2016,64 (36. 4%) tested positive for the rabies virus with the highest prevalence in dogs and mongooses [14]. Both dogs and mongooses are likely to come in contact with humans and, therefore, pose a risk of transmission of the virus to humans through bites from infected animals. In 2015, a total of 384 cases were reported to the MOH of persons bitten by dogs (314 cases reported by community clinics, 70 cases reported by hospitals) [15]. As such, this study provides information that can be used to guide the MOH and its partner institutions in enhancing the efforts to control rabies in Grenada. The data can also be used as a baseline for comparison with future studies to determine whether there were changes in knowledge and behaviors relating to rabies. Other countries in the Caribbean region may refer to these findings to identify at-risk populations and to guide in the development of strategies to break the transmission cycle. Prior to conducting this study, the proportion of households with animals that are susceptible to rabies–that is, animals that can be infected with the rabies virus—was not established in Grenada. The findings of this study show that about 62% of households have animals that are susceptible to the disease. This percentage can be used as a reference for the scope that should be covered by the MOH’s anti-rabies program and to inform planning and resource allocation. Additionally, this reference can be used to plan sampling for other studies, such as, follow up studies to monitor changes in KAP among animal owners over time or immediately following interventions. During the time of this study, the government operated laboratory, with capacity to analyze samples from animals, was not functional. However, the services were provided at St. George’s University veterinary laboratory. This restricts capacity to handle post-exposure emergencies, particularly, by animal owners with limited resources to pay for the services at the University. Meanwhile, however, the MOH continues to purchase and administer rabies vaccine to individuals who are believed to be at risk after being bitten by animals. As mentioned above, this measure is not cost-effective. Efforts should be made to repair the laboratory in the shortest time period. In keeping with the Dog Control and Regulation Act of 2002, registration of dogs and vaccination of domestic animals are the two approaches that were instituted by the MOH to manage disease transmission [14]. A study conducted by Keku et al. (2016) on stray dogs in Grenada found that more stray dogs were being captured and that the rate of dog registration and vaccination had decreased significantly between 2008–2012 [16]. As such, the provisions of the Control and Regulation Act of 2002 should be fully exercised, requiring dogs to be registered [14] and, thus, providing an avenue for better coordination and monitoring of the reach of the vaccination program. Free roaming dogs are at high risk for contracting rabies from wild animals, such as mongoose, and can transmit the disease to humans [16]. Controlling the population of free-roaming dogs is, therefore, a critical step in breaking the transmission line. Registration of other animals, such as livestock, should also be considered for ease of mobilization for vaccination and to monitor coverage. The findings show that, generally, respondents were not very knowledgeable about animals that are susceptible to rabies. Dog was identified by the majority of respondents, however, only a few respondents identified bat and there was low responses in identifying most of the other animals, such as pig and cattle. Most respondents also had limited knowledge about the signs of rabies in animals. Males were more likely to correctly identify animals that are susceptible to rabies as well as the signs of rabies in animals. This finding may indicate differences in access to information about rabies or the influence of livelihood practices—males are generally more involved in animal husbandry. In any case, the MOH should conduct an evaluation of education programs to ensure that there is equity in opportunities to learn about the disease. Further studies can also be conducted to investigate factors that may influence knowledge about rabies among males and females. Hunters, farmers, forest rangers, and other groups that may readily come in contact with animals are at higher risk and should be targeted for education programs. Increasing the level of knowledge about signs of rabies can also lead to increased reporting to surveillance. There was also very low participation in the vaccination program, especially by respondents who owned livestock. Apart from the MOH, vaccination is also provided by private veterinarians and at the animal clinic at St. George’s University suggesting options for participating in vaccination programs. Only education was found to be associated with participation in the animal vaccination program. Respondents with higher levels of education–college and above—were also less likely to vaccinate animals as compared to respondents who completed education at lower institutions. This information is critical for the MOH to guide in targeting strategies for rabies education programs. Apart from the vaccination program, there was limited awareness about the other anti-rabies programs in the MOH. The results show that there was little awareness about the other anti-rabies programs conducted by the MOH, including stray dog control, mongoose trapping, public education, investigating reports of persons bitten by animals, and rabies surveillance. This finding is also interesting, given that the majority of respondents also stated that they would call the MOH if they were bitten by an animal or suspected that an animal had rabies. The findings may indicate that, despite calling the MOH, the public was still uncertain about the courses of action that may be taken. In addition, there may be a lack of awareness by some community Health professionals of the existing rabies treatment protocol. The MOH should incorporate information about all the anti-rabies programs in a comprehensive education campaign. This step can also contribute to increase confidence in the MOH’s strategies to address rabies in various ways. While vaccination is encouraged to protect the health of the public, there is no legal mandate for public compliance. As such, to address the low participation in animal vaccination programs, the MOH would need to develop and utilize strategies that are appealing to the public. The current rate of participation in vaccination is not sufficient to achieve herd immunity. The WHO cited that 70% of dogs in an area must be vaccinated to achieve heard immunity [17]. The MOH may consider establishing a committee to develop a strategic plan and oversee interventions to address gaps in knowledge and practices. Among the main reasons suggested for the low vaccination coverage were unawareness of the anti-rabies program and the long time taken to vaccinate animals. Challenge in transporting animals to vaccination sites was also mentioned. As such, the MOH may need to consider the practicality and feasibility of providing vaccination services on farms and other convenient locations. Consideration should also be given to extending the vaccination programs to weekends and evenings to accommodate employees that work during regular hours. A fee-for-service system may be considered to support the anti-rabies program. The MOH can also explore the possibility of utilizing Oral Rabies Vaccine (ORV). ORV was used in the United States from the mid-1990s to date to prevent and control wildlife rabies [18]. Investigations may be conducted to determine how factors such as climatic conditions, animal species, territorial behavior patterns and physiological characteristics of animals may affect the suitability of this initiative for the Grenada setting. In many ways, the findings in this study were similar to results in other countries [5,7, 14]. In studies conducted in 2013 and 2014–2015 on KAP related to rabies in Ethiopia, it was found that while most respondents were aware of rabies, the majority did not have accurate knowledge about how rabies was transmitted, signs of the disease and prevention and treatment measures [19,20]. Dogs and cats were most commonly identified as animals involved in transmission of the virus and the majority of respondents also correctly stated that the disease can be transmitted through bites from animals [19,20]. These findings in Ethiopia reflect similar knowledge of respondents in this study. In another study conducted in Tanzania in 2009–2010 among 5,141 respondents, a similar result to Grenada was also achieved with regard to the low proportion of respondents who vaccinated animals [9]. About half of the respondents, 51. 0%, had vaccinated dogs and several gaps were found in knowledge and practices that were associated with socio-economic status [9]. While most of the respondents in this study indicated that their primary place of learning about rabies was school/work, the findings also show inconsistencies in their knowledge that may reflect on the content of the education programs. Some insights were provided in a study that was conducted in Bangladesh in 2014 with teenage students in two high schools [8]. The researchers found that there was a low level of knowledge about rabies and poor handling of pets by the students and that increased the risk of transmission of the disease [8]. Following a deliberate and well-planned education intervention, the level of knowledge and practices improved. The MOH can benefit from the Bangladesh experience, noting that similar result can be achieved from implementing a planned program in schools in Grenada. There were limitations in conducting this study in Grenada. The representation of male and females in the study were consistent with the census (2011) proportions, however, the overwhelming majority of respondents had completed education at primary and secondary school levels. This inconsistency may be as a result of the time of day that the survey was conducted. People with lower education may likely be unemployed and at home during regular working hours. For studies in the future, one approach that can be taken to reduce this issue is to designate specific hours for data collection. Some questions need to be revised to be more specific and to improve the quality of the data. For example, the option of “school/work” should be separated to give a clearer indication of the specific place where the respondent first learned about rabies. Prior to use in another study, the questionnaire should be reviewed and compared with the tools used in other countries. The questionnaire can then be refined and used as a standard tool across the region allowing for comparability and collation of findings.

Title: Knowledge, attitudes, and practices regarding rabies in Grenada Summary: About 62% of households in Grenada owned animals that are susceptible to rabies. Pets, particularly dogs, were more commonly owned than livestock. Males were more likely to correctly identify animals that are susceptible to rabies. The level of participation in the animal vaccination program was low, especially among owners of livestock. A lack of knowledge about the free anti-rabies vaccination service and the length of time that it took to vaccinate animals were the most common problems associated with the low vaccination rate. Increasing education programs, controlling the mongoose population, and increasing the vaccination times per year were the most frequent recommendations to improve the Ministry of Health rabies control programs. The anti-rabies program remains a critical step to maintain the current zero-human-case status in Grenada. There is a need to also expand the vaccination program and increase the rate of animal vaccination.

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Summarize: By. Matt Rocheleau. The NYPD forced a popular store to shut down on Wednesday after the release of a highly-anticipated new shoe caused a 'near riot' among several hundred'sneakerheads'. Witnesses told the New York Post that on Wednesday night some members of the young crowd outside Supreme New York grew anxious ahead of the next morning's planned release of the. $250 Supreme/Nike Air Foamposite sneakers, rushed the closed establishment and were Maced by police. 'Some belligerent guy in the front of the line tried to bum-rush the. door,' Bradley James, 20, of Queens told the Post. 'He started yelling and then. somebody else started yelling and before you knew it, the crowd was. rushing toward the store.' Scroll down for video. Police say a large crowd gathered outside a SoHo store Wednesday for the release of a pricey, highly-anticipated new sneaker. Police are seen Thursday at the Supreme store on Lafayette Street where NYPD shut down a sale of the new "Supreme Nike Air Foamposites" due to safety concerns. Jesus Montero, 18, of Bushwick, Brooklyn told the newspaper: 'It was a war zone. after that because the police broke out the Mace and the batons and we. all got trampled, then thrown out.' However,. police told multiple media outlets that no arrests were made, no. injuries were reported and the crowd was peaceful overall. Photos and videos posted online showed a sea of people outside the store clogging much of the surrounding block on Wednesday. That evening, the business hung a sign in its window calling off in-store sales of the sneaker and also posted a statement online. 'Due to concern for public safety, NYPD. has forced us to not sell the Supreme/Nike Foamposites and accompanying. clothing in our New York Store,' the statement said. 'These items will be available on. supremenewyork.com tomorrow (Thursday) at 11am EST.' Police dispersed the crowd Wednesday, though another large line formed Thursday of people who apparently did not know the sneaker's sales had been cancelled or who perhaps hoped the store would sell the shoes anyway, according to MyFoxNy.com. The line had begun to form on Monday as dozens of people camped out hoping to be one of the first to get their hands on the new kicks. As of Thursday afternoon, the shoe retailer's website said it was sold out of the sneaker. On eBay, pairs of the new sneaker were listed for several hundred dollars above the retail price. Most were listed in the $850 to $950 range, while one set was listed for $2,000. Supreme teamed up with Nike to produce a new version of the Nike Air Foamposite 1, which was originally launched in 1997 as a signature model for Penny Hardaway. Abe Abdurimov sleeps in his portable chair after spending the night on the sidewalk hoping to buy the new sneaker on Thursday

Summary: New York Police shut down the Supreme New York shoe store Wednesday night after a large crowd gathered and reportedly became unruly. Police said no arrests were made, no. injuries were reported and the crowd was peaceful overall. The'sneakerheads' were awaiting the scheduled Thursday morning release of the $250 Supreme/Nike Air Formaposite shoes. Pairs are now listed for as high as $2,000 on eBay.

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Summarize: By. Emma Innes. Life expectancies across the are increasing, with Iceland and Japan boasting the oldest citizens. Worldwide, a girl born in 2012 can expect to live to 73 and a boy can expect to live to 68, according to a new report from the World Health Organisation. This is six years longer than the average global life expectancy for a child born in 1990. Across the globe, life expectancies are increasing with the highest male life expectancy being in Iceland - 81 - and the highest female life expectancy being in Japan - 87. At the top end of the scale, Japanese women have the highest female life expectancy in the world at 87, and Iceland has the highest male life expectancy – 81. The next highest female life expectancies were in Spain (85), Switzerland (85), Singapore (85) and Italy (also 85). After Iceland, the highest male life expectancies were found in Switzerland (80), Australia (80), Israel (80), and Singapore (also 80). In the UK, life expectancy for a boy born in 2012 is 79 and for a girl it is 83. In the U.S. a boy born in 2012 can expect to live to 76 and a girl can expect to reach 81. If all high-income countries are taken together, the average male life expectancy is now 76. This is 16 years more than for a boy born in a low-income country, where life expectancy is now 60. Globally, the leading causes of lost years of life due to premature death are heart disease, lower respiratory infections - such as pneumonia - and strokes. Worldwide, a girl born in 2012 can expect to live to 73 and a boy can expect to live to 68 but life expectancies in low-income countries remain much lower than those in high-income countries. For a girl born in 2012 in a high-income country, life expectancy is 82. For a girl born in a low-income country, the figure is just 63. ‘In high-income countries, much of the gain in life expectancy is due to success in tackling non-communicable diseases [i.e. chronic diseases such as heart disease and diabetes],’ said Dr Ties Boerma, Director of the Department of Health Statistics and Information Systems at WHO. ‘Fewer men and women are dying before they get to their 60th birthday from heart disease and stroke. ‘Richer countries have become better at monitoring and managing high blood pressure for example.’ Declining tobacco use is also a key factor in helping people live longer in several countries. However, the ‘World Health Statistics 2014’ report shows that the greatest progress was made in low-income countries where average life expectancy increased by nine years between 1990 and 2012. In many low-income countries female life expectancy is still held back by high rates of death during childbirth. And the greatest increases in life expectancy were in Liberia (from 42 years in 1990 to 62 years in 2012), Ethiopia (from 45 to 64 years), the Maldives (58 to 77 years), Cambodia (54 to 72 years), Timor-Leste (50 to 66 years) and Rwanda (48 to 65 years). ‘An important reason why global life expectancy has improved so much is that fewer children are dying before their fifth birthday,’ says Dr Margaret Chan, WHO Director-General. ‘But there is still a major rich-poor divide - people in high-income countries continue to have a much better chance of living longer than people in low-income countries.’ The figures also revealed that across the world women live longer than men. In high-income countries they live for an average of six years longer, and in low-income countries they live for an average of three years longer. At the bottom end of the scale, life expectancy for both men and women is still less than 55 years in nine sub-Saharan African countries – Angola, Central African Republic, Chad, Côte d’Ivoire, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Lesotho, Mozambique, Nigeria and Sierra Leone. One of the reasons that life expectancies have increased in low-income countries is that infant mortality rates fell significantly between 1990 and 2012. The WHO figures also revealed that the top three causes of years of life lost due to premature death are coronary heart disease, lower respiratory infections – such as pneumonia – and strokes. However, globally, the greatest causes of death vary. In 22 African countries 70 per cent or more of the years of life lost due to premature death are caused by infectious diseases. In contrast, in 47 mostly high-income countries, non-communicable diseases and injuries cause more than 90 per cent of years lost. These are diseases that cannot be passed between people, such as cancer and heart disease. More than 100 countries are transitioning rapidly towards a greater proportion of deaths from non-communicable diseases and injuries. Most deaths in children under the age of five occur as a result of premature birth. The second highest cause of infant mortality is pneumonia

Summary: A girl born in 2012 can expect to live to 73, a boy can expect to live to 68. This is six years longer than the life expectancy for a child born in 1990. Japanese women have the highest female life expectancy in the world at 87. Iceland has the highest male life expectancy - the average man lives to 81. UK: Life expectancy for a boy born in 2012 is 79, a girl 83. U.S.: A boy born in 2012 can expect to live to 76, a girl 81.

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Summarize: Many of us splash out on our loved ones at this time of year and Emmie Stevens is no different, lavishing gifts, treats and new clothes... on her 12 dogs. The self-confessed ‘mad dog lady’ will spend Christmas Day opening 12 stockings full of gifts for her ‘fur babies’. The pets will sit down to a dinner of turkey and all the trimmings, pull crackers, wear fancy dress outfits and even go for rides in a doggy sleigh. Scroll down for video. Bark the herald angels sing: Nelly, Muffin, Bambi, Pixi, Purdy, Minnie, Doodles, Pomie (front), Dolly, Sparkle, Cabbie and Bailey. A feast for my pedigree chums: Emmie Stevens serves up the festive treats to four of her pets on their own table - complete with decorations. Who got the wishbone? Pomie the pomeranian (left) is ready for dinner and Minnie the chihuahua cross takes a photo dressed as Mrs Claus. A one dog open sleigh: Pomie the Pomeranian dressed as Rudolph pulls Minnie, dressed as Father Christmas, in their own doggy sleigh. Tug of war: Two of Miss Stevens' dogs, Staffies Bailey and Nelly, pull a Christmas cracker while wearing red and white striped jumpers. Miss Stevens, 26, plans to spend £1,000 on her dogs this Christmas – but just £200 on her boyfriend Barry Stears, 32, saying that the dogs come first. This, after all, is a woman who in the past five years has spent £40,000 on her dogs, including manicures, fur dyes, perfume, prams and jewellery. She said yesterday: ‘You spoil your children, don’t you? My dogs are basically my babies and everyone spends a lot on their children at Christmas. ‘It might be a waste in some people’s eyes but people drink excessively over Christmas and that’s a waste in my opinion.’ The dogs that share her home in Croydon, South London, are Staffordshires Nelly and Bailey; poodles Purdy, Dolly and Pixi; jackadoodles (half Jack Russell, half poodle) Muffin, Bambi, Sparkle and Doodles; Chinese crested Cabbie; chihuahua cross Minnie; and a pomeranian called Pomie. Miss Stevens, who owns a dog grooming business, will spend £550 on presents, £150 on decorations, £100 on food and £200 on clothes. Spoiled: Miss Stevens will spend £800 more on her dogs than on her boyfriend, 32-year-old Barry Stears (pictured), this Christmas. Perfect gift: Bambi the jackadoodle (half Jack Russell, half poodle) carries a prettily-wrapped present and Bailey dresses up as a snowman. What’s this? Chihuahua cross Minnie investigates a present as Bailey and Bambi take a look at the stockings - made specially for them. Festive fun: Dolly the poodle (left) wears Rudolph slippers and antlers while Pomie opts for a touch of sparkle as she dresses up as Mrs Claus. A dog's dinner: The pets will sit down to a dinner of turkey and all the trimmings on Christmas Day. Above, a few of them enjoy a trial run. ‘I love no one more than my dogs,’ she said. ‘They have their own stockings full of presents and they’ll have their own dinners. ‘My plan is to dress Bailey as a reindeer and he can pull the sleigh with the little dogs in the back. I’m going to dress the dogs as Mr and Mrs Claus, a snowman, reindeers, and a Christmas pudding. ‘I have a huge bag stuffed full of dog presents like toys and balls and tons of treats and bones – and some necklaces for the little dogs.’ Despite being human, boyfriend Barry won’t get off lightly. ‘I’ll be dressing up as Mrs Claus and Barry will be Santa,’ said Miss Stevens. ‘I love getting dressed up to match my dogs and Barry does it to make me happy.’ Dress up: Chinese crested Cabbie (left) has a red bow to complete her Mrs Claus costume. Right, Doodles wears a Christmas jumper. Feast: Miss Stevens' dogs tuck into their meal while wearing matching jumpers. They will also have doggie crackers to pull on Christmas Day. Santa's little helpers: Muffin the jackadoodle dressed as an elf (left) and Dolly the poodle poses for a photo with snowflake-shaped glasses. Food fight: Miss Stevens, who owns a dog grooming business, will spend £550 on presents and £100 on food for her beloved pets this year. Wrapped up: Nelly the staffordshire (left) looks cute as an elf, while Pixi the poodle wears Christmas booties that match her festive jumper. Her living room will be turned into a canine grotto. She said: ‘I’ve bought a 6ft tree and I’ll decorate it all with doggy stuff. I have personalised my own decorative bones with their names to hang from the tree and I’ll lay the table for them to enjoy their Christmas meal. 'They’ll all have a bit of turkey, a roast potato, a Yorkshire pudding, a pig in blanket, and a bit of veg. For dessert I’m going to get some vanilla ice cream and stick a little bone in each bowl.’ Miss Stevens, who said her love of dogs began when she was 19 and rescued Doodles from a puppy farm, added: ‘They make me so happy, I just can’t help but spoil them.’

Summary: Emmie Stevens, 26, is a self-confessed'mad dog lady' who lives with her 12 dogs in her south London home. In the past five years she has spent £40,000 on the dogs, including manicures, fur dyes, perfume and prams. She will spend £1,000 on them this Christmas - but just £200 on her boyfriend, 32-year-old Barry Stears. The pets will sit down to a dinner of turkey and all the trimmings, pull crackers and go for rides in a doggy sleigh.

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